SB2640enr 98TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

SB2640 Enrolled LRB098 15113 HLH 50085 b

AN ACT concerning State government.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2014 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 97-1145 through 98-589 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Section 4.34 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.34)

Sec. 4.34. Acts and Section Act repealed on January 1, 2024. The following Acts and Section of an Act are is repealed on January 1, 2024:

The Electrologist Licensing Act.

The Illinois Certified Shorthand Reporters Act of 1984.

The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act.

The Illinois Public Accounting Act.

The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act.

Section 2.5 of the Illinois Plumbing License Law.

The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004.

(Source: P.A. 98-140, eff. 12-31-13; 98-253, eff. 8-9-13; 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; 98-339, eff. 12-31-13; 98-363, eff. 8-16-13; 98-364, eff. 12-31-13; 98-445, eff. 12-31-13; revised 9-10-13.)

Section 10. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)

Sec. 2. Open meetings.

(a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and closed in accordance with Section 2a.

(b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject included within an enumerated exception.

(c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to consider the following subjects:

(1) The appointment, employment, compensation, discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific employees of the public body or legal counsel for the public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint lodged against an employee of the public body or against legal counsel for the public body to determine its validity.

(2) Collective negotiating matters between the public body and its employees or their representatives, or deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more classes of employees.

(3) The selection of a person to fill a public office, as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public office, when the public body is given power to appoint under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public body is given power to remove the occupant under law or ordinance.

(4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided that the body prepares and makes available for public inspection a written decision setting forth its determinative reasoning.

(5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose of discussing whether a particular parcel should be acquired.

(6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of property owned by the public body.

(7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or investment contracts. This exception shall not apply to the investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.

(8) Security procedures and the use of personnel and equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees, students, staff, the public, or public property.

(9) Student disciplinary cases.

(10) The placement of individual students in special education programs and other matters relating to individual students.

(11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or when the public body finds that an action is probable or imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed meeting.

(12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of claims as provided in the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the disposition of a claim or potential claim might be prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications from or with respect to any insurer of the public body or any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool of which the public body is a member.

(13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing practices and creating a commission or administrative agency for their enforcement.

(14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.

(15) Professional ethics or performance when considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the advisory body's field of competence.

(16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of a statewide association of which the public body is a member.

(17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or formal peer review of physicians or other health care professionals for a hospital, or other institution providing medical care, that is operated by the public body.

(18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner Review Board.

(19) Review or discussion of applications received under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Act.

(20) The classification and discussion of matters classified as confidential or continued confidential by the State Government Suggestion Award Board.

(21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as mandated by Section 2.06.

(22) Deliberations for decisions of the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.

(23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves (i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or conclusions of load forecast studies.

(24) Meetings of a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(27) (Blank).

(28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public Aid Code.

(29) Meetings between internal or external auditors and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards of the United States of America.

(30) Those meetings or portions of meetings of an at-risk adult fatality review team or the Illinois At-Risk Adult Fatality Review Team Advisory Council during which a review of the death of an eligible adult in which abuse or neglect is suspected, alleged, or substantiated is conducted pursuant to Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(31) (30) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose relationship with the public body constitutes an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules, and who is not an independent contractor.

"Public office" means a position created by or under the Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign power of this State. The term "public office" shall include members of the public body, but it shall not include organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to assist the body in the conduct of its business.

"Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make determinations based thereon, but does not include local electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition challenges.

(e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of the nature of the matter being considered and other information that will inform the public of the business being conducted.

(Source: P.A. 97-318, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-452, eff. 8-19-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-876, eff. 8-1-12; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 7-23-13.)

Section 15. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Sections 3.2 and 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/3.2)

Sec. 3.2. Recurrent requesters.

(a) Notwithstanding Nothwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, a public body shall respond to a request from a recurrent requester, as defined in subsection (g) of Section 2, within 21 business days after receipt. The response shall (i) provide to the requester an estimate of the time required by the public body to provide the records requested and an estimate of the fees to be charged, which the public body may require the person to pay in full before copying the requested documents, (ii) deny the request pursuant to one or more of the exemptions set out in this Act, (iii) notify the requester that the request is unduly burdensome and extend an opportunity to the requester to attempt to reduce the request to manageable proportions, or (iv) provide the records requested.

(b) Within 5 business days after receiving a request from a recurrent requester, as defined in subsection (g) of Section 2, the public body shall notify the requester (i) that the public body is treating the request as a request under subsection (g) of Section 2, (ii) of the reasons why the public body is treating the request as a request under subsection (g) of Section 2, and (iii) that the public body will send an initial response within 21 business days after receipt in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section. The public body shall also notify the requester of the proposed responses that can be asserted pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) Unless the records are exempt from disclosure, a public body shall comply with a request within a reasonable period considering the size and complexity of the request.

(Source: P.A. 97-579, eff. 8-26-11; revised 9-4-13.)

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory Exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Records Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Accountability and Portability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of significant abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Department of Public Health's Health Care Worker Registry.

(z) Records and information provided to an at-risk adult fatality review team or the Illinois At-Risk Adult Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-80, eff. 7-5-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-342, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-976, eff. 1-1-13; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 7-23-13.)

Section 20. The State Employee Indemnification Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(5 ILCS 350/1) (from Ch. 127, par. 1301)

Sec. 1. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act:

(a) The term "State" means the State of Illinois, the General Assembly, the court, or any State office, department, division, bureau, board, commission, or committee, the governing boards of the public institutions of higher education created by the State, the Illinois National Guard, the Comprehensive Health Insurance Board, any poison control center designated under the Poison Control System Act that receives State funding, or any other agency or instrumentality of the State. It does not mean any local public entity as that term is defined in Section 1-206 of the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act or a pension fund.

(b) The term "employee" means any present or former elected or appointed officer, trustee or employee of the State, or of a pension fund, any present or former commissioner or employee of the Executive Ethics Commission or of the Legislative Ethics Commission, any present or former Executive, Legislative, or Auditor General's Inspector General, any present or former employee of an Office of an Executive, Legislative, or Auditor General's Inspector General, any present or former member of the Illinois National Guard while on active duty, individuals or organizations who contract with the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Comprehensive Health Insurance Board, or the Department of Veterans' Affairs to provide services, individuals or organizations who contract with the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) to provide services including but not limited to treatment and other services for sexually violent persons, individuals or organizations who contract with the Department of Military Affairs for youth programs, individuals or organizations who contract to perform carnival and amusement ride safety inspections for the Department of Labor, individual representatives of or designated organizations authorized to represent the Office of State Long-Term Ombudsman for the Department on Aging, individual representatives of or organizations designated by the Department on Aging in the performance of their duties as adult protective services agencies or regional administrative agencies under the Adult Protective Services Act, individuals or organizations appointed as members of a review team or the Advisory Council under the Adult Protective Services Act, individuals or organizations who perform volunteer services for the State where such volunteer relationship is reduced to writing, individuals who serve on any public entity (whether created by law or administrative action) described in paragraph (a) of this Section, individuals or not for profit organizations who, either as volunteers, where such volunteer relationship is reduced to writing, or pursuant to contract, furnish professional advice or consultation to any agency or instrumentality of the State, individuals who serve as foster parents for the Department of Children and Family Services when caring for a Department ward, individuals who serve as members of an independent team of experts under Brian's Law, and individuals who serve as arbitrators pursuant to Part 10A of Article II of the Code of Civil Procedure and the rules of the Supreme Court implementing Part 10A, each as now or hereafter amended, but does not mean an independent contractor except as provided in this Section. The term includes an individual appointed as an inspector by the Director of State Police when performing duties within the scope of the activities of a Metropolitan Enforcement Group or a law enforcement organization established under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act. An individual who renders professional advice and consultation to the State through an organization which qualifies as an "employee" under the Act is also an employee. The term includes the estate or personal representative of an employee.

(c) The term "pension fund" means a retirement system or pension fund created under the Illinois Pension Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-83, eff. 7-15-13; revised 8-9-13.)

Section 25. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 2.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/2.5)

Sec. 2.5. Application to Regional Transportation Authority Board members. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, this Act does not apply to any member of the Regional Transportation Authority Board who first becomes a member of that Board on or after July 23, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-108) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly with respect to service of that Board.

(Source: P.A. 98-108, eff. 7-23-13; revised 9-6-13.)

(5 ILCS 375/2.9)

Sec. 2.9 2.5. State healthcare purchasing. On and after the date 6 months after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-488) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, as provided in the Executive Order 1 (2012) Implementation Act, all of the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under this Act that were transferred from the Department of Central Management Services to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services by Executive Order 3 (2005) are transferred back to the Department.

(Source: P.A. 98-488, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-6-13.)

Section 30. The State Commemorative Dates Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 175 as follows:

(5 ILCS 490/175)

Sec. 175. Mother Mary Ann Bickerdyke Day. The second Wednesday in May of each year is designated as Mother Mary Ann Bickerdyke Day, to be observed throughout the State as a day set apart to honor Mother Mary Ann Bickerdyke of Galesburg, military nurses, and the contribution of nurses to the State of Illinois and the United States of America.

(Source: P.A. 98-141, eff. 8-2-13.)

(5 ILCS 490/180)

Sec. 180 175. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) Month. The month of November in each year is designated as Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) Month to be observed throughout the State as a month for the people of Illinois to support efforts to decrease the prevalence of COPD, develop better treatments, and work toward an eventual cure through increased research, treatment, and prevention.

(Source: P.A. 98-220, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-9-13.)

(5 ILCS 490/185)

Sec. 185 175. Eat Local, Buy Illinois Products Day. The first Saturday of each month is designated as Eat Local, Buy Illinois Products Day to promote local food initiatives and , Illinois agribusiness, and to encourage residents to re-invest in the local economy. The Department of Agriculture's Illinois Product Logo Program shall assist in increasing awareness and sales of Illinois food and agribusiness products.

(Source: P.A. 98-341, eff. 8-13-13; revised 9-9-13.)

Section 35. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 1A-16.5, 4-10, 5-9, 10-4, 19-4, 24A-15.1, 24A-16, and 28-3 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/1A-16.5)

Sec. 1A-16.5. Online voter registration.

(a) The State Board of Elections shall establish and maintain a system for online voter registration that permits a person to apply to register to vote or to update his or her existing voter registration. In accordance with technical specifications provided by the State Board of Elections, each election authority shall maintain a voter registration system capable of receiving and processing voter registration application information, including electronic signatures, from the online voter registration system established by the State Board of Elections.

(b) The online voter registration system shall employ security measures to ensure the accuracy and integrity of voter registration applications submitted electronically pursuant to this Section.

(c) The Board may receive voter registration information provided by applicants using the State Board of Elections' website, may cross reference that information with data or information contained in the Secretary of State's database in order to match the information submitted by applicants, and may receive from the Secretary of State the applicant's digitized signature upon a successful match of that applicant's information with that contained in the Secretary of State's database.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person who is qualified to register to vote and who has an authentic Illinois driver's license or State identification card issued by the Secretary of State may submit an application to register to vote electronically on a website maintained by the State Board of Elections.

(e) An online voter registration application shall contain all of the information that is required for a paper application as provided in Section 1A-16 of this Code, except that the applicant shall be required to provide:

(1) the applicant's full Illinois driver's license or State identification card number;

(2) the last 4 digits of the applicant's social security number; and

(3) the date the Illinois driver's license or State identification card was issued.

(f) For an applicant's registration or change in registration to be accepted, the applicant shall mark the box associated with the following statement included as part of the online voter registration application:

"By clicking on the box below, I swear or affirm all of the following:

(1) I am the person whose name and identifying information is provided on this form, and I desire to register to vote in the State of Illinois.

(2) All the information I have provided on this form is true and correct as of the date I am submitting this form.

(3) I authorize the Secretary of State to transmit to the State Board of Elections my signature that is on file with the Secretary of State and understand that such signature will be used by my local election authority on this online voter registration application for admission as an elector as if I had signed this form personally.".

(g) Immediately upon receiving a completed online voter registration application, the online voter registration system shall send, by electronic mail, a confirmation notice that the application has been received. Within 48 hours of receiving such an application, the online voter registration system shall send by electronic mail, a notice informing the applicant of whether the following information has been matched with the Secretary of State database:

(1) that the applicant has an authentic Illinois driver's license or State identification card issued by the Secretary of State and that the driver's license or State identification number provided by the applicant matches the driver's license or State identification card number for that person on file with the Secretary of State;

(2) that the date of issuance of the Illinois driver's license or State identification card listed on the application matches the date of issuance of that card for that person on file with the Secretary of State;

(3) that the date of birth provided by the applicant matches the date of birth for that person on file with the Secretary of State; and

(4) that the last 4 digits of the applicant's social security number matches the last 4 four digits for that person on file with the Secretary of State.

(h) If the information provided by the applicant matches the information on the Secretary of State's databases for any driver's license and State identification card holder and is matched as provided in subsection (g) above, the online voter registration system shall:

(1) retrieve from the Secretary of State's database files an electronic copy of the applicant's signature from his or her Illinois driver's license or State identification card and such signature shall be deemed to be the applicant's signature on his or her online voter registration application;

(2) within 2 days of receiving the application, forward to the county clerk or board of election commissioners having jurisdiction over the applicant's voter registration: (i) the application, along with the applicant's relevant data that can be directly loaded into the jurisdiction's voter registration system and (ii) a copy of the applicant's electronic signature and a certification from the State Board of Elections that the applicant's driver's license or State identification card number, driver's license or State identification card date of issuance, and date of birth and social security information have been successfully matched.

(i) Upon receipt of the online voter registration application, the county clerk or board of election commissioners having jurisdiction over the applicant's voter registration shall promptly search its voter registration database to determine whether the applicant is already registered to vote at the address on the application and whether the new registration would create a duplicate registration. If the applicant is already registered to vote at the address on the application, the clerk or board, as the case may be, shall send the applicant by first class mail, and electronic mail if the applicant has provided an electronic mail address on the original voter registration form for that address, a disposition notice as otherwise required by law informing the applicant that he or she is already registered to vote at such address. If the applicant is not already registered to vote at the address on the application and the applicant is otherwise eligible to register to vote, the clerk or board, as the case may be, shall:

(1) enter the name and address of the applicant on the list of registered voters in the jurisdiction; and

(2) send by mail, and electronic mail if the applicant has provided an electronic mail address on the voter registration form, a disposition notice to the applicant as otherwise provided by law setting forth the applicant's name and address as it appears on the application and stating that the person is registered to vote.

(j) An electronic signature of the person submitting a duplicate registration application or a change of address form that is retrieved and imported from the Secretary of State's driver's license or State identification card database as provided herein may, in the discretion of the clerk or board, be substituted for and replace any existing signature for that individual in the voter registration database of the county clerk or board of election commissioners.

(k) Any new registration or change of address submitted electronically as provided in this Section shall become effective as of the date it is received by the county clerk or board of election commissioners having jurisdiction over said registration. Disposition notices prescribed in this Section shall be sent within 5 business days of receipt of the online application or change of address by the county clerk or board of election commissioners.

(l) All provisions of this Code governing voter registration and applicable thereto and not inconsistent with this Section shall apply to online voter registration under this Section. All applications submitted on a website maintained by the State Board of Elections shall be deemed timely filed if they are submitted no later than 11:59 p.m. on the final day for voter registration prior to an election. After the registration period for an upcoming election has ended and until the 2nd day following such election, the web page containing the online voter registration form on the State Board of Elections website shall inform users of the procedure for grace period voting.

(m) The State Board of Elections shall maintain a list of the name, street address, e-mail address, and likely precinct, ward, township, and district numbers, as the case may be, of people who apply to vote online through the voter registration system and those names and that information shall be stored in an electronic format on its website, arranged by county and accessible to State and local political committees.

(n) The Illinois State Board of Elections shall submit a report to the General Assembly and the Governor by January 31, 2014 detailing the progress made to implement the online voter registration system described in this Section.

(o) The online voter registration system provided for in this Section shall be fully operational by July 1, 2014.

(Source: P.A. 98-115, eff. 7-29-13; revised 9-4-13.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-10) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-10)

Sec. 4-10. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered, unless he applies in person to a registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the registration officers or a deputy registration officer, county clerk, or clerk in the office of the county clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your name, place of residence, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The registration officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of any precinct registration and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified he shall forthwith notify such applicant in writing to appear before the county clerk to complete his registration. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as incomplete if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct and whose registration card is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the county clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, ...., did on (insert date) make application to the board of registry of the .... precinct of the township of .... (or to the county clerk of .... county) and that said board or clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct. That I reside in said precinct, that I intend to reside in said precinct, and am a duly qualified voter of said precinct and am entitled to be registered to vote in said precinct at the next election.

(Signature of applicant) ............................."

All such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or to his duly authorized representative by the applicant, in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day after the days on which the 1969 and 1970 precinct re-registrations are held but not on any day within 27 days preceding the ensuing general election and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 4-7 all such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or his duly authorized representative by the applicant in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day prior to 27 days preceding the ensuing general election. Such application shall be heard by the county clerk or his duly authorized representative at the time the application is presented. If the applicant for registration has registered with the county clerk, such application may be presented to and heard by the county clerk or by his duly authorized representative upon the dates specified above or at any time prior thereto designated by the county clerk.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article, or by simultaneous application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Electronic mail address, if the registrant has provided this information.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of ...........)

)ss County of ..........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 4-8 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-115, eff. 10-1-13; revised 8-9-13.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-9) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-9)

Sec. 5-9. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered unless he applies in person to registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the Deputy Registrars, the Judge of Registration, or an Officer of Registration, County Clerk, or clerk in the office of the County Clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your place of residence, name, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The Registration Officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of precinct registration, and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified, he shall forthwith in writing notify such applicant to appear before the County Clerk to furnish further proof of his qualifications. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "Incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as "incomplete" if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct in such township, city, village or incorporated town and whose registration is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the County Clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, .........., did on (insert date) make application to the Board of Registry of the ........ precinct of ........ ward of the City of .... or of the ......... District ......... Town of .......... (or to the County Clerk of .............) and ............ County; that said Board or Clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct, that I reside in said precinct (or that I intend to reside in said precinct), am a duly qualified voter and entitled to vote in said precinct at the next election.

...........................

(Signature of Applicant)"

All such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant, in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and five o'clock p.m., on Monday and Tuesday of the third week subsequent to the weeks in which the 1961 and 1962 precinct re-registrations are to be held, and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 5-17 of this Article, all such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and nine o'clock p.m. on Monday and Tuesday of the third week prior to the date on which such election is to be held.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article or by simultaneous application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Electronic mail address, if the registrant has provided this information.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of .........)

)ss County of ........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois for 6 months and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 5-7 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-115, eff. 10-1-13; revised 8-9-13.)

(10 ILCS 5/10-4) (from Ch. 46, par. 10-4)

Sec. 10-4. Form of petition for nomination. All petitions for nomination under this Article 10 for candidates for public office in this State, shall in addition to other requirements provided by law, be as follows: Such petitions shall consist of sheets of uniform size and each sheet shall contain, above the space for signature, an appropriate heading, giving the information as to name of candidate or candidates in whose behalf such petition is signed; the office; the party; place of residence; and such other information or wording as required to make same valid, and the heading of each sheet shall be the same. Such petition shall be signed by the qualified voters in their own proper persons only, and opposite the signature of each signer his residence address shall be written or printed. The residence address required to be written or printed opposite each qualified primary elector's name shall include the street address or rural route number of the signer, as the case may be, as well as the signer's county, and city, village or town, and state. However, the county or city, village or town, and state of residence of such electors may be printed on the petition forms where all of the such electors signing the petition reside in the same county or city, village or town, and state. Standard abbreviations may be used in writing the residence address, including street number, if any. No signature shall be valid or be counted in considering the validity or sufficiency of such petition unless the requirements of this Section are complied with. At the bottom of each sheet of such petition shall be added a circulator's statement, signed by a person 18 years of age or older who is a citizen of the United States; stating the street address or rural route number, as the case may be, as well as the county, city, village or town, and state; certifying that the signatures on that sheet of the petition were signed in his or her presence; certifying that the signatures are genuine; and either (1) indicating the dates on which that sheet was circulated, or (2) indicating the first and last dates on which the sheet was circulated, or (3) certifying that none of the signatures on the sheet were signed more than 90 days preceding the last day for the filing of the petition; and certifying that to the best of his knowledge and belief the persons so signing were at the time of signing the petition duly registered voters under Articles 4, 5 or 6 of the Code of the political subdivision or district for which the candidate or candidates shall be nominated, and certifying that their respective residences are correctly stated therein. Such statement shall be sworn to before some officer authorized to administer oaths in this State. No petition sheet shall be circulated more than 90 days preceding the last day provided in Section 10-6 for the filing of such petition. Such sheets, before being presented to the electoral board or filed with the proper officer of the electoral district or division of the state or municipality, as the case may be, shall be neatly fastened together in book form, by placing the sheets in a pile and fastening them together at one edge in a secure and suitable manner, and the sheets shall then be numbered consecutively. The sheets shall not be fastened by pasting them together end to end, so as to form a continuous strip or roll. All petition sheets which are filed with the proper local election officials, election authorities or the State Board of Elections shall be the original sheets which have been signed by the voters and by the circulator, and not photocopies or duplicates of such sheets. A petition, when presented or filed, shall not be withdrawn, altered, or added to, and no signature shall be revoked except by revocation in writing presented or filed with the officers or officer with whom the petition is required to be presented or filed, and before the presentment or filing of such petition. Whoever forges any name of a signer upon any petition shall be deemed guilty of a forgery, and on conviction thereof, shall be punished accordingly. The word "petition" or "petition for nomination", as used herein, shall mean what is sometimes known as nomination papers, in distinction to what is known as a certificate of nomination. The words "political division for which the candidate is nominated", or its equivalent, shall mean the largest political division in which all qualified voters may vote upon such candidate or candidates, as the state in the case of state officers; the township in the case of township officers et cetera. Provided, further, that no person shall circulate or certify petitions for candidates of more than one political party, or for an independent candidate or candidates in addition to one political party, to be voted upon at the next primary or general election, or for such candidates and parties with respect to the same political subdivision at the next consolidated election.

(Source: P.A. 91-57, eff. 6-30-99; 92-129, eff. 7-20-01; revised 9-4-13.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-4) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-4)

Sec. 19-4. Mailing or delivery of ballots; time. ballots - Time.) Immediately upon the receipt of such application either by mail or electronic means, not more than 40 days nor less than 5 days prior to such election, or by personal delivery not more than 40 days nor less than one day prior to such election, at the office of such election authority, it shall be the duty of such election authority to examine the records to ascertain whether or not such applicant is lawfully entitled to vote as requested, including a verification of the applicant's signature by comparison with the signature on the official registration record card, and if found so to be entitled to vote, to post within one business day thereafter the name, street address, ward and precinct number or township and district number, as the case may be, of such applicant given on a list, the pages of which are to be numbered consecutively to be kept by such election authority for such purpose in a conspicuous, open and public place accessible to the public at the entrance of the office of such election authority, and in such a manner that such list may be viewed without necessity of requesting permission therefor. Within one day after posting the name and other information of an applicant for an absentee ballot, the election authority shall transmit by electronic means pursuant to a process established by the State Board of Elections that name and other posted information to the State Board of Elections, which shall maintain those names and other information in an electronic format on its website, arranged by county and accessible to State and local political committees. Within 2 business days after posting a name and other information on the list within its office, the election authority shall mail, postage prepaid, or deliver in person in such office an official ballot or ballots if more than one are to be voted at said election. Mail delivery of Temporarily Absent Student ballot applications pursuant to Section 19-12.3 shall be by nonforwardable mail. However, for the consolidated election, absentee ballots for certain precincts may be delivered to applicants not less than 25 days before the election if so much time is required to have prepared and printed the ballots containing the names of persons nominated for offices at the consolidated primary. The election authority shall enclose with each absentee ballot or application written instructions on how voting assistance shall be provided pursuant to Section 17-14 and a document, written and approved by the State Board of Elections, enumerating the circumstances under which a person is authorized to vote by absentee ballot pursuant to this Article; such document shall also include a statement informing the applicant that if he or she falsifies or is solicited by another to falsify his or her eligibility to cast an absentee ballot, such applicant or other is subject to penalties pursuant to Section 29-10 and Section 29-20 of the Election Code. Each election authority shall maintain a list of the name, street address, ward and precinct, or township and district number, as the case may be, of all applicants who have returned absentee ballots to such authority, and the name of such absent voter shall be added to such list within one business day from receipt of such ballot. If the absentee ballot envelope indicates that the voter was assisted in casting the ballot, the name of the person so assisting shall be included on the list. The list, the pages of which are to be numbered consecutively, shall be kept by each election authority in a conspicuous, open, and public place accessible to the public at the entrance of the office of the election authority and in a manner that the list may be viewed without necessity of requesting permission for viewing.

Each election authority shall maintain a list for each election of the voters to whom it has issued absentee ballots. The list shall be maintained for each precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority. Prior to the opening of the polls on election day, the election authority shall deliver to the judges of election in each precinct the list of registered voters in that precinct to whom absentee ballots have been issued by mail.

Each election authority shall maintain a list for each election of voters to whom it has issued temporarily absent student ballots. The list shall be maintained for each election jurisdiction within which such voters temporarily abide. Immediately after the close of the period during which application may be made by mail or electronic means for absentee ballots, each election authority shall mail to each other election authority within the State a certified list of all such voters temporarily abiding within the jurisdiction of the other election authority.

In the event that the return address of an application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector is that of a facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, within the jurisdiction of the election authority, and the applicant is a registered voter in the precinct in which such facility is located, the ballots shall be prepared and transmitted to a responsible judge of election no later than 9 a.m. on the Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding the election as designated by the election authority under Section 19-12.2. Such judge shall deliver in person on the designated day the ballot to the applicant on the premises of the facility from which application was made. The election authority shall by mail notify the applicant in such facility that the ballot will be delivered by a judge of election on the designated day.

All applications for absentee ballots shall be available at the office of the election authority for public inspection upon request from the time of receipt thereof by the election authority until 30 days after the election, except during the time such applications are kept in the office of the election authority pursuant to Section 19-7, and except during the time such applications are in the possession of the judges of election.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-115, eff. 7-29-13; revised 8-9-13.)

(10 ILCS 5/24A-15.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 24A-15.1)

Sec. 24A-15.1. Except as herein provided, discovery recounts and election contests shall be conducted as otherwise provided for in "The Election Code", as amended. The automatic tabulating equipment shall be tested prior to the discovery recount or election contest as provided in Section 24A-9, and then the official ballots or ballot cards shall be recounted on the automatic tabulating equipment. In addition, (1) the ballot or ballot cards shall be checked for the presence or absence of judges' initials and other distinguishing marks, and (2) the ballots marked "Rejected", "Defective", Objected to", "Absentee Ballot", and "Early Ballot" shall be examined to determine the propriety of the such labels, and (3) the "Duplicate Absentee Ballots", "Duplicate Early Ballots", "Duplicate Overvoted Ballots" and "Duplicate Damaged Ballots" shall be compared with their respective originals to determine the correctness of the duplicates.

Any person who has filed a petition for discovery recount may request that a redundant count be conducted in those precincts in which the discovery recount is being conducted. The additional costs of such a redundant count shall be borne by the requesting party.

The log of the computer operator and all materials retained by the election authority in relation to vote tabulation and canvass shall be made available for any discovery recount or election contest.

(Source: P.A. 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; revised 9-4-13.)

(10 ILCS 5/24A-16) (from Ch. 46, par. 24A-16)

Sec. 24A-16. The State Board of Elections shall approve all voting systems provided by this Article.

No voting system shall be approved unless it fulfills the following requirements:

(1) It enables a voter to vote in absolute secrecy;

(2) (Blank);

(3) It enables a voter to vote a ticket selected in part from the nominees of one party, and in part from the nominees of any or all parties, and in part from independent candidates and in part of candidates whose names are written in by the voter;

(4) It enables a voter to vote a written or printed ticket of his own selection for any person for any office for whom he may desire to vote;

(5) It will reject all votes for an office or upon a proposition when the voter has cast more votes for such office or upon such proposition than he is entitled to cast;

(5.5) It will identify when a voter has not voted for all statewide constitutional offices;

(6) It will accommodate all propositions to be submitted to the voters in the form provided by law or, where no such form is provided, then in brief form, not to exceed 75 words; .

(7) It will accommodate the tabulation programming requirements of Sections 24A-6.2, 24B-6.2, and 24C-6.2.

The State Board of Elections shall not approve any voting equipment or system that includes an external Infrared Data Association (IrDA) communications port.

The State Board of Elections is authorized to withdraw its approval of a voting system if the system fails to fulfill the above requirements.

The vendor, person, or other private entity shall be solely responsible for the production and cost of: all application fees; all ballots; additional temporary workers; and other equipment or facilities needed and used in the testing of the vendor's, person's, or other private entity's respective equipment and software.

Any voting system vendor, person, or other private entity seeking the State Board of Elections' approval of a voting system shall, as part of the approval application, submit to the State Board a non-refundable fee. The State Board of Elections by rule shall establish an appropriate fee structure, taking into account the type of voting system approval that is requested (such as approval of a new system, a modification of an existing system, the size of the modification, etc.). No voting system or modification of a voting system shall be approved unless the fee is paid.

No vendor, person, or other entity may sell, lease, or loan, or have a written contract, including a contract contingent upon State Board approval of the voting system or voting system component, to sell, lease, or loan, a voting system or voting system component to any election jurisdiction unless the voting system or voting system component is first approved by the State Board of Elections pursuant to this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-115, eff. 7-29-13; revised 9-4-13.)

(10 ILCS 5/28-3) (from Ch. 46, par. 28-3)

Sec. 28-3. Form of petition for public question. Petitions for the submission of public questions shall consist of sheets of uniform size and each sheet shall contain, above the space for signature, an appropriate heading, giving the information as to the question of public policy to be submitted, and specifying the state at large or the political subdivision or district or precinct or combination of precincts or other territory in which it is to be submitted and, where by law the public question must be submitted at a particular election, the election at which it is to be submitted. In the case of a petition for the submission of a public question described in subsection (b) of Section 28-6, the heading shall also specify the regular election at which the question is to be submitted and include the precincts included in the territory concerning which the public question is to be submitted, as well as a common description of such territory in plain and nonlegal language, such description to describe the territory by reference to streets, natural or artificial landmarks, addresses or any other method which would enable a voter signing the petition to be informed of the territory concerning which the question is to be submitted. The heading of each sheet shall be the same. Such petition shall be signed by the registered voters of the political subdivision or district or precinct or combination of precincts in which the question of public policy is to be submitted in their own proper persons only, and opposite the signature of each signer his residence address shall be written or printed, which residence address shall include the street address or rural route number of the signer, as the case may be, as well as the signer's county, and city, village or town, and state; provided that the county or city, village or town, and state of residence of such electors may be printed on the petition forms where all of the such electors signing the petition reside in the same county or city, village or town, and state. Standard abbreviations may be used in writing the residence address, including street number, if any. No signature shall be valid or be counted in considering the validity or sufficiency of such petition unless the requirements of this Section are complied with.

At the bottom of each sheet of such petition shall be added a circulator's statement, signed by a person 18 years of age or older who is a citizen of the United States, stating the street address or rural route number, as the case may be, as well as the county, city, village or town, and state; certifying that the signatures on that sheet of the petition were signed in his or her presence and are genuine, and that to the best of his or her knowledge and belief the persons so signing were at the time of signing the petition registered voters of the political subdivision or district or precinct or combination of precincts in which the question of public policy is to be submitted and that their respective residences are correctly stated therein. Such statement shall be sworn to before some officer authorized to administer oaths in this State.

Such sheets, before being filed with the proper officer or board shall be bound securely and numbered consecutively. The sheets shall not be fastened by pasting them together end to end, so as to form a continuous strip or roll. All petition sheets which are filed with the proper local election officials, election authorities or the State Board of Elections shall be the original sheets which have been signed by the voters and by the circulator, and not photocopies or duplicates of such sheets. A petition, when presented or filed, shall not be withdrawn, altered, or added to, and no signature shall be revoked except by revocation in writing presented or filed with the board or officer with whom the petition is required to be presented or filed, and before the presentment or filing of such petition, except as may otherwise be provided in another statute which authorize the public question. Whoever forges any name of a signer upon any petition shall be deemed guilty of a forgery, and on conviction thereof, shall be punished accordingly.

In addition to the foregoing requirements, a petition proposing an amendment to Article IV of the Constitution pursuant to Section 3 of Article XIV of the Constitution or a petition proposing a question of public policy to be submitted to the voters of the entire State shall be in conformity with the requirements of Section 28-9 of this Article.

If multiple sets of petitions for submission of the same public questions are filed, the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election official where the petitions are filed shall within 2 business days notify the proponent of his or her multiple petition filings and that proponent has 3 business days after receipt of the notice to notify the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election official that he or she may cancel prior sets of petitions. If the proponent notifies the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election official, the last set of petitions filed shall be the only petitions to be considered valid by the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election official. If the proponent fails to notify the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election official then only the first set of petitions filed shall be valid and all subsequent petitions shall be void.

(Source: P.A. 91-57, eff. 6-30-99; 92-129, eff. 7-20-01; revised 9-12-13.)

Section 40. The Executive Reorganization Implementation Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(15 ILCS 15/5) (from Ch. 127, par. 1805)

Sec. 5. An executive order of the Governor proposing reorganization may not provide for, and a reorganization under this Act may not have the effect of:

(a) continuing Continuing any function beyond the period authorized by law for its exercise, or beyond the time when it would have terminated if the reorganization had not been made;

(b) authorizing Authorizing any agency to exercise any function which is not expressly authorized by law to be exercised by an agency in the executive branch when the executive order is transmitted to the General Assembly;

(c) increasing Increasing the term of any office beyond that provided by law for the office; or

(d) eliminating any qualifications of or procedures for selecting or appointing any agency or department head or commission or board member; or

(e) abolishing Abolishing any agency created by the Illinois Constitution, or transferring to any other agency any function conferred by the Illinois Constitution on an agency created by that Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 81-984; revised 9-4-13.)

Section 45. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/4) (from Ch. 124, par. 24)

Sec. 4. Identification Card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice by submitting an identification card issued by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 3-14-1 or Section 3-2.5-70 of the Unified Code of Corrections, together with the prescribed fees. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this determination by his or her supervising physician, a determination of disability from an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make this determination, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a disabled person provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a disabled person or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 97-371, eff. 1-1-12; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-4-13.)

Section 50. The State Comptroller Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 10.10 as follows:

(15 ILCS 405/10) (from Ch. 15, par. 210)

Sec. 10. Warrants; procedure Warrants- Procedure. The powers and duties of the Comptroller comptroller as respects warrants are set out in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 11 Sections 10.01 through 10.15.

(Source: P.A. 77-2807; revised 9-4-13.)

(15 ILCS 405/10.10) (from Ch. 15, par. 210.10)

Sec. 10.10. (a) If any Comptroller's warrant is lost, mislaid or destroyed, or becomes void after issuance, so that it cannot be presented for payment by the person entitled thereto, the Comptroller, at any time before that warrant is paid by the State Treasurer, but within 5 years of the date of issuance, may issue a replacement warrant to the person entitled thereto. If the original warrant was not cancelled or did not become void, the Comptroller, before issuing the replacement warrant, shall issue a stop payment order on the State Treasurer and receive a confirmation of the stop payment order on the original warrant from the State Treasurer.

(b) Only the person entitled to the original warrant, or his heirs or legal representatives, or a third party to whom it was properly negotiated or the heirs or legal representatives of such party, may request a replacement warrant. In the case of a warrant issued to a payee who dies before the warrant is paid by the State Treasurer and whose estate has been probated pursuant to law, the Comptroller, upon receipt of a certified copy of a judicial order establishing the person or entity entitled to payment, may issue a replacement warrant to such person or entity.

(c) Within 12 months from the date of issuance of the original warrant, if the original warrant has not been canceled for redeposit, the Comptroller may issue a replacement warrant on the original voucher drawing upon the same fund and charging the same appropriation or other expenditure authorization as the original warrant.

(d) Within 12 months from the date of issuance of the original warrant, if the original warrant has been canceled for redeposit, and if the issuance of the replacement warrant would not over-obligate the appropriation or other expenditure authority against which it is drawn, the Comptroller may issue the replacement warrant. If the original warrant was issued against an appropriation or other expenditure authority which has lapsed, the replacement warrant shall be drawn on the Warrant Escheat Fund. If the appropriation or other obligational authority against which the replacement warrant is drawn has not lapsed, the Comptroller shall notify the originating agency of the request for a replacement warrant and shall receive a replacement voucher from that agency before drawing the replacement warrant, which shall be drawn on the same fund and charged to the same appropriation or other expenditure authority as the original warrant.

(e) Within 12 months from the date of issuance of the original warrant, if the original warrant has been canceled for redeposit, the Comptroller may not issue a replacement warrant where such issuance would over-obligate the appropriation or other expenditure authority against which the original warrant was drawn. Whenever the Comptroller is presented with a request for a replacement warrant which may not be issued under the limitation of this subsection, if the appropriation or other expenditure authority against which the original warrant was drawn has not lapsed, the Comptroller shall immediately inform the originating agency of the request and that the request may not be honored because of the resulting over-obligation, and shall request the agency to determine whether or not that agency will take some corrective action before the applicable expenditure authorization lapses. The originating agency shall respond to the Comptroller's inquiry within 5 business days.

(f) After 12 months from the date of issuance of the original warrant, if the original warrant has not been cancelled for redeposit, the Comptroller shall issue the replacement warrant on the Warrant Escheat Fund.

(f-5) After 5 years from the date of issuance of the original warrant but no later than 10 years after that date, the Comptroller may issue a replacement warrant on the Warrant Escheat Fund to a person or entity entitled thereto, as those persons and entities are described in subsection (b) of this Section, if the following requirements are met:

(1) the person or entity verifies that the person or entity is they are entitled to the original warrant;

(2) in the case of a warrant that is not presented by the requestor, the paying agency certifies that the original payee is still entitled to the payment; and

(3) the Comptroller's records are available and confirm that the warrant was not replaced.

(g) Except as provided in this Section, requests for replacement warrants for more than $500 shall show entitlement to such warrant by including an affidavit, in writing, sworn before a person authorized to administer oaths and affirmations, stating the loss or destruction of the warrant, or the fact that the warrant is void. However, when the written request for a replacement warrant submitted by the person to whom the original warrant was issued is accompanied by the original warrant, no affidavit is required. Requests for replacement warrants for $500 or less shall show entitlement to such warrant by submitting a written statement of the loss or destruction of the warrant, or the fact that the warrant is void on an application form prescribed by the Comptroller. If the person requesting the replacement is in possession of the original warrant, or any part thereof, the original warrant or the part thereof must accompany the request for replacement. The Comptroller shall then draw such replacement warrant, and the treasurer shall pay the replacement warrant. If at the time of a loss or destruction a warrant was negotiated to a third party, however (which fact shall be ascertained by the oath of the party making the application, or otherwise), before the replacement warrant is drawn by the Comptroller, the person requesting the replacement warrant must give the Comptroller a bond or bonds with sufficient sureties, to be approved by the Comptroller, when required by regulation of the Comptroller, payable to the People of the State of Illinois, for the refunding of the amount, together with all costs and charges, should the State afterwards be compelled to pay the original warrant.

(Source: P.A. 98-411, eff. 8-16-13; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 55. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by changing Section 4.01 as follows:

(20 ILCS 105/4.01) (from Ch. 23, par. 6104.01)

Sec. 4.01. Additional powers and duties of the Department. In addition to powers and duties otherwise provided by law, the Department shall have the following powers and duties:

(1) To evaluate all programs, services, and facilities for the aged and for minority senior citizens within the State and determine the extent to which present public or private programs, services and facilities meet the needs of the aged.

(2) To coordinate and evaluate all programs, services, and facilities for the Aging and for minority senior citizens presently furnished by State agencies and make appropriate recommendations regarding such services, programs and facilities to the Governor and/or the General Assembly.

(2-a) To request, receive, and share information electronically through the use of data-sharing agreements for the purpose of (i) establishing and verifying the initial and continuing eligibility of older adults to participate in programs administered by the Department; (ii) maximizing federal financial participation in State assistance expenditures; and (iii) investigating allegations of fraud or other abuse of publicly funded benefits. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, but only for the limited purposes identified in the preceding sentence, this paragraph (2-a) expressly authorizes the exchanges of income, identification, and other pertinent eligibility information by and among the Department and the Social Security Administration, the Department of Employment Security, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Revenue, the Secretary of State, the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, and any other governmental entity. The confidentiality of information otherwise shall be maintained as required by law. In addition, the Department on Aging shall verify employment information at the request of a community care provider for the purpose of ensuring program integrity under the Community Care Program.

(3) To function as the sole State agency to develop a comprehensive plan to meet the needs of the State's senior citizens and the State's minority senior citizens.

(4) To receive and disburse State and federal funds made available directly to the Department including those funds made available under the Older Americans Act and the Senior Community Service Employment Program for providing services for senior citizens and minority senior citizens or for purposes related thereto, and shall develop and administer any State Plan for the Aging required by federal law.

(5) To solicit, accept, hold, and administer in behalf of the State any grants or legacies of money, securities, or property to the State of Illinois for services to senior citizens and minority senior citizens or purposes related thereto.

(6) To provide consultation and assistance to communities, area agencies on aging, and groups developing local services for senior citizens and minority senior citizens.

(7) To promote community education regarding the problems of senior citizens and minority senior citizens through institutes, publications, radio, television and the local press.

(8) To cooperate with agencies of the federal government in studies and conferences designed to examine the needs of senior citizens and minority senior citizens and to prepare programs and facilities to meet those needs.

(9) To establish and maintain information and referral sources throughout the State when not provided by other agencies.

(10) To provide the staff support that may reasonably be required by the Council.

(11) To make and enforce rules and regulations necessary and proper to the performance of its duties.

(12) To establish and fund programs or projects or experimental facilities that are specially designed as alternatives to institutional care.

(13) To develop a training program to train the counselors presently employed by the Department's aging network to provide Medicare beneficiaries with counseling and advocacy in Medicare, private health insurance, and related health care coverage plans. The Department shall report to the General Assembly on the implementation of the training program on or before December 1, 1986.

(14) To make a grant to an institution of higher learning to study the feasibility of establishing and implementing an affirmative action employment plan for the recruitment, hiring, training and retraining of persons 60 or more years old for jobs for which their employment would not be precluded by law.

(15) To present one award annually in each of the categories of community service, education, the performance and graphic arts, and the labor force to outstanding Illinois senior citizens and minority senior citizens in recognition of their individual contributions to either community service, education, the performance and graphic arts, or the labor force. The awards shall be presented to 4 senior citizens and minority senior citizens selected from a list of 44 nominees compiled annually by the Department. Nominations shall be solicited from senior citizens' service providers, area agencies on aging, senior citizens' centers, and senior citizens' organizations. The Department shall establish a central location within the State to be designated as the Senior Illinoisans Hall of Fame for the public display of all the annual awards, or replicas thereof.

(16) To establish multipurpose senior centers through area agencies on aging and to fund those new and existing multipurpose senior centers through area agencies on aging, the establishment and funding to begin in such areas of the State as the Department shall designate by rule and as specifically appropriated funds become available.

(17) To develop the content and format of the acknowledgment regarding non-recourse reverse mortgage loans under Section 6.1 of the Illinois Banking Act; to provide independent consumer information on reverse mortgages and alternatives; and to refer consumers to independent counseling services with expertise in reverse mortgages.

(18) To develop a pamphlet in English and Spanish which may be used by physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches pursuant to the Medical Practice Act of 1987, pharmacists licensed pursuant to the Pharmacy Practice Act, and Illinois residents 65 years of age or older for the purpose of assisting physicians, pharmacists, and patients in monitoring prescriptions provided by various physicians and to aid persons 65 years of age or older in complying with directions for proper use of pharmaceutical prescriptions. The pamphlet may provide space for recording information including but not limited to the following:

(a) name and telephone number of the patient;

(b) name and telephone number of the prescribing physician;

(c) date of prescription;

(d) name of drug prescribed;

(e) directions for patient compliance; and

(f) name and telephone number of dispensing pharmacy.

In developing the pamphlet, the Department shall consult with the Illinois State Medical Society, the Center for Minority Health Services, the Illinois Pharmacists Association and senior citizens organizations. The Department shall distribute the pamphlets to physicians, pharmacists and persons 65 years of age or older or various senior citizen organizations throughout the State.

(19) To conduct a study of the feasibility of implementing the Senior Companion Program throughout the State.

(20) The reimbursement rates paid through the community care program for chore housekeeping services and home care aides shall be the same.

(21) From funds appropriated to the Department from the Meals on Wheels Fund, a special fund in the State treasury that is hereby created, and in accordance with State and federal guidelines and the intrastate funding formula, to make grants to area agencies on aging, designated by the Department, for the sole purpose of delivering meals to homebound persons 60 years of age and older.

(22) To distribute, through its area agencies on aging, information alerting seniors on safety issues regarding emergency weather conditions, including extreme heat and cold, flooding, tornadoes, electrical storms, and other severe storm weather. The information shall include all necessary instructions for safety and all emergency telephone numbers of organizations that will provide additional information and assistance.

(23) To develop guidelines for the organization and implementation of Volunteer Services Credit Programs to be administered by Area Agencies on Aging or community based senior service organizations. The Department shall hold public hearings on the proposed guidelines for public comment, suggestion, and determination of public interest. The guidelines shall be based on the findings of other states and of community organizations in Illinois that are currently operating volunteer services credit programs or demonstration volunteer services credit programs. The Department shall offer guidelines for all aspects of the programs including, but not limited to, the following:

(a) types of services to be offered by volunteers;

(b) types of services to be received upon the redemption of service credits;

(c) issues of liability for the volunteers and the administering organizations;

(d) methods of tracking service credits earned and service credits redeemed;

(e) issues of time limits for redemption of service credits;

(f) methods of recruitment of volunteers;

(g) utilization of community volunteers, community service groups, and other resources for delivering services to be received by service credit program clients;

(h) accountability and assurance that services will be available to individuals who have earned service credits; and

(i) volunteer screening and qualifications.

The Department shall submit a written copy of the guidelines to the General Assembly by July 1, 1998.

(24) To function as the sole State agency to receive and disburse State and federal funds for providing adult protective services in a domestic living situation in accordance with the Adult Protective Services Act.

(25) (24) To hold conferences, trainings, and other programs for which the Department shall determine by rule a reasonable fee to cover related administrative costs. Rules to implement the fee authority granted by this paragraph (25) (24) must be adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 98-8, eff. 5-3-13; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-380, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-4-13.)

Section 60. The Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 405-120 and 405-335 as follows:

(20 ILCS 405/405-120) (was 20 ILCS 405/67.29)

Sec. 405-120. Hispanic, Asian-American, and bilingual employees. The Department shall develop and implement plans to increase the number of Hispanics employed by State government and the number of bilingual persons employed in State government at supervisory, technical, professional, and managerial levels.

The Department shall prepare and revise annually a State Hispanic Employment Plan and a State Asian-American Employment Plan in consultation with individuals and organizations informed on these subjects, including the Hispanic Employment Plan Advisory Council and the Asian-American Employment Plan Advisory Council. The Department shall report to the General Assembly by February 1 of each year each State agency's activities in implementing the State Hispanic Employment Plan and the State Asian-American Employment Plan.

(Source: P.A. 97-856, eff. 7-27-12; 98-329, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-8-13.)

(20 ILCS 405/405-335)

Sec. 405-335. Illinois Transparency and Accountability Portal (ITAP).

(a) The Department, within 12 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, shall establish and maintain a website, known as the Illinois Transparency and Accountability Portal (ITAP), with a full-time webmaster tasked with compiling and updating the ITAP database with information received from all State agencies as defined in this Section. Subject to appropriation, the full-time webmaster must also compile and update the ITAP database with information received from all counties, townships, library districts, and municipalities.

(b) For purposes of this Section:

"State agency" means the offices of the constitutional officers identified in Article V of the Illinois Constitution, executive agencies, and departments, boards, commissions, and Authorities under the Governor.

"Contracts" means payment obligations with vendors on file with the Office of the Comptroller to purchase goods and services exceeding $10,000 in value (or, in the case of professional or artistic services, exceeding $5,000 in value).

"Appropriation" means line-item detail of spending approved by the General Assembly and Governor, categorized by object of expenditure.

"Individual consultants" means temporary workers eligible to receive State benefits paid on a State payroll.

"Recipients" means State agencies receiving appropriations.

(c) The ITAP shall provide direct access to each of the following:

(1) A database of all current State employees and individual consultants, except sworn law enforcement officers, sorted separately by:

(i) Name.

(ii) Employing State agency.

(iii) Employing State division.

(iv) Employment position title.

(v) Current pay rate and year-to-date pay.

(2) A database of all current State expenditures, sorted separately by agency, category, recipient, and Representative District.

(3) A database of all development assistance reportable pursuant to the Corporate Accountability for Tax Expenditures Act, sorted separately by tax credit category, taxpayer, and Representative District.

(4) A database of all revocations and suspensions of State occupation and use tax certificates of registration and all revocations and suspensions of State professional licenses, sorted separately by name, geographic location, and certificate of registration number or license number, as applicable. Professional license revocations and suspensions shall be posted only if resulting from a failure to pay taxes, license fees, or child support.

(5) A database of all current State contracts, sorted separately by contractor name, awarding officer or agency, contract value, and goods or services provided.

(6) A database of all employees hired after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 2010, sorted searchably by each of the following at the time of employment:

(i) Name.

(ii) Employing State agency.

(iii) Employing State division.

(iv) Employment position title.

(v) Current pay rate and year-to-date pay.

(vi) County of employment location.

(vii) Rutan status.

(viii) Status of position as subject to collective bargaining, subject to merit compensation, or exempt under Section 4d of the Personnel Code.

(ix) Employment status as probationary, trainee, intern, certified, or exempt from certification.

(x) Status as a military veteran.

(7) A searchable database of all current county, township, library district, and municipal employees sorted separately by:

(i) Employing unit of local government.

(ii) Employment position title.

(iii) Current pay rate and year-to-date pay.

(8) A searchable database of all county, township, and municipal employees hired on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, sorted separately by each of the following at the time of employment:

(i) Employing unit of local government.

(ii) Employment position title.

(iii) Current pay rate and year-to-date pay.

(9) A searchable database of all library district employees hired on or after August 9, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-246) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, sorted separately by each of the following at the time of employment:

(i) Employing unit of local government.

(ii) Employment position title.

(iii) Current pay rate and year-to-date pay.

(d) The ITAP shall include all information required to be published by subsection (c) of this Section that is available to the Department in a format the Department can compile and publish on the ITAP. The Department shall update the ITAP as additional information becomes available in a format that can be compiled and published on the ITAP by the Department.

(e) Each State agency, county, township, library district, and municipality shall cooperate with the Department in furnishing the information necessary for the implementation of this Section within a timeframe specified by the Department.

(f) Each county, township, library district, or municipality submitting information to be displayed on the Illinois Transparency and Accountability Portal (ITAP) is responsible for the accuracy of the information provided.

(g) The Department, within 6 months after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-283) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, shall distribute a spreadsheet or otherwise make data entry available to each State agency to facilitate the collection of data on the State's annual workforce characteristics, workforce compensation, and employee mobility. The Department shall determine the data to be collected by each State agency. Each State agency shall cooperate with the Department in furnishing the data necessary for the implementation of this subsection within the timeframe specified by the Department. The Department shall publish the data received from each State agency on the ITAP or another open data site annually.

(Source: P.A. 97-744, eff. 1-1-13; 98-246, eff. 8-9-13; 98-283, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-4-13.)

Section 65. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5005)

Sec. 5. Direct child welfare services; Department of Children and Family Services. To provide direct child welfare services when not available through other public or private child care or program facilities.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Children" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 18 years. The term also includes persons under age 21 who:

(A) were committed to the Department pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as amended, prior to the age of 18 and who continue under the jurisdiction of the court; or

(B) were accepted for care, service and training by the Department prior to the age of 18 and whose best interest in the discretion of the Department would be served by continuing that care, service and training because of severe emotional disturbances, physical disability, social adjustment or any combination thereof, or because of the need to complete an educational or vocational training program.

(2) "Homeless youth" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 19, are not in a safe and stable living situation and cannot be reunited with their families.

(3) "Child welfare services" means public social services which are directed toward the accomplishment of the following purposes:

(A) protecting and promoting the health, safety and welfare of children, including homeless, dependent or neglected children;

(B) remedying, or assisting in the solution of problems which may result in, the neglect, abuse, exploitation or delinquency of children;

(C) preventing the unnecessary separation of children from their families by identifying family problems, assisting families in resolving their problems, and preventing the breakup of the family where the prevention of child removal is desirable and possible when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(D) restoring to their families children who have been removed, by the provision of services to the child and the families when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(E) placing children in suitable adoptive homes, in cases where restoration to the biological family is not safe, possible or appropriate;

(F) assuring safe and adequate care of children away from their homes, in cases where the child cannot be returned home or cannot be placed for adoption. At the time of placement, the Department shall consider concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of this Section so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child;

(G) (blank);

(H) (blank); and

(I) placing and maintaining children in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children under the age of 18 and for children 18 years of age and older, unless a child 18 years of age is in the last year of high school education or vocational training, in an approved individual or group treatment program, in a licensed shelter facility, or secure child care facility. The Department is not required to place or maintain children:

(i) who are in a foster home, or

(ii) who are persons with a developmental disability, as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or

(iii) who are female children who are pregnant, pregnant and parenting or parenting, or

(iv) who are siblings, in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children 18 years of age and older and for children under 18 years of age.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the expenditure of public funds for the purpose of performing abortions.

(c) The Department shall establish and maintain tax-supported child welfare services and extend and seek to improve voluntary services throughout the State, to the end that services and care shall be available on an equal basis throughout the State to children requiring such services.

(d) The Director may authorize advance disbursements for any new program initiative to any agency contracting with the Department. As a prerequisite for an advance disbursement, the contractor must post a surety bond in the amount of the advance disbursement and have a purchase of service contract approved by the Department. The Department may pay up to 2 months operational expenses in advance. The amount of the advance disbursement shall be prorated over the life of the contract or the remaining months of the fiscal year, whichever is less, and the installment amount shall then be deducted from future bills. Advance disbursement authorizations for new initiatives shall not be made to any agency after that agency has operated during 2 consecutive fiscal years. The requirements of this Section concerning advance disbursements shall not apply with respect to the following: payments to local public agencies for child day care services as authorized by Section 5a of this Act; and youth service programs receiving grant funds under Section 17a-4.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Department shall establish rules and regulations concerning its operation of programs designed to meet the goals of child safety and protection, family preservation, family reunification, and adoption, including but not limited to:

(1) adoption;

(2) foster care;

(3) family counseling;

(4) protective services;

(5) (blank);

(6) homemaker service;

(7) return of runaway children;

(8) (blank);

(9) placement under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25 or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 in accordance with the federal Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980; and

(10) interstate services.

Rules and regulations established by the Department shall include provisions for training Department staff and the staff of Department grantees, through contracts with other agencies or resources, in alcohol and drug abuse screening techniques approved by the Department of Human Services, as a successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, for the purpose of identifying children and adults who should be referred to an alcohol and drug abuse treatment program for professional evaluation.

(h) If the Department finds that there is no appropriate program or facility within or available to the Department for a ward and that no licensed private facility has an adequate and appropriate program or none agrees to accept the ward, the Department shall create an appropriate individualized, program-oriented plan for such ward. The plan may be developed within the Department or through purchase of services by the Department to the extent that it is within its statutory authority to do.

(i) Service programs shall be available throughout the State and shall include but not be limited to the following services:

(1) case management;

(2) homemakers;

(3) counseling;

(4) parent education;

(5) day care; and

(6) emergency assistance and advocacy.

In addition, the following services may be made available to assess and meet the needs of children and families:

(1) comprehensive family-based services;

(2) assessments;

(3) respite care; and

(4) in-home health services.

The Department shall provide transportation for any of the services it makes available to children or families or for which it refers children or families.

(j) The Department may provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations concerning the assistance and grants, to persons who adopt physically or mentally handicapped, older and other hard-to-place children who (i) immediately prior to their adoption were legal wards of the Department or (ii) were determined eligible for financial assistance with respect to a prior adoption and who become available for adoption because the prior adoption has been dissolved and the parental rights of the adoptive parents have been terminated or because the child's adoptive parents have died. The Department may continue to provide financial assistance and education assistance grants for a child who was determined eligible for financial assistance under this subsection (j) in the interim period beginning when the child's adoptive parents died and ending with the finalization of the new adoption of the child by another adoptive parent or parents. The Department may also provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations for the assistance and grants, to persons appointed guardian of the person under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25 or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for children who were wards of the Department for 12 months immediately prior to the appointment of the guardian.

The amount of assistance may vary, depending upon the needs of the child and the adoptive parents, as set forth in the annual assistance agreement. Special purpose grants are allowed where the child requires special service but such costs may not exceed the amounts which similar services would cost the Department if it were to provide or secure them as guardian of the child.

Any financial assistance provided under this subsection is inalienable by assignment, sale, execution, attachment, garnishment, or any other remedy for recovery or collection of a judgment or debt.

(j-5) The Department shall not deny or delay the placement of a child for adoption if an approved family is available either outside of the Department region handling the case, or outside of the State of Illinois.

(k) The Department shall accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated neglected or abused, or dependent committed to it pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(l) The Department shall offer family preservation services, as defined in Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, to help families, including adoptive and extended families. Family preservation services shall be offered (i) to prevent the placement of children in substitute care when the children can be cared for at home or in the custody of the person responsible for the children's welfare, (ii) to reunite children with their families, or (iii) to maintain an adoptive placement. Family preservation services shall only be offered when doing so will not endanger the children's health or safety. With respect to children who are in substitute care pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, family preservation services shall not be offered if a goal other than those of subdivisions (A), (B), or (B-1) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act has been set. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to create a private right of action or claim on the part of any individual or child welfare agency, except that when a child is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the child's service plan calls for services to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court hearing the action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may order the Department to provide the services set out in the plan, if those services are not provided with reasonable promptness and if those services are available.

The Department shall notify the child and his family of the Department's responsibility to offer and provide family preservation services as identified in the service plan. The child and his family shall be eligible for services as soon as the report is determined to be "indicated". The Department may offer services to any child or family with respect to whom a report of suspected child abuse or neglect has been filed, prior to concluding its investigation under Section 7.12 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. However, the child's or family's willingness to accept services shall not be considered in the investigation. The Department may also provide services to any child or family who is the subject of any report of suspected child abuse or neglect or may refer such child or family to services available from other agencies in the community, even if the report is determined to be unfounded, if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of such services shall be voluntary. The Department may also provide services to any child or family after completion of a family assessment, as an alternative to an investigation, as provided under the "differential response program" provided for in subsection (a-5) of Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

The Department may, at its discretion except for those children also adjudicated neglected or dependent, accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated addicted, as a truant minor in need of supervision or as a minor requiring authoritative intervention, under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but no such child shall be committed to the Department by any court without the approval of the Department. A minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 15 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, (ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency.

As soon as is possible after August 7, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-134), the Department shall develop and implement a special program of family preservation services to support intact, foster, and adoptive families who are experiencing extreme hardships due to the difficulty and stress of caring for a child who has been diagnosed with a pervasive developmental disorder if the Department determines that those services are necessary to ensure the health and safety of the child. The Department may offer services to any family whether or not a report has been filed under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department may refer the child or family to services available from other agencies in the community if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of these services shall be voluntary. The Department shall develop and implement a public information campaign to alert health and social service providers and the general public about these special family preservation services. The nature and scope of the services offered and the number of families served under the special program implemented under this paragraph shall be determined by the level of funding that the Department annually allocates for this purpose. The term "pervasive developmental disorder" under this paragraph means a neurological condition, including but not limited to, Asperger's Syndrome and autism, as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association.

(l-1) The legislature recognizes that the best interests of the child require that the child be placed in the most permanent living arrangement as soon as is practically possible. To achieve this goal, the legislature directs the Department of Children and Family Services to conduct concurrent planning so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Permanent living arrangements may include prevention of placement of a child outside the home of the family when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; reunification with the family, when safe and appropriate, if temporary placement is necessary; or movement of the child toward the most permanent living arrangement and permanent legal status.

When determining reasonable efforts to be made with respect to a child, as described in this subsection, and in making such reasonable efforts, the child's health and safety shall be the paramount concern.

When a child is placed in foster care, the Department shall ensure and document that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the need to remove the child from the child's home. The Department must make reasonable efforts to reunify the family when temporary placement of the child occurs unless otherwise required, pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. At any time after the dispositional hearing where the Department believes that further reunification services would be ineffective, it may request a finding from the court that reasonable efforts are no longer appropriate. The Department is not required to provide further reunification services after such a finding.

A decision to place a child in substitute care shall be made with considerations of the child's health, safety, and best interests. At the time of placement, consideration should also be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

The Department shall adopt rules addressing concurrent planning for reunification and permanency. The Department shall consider the following factors when determining appropriateness of concurrent planning:

(1) the likelihood of prompt reunification;

(2) the past history of the family;

(3) the barriers to reunification being addressed by the family;

(4) the level of cooperation of the family;

(5) the foster parents' willingness to work with the family to reunite;

(6) the willingness and ability of the foster family to provide an adoptive home or long-term placement;

(7) the age of the child;

(8) placement of siblings.

(m) The Department may assume temporary custody of any child if:

(1) it has received a written consent to such temporary custody signed by the parents of the child or by the parent having custody of the child if the parents are not living together or by the guardian or custodian of the child if the child is not in the custody of either parent, or

(2) the child is found in the State and neither a parent, guardian nor custodian of the child can be located.

If the child is found in his or her residence without a parent, guardian, custodian or responsible caretaker, the Department may, instead of removing the child and assuming temporary custody, place an authorized representative of the Department in that residence until such time as a parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses a willingness and apparent ability to ensure the child's health and safety and resume permanent charge of the child, or until a relative enters the home and is willing and able to ensure the child's health and safety and assume charge of the child until a parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses such willingness and ability to ensure the child's safety and resume permanent charge. After a caretaker has remained in the home for a period not to exceed 12 hours, the Department must follow those procedures outlined in Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Whenever a child is taken into temporary custody pursuant to an investigation under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, or pursuant to a referral and acceptance under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of a minor in limited custody, the Department, during the period of temporary custody and before the child is brought before a judicial officer as required by Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have under subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall ensure that any child taken into custody is scheduled for an appointment for a medical examination.

A parent, guardian or custodian of a child in the temporary custody of the Department who would have custody of the child if he were not in the temporary custody of the Department may deliver to the Department a signed request that the Department surrender the temporary custody of the child. The Department may retain temporary custody of the child for 10 days after the receipt of the request, during which period the Department may cause to be filed a petition pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. If a petition is so filed, the Department shall retain temporary custody of the child until the court orders otherwise. If a petition is not filed within the 10 day period, the child shall be surrendered to the custody of the requesting parent, guardian or custodian not later than the expiration of the 10 day period, at which time the authority and duties of the Department with respect to the temporary custody of the child shall terminate.

(m-1) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in a secure child care facility licensed by the Department that cares for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being after a determination is made by the facility director and the Director or the Director's designate prior to admission to the facility subject to Section 2-27.1 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. This subsection (m-1) does not apply to a child who is subject to placement in a correctional facility operated pursuant to Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the child is a ward who was placed under the care of the Department before being subject to placement in a correctional facility and a court of competent jurisdiction has ordered placement of the child in a secure care facility.

(n) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in licensed child care facilities when in the opinion of the Department, appropriate services aimed at family preservation have been unsuccessful and cannot ensure the child's health and safety or are unavailable and such placement would be for their best interest. Payment for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of any child placed in a licensed child care facility may be made by the Department, by the parents or guardians of the estates of those children, or by both the Department and the parents or guardians, except that no payments shall be made by the Department for any child placed in a licensed child care facility for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of such a child that exceed the average per capita cost of maintaining and of caring for a child in institutions for dependent or neglected children operated by the Department. However, such restriction on payments does not apply in cases where children require specialized care and treatment for problems of severe emotional disturbance, physical disability, social adjustment, or any combination thereof and suitable facilities for the placement of such children are not available at payment rates within the limitations set forth in this Section. All reimbursements for services delivered shall be absolutely inalienable by assignment, sale, attachment, garnishment or otherwise.

(n-1) The Department shall provide or authorize child welfare services, aimed at assisting minors to achieve sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults, for any minor eligible for the reinstatement of wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether or not such reinstatement is sought or allowed, provided that the minor consents to such services and has not yet attained the age of 21. The Department shall have responsibility for the development and delivery of services under this Section. An eligible youth may access services under this Section through the Department of Children and Family Services or by referral from the Department of Human Services. Youth participating in services under this Section shall cooperate with the assigned case manager in developing an agreement identifying the services to be provided and how the youth will increase skills to achieve self-sufficiency. A homeless shelter is not considered appropriate housing for any youth receiving child welfare services under this Section. The Department shall continue child welfare services under this Section to any eligible minor until the minor becomes 21 years of age, no longer consents to participate, or achieves self-sufficiency as identified in the minor's service plan. The Department of Children and Family Services shall create clear, readable notice of the rights of former foster youth to child welfare services under this Section and how such services may be obtained. The Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Human Services shall disseminate this information statewide. The Department shall adopt regulations describing services intended to assist minors in achieving sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults.

(o) The Department shall establish an administrative review and appeal process for children and families who request or receive child welfare services from the Department. Children who are wards of the Department and are placed by private child welfare agencies, and foster families with whom those children are placed, shall be afforded the same procedural and appeal rights as children and families in the case of placement by the Department, including the right to an initial review of a private agency decision by that agency. The Department shall insure that any private child welfare agency, which accepts wards of the Department for placement, affords those rights to children and foster families. The Department shall accept for administrative review and an appeal hearing a complaint made by (i) a child or foster family concerning a decision following an initial review by a private child welfare agency or (ii) a prospective adoptive parent who alleges a violation of subsection (j-5) of this Section. An appeal of a decision concerning a change in the placement of a child shall be conducted in an expedited manner. A court determination that a current foster home placement is necessary and appropriate under Section 2-28 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 does not constitute a judicial determination on the merits of an administrative appeal, filed by a former foster parent, involving a change of placement decision.

(p) There is hereby created the Department of Children and Family Services Emergency Assistance Fund from which the Department may provide special financial assistance to families which are in economic crisis when such assistance is not available through other public or private sources and the assistance is deemed necessary to prevent dissolution of the family unit or to reunite families which have been separated due to child abuse and neglect. The Department shall establish administrative rules specifying the criteria for determining eligibility for and the amount and nature of assistance to be provided. The Department may also enter into written agreements with private and public social service agencies to provide emergency financial services to families referred by the Department. Special financial assistance payments shall be available to a family no more than once during each fiscal year and the total payments to a family may not exceed $500 during a fiscal year.

(q) The Department may receive and use, in their entirety, for the benefit of children any gift, donation or bequest of money or other property which is received on behalf of such children, or any financial benefits to which such children are or may become entitled while under the jurisdiction or care of the Department.

The Department shall set up and administer no-cost, interest-bearing accounts in appropriate financial institutions for children for whom the Department is legally responsible and who have been determined eligible for Veterans' Benefits, Social Security benefits, assistance allotments from the armed forces, court ordered payments, parental voluntary payments, Supplemental Security Income, Railroad Retirement payments, Black Lung benefits, or other miscellaneous payments. Interest earned by each account shall be credited to the account, unless disbursed in accordance with this subsection.

In disbursing funds from children's accounts, the Department shall:

(1) Establish standards in accordance with State and federal laws for disbursing money from children's accounts. In all circumstances, the Department's "Guardianship Administrator" or his or her designee must approve disbursements from children's accounts. The Department shall be responsible for keeping complete records of all disbursements for each account for any purpose.

(2) Calculate on a monthly basis the amounts paid from State funds for the child's board and care, medical care not covered under Medicaid, and social services; and utilize funds from the child's account, as covered by regulation, to reimburse those costs. Monthly, disbursements from all children's accounts, up to 1/12 of $13,000,000, shall be deposited by the Department into the General Revenue Fund and the balance over 1/12 of $13,000,000 into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

(3) Maintain any balance remaining after reimbursing for the child's costs of care, as specified in item (2). The balance shall accumulate in accordance with relevant State and federal laws and shall be disbursed to the child or his or her guardian, or to the issuing agency.

(r) The Department shall promulgate regulations encouraging all adoption agencies to voluntarily forward to the Department or its agent names and addresses of all persons who have applied for and have been approved for adoption of a hard-to-place or handicapped child and the names of such children who have not been placed for adoption. A list of such names and addresses shall be maintained by the Department or its agent, and coded lists which maintain the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child shall be made available, without charge, to every adoption agency in the State to assist the agencies in placing such children for adoption. The Department may delegate to an agent its duty to maintain and make available such lists. The Department shall ensure that such agent maintains the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child.

(s) The Department of Children and Family Services may establish and implement a program to reimburse Department and private child welfare agency foster parents licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services for damages sustained by the foster parents as a result of the malicious or negligent acts of foster children, as well as providing third party coverage for such foster parents with regard to actions of foster children to other individuals. Such coverage will be secondary to the foster parent liability insurance policy, if applicable. The program shall be funded through appropriations from the General Revenue Fund, specifically designated for such purposes.

(t) The Department shall perform home studies and investigations and shall exercise supervision over visitation as ordered by a court pursuant to the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act or the Adoption Act only if:

(1) an order entered by an Illinois court specifically directs the Department to perform such services; and

(2) the court has ordered one or both of the parties to the proceeding to reimburse the Department for its reasonable costs for providing such services in accordance with Department rules, or has determined that neither party is financially able to pay.

The Department shall provide written notification to the court of the specific arrangements for supervised visitation and projected monthly costs within 60 days of the court order. The Department shall send to the court information related to the costs incurred except in cases where the court has determined the parties are financially unable to pay. The court may order additional periodic reports as appropriate.

(u) In addition to other information that must be provided, whenever the Department places a child with a prospective adoptive parent or parents or in a licensed foster home, group home, child care institution, or in a relative home, the Department shall provide to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker:

(1) available detailed information concerning the child's educational and health history, copies of immunization records (including insurance and medical card information), a history of the child's previous placements, if any, and reasons for placement changes excluding any information that identifies or reveals the location of any previous caretaker;

(2) a copy of the child's portion of the client service plan, including any visitation arrangement, and all amendments or revisions to it as related to the child; and

(3) information containing details of the child's individualized educational plan when the child is receiving special education services.

The caretaker shall be informed of any known social or behavioral information (including, but not limited to, criminal background, fire setting, perpetuation of sexual abuse, destructive behavior, and substance abuse) necessary to care for and safeguard the children to be placed or currently in the home. The Department may prepare a written summary of the information required by this paragraph, which may be provided to the foster or prospective adoptive parent in advance of a placement. The foster or prospective adoptive parent may review the supporting documents in the child's file in the presence of casework staff. In the case of an emergency placement, casework staff shall at least provide known information verbally, if necessary, and must subsequently provide the information in writing as required by this subsection.

The information described in this subsection shall be provided in writing. In the case of emergency placements when time does not allow prior review, preparation, and collection of written information, the Department shall provide such information as it becomes available. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall obtain from the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker a signed verification of receipt of the information provided. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall provide to the child's guardian ad litem a copy of the information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker. The information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker shall be reviewed and approved regarding accuracy at the supervisory level.

(u-5) Effective July 1, 1995, only foster care placements licensed as foster family homes pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969 shall be eligible to receive foster care payments from the Department. Relative caregivers who, as of July 1, 1995, were approved pursuant to approved relative placement rules previously promulgated by the Department at 89 Ill. Adm. Code 335 and had submitted an application for licensure as a foster family home may continue to receive foster care payments only until the Department determines that they may be licensed as a foster family home or that their application for licensure is denied or until September 30, 1995, whichever occurs first.

(v) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act and information maintained in the adjudicatory and dispositional record system as defined in Section 2605-355 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-355) if the Department determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act. The Department shall provide for interactive computerized communication and processing equipment that permits direct on-line communication with the Department of State Police's central criminal history data repository. The Department shall comply with all certification requirements and provide certified operators who have been trained by personnel from the Department of State Police. In addition, one Office of the Inspector General investigator shall have training in the use of the criminal history information access system and have access to the terminal. The Department of Children and Family Services and its employees shall abide by rules and regulations established by the Department of State Police relating to the access and dissemination of this information.

(v-1) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall conduct a criminal records background check of the prospective foster or adoptive parent, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases. Final approval for placement shall not be granted if the record check reveals a felony conviction for child abuse or neglect, for spousal abuse, for a crime against children, or for a crime involving violence, including rape, sexual assault, or homicide, but not including other physical assault or battery, or if there is a felony conviction for physical assault, battery, or a drug-related offense committed within the past 5 years.

(v-2) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall check its child abuse and neglect registry for information concerning prospective foster and adoptive parents, and any adult living in the home. If any prospective foster or adoptive parent or other adult living in the home has resided in another state in the preceding 5 years, the Department shall request a check of that other state's child abuse and neglect registry.

(w) Within 120 days of August 20, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-392), the Department shall prepare and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly, a written plan for the development of in-state licensed secure child care facilities that care for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being. For purposes of this subsection, secure care facility shall mean a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, a building or a distinct part of the building, are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility, building, or distinct part of the building. The plan shall include descriptions of the types of facilities that are needed in Illinois; the cost of developing these secure care facilities; the estimated number of placements; the potential cost savings resulting from the movement of children currently out-of-state who are projected to be returned to Illinois; the necessary geographic distribution of these facilities in Illinois; and a proposed timetable for development of such facilities.

(x) The Department shall conduct annual credit history checks to determine the financial history of children placed under its guardianship pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall conduct such credit checks starting when a ward turns 12 years old and each year thereafter for the duration of the guardianship as terminated pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall determine if financial exploitation of the child's personal information has occurred. If financial exploitation appears to have taken place or is presently ongoing, the Department shall notify the proper law enforcement agency, the proper State's Attorney, or the Attorney General.

(y) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, a child with a disability who receives residential and educational services from the Department shall be eligible to receive transition services in accordance with Article 14 of the School Code from the age of 14.5 through age 21, inclusive, notwithstanding the child's residential services arrangement. For purposes of this subsection, "child with a disability" means a child with a disability as defined by the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004.

(z) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined as "background information" in this subsection and criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act for each Department employee or Department applicant. Each Department employee or Department applicant shall submit his or her fingerprints to the Department of State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. The Department of State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department of Children and Family Services.

For purposes of this subsection:

"Background information" means all of the following:

(i) Upon the request of the Department of Children and Family Services, conviction information obtained from the Department of State Police as a result of a fingerprint-based criminal history records check of the Illinois criminal history records database and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records database concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(ii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Department of State Police's Sex Offender Database, as authorized by Section 120 of the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(iii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Child Abuse and Neglect Tracking System (CANTS) operated and maintained by the Department.

"Department employee" means a full-time or temporary employee coded or certified within the State of Illinois Personnel System.

"Department applicant" means an individual who has conditional Department full-time or part-time work, a contractor, an individual used to replace or supplement staff, an academic intern, a volunteer in Department offices or on Department contracts, a work-study student, an individual or entity licensed by the Department, or an unlicensed service provider who works as a condition of a contract or an agreement and whose work may bring the unlicensed service provider into contact with Department clients or client records.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-249, eff. 1-1-14; 98-570, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-4-13.)

Section 70. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 605-300 and 605-320 as follows:

(20 ILCS 605/605-300) (was 20 ILCS 605/46.2)

Sec. 605-300. Economic and business development plans; Illinois Business Development Council.

(a) Economic development plans. The Department shall develop a strategic economic development plan for the State by July 1, 2014. By no later than July 1, 2015, and by July 1 annually thereafter, the Department shall make modifications to the plan as modifications are warranted by changes in economic conditions or by other factors, including changes in policy. In addition to the annual modification, the plan shall be reviewed and redeveloped in full every 5 years. In the development of the annual economic development plan, the Department shall consult with representatives of the private sector, other State agencies, academic institutions, local economic development organizations, local governments, and not-for-profit organizations. The annual economic development plan shall set specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and time-sensitive goals and shall include a focus on areas of high unemployment or poverty.

The term "economic development" shall be construed broadly by the Department and may include, but is not limited to, job creation, job retention, tax base enhancements, development of human capital, workforce productivity, critical infrastructure, regional competitiveness, social inclusion, standard of living, environmental sustainability, energy independence, quality of life, the effective use of financial incentives, the utilization of public private partnerships where appropriate, and other metrics determined by the Department.

The plan shall be based on relevant economic data, focus on economic development as prescribed by this Section, and emphasize strategies to retain and create jobs.

The plan shall identify and develop specific strategies for utilizing the assets of regions within the State defined as counties and municipalities or other political subdivisions in close geographical proximity that share common economic traits such as commuting zones, labor market areas, or other economically integrated characteristics.

If the plan includes strategies that have a fiscal impact on the Department or any other agency, the plan shall include a detailed description of the estimated fiscal impact of such strategies.

Prior to publishing the plan in its final form, the Department shall allow for a reasonable time for public input.

The Department shall transmit copies of the economic development plan to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than July 1, 2014, and by July 1 annually thereafter. The plan and its corresponding modifications shall be published and made available to the public in both paper and electronic media, on the Department's website, and by any other method that the Department deems appropriate.

The Department shall annually submit legislation to implement the strategic economic development plan or modifications to the strategic economic development plan to the Governor, the President and Minority Leader of the Senate, and the Speaker and the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives. The legislation shall be in the form of one or more substantive bills drafted by the Legislative Reference Bureau.

(b) Business development plans; Illinois Business Development Council.

(1) There is created the Illinois Business Development Council, hereinafter referred to as the Council. The Council shall consist of the Director, who shall serve as co-chairperson, and 12 voting members who shall be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate.

(A) The voting members of the Council shall include one representative from each of the following businesses and groups: small business, coal, healthcare, large manufacturing, small or specialized manufacturing, agriculture, high technology or applied science, local economic development entities, private sector organized labor, a local or state business association or chamber of commerce.

(B) There shall be 2 at-large voting members who reside within areas of high unemployment within counties or municipalities that have had an annual average unemployment rate of at least 120% of the State's annual average unemployment rate as reported by the Department of Employment Security for the 5 years preceding the date of appointment.

(2) All appointments shall be made in a geographically diverse manner.

(3) For the initial appointments to the Council, 6 voting members shall be appointed to serve a 2-year term and 6 voting members shall be appointed to serve a 4-year term. Thereafter, all appointments shall be for terms of 4 years. The initial term of voting members shall commence on the first Wednesday in February 2014. Thereafter, the terms of voting members shall commence on the first Wednesday in February, except in the case of an appointment to fill a vacancy. Vacancies occurring among the members shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment for the remainder of the unexpired term. For a vacancy occurring when the Senate is not in session, the Governor may make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate when a person shall be nominated to fill the office, and, upon confirmation by the Senate, he or she shall hold office during the remainder of the term. A vacancy in membership does not impair the ability of a quorum to exercise all rights and perform all duties of the Council. A member is eligible for reappointment.

(4) Members shall serve without compensation, but may be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties from funds appropriated for that purpose.

(5) In addition, the following shall serve as ex officio, non-voting members of the Council in order to provide specialized advice and support to the Council: the Secretary of Transportation, or his or her designee; the Director of Employment Security, or his or her designee; the Executive Director of the Illinois Finance Authority, or his or her designee; the Director of Agriculture, or his or her designee; the Director of Revenue, or his or her designee; the Director of Labor, or his or her designee; and the Director of the Environmental Protection Agency, or his or her designee. Ex officio Ex-officio members shall provide staff and technical assistance to the Council when appropriate.

(6) In addition to the Director, the voting members shall elect a co-chairperson.

(7) The Council shall meet at least twice annually and at such other times as the co-chairpersons or any 5 voting members consider necessary. Seven voting members shall constitute a quorum of the Council.

(8) The Department shall provide staff assistance to the Council.

(9) The Council shall provide the Department relevant information in a timely manner pursuant to its duties as enumerated in this Section that can be used by the Department to enhance the State's strategic economic development plan.

(10) The Council shall:

(A) Develop an overall strategic business development plan for the State of Illinois and update the plan at least annually.

(B) Develop business marketing plans for the State of Illinois to effectively solicit new company investment and existing business expansion. Insofar as allowed under the Illinois Procurement Code, and subject to appropriations made by the General Assembly for such purposes, the Council may assist the Department in the procurement of outside vendors to carry out such marketing plans.

(C) Seek input from local economic development officials to develop specific strategies to effectively link State and local business development and marketing efforts focusing on areas of high unemployment or poverty.

(D) Provide the Department with advice on strategic business development and business marketing for the State of Illinois.

(E) Provide the Department research and recommend best practices for developing investment tools for business attraction and retention.

(Source: P.A. 98-397, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-8-13.)

(20 ILCS 605/605-320) (was 20 ILCS 605/46.5)

Sec. 605-320. Encouragement of existing industries. To encourage the growth and expansion of industries now existing within the State by providing comprehensive business services and promoting interdepartmental cooperation for assistance to industries.

As a condition of any financial incentives provided by the Department in the form of (1) tax credits and tax exemptions (other than given under tax increment financing) given as an incentive to a recipient business organization pursuant to an initial certification or an initial designation made by the Department under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act, the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act, and the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, including the High Impact Business program, (2) grants or loans given to a recipient as an incentive to a business organization pursuant to the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act, the Large Business Development Program, the Business Development Public Infrastructure Program, or the Industrial Training Program, the Department shall require the recipient of such financial incentives to report at least quarterly the number of jobs to be created or retained, or both created and retained, by the recipient as a result of the financial incentives, including the number of full-time, permanent jobs, the number of part-time jobs, and the number of temporary jobs. Further, the recipient of such financial incentives shall provide the Department at least annually a detailed list of the occupation or job classifications and number of new employees or retained employees to be hired in full-time, permanent jobs, a schedule of anticipated starting dates of the new hires and the actual average wage by occupation or job classification and total payroll to be created as a result of the financial incentives.

(Source: P.A. 98-397, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-8-13.)

Section 75. The Lake Michigan Wind Energy Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 896/20)

Sec. 20. Offshore Wind Energy Economic Development Policy Task Force.

(a) The Governor shall convene an Offshore Wind Energy Economic Development Policy Task Force, to be chaired by the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, or his or her designee, to analyze and evaluate policy and economic options to facilitate the development of offshore wind energy, and to propose an appropriate Illinois mechanism for purchasing and selling power from possible offshore wind energy projects. The Task Force shall examine mechanisms used in other states and jurisdictions, including, without limitation, feed-in tariffs feed-in-tariffs, renewable energy certificates, renewable energy certificate carve-outs, power purchase agreements, and pilot projects. The Task Force shall report its findings and recommendations to the Governor and General Assembly by December 31, 2013.

(b) The Director of the Illinois Power Agency (or his or her designee), the Executive Director of the Illinois Commerce Commission (or his or her designee), the Director of Natural Resources (or his or her designee), and the Attorney General (or his or her designee) shall serve as ex officio members of the Task Force.

(c) The Governor shall appoint the following public members to serve on the Task Force:

(1) one individual from an institution of higher education in Illinois representing the discipline of economics with experience in the study of renewable energy;

(2) one individual representing an energy industry with experience in renewable energy markets;

(3) one individual representing a Statewide consumer or electric ratepayer organization;

(4) one individual representing the offshore wind energy industry;

(5) one individual representing the wind energy supply chain industry;

(6) one individual representing an Illinois electrical cooperative, municipal electrical utility, or association of such cooperatives or utilities;

(7) one individual representing an Illinois industrial union involved in the construction, maintenance, or transportation of electrical generation, distribution, or transmission equipment or components;

(8) one individual representing an Illinois commercial or industrial electrical consumer;

(9) one individual representing an Illinois public education electrical consumer;

(10) one individual representing an independent transmission company;

(11) one individual from the Illinois legal community with experience in contracts, utility law, municipal law, and constitutional law;

(12) one individual representing a Great Lakes regional organization with experience assessing or studying wind energy;

(13) one individual representing a Statewide environmental organization;

(14) one resident of the State representing an organization advocating for persons of low or limited incomes;

(15) one individual representing Argonne National Laboratory; and

(16) one individual representing a local community that has aggregated the purchase of electricity.

(d) The Governor may appoint additional public members to the Task Force.

(e) The Speaker of the House of Representatives, Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, Senate President, and Minority Leader of the Senate shall each appoint one member of the General Assembly to serve on the Task Force.

(f) Members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation.

(Source: P.A. 98-447, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-7-13.)

Section 80. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1705/14) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-14)

Sec. 14. Chester Mental Health Center. To maintain and operate a facility for the care, custody, and treatment of persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with developmental disabilities hereinafter designated, to be known as the Chester Mental Health Center.

Within the Chester Mental Health Center there shall be confined the following classes of persons, whose history, in the opinion of the Department, discloses dangerous or violent tendencies and who, upon examination under the direction of the Department, have been found a fit subject for confinement in that facility:

(a) Any male person who is charged with the commission of a crime but has been acquitted by reason of insanity as provided in Section 5-2-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(b) Any male person who is charged with the commission of a crime but has been found unfit under Article 104 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(c) Any male person with mental illness or developmental disabilities or person in need of mental treatment now confined under the supervision of the Department or hereafter admitted to any facility thereof or committed thereto by any court of competent jurisdiction.

If and when it shall appear to the facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center that it is necessary to confine persons in order to maintain security or provide for the protection and safety of recipients and staff, the Chester Mental Health Center may confine all persons on a unit to their rooms. This period of confinement shall not exceed 10 hours in a 24 hour period, including the recipient's scheduled hours of sleep, unless approved by the Secretary of the Department. During the period of confinement, the persons confined shall be observed at least every 15 minutes. A record shall be kept of the observations. This confinement shall not be considered seclusion as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

The facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center may authorize the temporary use of handcuffs on a recipient for a period not to exceed 10 minutes when necessary in the course of transport of the recipient within the facility to maintain custody or security. Use of handcuffs is subject to the provisions of Section 2-108 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The facility shall keep a monthly record listing each instance in which handcuffs are used, circumstances indicating the need for use of handcuffs, and time of application of handcuffs and time of release therefrom. The facility director shall allow the Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, and the Department to examine and copy such record upon request.

The facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center may authorize the temporary use of transport devices on a civil recipient when necessary in the course of transport of the civil recipient outside the facility to maintain custody or security. The decision whether to use any transport devices shall be reviewed and approved on an individualized basis by a physician based upon a determination of the civil recipient's: (1) history of violence, (2) history of violence during transports, (3) history of escapes and escape attempts, (4) history of trauma, (5) history of incidents of restraint or seclusion and use of involuntary medication, (6) current functioning level and medical status, and (7) prior experience during similar transports, and (8) the length, duration, and purpose of the transport. The least restrictive transport device consistent with the individual's need shall be used. Staff transporting the individual shall be trained in the use of the transport devices, recognizing and responding to a person in distress, and shall observe and monitor the individual while being transported. The facility shall keep a monthly record listing all transports, including those transports for which use of transport devices was were not sought, those for which use of transport devices was were sought but denied, and each instance in which transport devices are used, circumstances indicating the need for use of transport devices, time of application of transport devices, time of release from those devices, and any adverse events. The facility director shall allow the Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, and the Department to examine and copy the record upon request. This use of transport devices shall not be considered restraint as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. For the purpose of this Section "transport device" means ankle cuffs, handcuffs, waist chains or wrist-waist devices designed to restrict an individual's range of motion while being transported. These devices must be approved by the Division of Mental Health, used in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions, and used only by qualified staff members who have completed all training required to be eligible to transport patients and all other required training relating to the safe use and application of transport devices, including recognizing and responding to signs of distress in an individual whose movement is being restricted by a transport device.

If and when it shall appear to the satisfaction of the Department that any person confined in the Chester Mental Health Center is not or has ceased to be such a source of danger to the public as to require his subjection to the regimen of the center, the Department is hereby authorized to transfer such person to any State facility for treatment of persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with developmental disabilities, as the nature of the individual case may require.

Subject to the provisions of this Section, the Department, except where otherwise provided by law, shall, with respect to the management, conduct and control of the Chester Mental Health Center and the discipline, custody and treatment of the persons confined therein, have and exercise the same rights and powers as are vested by law in the Department with respect to any and all of the State facilities for treatment of persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with developmental disabilities, and the recipients thereof, and shall be subject to the same duties as are imposed by law upon the Department with respect to such facilities and the recipients thereof.

The Department may elect to place persons who have been ordered by the court to be detained under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act in a distinct portion of the Chester Mental Health Center. The persons so placed shall be separated and shall not comingle with the recipients of the Chester Mental Health Center. The portion of Chester Mental Health Center that is used for the persons detained under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall not be a part of the mental health facility for the enforcement and implementation of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code nor shall their care and treatment be subject to the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The changes added to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are inoperative on and after June 30, 2015.

(Source: P.A. 98-79, eff. 7-15-13; 98-356, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-4-13.)

Section 85. The Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2105-15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-15)

Sec. 2105-15. General powers and duties.

(a) The Department has, subject to the provisions of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the following powers and duties:

(1) To authorize examinations in English to ascertain the qualifications and fitness of applicants to exercise the profession, trade, or occupation for which the examination is held.

(2) To prescribe rules and regulations for a fair and wholly impartial method of examination of candidates to exercise the respective professions, trades, or occupations.

(3) To pass upon the qualifications of applicants for licenses, certificates, and authorities, whether by examination, by reciprocity, or by endorsement.

(4) To prescribe rules and regulations defining, for the respective professions, trades, and occupations, what shall constitute a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, and to determine the reputability and good standing of a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, by reference to a compliance with those rules and regulations; provided, that no school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution that refuses admittance to applicants solely on account of race, color, creed, sex, or national origin shall be considered reputable and in good standing.

(5) To conduct hearings on proceedings to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to licenses, certificates, or authorities of persons exercising the respective professions, trades, or occupations and to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to those licenses, certificates, or authorities. The Department shall issue a monthly disciplinary report. The Department shall deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to any person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided by or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the aforementioned persons have established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or other appropriate governmental agency of this State. Additionally, beginning June 1, 1996, any license issued by the Department may be suspended or revoked if the Department, after the opportunity for a hearing under the appropriate licensing Act, finds that the licensee has failed to make satisfactory repayment to the Illinois Student Assistance Commission for a delinquent or defaulted loan. For the purposes of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule. The Department shall refuse to issue or renew a license to, or shall suspend or revoke a license of, any person who, after receiving notice, fails to comply with a subpoena or warrant relating to a paternity or child support proceeding. However, the Department may issue a license or renewal upon compliance with the subpoena or warrant.

The Department, without further process or hearings, shall revoke, suspend, or deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to a person who is certified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) as being more than 30 days delinquent in complying with a child support order or who is certified by a court as being in violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act for more than 60 days. The Department may, however, issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or if the person is determined by the court to be in compliance with the Non-Support Punishment Act. The Department may implement this paragraph as added by Public Act 89-6 through the use of emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, the adoption of rules to implement this paragraph shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(6) To transfer jurisdiction of any realty under the control of the Department to any other department of the State Government or to acquire or accept federal lands when the transfer, acquisition, or acceptance is advantageous to the State and is approved in writing by the Governor.

(7) To formulate rules and regulations necessary for the enforcement of any Act administered by the Department.

(8) To exchange with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services information that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984. Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, the Department of Professional Regulation shall not be liable under any federal or State law to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under this paragraph (8) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (8).

(9) To perform other duties prescribed by law.

(a-5) Except in cases involving default on an educational loan or scholarship provided by or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State or in cases involving delinquency in complying with a child support order or violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act, no person or entity whose license, certificate, or authority has been revoked as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department may apply for restoration of that license, certification, or authority until 3 years after the effective date of the revocation.

(b) The Department may, when a fee is payable to the Department for a wall certificate of registration provided by the Department of Central Management Services, require that portion of the payment for printing and distribution costs be made directly or through the Department to the Department of Central Management Services for deposit into the Paper and Printing Revolving Fund. The remainder shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(c) For the purpose of securing and preparing evidence, and for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities, recoupment of investigative costs, and other activities directed at suppressing the misuse and abuse of controlled substances, including those activities set forth in Sections 504 and 508 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Director and agents appointed and authorized by the Director may expend sums from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund that the Director deems necessary from the amounts appropriated for that purpose. Those sums may be advanced to the agent when the Director deems that procedure to be in the public interest. Sums for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities and other activities as set forth in this Section shall be advanced to the agent who is to make the purchase from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund on vouchers signed by the Director. The Director and those agents are authorized to maintain one or more commercial checking accounts with any State banking corporation or corporations organized under or subject to the Illinois Banking Act for the deposit and withdrawal of moneys to be used for the purposes set forth in this Section; provided, that no check may be written nor any withdrawal made from any such account except upon the written signatures of 2 persons designated by the Director to write those checks and make those withdrawals. Vouchers for those expenditures must be signed by the Director. All such expenditures shall be audited by the Director, and the audit shall be submitted to the Department of Central Management Services for approval.

(d) Whenever the Department is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-400), the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files that is necessary to fulfill the request.

(e) The provisions of this Section do not apply to private business and vocational schools as defined by Section 15 of the Private Business and Vocational Schools Act of 2012.

(f) Beginning July 1, 1995, this Section does not apply to those professions, trades, and occupations licensed under the Real Estate License Act of 2000, nor does it apply to any permits, certificates, or other authorizations to do business provided for in the Land Sales Registration Act of 1989 or the Illinois Real Estate Time-Share Act.

(g) Notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing statute or administrative rule, the Department shall deny any license application or renewal authorized under any licensing Act administered by the Department to any person who has failed to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirement of any such tax Act are satisfied; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue. For the purpose of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule.

In addition, a complaint filed with the Department by the Illinois Department of Revenue that includes a certification, signed by its Director or designee, attesting to the amount of the unpaid tax liability or the years for which a return was not filed, or both, is prima facie facia evidence of the licensee's failure to comply with the tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue. Upon receipt of that certification, the Department shall, without a hearing, immediately suspend all licenses held by the licensee. Enforcement of the Department's order shall be stayed for 60 days. The Department shall provide notice of the suspension to the licensee by mailing a copy of the Department's order by certified and regular mail to the licensee's last known address as registered with the Department. The notice shall advise the licensee that the suspension shall be effective 60 days after the issuance of the Department's order unless the Department receives, from the licensee, a request for a hearing before the Department to dispute the matters contained in the order.

Any suspension imposed under this subsection (g) shall be terminated by the Department upon notification from the Illinois Department of Revenue that the licensee is in compliance with all tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department shall promulgate rules for the administration of this subsection (g).

(h) The Department may grant the title "Retired", to be used immediately adjacent to the title of a profession regulated by the Department, to eligible retirees. The use of the title "Retired" shall not constitute representation of current licensure, registration, or certification. Any person without an active license, registration, or certificate in a profession that requires licensure, registration, or certification shall not be permitted to practice that profession.

(i) Within 180 days after December 23, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-852), the Department shall promulgate rules which permit a person with a criminal record, who seeks a license or certificate in an occupation for which a criminal record is not expressly a per se bar, to apply to the Department for a non-binding, advisory opinion to be provided by the Board or body with the authority to issue the license or certificate as to whether his or her criminal record would bar the individual from the licensure or certification sought, should the individual meet all other licensure requirements including, but not limited to, the successful completion of the relevant examinations.

(Source: P.A. 96-459, eff. 8-14-09; 96-852, eff. 12-23-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-650, eff. 2-1-12; revised 9-9-13.)

Section 90. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 2310-665 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-665)

Sec. 2310-665. Educational materials on streptococcal infection. The Department, in conjunction with the Illinois State Board of Education, shall develop educational material on streptococcal infection for distribution in elementary and secondary schools. The material shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) a process to notify parents or guardians of an outbreak in the school;

(2) a process to provide information on all of the symptoms of streptococcal infection to teachers, parents, and students; and

(3) guidelines for schools to control the spread of streptococcal infections.

(Source: P.A. 98-236, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-12-13.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-670)

Sec. 2310-670 2310-665. Breast cancer patient education.

(a) The General Assembly makes the following findings:

(1) Annually, about 207,090 new cases of breast cancer are diagnosed, according to the American Cancer Society.

(2) Breast cancer has a disproportionate and detrimental impact on African-American women and is the most common cancer among Hispanic and Latina women.

(3) African-American women under the age of 40 have a greater incidence of breast cancer than Caucasian women of the same age.

(4) Individuals undergoing surgery for breast cancer should give due consideration to the option of breast reconstructive surgery, either at the same time as the breast cancer surgery or at a later date.

(5) According to the American Cancer Society, immediate breast reconstruction offers the advantage of combining the breast cancer surgery with the reconstructive surgery and is cost effective.

(6) According to the American Cancer Society, delayed breast reconstruction may be advantageous in women who require post-surgical radiation or other treatments.

(7) A woman suffering from the loss of her breast may not be a candidate for surgical breast reconstruction or may choose not to undergo additional surgery and instead choose breast prostheses.

(8) The federal Women's Health and Cancer Rights Act of 1998 requires health plans that offer breast cancer coverage to also provide for breast reconstruction.

(9) Required coverage for breast reconstruction includes all the necessary stages of reconstruction. Surgery of the opposite breast for symmetry may be required. Breast prostheses may be necessary. Other sequelae of breast cancer treatment, such as lymphedema, must be covered.

(10) Several states have enacted laws to require that women receive information on their breast cancer treatment and reconstruction options.

(b) In this Section:

"Hispanic" has the same meaning as in Section 1707 of the federal Public Health Services Act.

"Racial and ethnic minority group" has the same meaning as in Section 1707 of the federal Public Health Services Act.

(c) The Director shall provide for the planning and implementation of an education campaign to inform breast cancer patients, especially those in racial and ethnic minority groups, anticipating surgery regarding the availability and coverage of breast reconstruction, prostheses, and other options. The campaign shall include the dissemination, at a minimum, on relevant State health Internet websites, including the Department of Public Health's Internet website, of the following information:

(1) Breast reconstruction is possible at the time of breast cancer surgery or in a delayed fashion.

(2) Prostheses or breast forms may be available.

(3) Federal law mandates both public and private health plans to include coverage of breast reconstruction and prostheses.

(4) The patient has a right to choose the provider of reconstructive care, including the potential transfer of care to a surgeon that provides breast reconstructive care.

(5) The patient may opt to undergo breast reconstruction in a delayed fashion for personal reasons or after completion of all other breast cancer treatments.

The campaign may include dissemination of such other information, whether developed by the Director or by other entities, as the Director determines relevant. The campaign shall not specify, or be designed to serve as a tool to limit, the health care providers available to patients.

(d) In developing the information to be disseminated under this Section, the Director shall consult with appropriate medical societies and patient advocates related to breast cancer, patient advocates representing racial and ethnic minority groups, with a special emphasis on African-American and Hispanic populations' population's breast reconstructive surgery, and breast prostheses and breast forms.

(e) Beginning no later than January 1, 2016 (2 years after the effective date of Public Act 98-479) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and continuing each second year thereafter, the Director shall submit to the General Assembly a report describing the activities carried out under this Section during the preceding 2 fiscal years, including evaluating the extent to which the activities have been effective in improving the health of racial and ethnic minority groups.

(Source: P.A. 98-479, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-12-13.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-675)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 2310-675 2310-665. Hepatitis C Task Force.

(a) The General Assembly finds and declares the following:

(1) Viral hepatitis is a contagious and life-threatening disease that has a substantial and increasing effect upon the lifespans and quality of life of at least 5,000,000 persons living in the United States and as many as 180,000,000 worldwide. According to the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), the chronic form of the hepatitis C virus (HCV) and hepatitis B virus (HBV) account for the vast majority of hepatitis-related mortalities in the U.S., yet as many as 65% to 75% of infected Americans remain unaware that they are infected with the virus, prompting the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) to label these viruses as the silent epidemic. HCV and HBV are major public health problems that cause chronic liver diseases, such as cirrhosis, liver failure, and liver cancer. The 5-year survival rate for primary liver cancer is less than 5%. These viruses are also the leading cause of liver transplantation in the United States. While there is a vaccine for HBV, no vaccine exists for HCV. However, there are anti-viral treatments for HCV that can improve the prognosis or actually clear the virus from the patient's system. Unfortunately, the vast majority of infected patients remain unaware that they have the virus since there are generally no symptoms. Therefore, there is a dire need to aid the public in identifying certain risk factors that would warrant testing for these viruses. Millions of infected patients remain undiagnosed and continue to be at elevated risks for developing more serious complications. More needs to be done to educate the public about this disease and the risk factors that warrant testing. In some cases, infected patients play an unknowing role in further spreading this infectious disease.

(2) The existence of HCV was definitively published and discovered by medical researchers in 1989. Prior to this date, HCV is believed to have spread unchecked. The American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) recommends that primary care physicians screen all patients for a history of any viral hepatitis risk factor and test those individuals with at least one identifiable risk factor for the virus. Some of the most common risk factors have been identified by AASLD, HHS, and the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, as well as other public health and medical research organizations, and include the following:

(A) anyone who has received a blood transfusion prior to 1992;

(B) anyone who is a Vietnam-era veteran;

(C) anyone who has abnormal liver function tests;

(D) anyone infected with the HIV virus;

(E) anyone who has used a needle to inject drugs;

(F) any health care, emergency medical, or public safety worker who has been stuck by a needle or exposed to any mucosal fluids of an HCV-infected person; and

(G) any children born to HCV-infected mothers.

A 1994 study determined that Caucasian Americans statistically accounted for the most number of infected persons in the United States, while the highest incidence rates were among African and Hispanic Americans.

(3) In January of 2010, the Institute of Medicine (IOM), commissioned by the CDC, issued a comprehensive report entitled Hepatitis and Liver Cancer: A National Strategy for Prevention and Control of Hepatitis B and C. The key findings and recommendations from the IOM's report are (A) there is a lack of knowledge and awareness about chronic viral hepatitis on the part of health care and social service providers, (B) there is a lack of knowledge and awareness about chronic viral hepatitis among at-risk populations, members of the public, and policy makers, and (C) there is insufficient understanding about the extent and seriousness of the public health problem, so inadequate public resources are being allocated to prevention, control, and surveillance programs.

(4) In this same 2010 IOM report, researchers compared the prevalence and incidences of HCV, HBV, and HIV and found that, although there are only 1,100,000 HIV/AIDS infected persons in the United States and over 4,000,000 Americans infected with viral hepatitis, the percentage of those with HIV that are unaware they have HIV is only 21% as opposed to approximately 70% of those with viral hepatitis being unaware that they have viral hepatitis. It appears that public awareness of risk factors associated with each of these diseases could be a major factor in the alarming disparity between the percentage of the population that is infected with one of these blood viruses, but unaware that they are infected.

(5) In light of the widely varied nature of the risk factors mentioned in this subsection (a), the previous findings by the Institute of Medicine, and the clear evidence of the disproportional public awareness between HIV and viral hepatitis, it is clearly in the public interest for this State to establish a task force to gather testimony and develop an action plan to (A) increase public awareness of the risk factors for these viruses, (B) improve access to screening for these viruses, and (C) provide those infected with information about the prognosis, treatment options, and elevated risk of developing cirrhosis and liver cancer. There is clear and increasing evidence that many adults in Illinois and in the United States have at least one of the risk factors mentioned in this subsection (a).

(6) The General Assembly also finds that it is in the public interest to bring communities of Illinois-based veterans of American military service into familiarity with the issues created by this disease, because many veterans, especially Vietnam-era veterans, have at least one of the previously enumerated risk factors and are especially prone to being affected by this disease; and because veterans of American military service should enjoy in all cases, and do enjoy in most cases, adequate access to health care services that include medical management and care for preexisting and long-term medical conditions, such as infection with the hepatitis virus.

(b) There is established the Hepatitis C Task Force within the Department of Public Health. The purpose of the Task Force shall be to:

(1) develop strategies to identify and address the unmet needs of persons with hepatitis C in order to enhance the quality of life of persons with hepatitis C by maximizing productivity and independence and addressing emotional, social, financial, and vocational challenges of persons with hepatitis C;

(2) develop strategies to provide persons with hepatitis C greater access to various treatments and other therapeutic options that may be available; and

(3) develop strategies to improve hepatitis C education and awareness.

(c) The Task Force shall consist of 17 members as follows:

(1) the Director of Public Health, the Director of Veterans' Affairs, and the Director of Human Services, or their designees, who shall serve ex officio;

(2) ten public members who shall be appointed by the Director of Public Health from the medical, patient, and service provider communities, including, but not limited to, HCV Support, Inc.; and

(3) four members of the General Assembly, appointed one each by the President of the Senate, the Minority Leader of the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

Vacancies in the membership of the Task Force shall be filled in the same manner provided for in the original appointments.

(d) The Task Force shall organize within 120 days following the appointment of a majority of its members and shall select a chairperson and vice-chairperson from among the members. The chairperson shall appoint a secretary, who need not be a member of the Task Force.

(e) The public members shall serve without compensation and shall not be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties, unless funds become available to the Task Force.

(f) The Task Force shall be entitled to call to its assistance and avail itself of the services of the employees of any State, county, or municipal department, board, bureau, commission, or agency as it may require and as may be available to it for its purposes.

(g) The Task Force may meet and hold hearings as it deems appropriate.

(h) The Department of Public Health shall provide staff support to the Task Force.

(i) The Task Force shall report its findings and recommendations to the Governor and to the General Assembly, along with any legislative bills that it desires to recommend for adoption by the General Assembly, no later than December 31, 2015.

(j) The Task Force is abolished and this Section is repealed on January 1, 2016.

(Source: P.A. 98-493, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-12-13.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-680)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 2310-680 2310-665. Multiple Sclerosis Task Force.

(a) The General Assembly finds and declares the following:

(1) Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic, often disabling, disease that attacks the central nervous system, which is comprised of the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerves. MS is the number one disabling disease among young adults, striking in the prime of life. It is a disease in which the body, through its immune system, launches a defensive and damaging attack against its own tissues. MS damages the nerve-insulating myelin sheath that surrounds and protects the brain. The damage to the myelin sheath slows down or blocks messages between the brain and the body.

(2) Most people experience their first symptoms of MS between the ages of 20 and 40, but MS can appear in young children and teens as well as much older adults. MS symptoms can include visual disturbances, muscle weakness, trouble with coordination and balance, sensations such as numbness, prickling or pins and needles, and thought and memory problems. MS patients can also experience partial or complete paralysis, speech impediments, tremors, dizziness, stiffness and spasms, fatigue, paresthesias, pain, and loss of sensation.

(3) The cause of MS remains unknown; however, having a first-degree relative, such as a parent or sibling, with MS significantly increases a person's risk of developing the disease. According to the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke, it is estimated that there are approximately 250,000 to 350,000 persons in the United States who are diagnosed with MS. This estimate suggests that approximately 200 new cases are diagnosed each week. Other sources report a population of at least 400,000 in the United States. The estimate of persons with MS in Illinois is 20,000, with at least 2 areas of MS clusters identified in Illinois.

(4) Presently, there is no cure for MS. The complex and variable nature of the disease makes it very difficult to diagnose, treat, and research. The cost to the family, often with young children, can be overwhelming. Among common diagnoses, non-stroke neurologic illnesses, such as multiple sclerosis, were associated with the highest out-of-pocket expenditures (a mean of $34,167), followed by diabetes ($26,971), injuries ($25,096), stroke ($23,380), mental illnesses ($23,178), and heart disease ($21,955). Median out-of-pocket costs for health care among people with MS, excluding insurance premiums, were almost twice as much as the general population. The costs associated with MS increase with greater disability. Costs for severely disabled individuals are more than twice those for persons with a relatively mild form of the disease. A recent study of medical bankruptcy found that 62.1% of all personal bankruptcies in the United States were related to medical costs.

(5) Therefore, it is in the public interest for the State to establish a Multiple Sclerosis Task Force in order to identify and address the unmet needs of persons with MS and develop ways to enhance their quality of life.

(b) There is established the Multiple Sclerosis Task Force in the Department of Public Health. The purpose of the Task Force shall be to:

(1) develop strategies to identify and address the unmet needs of persons with MS in order to enhance the quality of life of persons with MS by maximizing productivity and independence and addressing emotional, social, financial, and vocational challenges of persons with MS;

(2) develop strategies to provide persons with MS greater access to various treatments and other therapeutic options that may be available; and

(3) develop strategies to improve multiple sclerosis education and awareness.

(c) The Task Force shall consist of 16 members as follows:

(1) the Director of Public Health and the Director of Human Services, or their designees, who shall serve ex officio; and

(2) fourteen public members, who shall be appointed by the Director of Public Health as follows: 2 neurologists licensed to practice medicine in this State; 3 registered nurses or other health professionals with MS certification and extensive expertise with progressed MS; one person upon the recommendation of the National Multiple Sclerosis Society; 3 persons who represent agencies that provide services or support to individuals with MS in this State; 3 persons who have MS, at least one of whom having progressed MS; and 2 members of the public with a demonstrated expertise in issues relating to the work of the Task Force.

Vacancies in the membership of the Task Force shall be filled in the same manner provided for in the original appointments.

(d) The Task Force shall organize within 120 days following the appointment of a majority of its members and shall select a chairperson and vice-chairperson from among the members. The chairperson shall appoint a secretary who need not be a member of the Task Force.

(e) The public members shall serve without compensation and shall not be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties unless funds become available to the Task Force.

(f) The Task Force may meet and hold hearings as it deems appropriate.

(g) The Department of Public Health shall provide staff support to the Task Force.

(h) The Task Force shall report its findings and recommendations to the Governor and to the General Assembly, along with any legislative bills that it desires to recommend for adoption by the General Assembly, no later than December 31, 2015.

(i) The Task Force is abolished and this Section is repealed on January 1, 2016.

(Source: P.A. 98-530, eff. 8-23-13; revised 9-12-13.)

Section 95. The Disabilities Services Act of 2003 is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2407/10)

Sec. 10. Application of Act; definitions.

(a) This Act applies to persons with disabilities. The disabilities included are defined for purposes of this Act as follows:

"Disability" means a disability as defined by the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 that is attributable to a developmental disability, a mental illness, or a physical disability, or combination of those.

"Developmental disability" means a disability that is attributable to an intellectual disability or a related condition. A related condition must meet all of the following conditions:

(1) It must be attributable to cerebral palsy, epilepsy, or any other condition (other than mental illness) found to be closely related to an intellectual disability because that condition results in impairment of general intellectual functioning or adaptive behavior similar to that of individuals with an intellectual disability, and requires treatment or services similar to those required for those individuals. For purposes of this Section, autism is considered a related condition.

(2) It must be manifested before the individual reaches age 22.

(3) It must be likely to continue indefinitely.

(4) It must result in substantial functional limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major life activity: self-care, language, learning, mobility, self-direction, and capacity for independent living.

"Mental Illness" means a mental or emotional disorder verified by a diagnosis contained in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders-Fourth Edition, published by the American Psychiatric Association (DSM-IV), or its successor, or International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-9-CM), or its successor, that substantially impairs a person's cognitive, emotional, or behavioral functioning, or any combination of those, excluding (i) conditions that may be the focus of clinical attention but are not of sufficient duration or severity to be categorized as a mental illness, such as parent-child relational problems, partner-relational problems, sexual abuse of a child, bereavement, academic problems, phase-of-life problems, and occupational problems (collectively, "V codes"), (ii) organic disorders such as substance intoxication dementia, substance withdrawal dementia, Alzheimer's disease, vascular dementia, dementia due to HIV infection, and dementia due to Creutzfeldt-Jakob Creutzfeld-Jakob disease and disorders associated with known or unknown physical conditions such as hallucinosis, amnestic disorders and delirium, and psychoactive substance-induced organic disorders, and (iii) an intellectual disability or psychoactive substance use disorders.

"Intellectual disability" means significantly sub-average general intellectual functioning existing concurrently with deficits in adaptive behavior and manifested before the age of 22 years.

"Physical disability" means a disability as defined by the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 that meets the following criteria:

(1) It is attributable to a physical impairment.

(2) It results in a substantial functional limitation in any of the following areas of major life activity: (i) self-care, (ii) receptive and expressive language, (iii) learning, (iv) mobility, (v) self-direction, (vi) capacity for independent living, and (vii) economic sufficiency.

(3) It reflects the person's need for a combination and sequence of special, interdisciplinary, or general care, treatment, or other services that are of lifelong or of extended duration and must be individually planned and coordinated.

(b) In this Act:

"Chronological age-appropriate services" means services, activities, and strategies for persons with disabilities that are representative of the lifestyle activities of nondisabled peers of similar age in the community.

"Comprehensive evaluation" means procedures used by qualified professionals selectively with an individual to determine whether a person has a disability and the nature and extent of the services that the person with a disability needs.

"Department" means the Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Public Aid (now Department Healthcare and Family Services), the University of Illinois Division of Specialized Care for Children, the Department of Children and Family Services, and the Illinois State Board of Education, where appropriate, as designated in the implementation plan developed under Section 20.

"Family" means a natural, adoptive, or foster parent or parents or other person or persons responsible for the care of an individual with a disability in a family setting.

"Family or individual support" means those resources and services that are necessary to maintain an individual with a disability within the family home or his or her own home. These services may include, but are not limited to, cash subsidy, respite care, and counseling services.

"Independent service coordination" means a social service that enables persons with developmental disabilities and their families to locate, use, and coordinate resources and opportunities in their communities on the basis of individual need. Independent service coordination is independent of providers of services and funding sources and is designed to ensure accessibility, continuity of care, and accountability and to maximize the potential of persons with developmental disabilities for independence, productivity, and integration into the community. Independent service coordination includes, at a minimum: (i) outreach to identify eligible individuals; (ii) assessment and periodic reassessment to determine each individual's strengths, functional limitations, and need for specific services; (iii) participation in the development of a comprehensive individual service or treatment plan; (iv) referral to and linkage with needed services and supports; (v) monitoring to ensure the delivery of appropriate services and to determine individual progress in meeting goals and objectives; and (vi) advocacy to assist the person in obtaining all services for which he or she is eligible or entitled.

"Individual service or treatment plan" means a recorded assessment of the needs of a person with a disability, a description of the services recommended, the goals of each type of element of service, an anticipated timetable for the accomplishment of the goals, and a designation of the qualified professionals responsible for the implementation of the plan.

"Least restrictive environment" means an environment that represents the least departure from the normal patterns of living and that effectively meets the needs of the person receiving the service.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-4-13.)

Section 100. The Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2605-595 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-595)

Sec. 2605-595. State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund known as the State Police Firearm Services Fund. The Fund shall receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act and Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(b) The Department of State Police may use moneys in the Fund to finance any of its lawful purposes, mandates, functions, and duties under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, including the cost of sending notices of expiration of Firearm Owner's Identification Cards, concealed carry licenses, the prompt and efficient processing of applications under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, the improved efficiency and reporting of the LEADS and federal NICS law enforcement data systems, and support for investigations required under these Acts and law. Any surplus funds beyond what is needed to comply with the aforementioned purposes shall be used by the Department to improve the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) and criminal history background check system.

(c) Investment income that is attributable to the investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund for the uses specified in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-600)

Sec. 2605-600 2605-595. Crimes Against Police Officers Advisory.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

"Attempt" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 8-4 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Concealment of homicidal death" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 9-3.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"First degree murder" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Involuntary manslaughter" and "reckless homicide" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Second degree murder" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 9-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) A coordinated program known as the Crimes Against Police Officers Advisory is established within the Department of State Police. The purpose of the Crimes Against Police Officers Advisory is to provide a regional system for the rapid dissemination of information regarding a person who is suspected of committing or attempting to commit any of the offenses described in subsection (c).

(c) The Department of State Police shall develop an advisory to assist law enforcement agencies when the commission or attempted commission of the following offenses against a peace officer occur:

(1) first degree murder;

(2) second degree murder;

(3) involuntary manslaughter;

(4) reckless homicide; and

(5) concealment of homicidal death.

(d) Law enforcement agencies participating in the advisory may request assistance when:

(1) the agency believes that a suspect has not been apprehended;

(2) the agency believes that the suspect may be a serious threat to the public; and

(3) sufficient information is available to disseminate to the public that could assist in locating the suspect.

(e) The Department of State Police shall reserve the authority to determine if dissemination of the information will pose a significant risk to the public or jeopardize the investigation.

(f) The Department of State Police may partner with media and may request a media broadcast concerning details of the suspect in order to obtain the public's assistance in locating the suspect or vehicle used in the offense, or both.

(Source: P.A. 98-263, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

Section 105. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 206-4)

Sec. 4. The Department may use the following systems of identification: the Bertillon The Bertillion system, the finger print system, and any system of measurement or identification that may be adopted by law or rule in the various penal institutions or bureaus of identification wherever located.

The Department shall make a record consisting of duplicates of all measurements, processes, operations, signalletic cards, plates, photographs, outline pictures, measurements, descriptions of and data relating to all persons confined in penal institutions wherever located, so far as the same are obtainable, in accordance with whatever system or systems may be found most efficient and practical.

(Source: Laws 1957, p. 1422; revised 9-4-13.)

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement and sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Unified Code of Corrections, 730 ILCS 5/5-1-2 through 5/5-1-22:

(i) Business Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-2),

(ii) Charge (730 ILCS 5/5-1-3),

(iii) Court (730 ILCS 5/5-1-6),

(iv) Defendant (730 ILCS 5/5-1-7),

(v) Felony (730 ILCS 5/5-1-9),

(vi) Imprisonment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-10),

(vii) Judgment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-12),

(viii) Misdemeanor (730 ILCS 5/5-1-14),

(ix) Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-15),

(x) Parole (730 ILCS 5/5-1-16),

(xi) Petty Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-17),

(xii) Probation (730 ILCS 5/5-1-18),

(xiii) Sentence (730 ILCS 5/5-1-19),

(xiv) Supervision (730 ILCS 5/5-1-21), and

(xv) Victim (730 ILCS 5/5-1-22).

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by 730 ILCS 5/5-1-3) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes but is not limited to the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision, an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)), or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) offenses defined as "crimes of violence" in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) offenses which are Class A misdemeanors under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) the sealing of the records of an arrest which results in the petitioner being charged with a felony offense or records of a charge not initiated by arrest for a felony offense unless:

(i) the charge is amended to a misdemeanor and is otherwise eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c);

(ii) the charge is brought along with another charge as a part of one case and the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, and another charge brought in the same case results in a disposition for a misdemeanor offense that is eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c) or a disposition listed in paragraph (i), (iii), or (iv) of this subsection;

(iii) the charge results in first offender probation as set forth in subsection (c)(2)(E);

(iv) the charge is for a felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F) or the charge is amended to a felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F);

(v) the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without conviction; or

(vi) the charge results in a conviction, but the conviction was reversed or vacated.

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when:

(A) He or she has never been convicted of a criminal offense; and

(B) Each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not be eligible for expungement until the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Department for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Department, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Department of State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Department of State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Department of State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of innocence shall also enter an order expunging the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in felony convictions for the following offenses:

(i) Class 4 felony convictions for:

Prostitution under Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession of cannabis under Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act.

Possession of a controlled substance under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

Offenses under the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.

Offenses under the Steroid Control Act.

Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession of burglary tools under Section 19-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(ii) Class 3 felony convictions for:

Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession with intent to manufacture or deliver a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed (i) 3 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)) if the petitioner has never been convicted of a criminal offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(D)); or (ii) 4 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)) if the petitioner has ever been convicted of a criminal offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(D)).

(C) Records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 4 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(D) Records identified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing under subsections (c) and (e-5):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, if not waived.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address. If the petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the petition.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Cannabis Control Act if he or she is petitioning to:

(A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);

(B) seal felony records for a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);

(C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or

(D) expunge felony records of a qualified probation under clause (b)(1)(B)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to support the petition under subsection (e), (e-5), or (e-6) on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the Department as to the appropriateness of the relief sought in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing. The court may consider the following:

(A) the strength of the evidence supporting the defendant's conviction;

(B) the reasons for retention of the conviction records by the State;

(C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history, and employment history;

(D) the period of time between the petitioner's arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and the filing of the petition under this Section; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences the petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Implementation of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Department, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records under subsection (e-6):

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for these records from anyone not authorized by law to access the records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Department, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(D) The Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the date of service of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the order resolving the motion, if that order requires the Department to expunge or seal records. In the event of an appeal from the circuit court order, the Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not required while any motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, or any appeal or petition for discretionary appellate review, is pending.

(10) Fees. The Department may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of any error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d).

(14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order even if a party is seeking relief from the order through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order.

(15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the order granting the petition to expunge through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.

(16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public Act 98-163 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and to all orders ruling on a petition to expunge or seal on or after August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for sealing.

(e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all expunged records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for expungement.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(Source: P.A. 97-443, eff. 8-19-11; 97-698, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1026, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1120, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-133, eff. 1-1-14; 98-142, eff. 1-1-14; 98-163, eff. 8-5-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14; 98-399, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-4-13.)

Section 110. The Governor's Office of Management and Budget Act is amended by changing Section 2.7 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3005/2.7)

Sec. 2.7. Securities information. To assist those entities underwriting securities that are payable from State appropriations, whether issued by the State or by others, by providing financial and other information regarding the State to securities investors, nationally recognized securities information repositories, or the federal Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board, and to any State information depository as required by the federal Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 and the rules promulgated thereunder. The Governor's Office of Management and Budget is the only State office authorized to provide such information.

(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; revised 9-4-13.)

Section 115. The Capital Development Board Act is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3105/14) (from Ch. 127, par. 783.01)

Sec. 14. (a) It is the purpose of this Act to provide for the promotion and preservation of the arts by securing suitable works of art for the adornment of public buildings constructed or subjected to major renovation by the State or which utilize State funds, and thereby reflecting the diverse cultural heritage of Illinois, with emphasis on the works of Illinois artists.

(b) As used in this Act, "works : "Works of art" shall apply to and include paintings, prints, sculptures, graphics, mural decorations, stained glass, statues, bas reliefs, ornaments, fountains, ornamental gateways, or other creative works which reflect form, beauty and aesthetic perceptions.

(c) Beginning with the fiscal year ending June 30, 1979, and for each succeeding fiscal year thereafter, for construction projects managed by the Capital Development Board, the Capital Development Board shall set aside 1/2 of 1 percent of the amount authorized and appropriated for construction or reconstruction of each public building financed in whole or in part by State funds and generally accessible to and used by the public for purchase and placement of suitable works of art in such public buildings. The location and character of the work or works of art to be installed in such public buildings shall be determined by the Chairperson of the Illinois Arts Council, in consultation with the designing architect. The work or works of art shall be in a permanent and prominent location..

(d) There is created a Fine Arts Review Committee consisting of the designing architect, the Chairperson of the Illinois Arts Council or his or her designee, who shall serve as the chair of the Committee, the Director of the Illinois State Museum or his or her designee, and a representative of the using agency. The Committee, after such study as it deems necessary, shall recommend three artists or works of art in order of preference. The Chairperson of the Illinois Arts Council will make the final selection from among the recommendations submitted. The Illinois Arts Council shall provide administrative support for the Fine Arts Review Committee and may promulgate rules to implement this subsection.

(e) Subsection (c) does not apply to construction projects for which the amount appropriated is less than $1,000,000.

(f) The Capital Development Board shall enter into a contract with the artist, or with the owner of the work or works of art, selected by the Chairperson of the Illinois Arts Council as provided in subsection (d) of this Section. The total amount of the contract or contracts shall not exceed the amount set aside pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section. If the Capital Development Board cannot reach an agreement with the artist or owner of the work or works of art, then the Board shall notify the Chairperson of the Illinois Arts Council, and the Chairperson may select a different artist or work or works of art from the three recommendations made by the Fine Arts Review Committee.

(Source: P.A. 98-572, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 120. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act is amended by changing Section 21 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3305/21) (from Ch. 127, par. 1071)

Sec. 21. No Private Liability.

(a) Any person owning or controlling real estate or other premises who voluntarily and without compensation grants a license or privilege, or otherwise permits the designation or use of the whole or any part or parts of such real estate or premises for the purpose of sheltering persons during an actual or impending disaster, or an a exercise together with his or her successors in interest, if any, shall not be civilly liable for negligently causing the death of, or injury to, any person on or about such real estate or premises under such license, privilege or other permission, or for negligently causing loss of, or damage to, the property of such person.

(b) Any private person, firm or corporation and employees and agents of such person, firm or corporation in the performance of a contract with, and under the direction of, the State, or any political subdivision of the State under the provisions of this Act shall not be civilly liable for causing the death of, or injury to, any person or damage to any property except in the event of willful misconduct.

(c) Any private person, firm or corporation, and any employee or agent of such person, firm or corporation, who renders assistance or advice at the request of the State, or any political subdivision of the State under this Act during an actual or impending disaster, shall not be civilly liable for causing the death of, or injury to, any person or damage to any property except in the event of willful misconduct.

The immunities provided in this subsection (c) shall not apply to any private person, firm or corporation, or to any employee or agent of such person, firm or corporation whose act or omission caused in whole or in part such actual or impending disaster and who would otherwise be liable therefor.

(Source: P.A. 92-73, eff. 1-1-02; revised 10-7-13.)

Section 125. The Illinois Finance Authority Act is amended by changing Section 801-10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3501/801-10)

Sec. 801-10. Definitions. The following terms, whenever used or referred to in this Act, shall have the following meanings, except in such instances where the context may clearly indicate otherwise:

(a) The term "Authority" means the Illinois Finance Authority created by this Act.

(b) The term "project" means an industrial project, conservation project, housing project, public purpose project, higher education project, health facility project, cultural institution project, municipal bond program project, agricultural facility or agribusiness, and "project" may include any combination of one or more of the foregoing undertaken jointly by any person with one or more other persons.

(c) The term "public purpose project" means any project or facility, including without limitation land, buildings, structures, machinery, equipment and all other real and personal property, which is authorized or required by law to be acquired, constructed, improved, rehabilitated, reconstructed, replaced or maintained by any unit of government or any other lawful public purpose which is authorized or required by law to be undertaken by any unit of government.

(d) The term "industrial project" means the acquisition, construction, refurbishment, creation, development or redevelopment of any facility, equipment, machinery, real property or personal property for use by any instrumentality of the State or its political subdivisions, for use by any person or institution, public or private, for profit or not for profit, or for use in any trade or business, including, but not limited to, any industrial, manufacturing or commercial enterprise that is located within or outside the State, provided that, with respect to a project involving property located outside the State, the property must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, and which is (1) a capital project, including, but not limited to: (i) land and any rights therein, one or more buildings, structures or other improvements, machinery and equipment, whether now existing or hereafter acquired, and whether or not located on the same site or sites; (ii) all appurtenances and facilities incidental to the foregoing, including, but not limited to, utilities, access roads, railroad sidings, track, docking and similar facilities, parking facilities, dockage, wharfage, railroad roadbed, track, trestle, depot, terminal, switching and signaling or related equipment, site preparation and landscaping; and (iii) all non-capital costs and expenses relating thereto or (2) any addition to, renovation, rehabilitation or improvement of a capital project or (3) any activity or undertaking within or outside the State, provided that, with respect to a project involving property located outside the State, the property must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, which the Authority determines will aid, assist or encourage economic growth, development or redevelopment within the State or any area thereof, will promote the expansion, retention or diversification of employment opportunities within the State or any area thereof or will aid in stabilizing or developing any industry or economic sector of the State economy. The term "industrial project" also means the production of motion pictures.

(e) The term "bond" or "bonds" shall include bonds, notes (including bond, grant or revenue anticipation notes), certificates and/or other evidences of indebtedness representing an obligation to pay money, including refunding bonds.

(f) The terms "lease agreement" and "loan agreement" shall mean: (i) an agreement whereby a project acquired by the Authority by purchase, gift or lease is leased to any person, corporation or unit of local government which will use or cause the project to be used as a project as heretofore defined upon terms providing for lease rental payments at least sufficient to pay when due all principal of, interest and premium, if any, on any bonds of the Authority issued with respect to such project, providing for the maintenance, insuring and operation of the project on terms satisfactory to the Authority, providing for disposition of the project upon termination of the lease term, including purchase options or abandonment of the premises, and such other terms as may be deemed desirable by the Authority, or (ii) any agreement pursuant to which the Authority agrees to loan the proceeds of its bonds issued with respect to a project or other funds of the Authority to any person which will use or cause the project to be used as a project as heretofore defined upon terms providing for loan repayment installments at least sufficient to pay when due all principal of, interest and premium, if any, on any bonds of the Authority, if any, issued with respect to the project, and providing for maintenance, insurance and other matters as may be deemed desirable by the Authority.

(g) The term "financial aid" means the expenditure of Authority funds or funds provided by the Authority through the issuance of its bonds, notes or other evidences of indebtedness or from other sources for the development, construction, acquisition or improvement of a project.

(h) The term "person" means an individual, corporation, unit of government, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, 2 or more persons having a joint or common interest, or any other legal entity.

(i) The term "unit of government" means the federal government, the State or unit of local government, a school district, or any agency or instrumentality, office, officer, department, division, bureau, commission, college or university thereof.

(j) The term "health facility" means: (a) any public or private institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act; (b) any public or private institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act; (c) any public or licensed private hospital as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; (d) any such facility exempted from such licensure when the Director of Public Health attests that such exempted facility meets the statutory definition of a facility subject to licensure; (e) any other public or private health service institution, place, building, or agency which the Director of Public Health attests is subject to certification by the Secretary, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services under the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended, or which the Director of Public Health attests is subject to standard-setting by a recognized public or voluntary accrediting or standard-setting agency; (f) any public or private institution, place, building or agency engaged in providing one or more supporting services to a health facility; (g) any public or private institution, place, building or agency engaged in providing training in the healing arts, including, but not limited to, schools of medicine, dentistry, osteopathy, optometry, podiatry, pharmacy or nursing, schools for the training of x-ray, laboratory or other health care technicians and schools for the training of para-professionals in the health care field; (h) any public or private congregate, life or extended care or elderly housing facility or any public or private home for the aged or infirm, including, without limitation, any Facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act; (i) any public or private mental, emotional or physical rehabilitation facility or any public or private educational, counseling, or rehabilitation facility or home, for those persons with a developmental disability, those who are physically ill or disabled, the emotionally disturbed, those persons with a mental illness or persons with learning or similar disabilities or problems; (j) any public or private alcohol, drug or substance abuse diagnosis, counseling treatment or rehabilitation facility, (k) any public or private institution, place, building or agency licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or which is not so licensed but which the Director of Children and Family Services attests provides child care, child welfare or other services of the type provided by facilities subject to such licensure; (l) any public or private adoption agency or facility; and (m) any public or private blood bank or blood center. "Health facility" also means a public or private structure or structures suitable primarily for use as a laboratory, laundry, nurses or interns residence or other housing or hotel facility used in whole or in part for staff, employees or students and their families, patients or relatives of patients admitted for treatment or care in a health facility, or persons conducting business with a health facility, physician's facility, surgicenter, administration building, research facility, maintenance, storage or utility facility and all structures or facilities related to any of the foregoing or required or useful for the operation of a health facility, including parking or other facilities or other supporting service structures required or useful for the orderly conduct of such health facility. "Health facility" also means, with respect to a project located outside the State, any public or private institution, place, building, or agency which provides services similar to those described above, provided that such project is owned, operated, leased or managed by a participating health institution located within the State, or a participating health institution affiliated with an entity located within the State.

(k) The term "participating health institution" means (i) a private corporation or association or (ii) a public entity of this State, in either case authorized by the laws of this State or the applicable state to provide or operate a health facility as defined in this Act and which, pursuant to the provisions of this Act, undertakes the financing, construction or acquisition of a project or undertakes the refunding or refinancing of obligations, loans, indebtedness or advances as provided in this Act.

(l) The term "health facility project", means a specific health facility work or improvement to be financed or refinanced (including without limitation through reimbursement of prior expenditures), acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, with funds provided in whole or in part hereunder, any accounts receivable, working capital, liability or insurance cost or operating expense financing or refinancing program of a health facility with or involving funds provided in whole or in part hereunder, or any combination thereof.

(m) The term "bond resolution" means the resolution or resolutions authorizing the issuance of, or providing terms and conditions related to, bonds issued under this Act and includes, where appropriate, any trust agreement, trust indenture, indenture of mortgage or deed of trust providing terms and conditions for such bonds.

(n) The term "property" means any real, personal or mixed property, whether tangible or intangible, or any interest therein, including, without limitation, any real estate, leasehold interests, appurtenances, buildings, easements, equipment, furnishings, furniture, improvements, machinery, rights of way, structures, accounts, contract rights or any interest therein.

(o) The term "revenues" means, with respect to any project, the rents, fees, charges, interest, principal repayments, collections and other income or profit derived therefrom.

(p) The term "higher education project" means, in the case of a private institution of higher education, an educational facility to be acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof.

(q) The term "cultural institution project" means, in the case of a cultural institution, a cultural facility to be acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof.

(r) The term "educational facility" means any property located within the State, or any property located outside the State, provided that, if the property is located outside the State, it must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, in each case constructed or acquired before or after the effective date of this Act, which is or will be, in whole or in part, suitable for the instruction, feeding, recreation or housing of students, the conducting of research or other work of a private institution of higher education, the use by a private institution of higher education in connection with any educational, research or related or incidental activities then being or to be conducted by it, or any combination of the foregoing, including, without limitation, any such property suitable for use as or in connection with any one or more of the following: an academic facility, administrative facility, agricultural facility, assembly hall, athletic facility, auditorium, boating facility, campus, communication facility, computer facility, continuing education facility, classroom, dining hall, dormitory, exhibition hall, fire fighting facility, fire prevention facility, food service and preparation facility, gymnasium, greenhouse, health care facility, hospital, housing, instructional facility, laboratory, library, maintenance facility, medical facility, museum, offices, parking area, physical education facility, recreational facility, research facility, stadium, storage facility, student union, study facility, theatre or utility.

(s) The term "cultural facility" means any property located within the State, or any property located outside the State, provided that, if the property is located outside the State, it must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, in each case constructed or acquired before or after the effective date of this Act, which is or will be, in whole or in part, suitable for the particular purposes or needs of a cultural institution, including, without limitation, any such property suitable for use as or in connection with any one or more of the following: an administrative facility, aquarium, assembly hall, auditorium, botanical garden, exhibition hall, gallery, greenhouse, library, museum, scientific laboratory, theater or zoological facility, and shall also include, without limitation, books, works of art or music, animal, plant or aquatic life or other items for display, exhibition or performance. The term "cultural facility" includes buildings on the National Register of Historic Places which are owned or operated by nonprofit entities.

(t) "Private institution of higher education" means a not-for-profit educational institution which is not owned by the State or any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which is authorized by law to provide a program of education beyond the high school level and which:

(1) Admits as regular students only individuals having a certificate of graduation from a high school, or the recognized equivalent of such a certificate;

(2) Provides an educational program for which it awards a bachelor's degree, or provides an educational program, admission into which is conditioned upon the prior attainment of a bachelor's degree or its equivalent, for which it awards a postgraduate degree, or provides not less than a 2-year program which is acceptable for full credit toward such a degree, or offers a 2-year program in engineering, mathematics, or the physical or biological sciences which is designed to prepare the student to work as a technician and at a semiprofessional level in engineering, scientific, or other technological fields which require the understanding and application of basic engineering, scientific, or mathematical principles or knowledge;

(3) Is accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency or association or, if not so accredited, is an institution whose credits are accepted, on transfer, by not less than 3 institutions which are so accredited, for credit on the same basis as if transferred from an institution so accredited, and holds an unrevoked certificate of approval under the Private College Act from the Board of Higher Education, or is qualified as a "degree granting institution" under the Academic Degree Act; and

(4) Does not discriminate in the admission of students on the basis of race or color. "Private institution of higher education" also includes any "academic institution".

(u) The term "academic institution" means any not-for-profit institution which is not owned by the State or any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which institution engages in, or facilitates academic, scientific, educational or professional research or learning in a field or fields of study taught at a private institution of higher education. Academic institutions include, without limitation, libraries, archives, academic, scientific, educational or professional societies, institutions, associations or foundations having such purposes.

(v) The term "cultural institution" means any not-for-profit institution which is not owned by the State or any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which institution engages in the cultural, intellectual, scientific, educational or artistic enrichment of the people of the State. Cultural institutions include, without limitation, aquaria, botanical societies, historical societies, libraries, museums, performing arts associations or societies, scientific societies and zoological societies.

(w) The term "affiliate" means, with respect to financing of an agricultural facility or an agribusiness, any lender, any person, firm or corporation controlled by, or under common control with, such lender, and any person, firm or corporation controlling such lender.

(x) The term "agricultural facility" means land, any building or other improvement thereon or thereto, and any personal properties deemed necessary or suitable for use, whether or not now in existence, in farming, ranching, the production of agricultural commodities (including, without limitation, the products of aquaculture, hydroponics and silviculture) or the treating, processing or storing of such agricultural commodities when such activities are customarily engaged in by farmers as a part of farming and which land, building, improvement or personal property is located within the State, or is located outside the State, provided, that, if such property is located outside the State, it must be owned, operated, leased, or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State.

(y) The term "lender" with respect to financing of an agricultural facility or an agribusiness, means any federal or State chartered bank, Federal Land Bank, Production Credit Association, Bank for Cooperatives, federal or State chartered savings and loan association or building and loan association, Small Business Investment Company or any other institution qualified within this State to originate and service loans, including, but without limitation to, insurance companies, credit unions and mortgage loan companies. "Lender" also means a wholly owned subsidiary of a manufacturer, seller or distributor of goods or services that makes loans to businesses or individuals, commonly known as a "captive finance company".

(z) The term "agribusiness" means any sole proprietorship, limited partnership, co-partnership, joint venture, corporation or cooperative which operates or will operate a facility located within the State or outside the State, provided, that, if any facility is located outside the State, it must be owned, operated, leased, or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, that is related to the processing of agricultural commodities (including, without limitation, the products of aquaculture, hydroponics and silviculture) or the manufacturing, production or construction of agricultural buildings, structures, equipment, implements, and supplies, or any other facilities or processes used in agricultural production. Agribusiness includes but is not limited to the following:

(1) grain handling and processing, including grain storage, drying, treatment, conditioning, mailing and packaging;

(2) seed and feed grain development and processing;

(3) fruit and vegetable processing, including preparation, canning and packaging;

(4) processing of livestock and livestock products, dairy products, poultry and poultry products, fish or apiarian products, including slaughter, shearing, collecting, preparation, canning and packaging;

(5) fertilizer and agricultural chemical manufacturing, processing, application and supplying;

(6) farm machinery, equipment and implement manufacturing and supplying;

(7) manufacturing and supplying of agricultural commodity processing machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment used in slaughter, treatment, handling, collecting, preparation, canning or packaging of agricultural commodities;

(8) farm building and farm structure manufacturing, construction and supplying;

(9) construction, manufacturing, implementation, supplying or servicing of irrigation, drainage and soil and water conservation devices or equipment;

(10) fuel processing and development facilities that produce fuel from agricultural commodities or byproducts;

(11) facilities and equipment for processing and packaging agricultural commodities specifically for export;

(12) facilities and equipment for forestry product processing and supplying, including sawmilling operations, wood chip operations, timber harvesting operations, and manufacturing of prefabricated buildings, paper, furniture or other goods from forestry products;

(13) facilities and equipment for research and development of products, processes and equipment for the production, processing, preparation or packaging of agricultural commodities and byproducts.

(aa) The term "asset" with respect to financing of any agricultural facility or any agribusiness, means, but is not limited to the following: cash crops or feed on hand; livestock held for sale; breeding stock; marketable bonds and securities; securities not readily marketable; accounts receivable; notes receivable; cash invested in growing crops; net cash value of life insurance; machinery and equipment; cars and trucks; farm and other real estate including life estates and personal residence; value of beneficial interests in trusts; government payments or grants; and any other assets.

(bb) The term "liability" with respect to financing of any agricultural facility or any agribusiness shall include, but not be limited to the following: accounts payable; notes or other indebtedness owed to any source; taxes; rent; amounts owed on real estate contracts or real estate mortgages; judgments; accrued interest payable; and any other liability.

(cc) The term "Predecessor Authorities" means those authorities as described in Section 845-75.

(dd) The term "housing project" means a specific work or improvement located within the State or outside the State and undertaken to provide residential dwelling accommodations, including the acquisition, construction or rehabilitation of lands, buildings and community facilities and in connection therewith to provide nonhousing facilities which are part of the housing project, including land, buildings, improvements, equipment and all ancillary facilities for use for offices, stores, retirement homes, hotels, financial institutions, service, health care, education, recreation or research establishments, or any other commercial purpose which are or are to be related to a housing development, provided that any work or improvement located outside the State is owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State, or any entity affiliated with an entity located within the State.

(ee) The term "conservation project" means any project including the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, maintenance, operation, or upgrade that is intended to create or expand open space or to reduce energy usage through efficiency measures. For the purpose of this definition, "open space" has the definition set forth under Section 10 of the Illinois Open Land Trust Act.

(ff) The term "significant presence" means the existence within the State of the national or regional headquarters of an entity or group or such other facility of an entity or group of entities where a significant amount of the business functions are performed for such entity or group of entities.

(gg) The term "municipal bond issuer" means the State or any other state or commonwealth of the United States, or any unit of local government, school district, agency or instrumentality, office, department, division, bureau, commission, college or university thereof located in the State or any other state or commonwealth of the United States.

(hh) The term "municipal bond program project" means a program for the funding of the purchase of bonds, notes or other obligations issued by or on behalf of a municipal bond issuer.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-90, eff. 7-15-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; revised 8-9-13.)

Section 130. The Illinois Power Agency Act is amended by changing Sections 1-57 and 1-92 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3855/1-57)

Sec. 1-57. Facility financing.

(a) The Agency shall have the power (1) to borrow from the Authority, through one or more Agency loan agreements, the net proceeds of revenue bonds for costs incurred in connection with the development and construction of a facility, provided that the stated maturity date of any of those revenue bonds shall not exceed 40 years from their respective issuance dates, (2) to accept prepayments from purchasers of electric energy from a project and to apply the same to costs incurred in connection with the development and construction of a facility, subject to any obligation to refund the same under the circumstances specified in the purchasers' contract for the purchase and sale of electric energy from that project, (3) to enter into leases or similar arrangements to finance the property constituting a part of a project and associated costs incurred in connection with the development and construction of a facility, provided that the term of any such lease or similar arrangement shall not exceed 40 years from its inception, and (4) to enter into agreements for the sale of revenue bonds that bear interest at a rate or rates not exceeding the maximum rate permitted by the Bond Authorization Act. All Agency loan agreements shall include terms making the obligations thereunder subject to redemption before maturity.

(b) The Agency may from time to time engage the services of the Authority, attorneys, appraisers, architects, engineers, accountants, credit analysts, bond underwriters, bond trustees, credit enhancement providers, and other financial professionals and consultants, if the Agency deems it advisable.

(c) The Agency may pledge, as security for the payment of its revenue bonds in respect of a project, (1) revenues derived from the operation of the project in part or whole, (2) the real and personal property, machinery, equipment, structures, fixtures, and inventories directly associated with the project, (3) grants or other revenues or taxes expected to be received by the Agency directly linked to the project, (4) payments to be made by another governmental unit or other entity pursuant to a service, user, or other similar agreement with that governmental unit or other entity that is a result of the project, (5) any other revenues or moneys deposited or to be deposited directly linked to the project, (6) all design, engineering, procurement, construction, installation, management, and operation agreements associated with the project, (7) any reserve or debt service funds created under the agreements governing the indebtedness, (8) the Illinois Power Agency Facilities Fund or the Illinois Power Agency Debt Service Fund, or (9) any combination thereof. Any such pledge shall be authorized in a writing, signed by the Director of the Agency, and then signed by the Governor of Illinois. At no time shall the funds contained in the Illinois Power Agency Trust Fund be pledged or used in any way to pay for the indebtedness of the Agency. The Director shall not authorize the issuance or grant of any pledge until he or she has certified that any associated project is in full compliance with Sections 1-85 and 1-86 of this Act. The certification shall be duly attached or referenced in the agreements reflecting the pledge. Any such pledge made by the Agency shall be valid and binding from the time the pledge is made. The revenues, property, or funds that are pledged and thereafter received by the Agency shall immediately be subject to the lien of the pledge without any physical delivery thereof or further act; and, subject only to the provisions of prior liens, the lien of the pledge shall be valid and binding as against all parties having claims of any kind in tort, contract, or otherwise against the Agency irrespective of whether the parties have notice thereof. All bonds issued on behalf of the Agency must be issued by the Authority and must be revenue bonds. These revenue bonds may be taxable or tax-exempt.

(d) All indebtedness issued by or on behalf of the Agency, including, without limitation, any revenue bonds issued by the Authority on behalf of the Agency, shall not be a debt of the State, the Authority, any political subdivision thereof (other than the Agency to the extent provided in agreements governing the indebtedness), any local government, any governmental aggregator as defined in the this Act, or any local government, and none of the State, the Authority, any political subdivision thereof (other than the Agency to the extent provided in agreements governing the indebtedness), any local government, or any government aggregator shall be liable thereon. Neither the Authority nor the Agency shall have the power to pledge the credit, the revenues, or the taxing power of the State, any political subdivision thereof (other than the Agency), any governmental aggregator, or of any local government, and neither the credit, the revenues, nor the taxing power of the State, any political subdivision thereof (other than the Agency), any governmental aggregator, or any local government shall be, or shall be deemed to be, pledged to the payment of any revenue bonds, notes, or other obligations of the Agency. In addition, the agreements governing any issue of indebtedness shall provide that all holders of that indebtedness, by virtue of their acquisition thereof, have agreed to waive and release all claims and causes of action against the State of Illinois in respect of the indebtedness or any project associated therewith based on any theory of law. However, the waiver shall not prohibit the holders of indebtedness issued on behalf of the Agency from filing any cause of action against or recovering damages from the Agency, recovering from any property or funds pledged to secure the indebtedness, or recovering from any property or funds to which the Agency holds title, provided the property or funds are directly associated with the project for which the indebtedness was specifically issued. Each evidence of indebtedness of the Agency, including the revenue bonds issued by the Authority on behalf of the Agency, shall contain a clear and explicit statement of the provisions of this Section.

(e) The Agency may from time to time enter into an agreement or agreements to defease indebtedness issued on its behalf or to refund, at maturity, at a redemption date or in advance of either, any indebtedness issued on its behalf or pursuant to redemption provisions or at any time before maturity. All such refunding indebtedness shall be subject to the requirements set forth in subsections (a), (c), and (d) of this Section. No revenue bonds issued to refund or advance refund revenue bonds issued under this Section may mature later than the longest maturity date of the series of bonds being refunded. After the aggregate original principal amount of revenue bonds authorized in this Section has been issued, the payment of any principal amount of those revenue bonds does not authorize the issuance of additional revenue bonds (except refunding revenue bonds).

(f) If the Agency fails to pay the principal of, interest, or premium, if any, on any indebtedness as the same becomes due, a civil action to compel payment may be instituted in the appropriate circuit court by the holder or holders of the indebtedness on which the default of payment exists or by any administrative agent, collateral agent, or indenture trustee acting on behalf of those holders. Delivery of a summons and a copy of the complaint to the Director of the Agency shall constitute sufficient service to give the circuit court jurisdiction over the subject matter of the suit and jurisdiction over the Agency and its officers named as defendants for the purpose of compelling that payment. Any case, controversy, or cause of action concerning the validity of this Act shall relate to the revenue of the Agency. Any such claims and related proceedings are subject in all respects to the provisions of subsection (d) of this Section. The State of Illinois shall not be liable or in any other way financially responsible for any indebtedness issued by or on behalf of the Agency or the performance or non-performance of any covenants associated with any such indebtedness. The foregoing statement shall not prohibit the holders of any indebtedness issued on behalf of the Agency from filing any cause of action against or recovering damages from the Agency recovering from any property pledged to secure that indebtedness or recovering from any property or funds to which the Agency holds title provided such property or funds are directly associated with the project for which the indebtedness is specifically issued.

(g) Upon each delivery of the revenue bonds authorized to be issued by the Authority under this Act, the Agency shall compute and certify to the State Comptroller the total amount of principal of and interest on the Agency loan agreement supporting the revenue bonds issued that will be payable in order to retire those revenue bonds and the amount of principal of and interest on the Agency loan agreement that will be payable on each payment date during the then current and each succeeding fiscal year. As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning on the date set forth in the Agency loan agreement where that date specifies when the Agency shall begin setting aside revenues and other moneys for repayment of the revenue bonds per the agreed to schedule, the Agency shall certify to the Comptroller and the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the Illinois Power Agency Facilities Fund to the Illinois Power Agency Debt Service Fund for each month remaining in the State fiscal year a sum of money, appropriated for that purpose, equal to the result of the amount of principal of and interest on those revenue bonds payable on the next payment date divided by the number of full calendar months between the date of those revenue bonds, and the first such payment date, and thereafter divided by the number of months between each succeeding payment date after the first. The Comptroller is authorized and directed to draw warrants on the State Treasurer from the Illinois Power Agency Facilities Fund and the Illinois Power Agency Debt Service Fund for the amount of all payments of principal and interest on the Agency loan agreement relating to the Authority revenue bonds issued under this Act. The State Treasurer or the State Comptroller shall deposit or cause to be deposited any amount of grants or other revenues expected to be received by the Agency that the Agency has pledged to the payment of revenue bonds directly into the Illinois Power Agency Debt Service Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; revised 9-12-13.)

(20 ILCS 3855/1-92)

Sec. 1-92. Aggregation of electrical load by municipalities, townships, and counties.

(a) The corporate authorities of a municipality, township board, or county board of a county may adopt an ordinance under which it may aggregate in accordance with this Section residential and small commercial retail electrical loads located, respectively, within the municipality, the township, or the unincorporated areas of the county and, for that purpose, may solicit bids and enter into service agreements to facilitate for those loads the sale and purchase of electricity and related services and equipment.

The corporate authorities, township board, or county board may also exercise such authority jointly with any other municipality, township, or county. Two or more municipalities, townships, or counties, or a combination of both, may initiate a process jointly to authorize aggregation by a majority vote of each particular municipality, township, or county as required by this Section.

If the corporate authorities, township board, or the county board seek to operate the aggregation program as an opt-out program for residential and small commercial retail customers, then prior to the adoption of an ordinance with respect to aggregation of residential and small commercial retail electric loads, the corporate authorities of a municipality, the township board, or the county board of a county shall submit a referendum to its residents to determine whether or not the aggregation program shall operate as an opt-out program for residential and small commercial retail customers. Any county board that seeks to submit such a referendum to its residents shall do so only in unincorporated areas of the county where no electric aggregation ordinance has been adopted.

In addition to the notice and conduct requirements of the general election law, notice of the referendum shall state briefly the purpose of the referendum. The question of whether the corporate authorities, the township board, or the county board shall adopt an opt-out aggregation program for residential and small commercial retail customers shall be submitted to the electors of the municipality, township board, or county board at a regular election and approved by a majority of the electors voting on the question. The corporate authorities, township board, or county board must certify to the proper election authority, which must submit the question at an election in accordance with the Election Code.

The election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall the (municipality, township, or county in which the question is being voted upon) have the authority to arrange for the supply of electricity for its residential and small commercial retail customers who have not opted out of such program? The election authority must record the votes as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then the corporate authorities, township board, or county board may implement an opt-out aggregation program for residential and small commercial retail customers.

A referendum must pass in each particular municipality, township, or county that is engaged in the aggregation program. If the referendum fails, then the corporate authorities, township board, or county board shall operate the aggregation program as an opt-in program for residential and small commercial retail customers.

An ordinance under this Section shall specify whether the aggregation will occur only with the prior consent of each person owning, occupying, controlling, or using an electric load center proposed to be aggregated. Nothing in this Section, however, authorizes the aggregation of electric loads that are served or authorized to be served by an electric cooperative as defined by and pursuant to the Electric Supplier Act or loads served by a municipality that owns and operates its own electric distribution system. No aggregation shall take effect unless approved by a majority of the members of the corporate authority, township board, or county board voting upon the ordinance.

A governmental aggregator under this Section is not a public utility or an alternative retail electric supplier.

For purposes of this Section, "township" means the portion of a township that is an unincorporated portion of a county that is not otherwise a part of a municipality. In addition to such other limitations as are included in this Section, a township board shall only have authority to aggregate residential and small commercial customer loads in accordance with this Section if the county board of the county in which the township is located (i) is not also submitting a referendum to its residents at the same general election that the township board proposes to submit a referendum under this subsection (a), (ii) has not received authorization through passage of a referendum to operate an opt-out aggregation program for residential and small commercial retail customers under this subsection (a), and (iii) has not otherwise enacted an ordinance under this subsection (a) authorizing the operation of an opt-in aggregation program for residential and small commercial retail customers as described in this Section.

(b) Upon the applicable requisite authority under this Section, the corporate authorities, the township board, or the county board, with assistance from the Illinois Power Agency, shall develop a plan of operation and governance for the aggregation program so authorized. Before adopting a plan under this Section, the corporate authorities, township board, or county board shall hold at least 2 public hearings on the plan. Before the first hearing, the corporate authorities, township board, or county board shall publish notice of the hearings once a week for 2 consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the jurisdiction. The notice shall summarize the plan and state the date, time, and location of each hearing. Any load aggregation plan established pursuant to this Section shall:

(1) provide for universal access to all applicable residential customers and equitable treatment of applicable residential customers;

(2) describe demand management and energy efficiency services to be provided to each class of customers; and

(3) meet any requirements established by law concerning aggregated service offered pursuant to this Section.

(c) The process for soliciting bids for electricity and other related services and awarding proposed agreements for the purchase of electricity and other related services shall be conducted in the following order:

(1) The corporate authorities, township board, or county board may solicit bids for electricity and other related services. The bid specifications may include a provision requiring the bidder to disclose the fuel type of electricity to be procured or generated on behalf of the aggregation program customers. The corporate authorities, township board, or county board may consider the proposed source of electricity to be procured or generated to be put into the grid on behalf of aggregation program customers in the competitive bidding process. The Agency and Commission may collaborate to issue joint guidance on voluntary uniform standards for bidder disclosures of the source of electricity to be procured or generated to be put into the grid on behalf of aggregation program customers.

(1.5) A township board shall request from the electric utility those residential and small commercial customers within their aggregate area either by zip code or zip codes or other means as determined by the electric utility. The electric utility shall then provide to the township board the residential and small commercial customers, including the names and addresses of residential and small commercial customers, electronically. The township board shall be responsible for authenticating the residential and small commercial customers contained in this listing and providing edits of the data to affirm, add, or delete the residential and small commercial customers located within its jurisdiction. The township board shall provide the edited list to the electric utility in an electronic format or other means selected by the electric utility and certify that the information is accurate.

(2) Notwithstanding Section 16-122 of the Public Utilities Act and Section 2HH of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act, an electric utility that provides residential and small commercial retail electric service in the aggregate area must, upon request of the corporate authorities, township board, or the county board in the aggregate area, submit to the requesting party, in an electronic format, those account numbers, names, and addresses of residential and small commercial retail customers in the aggregate area that are reflected in the electric utility's records at the time of the request; provided, however, that any township board has first provided an accurate customer list to the electric utility as provided for herein.

Any corporate authority, township board, or county board receiving customer information from an electric utility shall be subject to the limitations on the disclosure of the information described in Section 16-122 of the Public Utilities Act and Section 2HH of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act, and an electric utility shall not be held liable for any claims arising out of the provision of information pursuant to this item (2).

(d) If the corporate authorities, township board, or county board operate under an opt-in program for residential and small commercial retail customers, then the corporate authorities, township board, or county board shall comply with all of the following:

(1) Within 60 days after receiving the bids, the corporate authorities, township board, or county board shall allow residential and small commercial retail customers to commit to the terms and conditions of a bid that has been selected by the corporate authorities, township board, or county board.

(2) If (A) the corporate authorities, township board, or county board award proposed agreements for the purchase of electricity and other related services and (B) an agreement is reached between the corporate authorities, township board, or county board for those services, then customers committed to the terms and conditions according to item (1) of this subsection (d) shall be committed to the agreement.

(e) If the corporate authorities, township board, or county board operate as an opt-out program for residential and small commercial retail customers, then it shall be the duty of the aggregated entity to fully inform residential and small commercial retail customers in advance that they have the right to opt out of the aggregation program. The disclosure shall prominently state all charges to be made and shall include full disclosure of the cost to obtain service pursuant to Section 16-103 of the Public Utilities Act, how to access it, and the fact that it is available to them without penalty, if they are currently receiving service under that Section. The Illinois Power Agency shall furnish, without charge, to any citizen a list of all supply options available to them in a format that allows comparison of prices and products.

(f) Any person or entity retained by a municipality or county, or jointly by more than one such unit of local government, to provide input, guidance, or advice in the selection of an electricity supplier for an aggregation program shall disclose in writing to the involved units of local government the nature of any relationship through which the person or entity may receive, either directly or indirectly, commissions or other remuneration as a result of the selection of any particular electricity supplier. The written disclosure must be made prior to formal approval by the involved units of local government of any professional services agreement with the person or entity, or no later than October 1, 2012 with respect to any such professional services agreement entered into prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. The disclosure shall cover all direct and indirect relationships through which commissions or remuneration may result, including the pooling of commissions or remuneration among multiple persons or entities, and shall identify all involved electricity suppliers. The disclosure requirements in this subsection (f) are to be liberally construed to ensure that the nature of financial interests are fully revealed, and these disclosure requirements shall apply regardless of whether the involved person or entity is licensed under Section 16-115C of the Public Utilities Act. Any person or entity that fails to make the disclosure required under this subsection (f) is liable to the involved units of local government in an amount equal to all compensation paid to such person or entity by the units of local government for the input, guidance, or advice in the selection of an electricity supplier, plus reasonable attorneys fees and court costs incurred by the units of local government in connection with obtaining such amount.

(g) The Illinois Power Agency shall provide assistance to municipalities, townships, counties, or associations working with municipalities to help complete the plan and bidding process.

(h) This Section does not prohibit municipalities or counties from entering into an intergovernmental agreement to aggregate residential and small commercial retail electric loads.

(Source: P.A. 97-338, eff. 8-12-11; 97-823, eff. 7-18-12; 97-1067, eff. 8-24-12; 98-404, eff. 1-1-14; 98-434, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 135. The Addison Creek Restoration Commission Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3901/20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2015)

Sec. 20. Taxing powers.

(a) After the first Monday in October and by the first Monday in December in each year, the Commission shall levy the general taxes for the Commission by general categories for the next fiscal year. A certified copy of the levy ordinance shall be filed with the county clerk of each county in which the that part of the territory of the Commission that is within the Addison Creek floodplain is located by the last Tuesday in December each year.

(b) The amount of taxes levied for general corporate purposes for a fiscal year may not exceed the rate of .01% of the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, of the taxable property located within that part of the territory of the Commission that is within the Addison Creek floodplain, provided that the total amount levied and extended under this Section and Section 17, in the aggregate, in any single taxable year, shall not exceed $10,000,000.

(c) This tax and tax rate are exclusive of the taxes required for the payment of the principal of and interest on bonds.

(d) The rate of the tax levied for general corporate purposes of the Commission may be initially imposed or thereafter increased, up to the maximum rate identified in subsection (b), by the Commission by a resolution calling for the submission of the question of imposing or increasing the rate to the voters of that part of the territory of the Commission that is within the Addison Creek floodplain in accordance with the general election law. The question must be in substantially the following form:

Shall the Commission be authorized to establish its general corporate tax rate at (insert rate) on the equalized assessed value on all taxable property located within that part of the territory of the Commission that is within the Addison Creek floodplain for its general purposes?

The ballot must have printed on it, but not as part of the proposition submitted, the following: "The approximate impact of the proposed (tax rate or increase) on the owner of a single family home having a market value of (insert value) would be (insert amount) in the first year of the (tax rate or increase) if the (tax rate or increase) is fully implemented." The ballot may have printed on it, but not as part of the proposition, one or both of the following: "The last tax rate extended for the purposes of the Commission was (insert rate). The last rate increase approved for the purposes of the Commission was in (insert year)." No other information needs to be included on the ballot.

The votes must be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, the Commission may thereafter levy the tax.

(Source: P.A. 93-948, eff. 8-19-04; 94-682, eff. 11-3-05; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 140. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 14 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3930/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 210-3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-528)

Sec. 3. Definitions. Whenever used in this Act, and for the purposes of this Act unless the context clearly denotes otherwise:

(a) The term "criminal justice system" includes all activities by public agencies pertaining to the prevention or reduction of crime or enforcement of the criminal law, and particularly, but without limitation, the prevention, detection, and investigation of crime; the apprehension of offenders; the protection of victims and witnesses; the administration of juvenile justice; the prosecution and defense of criminal cases; the trial, conviction, and sentencing of offenders; as well as the correction and rehabilitation of offenders, which includes imprisonment, probation, parole, aftercare release, and treatment.

(b) The term "Authority" means the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority created by this Act.

(c) The term "criminal justice information" means any and every type of information that is collected, transmitted, or maintained by the criminal justice system.

(d) The term "criminal history record information" means data identifiable to an individual and consisting of descriptions or notations of arrests, detentions, indictments, informations, pre-trial proceedings, trials, or other formal events in the criminal justice system or descriptions or notations of criminal charges (including criminal violations of local municipal ordinances) and the nature of any disposition arising therefrom, including sentencing, court or correctional supervision, rehabilitation, and release. The term does not apply to statistical records and reports in which individuals are not identified and from which their identities are not ascertainable, or to information that is for criminal investigative or intelligence purposes.

(e) The term "unit of general local government" means any county, municipality or other general purpose political subdivision of this State.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-528)

Sec. 3. Definitions. Whenever used in this Act, and for the purposes of this Act unless the context clearly denotes otherwise:

(a) The term "criminal justice system" includes all activities by public agencies pertaining to the prevention or reduction of crime or enforcement of the criminal law, and particularly, but without limitation, the prevention, detection, and investigation of crime; the apprehension of offenders; the protection of victims and witnesses; the administration of juvenile justice; the prosecution and defense of criminal cases; the trial, conviction, and sentencing of offenders; as well as the correction and rehabilitation of offenders, which includes imprisonment, probation, parole, aftercare release, and treatment.

(b) The term "Authority" means the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority created by this Act.

(c) The term "criminal justice information" means any and every type of information that is collected, transmitted, or maintained by the criminal justice system.

(d) The term "criminal history record information" means data identifiable to an individual, including information collected under Section 4.5 of the Criminal Identification Act, and consisting of descriptions or notations of arrests, detentions, indictments, informations, pre-trial proceedings, trials, or other formal events in the criminal justice system or descriptions or notations of criminal charges (including criminal violations of local municipal ordinances) and the nature of any disposition arising therefrom, including sentencing, court or correctional supervision, rehabilitation, and release. The term does not apply to statistical records and reports in which individuals are not identified and from which their identities are not ascertainable, or to information that is for criminal investigative or intelligence purposes.

(e) The term "unit of general local government" means any county, municipality or other general purpose political subdivision of this State.

(Source: P.A. 98-528, eff. 1-1-15; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-4-13.)

(20 ILCS 3930/14) (from Ch. 38, par. 210-14)

Sec. 14. Illinois Law Enforcement Commission. Effective April 1, 1983:

(a) The position of Executive Director of the Illinois Law Enforcement Commission is abolished;

(b) The Illinois Law Enforcement Commission is abolished, and the terms and appointments of its members and Chairman are terminated; and

(Ch. 38, rep. pars. 209-1 through 209-16)

(c) "An Act creating an Illinois Law Enforcement Commission and defining its powers and duties", approved September 20, 1977, as now or hereafter amended, is repealed.

(Source: P.A. 82-1039; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 145. The Violence Prevention Task Force Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4028/5)

Sec. 5. Violence Prevention Task Force; members.

(a) There is created the Violence Prevention Task Force (hereinafter referred to as the Task Force) consisting of 6 members appointed as follows:

(1) one member of the Senate appointed by the President of the Senate;

(2) one member of the Senate appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate;

(3) one member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(4) one member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives; and

(5) 2 members appointed by the Governor, one of whom shall be designated the chairperson by the Governor.

(b) The members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for their reasonable and necessary expenses from funds appropriated for that purpose.

(c) The Task Force may employ skilled experts with the approval of the chairperson, and shall receive the cooperation of those State agencies it deems appropriate to assist the Task Force in carrying out its duties.

(d) The Illinois African-American African American Family Commission, the Illinois Department of Public Health, and the Illinois Latino Family Commission shall provide administrative and other support to the Task Force.

(Source: P.A. 98-194, eff. 8-7-13; revised 9-4-13.)

Section 150. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.826, 5.827, 5i, and 6z-98 and by changing Section 25 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.826)

Sec. 5.826. The Driver Services Administration Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1157, eff. 11-28-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.827)

Sec. 5.827. The Illinois State Museum Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.830)

Sec. 5.830 5.826. The Chicago State University Education Improvement Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-18, eff. 6-7-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.831)

Sec. 5.831 5.826. The Foreclosure Prevention Program Graduated Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-20, eff. 6-11-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.832)

Sec. 5.832 5.826. The Mines and Minerals Regulatory Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.833)

Sec. 5.833 5.826. The Gang Crime Witness Protection Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-58, eff. 7-8-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.834)

Sec. 5.834 5.826. The Mental Health Reporting Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.835)

Sec. 5.835 5.826. The National Wild Turkey Federation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-66, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.836)

Sec. 5.836 5.826. The Medicaid Research and Education Support Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.837)

Sec. 5.837 5.826. The South Suburban Airport Improvement Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.838)

Sec. 5.838 5.826. The Working Capital Revolving Loan Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-117, eff. 7-30-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.839)

Sec. 5.839 5.826. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.840)

Sec. 5.840 5.826. The Illinois Nurses Foundation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-150, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.841)

Sec. 5.841 5.826. The American Red Cross Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-151, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.842)

Sec. 5.842 5.826. The Illinois Police Benevolent and Protective Association Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-233, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.843)

Sec. 5.843 5.826. The Alzheimer's Awareness Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-259, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.844)

Sec. 5.844 5.826. The Supreme Court Special Purposes Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-324, eff. 10-1-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.845)

Sec. 5.845 5.826. The Access to Justice Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-351, eff. 8-15-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.846)

Sec. 5.846 5.826. The Illinois Police K-9 Memorial Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-360, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.847)

Sec. 5.847 5.826. The Public Safety Diver Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-376, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.848)

Sec. 5.848 5.826. The Committed to a Cure Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-382, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.849)

Sec. 5.849 5.826. The Illinois Sheriffs' Association Scholarship and Training Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-395, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.850)

Sec. 5.850 5.826. The Illinois State Police Memorial Park Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-469, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.851)

Sec. 5.851 5.826. The Amusement Ride and Patron Safety Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-541, eff. 8-23-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.852)

Sec. 5.852 5.827. The State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.853)

Sec. 5.853 5.827. The Curing Childhood Cancer Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-66, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.854)

Sec. 5.854 5.827. The South Suburban Brownfields Redevelopment Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5i)

Sec. 5i. Transfers. Each year, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall, at the time set forth for the submission of the State budget under Section 50-5 of the State Budget Law, provide to the Chairperson and the Minority Spokesperson of each of the appropriations committees of the House of Representatives and the Senate a report of (i) all full fiscal year transfers from State general funds to any other special fund of the State in the previous fiscal year and during the current fiscal year to date, and (ii) all projected full fiscal year transfers from State general funds to those funds for the remainder of the current fiscal year and the next fiscal year, based on estimates prepared by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. The report shall include a detailed summary of the estimates upon which the projected transfers are based. The report shall also indicate, for each transfer:

(1) whether or not there is statutory authority for the transfer;

(2) if there is statutory authority for the transfer, whether that statutory authority exists for the next fiscal year; and

(3) whether there is debt service associated with the transfer.

The General Assembly shall consider the report in the appropriations process.

(Source: P.A. 98-24, eff. 6-19-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5j)

Sec. 5j 5i. Closure of State mental health facilities or developmental disabilities facilities. Consistent with the provisions of Sections 4.4 and 4.5 of the Community Services Act, whenever a State mental health facility operated by the Department of Human Services or a State developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department of Human Services is closed, the Department of Human Services, at the direction of the Governor, shall transfer funds from the closed facility to the appropriate line item providing appropriation authority for the new venue of care to facilitate the transition of services to the new venue of care, provided that the new venue of care is a Department of Human Services funded provider or facility.

As used in this Section, the terms "mental health facility" and "developmental disabilities facility" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-403, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-98)

Sec. 6z-98. The Chicago State University Education Improvement Fund. The Chicago State University Education Improvement Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State treasury. The moneys deposited into the Fund shall be used by Chicago State University, subject to appropriation, for expenses incurred by the University. All interest earned on moneys in the Fund shall remain in the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-18, eff. 6-7-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-99)

Sec. 6z-99 6z-98. The Mental Health Reporting Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund known as the Mental Health Reporting Fund. The Fund shall receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(b) The Department of State Police and Department of Human Services shall coordinate to use moneys in the Fund to finance their respective duties of collecting and reporting data on mental health records and ensuring that mental health firearm possession prohibitors are enforced as set forth under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act and the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. Any surplus in the Fund beyond what is necessary to ensure compliance with mental health reporting under these Acts shall be used by the Department of Human Services for mental health treatment programs.

(c) Investment income that is attributable to the investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund for the uses specified in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 7-19-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/25) (from Ch. 127, par. 161)

Sec. 25. Fiscal year limitations.

(a) All appropriations shall be available for expenditure for the fiscal year or for a lesser period if the Act making that appropriation so specifies. A deficiency or emergency appropriation shall be available for expenditure only through June 30 of the year when the Act making that appropriation is enacted unless that Act otherwise provides.

(b) Outstanding liabilities as of June 30, payable from appropriations which have otherwise expired, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations during the 2-month period ending at the close of business on August 31. Any service involving professional or artistic skills or any personal services by an employee whose compensation is subject to income tax withholding must be performed as of June 30 of the fiscal year in order to be considered an "outstanding liability as of June 30" that is thereby eligible for payment out of the expiring appropriation.

(b-1) However, payment of tuition reimbursement claims under Section 14-7.03 or 18-3 of the School Code may be made by the State Board of Education from its appropriations for those respective purposes for any fiscal year, even though the claims reimbursed by the payment may be claims attributable to a prior fiscal year, and payments may be made at the direction of the State Superintendent of Education from the fund from which the appropriation is made without regard to any fiscal year limitations, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, payment of tuition reimbursement claims under Section 14-7.03 or 18-3 of the School Code as of June 30, payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired, may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-2) All outstanding liabilities as of June 30, 2010, payable from appropriations that would otherwise expire at the conclusion of the lapse period for fiscal year 2010, and interest penalties payable on those liabilities under the State Prompt Payment Act, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations until December 31, 2010, without regard to the fiscal year in which the payment is made, as long as vouchers for the liabilities are received by the Comptroller no later than August 31, 2010.

(b-2.5) All outstanding liabilities as of June 30, 2011, payable from appropriations that would otherwise expire at the conclusion of the lapse period for fiscal year 2011, and interest penalties payable on those liabilities under the State Prompt Payment Act, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations until December 31, 2011, without regard to the fiscal year in which the payment is made, as long as vouchers for the liabilities are received by the Comptroller no later than August 31, 2011.

(b-2.6) All outstanding liabilities as of June 30, 2012, payable from appropriations that would otherwise expire at the conclusion of the lapse period for fiscal year 2012, and interest penalties payable on those liabilities under the State Prompt Payment Act, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations until December 31, 2012, without regard to the fiscal year in which the payment is made, as long as vouchers for the liabilities are received by the Comptroller no later than August 31, 2012.

(b-2.7) For fiscal years 2012, 2013, and 2014, interest penalties payable under the State Prompt Payment Act associated with a voucher for which payment is issued after June 30 may be paid out of the next fiscal year's appropriation. The future year appropriation must be for the same purpose and from the same fund as the original payment. An interest penalty voucher submitted against a future year appropriation must be submitted within 60 days after the issuance of the associated voucher, and the Comptroller must issue the interest payment within 60 days after acceptance of the interest voucher.

(b-3) Medical payments may be made by the Department of Veterans' Affairs from its appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the medical services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, medical payments payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-4) Medical payments and child care payments may be made by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid) from appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the medical or child care services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year; and payments may be made at the direction of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (or successor agency) from the Health Insurance Reserve Fund without regard to any fiscal year limitations, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, medical and child care payments made by the Department of Human Services and payments made at the discretion of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (or successor agency) from the Health Insurance Reserve Fund and payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-5) Medical payments may be made by the Department of Human Services from its appropriations relating to substance abuse treatment services for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the medical services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, provided the payments are made on a fee-for-service basis consistent with requirements established for Medicaid reimbursement by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, medical payments made by the Department of Human Services relating to substance abuse treatment services payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-6) Additionally, payments may be made by the Department of Human Services from its appropriations, or any other State agency from its appropriations with the approval of the Department of Human Services, from the Immigration Reform and Control Fund for purposes authorized pursuant to the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, without regard to any fiscal year limitations, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, payments made by the Department of Human Services from the Immigration Reform and Control Fund for purposes authorized pursuant to the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-7) Payments may be made in accordance with a plan authorized by paragraph (11) or (12) of Section 405-105 of the Department of Central Management Services Law from appropriations for those payments without regard to fiscal year limitations.

(b-8) Reimbursements to eligible airport sponsors for the construction or upgrading of Automated Weather Observation Systems may be made by the Department of Transportation from appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the qualification or obligation may have occurred in a prior fiscal year, provided that at the time the expenditure was made the project had been approved by the Department of Transportation prior to June 1, 2012 and, as a result of recent changes in federal funding formulas, can no longer receive federal reimbursement.

(b-9) Medical payments not exceeding $150,000,000 may be made by the Department on Aging from its appropriations relating to the Community Care Program for fiscal year 2014, without regard to the fact that the medical services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, provided the payments are made on a fee-for-service basis consistent with requirements established for Medicaid reimbursement by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section.

(c) Further, payments may be made by the Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Health under the Department of Human Services Act) from their respective appropriations for grants for medical care to or on behalf of premature and high-mortality risk infants and their mothers and for grants for supplemental food supplies provided under the United States Department of Agriculture Women, Infants and Children Nutrition Program, for any fiscal year without regard to the fact that the services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, payments made by the Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services from their respective appropriations for grants for medical care to or on behalf of premature and high-mortality risk infants and their mothers and for grants for supplemental food supplies provided under the United States Department of Agriculture Women, Infants and Children Nutrition Program payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriations during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(d) The Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Health under the Department of Human Services Act) shall each annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House Minority Leader, and the respective Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and the House, on or before December 31, a report of fiscal year funds used to pay for services provided in any prior fiscal year. This report shall document by program or service category those expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used to pay for services provided in prior fiscal years.

(e) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid), and the Department of Human Services making fee-for-service payments relating to substance abuse treatment services provided during a previous fiscal year shall each annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House Minority Leader, the respective Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and the House, on or before November 30, a report that shall document by program or service category those expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used to pay for (i) services provided in prior fiscal years and (ii) services for which claims were received in prior fiscal years.

(f) The Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid) shall annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House Minority Leader, and the respective Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and the House, on or before December 31, a report of fiscal year funds used to pay for services (other than medical care) provided in any prior fiscal year. This report shall document by program or service category those expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used to pay for services provided in prior fiscal years.

(g) In addition, each annual report required to be submitted by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under subsection (e) shall include the following information with respect to the State's Medicaid program:

(1) Explanations of the exact causes of the variance between the previous year's estimated and actual liabilities.

(2) Factors affecting the Department of Healthcare and Family Services' liabilities, including but not limited to numbers of aid recipients, levels of medical service utilization by aid recipients, and inflation in the cost of medical services.

(3) The results of the Department's efforts to combat fraud and abuse.

(h) As provided in Section 4 of the General Assembly Compensation Act, any utility bill for service provided to a General Assembly member's district office for a period including portions of 2 consecutive fiscal years may be paid from funds appropriated for such expenditure in either fiscal year.

(i) An agency which administers a fund classified by the Comptroller as an internal service fund may issue rules for:

(1) billing user agencies in advance for payments or authorized inter-fund transfers based on estimated charges for goods or services;

(2) issuing credits, refunding through inter-fund transfers, or reducing future inter-fund transfers during the subsequent fiscal year for all user agency payments or authorized inter-fund transfers received during the prior fiscal year which were in excess of the final amounts owed by the user agency for that period; and

(3) issuing catch-up billings to user agencies during the subsequent fiscal year for amounts remaining due when payments or authorized inter-fund transfers received from the user agency during the prior fiscal year were less than the total amount owed for that period.

User agencies are authorized to reimburse internal service funds for catch-up billings by vouchers drawn against their respective appropriations for the fiscal year in which the catch-up billing was issued or by increasing an authorized inter-fund transfer during the current fiscal year. For the purposes of this Act, "inter-fund transfers" means transfers without the use of the voucher-warrant process, as authorized by Section 9.01 of the State Comptroller Act.

(i-1) Beginning on July 1, 2021, all outstanding liabilities, not payable during the 4-month lapse period as described in subsections (b-1), (b-3), (b-4), (b-5), (b-6), and (c) of this Section, that are made from appropriations for that purpose for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the services being compensated for by those payments may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, are limited to only those claims that have been incurred but for which a proper bill or invoice as defined by the State Prompt Payment Act has not been received by September 30th following the end of the fiscal year in which the service was rendered.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, the aggregate amount of payments to be made without regard for fiscal year limitations as contained in subsections (b-1), (b-3), (b-4), (b-5), (b-6), and (c) of this Section, and determined by using Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, shall not exceed the following amounts:

(1) $6,000,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2012;

(2) $5,300,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2013;

(3) $4,600,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2014;

(4) $4,000,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2015;

(5) $3,300,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2016;

(6) $2,600,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2017;

(7) $2,000,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2018;

(8) $1,300,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2019;

(9) $600,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2020; and

(10) $0 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2021 and fiscal years thereafter.

(k) Department of Healthcare and Family Services Medical Assistance Payments.

(1) Definition of Medical Assistance.

For purposes of this subsection, the term "Medical Assistance" shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, medical programs and services authorized under Titles XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act, the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act, and medical care to or on behalf of persons suffering from chronic renal disease, persons suffering from hemophilia, and victims of sexual assault.

(2) Limitations on Medical Assistance payments that may be paid from future fiscal year appropriations.

(A) The maximum amounts of annual unpaid Medical Assistance bills received and recorded by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services on or before June 30th of a particular fiscal year attributable in aggregate to the General Revenue Fund, Healthcare Provider Relief Fund, Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, Long-Term Care Provider Fund, and the Drug Rebate Fund that may be paid in total by the Department from future fiscal year Medical Assistance appropriations to those funds are: $700,000,000 for fiscal year 2013 and $100,000,000 for fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter.

(B) Bills for Medical Assistance services rendered in a particular fiscal year, but received and recorded by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services after June 30th of that fiscal year, may be paid from either appropriations for that fiscal year or future fiscal year appropriations for Medical Assistance. Such payments shall not be subject to the requirements of subparagraph (A).

(C) Medical Assistance bills received by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in a particular fiscal year, but subject to payment amount adjustments in a future fiscal year may be paid from a future fiscal year's appropriation for Medical Assistance. Such payments shall not be subject to the requirements of subparagraph (A).

(D) Medical Assistance payments made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services from funds other than those specifically referenced in subparagraph (A) may be made from appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year without regard to the fact that the Medical Assistance services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year. Such payments shall not be subject to the requirements of subparagraph (A).

(3) Extended lapse period for Department of Healthcare and Family Services Medical Assistance payments. Notwithstanding any other State law to the contrary, outstanding Department of Healthcare and Family Services Medical Assistance liabilities, as of June 30th, payable from appropriations which have otherwise expired, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations during the 6-month period ending at the close of business on December 31st.

(l) The changes to this Section made by Public Act 97-691 shall be effective for payment of Medical Assistance bills incurred in fiscal year 2013 and future fiscal years. The changes to this Section made by Public Act 97-691 shall not be applied to Medical Assistance bills incurred in fiscal year 2012 or prior fiscal years.

(m) The Comptroller must issue payments against outstanding liabilities that were received prior to the lapse period deadlines set forth in this Section as soon thereafter as practical, but no payment may be issued after the 4 months following the lapse period deadline without the signed authorization of the Comptroller and the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 97-75, eff. 6-30-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-691, eff. 7-1-12; 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; 97-932, eff. 8-10-12; 98-8, eff. 5-3-13; 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; 98-215, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-9-13.)

Section 155. The Public Funds Investment Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 6.5 as follows:

(30 ILCS 235/2) (from Ch. 85, par. 902)

Sec. 2. Authorized investments.

(a) Any public agency may invest any public funds as follows:

(1) in bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness, treasury bills or other securities now or hereafter issued, which are guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States of America as to principal and interest;

(2) in bonds, notes, debentures, or other similar obligations of the United States of America, its agencies, and its instrumentalities;

(3) in interest-bearing savings accounts, interest-bearing certificates of deposit or interest-bearing time deposits or any other investments constituting direct obligations of any bank as defined by the Illinois Banking Act;

(4) in short term obligations of corporations organized in the United States with assets exceeding $500,000,000 if (i) such obligations are rated at the time of purchase at one of the 3 highest classifications established by at least 2 standard rating services and which mature not later than 270 days from the date of purchase, (ii) such purchases do not exceed 10% of the corporation's outstanding obligations and (iii) no more than one-third of the public agency's funds may be invested in short term obligations of corporations; or

(5) in money market mutual funds registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, provided that the portfolio of any such money market mutual fund is limited to obligations described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection and to agreements to repurchase such obligations.

(a-1) In addition to any other investments authorized under this Act, a municipality, park district, forest preserve district, conservation district, county, or other governmental unit may invest its public funds in interest bearing bonds of any county, township, city, village, incorporated town, municipal corporation, or school district, of the State of Illinois, of any other state, or of any political subdivision or agency of the State of Illinois or of any other state, whether the interest earned thereon is taxable or tax-exempt under federal law. The bonds shall be registered in the name of the municipality, park district, forest preserve district, conservation district, county, or other governmental unit, or held under a custodial agreement at a bank. The bonds shall be rated at the time of purchase within the 4 highest general classifications established by a rating service of nationally recognized expertise in rating bonds of states and their political subdivisions.

(b) Investments may be made only in banks which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. Any public agency may invest any public funds in short term discount obligations of the Federal National Mortgage Association or in shares or other forms of securities legally issuable by savings banks or savings and loan associations incorporated under the laws of this State or any other state or under the laws of the United States. Investments may be made only in those savings banks or savings and loan associations the shares, or investment certificates of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. Any such securities may be purchased at the offering or market price thereof at the time of such purchase. All such securities so purchased shall mature or be redeemable on a date or dates prior to the time when, in the judgment of such governing authority, the public funds so invested will be required for expenditure by such public agency or its governing authority. The expressed judgment of any such governing authority as to the time when any public funds will be required for expenditure or be redeemable is final and conclusive. Any public agency may invest any public funds in dividend-bearing share accounts, share certificate accounts or class of share accounts of a credit union chartered under the laws of this State or the laws of the United States; provided, however, the principal office of any such credit union must be located within the State of Illinois. Investments may be made only in those credit unions the accounts of which are insured by applicable law.

(c) For purposes of this Section, the term "agencies of the United States of America" includes: (i) the federal land banks, federal intermediate credit banks, banks for cooperative, federal farm credit banks, or any other entity authorized to issue debt obligations under the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2001 et seq.) and Acts amendatory thereto; (ii) the federal home loan banks and the federal home loan mortgage corporation; and (iii) any other agency created by Act of Congress.

(d) Except for pecuniary interests permitted under subsection (f) of Section 3-14-4 of the Illinois Municipal Code or under Section 3.2 of the Public Officer Prohibited Practices Act, no person acting as treasurer or financial officer or who is employed in any similar capacity by or for a public agency may do any of the following:

(1) have any interest, directly or indirectly, in any investments in which the agency is authorized to invest.

(2) have any interest, directly or indirectly, in the sellers, sponsors, or managers of those investments.

(3) receive, in any manner, compensation of any kind from any investments in which the agency is authorized to invest.

(e) Any public agency may also invest any public funds in a Public Treasurers' Investment Pool created under Section 17 of the State Treasurer Act. Any public agency may also invest any public funds in a fund managed, operated, and administered by a bank, subsidiary of a bank, or subsidiary of a bank holding company or use the services of such an entity to hold and invest or advise regarding the investment of any public funds.

(f) To the extent a public agency has custody of funds not owned by it or another public agency and does not otherwise have authority to invest such funds, the public agency may invest such funds as if they were its own. Such funds must be released to the appropriate person at the earliest reasonable time, but in no case exceeding 31 days, after the private person becomes entitled to the receipt of them. All earnings accruing on any investments or deposits made pursuant to the provisions of this Act shall be credited to the public agency by or for which such investments or deposits were made, except as provided otherwise in Section 4.1 of the State Finance Act or the Local Governmental Tax Collection Act, and except where by specific statutory provisions such earnings are directed to be credited to and paid to a particular fund.

(g) A public agency may purchase or invest in repurchase agreements of government securities having the meaning set out in the Government Securities Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended or succeeded, subject to the provisions of said Act and the regulations issued thereunder. The government securities, unless registered or inscribed in the name of the public agency, shall be purchased through banks or trust companies authorized to do business in the State of Illinois.

(h) Except for repurchase agreements of government securities which are subject to the Government Securities Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended or succeeded, no public agency may purchase or invest in instruments which constitute repurchase agreements, and no financial institution may enter into such an agreement with or on behalf of any public agency unless the instrument and the transaction meet the following requirements:

(1) The securities, unless registered or inscribed in the name of the public agency, are purchased through banks or trust companies authorized to do business in the State of Illinois.

(2) An authorized public officer after ascertaining which firm will give the most favorable rate of interest, directs the custodial bank to "purchase" specified securities from a designated institution. The "custodial bank" is the bank or trust company, or agency of government, which acts for the public agency in connection with repurchase agreements involving the investment of funds by the public agency. The State Treasurer may act as custodial bank for public agencies executing repurchase agreements. To the extent the Treasurer acts in this capacity, he is hereby authorized to pass through to such public agencies any charges assessed by the Federal Reserve Bank.

(3) A custodial bank must be a member bank of the Federal Reserve System or maintain accounts with member banks. All transfers of book-entry securities must be accomplished on a Reserve Bank's computer records through a member bank of the Federal Reserve System. These securities must be credited to the public agency on the records of the custodial bank and the transaction must be confirmed in writing to the public agency by the custodial bank.

(4) Trading partners shall be limited to banks or trust companies authorized to do business in the State of Illinois or to registered primary reporting dealers.

(5) The security interest must be perfected.

(6) The public agency enters into a written master repurchase agreement which outlines the basic responsibilities and liabilities of both buyer and seller.

(7) Agreements shall be for periods of 330 days or less.

(8) The authorized public officer of the public agency informs the custodial bank in writing of the maturity details of the repurchase agreement.

(9) The custodial bank must take delivery of and maintain the securities in its custody for the account of the public agency and confirm the transaction in writing to the public agency. The Custodial Undertaking shall provide that the custodian takes possession of the securities exclusively for the public agency; that the securities are free of any claims against the trading partner; and any claims by the custodian are subordinate to the public agency's claims to rights to those securities.

(10) The obligations purchased by a public agency may only be sold or presented for redemption or payment by the fiscal agent bank or trust company holding the obligations upon the written instruction of the public agency or officer authorized to make such investments.

(11) The custodial bank shall be liable to the public agency for any monetary loss suffered by the public agency due to the failure of the custodial bank to take and maintain possession of such securities.

(i) Notwithstanding the foregoing restrictions on investment in instruments constituting repurchase agreements the Illinois Housing Development Authority may invest in, and any financial institution with capital of at least $250,000,000 may act as custodian for, instruments that constitute repurchase agreements, provided that the Illinois Housing Development Authority, in making each such investment, complies with the safety and soundness guidelines for engaging in repurchase transactions applicable to federally insured banks, savings banks, savings and loan associations or other depository institutions as set forth in the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council Policy Statement Regarding Repurchase Agreements and any regulations issued, or which may be issued by the supervisory federal authority pertaining thereto and any amendments thereto; provided further that the securities shall be either (i) direct general obligations of, or obligations the payment of the principal of and/or interest on which are unconditionally guaranteed by, the United States of America or (ii) any obligations of any agency, corporation or subsidiary thereof controlled or supervised by and acting as an instrumentality of the United States Government pursuant to authority granted by the Congress of the United States and provided further that the security interest must be perfected by either the Illinois Housing Development Authority, its custodian or its agent receiving possession of the securities either physically or transferred through a nationally recognized book entry system.

(j) In addition to all other investments authorized under this Section, a community college district may invest public funds in any mutual funds that invest primarily in corporate investment grade or global government short term bonds. Purchases of mutual funds that invest primarily in global government short term bonds shall be limited to funds with assets of at least $100 million and that are rated at the time of purchase as one of the 10 highest classifications established by a recognized rating service. The investments shall be subject to approval by the local community college board of trustees. Each community college board of trustees shall develop a policy regarding the percentage of the college's investment portfolio that can be invested in such funds.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize an intergovernmental risk management entity to accept the deposit of public funds except for risk management purposes.

(Source: P.A. 97-129, eff. 7-14-11; 98-297, eff. 1-1-14; 98-390, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-10-13.)

(30 ILCS 235/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Federally insured deposits at Illinois financial institutions.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or any other statute, whenever a public agency invests public funds in an interest-bearing savings account, interest-bearing certificate of deposit, or interest-bearing time deposit under Section 2 of this Act, the provisions of Section 6 of this Act and any other statutory requirements pertaining to the eligibility of a bank to receive or hold public deposits or to the pledging of collateral by a bank to secure public deposits do not apply to any bank receiving or holding all or part of the invested public funds if (i) the public agency initiates the investment at or through a bank located in Illinois and (ii) the invested public funds are at all times time fully insured by an agency or instrumentality of the federal government.

(b) Nothing in this Section is intended to:

(1) prohibit a public agency from requiring the bank at or through which the investment of public funds is initiated to provide the public agency with the information otherwise required by subsection subsections (a), (b), or (c) of Section 6 of this Act as a condition of investing the public funds at or through that bank; or

(2) permit a bank to receive or hold public deposits if that bank is prohibited from doing so by any rule, sanction, or order issued by a regulatory agency or by a court.

(c) For purposes of this Section, the term "bank" includes any person doing a banking business whether subject to the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 93-756, eff. 7-16-04; revised 10-7-13.)

Section 160. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Section 1-10 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Application.

(a) This Code applies only to procurements for which contractors were first solicited on or after July 1, 1998. This Code shall not be construed to affect or impair any contract, or any provision of a contract, entered into based on a solicitation prior to the implementation date of this Code as described in Article 99, including but not limited to any covenant entered into with respect to any revenue bonds or similar instruments. All procurements for which contracts are solicited between the effective date of Articles 50 and 99 and July 1, 1998 shall be substantially in accordance with this Code and its intent.

(b) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of the funds with which the contracts are paid, including federal assistance moneys. This Code shall not apply to:

(1) Contracts between the State and its political subdivisions or other governments, or between State governmental bodies except as specifically provided in this Code.

(2) Grants, except for the filing requirements of Section 20-80.

(3) Purchase of care.

(4) Hiring of an individual as employee and not as an independent contractor, whether pursuant to an employment code or policy or by contract directly with that individual.

(5) Collective bargaining contracts.

(6) Purchase of real estate, except that notice of this type of contract with a value of more than $25,000 must be published in the Procurement Bulletin within 7 days after the deed is recorded in the county of jurisdiction. The notice shall identify the real estate purchased, the names of all parties to the contract, the value of the contract, and the effective date of the contract.

(7) Contracts necessary to prepare for anticipated litigation, enforcement actions, or investigations, provided that the chief legal counsel to the Governor shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring agency is one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor, and provided that the chief legal counsel of any other procuring entity subject to this Code shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring entity is not one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor.

(8) Contracts for services to Northern Illinois University by a person, acting as an independent contractor, who is qualified by education, experience, and technical ability and is selected by negotiation for the purpose of providing non-credit educational service activities or products by means of specialized programs offered by the university.

(9) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois Conservation Foundation when only private funds are used.

(10) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority involving private funds from the Health Information Exchange Fund. "Private funds" means gifts, donations, and private grants.

(11) Public-private agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 20 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act and design-build agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 25 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act.

(12) Contracts for legal, financial, and other professional and artistic services entered into on or before December 31, 2018 by the Illinois Finance Authority in which the State of Illinois is not obligated. Such contracts shall be awarded through a competitive process authorized by the Board of the Illinois Finance Authority and are subject to Sections 5-30, 20-160, 50-13, 50-20, 50-35, and 50-37 of this Code, as well as the final approval by the Board of the Illinois Finance Authority of the terms of the contract.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, contracts entered into under item (12) of this subsection (b) shall be published in the Procurement Bulletin within 14 days after contract execution. The chief procurement officer shall prescribe the form and content of the notice. The Illinois Finance Authority shall provide the chief procurement officer, on a monthly basis, in the form and content prescribed by the chief procurement officer, a report of contracts that are related to the procurement of goods and services identified in item (12) of this subsection (b). At a minimum, this report shall include the name of the contractor, a description of the supply or service provided, the total amount of the contract, the term of the contract, and the exception to the Code utilized. A copy of each of these contracts shall be made available to the chief procurement officer immediately upon request. The chief procurement officer shall submit a report to the Governor and General Assembly no later than November 1 of each year that shall include, at a minimum, an annual summary of the monthly information reported to the chief procurement officer.

(c) This Code does not apply to the electric power procurement process provided for under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(d) Except for Section 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code, and as expressly required by Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law, the provisions of this Code do not apply to the procurement process provided for under Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law.

(e) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain a person or entity to assist the Capital Development Board with its duties related to the determination of costs of a clean coal SNG brownfield facility, as defined by Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, as required in subsection (h-3) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act, including calculating the range of capital costs, the range of operating and maintenance costs, or the sequestration costs or monitoring the construction of clean coal SNG brownfield facility for the full duration of construction.

(f) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Illinois Power Agency to retain a mediator to mediate sourcing agreement disputes between gas utilities and the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, as defined in Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, as required under subsection (h-1) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act.

(g) This Code does not apply to the processes used by the Illinois Power Agency to retain a mediator to mediate contract disputes between gas utilities and the clean coal SNG facility and to retain an expert to assist in the review of contracts under subsection (h) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act. This Code does not apply to the process used by the Illinois Commerce Commission to retain an expert to assist in determining the actual incurred costs of the clean coal SNG facility and the reasonableness of those costs as required under subsection (h) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act.

(h) This Code does not apply to the process to procure or contracts entered into in accordance with Sections 11-5.2 and 11-5.3 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(i) Each chief procurement officer may access records necessary to review whether a contract, purchase, or other expenditure is or is not subject to the provisions of this Code, unless such records would be subject to attorney-client privilege.

(j) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain an artist or work or works of art as required in Section 14 of the Capital Development Board Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-96, eff. 7-13-11; 97-239, eff. 8-2-11; 97-502, eff. 8-23-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-895, eff. 8-3-12; 98-90, eff. 7-15-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-572, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)

Section 165. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Section 8.37 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.37)

Sec. 8.37. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 98-218, 98-389, 98-391, 98-427, 98-599, or 98-622 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 98-218, eff. 8-9-13; 98-389, eff. 8-16-13; 98-391, eff. 8-16-13; 98-427, eff. 8-16-13; 98-599, eff. 6-1-14; 98-622, eff. 6-1-14; revised 1-15-14.)

Section 170. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 201 and 304 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/201) (from Ch. 120, par. 2-201)

Sec. 201. Tax Imposed.

(a) In general. A tax measured by net income is hereby imposed on every individual, corporation, trust and estate for each taxable year ending after July 31, 1969 on the privilege of earning or receiving income in or as a resident of this State. Such tax shall be in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by this State or by any municipal corporation or political subdivision thereof.

(b) Rates. The tax imposed by subsection (a) of this Section shall be determined as follows, except as adjusted by subsection (d-1):

(1) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal to 2 1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(2) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 2 1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii) 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3.

(3) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years beginning after June 30, 1989, and ending prior to January 1, 2011, an amount equal to 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(4) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2011, and ending after December 31, 2010, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2011, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 5% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2010, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(5) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2011, and ending prior to January 1, 2015, an amount equal to 5% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(5.1) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2015, and ending after December 31, 2014, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 5% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2015, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2014, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(5.2) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, and ending prior to January 1, 2025, an amount equal to 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(5.3) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2025, and ending after December 31, 2024, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2025, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 3.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2024, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(5.4) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2025, an amount equal to 3.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(6) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal to 4% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(7) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 4% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii) 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3.

(8) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning after June 30, 1989, and ending prior to January 1, 2011, an amount equal to 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(9) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2011, and ending after December 31, 2010, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2011, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2010, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(10) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2011, and ending prior to January 1, 2015, an amount equal to 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(11) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2015, and ending after December 31, 2014, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2015, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 5.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2014, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(12) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, and ending prior to January 1, 2025, an amount equal to 5.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(13) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2025, and ending after December 31, 2024, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 5.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2025, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2024, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(14) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2025, an amount equal to 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

The rates under this subsection (b) are subject to the provisions of Section 201.5.

(c) Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax. Beginning on July 1, 1979 and thereafter, in addition to such income tax, there is also hereby imposed the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax measured by net income on every corporation (including Subchapter S corporations), partnership and trust, for each taxable year ending after June 30, 1979. Such taxes are imposed on the privilege of earning or receiving income in or as a resident of this State. The Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax shall be in addition to the income tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section and in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by this State or by any municipal corporation or political subdivision thereof.

(d) Additional Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax Rates. The personal property tax replacement income tax imposed by this subsection and subsection (c) of this Section in the case of a corporation, other than a Subchapter S corporation and except as adjusted by subsection (d-1), shall be an additional amount equal to 2.85% of such taxpayer's net income for the taxable year, except that beginning on January 1, 1981, and thereafter, the rate of 2.85% specified in this subsection shall be reduced to 2.5%, and in the case of a partnership, trust or a Subchapter S corporation shall be an additional amount equal to 1.5% of such taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(d-1) Rate reduction for certain foreign insurers. In the case of a foreign insurer, as defined by Section 35A-5 of the Illinois Insurance Code, whose state or country of domicile imposes on insurers domiciled in Illinois a retaliatory tax (excluding any insurer whose premiums from reinsurance assumed are 50% or more of its total insurance premiums as determined under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 304, except that for purposes of this determination premiums from reinsurance do not include premiums from inter-affiliate reinsurance arrangements), beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1999, the sum of the rates of tax imposed by subsections (b) and (d) shall be reduced (but not increased) to the rate at which the total amount of tax imposed under this Act, net of all credits allowed under this Act, shall equal (i) the total amount of tax that would be imposed on the foreign insurer's net income allocable to Illinois for the taxable year by such foreign insurer's state or country of domicile if that net income were subject to all income taxes and taxes measured by net income imposed by such foreign insurer's state or country of domicile, net of all credits allowed or (ii) a rate of zero if no such tax is imposed on such income by the foreign insurer's state of domicile. For the purposes of this subsection (d-1), an inter-affiliate includes a mutual insurer under common management.

(1) For the purposes of subsection (d-1), in no event shall the sum of the rates of tax imposed by subsections (b) and (d) be reduced below the rate at which the sum of:

(A) the total amount of tax imposed on such foreign insurer under this Act for a taxable year, net of all credits allowed under this Act, plus

(B) the privilege tax imposed by Section 409 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the fire insurance company tax imposed by Section 12 of the Fire Investigation Act, and the fire department taxes imposed under Section 11-10-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code,

equals 1.25% for taxable years ending prior to December 31, 2003, or 1.75% for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2003, of the net taxable premiums written for the taxable year, as described by subsection (1) of Section 409 of the Illinois Insurance Code. This paragraph will in no event increase the rates imposed under subsections (b) and (d).

(2) Any reduction in the rates of tax imposed by this subsection shall be applied first against the rates imposed by subsection (b) and only after the tax imposed by subsection (a) net of all credits allowed under this Section other than the credit allowed under subsection (i) has been reduced to zero, against the rates imposed by subsection (d).

This subsection (d-1) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(e) Investment credit. A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax for investment in qualified property.

(1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit equal to .5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 1984. There shall be allowed an additional credit equal to .5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 1986, and the taxpayer's base employment within Illinois has increased by 1% or more over the preceding year as determined by the taxpayer's employment records filed with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. Taxpayers who are new to Illinois shall be deemed to have met the 1% growth in base employment for the first year in which they file employment records with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. The provisions added to this Section by Public Act 85-1200 (and restored by Public Act 87-895) shall be construed as declaratory of existing law and not as a new enactment. If, in any year, the increase in base employment within Illinois over the preceding year is less than 1%, the additional credit shall be limited to that percentage times a fraction, the numerator of which is .5% and the denominator of which is 1%, but shall not exceed .5%. The investment credit shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability in any tax year below zero, nor may any credit for qualified property be allowed for any year other than the year in which the property was placed in service in Illinois. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1987, and on or before December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit years if the taxpayer (i) makes investments which cause the creation of a minimum of 2,000 full-time equivalent jobs in Illinois, (ii) is located in an enterprise zone established pursuant to the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act and (iii) is certified by the Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity) as complying with the requirements specified in clause (i) and (ii) by July 1, 1986. The Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity) shall notify the Department of Revenue of all such certifications immediately. For tax years ending after December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit years. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, earlier credit shall be applied first.

(2) The term "qualified property" means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings and signs that are real property, but not including land or improvements to real property that are not a structural component of a building such as landscaping, sewer lines, local access roads, fencing, parking lots, and other appurtenances;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (e);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D) is used in Illinois by a taxpayer who is primarily engaged in manufacturing, or in mining coal or fluorite, or in retailing, or was placed in service on or after July 1, 2006 in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone established pursuant to the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act; and

(E) has not previously been used in Illinois in such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for the credit provided by this subsection (e) or subsection (f).

(3) For purposes of this subsection (e), "manufacturing" means the material staging and production of tangible personal property by procedures commonly regarded as manufacturing, processing, fabrication, or assembling which changes some existing material into new shapes, new qualities, or new combinations. For purposes of this subsection (e) the term "mining" shall have the same meaning as the term "mining" in Section 613(c) of the Internal Revenue Code. For purposes of this subsection (e), the term "retailing" means the sale of tangible personal property for use or consumption and not for resale, or services rendered in conjunction with the sale of tangible personal property for use or consumption and not for resale. For purposes of this subsection (e), "tangible personal property" has the same meaning as when that term is used in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and, for taxable years ending after December 31, 2008, does not include the generation, transmission, or distribution of electricity.

(4) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(5) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(6) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(7) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48 months after being placed in service, the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation and, (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (7), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(8) Unless the investment credit is extended by law, the basis of qualified property shall not include costs incurred after December 31, 2018, except for costs incurred pursuant to a binding contract entered into on or before December 31, 2018.

(9) Each taxable year ending before December 31, 2000, a partnership may elect to pass through to its partners the credits to which the partnership is entitled under this subsection (e) for the taxable year. A partner may use the credit allocated to him or her under this paragraph only against the tax imposed in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section. If the partnership makes that election, those credits shall be allocated among the partners in the partnership in accordance with the rules set forth in Section 704(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, and the rules promulgated under that Section, and the allocated amount of the credits shall be allowed to the partners for that taxable year. The partnership shall make this election on its Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax return for that taxable year. The election to pass through the credits shall be irrevocable.

For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2000, a partner that qualifies its partnership for a subtraction under subparagraph (I) of paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 203 or a shareholder that qualifies a Subchapter S corporation for a subtraction under subparagraph (S) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 203 shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (e) equal to its share of the credit earned under this subsection (e) during the taxable year by the partnership or Subchapter S corporation, determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(f) Investment credit; Enterprise Zone; River Edge Redevelopment Zone.

(1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for investment in qualified property which is placed in service in an Enterprise Zone created pursuant to the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or, for property placed in service on or after July 1, 2006, a River Edge Redevelopment Zone established pursuant to the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act. For partners, shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (f) to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. The credit shall be .5% of the basis for such property. The credit shall be available only in the taxable year in which the property is placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1985, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the credit accruing first in time shall be applied first.

(2) The term qualified property means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (f);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D) is used in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer; and

(E) has not been previously used in Illinois in such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for the credit provided by this subsection (f) or subsection (e).

(3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(6) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone within 48 months after being placed in service, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(7) There shall be allowed an additional credit equal to 0.5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 2006, and the taxpayer's base employment within Illinois has increased by 1% or more over the preceding year as determined by the taxpayer's employment records filed with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. Taxpayers who are new to Illinois shall be deemed to have met the 1% growth in base employment for the first year in which they file employment records with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. If, in any year, the increase in base employment within Illinois over the preceding year is less than 1%, the additional credit shall be limited to that percentage times a fraction, the numerator of which is 0.5% and the denominator of which is 1%, but shall not exceed 0.5%.

(g) (Blank).

(h) Investment credit; High Impact Business.

(1) Subject to subsections (b) and (b-5) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for investment in qualified property which is placed in service by a Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity designated High Impact Business. The credit shall be .5% of the basis for such property. The credit shall not be available (i) until the minimum investments in qualified property set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act have been satisfied or (ii) until the time authorized in subsection (b-5) of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act for entities designated as High Impact Businesses under subdivisions (a)(3)(B), (a)(3)(C), and (a)(3)(D) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. The credit applicable to such investments shall be taken in the taxable year in which such investments have been completed. The credit for additional investments beyond the minimum investment by a designated high impact business authorized under subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act shall be available only in the taxable year in which the property is placed in service and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1987, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the credit accruing first in time shall be applied first.

Changes made in this subdivision (h)(1) by Public Act 88-670 restore changes made by Public Act 85-1182 and reflect existing law.

(2) The term qualified property means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (h);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(D) is not eligible for the Enterprise Zone Investment Credit provided by subsection (f) of this Section.

(3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone located in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(6) If during any taxable year ending on or before December 31, 1996, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48 months after being placed in service, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(7) Beginning with tax years ending after December 31, 1996, if a taxpayer qualifies for the credit under this subsection (h) and thereby is granted a tax abatement and the taxpayer relocates its entire facility in violation of the explicit terms and length of the contract under Section 18-183 of the Property Tax Code, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section shall be increased for the taxable year in which the taxpayer relocated its facility by an amount equal to the amount of credit received by the taxpayer under this subsection (h).

(i) Credit for Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax. For tax years ending prior to December 31, 2003, a credit shall be allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section. This credit shall be computed by multiplying the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section by a fraction, the numerator of which is base income allocable to Illinois and the denominator of which is Illinois base income, and further multiplying the product by the tax rate imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section.

Any credit earned on or after December 31, 1986 under this subsection which is unused in the year the credit is computed because it exceeds the tax liability imposed by subsections (a) and (b) for that year (whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended) may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year, provided that no credit may be carried forward to any year ending on or after December 31, 2003. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first.

If, during any taxable year ending on or after December 31, 1986, the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section for which a taxpayer has claimed a credit under this subsection (i) is reduced, the amount of credit for such tax shall also be reduced. Such reduction shall be determined by recomputing the credit to take into account the reduced tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d). If any portion of the reduced amount of credit has been carried to a different taxable year, an amended return shall be filed for such taxable year to reduce the amount of credit claimed.

(j) Training expense credit. Beginning with tax years ending on or after December 31, 1986 and prior to December 31, 2003, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) under this Section for all amounts paid or accrued, on behalf of all persons employed by the taxpayer in Illinois or Illinois residents employed outside of Illinois by a taxpayer, for educational or vocational training in semi-technical or technical fields or semi-skilled or skilled fields, which were deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income. The credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be 1.6% of such training expenses. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (j) to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

Any credit allowed under this subsection which is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first computed until it is used. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. No carryforward credit may be claimed in any tax year ending on or after December 31, 2003.

(k) Research and development credit. For tax years ending after July 1, 1990 and prior to December 31, 2003, and beginning again for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2004, and ending prior to January 1, 2016, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for increasing research activities in this State. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 6 1/2% of the qualifying expenditures for increasing research activities in this State. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

For purposes of this subsection, "qualifying expenditures" means the qualifying expenditures as defined for the federal credit for increasing research activities which would be allowable under Section 41 of the Internal Revenue Code and which are conducted in this State, "qualifying expenditures for increasing research activities in this State" means the excess of qualifying expenditures for the taxable year in which incurred over qualifying expenditures for the base period, "qualifying expenditures for the base period" means the average of the qualifying expenditures for each year in the base period, and "base period" means the 3 taxable years immediately preceding the taxable year for which the determination is being made.

Any credit in excess of the tax liability for the taxable year may be carried forward. A taxpayer may elect to have the unused credit shown on its final completed return carried over as a credit against the tax liability for the following 5 taxable years or until it has been fully used, whichever occurs first; provided that no credit earned in a tax year ending prior to December 31, 2003 may be carried forward to any year ending on or after December 31, 2003.

If an unused credit is carried forward to a given year from 2 or more earlier years, that credit arising in the earliest year will be applied first against the tax liability for the given year. If a tax liability for the given year still remains, the credit from the next earliest year will then be applied, and so on, until all credits have been used or no tax liability for the given year remains. Any remaining unused credit or credits then will be carried forward to the next following year in which a tax liability is incurred, except that no credit can be carried forward to a year which is more than 5 years after the year in which the expense for which the credit is given was incurred.

No inference shall be drawn from this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly in construing this Section for taxable years beginning before January 1, 1999.

(l) Environmental Remediation Tax Credit.

(i) For tax years ending after December 31, 1997 and on or before December 31, 2001, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for certain amounts paid for unreimbursed eligible remediation costs, as specified in this subsection. For purposes of this Section, "unreimbursed eligible remediation costs" means costs approved by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency ("Agency") under Section 58.14 of the Environmental Protection Act that were paid in performing environmental remediation at a site for which a No Further Remediation Letter was issued by the Agency and recorded under Section 58.10 of the Environmental Protection Act. The credit must be claimed for the taxable year in which Agency approval of the eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is not available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any related party caused or contributed to, in any material respect, a release of regulated substances on, in, or under the site that was identified and addressed by the remedial action pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the Environmental Protection Act. After the Pollution Control Board rules are adopted pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for the administration and enforcement of Section 58.9 of the Environmental Protection Act, determinations as to credit availability for purposes of this Section shall be made consistent with those rules. For purposes of this Section, "taxpayer" includes a person whose tax attributes the taxpayer has succeeded to under Section 381 of the Internal Revenue Code and "related party" includes the persons disallowed a deduction for losses by paragraphs (b), (c), and (f)(1) of Section 267 of the Internal Revenue Code by virtue of being a related taxpayer, as well as any of its partners. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of $100,000 per site, except that the $100,000 threshold shall not apply to any site contained in an enterprise zone as determined by the Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity). The total credit allowed shall not exceed $40,000 per year with a maximum total of $150,000 per site. For partners and shareholders of subchapter S corporations, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

(ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first earned until it is used. The term "unused credit" does not include any amounts of unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of the maximum credit per site authorized under paragraph (i). This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of all or part of the remediation site for which the credit was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the chain of title for the site and provide written notice to the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).

(iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site" shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(m) Education expense credit. Beginning with tax years ending after December 31, 1999, a taxpayer who is the custodian of one or more qualifying pupils shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for qualified education expenses incurred on behalf of the qualifying pupils. The credit shall be equal to 25% of qualified education expenses, but in no event may the total credit under this subsection claimed by a family that is the custodian of qualifying pupils exceed $500. In no event shall a credit under this subsection reduce the taxpayer's liability under this Act to less than zero. This subsection is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act.

For purposes of this subsection:

"Qualifying pupils" means individuals who (i) are residents of the State of Illinois, (ii) are under the age of 21 at the close of the school year for which a credit is sought, and (iii) during the school year for which a credit is sought were full-time pupils enrolled in a kindergarten through twelfth grade education program at any school, as defined in this subsection.

"Qualified education expense" means the amount incurred on behalf of a qualifying pupil in excess of $250 for tuition, book fees, and lab fees at the school in which the pupil is enrolled during the regular school year.

"School" means any public or nonpublic elementary or secondary school in Illinois that is in compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and attendance at which satisfies the requirements of Section 26-1 of the School Code, except that nothing shall be construed to require a child to attend any particular public or nonpublic school to qualify for the credit under this Section.

"Custodian" means, with respect to qualifying pupils, an Illinois resident who is a parent, the parents, a legal guardian, or the legal guardians of the qualifying pupils.

(n) River Edge Redevelopment Zone site remediation tax credit.

(i) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 2006, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for certain amounts paid for unreimbursed eligible remediation costs, as specified in this subsection. For purposes of this Section, "unreimbursed eligible remediation costs" means costs approved by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency ("Agency") under Section 58.14a of the Environmental Protection Act that were paid in performing environmental remediation at a site within a River Edge Redevelopment Zone for which a No Further Remediation Letter was issued by the Agency and recorded under Section 58.10 of the Environmental Protection Act. The credit must be claimed for the taxable year in which Agency approval of the eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is not available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any related party caused or contributed to, in any material respect, a release of regulated substances on, in, or under the site that was identified and addressed by the remedial action pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the Environmental Protection Act. Determinations as to credit availability for purposes of this Section shall be made consistent with rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for the administration and enforcement of Section 58.9 of the Environmental Protection Act. For purposes of this Section, "taxpayer" includes a person whose tax attributes the taxpayer has succeeded to under Section 381 of the Internal Revenue Code and "related party" includes the persons disallowed a deduction for losses by paragraphs (b), (c), and (f)(1) of Section 267 of the Internal Revenue Code by virtue of being a related taxpayer, as well as any of its partners. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of $100,000 per site.

(ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first earned until it is used. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of all or part of the remediation site for which the credit was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the chain of title for the site and provide written notice to the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).

(iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site" shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(o) For each of taxable years during the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program, a surcharge is imposed on all taxpayers on income arising from the sale or exchange of capital assets, depreciable business property, real property used in the trade or business, and Section 197 intangibles of an organization registrant under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act. The amount of the surcharge is equal to the amount of federal income tax liability for the taxable year attributable to those sales and exchanges. The surcharge imposed does not apply if:

(1) the medical cannabis cultivation center registration, medical cannabis dispensary registration, or the property of a registration is transferred as a result of any of the following:

(A) bankruptcy, a receivership, or a debt adjustment initiated by or against the initial registration or the substantial owners of the initial registration;

(B) cancellation, revocation, or termination of any registration by the Illinois Department of Public Health;

(C) a determination by the Illinois Department of Public Health that transfer of the registration is in the best interests of Illinois qualifying patients as defined by the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act;

(D) the death of an owner of the equity interest in a registrant;

(E) the acquisition of a controlling interest in the stock or substantially all of the assets of a publicly traded company;

(F) a transfer by a parent company to a wholly owned subsidiary; or

(G) the transfer or sale to or by one person to another person where both persons were initial owners of the registration when the registration was issued; or

(2) the cannabis cultivation center registration, medical cannabis dispensary registration, or the controlling interest in a registrant's property is transferred in a transaction to lineal descendants in which no gain or loss is recognized or as a result of a transaction in accordance with Section 351 of the Internal Revenue Code in which no gain or loss is recognized.

(Source: P.A. 97-2, eff. 5-6-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-905, eff. 8-7-12; 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; revised 8-9-13.)

(35 ILCS 5/304) (from Ch. 120, par. 3-304)

Sec. 304. Business income of persons other than residents.

(a) In general. The business income of a person other than a resident shall be allocated to this State if such person's business income is derived solely from this State. If a person other than a resident derives business income from this State and one or more other states, then, for tax years ending on or before December 30, 1998, and except as otherwise provided by this Section, such person's business income shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying the income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of the property factor (if any), the payroll factor (if any) and 200% of the sales factor (if any), and the denominator of which is 4 reduced by the number of factors other than the sales factor which have a denominator of zero and by an additional 2 if the sales factor has a denominator of zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998, and except as otherwise provided by this Section, persons other than residents who derive business income from this State and one or more other states shall compute their apportionment factor by weighting their property, payroll, and sales factors as provided in subsection (h) of this Section.

(1) Property factor.

(A) The property factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the average value of the person's real and tangible personal property owned or rented and used in the trade or business in this State during the taxable year and the denominator of which is the average value of all the person's real and tangible personal property owned or rented and used in the trade or business during the taxable year.

(B) Property owned by the person is valued at its original cost. Property rented by the person is valued at 8 times the net annual rental rate. Net annual rental rate is the annual rental rate paid by the person less any annual rental rate received by the person from sub-rentals.

(C) The average value of property shall be determined by averaging the values at the beginning and ending of the taxable year but the Director may require the averaging of monthly values during the taxable year if reasonably required to reflect properly the average value of the person's property.

(2) Payroll factor.

(A) The payroll factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the total amount paid in this State during the taxable year by the person for compensation, and the denominator of which is the total compensation paid everywhere during the taxable year.

(B) Compensation is paid in this State if:

(i) The individual's service is performed entirely within this State;

(ii) The individual's service is performed both within and without this State, but the service performed without this State is incidental to the individual's service performed within this State; or

(iii) Some of the service is performed within this State and either the base of operations, or if there is no base of operations, the place from which the service is directed or controlled is within this State, or the base of operations or the place from which the service is directed or controlled is not in any state in which some part of the service is performed, but the individual's residence is in this State.

(iv) Compensation paid to nonresident professional athletes.

(a) General. The Illinois source income of a nonresident individual who is a member of a professional athletic team includes the portion of the individual's total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team during the taxable year which the number of duty days spent within this State performing services for the team in any manner during the taxable year bears to the total number of duty days spent both within and without this State during the taxable year.

(b) Travel days. Travel days that do not involve either a game, practice, team meeting, or other similar team event are not considered duty days spent in this State. However, such travel days are considered in the total duty days spent both within and without this State.

(c) Definitions. For purposes of this subpart (iv):

(1) The term "professional athletic team" includes, but is not limited to, any professional baseball, basketball, football, soccer, or hockey team.

(2) The term "member of a professional athletic team" includes those employees who are active players, players on the disabled list, and any other persons required to travel and who travel with and perform services on behalf of a professional athletic team on a regular basis. This includes, but is not limited to, coaches, managers, and trainers.

(3) Except as provided in items (C) and (D) of this subpart (3), the term "duty days" means all days during the taxable year from the beginning of the professional athletic team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete. Duty days shall be counted for the year in which they occur, including where a team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete, occurs during more than one tax year.

(A) Duty days shall also include days on which a member of a professional athletic team performs service for a team on a date that does not fall within the foregoing period (e.g., participation in instructional leagues, the "All Star Game", or promotional "caravans"). Performing a service for a professional athletic team includes conducting training and rehabilitation activities, when such activities are conducted at team facilities.

(B) Also included in duty days are game days, practice days, days spent at team meetings, promotional caravans, preseason training camps, and days served with the team through all post-season games in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete.

(C) Duty days for any person who joins a team during the period from the beginning of the professional athletic team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes, or is scheduled to compete, shall begin on the day that person joins the team. Conversely, duty days for any person who leaves a team during this period shall end on the day that person leaves the team. Where a person switches teams during a taxable year, a separate duty-day calculation shall be made for the period the person was with each team.

(D) Days for which a member of a professional athletic team is not compensated and is not performing services for the team in any manner, including days when such member of a professional athletic team has been suspended without pay and prohibited from performing any services for the team, shall not be treated as duty days.

(E) Days for which a member of a professional athletic team is on the disabled list and does not conduct rehabilitation activities at facilities of the team, and is not otherwise performing services for the team in Illinois, shall not be considered duty days spent in this State. All days on the disabled list, however, are considered to be included in total duty days spent both within and without this State.

(4) The term "total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team" means the total compensation received during the taxable year for services performed:

(A) from the beginning of the official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete during that taxable year; and

(B) during the taxable year on a date which does not fall within the foregoing period (e.g., participation in instructional leagues, the "All Star Game", or promotional caravans).

This compensation shall include, but is not limited to, salaries, wages, bonuses as described in this subpart, and any other type of compensation paid during the taxable year to a member of a professional athletic team for services performed in that year. This compensation does not include strike benefits, severance pay, termination pay, contract or option year buy-out payments, expansion or relocation payments, or any other payments not related to services performed for the team.

For purposes of this subparagraph, "bonuses" included in "total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team" subject to the allocation described in Section 302(c)(1) are: bonuses earned as a result of play (i.e., performance bonuses) during the season, including bonuses paid for championship, playoff or "bowl" games played by a team, or for selection to all-star league or other honorary positions; and bonuses paid for signing a contract, unless the payment of the signing bonus is not conditional upon the signee playing any games for the team or performing any subsequent services for the team or even making the team, the signing bonus is payable separately from the salary and any other compensation, and the signing bonus is nonrefundable.

(3) Sales factor.

(A) The sales factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the total sales of the person in this State during the taxable year, and the denominator of which is the total sales of the person everywhere during the taxable year.

(B) Sales of tangible personal property are in this State if:

(i) The property is delivered or shipped to a purchaser, other than the United States government, within this State regardless of the f. o. b. point or other conditions of the sale; or

(ii) The property is shipped from an office, store, warehouse, factory or other place of storage in this State and either the purchaser is the United States government or the person is not taxable in the state of the purchaser; provided, however, that premises owned or leased by a person who has independently contracted with the seller for the printing of newspapers, periodicals or books shall not be deemed to be an office, store, warehouse, factory or other place of storage for purposes of this Section. Sales of tangible personal property are not in this State if the seller and purchaser would be members of the same unitary business group but for the fact that either the seller or purchaser is a person with 80% or more of total business activity outside of the United States and the property is purchased for resale.

(B-1) Patents, copyrights, trademarks, and similar items of intangible personal property.

(i) Gross receipts from the licensing, sale, or other disposition of a patent, copyright, trademark, or similar item of intangible personal property, other than gross receipts governed by paragraph (B-7) of this item (3), are in this State to the extent the item is utilized in this State during the year the gross receipts are included in gross income.

(ii) Place of utilization.

(I) A patent is utilized in a state to the extent that it is employed in production, fabrication, manufacturing, or other processing in the state or to the extent that a patented product is produced in the state. If a patent is utilized in more than one state, the extent to which it is utilized in any one state shall be a fraction equal to the gross receipts of the licensee or purchaser from sales or leases of items produced, fabricated, manufactured, or processed within that state using the patent and of patented items produced within that state, divided by the total of such gross receipts for all states in which the patent is utilized.

(II) A copyright is utilized in a state to the extent that printing or other publication originates in the state. If a copyright is utilized in more than one state, the extent to which it is utilized in any one state shall be a fraction equal to the gross receipts from sales or licenses of materials printed or published in that state divided by the total of such gross receipts for all states in which the copyright is utilized.

(III) Trademarks and other items of intangible personal property governed by this paragraph (B-1) are utilized in the state in which the commercial domicile of the licensee or purchaser is located.

(iii) If the state of utilization of an item of property governed by this paragraph (B-1) cannot be determined from the taxpayer's books and records or from the books and records of any person related to the taxpayer within the meaning of Section 267(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 267, the gross receipts attributable to that item shall be excluded from both the numerator and the denominator of the sales factor.

(B-2) Gross receipts from the license, sale, or other disposition of patents, copyrights, trademarks, and similar items of intangible personal property, other than gross receipts governed by paragraph (B-7) of this item (3), may be included in the numerator or denominator of the sales factor only if gross receipts from licenses, sales, or other disposition of such items comprise more than 50% of the taxpayer's total gross receipts included in gross income during the tax year and during each of the 2 immediately preceding tax years; provided that, when a taxpayer is a member of a unitary business group, such determination shall be made on the basis of the gross receipts of the entire unitary business group.

(B-5) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, except as provided in subsections (ii) through (vii), receipts from the sale of telecommunications service or mobile telecommunications service are in this State if the customer's service address is in this State.

(i) For purposes of this subparagraph (B-5), the following terms have the following meanings:

"Ancillary services" means services that are associated with or incidental to the provision of "telecommunications services", including but not limited to "detailed telecommunications billing", "directory assistance", "vertical service", and "voice mail services".

"Air-to-Ground Radiotelephone service" means a radio service, as that term is defined in 47 CFR 22.99, in which common carriers are authorized to offer and provide radio telecommunications service for hire to subscribers in aircraft.

"Call-by-call Basis" means any method of charging for telecommunications services where the price is measured by individual calls.

"Communications Channel" means a physical or virtual path of communications over which signals are transmitted between or among customer channel termination points.

"Conference bridging service" means an "ancillary service" that links two or more participants of an audio or video conference call and may include the provision of a telephone number. "Conference bridging service" does not include the "telecommunications services" used to reach the conference bridge.

"Customer Channel Termination Point" means the location where the customer either inputs or receives the communications.

"Detailed telecommunications billing service" means an "ancillary service" of separately stating information pertaining to individual calls on a customer's billing statement.

"Directory assistance" means an "ancillary service" of providing telephone number information, and/or address information.

"Home service provider" means the facilities based carrier or reseller with which the customer contracts for the provision of mobile telecommunications services.

"Mobile telecommunications service" means commercial mobile radio service, as defined in Section 20.3 of Title 47 of the Code of Federal Regulations as in effect on June 1, 1999.

"Place of primary use" means the street address representative of where the customer's use of the telecommunications service primarily occurs, which must be the residential street address or the primary business street address of the customer. In the case of mobile telecommunications services, "place of primary use" must be within the licensed service area of the home service provider.

"Post-paid telecommunication service" means the telecommunications service obtained by making a payment on a call-by-call basis either through the use of a credit card or payment mechanism such as a bank card, travel card, credit card, or debit card, or by charge made to a telephone number which is not associated with the origination or termination of the telecommunications service. A post-paid calling service includes telecommunications service, except a prepaid wireless calling service, that would be a prepaid calling service except it is not exclusively a telecommunication service.

"Prepaid telecommunication service" means the right to access exclusively telecommunications services, which must be paid for in advance and which enables the origination of calls using an access number or authorization code, whether manually or electronically dialed, and that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with use in a known amount.

"Prepaid Mobile telecommunication service" means a telecommunications service that provides the right to utilize mobile wireless service as well as other non-telecommunication services, including but not limited to ancillary services, which must be paid for in advance that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with use in a known amount.

"Private communication service" means a telecommunication service that entitles the customer to exclusive or priority use of a communications channel or group of channels between or among termination points, regardless of the manner in which such channel or channels are connected, and includes switching capacity, extension lines, stations, and any other associated services that are provided in connection with the use of such channel or channels.

"Service address" means:

(a) The location of the telecommunications equipment to which a customer's call is charged and from which the call originates or terminates, regardless of where the call is billed or paid;

(b) If the location in line (a) is not known, service address means the origination point of the signal of the telecommunications services first identified by either the seller's telecommunications system or in information received by the seller from its service provider where the system used to transport such signals is not that of the seller; and

(c) If the locations in line (a) and line (b) are not known, the service address means the location of the customer's place of primary use.

"Telecommunications service" means the electronic transmission, conveyance, or routing of voice, data, audio, video, or any other information or signals to a point, or between or among points. The term "telecommunications service" includes such transmission, conveyance, or routing in which computer processing applications are used to act on the form, code or protocol of the content for purposes of transmission, conveyance or routing without regard to whether such service is referred to as voice over Internet protocol services or is classified by the Federal Communications Commission as enhanced or value added. "Telecommunications service" does not include:

(a) Data processing and information services that allow data to be generated, acquired, stored, processed, or retrieved and delivered by an electronic transmission to a purchaser when such purchaser's primary purpose for the underlying transaction is the processed data or information;

(b) Installation or maintenance of wiring or equipment on a customer's premises;

(c) Tangible personal property;

(d) Advertising, including but not limited to directory advertising.

(e) Billing and collection services provided to third parties;

(f) Internet access service;

(g) Radio and television audio and video programming services, regardless of the medium, including the furnishing of transmission, conveyance and routing of such services by the programming service provider. Radio and television audio and video programming services shall include but not be limited to cable service as defined in 47 USC 522(6) and audio and video programming services delivered by commercial mobile radio service providers, as defined in 47 CFR 20.3;

(h) "Ancillary services"; or

(i) Digital products "delivered electronically", including but not limited to software, music, video, reading materials or ring tones.

"Vertical service" means an "ancillary service" that is offered in connection with one or more "telecommunications services", which offers advanced calling features that allow customers to identify callers and to manage multiple calls and call connections, including "conference bridging services".

"Voice mail service" means an "ancillary service" that enables the customer to store, send or receive recorded messages. "Voice mail service" does not include any "vertical services" that the customer may be required to have in order to utilize the "voice mail service".

(ii) Receipts from the sale of telecommunications service sold on an individual call-by-call basis are in this State if either of the following applies:

(a) The call both originates and terminates in this State.

(b) The call either originates or terminates in this State and the service address is located in this State.

(iii) Receipts from the sale of postpaid telecommunications service at retail are in this State if the origination point of the telecommunication signal, as first identified by the service provider's telecommunication system or as identified by information received by the seller from its service provider if the system used to transport telecommunication signals is not the seller's, is located in this State.

(iv) Receipts from the sale of prepaid telecommunications service or prepaid mobile telecommunications service at retail are in this State if the purchaser obtains the prepaid card or similar means of conveyance at a location in this State. Receipts from recharging a prepaid telecommunications service or mobile telecommunications service is in this State if the purchaser's billing information indicates a location in this State.

(v) Receipts from the sale of private communication services are in this State as follows:

(a) 100% of receipts from charges imposed at each channel termination point in this State.

(b) 100% of receipts from charges for the total channel mileage between each channel termination point in this State.

(c) 50% of the total receipts from charges for service segments when those segments are between 2 customer channel termination points, 1 of which is located in this State and the other is located outside of this State, which segments are separately charged.

(d) The receipts from charges for service segments with a channel termination point located in this State and in two or more other states, and which segments are not separately billed, are in this State based on a percentage determined by dividing the number of customer channel termination points in this State by the total number of customer channel termination points.

(vi) Receipts from charges for ancillary services for telecommunications service sold to customers at retail are in this State if the customer's primary place of use of telecommunications services associated with those ancillary services is in this State. If the seller of those ancillary services cannot determine where the associated telecommunications are located, then the ancillary services shall be based on the location of the purchaser.

(vii) Receipts to access a carrier's network or from the sale of telecommunication services or ancillary services for resale are in this State as follows:

(a) 100% of the receipts from access fees attributable to intrastate telecommunications service that both originates and terminates in this State.

(b) 50% of the receipts from access fees attributable to interstate telecommunications service if the interstate call either originates or terminates in this State.

(c) 100% of the receipts from interstate end user access line charges, if the customer's service address is in this State. As used in this subdivision, "interstate end user access line charges" includes, but is not limited to, the surcharge approved by the federal communications commission and levied pursuant to 47 CFR 69.

(d) Gross receipts from sales of telecommunication services or from ancillary services for telecommunications services sold to other telecommunication service providers for resale shall be sourced to this State using the apportionment concepts used for non-resale receipts of telecommunications services if the information is readily available to make that determination. If the information is not readily available, then the taxpayer may use any other reasonable and consistent method.

(B-7) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, receipts from the sale of broadcasting services are in this State if the broadcasting services are received in this State. For purposes of this paragraph (B-7), the following terms have the following meanings:

"Advertising revenue" means consideration received by the taxpayer in exchange for broadcasting services or allowing the broadcasting of commercials or announcements in connection with the broadcasting of film or radio programming, from sponsorships of the programming, or from product placements in the programming.

"Audience factor" means the ratio that the audience or subscribers located in this State of a station, a network, or a cable system bears to the total audience or total subscribers for that station, network, or cable system. The audience factor for film or radio programming shall be determined by reference to the books and records of the taxpayer or by reference to published rating statistics provided the method used by the taxpayer is consistently used from year to year for this purpose and fairly represents the taxpayer's activity in this State.

"Broadcast" or "broadcasting" or "broadcasting services" means the transmission or provision of film or radio programming, whether through the public airwaves, by cable, by direct or indirect satellite transmission, or by any other means of communication, either through a station, a network, or a cable system.

"Film" or "film programming" means the broadcast on television of any and all performances, events, or productions, including but not limited to news, sporting events, plays, stories, or other literary, commercial, educational, or artistic works, either live or through the use of video tape, disc, or any other type of format or medium. Each episode of a series of films produced for television shall constitute separate "film" notwithstanding that the series relates to the same principal subject and is produced during one or more tax periods.

"Radio" or "radio programming" means the broadcast on radio of any and all performances, events, or productions, including but not limited to news, sporting events, plays, stories, or other literary, commercial, educational, or artistic works, either live or through the use of an audio tape, disc, or any other format or medium. Each episode in a series of radio programming produced for radio broadcast shall constitute a separate "radio programming" notwithstanding that the series relates to the same principal subject and is produced during one or more tax periods.

(i) In the case of advertising revenue from broadcasting, the customer is the advertiser and the service is received in this State if the commercial domicile of the advertiser is in this State.

(ii) In the case where film or radio programming is broadcast by a station, a network, or a cable system for a fee or other remuneration received from the recipient of the broadcast, the portion of the service that is received in this State is measured by the portion of the recipients of the broadcast located in this State. Accordingly, the fee or other remuneration for such service that is included in the Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the total of those fees or other remuneration received from recipients in Illinois. For purposes of this paragraph, a taxpayer may determine the location of the recipients of its broadcast using the address of the recipient shown in its contracts with the recipient or using the billing address of the recipient in the taxpayer's records.

(iii) In the case where film or radio programming is broadcast by a station, a network, or a cable system for a fee or other remuneration from the person providing the programming, the portion of the broadcast service that is received by such station, network, or cable system in this State is measured by the portion of recipients of the broadcast located in this State. Accordingly, the amount of revenue related to such an arrangement that is included in the Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the total fee or other total remuneration from the person providing the programming related to that broadcast multiplied by the Illinois audience factor for that broadcast.

(iv) In the case where film or radio programming is provided by a taxpayer that is a network or station to a customer for broadcast in exchange for a fee or other remuneration from that customer the broadcasting service is received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. Accordingly, in such a case the revenue derived by the taxpayer that is included in the taxpayer's Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the revenue from such customers who receive the broadcasting service in Illinois.

(v) In the case where film or radio programming is provided by a taxpayer that is not a network or station to another person for broadcasting in exchange for a fee or other remuneration from that person, the broadcasting service is received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. Accordingly, in such a case the revenue derived by the taxpayer that is included in the taxpayer's Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the revenue from such customers who receive the broadcasting service in Illinois.

(B-8) Gross receipts from winnings under the Illinois Lottery Law from the assignment of a prize under Section 13-1 of the Illinois Lottery Law are received in this State. This paragraph (B-8) applies only to taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2013.

(C) For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, sales, other than sales governed by paragraphs (B), (B-1), (B-2), and (B-8) are in this State if:

(i) The income-producing activity is performed in this State; or

(ii) The income-producing activity is performed both within and without this State and a greater proportion of the income-producing activity is performed within this State than without this State, based on performance costs.

(C-5) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, sales, other than sales governed by paragraphs (B), (B-1), (B-2), (B-5), and (B-7), are in this State if any of the following criteria are met:

(i) Sales from the sale or lease of real property are in this State if the property is located in this State.

(ii) Sales from the lease or rental of tangible personal property are in this State if the property is located in this State during the rental period. Sales from the lease or rental of tangible personal property that is characteristically moving property, including, but not limited to, motor vehicles, rolling stock, aircraft, vessels, or mobile equipment are in this State to the extent that the property is used in this State.

(iii) In the case of interest, net gains (but not less than zero) and other items of income from intangible personal property, the sale is in this State if:

(a) in the case of a taxpayer who is a dealer in the item of intangible personal property within the meaning of Section 475 of the Internal Revenue Code, the income or gain is received from a customer in this State. For purposes of this subparagraph, a customer is in this State if the customer is an individual, trust or estate who is a resident of this State and, for all other customers, if the customer's commercial domicile is in this State. Unless the dealer has actual knowledge of the residence or commercial domicile of a customer during a taxable year, the customer shall be deemed to be a customer in this State if the billing address of the customer, as shown in the records of the dealer, is in this State; or

(b) in all other cases, if the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed in this State or, if the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed both within and without this State, if a greater proportion of the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed within this State than in any other state, based on performance costs.

(iv) Sales of services are in this State if the services are received in this State. For the purposes of this section, gross receipts from the performance of services provided to a corporation, partnership, or trust may only be attributed to a state where that corporation, partnership, or trust has a fixed place of business. If the state where the services are received is not readily determinable or is a state where the corporation, partnership, or trust receiving the service does not have a fixed place of business, the services shall be deemed to be received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. If the ordering office cannot be determined, the services shall be deemed to be received at the office of the customer to which the services are billed. If the taxpayer is not taxable in the state in which the services are received, the sale must be excluded from both the numerator and the denominator of the sales factor. The Department shall adopt rules prescribing where specific types of service are received, including, but not limited to, publishing, and utility service.

(D) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995, the following items of income shall not be included in the numerator or denominator of the sales factor: dividends; amounts included under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code; and Subpart F income as defined in Section 952 of the Internal Revenue Code. No inference shall be drawn from the enactment of this paragraph (D) in construing this Section for taxable years ending before December 31, 1995.

(E) Paragraphs (B-1) and (B-2) shall apply to tax years ending on or after December 31, 1999, provided that a taxpayer may elect to apply the provisions of these paragraphs to prior tax years. Such election shall be made in the form and manner prescribed by the Department, shall be irrevocable, and shall apply to all tax years; provided that, if a taxpayer's Illinois income tax liability for any tax year, as assessed under Section 903 prior to January 1, 1999, was computed in a manner contrary to the provisions of paragraphs (B-1) or (B-2), no refund shall be payable to the taxpayer for that tax year to the extent such refund is the result of applying the provisions of paragraph (B-1) or (B-2) retroactively. In the case of a unitary business group, such election shall apply to all members of such group for every tax year such group is in existence, but shall not apply to any taxpayer for any period during which that taxpayer is not a member of such group.

(b) Insurance companies.

(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided by paragraph (2), business income of an insurance company for a taxable year shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State, and the denominator of which is the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk everywhere. For purposes of this subsection, the term "direct premiums written" means the total amount of direct premiums written, assessments and annuity considerations as reported for the taxable year on the annual statement filed by the company with the Illinois Director of Insurance in the form approved by the National Convention of Insurance Commissioners or such other form as may be prescribed in lieu thereof.

(2) Reinsurance. If the principal source of premiums written by an insurance company consists of premiums for reinsurance accepted by it, the business income of such company shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of (i) direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State, plus (ii) premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk in this State, and the denominator of which is the sum of (iii) direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk everywhere, plus (iv) premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk in this State, whether or not otherwise determinable, may, at the election of the company, be determined on the basis of the proportion which premiums written for reinsurance accepted from companies commercially domiciled in Illinois bears to premiums written for reinsurance accepted from all sources, or, alternatively, in the proportion which the sum of the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State by each ceding company from which reinsurance is accepted bears to the sum of the total direct premiums written by each such ceding company for the taxable year. The election made by a company under this paragraph for its first taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2011, shall be binding for that company for that taxable year and for all subsequent taxable years, and may be altered only with the written permission of the Department, which shall not be unreasonably withheld.

(c) Financial organizations.

(1) In general. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, business income of a financial organization shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its business income from sources within this State, and the denominator of which is its business income from all sources. For the purposes of this subsection, the business income of a financial organization from sources within this State is the sum of the amounts referred to in subparagraphs (A) through (E) following, but excluding the adjusted income of an international banking facility as determined in paragraph (2):

(A) Fees, commissions or other compensation for financial services rendered within this State;

(B) Gross profits from trading in stocks, bonds or other securities managed within this State;

(C) Dividends, and interest from Illinois customers, which are received within this State;

(D) Interest charged to customers at places of business maintained within this State for carrying debit balances of margin accounts, without deduction of any costs incurred in carrying such accounts; and

(E) Any other gross income resulting from the operation as a financial organization within this State. In computing the amounts referred to in paragraphs (A) through (E) of this subsection, any amount received by a member of an affiliated group (determined under Section 1504(a) of the Internal Revenue Code but without reference to whether any such corporation is an "includible corporation" under Section 1504(b) of the Internal Revenue Code) from another member of such group shall be included only to the extent such amount exceeds expenses of the recipient directly related thereto.

(2) International Banking Facility. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008:

(A) Adjusted Income. The adjusted income of an international banking facility is its income reduced by the amount of the floor amount.

(B) Floor Amount. The floor amount shall be the amount, if any, determined by multiplying the income of the international banking facility by a fraction, not greater than one, which is determined as follows:

(i) The numerator shall be:

The average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of the financial organization's loans to banks in foreign countries, to foreign domiciled borrowers (except where secured primarily by real estate) and to foreign governments and other foreign official institutions, as reported for its branches, agencies and offices within the state on its "Consolidated Report of Condition", Schedule A, Lines 2.c., 5.b., and 7.a., which was filed with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and other regulatory authorities, for the year 1980, minus

The average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of such loans (other than loans of an international banking facility), as reported by the financial institution for its branches, agencies and offices within the state, on the corresponding Schedule and lines of the Consolidated Report of Condition for the current taxable year, provided, however, that in no case shall the amount determined in this clause (the subtrahend) exceed the amount determined in the preceding clause (the minuend); and

(ii) the denominator shall be the average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of the international banking facility's loans to banks in foreign countries, to foreign domiciled borrowers (except where secured primarily by real estate) and to foreign governments and other foreign official institutions, which were recorded in its financial accounts for the current taxable year.

(C) Change to Consolidated Report of Condition and in Qualification. In the event the Consolidated Report of Condition which is filed with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and other regulatory authorities is altered so that the information required for determining the floor amount is not found on Schedule A, lines 2.c., 5.b. and 7.a., the financial institution shall notify the Department and the Department may, by regulations or otherwise, prescribe or authorize the use of an alternative source for such information. The financial institution shall also notify the Department should its international banking facility fail to qualify as such, in whole or in part, or should there be any amendment or change to the Consolidated Report of Condition, as originally filed, to the extent such amendment or change alters the information used in determining the floor amount.

(3) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, the business income of a financial organization shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its gross receipts from sources in this State or otherwise attributable to this State's marketplace and the denominator of which is its gross receipts everywhere during the taxable year. "Gross receipts" for purposes of this subparagraph (3) means gross income, including net taxable gain on disposition of assets, including securities and money market instruments, when derived from transactions and activities in the regular course of the financial organization's trade or business. The following examples are illustrative:

(i) Receipts from the lease or rental of real or tangible personal property are in this State if the property is located in this State during the rental period. Receipts from the lease or rental of tangible personal property that is characteristically moving property, including, but not limited to, motor vehicles, rolling stock, aircraft, vessels, or mobile equipment are from sources in this State to the extent that the property is used in this State.

(ii) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from assets in the nature of loans that are secured primarily by real estate or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the security is located in this State.

(iii) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from consumer loans that are not secured by real or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the debtor is a resident of this State.

(iv) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from commercial loans and installment obligations that are not secured by real or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the proceeds of the loan are to be applied in this State. If it cannot be determined where the funds are to be applied, the income and receipts are from sources in this State if the office of the borrower from which the loan was negotiated in the regular course of business is located in this State. If the location of this office cannot be determined, the income and receipts shall be excluded from the numerator and denominator of the sales factor.

(v) Interest income, fees, gains on disposition, service charges, merchant discount income, and other receipts from credit card receivables are from sources in this State if the card charges are regularly billed to a customer in this State.

(vi) Receipts from the performance of services, including, but not limited to, fiduciary, advisory, and brokerage services, are in this State if the services are received in this State within the meaning of subparagraph (a)(3)(C-5)(iv) of this Section.

(vii) Receipts from the issuance of travelers checks and money orders are from sources in this State if the checks and money orders are issued from a location within this State.

(viii) Receipts from investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities are included in the receipts factor as follows:

(1) Interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero) and other income from investment assets and activities from trading assets and activities shall be included in the receipts factor. Investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities include but are not limited to: investment securities; trading account assets; federal funds; securities purchased and sold under agreements to resell or repurchase; options; futures contracts; forward contracts; notional principal contracts such as swaps; equities; and foreign currency transactions. With respect to the investment and trading assets and activities described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph, the receipts factor shall include the amounts described in such subparagraphs.

(A) The receipts factor shall include the amount by which interest from federal funds sold and securities purchased under resale agreements exceeds interest expense on federal funds purchased and securities sold under repurchase agreements.

(B) The receipts factor shall include the amount by which interest, dividends, gains and other income from trading assets and activities, including but not limited to assets and activities in the matched book, in the arbitrage book, and foreign currency transactions, exceed amounts paid in lieu of interest, amounts paid in lieu of dividends, and losses from such assets and activities.

(2) The numerator of the receipts factor includes interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities and from trading assets and activities described in paragraph (1) of this subsection that are attributable to this State.

(A) The amount of interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities in the investment account to be attributed to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying all such income from such assets and activities by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such assets and activities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such assets and activities.

(B) The amount of interest from federal funds sold and purchased and from securities purchased under resale agreements and securities sold under repurchase agreements attributable to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying the amount described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection from such funds and such securities by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such funds and such securities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such funds and such securities.

(C) The amount of interest, dividends, gains, and other income from trading assets and activities, including but not limited to assets and activities in the matched book, in the arbitrage book and foreign currency transactions (but excluding amounts described in subparagraphs (A) or (B) of this paragraph), attributable to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying the amount described in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such trading assets and activities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such assets and activities.

(D) Properly assigned, for purposes of this paragraph (2) of this subsection, means the investment or trading asset or activity is assigned to the fixed place of business with which it has a preponderance of substantive contacts. An investment or trading asset or activity assigned by the taxpayer to a fixed place of business without the State shall be presumed to have been properly assigned if:

(i) the taxpayer has assigned, in the regular course of its business, such asset or activity on its records to a fixed place of business consistent with federal or state regulatory requirements;

(ii) such assignment on its records is based upon substantive contacts of the asset or activity to such fixed place of business; and

(iii) the taxpayer uses such records reflecting assignment of such assets or activities for the filing of all state and local tax returns for which an assignment of such assets or activities to a fixed place of business is required.

(E) The presumption of proper assignment of an investment or trading asset or activity provided in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) of this subsection may be rebutted upon a showing by the Department, supported by a preponderance of the evidence, that the preponderance of substantive contacts regarding such asset or activity did not occur at the fixed place of business to which it was assigned on the taxpayer's records. If the fixed place of business that has a preponderance of substantive contacts cannot be determined for an investment or trading asset or activity to which the presumption in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) of this subsection does not apply or with respect to which that presumption has been rebutted, that asset or activity is properly assigned to the state in which the taxpayer's commercial domicile is located. For purposes of this subparagraph (E), it shall be presumed, subject to rebuttal, that taxpayer's commercial domicile is in the state of the United States or the District of Columbia to which the greatest number of employees are regularly connected with the management of the investment or trading income or out of which they are working, irrespective of where the services of such employees are performed, as of the last day of the taxable year.

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(c-1) Federally regulated exchanges. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2012, business income of a federally regulated exchange shall, at the option of the federally regulated exchange, be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its business income from sources within this State, and the denominator of which is its business income from all sources. For purposes of this subsection, the business income within this State of a federally regulated exchange is the sum of the following:

(1) Receipts attributable to transactions executed on a physical trading floor if that physical trading floor is located in this State.

(2) Receipts attributable to all other matching, execution, or clearing transactions, including without limitation receipts from the provision of matching, execution, or clearing services to another entity, multiplied by (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2012 but before December 31, 2013, 63.77%; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2013, 27.54%.

(3) All other receipts not governed by subparagraphs (1) or (2) of this subsection (c-1), to the extent the receipts would be characterized as "sales in this State" under item (3) of subsection (a) of this Section.

"Federally regulated exchange" means (i) a "registered entity" within the meaning of 7 U.S.C. Section 1a(40)(A), (B), or (C), (ii) an "exchange" or "clearing agency" within the meaning of 15 U.S.C. Section 78c (a)(1) or (23), (iii) any such entities regulated under any successor regulatory structure to the foregoing, and (iv) all taxpayers who are members of the same unitary business group as a federally regulated exchange, determined without regard to the prohibition in Section 1501(a)(27) of this Act against including in a unitary business group taxpayers who are ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of this Section; provided that this subparagraph (iv) shall apply only if 50% or more of the business receipts of the unitary business group determined by application of this subparagraph (iv) for the taxable year are attributable to the matching, execution, or clearing of transactions conducted by an entity described in subparagraph (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph.

In no event shall the Illinois apportionment percentage computed in accordance with this subsection (c-1) for any taxpayer for any tax year be less than the Illinois apportionment percentage computed under this subsection (c-1) for that taxpayer for the first full tax year ending on or after December 31, 2013 for which this subsection (c-1) applied to the taxpayer.

(d) Transportation services. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, business income derived from furnishing transportation services shall be apportioned to this State in accordance with paragraphs (1) and (2):

(1) Such business income (other than that derived from transportation by pipeline) shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation of 1 passenger or 1 net ton of freight the distance of 1 mile for a consideration. Where a person is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall be determined by means of an average of the passenger revenue mile fraction and the freight revenue mile fraction, weighted to reflect the person's

(A) relative railway operating income from total passenger and total freight service, as reported to the Interstate Commerce Commission, in the case of transportation by railroad, and

(B) relative gross receipts from passenger and freight transportation, in case of transportation other than by railroad.

(2) Such business income derived from transportation by pipeline shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For the purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation by pipeline of 1 barrel of oil, 1,000 cubic feet of gas, or of any specified quantity of any other substance, the distance of 1 mile for a consideration.

(3) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, business income derived from providing transportation services other than airline services shall be apportioned to this State by using a fraction, (a) the numerator of which shall be (i) all receipts from any movement or shipment of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline) that both originates and terminates in this State, plus (ii) that portion of the person's gross receipts from movements or shipments of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline) that originates in one state or jurisdiction and terminates in another state or jurisdiction, that is determined by the ratio that the miles traveled in this State bears to total miles everywhere and (b) the denominator of which shall be all revenue derived from the movement or shipment of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline). Where a taxpayer is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall first be determined separately for passenger miles and freight miles. Then an average of the passenger miles fraction and the freight miles fraction shall be weighted to reflect the taxpayer's:

(A) relative railway operating income from total passenger and total freight service, as reported to the Surface Transportation Board, in the case of transportation by railroad; and

(B) relative gross receipts from passenger and freight transportation, in case of transportation other than by railroad.

(4) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, business income derived from furnishing airline transportation services shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation of one passenger or one net ton of freight the distance of one mile for a consideration. If a person is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall be determined by means of an average of the passenger revenue mile fraction and the freight revenue mile fraction, weighted to reflect the person's relative gross receipts from passenger and freight airline transportation.

(e) Combined apportionment. Where 2 or more persons are engaged in a unitary business as described in subsection (a)(27) of Section 1501, a part of which is conducted in this State by one or more members of the group, the business income attributable to this State by any such member or members shall be apportioned by means of the combined apportionment method.

(f) Alternative allocation. If the allocation and apportionment provisions of subsections (a) through (e) and of subsection (h) do not, for taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, fairly represent the extent of a person's business activity in this State, or, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, fairly represent the market for the person's goods, services, or other sources of business income, the person may petition for, or the Director may, without a petition, permit or require, in respect of all or any part of the person's business activity, if reasonable:

(1) Separate accounting;

(2) The exclusion of any one or more factors;

(3) The inclusion of one or more additional factors which will fairly represent the person's business activities or market in this State; or

(4) The employment of any other method to effectuate an equitable allocation and apportionment of the person's business income.

(g) Cross reference. For allocation of business income by residents, see Section 301(a).

(h) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998, the apportionment factor of persons who apportion their business income to this State under subsection (a) shall be equal to:

(1) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998 and before December 31, 1999, 16 2/3% of the property factor plus 16 2/3% of the payroll factor plus 66 2/3% of the sales factor;

(2) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 1999 and before December 31, 2000, 8 1/3% of the property factor plus 8 1/3% of the payroll factor plus 83 1/3% of the sales factor;

(3) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2000, the sales factor.

If, in any tax year ending on or after December 31, 1998 and before December 31, 2000, the denominator of the payroll, property, or sales factor is zero, the apportionment factor computed in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection for that year shall be divided by an amount equal to 100% minus the percentage weight given to each factor whose denominator is equal to zero.

(Source: P.A. 97-507, eff. 8-23-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 98-478, eff. 1-1-14; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)

Section 175. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5 and 9 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Personal property purchased by a governmental body, by a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or by a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

(5) Until July 1, 2003, a passenger car that is a replacement vehicle to the extent that the purchase price of the car is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(6) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production, and including machinery and equipment purchased for lease. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(7) Farm chemicals.

(8) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(9) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(10) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act.

(11) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (11). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (11) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(12) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(13) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages purchased at retail from a retailer, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(14) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(15) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(16) Coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(17) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(18) Manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether that sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether that sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (18) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption.

(19) Personal property delivered to a purchaser or purchaser's donee inside Illinois when the purchase order for that personal property was received by a florist located outside Illinois who has a florist located inside Illinois deliver the personal property.

(20) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(21) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (21) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90, and the exemption provided for under this item (21) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008.

(22) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(23) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(24) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(25) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(26) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(27) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(28) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(30) Beginning January 1, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(31) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(32) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(33) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds and that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise, whether for-hire or not.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property by persons who modify, refurbish, complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (35) by Public Act 98-534 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are declarative of existing law.

(36) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-431, eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767, eff. 7-9-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-422, eff. 8-16-13; 98-456, eff. 8-16-13; 98-534, eff. 8-23-13; 98-574, eff. 1-1-14; 98-583, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)

(35 ILCS 105/9) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.9)

Sec. 9. Except as to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, each retailer required or authorized to collect the tax imposed by this Act shall pay to the Department the amount of such tax (except as otherwise provided) at the time when he is required to file his return for the period during which such tax was collected, less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990, and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. In the case of retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction by transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such discount shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead of when such retailer files his periodic return. The Department may disallow the discount for retailers whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final. A retailer need not remit that part of any tax collected by him to the extent that he is required to remit and does remit the tax imposed by the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, with respect to the sale of the same property.

Where such tangible personal property is sold under a conditional sales contract, or under any other form of sale wherein the payment of the principal sum, or a part thereof, is extended beyond the close of the period for which the return is filed, the retailer, in collecting the tax (except as to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State), may collect for each tax return period, only the tax applicable to that part of the selling price actually received during such tax return period.

Except as provided in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such retailer shall file a return for the preceding calendar month. Such return shall be filed on forms prescribed by the Department and shall furnish such information as the Department may reasonably require.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible personal property by him during such preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due;

5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act was $10,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. On and after October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act was $20,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or an amount set by the Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1985, and prior to January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987, and prior to January 1, 1988, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $9,000, or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $10,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $10,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for change in such taxpayer's reporting status. On and after October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $20,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. The Department shall change such taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds that such change is seasonal in nature and not likely to be long term. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due and the amount of such quarter monthly payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section. The Department shall make reasonable rules and regulations to govern the quarter monthly payment amount and quarter monthly payment dates for taxpayers who file on other than a calendar monthly basis.

If any such payment provided for in this Section exceeds the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Service Use Tax Act, as shown by an original monthly return, the Department shall issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment, which memorandum may be submitted by the taxpayer to the Department in payment of tax liability subsequently to be remitted by the taxpayer to the Department or be assigned by the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be prescribed by the Department, except that if such excess payment is shown on an original monthly return and is made after December 31, 1986, no credit memorandum shall be issued, unless requested by the taxpayer. If no such request is made, the taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax liability subsequently to be remitted by the taxpayer to the Department under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations prescribed by the Department. If the Department subsequently determines that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1% or 1.75% vendor's discount shall be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75% of the difference between the credit taken and that actually due, and the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February, and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, every retailer selling this kind of tangible personal property shall file, with the Department, upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a separate return for each such item of tangible personal property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer to another aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer retailer for the purpose of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 3-55 of this Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all the aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers involved in that transaction to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

The transaction reporting return in the case of motor vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 2 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient identification of the property sold; such other information as is required in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft and aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 2 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later than 20 days after the date of delivery of the item that is being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the tax that is imposed by this Act may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if titling or registration is required) if the Department and such agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a tax receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such tangible personal property.

No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the mandate of this paragraph.

If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact of such delay by the retailer, and may (upon the Department being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit the information required by the transaction reporting return and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption determination, in which event the transaction reporting return and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.

Where a retailer collects the tax with respect to the selling price of tangible personal property which he sells and the purchaser thereafter returns such tangible personal property and the retailer refunds the selling price thereof to the purchaser, such retailer shall also refund, to the purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the purchaser, the retailer may deduct the amount of the tax so refunded by him to the purchaser from any other use tax which such retailer may be required to pay or remit to the Department, as shown by such return, if the amount of the tax to be deducted was previously remitted to the Department by such retailer. If the retailer has not previously remitted the amount of such tax to the Department, he is entitled to no deduction under this Act upon refunding such tax to the purchaser.

Any retailer filing a return under this Section shall also include (for the purpose of paying tax thereon) the total tax covered by such return upon the selling price of tangible personal property purchased by him at retail from a retailer, but as to which the tax imposed by this Act was not collected from the retailer filing such return, and such retailer shall remit the amount of such tax to the Department when filing such return.

If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint return which will enable retailers, who are required to file returns hereunder and also under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, to furnish all the return information required by both Acts on the one form.

Where the retailer has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registration under this Act, such retailer may not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury which is hereby created, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 4% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury, 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property, other than tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning September 1, 2010, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are is now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2011, each month the Department shall pay into the Clean Air Act (CAA) Permit Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of sorbents used in Illinois in the process of sorbent injection as used to comply with the Environmental Protection Act or the federal Clean Air Act, but the total payment into the Clean Air Act (CAA) Permit Fund under this Act and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $2,000,000 in any fiscal year.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided, that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

(Source: P.A. 97-95, eff. 7-12-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)

Section 180. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5, 3-10, and 9 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a non-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(6) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(8) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages acquired as an incident to the purchase of a service from a serviceman, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Proceeds from the sale of photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(13) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(14) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (14) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75, and the exemption provided for under this item (14) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(15) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(16) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(17) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(19) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(20) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(21) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(23) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(24) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(25) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(26) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property transferred incident to the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (27) by Public Act 98-534 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are declarative of existing law.

(28) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-431, eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767, eff. 7-9-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-422, eff. 8-16-13; 98-456, eff. 8-16-13; 98-534, eff. 8-23-13; revised 9-9-13.)

(35 ILCS 110/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; revised 8-9-13.)

(35 ILCS 110/9) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.39)

Sec. 9. Each serviceman required or authorized to collect the tax herein imposed shall pay to the Department the amount of such tax (except as otherwise provided) at the time when he is required to file his return for the period during which such tax was collected, less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990 and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the serviceman for expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. The Department may disallow the discount for servicemen whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final. A serviceman need not remit that part of any tax collected by him to the extent that he is required to pay and does pay the tax imposed by the Service Occupation Tax Act with respect to his sale of service involving the incidental transfer by him of the same property.

Except as provided hereinafter in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such serviceman shall file a return for the preceding calendar month in accordance with reasonable Rules and Regulations to be promulgated by the Department. Such return shall be filed on a form prescribed by the Department and shall contain such information as the Department may reasonably require.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in business as a serviceman in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due;

5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

If the serviceman is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the serviceman is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a serviceman may file his return, in the case of any serviceman who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such serviceman shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than 1 month after discontinuing such business.

Where a serviceman collects the tax with respect to the selling price of property which he sells and the purchaser thereafter returns such property and the serviceman refunds the selling price thereof to the purchaser, such serviceman shall also refund, to the purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the purchaser, the serviceman may deduct the amount of the tax so refunded by him to the purchaser from any other Service Use Tax, Service Occupation Tax, retailers' occupation tax or use tax which such serviceman may be required to pay or remit to the Department, as shown by such return, provided that the amount of the tax to be deducted shall previously have been remitted to the Department by such serviceman. If the serviceman shall not previously have remitted the amount of such tax to the Department, he shall be entitled to no deduction hereunder upon refunding such tax to the purchaser.

Any serviceman filing a return hereunder shall also include the total tax upon the selling price of tangible personal property purchased for use by him as an incident to a sale of service, and such serviceman shall remit the amount of such tax to the Department when filing such return.

If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint return which will enable servicemen, who are required to file returns hereunder and also under the Service Occupation Tax Act, to furnish all the return information required by both Acts on the one form.

Where the serviceman has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registration hereunder, such serviceman shall not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Tax Reform Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on transfers of tangible personal property, other than tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are is now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided, that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund of the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

(Source: P.A. 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; 98-298, eff. 8-9-13; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)

Section 185. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5, 3-10, and 9 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. The following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by any not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(8) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(13) Beginning January 1, 1992 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(14) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(15) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (15) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55, and the exemption provided for under this item (15) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(16) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(17) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(19) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(20) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(21) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(23) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(24) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(25) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(26) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (26). The permit issued under this paragraph (26) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(28) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the transfer of qualifying tangible personal property incident to the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of an aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (29) by Public Act 98-534 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are declarative of existing law.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-73, eff. 6-30-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-431, eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767, eff. 7-9-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-422, eff. 8-16-13; 98-456, eff. 8-16-13; 98-534, eff. 8-23-13; revised 9-9-13.)

(35 ILCS 115/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.103-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use Tax Act, of the tangible personal property. For the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible personal property transferred. The selling price of each item of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When, however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of the contract.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the cost price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; revised 8-9-13.)

(35 ILCS 115/9) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.109)

Sec. 9. Each serviceman required or authorized to collect the tax herein imposed shall pay to the Department the amount of such tax at the time when he is required to file his return for the period during which such tax was collectible, less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990, and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the serviceman for expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. The Department may disallow the discount for servicemen whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final.

Where such tangible personal property is sold under a conditional sales contract, or under any other form of sale wherein the payment of the principal sum, or a part thereof, is extended beyond the close of the period for which the return is filed, the serviceman, in collecting the tax may collect, for each tax return period, only the tax applicable to the part of the selling price actually received during such tax return period.

Except as provided hereinafter in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such serviceman shall file a return for the preceding calendar month in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be promulgated by the Department of Revenue. Such return shall be filed on a form prescribed by the Department and shall contain such information as the Department may reasonably require.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in business as a serviceman in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due;

5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Prior to October 1, 2003, and on and after September 1, 2004 a serviceman may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Service Use Tax as provided in Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification, accepted prior to October 1, 2003 or on or after September 1, 2004 by a serviceman as provided in Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act, may be used by that serviceman to satisfy Service Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under this Act after October 20, 2003 for reporting periods prior to September 1, 2004 shall be disallowed. Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on annual returns due on or after January 1, 2005 will be disallowed for periods prior to September 1, 2004. No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be used after September 30, 2003 through August 31, 2004 to satisfy any tax liability imposed under this Act, including any audit liability.

If the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a serviceman may file his return, in the case of any serviceman who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such serviceman shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than 1 month after discontinuing such business.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Where a serviceman collects the tax with respect to the selling price of tangible personal property which he sells and the purchaser thereafter returns such tangible personal property and the serviceman refunds the selling price thereof to the purchaser, such serviceman shall also refund, to the purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the purchaser, the serviceman may deduct the amount of the tax so refunded by him to the purchaser from any other Service Occupation Tax, Service Use Tax, Retailers' Occupation Tax or Use Tax which such serviceman may be required to pay or remit to the Department, as shown by such return, provided that the amount of the tax to be deducted shall previously have been remitted to the Department by such serviceman. If the serviceman shall not previously have remitted the amount of such tax to the Department, he shall be entitled to no deduction hereunder upon refunding such tax to the purchaser.

If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint return which will enable servicemen, who are required to file returns hereunder and also under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, to furnish all the return information required by all said Acts on the one form.

Where the serviceman has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registrations hereunder, such serviceman shall file separate returns for each registered business.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund the revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 4% of the revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on transfers of tangible personal property.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are is now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided, that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund of the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the taxpayer's last Federal income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the Federal income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the same period, the taxpayer shall attach to his annual return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The taxpayer's annual return to the Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the taxpayer during the year covered by such return, opening and closing inventories of such goods for such year, cost of goods used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the taxpayer during such year, pay roll information of the taxpayer's business during such year and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly or annual returns filed by such taxpayer as hereinbefore provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable as follows:

(i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by the annual return for each month or fraction of a month until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

(ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The foregoing portion of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return shall not apply to a serviceman who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, it shall be permissible for manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold by numerous servicemen in Illinois, and who wish to do so, to assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the servicemen who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

(Source: P.A. 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; 98-298, eff. 8-9-13; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)

Section 190. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 2-5, 2a, and 3 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/2-5)

Sec. 2-5. Exemptions. Gross receipts from proceeds from the sale of the following tangible personal property are exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Farm chemicals.

(2) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (2). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed, if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (2) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(3) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(4) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(5) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Until July 1, 2003, proceeds of that portion of the selling price of a passenger car the sale of which is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(8) Personal property sold to an Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(9) Personal property sold to a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(10) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(11) Personal property sold to a governmental body, to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or to a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(12) Tangible personal property sold to interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce or to lessors under leases of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of purchase by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(12-5) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.

(13) Proceeds from sales to owners, lessors, or shippers of tangible personal property that is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(14) Machinery and equipment that will be used by the purchaser, or a lessee of the purchaser, primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether the sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether the sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (14) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption.

(15) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(16) Petroleum products sold to a purchaser if the seller is prohibited by federal law from charging tax to the purchaser.

(17) Tangible personal property sold to a common carrier by rail or motor that receives the physical possession of the property in Illinois and that transports the property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of the property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(18) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(19) Until July 1 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(20) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(21) Coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(22) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(23) A transaction in which the purchase order is received by a florist who is located outside Illinois, but who has a florist located in Illinois deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in Illinois.

(24) Fuel consumed or used in the operation of ships, barges, or vessels that are used primarily in or for the transportation of property or the conveyance of persons for hire on rivers bordering on this State if the fuel is delivered by the seller to the purchaser's barge, ship, or vessel while it is afloat upon that bordering river.

(25) Except as provided in item (25-5) of this Section, a motor vehicle sold in this State to a nonresident even though the motor vehicle is delivered to the nonresident in this State, if the motor vehicle is not to be titled in this State, and if a drive-away permit is issued to the motor vehicle as provided in Section 3-603 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or if the nonresident purchaser has vehicle registration plates to transfer to the motor vehicle upon returning to his or her home state. The issuance of the drive-away permit or having the out-of-state registration plates to be transferred is prima facie evidence that the motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

(25-5) The exemption under item (25) does not apply if the state in which the motor vehicle will be titled does not allow a reciprocal exemption for a motor vehicle sold and delivered in that state to an Illinois resident but titled in Illinois. The tax collected under this Act on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state that does not allow a reciprocal exemption shall be imposed at a rate equal to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in the state in which the purchaser is a resident, except that the tax shall not exceed the tax that would otherwise be imposed under this Act. At the time of the sale, the purchaser shall execute a statement, signed under penalty of perjury, of his or her intent to title the vehicle in the state in which the purchaser is a resident within 30 days after the sale and of the fact of the payment to the State of Illinois of tax in an amount equivalent to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in his or her state of residence and shall submit the statement to the appropriate tax collection agency in his or her state of residence. In addition, the retailer must retain a signed copy of the statement in his or her records. Nothing in this item shall be construed to require the removal of the vehicle from this state following the filing of an intent to title the vehicle in the purchaser's state of residence if the purchaser titles the vehicle in his or her state of residence within 30 days after the date of sale. The tax collected under this Act in accordance with this item (25-5) shall be proportionately distributed as if the tax were collected at the 6.25% general rate imposed under this Act.

(25-7) Beginning on July 1, 2007, no tax is imposed under this Act on the sale of an aircraft, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Aeronautics Act, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) the aircraft leaves this State within 15 days after the later of either the issuance of the final billing for the sale of the aircraft, or the authorized approval for return to service, completion of the maintenance record entry, and completion of the test flight and ground test for inspection, as required by 14 C.F.R. 91.407;

(2) the aircraft is not based or registered in this State after the sale of the aircraft; and

(3) the seller retains in his or her books and records and provides to the Department a signed and dated certification from the purchaser, on a form prescribed by the Department, certifying that the requirements of this item (25-7) are met. The certificate must also include the name and address of the purchaser, the address of the location where the aircraft is to be titled or registered, the address of the primary physical location of the aircraft, and other information that the Department may reasonably require.

For purposes of this item (25-7):

"Based in this State" means hangared, stored, or otherwise used, excluding post-sale customizations as defined in this Section, for 10 or more days in each 12-month period immediately following the date of the sale of the aircraft.

"Registered in this State" means an aircraft registered with the Department of Transportation, Aeronautics Division, or titled or registered with the Federal Aviation Administration to an address located in this State.

This paragraph (25-7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(26) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(27) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (27) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70, and the exemption provided for under this item (27) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(28) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(29) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(30) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(31) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(32) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(33) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35-5) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(36) Beginning August 2, 2001, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(37) Beginning August 2, 2001, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(38) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (38). The permit issued under this paragraph (38) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(39) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(40) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the sale of qualifying tangible personal property to persons who modify, refurbish, complete, replace, or maintain an aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (40) by Public Act 98-534 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are declarative of existing law.

(41) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-73, eff. 6-30-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-431, eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767, eff. 7-9-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-422, eff. 8-16-13; 98-456, eff. 8-16-13; 98-534, eff. 8-23-13; 98-574, eff. 1-1-14; 98-583, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)

(35 ILCS 120/2a) (from Ch. 120, par. 441a)

Sec. 2a. It is unlawful for any person to engage in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State without a certificate of registration from the Department. Application for a certificate of registration shall be made to the Department upon forms furnished by it. Each such application shall be signed and verified and shall state: (1) the name and social security number of the applicant; (2) the address of his principal place of business; (3) the address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State and the addresses of all other places of business, if any (enumerating such addresses, if any, in a separate list attached to and made a part of the application), from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State; (4) the name and address of the person or persons who will be responsible for filing returns and payment of taxes due under this Act; (5) in the case of a publicly traded corporation, the name and title of the Chief Financial Officer, Chief Operating Officer, and any other officer or employee with responsibility for preparing tax returns under this Act, along with the last 4 digits of each of their social security numbers, and, in the case of all other corporations, the name, title, and social security number of each corporate officer; (6) in the case of a limited liability company, the name, social security number, and FEIN number of each manager and member; and (7) such other information as the Department may reasonably require. The application shall contain an acceptance of responsibility signed by the person or persons who will be responsible for filing returns and payment of the taxes due under this Act. If the applicant will sell tangible personal property at retail through vending machines, his application to register shall indicate the number of vending machines to be so operated. If requested by the Department at any time, that person shall verify the total number of vending machines he or she uses in his or her business of selling tangible personal property at retail.

The Department may deny a certificate of registration to any applicant if a person who is named as the owner, a partner, a manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer of the applicant on the application for the certificate of registration, is or has been named as the owner, a partner, a manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer, on the application for the certificate of registration of another retailer that is in default for moneys due under this Act or any other tax or fee Act administered by the Department. For purposes of this paragraph only, in determining whether a person is in default for moneys due, the Department shall include only amounts established as a final liability within the 20 years prior to the date of the Department's notice of denial of a certificate of registration.

The Department may require an applicant for a certificate of registration hereunder to, at the time of filing such application, furnish a bond from a surety company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois, or an irrevocable bank letter of credit or a bond signed by 2 personal sureties who have filed, with the Department, sworn statements disclosing net assets equal to at least 3 times the amount of the bond to be required of such applicant, or a bond secured by an assignment of a bank account or certificate of deposit, stocks or bonds, conditioned upon the applicant paying to the State of Illinois all moneys becoming due under this Act and under any other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration that is issued to the applicant under this Act will permit the applicant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance or resolution. In making a determination as to whether to require a bond or other security, the Department shall take into consideration whether the owner, any partner, any manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer of the applicant is or has been the owner, a partner, a manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer of another retailer that is in default for moneys due under this Act or any other tax or fee Act administered by the Department; and whether the owner, any partner, any manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer of the applicant is or has been the owner, a partner, a manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer of another retailer whose certificate of registration has been revoked within the previous 5 years under this Act or any other tax or fee Act administered by the Department. If a bond or other security is required, the Department shall fix the amount of the bond or other security, taking into consideration the amount of money expected to become due from the applicant under this Act and under any other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration that is issued to the applicant under this Act will permit the applicant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance, or resolution. The amount of security required by the Department shall be such as, in its opinion, will protect the State of Illinois against failure to pay the amount which may become due from the applicant under this Act and under any other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration that is issued to the applicant under this Act will permit the applicant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance or resolution, but the amount of the security required by the Department shall not exceed three times the amount of the applicant's average monthly tax liability, or $50,000.00, whichever amount is lower.

No certificate of registration under this Act shall be issued by the Department until the applicant provides the Department with satisfactory security, if required, as herein provided for.

Upon receipt of the application for certificate of registration in proper form, and upon approval by the Department of the security furnished by the applicant, if required, the Department shall issue to such applicant a certificate of registration which shall permit the person to whom it is issued to engage in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State. The certificate of registration shall be conspicuously displayed at the place of business which the person so registered states in his application to be the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State.

No certificate of registration issued to a taxpayer who files returns required by this Act on a monthly basis shall be valid after the expiration of 5 years from the date of its issuance or last renewal. The expiration date of a sub-certificate of registration shall be that of the certificate of registration to which the sub-certificate relates. A certificate of registration shall automatically be renewed, subject to revocation as provided by this Act, for an additional 5 years from the date of its expiration unless otherwise notified by the Department as provided by this paragraph. Where a taxpayer to whom a certificate of registration is issued under this Act is in default to the State of Illinois for delinquent returns or for moneys due under this Act or any other State tax law or municipal or county ordinance administered or enforced by the Department, the Department shall, not less than 120 days before the expiration date of such certificate of registration, give notice to the taxpayer to whom the certificate was issued of the account period of the delinquent returns, the amount of tax, penalty and interest due and owing from the taxpayer, and that the certificate of registration shall not be automatically renewed upon its expiration date unless the taxpayer, on or before the date of expiration, has filed and paid the delinquent returns or paid the defaulted amount in full. A taxpayer to whom such a notice is issued shall be deemed an applicant for renewal. The Department shall promulgate regulations establishing procedures for taxpayers who file returns on a monthly basis but desire and qualify to change to a quarterly or yearly filing basis and will no longer be subject to renewal under this Section, and for taxpayers who file returns on a yearly or quarterly basis but who desire or are required to change to a monthly filing basis and will be subject to renewal under this Section.

The Department may in its discretion approve renewal by an applicant who is in default if, at the time of application for renewal, the applicant files all of the delinquent returns or pays to the Department such percentage of the defaulted amount as may be determined by the Department and agrees in writing to waive all limitations upon the Department for collection of the remaining defaulted amount to the Department over a period not to exceed 5 years from the date of renewal of the certificate; however, no renewal application submitted by an applicant who is in default shall be approved if the immediately preceding renewal by the applicant was conditioned upon the installment payment agreement described in this Section. The payment agreement herein provided for shall be in addition to and not in lieu of the security that may be required by this Section of a taxpayer who is no longer considered a prior continuous compliance taxpayer. The execution of the payment agreement as provided in this Act shall not toll the accrual of interest at the statutory rate.

The Department may suspend a certificate of registration if the Department finds that the person to whom the certificate of registration has been issued knowingly sold contraband cigarettes.

A certificate of registration issued under this Act more than 5 years before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1989 shall expire and be subject to the renewal provisions of this Section on the next anniversary of the date of issuance of such certificate which occurs more than 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1989. A certificate of registration issued less than 5 years before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1989 shall expire and be subject to the renewal provisions of this Section on the 5th anniversary of the issuance of the certificate.

If the person so registered states that he operates other places of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State, the Department shall furnish him with a sub-certificate of registration for each such place of business, and the applicant shall display the appropriate sub-certificate of registration at each such place of business. All sub-certificates of registration shall bear the same registration number as that appearing upon the certificate of registration to which such sub-certificates relate.

If the applicant will sell tangible personal property at retail through vending machines, the Department shall furnish him with a sub-certificate of registration for each such vending machine, and the applicant shall display the appropriate sub-certificate of registration on each such vending machine by attaching the sub-certificate of registration to a conspicuous part of such vending machine. If a person who is registered to sell tangible personal property at retail through vending machines adds an additional vending machine or additional vending machines to the number of vending machines he or she uses in his or her business of selling tangible personal property at retail, he or she shall notify the Department, on a form prescribed by the Department, to request an additional sub-certificate or additional sub-certificates of registration, as applicable. With each such request, the applicant shall report the number of sub-certificates of registration he or she is requesting as well as the total number of vending machines from which he or she makes retail sales.

Where the same person engages in 2 or more businesses of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State, which businesses are substantially different in character or engaged in under different trade names or engaged in under other substantially dissimilar circumstances (so that it is more practicable, from an accounting, auditing or bookkeeping standpoint, for such businesses to be separately registered), the Department may require or permit such person (subject to the same requirements concerning the furnishing of security as those that are provided for hereinbefore in this Section as to each application for a certificate of registration) to apply for and obtain a separate certificate of registration for each such business or for any of such businesses, under a single certificate of registration supplemented by related sub-certificates of registration.

Any person who is registered under the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" as of March 8, 1963, and who, during the 3-year period immediately prior to March 8, 1963, or during a continuous 3-year period part of which passed immediately before and the remainder of which passes immediately after March 8, 1963, has been so registered continuously and who is determined by the Department not to have been either delinquent or deficient in the payment of tax liability during that period under this Act or under any other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration that is issued to the registrant under this Act will permit the registrant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance or resolution, shall be considered to be a Prior Continuous Compliance taxpayer. Also any taxpayer who has, as verified by the Department, faithfully and continuously complied with the condition of his bond or other security under the provisions of this Act for a period of 3 consecutive years shall be considered to be a Prior Continuous Compliance taxpayer.

Every Prior Continuous Compliance taxpayer shall be exempt from all requirements under this Act concerning the furnishing of a bond or other security as a condition precedent to his being authorized to engage in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State. This exemption shall continue for each such taxpayer until such time as he may be determined by the Department to be delinquent in the filing of any returns, or is determined by the Department (either through the Department's issuance of a final assessment which has become final under the Act, or by the taxpayer's filing of a return which admits tax that is not paid to be due) to be delinquent or deficient in the paying of any tax under this Act or under any other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration that is issued to the registrant under this Act will permit the registrant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance or resolution, at which time that taxpayer shall become subject to all the financial responsibility requirements of this Act and, as a condition of being allowed to continue to engage in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail, may be required to post bond or other acceptable security with the Department covering liability which such taxpayer may thereafter incur. Any taxpayer who fails to pay an admitted or established liability under this Act may also be required to post bond or other acceptable security with this Department guaranteeing the payment of such admitted or established liability.

No certificate of registration shall be issued to any person who is in default to the State of Illinois for moneys due under this Act or under any other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration that is issued to the applicant under this Act will permit the applicant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance or resolution.

Any person aggrieved by any decision of the Department under this Section may, within 20 days after notice of such decision, protest and request a hearing, whereupon the Department shall give notice to such person of the time and place fixed for such hearing and shall hold a hearing in conformity with the provisions of this Act and then issue its final administrative decision in the matter to such person. In the absence of such a protest within 20 days, the Department's decision shall become final without any further determination being made or notice given.

With respect to security other than bonds (upon which the Department may sue in the event of a forfeiture), if the taxpayer fails to pay, when due, any amount whose payment such security guarantees, the Department shall, after such liability is admitted by the taxpayer or established by the Department through the issuance of a final assessment that has become final under the law, convert the security which that taxpayer has furnished into money for the State, after first giving the taxpayer at least 10 days' written notice, by registered or certified mail, to pay the liability or forfeit such security to the Department. If the security consists of stocks or bonds or other securities which are listed on a public exchange, the Department shall sell such securities through such public exchange. If the security consists of an irrevocable bank letter of credit, the Department shall convert the security in the manner provided for in the Uniform Commercial Code. If the security consists of a bank certificate of deposit, the Department shall convert the security into money by demanding and collecting the amount of such bank certificate of deposit from the bank which issued such certificate. If the security consists of a type of stocks or other securities which are not listed on a public exchange, the Department shall sell such security to the highest and best bidder after giving at least 10 days' notice of the date, time and place of the intended sale by publication in the "State Official Newspaper". If the Department realizes more than the amount of such liability from the security, plus the expenses incurred by the Department in converting the security into money, the Department shall pay such excess to the taxpayer who furnished such security, and the balance shall be paid into the State Treasury.

The Department shall discharge any surety and shall release and return any security deposited, assigned, pledged or otherwise provided to it by a taxpayer under this Section within 30 days after:

(1) such taxpayer becomes a Prior Continuous Compliance taxpayer; or

(2) such taxpayer has ceased to collect receipts on which he is required to remit tax to the Department, has filed a final tax return, and has paid to the Department an amount sufficient to discharge his remaining tax liability, as determined by the Department, under this Act and under every other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration issued under this Act permits the registrant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance or resolution. The Department shall make a final determination of the taxpayer's outstanding tax liability as expeditiously as possible after his final tax return has been filed; if the Department cannot make such final determination within 45 days after receiving the final tax return, within such period it shall so notify the taxpayer, stating its reasons therefor.

(Source: P.A. 97-335, eff. 1-1-12; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14; 98-583, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)

(35 ILCS 120/3) (from Ch. 120, par. 442)

Sec. 3. Except as provided in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, every person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State during the preceding calendar month shall file a return with the Department, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. His residence address and the address of his principal place of business and the address of the principal place of business (if that is a different address) from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. Total amount of receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter, as the case may be, from sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him during such preceding calendar month or quarter;

4. Total amount received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter on charge and time sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him prior to the month or quarter for which the return is filed;

5. Deductions allowed by law;

6. Gross receipts which were received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter and upon the basis of which the tax is imposed;

7. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

8. The amount of tax due;

9. The signature of the taxpayer; and

10. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Each return shall be accompanied by the statement of prepaid tax issued pursuant to Section 2e for which credit is claimed.

Prior to October 1, 2003, and on and after September 1, 2004 a retailer may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Use Tax as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification, accepted by a retailer prior to October 1, 2003 and on and after September 1, 2004 as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act, may be used by that retailer to satisfy Retailers' Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under this Act after October 20, 2003 for reporting periods prior to September 1, 2004 shall be disallowed. Manufacturer's Purchaser Credit reported on annual returns due on or after January 1, 2005 will be disallowed for periods prior to September 1, 2004. No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be used after September 30, 2003 through August 31, 2004 to satisfy any tax liability imposed under this Act, including any audit liability.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible personal property by him during such preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, any person who is not a licensed distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer, as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, but is engaged in the business of selling, at retail, alcoholic liquor shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, in a format and at a time prescribed by the Department, showing the total amount paid for alcoholic liquor purchased during the preceding month and such other information as is reasonably required by the Department. The Department may adopt rules to require that this statement be filed in an electronic or telephonic format. Such rules may provide for exceptions from the filing requirements of this paragraph. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term "alcoholic liquor" shall have the meaning prescribed in the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, every distributor, importing distributor, and manufacturer of alcoholic liquor as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which transactions occurred, by electronic means, showing the total amount of gross receipts from the sale of alcoholic liquor sold or distributed during the preceding month to purchasers; identifying the purchaser to whom it was sold or distributed; the purchaser's tax registration number; and such other information reasonably required by the Department. A distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer of alcoholic liquor must personally deliver, mail, or provide by electronic means to each retailer listed on the monthly statement a report containing a cumulative total of that distributor's, importing distributor's, or manufacturer's total sales of alcoholic liquor to that retailer no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which the transaction occurred. The distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall notify the retailer as to the method by which the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer will provide the sales information. If the retailer is unable to receive the sales information by electronic means, the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall furnish the sales information by personal delivery or by mail. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "electronic means" includes, but is not limited to, the use of a secure Internet website, e-mail, or facsimile.

If a total amount of less than $1 is payable, refundable or creditable, such amount shall be disregarded if it is less than 50 cents and shall be increased to $1 if it is 50 cents or more.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Any amount which is required to be shown or reported on any return or other document under this Act shall, if such amount is not a whole-dollar amount, be increased to the nearest whole-dollar amount in any case where the fractional part of a dollar is 50 cents or more, and decreased to the nearest whole-dollar amount where the fractional part of a dollar is less than 50 cents.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability with the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

Where the same person has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registrations under this Act, such person may not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, every retailer selling this kind of tangible personal property shall file, with the Department, upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a separate return for each such item of tangible personal property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer to another aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle retailer or trailer retailer for the purpose of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 2-5 of this Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers involved in that transaction to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

Any retailer who sells only motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, so that all retailers' occupation tax liability is required to be reported, and is reported, on such transaction reporting returns and who is not otherwise required to file monthly or quarterly returns, need not file monthly or quarterly returns. However, those retailers shall be required to file returns on an annual basis.

The transaction reporting return, in the case of motor vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of The Illinois Vehicle Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient identification of the property sold; such other information as is required in Section 5-402 of The Illinois Vehicle Code, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft or aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later than 20 days after the day of delivery of the item that is being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the Illinois use tax may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or State officer with whom the tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if titling or registration is required) if the Department and such agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a use tax receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such tangible personal property.

No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the mandate of this paragraph.

If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of the tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact of such delay by the retailer and may (upon the Department being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit the information required by the transaction reporting return and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption determination, in which event the transaction reporting return and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.

Refunds made by the seller during the preceding return period to purchasers, on account of tangible personal property returned to the seller, shall be allowed as a deduction under subdivision 5 of his monthly or quarterly return, as the case may be, in case the seller had theretofore included the receipts from the sale of such tangible personal property in a return filed by him and had paid the tax imposed by this Act with respect to such receipts.

Where the seller is a corporation, the return filed on behalf of such corporation shall be signed by the president, vice-president, secretary or treasurer or by the properly accredited agent of such corporation.

Where the seller is a limited liability company, the return filed on behalf of the limited liability company shall be signed by a manager, member, or properly accredited agent of the limited liability company.

Except as provided in this Section, the retailer filing the return under this Section shall, at the time of filing such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this Act less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990 and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. Any prepayment made pursuant to Section 2d of this Act shall be included in the amount on which such 2.1% or 1.75% discount is computed. In the case of retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction by transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such discount shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead of when such retailer files his periodic return. The Department may disallow the discount for retailers whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final.

Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $10,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. On and after October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $20,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or an amount set by the Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1985 and prior to January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987 and prior to January 1, 1988, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $10,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $9,000, or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $10,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $10,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. On and after October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $20,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $20,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. The Department shall change such taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds that such change is seasonal in nature and not likely to be long term. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due as a payment and the amount of such quarter monthly payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section. The Department shall make reasonable rules and regulations to govern the quarter monthly payment amount and quarter monthly payment dates for taxpayers who file on other than a calendar monthly basis.

The provisions of this paragraph apply before October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes which average in excess of $25,000 per month during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters, shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985, each payment shall be in an amount not less than 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability under Section 2d. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1986, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding calendar year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters is $25,000 or less. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

The provisions of this paragraph apply on and after October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes that average in excess of $20,000 per month during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which the liability is incurred. Each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of the quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until the taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarters is less than $20,000. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

If any payment provided for in this Section exceeds the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Service Use Tax Act, as shown on an original monthly return, the Department shall, if requested by the taxpayer, issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment. The credit evidenced by such credit memorandum may be assigned by the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be prescribed by the Department. If no such request is made, the taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax liability subsequently to be remitted to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations prescribed by the Department. If the Department subsequently determined that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1% and 1.75% vendor's discount shall be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75% of the difference between the credit taken and that actually due, and that taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference.

If a retailer of motor fuel is entitled to a credit under Section 2d of this Act which exceeds the taxpayer's liability to the Department under this Act for the month which the taxpayer is filing a return, the Department shall issue the taxpayer a credit memorandum for the excess.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, 4% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning September 1, 2010, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning September 1, 2010, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are is now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2011, each month the Department shall pay into the Clean Air Act (CAA) Permit Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of sorbents used in Illinois in the process of sorbent injection as used to comply with the Environmental Protection Act or the federal Clean Air Act, but the total payment into the Clean Air Act (CAA) Permit Fund under this Act and the Use Tax Act shall not exceed $2,000,000 in any fiscal year.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as hereinafter defined), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; the "Annual Specified Amount" means the amounts specified below for fiscal years 1986 through 1993: and means the Certified Annual Debt Service Requirement (as defined in Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act) or the Tax Act Amount, whichever is greater, for fiscal year 1994 and each fiscal year thereafter; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year. The amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under clause (b) of the first sentence in this paragraph shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the first sentence of this paragraph and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to that clause (b). The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the retailer's last Federal income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the Federal income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the same period, the retailer shall attach to his annual return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The retailer's annual return to the Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the retailer during the year covered by such return, opening and closing inventories of such goods for such year, costs of goods used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the retailer during such year, payroll information of the retailer's business during such year and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly or annual returns filed by such retailer as provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable as follows:

(i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by the annual return for each month or fraction of a month until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

(ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The provisions of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return do not apply to a retailer who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

Any person who promotes, organizes, provides retail selling space for concessionaires or other types of sellers at the Illinois State Fair, DuQuoin State Fair, county fairs, local fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, including any transient merchant as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, is required to file a report with the Department providing the name of the merchant's business, the name of the person or persons engaged in merchant's business, the permanent address and Illinois Retailers Occupation Tax Registration Number of the merchant, the dates and location of the event and other reasonable information that the Department may require. The report must be filed not later than the 20th day of the month next following the month during which the event with retail sales was held. Any person who fails to file a report required by this Section commits a business offense and is subject to a fine not to exceed $250.

Any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail as a concessionaire or other type of seller at the Illinois State Fair, county fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, or any transient merchants, as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, may be required to make a daily report of the amount of such sales to the Department and to make a daily payment of the full amount of tax due. The Department shall impose this requirement when it finds that there is a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State at such an exhibition or event. Such a finding shall be based on evidence that a substantial number of concessionaires or other sellers who are not residents of Illinois will be engaging in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail at the exhibition or event, or other evidence of a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State. The Department shall notify concessionaires and other sellers affected by the imposition of this requirement. In the absence of notification by the Department, the concessionaires and other sellers shall file their returns as otherwise required in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-95, eff. 7-12-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)

Section 195. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 9-275 and 15-170 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/9-275)

Sec. 9-275. Erroneous homestead exemptions.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

"Erroneous homestead exemption" means a homestead exemption that was granted for real property in a taxable year if the property was not eligible for that exemption in that taxable year. If the taxpayer receives an erroneous homestead exemption under a single Section of this Code for the same property in multiple years, that exemption is considered a single erroneous homestead exemption for purposes of this Section. However, if the taxpayer receives erroneous homestead exemptions under multiple Sections of this Code for the same property, or if the taxpayer receives erroneous homestead exemptions under the same Section of this Code for multiple properties, then each of those exemptions is considered a separate erroneous homestead exemption for purposes of this Section.

"Homestead exemption" means an exemption under Section 15-165 (disabled veterans), 15-167 (returning veterans), 15-168 (disabled persons), 15-169 (disabled veterans standard homestead), 15-170 (senior citizens), 15-172 (senior citizens assessment freeze), 15-175 (general homestead), 15-176 (alternative general homestead), or 15-177 (long-time occupant).

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the chief county assessment officer shall include the following information with each assessment notice sent in a general assessment year: (1) a list of each homestead exemption available under Article 15 of this Code and a description of the eligibility criteria for that exemption; (2) a list of each homestead exemption applied to the property in the current assessment year; (3) information regarding penalties and interest that may be incurred under this Section if the property owner received an erroneous homestead exemption in a previous taxable year; and (4) notice of the 60-day grace period available under this subsection. If, within 60 days after receiving his or her assessment notice, the property owner notifies the chief county assessment officer that he or she received an erroneous homestead exemption in a previous assessment year, and if the property owner pays the principal amount of back taxes due and owing with respect to that exemption, plus interest as provided in subsection (f), then the property owner shall not be liable for the penalties provided in subsection (f) with respect to that exemption.

(c) The chief county assessment officer in a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants may cause a lien to be recorded against property that (1) is located in the county and (2) received one or more erroneous homestead exemptions if, upon determination of the chief county assessment officer, the property owner received: (A) one or 2 erroneous homestead exemptions for real property, including at least one erroneous homestead exemption granted for the property against which the lien is sought, during any of the 3 assessment years immediately prior to the assessment year in which the notice of intent to record at tax lien is served; or (B) (2) 3 or more erroneous homestead exemptions for real property, including at least one erroneous homestead exemption granted for the property against which the lien is sought, during any of the 6 assessment years immediately prior to the assessment year in which the notice of intent to record at tax lien is served. Prior to recording the lien against the property, the chief county assessment officer shall cause to be served, by both regular mail and certified mail, return receipt requested, on the person to whom the most recent tax bill was mailed and the owner of record, a notice of intent to record a tax lien against the property.

(d) The notice of intent to record a tax lien described in subsection (c) shall: (1) identify, by property index number, the property against which the lien is being sought; (2) identify each specific homestead exemption that was erroneously granted and the year or years in which each exemption was granted; (3) set forth the arrearage of taxes that would have been due if not for the erroneous homestead exemptions; (4) inform the property owner that he or she may request a hearing within 30 days after service and may appeal the hearing officer's ruling to the circuit court; and (5) inform the property owner that he or she may pay the amount due, plus interest and penalties, within 30 days after service.

(e) The notice must also include a form that the property owner may return to the chief county assessment officer to request a hearing. The property owner may request a hearing by returning the form within 30 days after service. The hearing shall be held within 90 days after the property owner is served. The chief county assessment officer shall promulgate rules of service and procedure for the hearing. The chief county assessment officer must generally follow rules of evidence and practices that prevail in the county circuit courts, but, because of the nature of these proceedings, the chief county assessment officer is not bound by those rules in all particulars. The chief county assessment officer shall appoint a hearing officer to oversee the hearing. The property owner shall be allowed to present evidence to the hearing officer at the hearing. After taking into consideration all the relevant testimony and evidence, the hearing officer shall make an administrative decision on whether the property owner was erroneously granted a homestead exemption for the assessment year in question. The property owner may appeal the hearing officer's ruling to the circuit court of the county where the property is located as a final administrative decision under the Administrative Review Law.

(f) A lien against the property imposed under this Section shall be filed with the county recorder of deeds, but may not be filed sooner than 60 days after the notice was delivered to the property owner if the property owner does not request a hearing, or until the conclusion of the hearing and all appeals if the property owner does request a hearing. If a lien is filed pursuant to this Section and the property owner received one or 2 erroneous homestead exemptions during any of the 3 assessment years immediately prior to the assessment year in which the notice of intent to record at tax lien is served, then the arrearages of taxes that might have been assessed for that property, plus 10% interest per annum, shall be charged against the property by the county treasurer. However, if a lien is filed pursuant to this Section and the property owner received 3 or more erroneous homestead exemptions during any of the 6 assessment years immediately prior to the assessment year in which the notice of intent to record at tax lien is served, the arrearages of taxes that might have been assessed for that property, plus a penalty of 50% of the total amount of unpaid taxes for each year for that property and 10% interest per annum, shall be charged against the property by the county treasurer.

(g) If a person received an erroneous homestead exemption under Section 15-170 and: (1) the person was the spouse, child, grandchild, brother, sister, niece, or nephew of the previous owner; and (2) the person received the property by bequest or inheritance; then the person is not liable for the penalties imposed under this subsection for any year or years during which the county did not require an annual application for the exemption. However, that person is responsible for any interest owed under subsection (f).

(h) If the erroneous homestead exemption was granted as a result of a clerical error or omission on the part of the chief county assessment officer, and if the owner has paid its tax bills as received for the year in which the error occurred, then the interest and penalties authorized by this Section with respect to that homestead exemption shall not be chargeable to the owner. However, nothing in this Section shall prevent the collection of the principal amount of back taxes due and owing.

(i) A lien under this Section is not valid as to (1) any bona fide purchaser for value without notice of the erroneous homestead exemption whose rights in and to the underlying parcel arose after the erroneous homestead exemption was granted but before the filing of the notice of lien; or (2) any mortgagee, judgment creditor, or other lienor whose rights in and to the underlying parcel arose before the filing of the notice of lien. A title insurance policy for the property that is issued by a title company licensed to do business in the State showing that the property is free and clear of any liens imposed under this Section shall be prima facie evidence that the property owner is without notice of the erroneous homestead exemption. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to impair the rights of subsequent creditors and subsequent purchasers under Section 30 of the Conveyances Act.

(j) When a lien is filed against the property pursuant to this Section, the chief county assessment officer shall mail a copy of the lien to the person to whom the most recent tax bill was mailed and to the owner of record, and the outstanding liability created by such a lien is due and payable within 30 days after the mailing of the lien by the chief county assessment officer. Payment shall be made to the chief county assessment officer who shall, upon receipt of the full amount due, provide in reasonable form a release of the lien and shall transmit the funds received to the county treasurer for distribution as provided in subsection (i) of this Section. This liability is deemed delinquent and shall bear interest beginning on the day after the due date.

(k) The unpaid taxes shall be paid to the appropriate taxing districts. Interest shall be paid to the county where the property is located. The penalty shall be paid to the chief county assessment officer's office for the administration of the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(l) The chief county assessment officer in a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall establish an amnesty period for all taxpayers owing any tax due to an erroneous homestead exemption granted in a tax year prior to the 2013 tax year. The amnesty period shall begin on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and shall run through December 31, 2013. If, during the amnesty period, the taxpayer pays the entire arrearage of taxes due for tax years prior to 2013, the county clerk shall abate and not seek to collect any interest or penalties that may be applicable and shall not seek civil or criminal prosecution for any taxpayer for tax years prior to 2013. Failure to pay all such taxes due during the amnesty period established under this Section shall invalidate the amnesty period for that taxpayer.

The chief county assessment officer in a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall (i) mail notice of the amnesty period with the tax bills for the second installment of taxes for the 2012 assessment year and (ii) as soon as possible after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, publish notice of the amnesty period in a newspaper of general circulation in the county. Notices shall include information on the amnesty period, its purpose, and the method in which to make payment.

Taxpayers who are a party to any criminal investigation or to any civil or criminal litigation that is pending in any circuit court or appellate court, or in the Supreme Court of this State, for nonpayment, delinquency, or fraud in relation to any property tax imposed by any taxing district located in the State on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may not take advantage of the amnesty period.

A taxpayer who has claimed 3 or more homestead exemptions in error shall not be eligible for the amnesty period established under this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 98-93, eff. 7-16-13; revised 9-11-13.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-170)

Sec. 15-170. Senior Citizens Homestead Exemption. An annual homestead exemption limited, except as described here with relation to cooperatives or life care facilities, to a maximum reduction set forth below from the property's value, as equalized or assessed by the Department, is granted for property that is occupied as a residence by a person 65 years of age or older who is liable for paying real estate taxes on the property and is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest therein as evidenced by a written instrument, except for a leasehold interest, other than a leasehold interest of land on which a single family residence is located, which is occupied as a residence by a person 65 years or older who has an ownership interest therein, legal, equitable or as a lessee, and on which he or she is liable for the payment of property taxes. Before taxable year 2004, the maximum reduction shall be $2,500 in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $2,000 in all other counties. For taxable years 2004 through 2005, the maximum reduction shall be $3,000 in all counties. For taxable years 2006 and 2007, the maximum reduction shall be $3,500. For taxable years 2008 through 2011, the maximum reduction is $4,000 in all counties. For taxable year 2012, the maximum reduction is $5,000 in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $4,000 in all other counties. For taxable years 2013 and thereafter, the maximum reduction is $5,000 in all counties.

For land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person 65 years of age or older who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying property taxes on the property and is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. For land improved with a life care facility, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by persons 65 years of age or older, irrespective of any legal, equitable, or leasehold interest in the facility, who are liable, under a contract with the owner or owners of record of the facility, for paying property taxes on the property. In a cooperative or a life care facility where a homestead exemption has been granted, the cooperative association or the management firm of the cooperative or facility shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner or resident who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to so credit the savings shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Under this Section and Sections 15-175, 15-176, and 15-177, "life care facility" means a facility, as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act, with which the applicant for the homestead exemption has a life care contract as defined in that Act.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and the person qualifying subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the exemption shall continue so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse if the spouse is 65 years of age or older, or if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the homestead exemption.

A person who will be 65 years of age during the current assessment year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that assessment year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his residence.

Beginning with assessment year 2003, for taxes payable in 2004, property that is first occupied as a residence after January 1 of any assessment year by a person who is eligible for the senior citizens homestead exemption under this Section must be granted a pro-rata exemption for the assessment year. The amount of the pro-rata exemption is the exemption allowed in the county under this Section divided by 365 and multiplied by the number of days during the assessment year the property is occupied as a residence by a person eligible for the exemption under this Section. The chief county assessment officer must adopt reasonable procedures to establish eligibility for this pro-rata exemption.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility to receive the benefits provided by this Section, by affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The assessor may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited the exemption.

The chief county assessment officer of each county with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants shall provide to each person allowed a homestead exemption under this Section a form to designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied under this Code on the property of the person receiving the exemption. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to be provided to the person receiving the exemption, and shall be given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice shall pay a fee of $5 to cover administrative costs to the supervisor of assessments, who shall then file the executed designation with the county collector. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, the filing of such an executed designation requires the county collector to provide duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A designation may be rescinded by the person who executed such designation at any time, in the manner and form required by the chief county assessment officer.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of residential property to receive the homestead exemption provided by this Section by application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods. The determination shall be made in accordance with guidelines established by the Department.

In counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, beginning in taxable year 2010, each taxpayer who has been granted an exemption under this Section must reapply on an annual basis. The chief county assessment officer shall mail the application to the taxpayer. In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the county board may by resolution provide that if a person has been granted a homestead exemption under this Section, the person qualifying need not reapply for the exemption.

In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if the assessor or chief county assessment officer requires annual application for verification of eligibility for an exemption once granted under this Section, the application shall be mailed to the taxpayer.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer shall notify each person who qualifies for an exemption under this Section that the person may also qualify for deferral of real estate taxes under the Senior Citizens Real Estate Tax Deferral Act. The notice shall set forth the qualifications needed for deferral of real estate taxes, the address and telephone number of county collector, and a statement that applications for deferral of real estate taxes may be obtained from the county collector.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-7, eff. 4-23-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; revised 8-12-13.)

Section 200. The Illinois Hydraulic Fracturing Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 2-15, 2-45, and 2-50 as follows:

(35 ILCS 450/2-15)

Sec. 2-15. Tax imposed.

(a) For oil and gas removed on or after July 1, 2013, there is hereby imposed a tax upon the severance and production of oil or gas from a well on a production unit in this State permitted, or required to be permitted, under the Illinois Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act, for sale, transport, storage, profit, or commercial use. The tax shall be applied equally to all portions of the value of each barrel of oil severed and subject to such tax and to the value of the gas severed and subject to such tax. For a period of 24 months from the month in which oil or gas was first produced from the well, the rate of tax shall be 3% of the value of the oil or gas severed from the earth or water in this State. Thereafter, the rate of the tax shall be as follows:

(1) For oil:

(A) where the average daily production from the well during the month is less than 25 barrels, 3% of the value of the oil severed from the earth or water;

(B) where the average daily production from the well during the month is 25 or more barrels but less than 50 barrels, 4% of the value of the oil severed from the earth or water;

(C) where the average daily production from the well during the month is 50 or more barrels but less than 100 barrels, 5% of the value of the oil severed from the earth or water; or

(D) where the average daily production from the well during the month is 100 or more barrels, 6% of the value of the oil severed from the earth or water.

(2) For gas, 6% of the value of the gas severed from the earth or water.

If a well is required to be permitted under the Illinois Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act, the tax imposed by this Section applies, whether or not a permit was obtained.

(b) Oil produced from a well whose average daily production is 15 barrels or less for the 12-month period immediately preceding the production is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act.

(c) For the purposes of the tax imposed by this Act the amount of oil produced shall be measured or determined, in the case of oil, by tank tables, without deduction for overage or losses in handling. Allowance for any reasonable and bona fide deduction for basic sediment and water, and for correction of temperature to 60 degrees Fahrenheit will be allowed. For the purposes of the tax imposed by this Act the amount of gas produced shall be measured or determined, by meter readings showing 100% of the full volume expressed in cubic feet at a standard base and flowing temperature of 60 degrees Fahrenheit, and at the absolute pressure at which the gas is sold and purchased. Correction shall be made for pressure according to Boyle's law, and used for specific gravity according to the gravity at which the gas is sold and purchased.

(d) The following severance and production of gas shall be exempt from the tax imposed by this Act: gas injected into the earth for the purpose of lifting oil, recycling, or repressuring; gas used for fuel in connection with the operation and development for, or production of, oil or gas in the production unit where severed; and gas lawfully vented or flared; gas inadvertently lost on the production unit by reason of leaks, blowouts, or other accidental losses.

(e) All oil and gas removed from the premises where severed is subject to the tax imposed by this Act unless exempt under the terms of this Act.

(f) The liability for the tax accrues at the time the oil or gas is removed from the production unit.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 10-7-13.)

(35 ILCS 450/2-45)

Sec. 2-45. Purchaser's return and tax remittance. Each purchaser shall make a return to the Department showing the quantity of oil or gas purchased during the month for which the return is filed, the price paid therefor therefore, total value, the name and address of the operator or other person from whom the same was purchased, a description of the production unit in the manner prescribed by the Department from which such oil or gas was severed and the amount of tax due from each production unit for each calendar month. All taxes due, or to be remitted, by the purchaser shall accompany this return. The return shall be filed on or before the last day of the month after the calendar month for which the return is required. The Department shall forward the necessary information to each Chief County Assessment Officer for the administration and application of ad valorem real property taxes at the county level. This information shall be forwarded to the Chief County Assessment Officers in a yearly summary before March 1 of the following calendar year. The Department may require any additional report or information it may deem necessary for the proper administration of this Act.

Such returns shall be filed electronically in the manner prescribed by the Department. Purchasers shall make all payments of that tax to the Department by electronic funds transfer unless, as provided by rule, the Department grants an exception upon petition of a purchaser. Purchasers' returns must be accompanied by appropriate computer generated magnetic media supporting schedule data in the format required by the Department, unless, as provided by rule, the Department grants an exception upon petition of a purchaser.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; 98-23, eff. 6-17-13; revised 10-7-13.)

(35 ILCS 450/2-50)

Sec. 2-50. Operator returns; payment of tax.

(a) If, on or after July 1, 2013, oil or gas is transported off the production unit where severed by the operator, used on the production unit where severed, or if the manufacture and conversion of oil and gas into refined products occurs on the production unit where severed, the operator is responsible for remitting the tax imposed under subsection subsections (a) of Section 2-15 15, on or before the last day of the month following the end of the calendar month in which the oil and gas is removed from the production unit, and such payment shall be accompanied by a return to the Department showing the gross quantity of oil or gas removed during the month for which the return is filed, the price paid therefor therefore, and if no price is paid therefor therefore, the value of the oil and gas, a description of the production unit from which such oil or gas was severed, and the amount of tax. The Department may require any additional information it may deem necessary for the proper administration of this Act.

(b) Operators shall file all returns electronically in the manner prescribed by the Department unless, as provided by rule, the Department grants an exception upon petition of an operator. Operators shall make all payments of that tax to the Department by electronic funds transfer unless, as provided by rule, the Department grants an exception upon petition of an operator. Operators' returns must be accompanied by appropriate computer generated magnetic media supporting schedule data in the format required by the Department, unless, as provided by rule, the Department grants an exception upon petition of a purchaser.

(c) Any operator who makes a monetary payment to a producer for his or her portion of the value of products from a production unit shall withhold from such payment the amount of tax due from the producer. Any operator who pays any tax due from a producer shall be entitled to reimbursement from the producer for the tax so paid and may take credit for such amount from any monetary payment to the producer for the value of products. To the extent that an operator required to collect the tax imposed by this Act has actually collected that tax, such tax is held in trust for the benefit of the State of Illinois.

(d) In the event the operator fails to make payment of the tax to the State as required herein, the operator shall be liable for the tax. A producer shall be entitled to bring an action against such operator to recover the amount of tax so withheld together with penalties and interest which may have accrued by failure to make such payment. A producer shall be entitled to all attorney fees and court costs incurred in such action. To the extent that a producer liable for the tax imposed by this Act collects the tax, and any penalties and interest, from an operator, such tax, penalties, and interest are held in trust by the producer for the benefit of the State of Illinois.

(e) When the title to any oil or gas severed from the earth or water is in dispute and the operator of such oil or gas is withholding payments on account of litigation, or for any other reason, such operator is hereby authorized, empowered and required to deduct from the gross amount thus held the amount of the tax imposed and to make remittance thereof to the Department as provided in this Section.

(f) An operator required to file a return and pay the tax under this Section shall register with the Department. Application for a certificate of registration shall be made to the Department upon forms furnished by the Department and shall contain any reasonable information the Department may require. Upon receipt of the application for a certificate of registration in proper form, the Department shall issue to the applicant a certificate of registration.

(g) If oil or gas is transported off the production unit where severed by the operator and sold to a purchaser or refiner, the State shall have a lien on all the oil or gas severed from the production unit in this State in the hands of the operator, the first or any subsequent purchaser thereof, or refiner to secure the payment of the tax. If a lien is filed by the Department, the purchaser or refiner shall withhold from the operator the amount of tax, penalty and interest identified in the lien.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 10-7-13.)

Section 205. The Motor Fuel Tax Law is amended by changing Sections 1 and 1.13A as follows:

(35 ILCS 505/1) (from Ch. 120, par. 417)

Sec. 1. For the purposes of this Act the terms set out in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 2 Sections 1.1 through 1.21 have the meanings ascribed to them in those Sections.

(Source: P.A. 86-16; 86-1028; revised 10-7-13.)

(35 ILCS 505/1.13A) (from Ch. 120, par. 417.13A)

Sec. 1.13A. "1-K Kerosene" means a special low-sulfur grade kerosene suitable for use in non-flue connected kerosene burner appliances, and in wick-fed illuminate lamps which has a maximum limit of .04% sulfur mass, and a freezing point of -22 degrees Fahrenheit, and has a minimum saybolt color of +16. For purposes of this Law, 1-K Kerosene includes 1-K Kerosene that has been dyed in accordance with Section 4d of this Law.

(Source: P.A. 91-173, eff. 1-1-00; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 210. The Water Company Invested Capital Tax Act is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(35 ILCS 625/14) (from Ch. 120, par. 1424)

Sec. 14. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as now or hereafter amended, is hereby expressly adopted and shall apply to all administrative rules and procedures of the Department of Revenue under this Act, except that (1) paragraph (b) of Section 5-10 of the that Act does not apply to final orders, decisions and opinions of the Department; (2) subparagraph 2 of paragraph (a) of Section 5-10 of that Act does not apply to forms established by the Department for use under this Act; and (3) the provisions of Section 10-45 of that Act regarding proposals for decision are excluded and not applicable to the Department under this Act to the extent Section 10-45 applies to hearings not otherwise subject to the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-17-13.)

Section 215. The Electricity Infrastructure Maintenance Fee Law is amended by changing Section 5-6 as follows:

(35 ILCS 645/5-6)

Sec. 5-6. Validity of existing franchise fees and agreement; police powers.

(a) On and after the effective date of this Law, no electricity deliverer paying an infrastructure maintenance fee imposed under this Law may be denied the right to use, directly or indirectly, public rights of way because of the failure to pay any other fee or charge for the right to use those rights of way except to the extent that the electricity deliverer during the Initial Period fails under any existing franchise agreement to pay franchise fees which are based on the gross receipts or gross revenues attributable to non-residential customers or to provide free electrical service or other compensation attributable to non-residential customers. A municipality that imposes an infrastructure maintenance fee pursuant to Section 5-5 shall impose no other fees or charges upon electricity deliverers for such use except as provided by subsections (b) or (c) of this Section.

(b) Agreements between electricity deliverers and municipalities regarding use of the public way shall remain valid according to and for their stated terms. However, a municipality that, pursuant to a franchise agreement in existence on the effective date of this Law, receives any franchise fees, permit fees, free electrical service or other compensation for use of the public rights of way, may impose an infrastructure maintenance fee pursuant to this Law only if the municipality: (1) waives its right to receive all compensation from the electricity deliverer for use of the public rights of way during the time the infrastructure maintenance fee is imposed, except as provided in subsection (c), and except that during the Initial Period any municipality may continue to receive franchise fees, free electrical service or other compensation from the electricity deliverer which are equal in value to the Initial Period Compensation; and (2) provides written notice of this waiver to the appropriate electricity deliverer at the time that the municipality provides notice of the imposition of the infrastructure maintenance fee under subsection (d) of Section 5-5. For purposes of this Section, "Initial Period Compensation" shall mean the total amount of compensation due under the existing franchise agreement during the Initial Period less the amount of the infrastructure maintenance fee imposed under this Section during the Initial Period.

(c) Nothing in this Law prohibits a municipality from the reasonable exercise of its police powers over the public rights of way. In addition, a municipality may require an electricity deliverer to reimburse any special or extraordinary expenses or costs reasonably incurred by the municipality as a direct result of damages to its property or public rights of way, such as the costs of restoration of streets damaged by an a electricity deliverer that does not make timely repair of the damage, or for the loss of revenue due to the inability to use public facilities as a direct result of the actions of the electricity deliverer, such as parking meters that are required to be removed because of work of an electricity deliverer.

(Source: P.A. 90-561, eff. 8-1-98; revised 10-17-13.)

Section 220. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 4-114, 8-138, 9-102, 11-134, and 13-809 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/4-114) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 4-114)

Sec. 4-114. Pension to survivors. If a firefighter who is not receiving a disability pension under Section 4-110 or 4-110.1 dies (1) as a result of any illness or accident, or (2) from any cause while in receipt of a disability pension under this Article, or (3) during retirement after 20 years service, or (4) while vested for or in receipt of a pension payable under subsection (b) of Section 4-109, or (5) while a deferred pensioner, having made all required contributions, a pension shall be paid to his or her survivors, based on the monthly salary attached to the firefighter's rank on the last day of service in the fire department, as follows:

(a)(1) To the surviving spouse, a monthly pension of 40% of the monthly salary, and if there is a surviving spouse, to the guardian of any minor child or children including a child which has been conceived but not yet born, 12% of such monthly salary for each such child until attainment of age 18 or until the child's marriage, whichever occurs first. Beginning July 1, 1993, the monthly pension to the surviving spouse shall be 54% of the monthly salary for all persons receiving a surviving spouse pension under this Article, regardless of whether the deceased firefighter was in service on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1993.

(2) Beginning July 1, 2004, unless the amount provided under paragraph (1) of this subsection (a) is greater, the total monthly pension payable under this paragraph (a), including any amount payable on account of children, to the surviving spouse of a firefighter who died (i) while receiving a retirement pension, (ii) while he or she was a deferred pensioner with at least 20 years of creditable service, or (iii) while he or she was in active service having at least 20 years of creditable service, regardless of age, shall be no less than 100% of the monthly retirement pension earned by the deceased firefighter at the time of death, regardless of whether death occurs before or after attainment of age 50, including any increases under Section 4-109.1. This minimum applies to all such surviving spouses who are eligible to receive a surviving spouse pension, regardless of whether the deceased firefighter was in service on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, and notwithstanding any limitation on maximum pension under paragraph (d) or any other provision of this Article.

(3) If the pension paid on and after July 1, 2004 to the surviving spouse of a firefighter who died on or after July 1, 2004 and before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly was less than the minimum pension payable under paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection (a), the fund shall pay a lump sum equal to the difference within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly.

The pension to the surviving spouse shall terminate in the event of the surviving spouse's remarriage prior to July 1, 1993; remarriage on or after that date does not affect the surviving spouse's pension, regardless of whether the deceased firefighter was in service on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1993.

The surviving spouse's pension shall be subject to the minimum established in Section 4-109.2.

(b) Upon the death of the surviving spouse leaving one or more minor children, or upon the death of a firefighter leaving one or more minor children but no surviving spouse, to the duly appointed guardian of each such child, for support and maintenance of each such child until the child reaches age 18 or marries, whichever occurs first, a monthly pension of 20% of the monthly salary.

In a case where the deceased firefighter left one or more minor children but no surviving spouse and the guardian of a child is receiving a pension of 12% of the monthly salary on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-391) this amendatory Act, the pension is increased by Public Act 98-391 this amendatory Act to 20% of the monthly salary for each such child, beginning on the pension payment date occurring on or next following August 16, 2013 the effective date of this amendatory Act. The changes to this Section made by Public Act 98-391 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply without regard to whether the deceased firefighter was in service on or after August 16, 2013 the effective date of this amendatory Act.

(c) If a deceased firefighter leaves no surviving spouse or unmarried minor children under age 18, but leaves a dependent father or mother, to each dependent parent a monthly pension of 18% of the monthly salary. To qualify for the pension, a dependent parent must furnish satisfactory proof that the deceased firefighter was at the time of his or her death the sole supporter of the parent or that the parent was the deceased's dependent for federal income tax purposes.

(d) The total pension provided under paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of this Section shall not exceed 75% of the monthly salary of the deceased firefighter (1) when paid to the survivor of a firefighter who has attained 20 or more years of service credit and who receives or is eligible to receive a retirement pension under this Article, or (2) when paid to the survivor of a firefighter who dies as a result of illness or accident, or (3) when paid to the survivor of a firefighter who dies from any cause while in receipt of a disability pension under this Article, or (4) when paid to the survivor of a deferred pensioner. For all other survivors of deceased firefighters, the total pension provided under paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of this Section shall not exceed 50% of the retirement annuity the firefighter would have received on the date of death.

The maximum pension limitations in this paragraph (d) do not control over any contrary provision of this Article explicitly establishing a minimum amount of pension or granting a one-time or annual increase in pension.

(e) If a firefighter leaves no eligible survivors under paragraphs (a), (b) and (c), the board shall refund to the firefighter's estate the amount of his or her accumulated contributions, less the amount of pension payments, if any, made to the firefighter while living.

(f) (Blank).

(g) If a judgment of dissolution of marriage between a firefighter and spouse is judicially set aside subsequent to the firefighter's death, the surviving spouse is eligible for the pension provided in paragraph (a) only if the judicial proceedings are filed within 2 years after the date of the dissolution of marriage and within one year after the firefighter's death and the board is made a party to the proceedings. In such case the pension shall be payable only from the date of the court's order setting aside the judgment of dissolution of marriage.

(h) Benefits payable on account of a child under this Section shall not be reduced or terminated by reason of the child's attainment of age 18 if he or she is then dependent by reason of a physical or mental disability but shall continue to be paid as long as such dependency continues. Individuals over the age of 18 and adjudged as a disabled person pursuant to Article XIa of the Probate Act of 1975, except for persons receiving benefits under Article III of the Illinois Public Aid Code, shall be eligible to receive benefits under this Act.

(i) Beginning January 1, 2000, the pension of the surviving spouse of a firefighter who dies on or after January 1, 1994 as a result of sickness, accident, or injury incurred in or resulting from the performance of an act of duty or from the cumulative effects of acts of duty shall not be less than 100% of the salary attached to the rank held by the deceased firefighter on the last day of service, notwithstanding subsection (d) or any other provision of this Article.

(j) Beginning July 1, 2004, the pension of the surviving spouse of a firefighter who dies on or after January 1, 1988 as a result of sickness, accident, or injury incurred in or resulting from the performance of an act of duty or from the cumulative effects of acts of duty shall not be less than 100% of the salary attached to the rank held by the deceased firefighter on the last day of service, notwithstanding subsection (d) or any other provision of this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, if a person who first becomes a firefighter under this Article on or after January 1, 2011 and who is not receiving a disability pension under Section 4-110 or 4-110.1 dies (1) as a result of any illness or accident, (2) from any cause while in receipt of a disability pension under this Article, (3) during retirement after 20 years service, (4) while vested for or in receipt of a pension payable under subsection (b) of Section 4-109, or (5) while a deferred pensioner, having made all required contributions, then a pension shall be paid to his or her survivors in the amount of 66 2/3% of the firefighter's earned pension at the date of death. Nothing in this Section shall act to diminish the survivor's benefits described in subsection (j) of this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the monthly pension of a survivor of a person who first becomes a firefighter under this Article on or after January 1, 2011 shall be increased on the January 1 after attainment of age 60 by the recipient of the survivor's pension and each January 1 thereafter by 3% or one-half the annual unadjusted percentage increase in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1, whichever is less, of the originally granted survivor's pension. If the annual unadjusted percentage change in the consumer price index-u for a 12-month period ending in September is zero or, when compared with the preceding period, decreases, then the survivor's pension shall not be increased.

For the purposes of this Section, "consumer price index-u" means the index published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor that measures the average change in prices of goods and services purchased by all urban consumers, United States city average, all items, 1982-84 = 100. The new amount resulting from each annual adjustment shall be determined by the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance and made available to the boards of the pension funds.

(Source: P.A. 98-391, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-7-13.)

(40 ILCS 5/8-138) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 8-138)

Sec. 8-138. Minimum annuities - Additional provisions.

(a) An employee who withdraws after age 65 or more with at least 20 years of service, for whom the amount of age and service and prior service annuity combined is less than the amount stated in this Section, shall from the date of withdrawal, instead of all annuities otherwise provided, be entitled to receive an annuity for life of $150 a year, plus 1 1/2% for each year of service, to and including 20 years, and 1 2/3% for each year of service over 20 years, of his highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal.

An employee who withdraws after 20 or more years of service, before age 65, shall be entitled to such annuity, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years if under such age at withdrawal, reduced by 2% for each full year or fractional part thereof that his attained age is less than 65, plus an additional 2% reduction for each full year or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60 so that the total reduction at age 55 shall be 30%.

(b) An employee who withdraws after July 1, 1957, at age 60 or over, with 20 or more years of service, for whom the age and service and prior service annuity combined, is less than the amount stated in this paragraph, shall, from the date of withdrawal, instead of such annuities, be entitled to receive an annuity for life equal to 1 2/3% for each year of service, of the highest average annual salary for any 5 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal; provided, that in the case of any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1971, such employee age 60 or over with 20 or more years of service, shall receive an annuity for life equal to 1.67% for each of the first 10 years of service; 1.90% for each of the next 10 years of service; 2.10% for each year of service in excess of 20 but not exceeding 30; and 2.30% for each year of service in excess of 30, based on the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal.

An employee who withdraws after July 1, 1957 and before January 1, 1988, with 20 or more years of service, before age 60 years is entitled to annuity, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, as computed in the last preceding paragraph, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60 if the employee was born before January 1, 1936, or 0.5% for each such month if the employee was born on or after January 1, 1936.

Any employee born before January 1, 1936, who withdraws with 20 or more years of service, and any employee with 20 or more years of service who withdraws on or after January 1, 1988, may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 1.80% for each of the first 10 years of service, 2.00% for each of the next 10 years of service, 2.20% for each year of service in excess of 20 but not exceeding 30, and 2.40% for each year of service in excess of 30, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring on or after January 1, 1988, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 35 years of service, or an employee retiring on or after July 1, 1990, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 30 years of service, or an employee retiring on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 25 years of service, shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

However, in the case of an employee who retired on or after January 1, 1985 but before January 1, 1988, at age 55 or older and with at least 35 years of service, and who was subject under this subsection (b) to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60, that reduction shall cease to be effective January 1, 1991, and the retirement annuity shall be recalculated accordingly.

Any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1990, with 20 or more years of service, may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 30 years of service, shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

Any employee who withdraws on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 with 20 or more years of service may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service, if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attainment of age 55 (age 50 if the employee has at least 30 years of service), reduced 0.25% for each full month or remaining fractional part thereof that the employee's attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring at age 50 or over with at least 30 years of service or at age 55 or over with at least 25 years of service shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

The maximum annuity payable under part (a) and (b) of this Section shall not exceed 70% of highest average annual salary in the case of an employee who withdraws prior to July 1, 1971, 75% if withdrawal takes place on or after July 1, 1971 and prior to January 1, 2002, or 80% if withdrawal takes place on or after January 1, 2002. For the purpose of the minimum annuity provided in this Section $1,500 is considered the minimum annual salary for any year; and the maximum annual salary for the computation of such annuity is $4,800 for any year before 1953, $6000 for the years 1953 to 1956, inclusive, and the actual annual salary, as salary is defined in this Article, for any year thereafter.

To preserve rights existing on December 31, 1959, for participants and contributors on that date to the fund created by the Court and Law Department Employees' Annuity Act, who became participants in the fund provided for on January 1, 1960, the maximum annual salary to be considered for such persons for the years 1955 and 1956 is $7,500.

(c) For an employee receiving disability benefit, his salary for annuity purposes under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this Section, for all periods of disability benefit subsequent to the year 1956, is the amount on which his disability benefit was based.

(d) An employee with 20 or more years of service, whose entire disability benefit credit period expires before attainment of age 55 while still disabled for service, is entitled upon withdrawal to the larger of (1) the minimum annuity provided above, assuming he is then age 55, and reducing such annuity to its actuarial equivalent as of his attained age on such date or (2) the annuity provided from his age and service and prior service annuity credits.

(e) The minimum annuity provisions do not apply to any former municipal employee receiving an annuity from the fund who re-enters service as a municipal employee, unless he renders at least 3 years of additional service after the date of re-entry.

(f) An employee in service on July 1, 1947, or who became a contributor after July 1, 1947 and before attainment of age 70, who withdraws after age 65, with less than 20 years of service for whom the annuity has been fixed under this Article shall, instead of the annuity so fixed, receive an annuity as follows:

Such amount as he could have received had the accumulated amounts for annuity been improved with interest at the effective rate to the date of his withdrawal, or to attainment of age 70, whichever is earlier, and had the city contributed to such earlier date for age and service annuity the amount that it would have contributed had he been under age 65, after the date his annuity was fixed in accordance with this Article, and assuming his annuity were computed from such accumulations as of his age on such earlier date. The annuity so computed shall not exceed the annuity which would be payable under the other provisions of this Section if the employee was credited with 20 years of service and would qualify for annuity thereunder.

(g) Instead of the annuity provided in this Article, an employee having attained age 65 with at least 15 years of service who withdraws from service on or after July 1, 1971 and whose annuity computed under other provisions of this Article is less than the amount provided under this paragraph, is entitled to a minimum annuity for life equal to 1% of the highest average annual salary, as salary is defined and limited in this Section for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service for each year of service, plus the sum of $25 for each year of service. The annuity shall not exceed 60% of such highest average annual salary.

(g-1) Instead of any other retirement annuity provided in this Article, an employee who has at least 10 years of service and withdraws from service on or after January 1, 1999 may elect to receive a retirement annuity for life, beginning no earlier than upon attainment of age 60, equal to 2.2% if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, or 2.4% if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, of final average salary for each year of service, subject to a maximum of 75% of final average salary if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, or 80% if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002. For the purpose of calculating this annuity, "final average salary" means the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years in the last 10 years of service. Notwithstanding Nothwithstanding any provision of this subsection to the contrary, the "final average salary" for a participant that received credit under subsection (c) of Section 8-226 means the highest average salary for any 4 consecutive years (or any 8 consecutive years if the employee first became a participant on or after January 1, 2011) in the 10 years immediately prior to the leave of absence, and adding to that highest average salary, the product of (i) that highest average salary, (ii) the average percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during each 12-month calendar year for the calendar years during the participant's leave of absence, and (iii) the length of the leave of absence in years, provided that this shall not exceed the participant's salary at the local labor organization. For purposes of this Section, the Consumer Price Index is the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor.

(h) The minimum annuities provided under this Section shall be paid in equal monthly installments.

(i) The amendatory provisions of part (b) and (g) of this Section shall be effective July 1, 1971 and apply in the case of every qualifying employee withdrawing on or after July 1, 1971.

(j) The amendatory provisions of this amendatory Act of 1985 (P.A. 84-23) relating to the discount of annuity because of retirement prior to attainment of age 60, and to the retirement formula, for those born before January 1, 1936, shall apply only to qualifying employees withdrawing on or after July 18, 1985.

(j-1) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 92-609 (increasing the retirement formula to 2.4% per year of service and increasing the maximum to 80%) apply to persons who withdraw from service on or after January 1, 2002, regardless of whether that withdrawal takes place before the effective date of that Act. In the case of a person who withdraws from service on or after January 1, 2002 but begins to receive a retirement annuity before July 1, 2002, the annuity shall be recalculated, with the increase resulting from Public Act 92-609 accruing from the date the retirement annuity began. The changes made by Public Act 92-609 control over the changes made by Public Act 92-599, as provided in Section 95 of P.A. 92-609.

(k) Beginning on January 1, 1999, the minimum amount of employee's annuity shall be $850 per month for life for the following classes of employees, without regard to the fact that withdrawal occurred prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998:

(1) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a life annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;

(2) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a term annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;

(3) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a reciprocal annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, whose service in this fund is at least 5 years;

(4) any employee annuitant withdrawing after age 60 on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, with at least 10 years of service in this fund.

The increases granted under items (1), (2) and (3) of this subsection (k) shall not be limited by any other Section of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-651, eff. 1-5-12; revised 9-16-13.)

(40 ILCS 5/9-102) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 9-102)

Sec. 9-102. Terms defined. The terms used in this Article have the meanings ascribed to them in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 9-120 Sections 9-103 to 9-119, inclusive, except when the context otherwise requires.

(Source: Laws 1963, p. 161; revised 11-13-13.)

(40 ILCS 5/11-134) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 11-134)

Sec. 11-134. Minimum annuities.

(a) An employee whose withdrawal occurs after July 1, 1957 at age 60 or over, with 20 or more years of service, (as service is defined or computed in Section 11-216), for whom the age and service and prior service annuity combined is less than the amount stated in this Section, shall, from and after the date of withdrawal, in lieu of all annuities otherwise provided in this Article, be entitled to receive an annuity for life of an amount equal to 1 2/3% for each year of service, of the highest average annual salary for any 5 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal; provided, that in the case of any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1971, such employee age 60 or over with 20 or more years of service, shall be entitled to instead receive an annuity for life equal to 1.67% for each of the first 10 years of service; 1.90% for each of the next 10 years of service; 2.10% for each year of service in excess of 20 but not exceeding 30; and 2.30% for each year of service in excess of 30, based on the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal.

An employee who withdraws after July 1, 1957 and before January 1, 1988, with 20 or more years of service, before age 60, shall be entitled to an annuity, to begin not earlier than age 55, if under such age at withdrawal, as computed in the last preceding paragraph, reduced 0.25% if the employee was born before January 1, 1936, or 0.5% if the employee was born on or after January 1, 1936, for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when such annuity is to begin is less than 60.

Any employee born before January 1, 1936 who withdraws with 20 or more years of service, and any employee with 20 or more years of service who withdraws on or after January 1, 1988, may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 1.80% for each of the first 10 years of service, 2.00% for each of the next 10 years of service, 2.20% for each year of service in excess of 20, but not exceeding 30, and 2.40% for each year of service in excess of 30, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring on or after January 1, 1988, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 35 years of service, or an employee retiring on or after July 1, 1990, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 30 years of service, or an employee retiring on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 25 years of service, shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

However, in the case of an employee who retired on or after January 1, 1985 but before January 1, 1988, at age 55 or older and with at least 35 years of service, and who was subject under this subsection (a) to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60, that reduction shall cease to be effective January 1, 1991, and the retirement annuity shall be recalculated accordingly.

Any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1990, with 20 or more years of service, may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 30 years of service, shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

Any employee who withdraws on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 with 20 or more years of service may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attainment of age 55 (age 50 if the employee has at least 30 years of service), reduced 0.25% for each full month or remaining fractional part thereof that the employee's attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring at age 50 or over with at least 30 years of service or at age 55 or over with at least 25 years of service shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

The maximum annuity payable under this paragraph (a) of this Section shall not exceed 70% of highest average annual salary in the case of an employee who withdraws prior to July 1, 1971, 75% if withdrawal takes place on or after July 1, 1971 and prior to January 1, 2002, or 80% if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002. For the purpose of the minimum annuity provided in said paragraphs $1,500 shall be considered the minimum annual salary for any year; and the maximum annual salary to be considered for the computation of such annuity shall be $4,800 for any year prior to 1953, $6,000 for the years 1953 to 1956, inclusive, and the actual annual salary, as salary is defined in this Article, for any year thereafter.

(b) For an employee receiving disability benefit, his salary for annuity purposes under this Section shall, for all periods of disability benefit subsequent to the year 1956, be the amount on which his disability benefit was based.

(c) An employee with 20 or more years of service, whose entire disability benefit credit period expires prior to attainment of age 55 while still disabled for service, shall be entitled upon withdrawal to the larger of (1) the minimum annuity provided above assuming that he is then age 55, and reducing such annuity to its actuarial equivalent at his attained age on such date, or (2) the annuity provided from his age and service and prior service annuity credits.

(d) The minimum annuity provisions as aforesaid shall not apply to any former employee receiving an annuity from the fund, and who re-enters service as an employee, unless he renders at least 3 years of additional service after the date of re-entry.

(e) An employee in service on July 1, 1947, or who became a contributor after July 1, 1947 and prior to July 1, 1950, or who shall become a contributor to the fund after July 1, 1950 prior to attainment of age 70, who withdraws after age 65 with less than 20 years of service, for whom the annuity has been fixed under the foregoing Sections of this Article shall, in lieu of the annuity so fixed, receive an annuity as follows:

Such amount as he could have received had the accumulated amounts for annuity been improved with interest at the effective rate to the date of his withdrawal, or to attainment of age 70, whichever is earlier, and had the city contributed to such earlier date for age and service annuity the amount that would have been contributed had he been under age 65, after the date his annuity was fixed in accordance with this Article, and assuming his annuity were computed from such accumulations as of his age on such earlier date. The annuity so computed shall not exceed the annuity which would be payable under the other provisions of this Section if the employee was credited with 20 years of service and would qualify for annuity thereunder.

(f) In lieu of the annuity provided in this or in any other Section of this Article, an employee having attained age 65 with at least 15 years of service who withdraws from service on or after July 1, 1971 and whose annuity computed under other provisions of this Article is less than the amount provided under this paragraph shall be entitled to receive a minimum annual annuity for life equal to 1% of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding retirement for each year of his service plus the sum of $25 for each year of service. Such annual annuity shall not exceed the maximum percentages stated under paragraph (a) of this Section of such highest average annual salary.

(f-1) Instead of any other retirement annuity provided in this Article, an employee who has at least 10 years of service and withdraws from service on or after January 1, 1999 may elect to receive a retirement annuity for life, beginning no earlier than upon attainment of age 60, equal to 2.2% if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, or 2.4% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, of final average salary for each year of service, subject to a maximum of 75% of final average salary if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, or 80% if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002. For the purpose of calculating this annuity, "final average salary" means the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years in the last 10 years of service. Notwithstanding Nothwithstanding any provision of this subsection to the contrary, the "final average salary" for a participant that received credit under item (3) of subsection (c) of Section 11-215 means the highest average salary for any 4 consecutive years (or any 8 consecutive years if the employee first became a participant on or after January 1, 2011) in the 10 years immediately prior to the leave of absence, and adding to that highest average salary, the product of (i) that highest average salary, (ii) the average percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during each 12-month calendar year for the calendar years during the participant's leave of absence, and (iii) the length of the leave of absence in years, provided that this shall not exceed the participant's salary at the local labor organization. For purposes of this Section, the Consumer Price Index is the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor.

(g) Any annuity payable under the preceding subsections of this Section 11-134 shall be paid in equal monthly installments.

(h) The amendatory provisions of part (a) and (f) of this Section shall be effective July 1, 1971 and apply in the case of every qualifying employee withdrawing on or after July 1, 1971.

(h-1) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 92-609 (increasing the retirement formula to 2.4% per year of service and increasing the maximum to 80%) apply to persons who withdraw from service on or after January 1, 2002, regardless of whether that withdrawal takes place before the effective date of that Act. In the case of a person who withdraws from service on or after January 1, 2002 but begins to receive a retirement annuity before July 1, 2002, the annuity shall be recalculated, with the increase resulting from Public Act 92-609 accruing from the date the retirement annuity began. The changes made by Public Act 92-609 control over the changes made by Public Act 92-599, as provided in Section 95 of P.A. 92-609.

(i) The amendatory provisions of this amendatory Act of 1985 relating to the discount of annuity because of retirement prior to attainment of age 60 and increasing the retirement formula for those born before January 1, 1936, shall apply only to qualifying employees withdrawing on or after August 16, 1985.

(j) Beginning on January 1, 1999, the minimum amount of employee's annuity shall be $850 per month for life for the following classes of employees, without regard to the fact that withdrawal occurred prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998:

(1) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a life annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;

(2) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a term annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;

(3) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a reciprocal annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, whose service in this fund is at least 5 years;

(4) any employee annuitant withdrawing after age 60 on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, with at least 10 years of service in this fund.

The increases granted under items (1), (2) and (3) of this subsection (j) shall not be limited by any other Section of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-651, eff. 1-5-12; revised 9-16-13.)

(40 ILCS 5/13-809) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 13-809)

Sec. 13-809. Administrative review. The provisions of the Administrative Review Law Act, and all amendments and modifications thereof and the rules adopted pursuant thereto shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Retirement Board provided for under this Article. The term "administrative decision" is as defined in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 87-794; revised 10-7-13.)

Section 225. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Section 7 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 10.14 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/7) (from Ch. 85, par. 507)

Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such schools which shall include but not be limited to the following:

a. The curriculum for probationary police officers which shall be offered by all certified schools shall include but not be limited to courses of arrest, search and seizure, civil rights, human relations, cultural diversity, including racial and ethnic sensitivity, criminal law, law of criminal procedure, vehicle and traffic law including uniform and non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code, traffic control and accident investigation, techniques of obtaining physical evidence, court testimonies, statements, reports, firearms training, training in the use of electronic control devices, including the psychological and physiological effects of the use of those devices on humans, first-aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), handling of juvenile offenders, recognition of mental conditions which require immediate assistance and methods to safeguard and provide assistance to a person in need of mental treatment, recognition of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect of adults with disabilities and older adults, as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, crimes against the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of high-speed police vehicle chases with an emphasis on alternatives to the high-speed chase, and physical training. The curriculum shall include specific training in techniques for immediate response to and investigation of cases of domestic violence and of sexual assault of adults and children. The curriculum shall include training in techniques designed to promote effective communication at the initial contact with crime victims and ways to comprehensively explain to victims and witnesses their rights under the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and the Crime Victims Compensation Act. The curriculum shall also include a block of instruction aimed at identifying and interacting with persons with autism and other developmental disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting crimes against persons with autism, and addressing the unique challenges presented by cases involving victims or witnesses with autism and other developmental disabilities. The curriculum for permanent police officers shall include but not be limited to (1) refresher and in-service training in any of the courses listed above in this subparagraph, (2) advanced courses in any of the subjects listed above in this subparagraph, (3) training for supervisory personnel, and (4) specialized training in subjects and fields to be selected by the board. The training in the use of electronic control devices shall be conducted for probationary police officers, including University police officers.

b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and equipment requirements.

c. Minimum requirements for instructors.

d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary police officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a local law enforcement officer for a participating local governmental agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).

e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary county corrections officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a county corrections officer for a participating local governmental agency.

f. Minimum basic training requirements which a probationary court security officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a court security officer for a participating local governmental agency. The Board shall establish those training requirements which it considers appropriate for court security officers and shall certify schools to conduct that training.

A person hired to serve as a court security officer must obtain from the Board a certificate (i) attesting to his or her successful completion of the training course; (ii) attesting to his or her satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours that has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or (iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior law enforcement experience.

Individuals who currently serve as court security officers shall be deemed qualified to continue to serve in that capacity so long as they are certified as provided by this Act within 24 months of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996. Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the Board, shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.

All individuals hired as court security officers on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996 shall be certified within 12 months of the date of their hire, unless a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they shall forfeit their positions.

The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the Sheriff's Office if there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission, shall maintain a list of all individuals who have filed applications to become court security officers and who meet the eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no Sheriff's Merit Commission exists, shall establish a schedule of reasonable intervals for verification of the applicants' qualifications under this Act and as established by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 97-815, eff. 1-1-13; 97-862, eff. 1-1-13; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-358, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-11-13.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.14)

Sec. 10.14. Training; animal fighting awareness and humane response. The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board shall conduct or approve a training program in animal fighting awareness and humane response for law enforcement officers of local government agencies. The purpose of that training shall be to equip law enforcement officers of local government agencies to identify animal fighting operations and respond appropriately. This training shall also include a humane response component that will provide guidelines for appropriate law enforcement response to animal abuse, cruelty, and neglect, or similar condition, as well as training on canine behavior and nonlethal ways to subdue a canine.

(Source: P.A. 98-311, eff. 1-1-14.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2016)

Sec. 10.15 10.14. Electronic control devices used by local law enforcement agencies; inspections.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "electronic control device" means:

(1) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out a current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render the person incapable of normal functioning; or

(2) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render the person incapable of normal functioning.

(b) Beginning January 1, 2014 and ending December 31, 2015, the Board shall randomly inspect police departments of units of local government and university police departments concerning the use of electronic control devices by law enforcement officers of the departments to determine whether the officers received appropriate training in their use. The Board shall compile the information from the random inspections and analyze the results.

(c) Based on the analysis required in subsection (b), the Board shall issue a report and present its report and findings to the Governor and General Assembly on or before June 30, 2016. The Board in its report may recommend legislation concerning the use of electronic control devices by law enforcement officers and the training of law enforcement officers in the use of those devices.

(d) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2016.

(Source: P.A. 98-358, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

Section 230. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-3016.5, 3-5018, 5-1062.3, 5-12001.2, 5-44020, and 6-27005 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 5-1134 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-3016.5)

Sec. 3-3016.5. Sudden, unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP).

(a) All autopsies conducted in this State shall include an inquiry to determine whether the death was a direct result of a seizure or epilepsy. If the findings in an autopsy of a medical examiner, examining physician, or coroner are consistent with known or suspected sudden, unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP), then the medical examiner, examining physician, or coroner shall:

(1) cause to be indicated on the death certificate that SUDEP is the cause or suspected cause of death; and

(2) forward a copy of the death certificate to the North American SUDEP Registry at the Langone Medical Center at New York University within 30 days.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "sudden, unexpected death in epilepsy" refers to a death in a patient previously diagnosed with epilepsy that is not due to trauma, drowning, status epilepticus, or other known causes, but for which there is often evidence of an associated seizure. A finding of sudden, unexpected death in epilepsy is definite when clinical criteria are met and autopsy reveals no alternative cause of death, such as stroke, myocardial infarction, or drug intoxication, although there may be evidence of a seizure.

(Source: P.A. 98-340, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-8-13.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-5018) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-5018)

Sec. 3-5018. Fees. The recorder elected as provided for in this Division shall receive such fees as are or may be provided for him or her by law, in case of provision therefor: otherwise he or she shall receive the same fees as are or may be provided in this Section, except when increased by county ordinance pursuant to the provisions of this Section, to be paid to the county clerk for his or her services in the office of recorder for like services.

For recording deeds or other instruments, $12 for the first 4 pages thereof, plus $1 for each additional page thereof, plus $1 for each additional document number therein noted. The aggregate minimum fee for recording any one instrument shall not be less than $12.

For recording deeds or other instruments wherein the premises affected thereby are referred to by document number and not by legal description, a fee of $1 in addition to that hereinabove referred to for each document number therein noted.

For recording assignments of mortgages, leases or liens, $12 for the first 4 pages thereof, plus $1 for each additional page thereof. However, except for leases and liens pertaining to oil, gas and other minerals, whenever a mortgage, lease or lien assignment assigns more than one mortgage, lease or lien document, a $7 fee shall be charged for the recording of each such mortgage, lease or lien document after the first one.

For recording any document that affects an interest in real property other than documents which solely affect or relate to an easement for water, sewer, electricity, gas, telephone or other public service, the recorder shall charge a fee of $1 per document to all filers of documents not filed by any State agency, any unit of local government, or any school district. Fifty cents of the $1 fee hereby established shall be deposited into the County General Revenue Fund. The remaining $0.50 shall be deposited into the Recorder's Automation Fund and may not be appropriated or expended for any other purpose. The additional amounts available to the recorder for expenditure from the Recorder's Automation Fund shall not offset or reduce any other county appropriations or funding for the office of the recorder.

For recording maps or plats of additions or subdivisions approved by the county or municipality (including the spreading of the same of record in map case or other proper books) or plats of condominiums, $50 for the first page, plus $1 for each additional page thereof except that in the case of recording a single page, legal size 8 1/2 x 14, plat of survey in which there are no more than two lots or parcels of land, the fee shall be $12. In each county where such maps or plats are to be recorded, the recorder may require the same to be accompanied by such number of exact, true and legible copies thereof as the recorder deems necessary for the efficient conduct and operation of his or her office.

For non-certified copies of records, an amount not to exceed one-half of the amount provided in this Section for certified copies, according to a standard scale of fees, established by county ordinance and made public. The provisions of this paragraph shall not be applicable to any person or entity who obtains non-certified copies of records in the following manner: (i) in bulk for all documents recorded on any given day in an electronic or paper format for a negotiated amount less than the amount provided for in this paragraph for non-certified copies, (ii) under a contractual relationship with the recorder for a negotiated amount less than the amount provided for in this paragraph for non-certified copies, or (iii) by means of Internet access pursuant to Section 5-1106.1.

For certified copies of records, the same fees as for recording, but in no case shall the fee for a certified copy of a map or plat of an addition, subdivision or otherwise exceed $10.

Each certificate of such recorder of the recording of the deed or other writing and of the date of recording the same signed by such recorder, shall be sufficient evidence of the recording thereof, and such certificate including the indexing of record, shall be furnished upon the payment of the fee for recording the instrument, and no additional fee shall be allowed for the certificate or indexing.

The recorder shall charge an additional fee, in an amount equal to the fee otherwise provided by law, for recording a document (other than a document filed under the Plat Act or the Uniform Commercial Code) that does not conform to the following standards:

(1) The document shall consist of one or more individual sheets measuring 8.5 inches by 11 inches, not permanently bound and not a continuous form. Graphic displays accompanying a document to be recorded that measure up to 11 inches by 17 inches shall be recorded without charging an additional fee.

(2) The document shall be legibly printed in black ink, by hand, type, or computer. Signatures and dates may be in contrasting colors if they will reproduce clearly.

(3) The document shall be on white paper of not less than 20-pound weight and shall have a clean margin of at least one-half inch on the top, the bottom, and each side. Margins may be used for non-essential notations that will not affect the validity of the document, including but not limited to form numbers, page numbers, and customer notations.

(4) The first page of the document shall contain a blank space, measuring at least 3 inches by 5 inches, from the upper right corner.

(5) The document shall not have any attachment stapled or otherwise affixed to any page. A document that does not conform to these standards shall not be recorded except upon payment of the additional fee required under this paragraph. This paragraph, as amended by this amendatory Act of 1995, applies only to documents dated after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1995.

The county board of any county may provide for an additional charge of $3 for filing every instrument, paper, or notice for record, (1) in order to defray the cost of converting the county recorder's document storage system to computers or micrographics and (2) in order to defray the cost of providing access to records through the global information system known as the Internet.

A special fund shall be set up by the treasurer of the county and such funds collected pursuant to Public Act 83-1321 shall be used (1) for a document storage system to provide the equipment, materials and necessary expenses incurred to help defray the costs of implementing and maintaining such a document records system and (2) for a system to provide electronic access to those records.

The county board of any county that provides and maintains a countywide map through a Geographic Information System (GIS) may provide for an additional charge of $3 for filing every instrument, paper, or notice for record (1) in order to defray the cost of implementing or maintaining the county's Geographic Information System and (2) in order to defray the cost of providing electronic or automated access to the county's Geographic Information System or property records. Of that amount, $2 must be deposited into a special fund set up by the treasurer of the county, and any moneys collected pursuant to this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly and deposited into that fund must be used solely for the equipment, materials, and necessary expenses incurred in implementing and maintaining a Geographic Information System and in order to defray the cost of providing electronic access to the county's Geographic Information System records. The remaining $1 must be deposited into the recorder's special funds created under Section 3-5005.4. The recorder may, in his or her discretion, use moneys in the funds created under Section 3-5005.4 to defray the cost of implementing or maintaining the county's Geographic Information System and to defray the cost of providing electronic access to the county's Geographic Information System records.

The recorder shall collect a $9 Rental Housing Support Program State surcharge for the recordation of any real estate-related document. Payment of the Rental Housing Support Program State surcharge shall be evidenced by a receipt that shall be marked upon or otherwise affixed to the real estate-related document by the recorder. The form of this receipt shall be prescribed by the Department of Revenue and the receipts shall be issued by the Department of Revenue to each county recorder.

The recorder shall not collect the Rental Housing Support Program State surcharge from any State agency, any unit of local government or any school district.

On the 15th day of each month, each county recorder shall report to the Department of Revenue, on a form prescribed by the Department, the number of real estate-related documents recorded for which the Rental Housing Support Program State surcharge was collected. Each recorder shall submit $9 of each surcharge collected in the preceding month to the Department of Revenue and the Department shall deposit these amounts in the Rental Housing Support Program Fund. Subject to appropriation, amounts in the Fund may be expended only for the purpose of funding and administering the Rental Housing Support Program.

For purposes of this Section, "real estate-related document" means that term as it is defined in Section 7 of the Rental Housing Support Program Act.

The foregoing fees allowed by this Section are the maximum fees that may be collected from any officer, agency, department or other instrumentality of the State. The county board may, however, by ordinance, increase the fees allowed by this Section and collect such increased fees from all persons and entities other than officers, agencies, departments and other instrumentalities of the State if the increase is justified by an acceptable cost study showing that the fees allowed by this Section are not sufficient to cover the cost of providing the service. Regardless of any other provision in this Section, the maximum fee that may be collected from the Department of Revenue for filing or indexing a lien, certificate of lien release or subordination, or any other type of notice or other documentation affecting or concerning a lien is $5. Regardless of any other provision in this Section, the maximum fee that may be collected from the Department of Revenue for indexing each additional name in excess of one for any lien, certificate of lien release or subordination, or any other type of notice or other documentation affecting or concerning a lien is $1.

A statement of the costs of providing each service, program and activity shall be prepared by the county board. All supporting documents shall be public record and subject to public examination and audit. All direct and indirect costs, as defined in the United States Office of Management and Budget Circular A-87, may be included in the determination of the costs of each service, program and activity.

(Source: P.A. 98-5, eff. 3-22-13; 98-217, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-24-13.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1062.3)

Sec. 5-1062.3. Stormwater management; DuPage and Peoria Counties.

(a) The purpose of this Section is to allow management and mitigation of the effects of urbanization on stormwater drainage in the metropolitan counties of DuPage and Peoria, and references to "county" in this Section apply only to those counties. This Section does not apply to a municipality that only partially lies within one of these counties and, on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, is served by an existing Section in the Counties Code regarding stormwater management. The purpose of this Section shall be achieved by:

(1) consolidating the existing stormwater management framework into a united, countywide structure;

(2) setting minimum standards for floodplain and stormwater management; and

(3) preparing a countywide plan for the management of stormwater runoff, including the management of natural and man-made drainageways. The countywide plan may incorporate watershed plans.

(b) A stormwater management planning committee may be established by county board resolution, with its membership consisting of equal numbers of county board and municipal representatives from each county board district, and such other members as may be determined by the county and municipal members. If the county has more than 6 county board districts, however, the county board may by ordinance divide the county into not less than 6 areas of approximately equal population, to be used instead of county board districts for the purpose of determining representation on the stormwater management planning committee.

The county board members shall be appointed by the chairman of the county board. Municipal members from each county board district or other represented area shall be appointed by a majority vote of the mayors of those municipalities that have the greatest percentage of their respective populations residing in that county board district or other represented area. All municipal and county board representatives shall be entitled to a vote; the other members shall be nonvoting members, unless authorized to vote by the unanimous consent of the municipal and county board representatives. A municipality that is located in more than one county may choose, at the time of formation of the stormwater management planning committee and based on watershed boundaries, to participate in the stormwater management planning program of either county. Subcommittees of the stormwater management planning committee may be established to serve a portion of the county or a particular drainage basin that has similar stormwater management needs. The stormwater management planning committee shall adopt bylaws, by a majority vote of the county and municipal members, to govern the functions of the committee and its subcommittees. Officers of the committee shall include a chair and vice chair, one of whom shall be a county representative and one a municipal representative.

The principal duties of the committee shall be to develop a stormwater management plan for presentation to and approval by the county board, and to direct the plan's implementation and revision. The committee may retain engineering, legal, and financial advisors and inspection personnel. The committee shall meet at least quarterly and shall hold at least one public meeting during the preparation of the plan and prior to its submittal to the county board. The committee may make grants to units of local government that have adopted an ordinance requiring actions consistent with the stormwater management plan and to landowners for the purposes of stormwater management, including special projects; use of the grant money must be consistent with the stormwater management plan.

The committee shall not have or exercise any power of eminent domain.

(c) In the preparation of a stormwater management plan, a county stormwater management planning committee shall coordinate the planning process with each adjoining county to ensure that recommended stormwater projects will have no significant impact on the levels or flows of stormwaters in inter-county watersheds or on the capacity of existing and planned stormwater retention facilities. An adopted stormwater management plan shall identify steps taken by the county to coordinate the development of plan recommendations with adjoining counties.

(d) The stormwater management committee may not enforce any rules or regulations that would interfere with (i) any power granted by the Illinois Drainage Code (70 ILCS 605/) to operate, construct, maintain, or improve drainage systems or (ii) the ability to operate, maintain, or improve the drainage systems used on or by land or a facility used for production agriculture purposes, as defined in the Use Tax Act (35 ILCS 105/), except newly constructed buildings and newly installed impervious paved surfaces. Disputes regarding an exception shall be determined by a mutually agreed upon arbitrator paid by the disputing party or parties.

(e) Before the stormwater management planning committee recommends to the county board a stormwater management plan for the county or a portion thereof, it shall submit the plan to the Office of Water Resources of the Department of Natural Resources for review and recommendations. The Office, in reviewing the plan, shall consider such factors as impacts on the levels or flows in rivers and streams and the cumulative effects of stormwater discharges on flood levels. The Office of Water Resources shall determine whether the plan or ordinances enacted to implement the plan complies with the requirements of subsection (f). Within a period not to exceed 60 days, the review comments and recommendations shall be submitted to the stormwater management planning committee for consideration. Any amendments to the plan shall be submitted to the Office for review.

(f) Prior to recommending the plan to the county board, the stormwater management planning committee shall hold at least one public hearing thereon and shall afford interested persons an opportunity to be heard. The hearing shall be held in the county seat. Notice of the hearing shall be published at least once and no less than 15 days in advance of the hearing in a newspaper of general circulation published in the county. The notice shall state the time and place of the hearing and the place where copies of the proposed plan will be accessible for examination by interested parties. If an affected municipality having a stormwater management plan adopted by ordinance wishes to protest the proposed county plan provisions, it shall appear at the hearing and submit in writing specific proposals to the stormwater management planning committee. After consideration of the matters raised at the hearing, the committee may amend or approve the plan and recommend it to the county board for adoption.

The county board may enact the proposed plan by ordinance. If the proposals for modification of the plan made by an affected municipality having a stormwater management plan are not included in the proposed county plan, and the municipality affected by the plan opposes adoption of the county plan by resolution of its corporate authorities, approval of the county plan shall require an affirmative vote of at least two-thirds of the county board members present and voting. If the county board wishes to amend the county plan, it shall submit in writing specific proposals to the stormwater management planning committee. If the proposals are not approved by the committee, or are opposed by resolution of the corporate authorities of an affected municipality having a municipal stormwater management plan, amendment of the plan shall require an affirmative vote of at least two-thirds of the county board members present and voting.

(g) The county board may prescribe by ordinance reasonable rules and regulations for floodplain management and for governing the location, width, course, and release rate of all stormwater runoff channels, streams, and basins in the county, in accordance with the adopted stormwater management plan. Land, facilities, and drainage district facilities used for production agriculture as defined in subsection (d) shall not be subjected to regulation by the county board or stormwater management committee under this Section for floodplain management and for governing location, width, course, maintenance, and release rate of stormwater runoff channels, streams and basins, or water discharged from a drainage district. These rules and regulations shall, at a minimum, meet the standards for floodplain management established by the Office of Water Resources and the requirements of the Federal Emergency Management Agency for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program. With respect to DuPage County only, the Chicago Metropolitan Agency for Planning may not impose more stringent regulations regarding water quality on entities discharging in accordance with a valid National Pollution Discharge Elimination System permit issued under the Environmental Protection Act.

(h) For the purpose of implementing this Section and for the development, design, planning, construction, operation, and maintenance of stormwater facilities provided for in the adopted stormwater management plan, a county board that has established a stormwater management planning committee pursuant to this Section or has participated in a stormwater management planning process may adopt a schedule of fees applicable to all real property within the county which benefits from the county's stormwater management facilities and activities, and as may be necessary to mitigate the effects of increased stormwater runoff resulting from development. The total amount of the fees assessed must be specifically and uniquely attributable to the actual costs of the county in the preparation, administration, and implementation of the adopted stormwater management plan, construction and maintenance of stormwater facilities, and other activities related to the management of the runoff from the property. The individual fees must be specifically and uniquely attributable to the portion of the actual cost to the county of managing the runoff from the property. The fees shall be used to finance activities undertaken by the county or its included municipalities to mitigate the effects of urban stormwater runoff by providing and maintaining stormwater collection, retention, detention, and particulate treatment facilities, and improving water bodies impacted by stormwater runoff, as identified in the county plan. In establishing, maintaining, or replacing such facilities, the county shall not duplicate facilities operated by other governmental bodies within its corporate boundaries. The schedule of fees established by the county board shall include a procedure for a full or partial fee waiver for property owners who have taken actions or put in place facilities that reduce or eliminate the cost to the county of providing stormwater management services to their property. The county board may also offer tax or fee rebates or incentive payments to property owners who construct, maintain, and use approved green infrastructure stormwater management devices or any other methods that reduce or eliminate the cost to the county of providing stormwater management services to the property, including but not limited to facilities that reduce the volume, temperature, velocity, and pollutant load of the stormwater managed by the county, such as systems that infiltrate, evapotranspirate, or harvest stormwater for reuse, known as "green infrastructure". In exercising this authority, the county shall provide notice to the municipalities within its jurisdiction their jurisdictions of any fees proposed under this Section and seek the input of each municipality with respect to the calculation of the fees. The county shall also give property owners at least 2 years' notice of the fee, during which time the county shall provide education on green infrastructure practices and an opportunity to take action to reduce or eliminate the fee. All these fees collected by the county shall be held in a separate fund, and shall be expended only in the watershed within which they were collected. The county may enter into intergovernmental agreements with other government bodies for the joint administration of stormwater management and the collection of the fees authorized in this Section.

A fee schedule authorized by this subsection must have the same limit as the authorized stormwater tax. In Peoria County only, the fee schedule shall not be adopted unless (i) a referendum has been passed approving a stormwater tax as provided in subsection (i) of this Section; or (ii) the question of the adoption of a fee schedule with the same limit as the authorized stormwater tax has been approved in a referendum by a majority of those voting on the question.

(i) In the alternative to a fee imposed under subsection (h), the county board may cause an annual tax of not to exceed 0.20% of the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, of all taxable property in the county to be levied upon all the taxable property in the county. The property tax shall be in addition to all other taxes authorized by law to be levied and collected in the county and shall be in addition to the maximum tax rate authorized by law for general county purposes. The 0.20% limitation provided in this Section may be increased or decreased by referendum in accordance with the provisions of Sections 18-120, 18-125, and 18-130 of the Property Tax Code (35 ILCS 200/).

Any revenues generated as a result of ownership or operation of facilities or land acquired with the tax funds collected pursuant to this subsection shall be held in a separate fund and be used either to abate such property tax or for implementing this Section.

If at least part of the county has been declared by a presidential proclamation after July 1, 1986 and before December 31, 1987, to be a disaster area as a result of flooding, the tax authorized by this subsection does not require approval by referendum. However, in Peoria County, the tax authorized by this subsection shall not be levied until the question of its adoption, either for a specified period or indefinitely, has been submitted to the electors thereof and approved by a majority of those voting on the question. This question may be submitted at any election held in the county after the adoption of a resolution by the county board providing for the submission of the question to the electors of the county. The county board shall certify the resolution and proposition to the proper election officials, who shall submit the proposition at an election in accordance with the general election law. If a majority of the votes cast on the question is in favor of the levy of the tax, it may thereafter be levied in the county for the specified period or indefinitely, as provided in the proposition. The question shall be put in substantially the following form:

Shall an annual tax be levied for stormwater management purposes (for a period of not more than ..... years) at a rate not exceeding .....% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property of ..... County?

Votes shall be recorded as Yes or No.

The following question may be submitted at any election held in the county after the adoption of a resolution by the county board providing for the submission of the question to the electors of the county to authorize adoption of a schedule of fees applicable to all real property within the county:

Shall the county board be authorized to adopt a schedule of fees, at a rate not exceeding that of the stormwater management tax, applicable to all real property for preparation, administration, and implementation of an adopted stormwater management plan, construction and maintenance of related facilities, and management of the runoff from the property?

Votes shall be recorded as Yes or No.

If these questions have been approved by a majority of those voting prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, this subsection does not apply.

(j) For those counties that adopt a property tax in accordance with the provisions in this Section, the stormwater management committee shall offer property tax abatements or incentive payments to property owners who construct, maintain, and use approved stormwater management devices. The stormwater management committee is authorized to offer credits to the property tax, if applicable, based on authorized practices consistent with the stormwater management plan and approved by the committee. Expenses of staff of a stormwater management committee that are expended on regulatory project review may be no more than 20% of the annual budget of the committee, including funds raised under subsections (h) and (i).

(k) Upon the creation and implementation of a county stormwater management plan, the county may petition the circuit court to dissolve any or all drainage districts created pursuant to the Illinois Drainage Code or predecessor Acts which are located entirely within the area of the county covered by the plan.

However, any active drainage district implementing a plan that is consistent with and at least as stringent as the county stormwater management plan may petition the stormwater management planning committee for exception from dissolution. Upon filing of the petition, the committee shall set a date for hearing not less than 2 weeks, nor more than 4 weeks, from the filing thereof, and the committee shall give at least one week's notice of the hearing in one or more newspapers of general circulation within the district, and in addition shall cause a copy of the notice to be personally served upon each of the trustees of the district. At the hearing, the committee shall hear the district's petition and allow the district trustees and any interested parties an opportunity to present oral and written evidence. The committee shall render its decision upon the petition for exception from dissolution based upon the best interests of the residents of the district. In the event that the exception is not allowed, the district may file a petition within 30 days of the decision with the circuit court. In that case, the notice and hearing requirements for the court shall be the same as herein provided for the committee. The court shall likewise render its decision of whether to dissolve the district based upon the best interests of residents of the district.

The dissolution of any drainage district shall not affect the obligation of any bonds issued or contracts entered into by the district nor invalidate the levy, extension or collection of any taxes or special assessments upon the property in the former drainage district. All property and obligations of the former drainage district shall be assumed and managed by the county, and the debts of the former drainage district shall be discharged as soon as practicable.

If a drainage district lies only partly within a county that adopts a county stormwater management plan, the county may petition the circuit court to disconnect from the drainage district that portion of the district that lies within that county. The property of the drainage district within the disconnected area shall be assumed and managed by the county. The county shall also assume a portion of the drainage district's debt at the time of disconnection, based on the portion of the value of the taxable property of the drainage district which is located within the area being disconnected.

The operations of any drainage district that continues to exist in a county that has adopted a stormwater management plan in accordance with this Section shall be in accordance with the adopted plan.

(l) Any county that has adopted a county stormwater management plan under this Section may, after 10 days' days written notice receiving consent of the owner or occupant, enter upon any lands or waters within the county for the purpose of inspecting stormwater facilities or causing the removal of any obstruction to an affected watercourse. If consent is denied or cannot be reasonably obtained, the county ordinance shall provide a process or procedure for an administrative warrant to be obtained. The county shall be responsible for any damages occasioned thereby.

(m) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (a) of this Section, upon petition of the municipality, and based on a finding of the stormwater management planning committee, the county shall not enforce rules and regulations adopted by the county in any municipality located wholly or partly within the county that has a municipal stormwater management ordinance that is consistent with and at least as stringent as the county plan and ordinance, and is being enforced by the municipal authorities. On issues that the county ordinance is more stringent as deemed by the committee, the county shall only enforce rules and regulations adopted by the county on the more stringent issues and accept municipal permits. The county shall have no more than 60 days to review permits or the permits shall be deemed approved.

(n) A county may issue general obligation bonds for implementing any stormwater plan adopted under this Section in the manner prescribed in Section 5-1012; except that the referendum requirement of Section 5-1012 does not apply to bonds issued pursuant to this Section on which the principal and interest are to be paid entirely out of funds generated by the taxes and fees authorized by this Section.

(o) A county that has adopted a fee schedule pursuant to this Section may not thereafter issue any bond extensions related to implementing a stormwater management plan.

(p) The powers authorized by this Section may be implemented by the county board for a portion of the county subject to similar stormwater management needs.

(q) The powers and taxes authorized by this Section are in addition to the powers and taxes authorized by Division 5-15; in exercising its powers under this Section, a county shall not be subject to the restrictions and requirements of that Division.

(r) Stormwater management projects and actions related to stormwater management in a county that has adopted a fee schedule or tax pursuant to this Section prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are not altered by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 98-335, eff. 8-13-13; revised 10-8-13.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1134)

Sec. 5-1134. Project labor agreements.

(a) Any sports, arts, or entertainment facilities that receive revenue from a tax imposed under subsection (b) of Section 5-1030 of this Code shall be considered to be public works within the meaning of the Prevailing Wage Act. The county authorities responsible for the construction, renovation, modification, or alteration of the sports, arts, or entertainment facilities shall enter into project labor agreements with labor organizations as defined in the National Labor Relations Act to assure that no labor dispute interrupts or interferes with the construction, renovation, modification, or alteration of the projects.

(b) The project labor agreements must include the following:

(1) provisions establishing the minimum hourly wage for each class of labor organization employees;

(2) provisions establishing the benefits and other compensation for such class of labor organization; and

(3) provisions establishing that no strike or disputes will be engaged in by the labor organization employees.

The county, taxing bodies, municipalities, and the labor organizations shall have the authority to include other terms and conditions as they deem necessary.

(c) The project labor agreement shall be filed with the Director of the Illinois Department of Labor in accordance with procedures established by the Department. At a minimum, the project labor agreement must provide the names, addresses, and occupations of the owner of the facilities and the individuals representing the labor organization employees participating in the project labor agreement. The agreement must also specify the terms and conditions required in subsection (b) of this Section.

(d) In any agreement for the construction or rehabilitation of a facility using revenue generated under subsection (b) of Section 5-1030 of this Code, in connection with the prequalification of general contractors for construction or rehabilitation of the facility, it shall be required that a commitment will be submitted detailing how the general contractor will expend 15% or more of the aggregate dollar value of the project as a whole with one or more minority-owned businesses, female-owned businesses, or businesses owned by a person with a disability, as these terms are defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-313, eff. 8-12-13.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1135)

Sec. 5-1135 5-1134. Borrowing from financial institutions. The county board of a county may borrow money for any corporate purpose from any bank or other financial institution provided such money shall be repaid within 2 years from the time the money is borrowed. The county board chairman or county executive, as the case may be, shall execute a promissory note or similar debt instrument, but not a bond, to evidence the indebtedness incurred by the borrowing. The obligation to make the payments due under the promissory note or other debt instrument shall be a lawful direct general obligation of the county payable from the general funds of the county and such other sources of payment as are otherwise lawfully available. The promissory note or other debt instrument shall be authorized by an ordinance passed by the county board and shall be valid whether or not an appropriation with respect to that ordinance is included in any annual or supplemental appropriation adopted by the county board. The indebtedness incurred under this Section, when aggregated with the existing indebtedness of the county, may not exceed any debt limitation otherwise provided for by law. "Financial institution" means any bank subject to the Illinois Banking Act, any savings and loan association subject to the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985, any savings bank subject to the Savings Bank Act, any credit union subject to the Illinois Credit Union Act, and any federally chartered commercial bank, savings and loan association, savings bank, or credit union organized and operated in this State pursuant to the laws of the United States.

(Source: P.A. 98-525, eff. 8-23-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-12001.2)

Sec. 5-12001.2. Regulation of telecommunications facilities; Lake County pilot project. In addition to any other requirements under this Division concerning the regulation of telecommunications facilities, the following applies to any new telecommunications facilities in Lake County that are not AM telecommunications towers or facilities:

(a) For every new wireless telecommunications facility requiring a new tower structure, a telecommunications carrier shall provide the county with documentation consisting of the proposed location, a site plan, and an elevation that sufficiently describes a proposed wireless facility location.

(b) The county shall have 7 days to review the facility proposal and contact the telecommunications carrier in writing via e-mail or other written means as specified by the telecommunications carrier. This written communication shall either approve the proposed location or request a meeting to review other possible alternative locations. If requested, the meeting shall take place within 7 days after the date of the written communication.

(c) At the meeting, the telecommunications carrier shall provide the county documentation consisting of radio frequency engineering criteria and a corresponding telecommunications facility search ring map, together with documentation of the carrier's efforts to site the proposed facility within the telecommunications facility search ring.

(d) Within 21 days after receipt of the carrier's documentation, the county shall propose either an alternative site within the telecommunications facility search ring, or an alternative site outside of the telecommunications search ring that meets the radio frequency engineering criteria provided by the telecommunications carrier and that will not materially increase the construction budget beyond what was estimated on the original carrier proposed site.

(e) If the county's proposed alternative site meets the radio frequency engineering criteria provided by the telecommunications carrier, and will not materially increase the construction budget beyond what was estimated on the original carrier proposed site, then the telecommunications carrier shall agree to build the facility at the alternative location, subject to the negotiation of a lease with commercially reasonable terms and the obtainment of the customary building permits.

(f) If the telecommunications carrier can demonstrate that: (i) the county's proposed alternative site does not meet the radio frequency engineering criteria, (ii) the county's proposed alternative site will materially increase the construction budget beyond what was estimated on the original carrier proposed site, (iii) the county has failed to provide an alternative alternate site, or (iv) after a period of 90 days after receipt of the alternative site, the telecommunications carrier has failed, after acting in good faith and with due diligence, to obtain a lease or, at a minimum, a letter of intent to lease the alternative site at lease rates not materially greater than the lease rate for the original proposed site; then the carrier can proceed to permit and construct the site under the provisions and standards of Section 5-12001.1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-197, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-8-13.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-44020)

Sec. 5-44020. Definitions. In this Division 5-44:

"Fire protection jurisdiction" means a fire protection district, municipal fire department, or service organized under Section 5-1056.1 of the Counties Code, Sections 195 and 200 of the Township Code, Section 10-2.1 of the Illinois Municipal Code, or the Illinois Fire Protection District Act.

"Governing board" means the individual or individuals who constitute the corporate authorities of a unit of local government. ; and

"Unit of local government" or "unit" means any unit of local government located entirely within one county, to which the county board chairman or county executive directly appoints a majority of its governing board with the advice and consent of the county board, but shall not include a fire protection district that directly employs any regular full-time employees or a special district organized under the Water Commission Act of 1985.

(Source: P.A. 98-126, eff. 8-2-13; revised 9-13-13.)

(55 ILCS 5/6-27005) (from Ch. 34, par. 6-27005)

Sec. 6-27005. Transfer to general corporate fund. Moneys shall be transferred from said working cash fund to the general corporate fund only upon the authority of the county board, which shall from time to time by separate resolution direct the county treasurer to make transfers of such sums as may be required for the purposes herein authorized. Every such resolution shall set forth (a) the taxes or other moneys in anticipation of the collection or receipt of which such transfer is to be made and from which such working cash fund is to be reimbursed, (b) with respect only to transfers made in anticipation of the levy of real property taxes, the entire amount of taxes extended or which the county board estimates will be extended, for any year, by the county clerk upon the books of the collectors of State and county taxes within such county, in anticipation of the collection of all or part of which such transfer is to be made, (c) the aggregate amount of warrants theretofore issued in anticipation of the collection of such taxes, together with the amount of interest accrued, and/or which the county board estimates will accrue, thereon, (d) the aggregate amount of notes theretofore issued in anticipation of the collection of such taxes, together with the amount of the interest accrued, and/or which the county board estimates will accrue, thereon, and (e) the amount of moneys, which the county board estimates will be earned by the county clerk and the county collector, respectively, as fees or commissions for extending or collecting taxes for any year, in anticipation of the receipt of all or part of which such transfer is to be made, (f) the amount of such taxes, as by law now or hereafter enacted or amended, imposed by the General Assembly of the State of Illinois to replace revenue lost by units of local government and school districts as a result of the abolition of ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant to Article IX, Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of Illinois which the county board estimates will be received by the county for any year, (g) the aggregate amount of receipts from taxes imposed to replace revenue lost by units of local government and school districts as a result of the abolition of ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant to Article IX, Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of Illinois, which the corporate authorities estimate will be set aside for the payment of the proportionate amount of debt service and pension or retirement obligations, as required by Section 12 of "An Act in relation to State Revenue Sharing with local government entities", approved July 31, 1969, as amended, and (h) the aggregate amount of moneys theretofore transferred from the working cash fund to the general corporate fund in anticipation of the collection of such taxes or of the receipt of such other moneys to be derived from fees or commissions or of the receipt of such taxes, as by law now or hereafter enacted or amended, imposed by the General Assembly of the State of Illinois to replace revenue lost by units of local government and school districts as a result of the abolition of ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant to Article IX, Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of Illinois. The amount which any such resolution shall direct the county treasurer so to transfer, in anticipation of the collection of taxes levied for any year, together with the aggregate amount of such anticipation tax warrants and notes theretofore drawn against such taxes and the amount of the interest accrued,, and the aggregate amount of such transfers theretofore made in anticipation of the collection of such taxes, shall not exceed ninety (90) per centum of the actual or estimated amount of such taxes extended or to be extended, as set forth in such resolution. The amount which any such resolution shall direct the county treasurer so to transfer, in anticipation of the receipt of any moneys to be derived from fees or commissions, or of the receipt of such taxes, as by law now or hereafter enacted or amended, imposed by the General Assembly of the State of Illinois to replace revenue lost by units of local government and school districts as a result of the abolition of ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant to Article IX, Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of Illinois together with the aggregate amount theretofore transferred in anticipation of the receipt of any such moneys and the amount estimated to be required to satisfy debt service and pension or retirement obligations, as set forth in Section 12 of "An Act in relation to State revenue sharing with local government entities", approved July 31, 1969, as amended, shall not exceed the total amount which it is so estimated will be received from such sources. To the extent that at any time moneys are available in the working cash fund they shall be transferred to the general corporate fund and disbursed for the payment of salaries and other corporate expenses so as to avoid, whenever possible, the issuance of anticipation tax warrants or notes.

(Source: P.A. 86-962; revised 10-8-13.)

Section 235. The Township Code is amended by changing Section 27-10 as follows:

(60 ILCS 1/27-10)

Sec. 27-10. Petition and referendum to discontinue and abolish a township organization within a coterminous municipality. Upon adoption of an ordinance adopted by the city council of a township described under Section 27-5 of this Article, or upon petition of at least 10% of the registered voters of that township, the city council shall certify and cause to be submitted to the voters of the township, at the next election or consolidated election, a proposition to discontinue and abolish the township organization and to transfer all the rights, powers, duties, assets, property, liabilities, obligations, and responsibilities of the township organization to the coterminous municipality.

A signature on a petition shall not be valid or counted in considering the petition unless the form requirements are complied with and the date of each signature is less than 90 days before the last day for filing the petition. The statement of the person who circulates the petition must include an attestation (i) indicating the dates on which that sheet was circulated, (ii) indicating the first and last date on which that sheet was circulated, or (iii) certifying that none of the signatures on the sheet was signed more than 90 days before the last day for filing the petition. The petition shall be treated and the proposition certified in the manner provided by the general election law. After the proposition has once been submitted to the electorate, the proposition shall not be resubmitted for 4 years.

The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

Shall the township organization be continued in [Name of Township] Township?

The votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

(Source: P.A. 98-127, eff. 8-2-13; revised 10-8-13.)

Section 240. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Section 11-80-9 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/11-80-9) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-80-9)

Sec. 11-80-9. The corporate authorities of each municipality may prevent and regulate all amusements and activities having a tendency to annoy or endanger persons or property on the sidewalks, streets, and other municipal property. However, no municipality may prohibit a charitable organization, as defined in Section 2 of the Charitable Games Act, from soliciting for charitable purposes, including solicitations taking place on public roadways from passing motorists, if all of the following requirements are met.

(1) The persons to be engaged in the solicitation are law enforcement personnel, firefighters, or other persons employed to protect the public safety of a local agency, and that are soliciting solely in an area that is within the service area of that local agency.

(2) The charitable organization files an application with the municipality having jurisdiction over the location or locations where the solicitation is to occur. The application applications shall be filed not later than 10 business days before the date that the solicitation is to begin and shall include all of the following:

(A) The date or dates and times of day when the solicitation is to occur.

(B) The location or locations where the solicitation is to occur along with a list of 3 alternate locations listed in order of preference.

(C) The manner and conditions under which the solicitation is to occur.

(D) Proof of a valid liability insurance policy in the amount of at least $1,000,000 insuring the charity or local agency against bodily injury and property damage arising out of or in connection with the solicitation.

The municipality shall approve the application within 5 business days after the filing date of the application, but may impose reasonable conditions in writing that are consistent with the intent of this Section and are based on articulated public safety concerns. If the municipality determines that the applicant's location cannot be permitted due to significant safety concerns, such as high traffic volumes, poor geometrics, construction, maintenance operations, or past accident history, then the municipality may deny the application for that location and must approve one of the 3 alternate locations following the order of preference submitted by the applicant on the alternate location list. By acting under this Section, a local agency does not waive or limit any immunity from liability provided by any other provision of law.

(3) For purposes of this Section, "local agency" means a municipality, special district, fire district, joint powers of authority, or other political subdivision of the State of Illinois.

A home rule unit may not regulate a charitable organization in a manner that is inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 97-692, eff. 6-15-12; 98-134, eff. 8-2-13; revised 10-8-13.)

Section 245. The Fire Protection District Act is amended by changing Sections 8.20 and 11j as follows:

(70 ILCS 705/8.20)

Sec. 8.20. Open burning.

(a) The board of trustees of any fire protection district incorporated under this Act may, by ordinance, require that the district be notified of open burning within the district before it takes place, but shall not require that a permit for open burning be obtained from the district. The district may not enforce an ordinance adopted under this Section within the corporate limits of a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more or a municipality with a population of 1,000,000 or more.

(b) The fire department of a fire protection district may extinguish any open burn that presents a clear, present, and unreasonable danger to persons or adjacent property or that presents an unreasonable risk because of wind, weather, or the types of combustibles. The unreasonable risk may include the height of flames, windblown embers, the creation of hazardous fumes, or an unattended fire. Fire departments may not unreasonably interfere with permitted and legal open burning.

(c) The fire protection district may provide that persons setting open burns on any agricultural land with an area of 50 acres or more may voluntarily comply with the provisions of an ordinance adopted under this Section.

(d) The fire chief or any other designated officer of a fire department of any fire protection district incorporated under this Act may, with the authorization of the board of trustees of the fire protection district, prohibit open burning within the district on an emergency basis, for a limited period of time, if (i) the atmospheric conditions or other circumstances create an unreasonable risk of fire because of wind, weather, or the types of combustibles and (ii) the resources of the fire department are not sufficient to control and suppress a fire resulting from one or more of the conditions or circumstances described in clause (i) of this subsection. For the purposes of this subsection, "open burning" includes, but is not limited to, the burning of landscape waste, agricultural waste, household trash, and garbage.

(e) The fire chief or any other designated officer of a fire department of any fire protection district incorporated under this Act may fix, charge, and collect fees associated with the fire department extinguishing an open burning that is prohibited under subsection (d) of this Section. The fee may be imposed against any person causing or engaging in the prohibited activity. The total amount collected for compensation of the fire protection district shall be assessed in accordance with both the rates provided in Section 11f(c) of this Act and the fire chief's determination of the cost of personnel and equipment utilized to extinguish the fire.

(f) This Section does not authorize the open burning of any waste. The open burning of waste is subject to the restrictions and prohibitions of the Environmental Protection Act and the rules and regulations adopted under its authority.

(Source: P.A. 97-488, eff. 1-1-12; 98-279, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-8-13.)

(70 ILCS 705/11j)

Sec. 11j. Installation of access or key boxes. The board of trustees of any fire protection district may, by ordinance, require the installation of an access or key box if: (1) a structure is protected by an automatic fire alarm or security system or access to or within the structure or area is unduly difficult because of secured openings; and (2) immediate access is necessary for life-saving purposes. In the case of a health care facility that is secured by an electronic code box that is in good working order, if the owner of the health care facility provides the fire department with a valid access code, then that health care facility is not required to be accessible by an access or key box. For the purposes of this Section, "health care facility" means: a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or the University of Illinois Hospital Act; a nursing home or long-term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act; an assisted living establishment, as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; a mental health facility, as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; a supportive living facility certified to participate in the supportive living facilities program under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. "Access or key box" means a secure device with a lock operable only by a fire department master key, and containing building entry keys and other keys that may be required for access in an emergency.

The access or key box shall be of an approved type listed in accordance with the most recently published version of the standard Underwriters Laboratories 1037 and shall contain keys to gain access as required by the fire chief of the fire protection district, or his or her designee.

An ordinance enacted under this Section may specify particular classes or types of structures or occupancies that are required to install an access or key box. However, an ordinance enacted under this Section shall not apply to single family residential structures or to facilities owned or operated by a public utility, as that term is defined under Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-388, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-8-13.)

Section 250. The Park District Code is amended by changing Section 11.2-1 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1205/11.2-1) (from Ch. 105, par. 11.2-1)

Sec. 11.2-1. In each park district a fund to be known as a "Working Cash Fund" may be created, set apart, maintained and administered in the manner prescribed in this Article, for the purpose of enabling the district to have in its treasury at all times time sufficient money to meet demands thereon for ordinary and necessary expenditures for corporate purposes.

(Source: P.A. 79-1379; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 255. The Elmwood Park Grade Separation Authority Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 50, and 60 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1935/10)

Sec. 10. Legislative declaration. The General Assembly declares that the welfare, health, prosperity, and moral and general well being of the people of the State are, in large measure, dependent upon the sound and orderly development of municipal areas. The Village of Elmwood Park, by reason of the location there of Grand Avenue and its use for vehicular travel in access to the entire west metropolitan Chicago area, including municipalities in 2 counties, as well as commercial and industrial growth patterns and accessibility to O'Hare International Airport, manufacturing and freight related services, has become and will increasingly be the hub of transportation from all parts of the region and throughout the west metropolitan area. Motor vehicle traffic, pedestrian travel, and the safety of both motorists and pedestrians are substantially aggravated by the location of a major railroad right-of-way that divides the Village into north and south halves. The presence of the railroad right-of-way has effectively impeded the development of highway usage and rights-of-way and is detrimental to the orderly expansion of industry and commerce and to progress throughout the region. Additionally, the railroad grade crossing located on Grand Avenue within the Village of Elmwood Park has posed a significant safety hazard to the public. The Illinois Commerce Commission Collision History illustrates that there have been 8 fatalities and 29 injuries since 1956 at the railroad grade crossing located on Grand Avenue within the Village. The presence of the railroad right-of-way at grade crossing within the Village is detrimental to the safety of the public, as well as to the orderly expansion of industry and commerce and to progress of the region. To alleviate this situation, it is necessary to separate the grade crossing on Grand Avenue within the Village, to relocate the railroad tracks and right-of-way, and to acquire property for separation of the railroad or highway, and to create an agency to facilitate and accomplish that grade separation.

(Source: P.A. 98-564, eff. 8-27-13; revised 10-8-13.)

(70 ILCS 1935/50)

Sec. 50. Board; composition; qualification; compensation and expenses. The Authority shall be governed by a 9-member board consisting of members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. Five members shall be voting members and 4 members shall be non-voting members. The voting members shall consist of the following:

(1) two former public officials who served within the Township of Leyden or the Village of Elmwood Park and are recommended to the Governor by the Village President of the Village of Elmwood Park;

(2) two prior employees of Canadian Pacific Railway with management experience; and

(3) one resident of the Township of Leyden or the Village of Elmwood Park.

The non-voting members shall consist of the following:

(1) the Village President of the Village of Elmwood Park;

(2) one current employee of Canadian Pacific Railway with management experience;

(3) one current employee of Northeast Illinois Regional Commuter Railroad Corporation with management experience; and

(4) one current employee of the Department of Transportation with management experience.

The members of the board shall serve without compensation, but may be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred by them in the performance of their duties prescribed by the Authority. However, any member of the board who serves as secretary or treasurer may receive compensation for services as that officer.

(Source: P.A. 98-564, eff. 8-27-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(70 ILCS 1935/60)

Sec. 60. Organization; chair and temporary secretary. As soon as possible after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the board shall organize for the transaction of business, select a chair from its voting members and a temporary secretary from its own number, and adopt bylaws to govern its proceedings. The initial chair and successors shall be elected by the board from time to time from among members. The Authority may act through its board members by entering into an agreement that a member act on the Authority's behalf, in which instance the act or performance directed shall be deemed to be exclusively of, for, and by the Authority and not the individual act of the member or its represented person.

(Source: P.A. 98-564, eff. 8-27-13; revised 10-8-13.)

Section 260. The Rescue Squad Districts Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2005/12) (from Ch. 85, par. 6862)

Sec. 12. A district organized under this Act, in the preparation of its annual budget and appropriation ordinance, may provide that an amount equal to not more than 0.5% of the total equalized assessed value of real property situated in the district shall be allocated to and accumulated in an a Equipment Repair or Replacement Fund for the purposes of equipment repairs or replacements of specific types of district equipment. Expenditures from the Equipment Repair or Replacement Fund shall be budgeted and appropriated for the fiscal year in which the equipment repair or replacement will occur. Upon completion or abandonment of any object or purpose for which an Equipment Repair or Replacement Fund has been initiated, monies remaining in the fund shall be transferred into the general corporate fund of the district on the first day of the fiscal year following the abandonment or completion resulting in the surplus moneys in such fund.

(Source: P.A. 86-916; revised 10-8-13.)

Section 265. The Regional Transportation Authority Act is amended by changing Section 3B.09b as follows:

(70 ILCS 3615/3B.09b)

Sec. 3B.09b. Payment of fares by credit card.

(a) By February 28, 2010, the Commuter Rail Board shall allow passengers to purchase fares by credit card (i) through an Internet website operated by the Board, (ii) at its LaSalle Street Station, Union Station, Ogilvie Transportation Center, and Millennium Millenium Station, (iii) at stations with agents, and (iv) from vending machines capable of providing fares by credit card at the 14 largest stations on the Metra Electric Line.

(b) The Board may not require a passenger who chooses to purchase a fare by credit card to pay an additional fee.

(Source: P.A. 96-621, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-13-13.)

Section 270. The School Code is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2-3.157 and by changing Sections 10-19, 20-1, 21B-30, and 27-24 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.157)

Sec. 2-3.157. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 98-578, eff. 8-27-13. Repealed internally, eff. 1-2-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.158)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on May 31, 2015)

Sec. 2-3.158 2-3.157. Task Force on Civic Education.

(a) The State Board of Education shall establish the Task Force on Civic Education, to be comprised of all of the following members, with an emphasis on bipartisan legislative representation and diverse non-legislative stakeholder representation:

(1) One member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(2) One member appointed by the President of the Senate.

(3) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(4) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(5) One member appointed by the head of an association representing a teachers union.

(6) One member appointed by the head of an association representing the Chicago Teachers Union.

(7) One member appointed by the head of an association representing social studies teachers.

(8) One member appointed by the head of an association representing school boards.

(9) One member appointed by the head of an association representing the media.

(10) One member appointed by the head of an association representing the non-profit sector that promotes civic education as a core mission.

(11) One member appointed by the head of an association representing the non-profit sector that promotes civic engagement among the general public.

(12) One member appointed by the president of an institution of higher education who teaches college or graduate-level government courses or facilitates a program dedicated to cultivating civic leaders.

(13) One member appointed by the head of an association representing principals or district superintendents.

(b) The members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for their reasonable and necessary expenses from funds appropriated to the State Board of Education for that purpose. The members of the Task Force shall be reimbursed for their travel expenses from appropriations to the State Board of Education available for that purpose and subject to the rules of the appropriate travel control board.

(c) The members of the Task Force shall be considered members with voting rights. A quorum of the Task Force shall consist of a simple majority of the members of the Task Force. All actions and recommendations of the Task Force must be approved by a simple majority vote of the members.

(d) The Task Force shall meet initially at the call of the State Superintendent of Education, shall elect one member as chairperson at its initial meeting through a simple majority vote of the Task Force, and shall thereafter meet at the call of the chairperson.

(e) The State Board of Education shall provide administrative and other support to the Task Force.

(f) The Task Force is charged with all of the following tasks:

(1) To analyze the current state of civic education in this State.

(2) To analyze current civic education laws in other jurisdictions, both mandated and permissive.

(3) To identify best practices in civic education in other jurisdictions.

(4) To make recommendations to the General Assembly focused on substantially increasing civic literacy and the capacity of youth to obtain the requisite knowledge, skills, and practices to be civically informed members of the public.

(5) To make funding recommendations if the Task Force's recommendations to the General Assembly would require a fiscal commitment.

(g) No later than May 31, 2014, the Task Force shall summarize its findings and recommendations in a report to the General Assembly, filed as provided in Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act. Upon filing its report, the Task Force is dissolved.

(h) This Section is repealed on May 31, 2015.

(Source: P.A. 98-301, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-4-13.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.159)

Sec. 2-3.159 2-3.157. State Seal of Biliteracy.

(a) In this Section, "foreign language" means any language other than English, including all modern languages, Latin, American Sign Language, Native American languages, and native languages.

(b) The State Seal of Biliteracy program is established to recognize public high school graduates who have attained a high level of proficiency in one or more languages in addition to English. The State Seal of Biliteracy shall be awarded beginning with the 2014-2015 school year. School district participation in this program is voluntary.

(c) The purposes of the State Seal of Biliteracy are as follows:

(1) To encourage pupils to study languages.

(2) To certify attainment of biliteracy.

(3) To provide employers with a method of identifying people with language and biliteracy skills.

(4) To provide universities with an additional method to recognize applicants seeking admission.

(5) To prepare pupils with 21st century skills.

(6) To recognize the value of foreign language and native language instruction in public schools.

(7) To strengthen intergroup relationships, affirm the value of diversity, and honor the multiple cultures and languages of a community.

(d) The State Seal of Biliteracy certifies attainment of a high level of proficiency, sufficient for meaningful use in college and a career, by a graduating public high school pupil in one or more languages in addition to English.

(e) The State Board of Education shall adopt such rules as may be necessary to establish the criteria that pupils must achieve to earn a State Seal of Biliteracy, which may include without limitation attainment of units of credit in English language arts and languages other than English and passage of such assessments of foreign language proficiency as may be approved by the State Board of Education for this purpose.

(f) The State Board of Education shall do both of the following:

(1) Prepare and deliver to participating school districts an appropriate mechanism for designating the State Seal of Biliteracy on the diploma and transcript of the pupil indicating that the pupil has been awarded a State Seal of Biliteracy by the State Board of Education.

(2) Provide other information the State Board of Education deems necessary for school districts to successfully participate in the program.

(g) A school district that participates in the program under this Section shall do both of the following:

(1) Maintain appropriate records in order to identify pupils who have earned a State Seal of Biliteracy.

(2) Make the appropriate designation on the diploma and transcript of each pupil who earns a State Seal of Biliteracy.

(h) No fee shall be charged to a pupil to receive the designation pursuant to this Section. Notwithstanding this prohibition, costs may be incurred by the pupil in demonstrating proficiency, including without limitation any assessments required under subsection (e) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-560, eff. 8-27-13; revised 10-4-13.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-19) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-19)

Sec. 10-19. Length of school term - experimental programs. Each school board shall annually prepare a calendar for the school term, specifying the opening and closing dates and providing a minimum term of at least 185 days to insure 176 days of actual pupil attendance, computable under Section 18-8.05, except that for the 1980-1981 school year only 175 days of actual pupil attendance shall be required because of the closing of schools pursuant to Section 24-2 on January 29, 1981 upon the appointment by the President of that day as a day of thanksgiving for the freedom of the Americans who had been held hostage in Iran. Any days allowed by law for teachers' institutes institute but not used as such or used as parental institutes as provided in Section 10-22.18d shall increase the minimum term by the school days not so used. Except as provided in Section 10-19.1, the board may not extend the school term beyond such closing date unless that extension of term is necessary to provide the minimum number of computable days. In case of such necessary extension school employees shall be paid for such additional time on the basis of their regular contracts. A school board may specify a closing date earlier than that set on the annual calendar when the schools of the district have provided the minimum number of computable days under this Section. Nothing in this Section prevents the board from employing superintendents of schools, principals and other nonteaching personnel for a period of 12 months, or in the case of superintendents for a period in accordance with Section 10-23.8, or prevents the board from employing other personnel before or after the regular school term with payment of salary proportionate to that received for comparable work during the school term.

A school board may make such changes in its calendar for the school term as may be required by any changes in the legal school holidays prescribed in Section 24-2. A school board may make changes in its calendar for the school term as may be necessary to reflect the utilization of teachers' institute days as parental institute days as provided in Section 10-22.18d.

The calendar for the school term and any changes must be submitted to and approved by the regional superintendent of schools before the calendar or changes may take effect.

With the prior approval of the State Board of Education and subject to review by the State Board of Education every 3 years, any school board may, by resolution of its board and in agreement with affected exclusive collective bargaining agents, establish experimental educational programs, including but not limited to programs for self-directed learning or outside of formal class periods, which programs when so approved shall be considered to comply with the requirements of this Section as respects numbers of days of actual pupil attendance and with the other requirements of this Act as respects courses of instruction.

(Source: P.A. 93-1036, eff. 9-14-04; revised 11-12-13.)

(105 ILCS 5/20-1) (from Ch. 122, par. 20-1)

Sec. 20-1. Authority to create working cash fund. In each school district, whether organized under general law or special charter, having a population of less than 500,000 inhabitants, a fund to be known as a "Working Cash Fund" may be created and maintained consistent with the limitations of this Article, for the purpose of enabling the district to have in its treasury at all times time sufficient money to meet demands thereon for expenditures for corporate purposes.

(Source: P.A. 96-1277, eff. 7-26-10; revised 9-12-13.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-30)

Sec. 21B-30. Educator testing.

(a) This Section applies beginning on July 1, 2012.

(b) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, shall design and implement a system of examinations, which shall be required prior to the issuance of educator licenses. These examinations and indicators must be based on national and State professional teaching standards, as determined by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. The State Board of Education may adopt such rules as may be necessary to implement and administer this Section. No score on a test required under this Section, other than a test of basic skills, shall be more than 5 years old at the time that an individual makes application for an educator license or endorsement.

(c) Applicants seeking a Professional Educator License or an Educator License with Stipulations shall be required to pass a test of basic skills before the license is issued, unless the endorsement the individual is seeking does not require passage of the test. All applicants completing Illinois-approved, teacher education or school service personnel preparation programs shall be required to pass the State Board of Education's recognized test of basic skills prior to starting their student teaching or starting the final semester of their internship, unless required earlier at the discretion of the recognized, Illinois institution in which they are completing their approved program. An individual who passes a test of basic skills does not need to do so again for subsequent endorsements or other educator licenses.

(d) All applicants seeking a State license shall be required to pass a test of content area knowledge for each area of endorsement for which there is an applicable test. There shall be no exception to this requirement. No candidate shall be allowed to student teach or serve as the teacher of record until he or she has passed the applicable content area test.

(e) All applicants seeking a State license endorsed in a teaching field shall pass the assessment of professional teaching (APT). Passage of the APT is required for completion of an approved Illinois educator preparation program.

(f) Beginning on September 1, 2015, all candidates completing teacher preparation programs in this State are required to pass an evidence-based assessment of teacher effectiveness approved by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. All recognized institutions offering approved teacher preparation programs must begin phasing in the approved teacher performance assessment no later than July 1, 2013.

(g) Tests of basic skills and content area knowledge and the assessment of professional teaching shall be the tests that from time to time are designated by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, and may be tests prepared by an educational testing organization or tests designed by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. The areas to be covered by a test of basic skills shall include reading, language arts, and mathematics. The test of content area knowledge shall assess content knowledge in a specific subject field. The tests must be designed to be racially neutral to ensure that no person taking the tests is discriminated against on the basis of race, color, national origin, or other factors unrelated to the person's ability to perform as a licensed employee. The score required to pass the tests shall be fixed by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. The tests shall be administered not fewer than 3 times a year at such time and place as may be designated by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

The State Board shall implement a test or tests to assess the speaking, reading, writing, and grammar skills of applicants for an endorsement or a license issued under subdivision (G) of paragraph (2) of Section 21B-20 of this Code in the English language and in the language of the transitional bilingual education program requested by the applicant.

(h) Except as provided in Section 34-6 of this Code, the provisions of this Section shall apply equally in any school district subject to Article 34 of this Code.

(i) The rules developed to implement and enforce the testing requirements under this Section shall include provisions governing test selection, test validation and determination of a passing score, administration of the tests, frequency of administration, applicant fees, frequency of applicants taking the tests, the years for which a score is valid, and appropriate special accommodations. The State Board of Education shall develop such rules as may be needed to ensure uniformity from year to year in the level of difficulty for each form of an assessment.

(Source: P.A. 97-607, eff. 8-26-11; 98-361, eff. 1-1-14; 98-581, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-9-13.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-24) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-24)

Sec. 27-24. Short title. Sections 27-24 through 27-24.10 27-24.8 of this Article are known and may be cited as the Driver Education Act.

(Source: P.A. 76-1835; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 275. The Critical Health Problems and Comprehensive Health Education Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(105 ILCS 110/3)

Sec. 3. Comprehensive Health Education Program. The program established under this Act shall include, but not be limited to, the following major educational areas as a basis for curricula in all elementary and secondary schools in this State: human ecology and health, human growth and development, the emotional, psychological, physiological, hygienic and social responsibilities of family life, including sexual abstinence until marriage, prevention and control of disease, including instruction in grades 6 through 12 on the prevention, transmission and spread of AIDS, age-appropriate sexual abuse and assault awareness and prevention education in grades pre-kindergarten through 12, public and environmental health, consumer health, safety education and disaster survival, mental health and illness, personal health habits, alcohol, drug use, and abuse including the medical and legal ramifications of alcohol, drug, and tobacco use, abuse during pregnancy, evidence-based and medically accurate information regarding sexual abstinence, tobacco, nutrition, and dental health. The program shall also provide course material and instruction to advise pupils of the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act. The program shall include information about cancer, including without limitation types of cancer, signs and symptoms, risk factors, the importance of early prevention and detection, and information on where to go for help. Notwithstanding the above educational areas, the following areas may also be included as a basis for curricula in all elementary and secondary schools in this State: basic first aid (including, but not limited to, cardiopulmonary resuscitation and the Heimlich maneuver), heart disease, diabetes, stroke, the prevention of child abuse, neglect, and suicide, and teen dating violence in grades 7 through 12.

The school board of each public elementary and secondary school in the State shall encourage all teachers and other school personnel to acquire, develop, and maintain the knowledge and skills necessary to properly administer life-saving techniques, including without limitation the Heimlich maneuver and rescue breathing. The training shall be in accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized certifying organization. A school board may use the services of non-governmental entities whose personnel have expertise in life-saving techniques to instruct teachers and other school personnel in these techniques. Each school board is encouraged to have in its employ, or on its volunteer staff, at least one person who is certified, by the American Red Cross or by another qualified certifying agency, as qualified to administer first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In addition, each school board is authorized to allocate appropriate portions of its institute or inservice days to conduct training programs for teachers and other school personnel who have expressed an interest in becoming qualified to administer emergency first aid or cardiopulmonary resuscitation. School boards are urged to encourage their teachers and other school personnel who coach school athletic programs and other extracurricular school activities to acquire, develop, and maintain the knowledge and skills necessary to properly administer first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation in accordance with standards and requirements established by the American Red Cross or another qualified certifying agency. Subject to appropriation, the State Board of Education shall establish and administer a matching grant program to pay for half of the cost that a school district incurs in training those teachers and other school personnel who express an interest in becoming qualified to administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (which training must be in accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized certifying organization) or in learning how to use an automated external defibrillator. A school district that applies for a grant must demonstrate that it has funds to pay half of the cost of the training for which matching grant money is sought. The State Board of Education shall award the grants on a first-come, first-serve basis.

No pupil shall be required to take or participate in any class or course on AIDS or family life instruction if his parent or guardian submits written objection thereto, and refusal to take or participate in the course or program shall not be reason for suspension or expulsion of the pupil.

Curricula developed under programs established in accordance with this Act in the major educational area of alcohol and drug use and abuse shall include classroom instruction in grades 5 through 12. The instruction, which shall include matters relating to both the physical and legal effects and ramifications of drug and substance abuse, shall be integrated into existing curricula; and the State Board of Education shall develop and make available to all elementary and secondary schools in this State instructional materials and guidelines which will assist the schools in incorporating the instruction into their existing curricula. In addition, school districts may offer, as part of existing curricula during the school day or as part of an after school program, support services and instruction for pupils or pupils whose parent, parents, or guardians are chemically dependent.

(Source: P.A. 97-1147, eff. 1-24-13; 98-190, eff. 8-6-13; 98-441, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)

Section 280. The Public Community College Act is amended by changing Section 2-16.02 as follows:

(110 ILCS 805/2-16.02) (from Ch. 122, par. 102-16.02)

Sec. 2-16.02. Grants. Any community college district that maintains a community college recognized by the State Board shall receive, when eligible, grants enumerated in this Section. Funded semester credit hours or other measures or both as specified by the State Board shall be used to distribute grants to community colleges. Funded semester credit hours shall be defined, for purposes of this Section, as the greater of (1) the number of semester credit hours, or equivalent, in all funded instructional categories of students who have been certified as being in attendance at midterm during the respective terms of the base fiscal year or (2) the average of semester credit hours, or equivalent, in all funded instructional categories of students who have been certified as being in attendance at midterm during the respective terms of the base fiscal year and the 2 prior fiscal years. For purposes of this Section, "base fiscal year" means the fiscal year 2 years prior to the fiscal year for which the grants are appropriated. Such students shall have been residents of Illinois and shall have been enrolled in courses that are part of instructional program categories approved by the State Board and that are applicable toward an associate degree or certificate. Courses that are eligible for reimbursement are those courses for which the district pays 50% or more of the program costs from unrestricted revenue sources, with the exception of courses offered by contract with the Department of Corrections in correctional institutions. For the purposes of this Section, "unrestricted revenue sources" means those revenues in which the provider of the revenue imposes no financial limitations upon the district as it relates to the expenditure of the funds. Except for Fiscal Year 2012, base operating grants shall be paid based on rates per funded semester credit hour or equivalent calculated by the State Board for funded instructional categories using cost of instruction, enrollment, inflation, and other relevant factors. For Fiscal Year 2012, the allocations for base operating grants to community college districts shall be the same as they were in Fiscal Year 2011, reduced or increased proportionately according to the appropriation for base operating grants for Fiscal Year 2012.

Equalization grants shall be calculated by the State Board by determining a local revenue factor for each district by: (A) adding (1) each district's Corporate Personal Property Replacement Fund allocations from the base fiscal year or the average of the base fiscal year and prior year, whichever is less, divided by the applicable statewide average tax rate to (2) the district's most recently audited year's equalized assessed valuation or the average of the most recently audited year and prior year, whichever is less, (B) then dividing by the district's audited full-time equivalent resident students for the base fiscal year or the average for the base fiscal year and the 2 prior fiscal years, whichever is greater, and (C) then multiplying by the applicable statewide average tax rate. The State Board shall calculate a statewide weighted average threshold by applying the same methodology to the totals of all districts' Corporate Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund allocations, equalized assessed valuations, and audited full-time equivalent district resident students and multiplying by the applicable statewide average tax rate. The difference between the statewide weighted average threshold and the local revenue factor, multiplied by the number of full-time equivalent resident students, shall determine the amount of equalization funding that each district is eligible to receive. A percentage factor, as determined by the State Board, may be applied to the statewide threshold as a method for allocating equalization funding. A minimum equalization grant of an amount per district as determined by the State Board shall be established for any community college district which qualifies for an equalization grant based upon the preceding criteria, but becomes ineligible for equalization funding, or would have received a grant of less than the minimum equalization grant, due to threshold prorations applied to reduce equalization funding. As of July 1, 2013, a community college district eligible to receive an equalization grant based upon the preceding criteria must maintain a minimum required combined in-district tuition and universal fee rate per semester credit hour equal to 70% of the State-average combined rate, as determined by the State Board, or the total revenue received by the community college district from combined in-district tuition and universal fees must be at least 30% of the total revenue received by the community college district, as determined by the State Board, for equalization funding. As of July 1, 2004, a community college district must maintain a minimum required operating tax rate equal to at least 95% of its maximum authorized tax rate to qualify for equalization funding. This 95% minimum tax rate requirement shall be based upon the maximum operating tax rate as limited by the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

The State Board shall distribute such other grants as may be authorized or appropriated by the General Assembly.

Each community college district entitled to State grants under this Section must submit a report of its enrollment to the State Board not later than 30 days following the end of each semester, quarter, or term in a format prescribed by the State Board. These semester credit hours, or equivalent, shall be certified by each district on forms provided by the State Board. Each district's certified semester credit hours, or equivalent, are subject to audit pursuant to Section 3-22.1.

The State Board shall certify, prepare, and submit monthly vouchers to the State Comptroller setting forth an amount equal to one-twelfth of the grants approved by the State Board for base operating grants and equalization grants. The State Board shall prepare and submit to the State Comptroller vouchers for payments of other grants as appropriated by the General Assembly. If the amount appropriated for grants is different from the amount provided for such grants under this Act, the grants shall be proportionately reduced or increased accordingly.

For the purposes of this Section, "resident student" means a student in a community college district who maintains residency in that district or meets other residency definitions established by the State Board, and who was enrolled either in one of the approved instructional program categories in that district, or in another community college district to which the resident's district is paying tuition under Section 6-2 or with which the resident's district has entered into a cooperative agreement in lieu of such tuition.

For the purposes of this Section, a "full-time equivalent" student is equal to 30 semester credit hours.

The Illinois Community College Board Contracts and Grants Fund is hereby created in the State Treasury. Items of income to this fund shall include any grants, awards, endowments, or like proceeds, and where appropriate, other funds made available through contracts with governmental, public, and private agencies or persons. The General Assembly shall from time to time make appropriations payable from such fund for the support, improvement, and expenses of the State Board and Illinois community college districts.

(Source: P.A. 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1160, eff. 2-1-13; 98-46, eff. 6-28-13; revised 8-12-13.)

Section 285. The Pawnbroker Regulation Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(205 ILCS 510/7) (from Ch. 17, par. 4657)

Sec. 7. Daily report.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), it shall be the duty of every pawnbroker to make out and deliver to the sheriff of the county in which such pawnbroker does business, on each day before the hours of 12 o'clock noon, a legible and exact copy from the standard record book, as required in Section 5 of this Act, that lists all personal property and any other valuable thing received on deposit or purchased during the preceding day, including the exact time when received or purchased, and a description of the person or person by whom left in pledge, or from whom the same were purchased; provided, that in cities or towns having 25,000 or more inhabitants, a copy of the such report shall at the same time also be delivered to the superintendent of police or the chief police officer of such city or town. Such report may be made by computer printout or input memory device if the format has been approved by the local law enforcement agency.

(b) In counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants, a pawnbroker must provide the daily report to the sheriff only if the pawnshop is located in an unincorporated area of the county. Pawnbrokers located in cities or towns in such counties must deliver such reports to the superintendent of police or the chief police officer of such city or town.

(Source: P.A. 90-477, eff. 7-1-98; 90-602, eff. 7-1-98; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 290. The Alternative Health Care Delivery Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(210 ILCS 3/30)

Sec. 30. Demonstration program requirements. The requirements set forth in this Section shall apply to demonstration programs.

(a) (Blank).

(a-5) There shall be no more than the total number of postsurgical recovery care centers with a certificate of need for beds as of January 1, 2008.

(a-10) There shall be no more than a total of 9 children's respite care center alternative health care models in the demonstration program, which shall be located as follows:

(1) Two in the City of Chicago.

(2) One in Cook County outside the City of Chicago.

(3) A total of 2 in the area comprised of DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties.

(4) A total of 2 in municipalities with a population of 50,000 or more and not located in the areas described in paragraphs (1), (2), or (3).

(5) A total of 2 in rural areas, as defined by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

No more than one children's respite care model owned and operated by a licensed skilled pediatric facility shall be located in each of the areas designated in this subsection (a-10).

(a-15) There shall be 5 authorized community-based residential rehabilitation center alternative health care models in the demonstration program.

(a-20) There shall be an authorized Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model in the demonstration program. The Alzheimer's disease management center shall be located in Will County, owned by a not-for-profit entity, and endorsed by a resolution approved by the county board before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly.

(a-25) There shall be no more than 10 birth center alternative health care models in the demonstration program, located as follows:

(1) Four in the area comprising Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties, one of which shall be owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.

(2) Three in municipalities with a population of 50,000 or more not located in the area described in paragraph (1) of this subsection, one of which shall be owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.

(3) Three in rural areas, one of which shall be owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.

The first 3 birth centers authorized to operate by the Department shall be located in or predominantly serve the residents of a health professional shortage area as determined by the United States Department of Health and Human Services. There shall be no more than 2 birth centers authorized to operate in any single health planning area for obstetric services as determined under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act. If a birth center is located outside of a health professional shortage area, (i) the birth center shall be located in a health planning area with a demonstrated need for obstetrical service beds, as determined by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board or (ii) there must be a reduction in the existing number of obstetrical service beds in the planning area so that the establishment of the birth center does not result in an increase in the total number of obstetrical service beds in the health planning area.

(b) Alternative health care models, other than a model authorized under subsection (a-10) or (a-20), shall obtain a certificate of need from the Health Facilities and Services Review Board under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act before receiving a license by the Department. If, after obtaining its initial certificate of need, an alternative health care delivery model that is a community based residential rehabilitation center seeks to increase the bed capacity of that center, it must obtain a certificate of need from the Health Facilities and Services Review Board before increasing the bed capacity. Alternative health care models in medically underserved areas shall receive priority in obtaining a certificate of need.

(c) An alternative health care model license shall be issued for a period of one year and shall be annually renewed if the facility or program is in substantial compliance with the Department's rules adopted under this Act. A licensed alternative health care model that continues to be in substantial compliance after the conclusion of the demonstration program shall be eligible for annual renewals unless and until a different licensure program for that type of health care model is established by legislation, except that a postsurgical recovery care center meeting the following requirements may apply within 3 years after August 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-669) for a Certificate of Need permit to operate as a hospital:

(1) The postsurgical recovery care center shall apply to the Health Facilities and Services Review Board for a Certificate of Need permit to discontinue the postsurgical recovery care center and to establish a hospital.

(2) If the postsurgical recovery care center obtains a Certificate of Need permit to operate as a hospital, it shall apply for licensure as a hospital under the Hospital Licensing Act and shall meet all statutory and regulatory requirements of a hospital.

(3) After obtaining licensure as a hospital, any license as an ambulatory surgical treatment center and any license as a postsurgical post-surgical recovery care center shall be null and void.

(4) The former postsurgical recovery care center that receives a hospital license must seek and use its best efforts to maintain certification under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

The Department may issue a provisional license to any alternative health care model that does not substantially comply with the provisions of this Act and the rules adopted under this Act if (i) the Department finds that the alternative health care model has undertaken changes and corrections which upon completion will render the alternative health care model in substantial compliance with this Act and rules and (ii) the health and safety of the patients of the alternative health care model will be protected during the period for which the provisional license is issued. The Department shall advise the licensee of the conditions under which the provisional license is issued, including the manner in which the alternative health care model fails to comply with the provisions of this Act and rules, and the time within which the changes and corrections necessary for the alternative health care model to substantially comply with this Act and rules shall be completed.

(d) Alternative health care models shall seek certification under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act. In addition, alternative health care models shall provide charitable care consistent with that provided by comparable health care providers in the geographic area.

(d-5) (Blank).

(e) Alternative health care models shall, to the extent possible, link and integrate their services with nearby health care facilities.

(f) Each alternative health care model shall implement a quality assurance program with measurable benefits and at reasonable cost.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-129, eff. 8-4-09; 96-669, eff. 8-25-09; 96-812, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1071, eff. 7-16-10; 96-1123, eff. 1-1-11; 97-135, eff. 7-14-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 295. The Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood Bank Act is amended by changing Section 7-101 as follows:

(210 ILCS 25/7-101) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101)

Sec. 7-101. Examination of specimens. A clinical laboratory shall examine specimens only at the request of (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a licensed dentist, (iii) a licensed podiatric physician, (iv) a licensed optometrist, (v) a licensed physician assistant in accordance with the written guidelines required under subdivision (3) of Section 4 and under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (v-A) an advanced practice nurse in accordance with the written collaborative agreement required under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, (vi) an authorized law enforcement agency or, in the case of blood alcohol, at the request of the individual for whom the test is to be performed in compliance with Sections 11-501 and 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or (vii) a genetic counselor with the specific authority from a referral to order a test or tests pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Genetic Counselor Licensing Act. If the request to a laboratory is oral, the physician or other authorized person shall submit a written request to the laboratory within 48 hours. If the laboratory does not receive the written request within that period, it shall note that fact in its records. For purposes of this Section, a request made by electronic mail or fax constitutes a written request.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-185, eff. 1-1-14; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-15-13.)

Section 300. The Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(210 ILCS 30/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4164)

Sec. 4. Any long term care facility administrator, agent or employee or any physician, hospital, surgeon, dentist, osteopath, chiropractor, podiatric physician, accredited religious practitioner who provides treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer in accordance with the tenets and practices of the accrediting church, coroner, social worker, social services administrator, registered nurse, law enforcement officer, field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, field personnel of the Illinois Department of Public Health and County or Municipal Health Departments, personnel of the Department of Human Services (acting as the successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities or the Department of Public Aid), personnel of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, personnel of the State Fire Marshal, local fire department inspectors or other personnel, or personnel of the Illinois Department on Aging, or its subsidiary Agencies on Aging, or employee of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, having reasonable cause to believe any resident with whom they have direct contact has been subjected to abuse or neglect shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department. Persons required to make reports or cause reports to be made under this Section include all employees of the State of Illinois who are involved in providing services to residents, including professionals providing medical or rehabilitation services and all other persons having direct contact with residents; and further include all employees of community service agencies who provide services to a resident of a public or private long term care facility outside of that facility. Any long term care surveyor of the Illinois Department of Public Health who has reasonable cause to believe in the course of a survey that a resident has been abused or neglected and initiates an investigation while on site at the facility shall be exempt from making a report under this Section but the results of any such investigation shall be forwarded to the central register in a manner and form described by the Department.

The requirement of this Act shall not relieve any long term care facility administrator, agent or employee of responsibility to report the abuse or neglect of a resident under Section 3-610 of the Nursing Home Care Act or under Section 3-610 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or under Section 2-107 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

In addition to the above persons required to report suspected resident abuse and neglect, any other person may make a report to the Department, or to any law enforcement officer, if such person has reasonable cause to suspect a resident has been abused or neglected.

This Section also applies to residents whose death occurs from suspected abuse or neglect before being found or brought to a hospital.

A person required to make reports or cause reports to be made under this Section who fails to comply with the requirements of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-9-13.)

Section 305. The Community Living Facilities Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(210 ILCS 35/9) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4189)

Sec. 9. Regular licenses.

(1) A regular license shall be valid for a one-year period from the date of authorization. A license is not transferable.

(2) Within 120 to 150 days prior to the date of expiration of the license, the licensee shall apply to the Department for renewal of the license. The procedure for renewing a valid license for a Community Living Facility shall be the same as for applying for the initial license, pursuant to subsections (1) through (4) of Section 7 of this Act. If the Department has determined on the basis of available documentation that the Community Living Facility is in substantial compliance with this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act, and has provided to the Department an accurate disclosure document in accordance with the Alzheimer's Disease and Related Dementias Special Care Disclosure Act, it shall renew the regular license for another one-year period.

(3) Whenever ownership of a facility is transferred from the licensee to any other person, agency, association, corporation, partnership, or organization, the transferee transferree must obtain a new probationary license. The transferee transferree shall notify the Department of the transfer and apply for a new license at least 30 days prior to final transfer. The requirement for an on-site inspection in Section 7 may be waived if the Department has conducted a survey of the Community Living Facility within the past 60 days and the survey disclosed substantial compliance with this Act and rules and regulations promulgated hereunder.

(Source: P.A. 96-990, eff. 7-2-10; revised 9-11-13.)

Section 310. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Sections 3-112 and 3-304.1 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/3-112) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-112)

Sec. 3-112. (a) Whenever ownership of a facility is transferred from the person named in the license to any other person, the transferee must obtain a new probationary license. The transferee shall notify the Department of the transfer and apply for a new license at least 30 days prior to final transfer.

(b) The transferor shall notify the Department at least 30 days prior to final transfer. The transferor shall remain responsible for the operation of the facility until such time as a license is issued to the transferee transferree.

(Source: P.A. 81-223; revised 9-11-13.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-304.1)

Sec. 3-304.1. Public computer access to information.

(a) The Department must make information regarding nursing homes in the State available to the public in electronic form on the World Wide Web, including all of the following information:

(1) who regulates nursing homes;

(2) information in the possession of the Department that is listed in Sections 3-210 and 3-304;

(3) deficiencies and plans of correction;

(4) enforcement remedies;

(5) penalty letters;

(6) designation of penalty monies;

(7) the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services' Health Care Financing Administration special projects or federally required inspections;

(8) advisory standards;

(9) deficiency-free surveys;

(10) enforcement actions and enforcement summaries;

(11) distressed facilities; and

(12) the report submitted under Section 3-518; .

(13) (12) a link to the most recent facility cost report filed with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services;

(14) (13) a link to the most recent Consumer Choice Information Report filed with the Department on Aging;

(15) (14) whether the facility is part of a chain; the facility shall be deemed part of a chain if it meets criteria established by the United States Department of Health and Human Services that identify it as owned by a chain organization;

(16) (15) whether the facility is a for-profit or not-for-profit facility; and

(17) (16) whether the facility is or is part of a continuing care retirement community.

(b) No fee or other charge may be imposed by the Department as a condition of accessing the information.

(c) The electronic public access provided through the World Wide Web shall be in addition to any other electronic or print distribution of the information.

(d) The information shall be made available as provided in this Section in the shortest practicable time after it is publicly available in any other form.

(Source: P.A. 98-85, eff. 7-15-13; 98-505, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)

Section 315. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Section 3.117 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.117)

Sec. 3.117. Hospital Designations.

(a) The Department shall attempt to designate Primary Stroke Centers in all areas of the State.

(1) The Department shall designate as many certified Primary Stroke Centers as apply for that designation provided they are certified by a nationally-recognized certifying body, approved by the Department, and certification criteria are consistent with the most current nationally-recognized, evidence-based stroke guidelines related to reducing the occurrence, disabilities, and death associated with stroke.

(2) A hospital certified as a Primary Stroke Center by a nationally-recognized certifying body approved by the Department, shall send a copy of the Certificate to the Department and shall be deemed, within 30 days of its receipt by the Department, to be a State-designated Primary Stroke Center.

(3) With respect to a hospital that is a designated Primary Stroke Center, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Suspend or revoke a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation upon receiving notice that the hospital's Primary Stroke Center certification has lapsed or has been revoked by the State recognized certifying body.

(B) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation, in extreme circumstances where patients may be at risk for immediate harm or death, until such time as the certifying body investigates and makes a final determination regarding certification.

(C) Restore any previously suspended or revoked Department designation upon notice to the Department that the certifying body has confirmed or restored the Primary Stroke Center certification of that previously designated hospital.

(D) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation at the request of a hospital seeking to suspend its own Department designation.

(4) Primary Stroke Center designation shall remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its certification as a Primary Stroke Center, in good standing, with the certifying body. The duration of a Primary Stroke Center designation shall coincide with the duration of its Primary Stroke Center certification. Each designated Primary Stroke Center shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the accrediting body's certification renewal.

(5) A hospital that no longer meets nationally-recognized, evidence-based standards for Primary Stroke Centers, or loses its Primary Stroke Center certification, shall immediately notify the Department and the Regional EMS Advisory Committee.

(b) The Department shall attempt to designate hospitals as Emergent Stroke Ready Hospitals capable of providing emergent stroke care in all areas of the State.

(1) The Department shall designate as many Emergent Stroke Ready Hospitals as apply for that designation as long as they meet the criteria in this Act.

(2) Hospitals may apply for, and receive, Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation from the Department, provided that the hospital attests, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, that it meets, and will continue to meet, the criteria for Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation.

(3) Hospitals seeking Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation shall develop policies and procedures that consider nationally-recognized, evidence-based protocols for the provision of emergent stroke care. Hospital policies relating to emergent stroke care and stroke patient outcomes shall be reviewed at least annually, or more often as needed, by a hospital committee that oversees quality improvement. Adjustments shall be made as necessary to advance the quality of stroke care delivered. Criteria for Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation of hospitals shall be limited to the ability of a hospital to:

(A) create written acute care protocols related to emergent stroke care;

(B) maintain a written transfer agreement with one or more hospitals that have neurosurgical expertise;

(C) designate a director of stroke care, which may be a clinical member of the hospital staff or the designee of the hospital administrator, to oversee the hospital's stroke care policies and procedures;

(D) administer thrombolytic therapy, or subsequently developed medical therapies that meet nationally-recognized, evidence-based stroke guidelines;

(E) conduct brain image tests at all times;

(F) conduct blood coagulation studies at all times; and

(G) maintain a log of stroke patients, which shall be available for review upon request by the Department or any hospital that has a written transfer agreement with the Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital.

(4) With respect to Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Require hospitals applying for Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation to attest, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, that the hospital meets, and will continue to meet, the criteria for an a Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital.

(B) Designate a hospital as an Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital no more than 20 business days after receipt of an attestation that meets the requirements for attestation.

(C) Require annual written attestation, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, by Emergent Stroke Ready Hospitals to indicate compliance with Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital criteria, as described in this Section, and automatically renew Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation of the hospital.

(D) Issue an Emergency Suspension of Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation when the Director, or his or her designee, has determined that the hospital no longer meets the Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital criteria and an immediate and serious danger to the public health, safety, and welfare exists. If the Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital fails to eliminate the violation immediately or within a fixed period of time, not exceeding 10 days, as determined by the Director, the Director may immediately revoke the Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation. The Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital may appeal the revocation within 15 days after receiving the Director's revocation order, by requesting an administrative hearing.

(E) After notice and an opportunity for an administrative hearing, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew an Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation, when the Department finds the hospital is not in substantial compliance with current Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital criteria.

(c) The Department shall consult with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee for developing the designation and de-designation processes for Primary Stroke Centers and Emergent Stroke Ready Hospitals.

(Source: P.A. 96-514, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 320. The End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act is amended by changing Section 60 as follows:

(210 ILCS 62/60)

Sec. 60. Notice of administrative actions; hearing procedures.

(a) Notice of all administrative actions taken under this Act shall be effected by registered mail, certified mail, or personal service and shall set forth the particular reasons for the proposed action and provide the applicant or licensee with an opportunity to request a hearing. If a hearing request is not received within 10 days after receipt of the notice of administrative action, the right to a hearing is waived.

(b) The procedure governing hearings authorized by this Section shall be in accordance with rules promulgated by the Department consistent with this Act. A hearing shall be conducted by the Director or by an individual designated in writing by the Director as administrative law judge. A full and complete record shall be kept of all proceedings, including notice of hearing, complaint, and all other documents in the nature of pleadings, written motions filed in the proceedings, and the report and orders of the Director and administrative law judge. All testimony shall be reported but need not be transcribed unless the decision is appealed pursuant to Section 70 of this Act. Any interested party may obtain a copy or copies of the transcript on payment of the cost of preparing such copy or copies.

(c) The Director or administrative law judge shall, upon his own motion or on the written request of any party to the proceeding, issue subpoenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses and subpoenas duces tecum requiring the production of books, papers, records or memoranda. The fees of witnesses for attendance and travel shall be the same as the fees of witnesses before any circuit court of this State. Such fees shall be paid when the witness is excused from further attendance. When the witness is subpoenaed at the instance of the Director or administrative law judge, such fees shall be paid in the same manner as other expenses of the Department. When the witness is subpoenaed at the instance of any other party to a proceeding, the Department may require that the cost of service of the subpoena or subpoena duces tecum and the fee of the witness be borne by the party at whose instance the witness is summoned. In such case, the Department, in its discretion, may require a deposit to cover the cost of such service and witness fees. A subpoena or subpoena duces tecum issued under this Section shall be served in the same manner as a subpoena issued by a court.

(d) Any circuit court of this State, upon the application of the Director or the application of any other party to the proceeding, may, in its discretion, compel the attendance of witnesses, the production of books, papers, records or memoranda, and the giving of testimony before the Director or administrative law judge conducting an investigation or holding a hearing authorized by this Act, by an attachment for contempt, or otherwise, in the same manner as production of evidence may be compelled before the court.

(e) The Director or administrative law judge, or any party in a hearing before the Department, may compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of books, papers, records, or memoranda.

(f) The Director or administrative law judge shall make findings of fact in such hearing and the Director shall render his decision within 60 days after the termination or waiving of the hearing unless he or she requires additional time for a proper disposition of the matter. When an a administrative law judge has conducted the hearing, the Director shall review the record and findings of fact before rendering a decision. A copy of the findings of fact and decision of the Director shall be served upon the applicant or licensee in person, by registered mail or by certified mail in the same manner as the service of the notice of hearing. The decision denying, suspending, or revoking a license shall become final 35 days after it is mailed or served, unless the applicant or licensee, within the 35-day period, petitions for review pursuant to Section 70 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-794, eff. 7-1-03; revised 11-13-13.)

Section 325. The Hospital Emergency Service Act is amended by changing Section 1.3 as follows:

(210 ILCS 80/1.3)

Sec. 1.3. Long-term acute care hospitals. For the purpose of this Act, general acute care hospitals designated by Medicare as long-term acute care hospitals are not required to provide hospital emergency services described in Section 1 of this Act. Hospitals defined in this Section may provide hospital emergency services at their option.

Any hospital defined in this Section that opts to discontinue emergency services described in Section 1 shall:

(1) comply with all provisions of the federal Emergency Medical Treatment and & Labor Act (EMTALA);

(2) comply with all provisions required under the Social Security Act;

(3) provide annual notice to communities in the hospital's service area about available emergency medical services; and

(4) make educational materials available to individuals who are present at the hospital concerning the availability of medical services within the hospital's service area.

Long-term acute care hospitals that operate standby emergency services as of January 1, 2011 may discontinue hospital emergency services by notifying the Department of Public Health. Long-term acute care hospitals that operate basic or comprehensive emergency services must notify the Health Facilities and Services Review Board and follow the appropriate procedures.

(Source: P.A. 97-667, eff. 1-13-12; revised 9-11-13.)

Section 330. The Language Assistance Services Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(210 ILCS 87/15)

Sec. 15. Language assistance services.

(a) To ensure insure access to health care information and services for limited-English-speaking or non-English-speaking residents and deaf residents, a health facility must do the following:

(1) Adopt and review annually a policy for providing language assistance services to patients with language or communication barriers. The policy shall include procedures for providing, to the extent possible as determined by the facility, the use of an interpreter whenever a language or communication barrier exists, except where the patient, after being informed of the availability of the interpreter service, chooses to use a family member or friend who volunteers to interpret. The procedures shall be designed to maximize efficient use of interpreters and minimize delays in providing interpreters to patients. The procedures shall insure, to the extent possible as determined by the facility, that interpreters are available, either on the premises or accessible by telephone, 24 hours a day. The facility shall annually transmit to the Department of Public Health a copy of the updated policy and shall include a description of the facility's efforts to insure adequate and speedy communication between patients with language or communication barriers and staff.

(2) Develop, and post in conspicuous locations, notices that advise patients and their families of the availability of interpreters, the procedure for obtaining an interpreter, and the telephone numbers to call for filing complaints concerning interpreter service problems, including, but not limited to, a TTY number for persons who are deaf or hard of hearing. The notices shall be posted, at a minimum, in the emergency room, the admitting area, the facility entrance, and the outpatient area. Notices shall inform patients that interpreter services are available on request, shall list the languages most commonly encountered at the facility for which interpreter services are available, and shall instruct patients to direct complaints regarding interpreter services to the Department of Public Health, including the telephone numbers to call for that purpose.

(3) Notify the facility's employees of the language services available at the facility and train them on how to make those language services available to patients.

(b) In addition, a health facility may do one or more of the following:

(1) Identify and record a patient's primary language and dialect on one or more of the following: a patient medical chart, hospital bracelet, bedside notice, or nursing card.

(2) Prepare and maintain, as needed, a list of interpreters who have been identified as proficient in sign language according to the Interpreter for the Deaf Licensure Act of 2007 Interpreters for the Deaf Act and a list of the languages of the population of the geographical area served by the facility.

(3) Review all standardized written forms, waivers, documents, and informational materials available to patients on admission to determine which to translate into languages other than English.

(4) Consider providing its nonbilingual staff with standardized picture and phrase sheets for use in routine communications with patients who have language or communication barriers.

(5) Develop community liaison groups to enable the facility and the limited-English-speaking, non-English-speaking, and deaf communities to ensure insure the adequacy of the interpreter services.

(Source: P.A. 95-667, eff. 10-11-07; revised 10-7-13.)

Section 335. The Mobile Home Park Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(210 ILCS 115/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 712)

Sec. 2. Unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the words and phrases set forth in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 3 Sections 2.1 to 2.9 inclusive, shall have the meanings set forth in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 78-1170; revised 11-13-13.)

Section 340. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Section 500-100 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/500-100)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)

Sec. 500-100. Limited lines producer license.

(a) An individual who is at least 18 years of age and whom the Director considers to be competent, trustworthy, and of good business reputation may obtain a limited lines producer license for one or more of the following classes:

(1) insurance on baggage or limited travel health, accident, or trip cancellation insurance sold in connection with transportation provided by a common carrier;

(2) industrial life insurance, as defined in Section 228 of this Code;

(3) industrial accident and health insurance, as defined in Section 368 of this Code;

(4) insurance issued by a company organized under the Farm Mutual Insurance Company Act of 1986;

(5) legal expense insurance;

(6) enrollment of recipients of public aid or medicare in a health maintenance organization;

(7) a limited health care plan issued by an organization having a certificate of authority under the Limited Health Service Organization Act;

(8) credit life and credit accident and health insurance and other credit insurance policies approved or permitted by the Director; a credit insurance company must conduct a training program in which an applicant shall receive basic instruction about the credit insurance products that he or she they will be selling.

(b) The application for a limited lines producer license must be submitted on a form prescribed by the Director by a designee of the insurance company, health maintenance organization, or limited health service organization appointing the limited insurance representative. The insurance company, health maintenance organization, or limited health service organization must pay the fee required by Section 500-135.

(c) A limited lines producer may represent more than one insurance company, health maintenance organization, or limited health service organization.

(d) An applicant who has met the requirements of this Section shall be issued a perpetual limited lines producer license.

(e) A limited lines producer license shall remain in effect as long as the appointing insurance company pays the respective fee required by Section 500-135 prior to January 1 of each year, unless the license is revoked or suspended pursuant to Section 500-70. Failure of the insurance company to pay the license fee or to submit the required documents shall cause immediate termination of the limited line insurance producer license with respect to which the failure occurs.

(f) A limited lines producer license may be terminated by the insurance company or the licensee.

(g) A person whom the Director considers to be competent, trustworthy, and of good business reputation may be issued a car rental limited line license. A car rental limited line license for a rental company shall remain in effect as long as the car rental limited line licensee pays the respective fee required by Section 500-135 prior to the next fee date unless the car rental license is revoked or suspended pursuant to Section 500-70. Failure of the car rental limited line licensee to pay the license fee or to submit the required documents shall cause immediate suspension of the car rental limited line license. A car rental limited line license for rental companies may be voluntarily terminated by the car rental limited line licensee. The license fee shall not be refunded upon termination of the car rental limited line license by the car rental limited line licensee.

(h) A limited lines producer issued a license pursuant to this Section is not subject to the requirements of Section 500-30.

(i) A limited lines producer license must contain the name, address and personal identification number of the licensee, the date the license was issued, general conditions relative to the license's expiration or termination, and any other information the Director considers proper. A limited line producer license, if applicable, must also contain the name and address of the appointing insurance company.

(Source: P.A. 98-159, eff. 8-2-13; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 345. The Reinsurance Intermediary Act is amended by changing Sections 20 and 45 as follows:

(215 ILCS 100/20) (from Ch. 73, par. 1620)

Sec. 20. Books and records; reinsurance intermediary brokers.

(a) For at least 10 years after expiration of each contract of reinsurance transacted by it, the intermediary broker shall keep a complete record for each transaction showing:

(1) The type of contract, limits, underwriting restrictions, classes or risks, and territory.

(2) Period of coverage, including effective and expiration dates, cancellation provisions, and notice required of cancellations.

(3) Reporting and settlement requirements of balances.

(4) Rate used to compute the reinsurance premium.

(5) Names and addresses of assuming reinsurers.

(6) Rates of all reinsurance commissions, including the commissions on any retrocessions handled by the intermediary broker.

(7) Related correspondence and memoranda.

(8) Proof of placement.

(9) Details regarding retrocessions handled by the intermediary broker including the identity of retrocessionaires and percentage of each contract assumed or ceded.

(10) Financial records including, but not limited to, premium and loss accounts.

(11) When an a intermediary broker procures a reinsurance contract on behalf of a licensed ceding insurer:

(A) directly from any assuming reinsurer, written evidence that the assuming reinsurer has agreed to assume the risk;

(B) if placed through a representative of the assuming reinsurer, other than an employee, written evidence that the reinsurer has delegated binding authority to the representative.

(b) The insurer shall have access and the right to copy and audit all accounts and records maintained by the intermediary broker related to its business in a form usable by the insurer.

(Source: P.A. 87-108; revised 11-13-13.)

(215 ILCS 100/45) (from Ch. 73, par. 1645)

Sec. 45. Duties of reinsurers utilizing the services of a reinsurance intermediary manager.

(a) A reinsurer shall not engage the services of any person, firm, association, or corporation to act as an a intermediary manager on its behalf unless the person is licensed as required by Section 10.

(b) The reinsurer shall annually obtain a copy of statements, audited by an independent certified public accountant in a form acceptable to the Director, of the financial condition of each intermediary manager that the reinsurer has contracted.

(c) If an intermediary manager establishes loss reserves, the reinsurer shall annually obtain the opinion of an actuary attesting to the adequacy of loss reserves established for losses incurred and outstanding on business produced by the intermediary manager. This opinion shall be in addition to any other required loss reserve certification.

(d) Binding authority for all retrocessional contracts or participation in reinsurance syndicates shall rest with an officer of the reinsurer who shall not be affiliated with the intermediary manager.

(e) Within 30 days of termination of a contract with an intermediary manager, the reinsurer shall provide written notification of termination to the Director.

(f) A reinsurer shall not appoint to its board of directors, any officer, director, employee, controlling shareholder, or subproducer of its intermediary manager. This subsection shall not apply to relationships governed by the Holding Company Act.

(Source: P.A. 87-108; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 350. The Illinois Health Benefits Exchange Law is amended by changing Section 5-10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 122/5-10)

Sec. 5-10. Exchange functions.

(a) The Illinois Health Benefits Exchange shall meet the core functions identified by Section 1311 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act and subsequent federal guidance and regulations.

(b) In order to meet the deadline of October 1, 2013 established by federal law to have operational a State exchange, the Department of Insurance and the Commission on Government Governmental Forecasting and Accountability is authorized to apply for, accept, receive, and use as appropriate for and on behalf of the State any grant money provided by the federal government and to share federal grant funding with, give support to, and coordinate with other agencies of the State and federal government or third parties as determined by the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 97-142, eff. 7-14-11; revised 9-11-13.)

Section 355. The Viatical Settlements Act of 2009 is amended by changing Section 72 as follows:

(215 ILCS 159/72)

Sec. 72. Crimes and offenses.

(a) A person acting in this State as a viatical settlement provider without having been licensed pursuant to Section 10 of this Act who willfully violates any provision of this Act or any rule adopted or order issued under this Act is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and may be subject to a fine of not more than $3,000. When such violation results in a loss of more than $10,000, the person shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony and may be subject to a fine of not more than $10,000.

(b) A person acting in this State as a viatical settlement broker without having met the licensure and notification requirements established by Section 10 of this Act who willfully violates any provision of this Act or any rule adopted or order issued under this Act is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and may be subject to a fine of not more than $3,000. When such violation results in a loss of more than $10,000, the person shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony and may be subject to a fine of not more than $10,000.

(c) The Director may refer such evidence as is available concerning violations of this Act or any rule adopted or order issued under this Act or of the failure of a person to comply with the licensing requirements of this Act to the Attorney General or the proper county attorney who may, with or without such reference, institute the appropriate criminal proceedings under this Act.

(d) A person commits the offense of viatical settlement fraud when:

(1) For the purpose of depriving another of property or for pecuniary gain any person knowingly:

(A) presents, causes to be presented, or prepares with knowledge or belief that it will be presented to or by a viatical settlement provider, viatical settlement broker, life expectancy provider, viatical settlement purchaser, financing entity, insurer, insurance producer, or any other person, false material information, or conceals material information, as part of, in support of or concerning a fact material to one or more of the following:

(i) an application for the issuance of a viatical settlement contract or insurance policy;

(ii) the underwriting of a viatical settlement contract or insurance policy;

(iii) a claim for payment or benefit pursuant to a viatical settlement contract or insurance policy;

(iv) premiums paid on an insurance policy;

(v) payments and changes in ownership or beneficiary made in accordance with the terms of a viatical settlement contract or insurance policy;

(vi) the reinstatement or conversion of an insurance policy;

(vii) in the solicitation, offer, effectuation, or sale of a viatical settlement contract or insurance policy;

(viii) the issuance of written evidence of a viatical settlement contract or insurance; or

(ix) a financing transaction; or

(B) employs any plan, financial structure, device, scheme, or artifice to defraud related to viaticated policies; or

(C) enters into any act, practice, or arrangement which involves stranger-originated life insurance; .

(2) In furtherance of a scheme to defraud, to further a fraud, or to prevent or hinder the detection of a scheme to defraud any person knowingly does or permits his employees or agents to do any of the following:

(A) remove, conceal, alter, destroy, or sequester from the Director the assets or records of a licensee or other person engaged in the business of viatical settlements;

(B) misrepresent or conceal the financial condition of a licensee, financing entity, insurer, or other person;

(C) transact the business of viatical settlements in violation of laws requiring a license, certificate of authority, or other legal authority for the transaction of the business of viatical settlements; or

(D) file with the Director or the equivalent chief insurance regulatory official of another jurisdiction a document containing false information or otherwise conceals information about a material fact from the Director;

(3) Any person knowingly steals, misappropriates, or converts monies, funds, premiums, credits, or other property of a viatical settlement provider, insurer, insured, viator, insurance policyowner, or any other person engaged in the business of viatical settlements or insurance;

(4) Any person recklessly enters into, negotiates, brokers, or otherwise deals in a viatical settlement contract, the subject of which is a life insurance policy that was obtained by presenting false information concerning any fact material to the policy or by concealing, for the purpose of misleading another, information concerning any fact material to the policy, where the person or the persons intended to defraud the policy's issuer, the viatical settlement provider or the viator; or

(5) Any person facilitates the change of state of ownership of a policy or the state of residency of a viator to a state or jurisdiction that does not have a law similar to this Act for the express purposes of evading or avoiding the provisions of this Act.

(e) For purposes of this Section, "person" means (i) an individual, (ii) a corporation, (iii) an officer, agent, or employee of a corporation, (iv) a member, agent, or employee of a partnership, or (v) a member, manager, employee, officer, director, or agent of a limited liability company who, in any such capacity described by this subsection (e), commits viatical settlement fraud.

(Source: P.A. 96-736, eff. 7-1-10; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 360. The Health Carrier External Review Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 180/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act:

"Adverse determination" means:

(1) a determination by a health carrier or its designee utilization review organization that, based upon the information provided, a request for a benefit under the health carrier's health benefit plan upon application of any utilization review technique does not meet the health carrier's requirements for medical necessity, appropriateness, health care setting, level of care, or effectiveness or is determined to be experimental or investigational and the requested benefit is therefore denied, reduced, or terminated or payment is not provided or made, in whole or in part, for the benefit;

(2) the denial, reduction, or termination of or failure to provide or make payment, in whole or in part, for a benefit based on a determination by a health carrier or its designee utilization review organization that a preexisting condition was present before the effective date of coverage; or

(3) a rescission recission of coverage determination, which does not include a cancellation or discontinuance of coverage that is attributable to a failure to timely pay required premiums or contributions towards the cost of coverage.

"Authorized representative" means:

(1) a person to whom a covered person has given express written consent to represent the covered person for purposes of this Law;

(2) a person authorized by law to provide substituted consent for a covered person;

(3) a family member of the covered person or the covered person's treating health care professional when the covered person is unable to provide consent;

(4) a health care provider when the covered person's health benefit plan requires that a request for a benefit under the plan be initiated by the health care provider; or

(5) in the case of an urgent care request, a health care provider with knowledge of the covered person's medical condition.

"Best evidence" means evidence based on:

(1) randomized clinical trials;

(2) if randomized clinical trials are not available, then cohort studies or case-control studies;

(3) if items (1) and (2) are not available, then case-series; or

(4) if items (1), (2), and (3) are not available, then expert opinion.

"Case-series" means an evaluation of a series of patients with a particular outcome, without the use of a control group.

"Clinical review criteria" means the written screening procedures, decision abstracts, clinical protocols, and practice guidelines used by a health carrier to determine the necessity and appropriateness of health care services.

"Cohort study" means a prospective evaluation of 2 groups of patients with only one group of patients receiving specific intervention.

"Concurrent review" means a review conducted during a patient's stay or course of treatment in a facility, the office of a health care professional, or other inpatient or outpatient health care setting.

"Covered benefits" or "benefits" means those health care services to which a covered person is entitled under the terms of a health benefit plan.

"Covered person" means a policyholder, subscriber, enrollee, or other individual participating in a health benefit plan.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Insurance.

"Emergency medical condition" means a medical condition manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity, including, but not limited to, severe pain, such that a prudent layperson who possesses an average knowledge of health and medicine could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical attention to result in:

(1) placing the health of the individual or, with respect to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child, in serious jeopardy;

(2) serious impairment to bodily functions; or

(3) serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.

"Emergency services" means health care items and services furnished or required to evaluate and treat an emergency medical condition.

"Evidence-based standard" means the conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of the current best evidence based on an overall systematic review of the research in making decisions about the care of individual patients.

"Expert opinion" means a belief or an interpretation by specialists with experience in a specific area about the scientific evidence pertaining to a particular service, intervention, or therapy.

"Facility" means an institution providing health care services or a health care setting.

"Final adverse determination" means an adverse determination involving a covered benefit that has been upheld by a health carrier, or its designee utilization review organization, at the completion of the health carrier's internal grievance process procedures as set forth by the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

"Health benefit plan" means a policy, contract, certificate, plan, or agreement offered or issued by a health carrier to provide, deliver, arrange for, pay for, or reimburse any of the costs of health care services.

"Health care provider" or "provider" means a physician, hospital facility, or other health care practitioner licensed, accredited, or certified to perform specified health care services consistent with State law, responsible for recommending health care services on behalf of a covered person.

"Health care services" means services for the diagnosis, prevention, treatment, cure, or relief of a health condition, illness, injury, or disease.

"Health carrier" means an entity subject to the insurance laws and regulations of this State, or subject to the jurisdiction of the Director, that contracts or offers to contract to provide, deliver, arrange for, pay for, or reimburse any of the costs of health care services, including a sickness and accident insurance company, a health maintenance organization, or any other entity providing a plan of health insurance, health benefits, or health care services. "Health carrier" also means Limited Health Service Organizations (LHSO) and Voluntary Health Service Plans.

"Health information" means information or data, whether oral or recorded in any form or medium, and personal facts or information about events or relationships that relate to:

(1) the past, present, or future physical, mental, or behavioral health or condition of an individual or a member of the individual's family;

(2) the provision of health care services to an individual; or

(3) payment for the provision of health care services to an individual.

"Independent review organization" means an entity that conducts independent external reviews of adverse determinations and final adverse determinations.

"Medical or scientific evidence" means evidence found in the following sources:

(1) peer-reviewed scientific studies published in or accepted for publication by medical journals that meet nationally recognized requirements for scientific manuscripts and that submit most of their published articles for review by experts who are not part of the editorial staff;

(2) peer-reviewed medical literature, including literature relating to therapies reviewed and approved by a qualified institutional review board, biomedical compendia, and other medical literature that meet the criteria of the National Institutes of Health's Library of Medicine for indexing in Index Medicus (Medline) and Elsevier Science Ltd. for indexing in Excerpta Medicus (EMBASE);

(3) medical journals recognized by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under Section 1861(t)(2) of the federal Social Security Act;

(4) the following standard reference compendia:

(a) The American Hospital Formulary Service-Drug Information;

(b) Drug Facts and Comparisons;

(c) The American Dental Association Accepted Dental Therapeutics; and

(d) The United States Pharmacopoeia-Drug Information;

(5) findings, studies, or research conducted by or under the auspices of federal government agencies and nationally recognized federal research institutes, including:

(a) the federal Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality;

(b) the National Institutes of Health;

(c) the National Cancer Institute;

(d) the National Academy of Sciences;

(e) the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services;

(f) the federal Food and Drug Administration; and

(g) any national board recognized by the National Institutes of Health for the purpose of evaluating the medical value of health care services; or

(6) any other medical or scientific evidence that is comparable to the sources listed in items (1) through (5).

"Person" means an individual, a corporation, a partnership, an association, a joint venture, a joint stock company, a trust, an unincorporated organization, any similar entity, or any combination of the foregoing.

"Prospective review" means a review conducted prior to an admission or the provision of a health care service or a course of treatment in accordance with a health carrier's requirement that the health care service or course of treatment, in whole or in part, be approved prior to its provision.

"Protected health information" means health information (i) that identifies an individual who is the subject of the information; or (ii) with respect to which there is a reasonable basis to believe that the information could be used to identify an individual.

"Randomized clinical trial" means a controlled prospective study of patients that have been randomized into an experimental group and a control group at the beginning of the study with only the experimental group of patients receiving a specific intervention, which includes study of the groups for variables and anticipated outcomes over time.

"Retrospective review" means any review of a request for a benefit that is not a concurrent or prospective review request. "Retrospective review" does not include the review of a claim that is limited to veracity of documentation or accuracy of coding.

"Utilization review" has the meaning provided by the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

"Utilization review organization" means a utilization review program as defined in the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-857, eff. 7-1-10; 97-574, eff. 8-26-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 365. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Sections 13-903 and 21-401 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/13-903)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2015)

Sec. 13-903. Authorization, verification or notification, and dispute resolution for covered product and service charges on the telephone bill.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

(1) "Subscriber" means a telecommunications carrier's retail business customer served by not more than 20 lines or a retail residential customer.

(2) "Telecommunications carrier" has the meaning given in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act and includes agents and employees of a telecommunications carrier, except that "telecommunications carrier" does not include a provider of commercial mobile radio services (as defined by 47 U.S.C. 332(d)(1)).

(b) Applicability of Section. This Section does not apply to:

(1) changes in a subscriber's local exchange telecommunications service or interexchange telecommunications service;

(2) message telecommunications charges that are initiated by dialing 1+, 0+, 0-, 1010XXX, or collect calls and charges for video services if the service provider has the necessary call detail record to establish the billing for the call or service; and

(3) telecommunications services available on a subscriber's line when the subscriber activates and pays for the services on a per use basis.

(c) Requirements for billing authorized charges. A telecommunications carrier shall meet all of the following requirements before submitting charges for any product or service to be billed on any subscriber's telephone bill:

(1) Inform the subscriber. The telecommunications carrier offering the product or service must thoroughly inform the subscriber of the product or service being offered, including all associated charges, and explicitly inform the subscriber that the associated charges for the product or service will appear on the subscriber's telephone bill.

(2) Obtain subscriber authorization. The subscriber must have clearly and explicitly consented to obtaining the product or service offered and to having the associated charges appear on the subscriber's telephone bill. The consent must be verified by the service provider in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section. A record of the consent must be maintained by the telecommunications carrier offering the product or service for at least 24 months immediately after the consent and verification were obtained.

(d) Verification or notification. Except in subscriber-initiated transactions with a certificated telecommunications carrier for which the telecommunications carrier has the appropriate documentation, the telecommunications carrier, after obtaining the subscriber's authorization in the required manner, shall either verify the authorization or notify the subscriber as follows:

(1) Independent third-party verification:

(A) Verification shall be obtained by an independent third party that:

(i) operates from a facility physically separate from that of the telecommunications carrier;

(ii) is not directly or indirectly managed, controlled, directed, or owned wholly or in part by the telecommunications carrier or the carrier's marketing agent; and

(iii) does not derive commissions or compensation based upon the number of sales confirmed.

(B) The third-party verification agent shall state, and shall obtain the subscriber's acknowledgment of, the following disclosures:

(i) the subscriber's name, address, and the telephone numbers of all telephone lines that will be charged for the product or service of the telecommunications carrier;

(ii) that the person speaking to the third party verification agent is in fact the subscriber;

(iii) that the subscriber wishes to purchase the product or service of the telecommunications carrier and is agreeing to do so;

(iv) that the subscriber understands that the charges for the product or service of the telecommunications carrier will appear on the subscriber's telephone bill; and

(v) the name and customer service telephone number of the telecommunications carrier.

(C) The telecommunications carrier shall retain, electronically or otherwise, proof of the verification of sales for a minimum of 24 months.

(2) Notification. Written notification shall be provided as follows:

(A) the telecommunications carrier shall mail a letter to the subscriber using first class mail, postage prepaid, no later than 10 days after initiation of the product or service;

(B) the letter shall be a separate document sent for the sole purpose of describing the product or service of the telecommunications carrier;

(C) the letter shall be printed with 10-point or larger type and clearly and conspicuously disclose the material terms and conditions of the offer of the telecommunications carrier, as described in paragraph (1) of subsection (c);

(D) the letter shall contain a toll-free telephone number the subscriber can call to cancel the product or service;

(E) the telecommunications carrier shall retain, electronically or otherwise, proof of written notification for a minimum of 24 months; and

(F) written notification can be provided via electronic mail if consumers are given the disclosures required by Section 101(c) of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act.

(e) Unauthorized charges.

(1) Responsibilities of the billing telecommunications carrier for unauthorized charges. If a subscriber's telephone bill is charged for any product or service without proper subscriber authorization and verification or notification of authorization in compliance with this Section, the telecommunications carrier that billed the subscriber, on its knowledge or notification of any unauthorized charge, shall promptly, but not later than 45 days after the date of the knowledge or notification of an unauthorized charge:

(A) notify the product or service provider to immediately cease charging the subscriber for the unauthorized product or service;

(B) remove the unauthorized charge from the subscriber's bill; and

(C) refund or credit to the subscriber all money that the subscriber has paid for any unauthorized charge.

(f) The Commission shall promulgate any rules necessary to ensure that subscribers are not billed on the telephone bill for products or services in a manner not in compliance with this Section. The rules promulgated under this Section shall comport with the rules, if any, promulgated by the Attorney General pursuant to the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act and with any rules promulgated by the Federal Communications Commission or Federal Trade Commission.

(g) Complaints may be filed with the Commission under this Section by a subscriber who has been billed on the telephone bill for products or services not in compliance with this Section or by the Commission on its own motion. Upon filing of the complaint, the parties may mutually agree to submit the complaint to the Commission's established mediation process. Remedies in the mediation process may include, but shall not be limited to, the remedies set forth in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this subsection. In its discretion, the Commission may deny the availability of the mediation process and submit the complaint to hearings. If the complaint is not submitted to mediation or if no agreement is reached during the mediation process, hearings shall be held on the complaint pursuant to Article X 10 of this Act. If after notice and hearing, the Commission finds that a telecommunications carrier has violated this Section or a rule promulgated under this Section, the Commission may in its discretion order any one or more of the following:

(1) Require the violating telecommunications carrier to pay a fine of up to $1,000 into the Public Utility Fund for each repeated and intentional violation of this Section.

(2) Require the violating carrier to refund or cancel all charges for products or services not billed in compliance with this Section.

(3) Issue a cease and desist order.

(4) For a pattern of violation of this Section or for intentionally violating a cease and desist order, revoke the violating telecommunications carrier's certificate of service authority.

(Source: P.A. 92-22, eff. 6-30-01; revised 11-12-13.)

(220 ILCS 5/21-401)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2015)

Sec. 21-401. Applications.

(a)(1) A person or entity seeking to provide cable service or video service pursuant to this Article shall not use the public rights-of-way for the installation or construction of facilities for the provision of cable service or video service or offer cable service or video service until it has obtained a State-issued authorization to offer or provide cable or video service under this Section, except as provided for in item (2) of this subsection (a). All cable or video providers offering or providing service in this State shall have authorization pursuant to either (i) the Cable and Video Competition Law of 2007 (220 ILCS 5/21-100 et seq.); (ii) Section 11-42-11 of the Illinois Municipal Code (65 ILCS 5/11-42-11); or (iii) Section 5-1095 of the Counties Code (55 ILCS 5/5-1095).

(2) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a local unit of government from granting a permit to a person or entity for the use of the public rights-of-way to install or construct facilities to provide cable service or video service, at its sole discretion. No unit of local government shall be liable for denial or delay of a permit prior to the issuance of a State-issued authorization.

(b) The application to the Commission for State-issued authorization shall contain a completed affidavit submitted by the applicant and signed by an officer or general partner of the applicant affirming all of the following:

(1) That the applicant has filed or will timely file with the Federal Communications Commission all forms required by that agency in advance of offering cable service or video service in this State.

(2) That the applicant agrees to comply with all applicable federal and State statutes and regulations.

(3) That the applicant agrees to comply with all applicable local unit of government regulations.

(4) An exact description of the cable service or video service area where the cable service or video service will be offered during the term of the State-issued authorization. The service area shall be identified in terms of either (i) exchanges, as that term is defined in Section 13-206 of this Act; (ii) a collection of United States Census Bureau Block numbers (13 digit); (iii) if the area is smaller than the areas identified in either (i) or (ii), by geographic information system digital boundaries meeting or exceeding national map accuracy standards; or (iv) local unit of government. The description shall include the number of low-income households within the service area or footprint. If an applicant is a an incumbent cable operator, the incumbent cable operator and any successor-in-interest shall be obligated to provide access to cable services or video services within any local units of government at the same levels required by the local franchising authorities for the local unit of government on June 30, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-9), and its application shall provide a description of an area no smaller than the service areas contained in its franchise or franchises within the jurisdiction of the local unit of government in which it seeks to offer cable or video service.

(5) The location and telephone number of the applicant's principal place of business within this State and the names of the applicant's principal executive officers who are responsible for communications concerning the application and the services to be offered pursuant to the application, the applicant's legal name, and any name or names under which the applicant does or will provide cable services or video services in this State.

(6) A certification that the applicant has concurrently delivered a copy of the application to all local units of government that include all or any part of the service area identified in item (4) of this subsection (b) within such local unit of government's jurisdictional boundaries.

(7) The expected date that cable service or video service will be initially offered in the area identified in item (4) of this subsection (b). In the event that a holder does not offer cable services or video services within 3 months after the expected date, it shall amend its application and update the expected date service will be offered and explain the delay in offering cable services or video services.

(8) For any entity that received State-issued authorization prior to this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly as a cable operator and that intends to proceed as a cable operator under this Article, the entity shall file a written affidavit with the Commission and shall serve a copy of the affidavit with any local units of government affected by the authorization within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly stating that the holder will be providing cable service under the State-issued authorization.

The application shall include adequate assurance that the applicant possesses the financial, managerial, legal, and technical qualifications necessary to construct and operate the proposed system, to promptly repair any damage to the public right-of-way caused by the applicant, and to pay the cost of removal of its facilities. To accomplish these requirements, the applicant may, at the time the applicant seeks to use the public rights-of-way in that jurisdiction, be required by the State of Illinois or later be required by the local unit of government, or both, to post a bond, produce a certificate of insurance, or otherwise demonstrate its financial responsibility.

The application shall include the applicant's general standards related to customer service required by Section 22-501 of this Act, which shall include, but not be limited to, installation, disconnection, service and repair obligations; appointment hours; employee ID requirements; customer service telephone numbers and hours; procedures for billing, charges, deposits, refunds, and credits; procedures for termination of service; notice of deletion of programming service and changes related to transmission of programming or changes or increases in rates; use and availability of parental control or lock-out devices; complaint procedures and procedures for bill dispute resolution and a description of the rights and remedies available to consumers if the holder does not materially meet their customer service standards; and special services for customers with visual, hearing, or mobility disabilities.

(c)(1) The applicant may designate information that it submits in its application or subsequent reports as confidential or proprietary, provided that the applicant states the reasons the confidential designation is necessary. The Commission shall provide adequate protection for such information pursuant to Section 4-404 of this Act. If the Commission, a local unit of government, or any other party seeks public disclosure of information designated as confidential, the Commission shall consider the confidential designation in a proceeding under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, and the burden of proof to demonstrate that the designated information is confidential shall be upon the applicant. Designated information shall remain confidential pending the Commission's determination of whether the information is entitled to confidential treatment. Information designated as confidential shall be provided to local units of government for purposes of assessing compliance with this Article as permitted under a Protective Order issued by the Commission pursuant to the Commission's rules and to the Attorney General pursuant to Section 6.5 of the Attorney General Act (15 ILCS 205/6.5). Information designated as confidential under this Section or determined to be confidential upon Commission review shall only be disclosed pursuant to a valid and enforceable subpoena or court order or as required by the Freedom of Information Act. Nothing herein shall delay the application approval timeframes set forth in this Article.

(2) Information regarding the location of video services that have been or are being offered to the public and aggregate information included in the reports required by this Article shall not be designated or treated as confidential.

(d)(1) The Commission shall post all applications it receives under this Article on its web site within 5 business days.

(2) The Commission shall notify an applicant for a cable service or video service authorization whether the applicant's application and affidavit are complete on or before the 15th business day after the applicant submits the application. If the application and affidavit are not complete, the Commission shall state in its notice all of the reasons the application or affidavit are incomplete, and the applicant shall resubmit a complete application. The Commission shall have 30 days after submission by the applicant of a complete application and affidavit to issue the service authorization. If the Commission does not notify the applicant regarding the completeness of the application and affidavit or issue the service authorization within the time periods required under this subsection, the application and affidavit shall be considered complete and the service authorization issued upon the expiration of the 30th day.

(e) Any authorization issued by the Commission will expire on December 31, 2015 and shall contain or include all of the following:

(1) A grant of authority, including an authorization issued prior to this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, to provide cable service or video service in the service area footprint as requested in the application, subject to the provisions of this Article in existence on the date the grant of authority was issued, and any modifications to this Article enacted at any time prior to the date in Section 21-1601 of this Act, and to the laws of the State and the ordinances, rules, and regulations of the local units of government.

(2) A grant of authority to use, occupy, and construct facilities in the public rights-of-way for the delivery of cable service or video service in the service area footprint, subject to the laws, ordinances, rules, or regulations of this State and local units of governments.

(3) A statement that the grant of authority is subject to lawful operation of the cable service or video service by the applicant, its affiliated entities, or its successors-in-interest.

(4) The Commission shall notify a local unit of government within 3 business days of the grant of any authorization within a service area footprint if that authorization includes any part of the local unit of government's jurisdictional boundaries and state whether the holder will be providing video service or cable service under the authorization.

(f) The authorization issued pursuant to this Section by the Commission may be transferred to any successor-in-interest to the applicant to which it is initially granted without further Commission action if the successor-in-interest (i) submits an application and the information required by subsection (b) of this Section for the successor-in-interest and (ii) is not in violation of this Article or of any federal, State, or local law, ordinance, rule, or regulation. A successor-in-interest shall file its application and notice of transfer with the Commission and the relevant local units of government no less than 15 business days prior to the completion of the transfer. The Commission is not required or authorized to act upon the notice of transfer; however, the transfer is not effective until the Commission approves the successor-in-interest's application. A local unit of government or the Attorney General may seek to bar a transfer of ownership by filing suit in a court of competent jurisdiction predicated on the existence of a material and continuing breach of this Article by the holder, a pattern of noncompliance with customer service standards by the potential successor-in-interest, or the insolvency of the potential successor-in-interest. If a transfer is made when there are violations of this Article or of any federal, State, or local law, ordinance, rule, or regulation, the successor-in-interest shall be subject to 3 times the penalties provided for in this Article.

(g) The authorization issued pursuant to Section 21-401 of this Article by the Commission may be terminated, or its cable service or video service area footprint may be modified, by the cable service provider or video service provider by submitting notice to the Commission and to the relevant local unit of government containing a description of the change on the same terms as the initial description pursuant to item (4) of subsection (b) of this Section. The Commission is not required or authorized to act upon that notice. It shall be a violation of this Article for a holder to discriminate against potential residential subscribers because of the race or income of the residents in the local area in which the group resides by terminating or modifying its cable service or video service area footprint. It shall be a violation of this Article for a holder to terminate or modify its cable service or video service area footprint if it leaves an area with no cable service or video service from any provider.

(h) The Commission's authority to administer this Article is limited to the powers and duties explicitly provided under this Article. Its authority under this Article does not include or limit the powers and duties that the Commission has under the other Articles of this Act, the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, or any other law or regulation to conduct proceedings, other than as provided in subsection (c), or has to promulgate rules or regulations. The Commission shall not have the authority to limit or expand the obligations and requirements provided in this Section or to regulate or control a person or entity to the extent that person or entity is providing cable service or video service, except as provided in this Article.

(Source: P.A. 98-45, eff. 6-28-13; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 370. The Illinois Gas Pipeline Safety Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(220 ILCS 20/2) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 552)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act, unless the context, otherwise requires, the terms specified in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 3 Sections 2.01 through 2.07 have the meanings ascribed to them in those Sections.

(Source: P.A. 76-1588; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 375. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/2) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212)

Sec. 2. Terms used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, have the meanings ascribed to them in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 3 Sections 2.01 through 2.27.

(Source: P.A. 94-586, eff. 8-15-05; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 380. The Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act is amended by changing Section 19 as follows:

(225 ILCS 20/19) (from Ch. 111, par. 6369)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 19. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(1) The Department may refuse to issue, refuse to renew, suspend, or revoke any license, or may place on probation, censure, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action deemed appropriate by the Department, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license issued under the provisions of this Act for any one or a combination of the following reasons:

(a) material misstatements of fact in furnishing information to the Department or to any other State agency or in furnishing information to any insurance company with respect to a claim on behalf of a licensee or a patient;

(b) violations or negligent or intentional disregard of this Act, or any of the rules promulgated hereunder;

(c) conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof or that is a misdemeanor, of which an essential element is dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the practice of the clinical social work or social work professions;

(d) making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licenses, or violating any provision of this Act or any of the rules promulgated hereunder;

(e) professional incompetence;

(f) malpractice;

(g) aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of or this Act or any rules;

(h) failing to provide information within 30 days in response to a written request made by the Department;

(i) engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public as defined by the rules of the Department, or violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Board and published by the Department;

(j) habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in a clinical social worker's or social worker's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(k) discipline by another jurisdiction, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section;

(l) directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for any professional service not actually rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (l) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (l) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered;

(m) a finding by the Board that the licensee, after having the license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation;

(n) abandonment, without cause, of a client;

(o) wilfully filing false reports relating to a licensee's practice, including but not limited to false records filed with Federal or State agencies or departments;

(p) wilfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(q) being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be or failed to take reasonable steps to prevent a child from being an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(r) physical illness, mental illness, or any other impairment or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skills that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety;

(s) solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising; or

(t) violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(2) (Blank).

(3) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, will result in an automatic suspension of his license. Such suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient, and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.

(4) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the license of a person who (i) fails to file a return, pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied or (ii) has failed to pay any court-ordered child support as determined by a court order or by referral from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(5) In enforcing this Section, the Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel a person licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure or certification pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physicians shall be those specifically designated by the Board. The Board or the Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The person to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any person to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of a license until the person submits to the examination if the Board finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Board finds a person unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Board may require that person to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling or treatment, the Board may recommend to the Department to file a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke or otherwise discipline the license of the person. Any person whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the person shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Board.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Board within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Board shall have the authority to review the subject person's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

A person licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 95-687, eff. 10-23-07; 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 385. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 2317)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 17. Acts Constituting the Practice of Dentistry. A person practices dentistry, within the meaning of this Act:

(1) Who represents himself or herself as being able to diagnose or diagnoses, treats, prescribes, or operates for any disease, pain, deformity, deficiency, injury, or physical condition of the human tooth, teeth, alveolar process, gums or jaw; or

(2) Who is a manager, proprietor, operator or conductor of a business where dental operations are performed; or

(3) Who performs dental operations of any kind; or

(4) Who uses an X-Ray machine or X-Ray films for dental diagnostic purposes; or

(5) Who extracts a human tooth or teeth, or corrects or attempts to correct malpositions of the human teeth or jaws; or

(6) Who offers or undertakes, by any means or method, to diagnose, treat or remove stains, calculus, and bonding materials from human teeth or jaws; or

(7) Who uses or administers local or general anesthetics in the treatment of dental or oral diseases or in any preparation incident to a dental operation of any kind or character; or

(8) Who takes impressions of the human tooth, teeth, or jaws or performs any phase of any operation incident to the replacement of a part of a tooth, a tooth, teeth or associated tissues by means of a filling, crown, a bridge, a denture or other appliance; or

(9) Who offers to furnish, supply, construct, reproduce or repair, or who furnishes, supplies, constructs, reproduces or repairs, prosthetic dentures, bridges or other substitutes for natural teeth, to the user or prospective user thereof; or

(10) Who instructs students on clinical matters or performs any clinical operation included in the curricula of recognized dental schools and colleges; or

(11) Who takes impressions of human teeth or places his or her hands in the mouth of any person for the purpose of applying teeth whitening materials, or who takes impressions of human teeth or places his or her hands in the mouth of any person for the purpose of assisting in the application of teeth whitening materials. A person does not practice dentistry when he or she discloses to the consumer that he or she is not licensed as a dentist under this Act and (i) discusses the use of teeth whitening materials with a consumer purchasing these materials; (ii) provides instruction on the use of teeth whitening materials with a consumer purchasing these materials; or (iii) provides appropriate equipment on-site to the consumer for the consumer to self-apply teeth whitening materials.

The fact that any person engages in or performs, or offers to engage in or perform, any of the practices, acts, or operations set forth in this Section, shall be prima facie evidence that such person is engaged in the practice of dentistry.

The following practices, acts, and operations, however, are exempt from the operation of this Act:

(a) The rendering of dental relief in emergency cases in the practice of his or her profession by a physician or surgeon, licensed as such under the laws of this State, unless he or she undertakes to reproduce or reproduces lost parts of the human teeth in the mouth or to restore or replace lost or missing teeth in the mouth; or

(b) The practice of dentistry in the discharge of their official duties by dentists in any branch of the Armed Services of the United States, the United States Public Health Service, or the United States Veterans Administration; or

(c) The practice of dentistry by students in their course of study in dental schools or colleges approved by the Department, when acting under the direction and supervision of dentists acting as instructors; or

(d) The practice of dentistry by clinical instructors in the course of their teaching duties in dental schools or colleges approved by the Department:

(i) when acting under the direction and supervision of dentists, provided that such clinical instructors have instructed continuously in this State since January 1, 1986; or

(ii) when holding the rank of full professor at such approved dental school or college and possessing a current valid license or authorization to practice dentistry in another country; or

(e) The practice of dentistry by licensed dentists of other states or countries at meetings of the Illinois State Dental Society or component parts thereof, alumni meetings of dental colleges, or any other like dental organizations, while appearing as clinicians; or

(f) The use of X-Ray machines for exposing X-Ray films of dental or oral tissues by dental hygienists or dental assistants; or

(g) The performance of any dental service by a dental assistant, if such service is performed under the supervision and full responsibility of a dentist.

For purposes of this paragraph (g), "dental service" is defined to mean any intraoral procedure or act which shall be prescribed by rule or regulation of the Department. Dental service, however, shall not include:

(1) Any and all diagnosis of or prescription for treatment of disease, pain, deformity, deficiency, injury or physical condition of the human teeth or jaws, or adjacent structures.

(2) Removal of, or restoration of, or addition to the hard or soft tissues of the oral cavity, except for the placing, carving, and finishing of amalgam restorations by dental assistants who have had additional formal education and certification as determined by the Department. A dentist utilizing dental assistants shall not supervise more than 4 dental assistants at any one time for placing, carving, and finishing of amalgam restorations.

(3) Any and all correction of malformation of teeth or of the jaws.

(4) Administration of anesthetics, except for monitoring of nitrous oxide, conscious sedation, deep sedation, and general anesthetic as provided in Section 8.1 of this Act, that may be performed only after successful completion of a training program approved by the Department. A dentist utilizing dental assistants shall not supervise more than 4 dental assistants at any one time for the monitoring of nitrous oxide.

(5) Removal of calculus from human teeth.

(6) Taking of impressions for the fabrication of prosthetic appliances, crowns, bridges, inlays, onlays, or other restorative or replacement dentistry.

(7) The operative procedure of dental hygiene consisting of oral prophylactic procedures, except for coronal polishing and pit and fissure sealants, which may be performed by a dental assistant who has successfully completed a training program approved by the Department. Dental assistants may perform coronal polishing under the following circumstances: (i) the coronal polishing shall be limited to polishing the clinical crown of the tooth and existing restorations, supragingivally; (ii) the dental assistant performing the coronal polishing shall be limited to the use of rotary instruments using a rubber cup or brush polishing method (air polishing is not permitted); and (iii) the supervising dentist shall not supervise more than 4 dental assistants at any one time for the task of coronal polishing or pit and fissure sealants.

The limitations on the number of dental assistants a dentist may supervise contained in items (2), (4), and (7) of this paragraph (g) Section mean a limit of 4 total dental assistants or dental hygienists doing expanded functions covered by these Sections being supervised by one dentist.

(h) The practice of dentistry by an individual who:

(i) has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a general dental license and has complied with all provisions of Section 9 of this Act, except for the passage of the examination specified in subsection (e), of Section 9, of this Act; or

(ii) has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a temporary dental license and has complied with all provisions of subsection (c), of Section 11, of this Act; and

(iii) has been accepted or appointed for specialty or residency training by a hospital situated in this State; or

(iv) has been accepted or appointed for specialty training in an approved dental program situated in this State; or

(v) has been accepted or appointed for specialty training in a dental public health agency situated in this State.

The applicant shall be permitted to practice dentistry for a period of 3 months from the starting date of the program, unless authorized in writing by the Department to continue such practice for a period specified in writing by the Department.

The applicant shall only be entitled to perform such acts as may be prescribed by and incidental to his or her program of residency or specialty training and shall not otherwise engage in the practice of dentistry in this State.

The authority to practice shall terminate immediately upon:

(1) the decision of the Department that the applicant has failed the examination; or

(2) denial of licensure by the Department; or

(3) withdrawal of the application.

(Source: P.A. 97-526, eff. 1-1-12; 97-886, eff. 8-2-12; 97-1013, eff. 8-17-12; 98-147, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 390. The Dietitian Nutritionist Practice Act is amended by changing Section 95 as follows:

(225 ILCS 30/95) (from Ch. 111, par. 8401-95)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.

(1) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license or certificate for any one or combination of the following causes:

(a) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(b) Violations of this Act or of rules adopted under this Act.

(c) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(d) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(e) Professional incompetence or gross negligence.

(f) Malpractice.

(g) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(h) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(i) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(j) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(k) Discipline by another state, the District of Columbia, territory, country, or governmental agency if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act.

(l) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (1) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (1) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(m) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(n) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(o) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

(p) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(q) Gross and willful overcharging for professional services.

(r) (Blank).

(s) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(t) Cheating on or attempting to subvert a licensing examination administered under this Act.

(u) Mental illness or disability that results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(v) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill that results in a licensee's inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(w) Advising an individual to discontinue, reduce, increase, or otherwise alter the intake of a drug prescribed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or by a prescriber as defined in Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Substance Act.

(2) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a return, or pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(3) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(4) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 1205-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(5) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension shall end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient.

(6) In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

A person holding a license under this Act or who has applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, then the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 97-1141, eff. 12-28-12; 98-148, eff. 8-2-13; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 395. The Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code is amended by changing Sections 5-5, 10-5, and 15-75 as follows:

(225 ILCS 41/5-5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 5-5. License requirement. It is unlawful for any person to practice, or to attempt to practice, funeral directing without a license as a funeral director issued by the Department.

No person shall practice funeral directing unless he or she is they are employed by or contracted with a fixed place of practice or establishment devoted to the care and preparation for burial or for the transportation of deceased human bodies.

No person shall practice funeral directing independently at the fixed place of practice or establishment of another licensee unless that person's name is published and displayed at all times in connection therewith.

(Source: P.A. 97-1130, eff. 8-28-12; revised 11-14-13.)

(225 ILCS 41/10-5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 10-5. License requirement. It is unlawful for any person to practice or attempt to practice funeral directing and embalming without being licensed by the Department.

No person shall practice funeral directing and embalming unless he or she is they are employed by or contracted with a fixed place of practice or establishment devoted to the care and preparation for burial or for the transportation of deceased human bodies.

No person shall practice funeral directing and embalming independently at the fixed place of practice or establishment of another licensee unless his or her name shall be published and displayed at all times in connection therewith.

No licensed intern shall independently practice funeral directing and embalming; however, a licensed funeral director and embalmer intern may under the immediate personal supervision of a licensed funeral director and embalmer assist a licensed funeral director and embalmer in the practice of funeral directing and embalming.

No person shall practice as a funeral director and embalmer intern unless he or she possesses a valid license in good standing to do so in the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 97-1130, eff. 8-28-12; revised 11-14-13.)

(225 ILCS 41/15-75)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 15-75. Violations; grounds for discipline; penalties.

(a) Each of the following acts is a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense, and a Class 4 felony for each subsequent offense. These penalties shall also apply to unlicensed owners of funeral homes.

(1) Practicing the profession of funeral directing and embalming or funeral directing, or attempting to practice the profession of funeral directing and embalming or funeral directing without a license as a funeral director and embalmer or funeral director.

(2) Serving or attempting to serve as an intern under a licensed funeral director and embalmer without a license as a licensed funeral director and embalmer intern.

(3) Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license, practice or business, or any other thing of value, by fraud or misrepresentation.

(4) Permitting any person in one's employ, under one's control or in or under one's service to serve as a funeral director and embalmer, funeral director, or funeral director and embalmer intern when the person does not have the appropriate license.

(5) Failing to display a license as required by this Code.

(6) Giving false information or making a false oath or affidavit required by this Code.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, revoke, suspend, place on probation or administrative supervision, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license under the Code for any one or combination of the following:

(1) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Code or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Code.

(2) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(3) Violation of the laws of this State relating to the funeral, burial or disposition of deceased human bodies or of the rules and regulations of the Department, or the Department of Public Health.

(4) Directly or indirectly paying or causing to be paid any sum of money or other valuable consideration for the securing of business or for obtaining authority to dispose of any deceased human body.

(5) Professional incompetence, gross negligence, malpractice, or untrustworthiness in the practice of funeral directing and embalming or funeral directing.

(6) (Blank).

(7) Engaging in, promoting, selling, or issuing burial contracts, burial certificates, or burial insurance policies in connection with the profession as a funeral director and embalmer, funeral director, or funeral director and embalmer intern in violation of any laws of the State of Illinois.

(8) Refusing, without cause, to surrender the custody of a deceased human body upon the proper request of the person or persons lawfully entitled to the custody of the body.

(9) Taking undue advantage of a client or clients as to amount to the perpetration of fraud.

(10) Engaging in funeral directing and embalming or funeral directing without a license.

(11) Encouraging, requesting, or suggesting by a licensee or some person working on his behalf and with his consent for compensation that a person utilize the services of a certain funeral director and embalmer, funeral director, or funeral establishment unless that information has been expressly requested by the person. This does not prohibit general advertising or pre-need solicitation.

(12) Making or causing to be made any false or misleading statements about the laws concerning the disposition of human remains, including, but not limited to, the need to embalm, the need for a casket for cremation or the need for an outer burial container.

(13) (Blank).

(14) Embalming or attempting to embalm a deceased human body without express prior authorization of the person responsible for making the funeral arrangements for the body. This does not apply to cases where embalming is directed by local authorities who have jurisdiction or when embalming is required by State or local law. A licensee may embalm without express prior authorization if a good faith effort has been made to contact family members and has been unsuccessful and the licensee has no reason to believe the family opposes embalming.

(15) Making a false statement on a Certificate of Death where the person making the statement knew or should have known that the statement was false.

(16) Soliciting human bodies after death or while death is imminent.

(17) Performing any act or practice that is a violation of this Code, the rules for the administration of this Code, or any federal, State or local laws, rules, or regulations governing the practice of funeral directing or embalming.

(18) Performing any act or practice that is a violation of Section 2 of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act.

(19) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(20) Taking possession of a dead human body without having first obtained express permission from the person holding the right to control the disposition in accordance with Section 5 of the Disposition of Remains Act or a public agency legally authorized to direct, control or permit the removal of deceased human bodies.

(21) Advertising in a false or misleading manner or advertising using the name of an unlicensed person in connection with any service being rendered in the practice of funeral directing or funeral directing and embalming. The use of any name of an unlicensed or unregistered person in an advertisement so as to imply that the person will perform services is considered misleading advertising. Nothing in this paragraph shall prevent including the name of any owner, officer or corporate director of a funeral home, who is not a licensee, in any advertisement used by a funeral home with which the individual is affiliated, if the advertisement specifies the individual's affiliation with the funeral home.

(22) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(23) Failing to account for or remit any monies, documents, or personal property that belongs to others that comes into a licensee's possession.

(24) Treating any person differently to his detriment because of race, color, creed, gender, religion, or national origin.

(25) Knowingly making any false statements, oral or otherwise, of a character likely to influence, persuade or induce others in the course of performing professional services or activities.

(26) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice of funeral directing and embalming, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(27) Failing to acquire continuing education required under this Code.

(28) (Blank).

(29) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Code or rules adopted pursuant to this Code.

(30) Failing within 10 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(31) Discipline by another state, District of Columbia, territory, foreign nation, or governmental agency, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(32) (Blank).

(33) Mental illness or disability which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(34) Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(35) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill which results in a licensee's inability to practice under this Code with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(36) Failing to comply with any of the following required activities:

(A) When reasonably possible, a funeral director licensee or funeral director and embalmer licensee or anyone acting on his or her behalf shall obtain the express authorization of the person or persons responsible for making the funeral arrangements for a deceased human body prior to removing a body from the place of death or any place it may be or embalming or attempting to embalm a deceased human body, unless required by State or local law. This requirement is waived whenever removal or embalming is directed by local authorities who have jurisdiction. If the responsibility for the handling of the remains lawfully falls under the jurisdiction of a public agency, then the regulations of the public agency shall prevail.

(B) A licensee shall clearly mark the price of any casket offered for sale or the price of any service using the casket on or in the casket if the casket is displayed at the funeral establishment. If the casket is displayed at any other location, regardless of whether the licensee is in control of that location, the casket shall be clearly marked and the registrant shall use books, catalogues, brochures, or other printed display aids to show the price of each casket or service.

(C) At the time funeral arrangements are made and prior to rendering the funeral services, a licensee shall furnish a written statement of services to be retained by the person or persons making the funeral arrangements, signed by both parties, that shall contain: (i) the name, address and telephone number of the funeral establishment and the date on which the arrangements were made; (ii) the price of the service selected and the services and merchandise included for that price; (iii) a clear disclosure that the person or persons making the arrangement may decline and receive credit for any service or merchandise not desired and not required by law or the funeral director or the funeral director and embalmer; (iv) the supplemental items of service and merchandise requested and the price of each item; (v) the terms or method of payment agreed upon; and (vi) a statement as to any monetary advances made by the registrant on behalf of the family. The licensee shall maintain a copy of the written statement of services in its permanent records. All written statements of services are subject to inspection by the Department.

(D) In all instances where the place of final disposition of a deceased human body or the cremated remains of a deceased human body is a cemetery, the licensed funeral director and embalmer, or licensed funeral director, who has been engaged to provide funeral or embalming services shall remain at the cemetery and personally witness the placement of the human remains in their designated grave or the sealing of the above ground depository, crypt, or urn. The licensed funeral director or licensed funeral director and embalmer may designate a licensed funeral director and embalmer intern or representative of the funeral home to be his or her witness to the placement of the remains. If the cemetery authority, cemetery manager, or any other agent of the cemetery takes any action that prevents compliance with this paragraph (D), then the funeral director and embalmer or funeral director shall provide written notice to the Department within 5 business days after failing to comply. If the Department receives this notice, then the Department shall not take any disciplinary action against the funeral director and embalmer or funeral director for a violation of this paragraph (D) unless the Department finds that the cemetery authority, manager, or any other agent of the cemetery did not prevent the funeral director and embalmer or funeral director from complying with this paragraph (D) as claimed in the written notice.

(E) A funeral director or funeral director and embalmer shall fully complete the portion of the Certificate of Death under the responsibility of the funeral director or funeral director and embalmer and provide all required information. In the event that any reported information subsequently changes or proves incorrect, a funeral director or funeral director and embalmer shall immediately upon learning the correct information correct the Certificate of Death.

(37) A finding by the Department that the license, after having his or her license placed on probationary status or subjected to conditions or restrictions, violated the terms of the probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(38) (Blank).

(39) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and, upon proof by clear and convincing evidence, being found to have caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(40) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(41) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(42) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Code.

(c) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend without a hearing, as provided for in the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until the time as the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) No action may be taken under this Code against a person licensed under this Code unless the action is commenced within 5 years after the occurrence of the alleged violations. A continuing violation shall be deemed to have occurred on the date when the circumstances last existed that give rise to the alleged violation.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed or enforced to give a funeral director and embalmer, or his or her designees, authority over the operation of a cemetery or over cemetery employees. Nothing in this Section shall be construed or enforced to impose duties or penalties on cemeteries with respect to the timing of the placement of human remains in their designated grave or the sealing of the above ground depository, crypt, or urn due to patron safety, the allocation of cemetery staffing, liability insurance, a collective bargaining agreement, or other such reasons.

(f) All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine.

(g) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Code to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(h) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 1205-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(i) A person not licensed under this Code who is an owner of a funeral establishment or funeral business shall not aid, abet, assist, procure, advise, employ, or contract with any unlicensed person to offer funeral services or aid, abet, assist, or direct any licensed person contrary to or in violation of any rules or provisions of this Code. A person violating this subsection shall be treated as a licensee for the purposes of disciplinary action under this Section and shall be subject to cease and desist orders as provided in this Code, the imposition of a fine up to $10,000 for each violation and any other penalty provided by law.

(j) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension may end only upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to the involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the licensee, and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(k) In enforcing this Code, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Code, or who has applied for licensure under this Code, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physician shall be specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

A person holding a license under this Code or who has applied for a license under this Code who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Code and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 96-1463, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1130, eff. 8-28-12; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 400. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is amended by changing Section 70 as follows:

(225 ILCS 46/70)

Sec. 70. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMMS) grant.

(a) In this Section:

"Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMMS) grant" means the grant awarded to and distributed by the Department of Public Health to enhance the conduct of criminal history records checks of certain health care employees. The CMMS grant is authorized by Section 307 of the federal Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003, which establishes the framework for a program to evaluate national and state background checks on prospective employees with direct access to patients of long-term care facilities or providers.

"Selected health care employer" means any of the following selected to participate in the CMMS grant:

(1) a community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facility Act;

(2) a long-term care facility as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act;

(3) a home health agency as defined in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act;

(4) a full hospice as defined in the Hospice Licensing Act;

(5) an establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act;

(6) a supportive living facility as defined in the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(7) a day training program certified by the Department of Human Services;

(8) a community integrated living arrangement operated by a community mental health and developmental service agency as defined in the Community-Integrated Community Integrated Living Arrangements Licensing and Certification Act; or

(9) a long-term care hospital or hospital with swing beds.

(b) Selected health care employers shall be phased in to participate in the CMMS grant between January 1, 2006 and January 1, 2007, as prescribed by the Department of Public Health by rule.

(c) With regards to individuals hired on or after January 1, 2006 who have direct access to residents, patients, or clients of the selected health care employer, selected health care employers must comply with Section 25 of this Act.

"Individuals who have direct access" includes, but is not limited to, (i) direct care workers as described in subsection (a) of Section 25; (ii) individuals licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, such as nurses, social workers, physical therapists, occupational therapists, and pharmacists; (iii) individuals who provide services on site, through contract; and (iv) non-direct care workers, such as those who work in environmental services, food service, and administration.

"Individuals who have direct access" does not include physicians or volunteers.

The Department of Public Health may further define "individuals who have direct access" by rule.

(d) Each applicant seeking employment in a position described in subsection (c) of this Section with a selected health care employer shall, as a condition of employment, have his or her fingerprints submitted to the Department of State Police in an electronic format that complies with the form and manner for requesting and furnishing criminal history record information by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases now and hereafter filed. The Department of State Police shall forward the fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a national criminal history records check. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check and shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The Department of State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, records of Illinois convictions to the Department of Public Health.

(e) A selected health care employer who makes a conditional offer of employment to an applicant shall:

(1) ensure that the applicant has complied with the fingerprinting requirements of this Section;

(2) complete documentation relating to any criminal history record, as revealed by the applicant, as prescribed by rule by the Department of Public Health;

(3) complete documentation of the applicant's personal identifiers as prescribed by rule by the Department of Public Health; and

(4) provide supervision, as prescribed by rule by the licensing agency, if the applicant is hired and allowed to work prior to the results of the criminal history records check being obtained.

(f) A selected health care employer having actual knowledge from a source that an individual with direct access to a resident, patient, or client has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one of the offenses enumerated in Section 25 of this Act shall contact the licensing agency or follow other instructions as prescribed by administrative rule.

(g) A fingerprint-based criminal history records check submitted in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section must be submitted as a fee applicant inquiry in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.

(h) This Section shall be inapplicable upon the conclusion of the CMMS grant.

(Source: P.A. 94-665, eff. 1-1-06; 94-931, eff. 6-26-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 405. The Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act is amended by changing Section 31 as follows:

(225 ILCS 50/31) (from Ch. 111, par. 7431)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 31. The provisions of "The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act", approved September 22, 1975, as amended, shall apply to this Act. All final administrative decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review pursuant to the provisions of Article III 3 of the "Code of Civil Procedure", approved August 19, 1981, as amended. Any circuit court, upon the application of the licensee or the Department, may order the attendance of witnesses and the production of relevant records in any Departmental hearing relative to the application for or refusal, recall, suspension or revocation of a license.

(Source: P.A. 86-800; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 410. The Massage Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(225 ILCS 57/45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 45. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action, as the Department considers appropriate, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license or licensee for any one or more of the following:

(1) violations of this Act or of the rules adopted under this Act;

(2) conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession;

(3) professional incompetence;

(4) advertising in a false, deceptive, or misleading manner;

(5) aiding, abetting, assisting, procuring, advising, employing, or contracting with any unlicensed person to practice massage contrary to any rules or provisions of this Act;

(6) engaging in immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice;

(7) engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(8) practicing or offering to practice beyond the scope permitted by law or accepting and performing professional responsibilities which the licensee knows or has reason to know that he or she is not competent to perform;

(9) knowingly delegating professional responsibilities to a person unqualified by training, experience, or licensure to perform;

(10) failing to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department within 60 days;

(11) having a habitual or excessive use of or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(12) having a pattern of practice or other behavior that demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act;

(13) discipline by another state, District of Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section;

(14) a finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation;

(15) willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments;

(16) making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or otherwise making misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations in violation of this Act or otherwise in the practice of the profession;

(17) fraud or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act;

(18) inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, loss of motor skill, or a mental illness or disability;

(19) charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered;

(20) practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name; or

(21) cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Act.

All fines shall be paid within 60 days of the effective date of the order imposing the fine.

(b) A person not licensed under this Act and engaged in the business of offering massage therapy services through others, shall not aid, abet, assist, procure, advise, employ, or contract with any unlicensed person to practice massage therapy contrary to any rules or provisions of this Act. A person violating this subsection (b) shall be treated as a licensee for the purposes of disciplinary action under this Section and shall be subject to cease and desist orders as provided in Section 90 of this Act.

(c) The Department shall revoke any license issued under this Act of any person who is convicted of prostitution, rape, sexual misconduct, or any crime that subjects the licensee to compliance with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act and any such conviction shall operate as a permanent bar in the State of Illinois to practice as a massage therapist.

(d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a tax return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed tax return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(g) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of a court order so finding and discharging the patient.

(h) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

A person holding a license under this Act or who has applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 97-514, eff. 8-23-11; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 415. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Section 65-35 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/65-35) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-35. Written collaborative agreements.

(a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all advanced practice nurses engaged in clinical practice, except for advanced practice nurses who are authorized to practice in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(a-5) If an advanced practice nurse engages in clinical practice outside of a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center in which he or she is authorized to practice, the advanced practice nurse must have a written collaborative agreement.

(b) A written collaborative agreement shall describe the working relationship of the advanced practice nurse with the collaborating physician or podiatric physician and shall authorize the categories of care, treatment, or procedures to be performed by the advanced practice nurse. A collaborative agreement with a dentist must be in accordance with subsection (c-10) of this Section. Collaboration does not require an employment relationship between the collaborating physician and advanced practice nurse. Collaboration means the relationship under which an advanced practice nurse works with a collaborating physician or podiatric physician in an active clinical practice to deliver health care services in accordance with (i) the advanced practice nurse's training, education, and experience and (ii) collaboration and consultation as documented in a jointly developed written collaborative agreement.

The agreement shall promote the exercise of professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse commensurate with his or her education and experience. The services to be provided by the advanced practice nurse shall be services that the collaborating physician or podiatric physician is authorized to and generally provides or may provide in his or her clinical medical or podiatric practice, except as set forth in subsection subsections (b-5) or (c-5) of this Section. The agreement need not describe the exact steps that an advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each specific condition, disease, or symptom but must specify which authorized procedures require the presence of the collaborating physician or podiatric physician as the procedures are being performed. The collaborative relationship under an agreement shall not be construed to require the personal presence of a physician or podiatric physician at the place where services are rendered. Methods of communication shall be available for consultation with the collaborating physician or podiatric physician in person or by telecommunications in accordance with established written guidelines as set forth in the written agreement.

(b-5) Absent an employment relationship, a written collaborative agreement may not (1) restrict the categories of patients of an advanced practice nurse within the scope of the advanced practice nurses training and experience, (2) limit third party payors or government health programs, such as the medical assistance program or Medicare with which the advanced practice nurse contracts, or (3) limit the geographic area or practice location of the advanced practice nurse in this State.

(c) Collaboration and consultation under all collaboration agreements shall be adequate if a collaborating physician or podiatric physician does each of the following:

(1) Participates in the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or guidelines with the advanced practice nurse and he or she periodically reviews such orders and the services provided patients under such orders in accordance with accepted standards of medical practice or podiatric practice and advanced practice nursing practice.

(2) Provides collaboration and consultation with the advanced practice nurse at least once a month. In the case of anesthesia services provided by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, a physician, a dentist, or a podiatric physician must participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and remain physically present and available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions.

(3) Is available through telecommunications for consultation on medical problems, complications, or emergencies or patient referral. In the case of anesthesia services provided by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, a physician, a dentist, or a podiatric physician must participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and remain physically present and available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions.

The agreement must contain provisions detailing notice for termination or change of status involving a written collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given for just cause.

(c-5) A certified registered nurse anesthetist, who provides anesthesia services outside of a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center shall enter into a written collaborative agreement with an anesthesiologist or the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or the podiatric physician performing the procedure. Outside of a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may provide only those services that the collaborating podiatric physician is authorized to provide pursuant to the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 and rules adopted thereunder. A certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication, including controlled substances, and apply appropriate medical devices for delivery of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or the operating physician or operating podiatric physician.

(c-10) A certified registered nurse anesthetist who provides anesthesia services in a dental office shall enter into a written collaborative agreement with an anesthesiologist or the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or the operating dentist performing the procedure. The agreement shall describe the working relationship of the certified registered nurse anesthetist and dentist and shall authorize the categories of care, treatment, or procedures to be performed by the certified registered nurse anesthetist. In a collaborating dentist's office, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may only provide those services that the operating dentist with the appropriate permit is authorized to provide pursuant to the Illinois Dental Practice Act and rules adopted thereunder. For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist, physician, or operating dentist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. A certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication, including controlled substances, and apply appropriate medical devices for delivery of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the operating dentist.

(d) A copy of the signed, written collaborative agreement must be available to the Department upon request from both the advanced practice nurse and the collaborating physician or podiatric physician.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons in accordance with Section 54.2 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders.

(f) An advanced practice nurse shall inform each collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician of all collaborative agreements he or she has signed and provide a copy of these to any collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician upon request.

(g) For the purposes of this Act, "generally provides or may provide in his or her clinical medical practice" means categories of care or treatment, not specific tasks or duties, the physician podiatric physician provides individually or through delegation to other persons so that the physician podiatric physician has the experience and ability to provide collaboration and consultation. This definition shall not be construed to prohibit an advanced practice nurse from providing primary health treatment or care within the scope of his or her training and experience, including, but not limited to, health screenings, patient histories, physical examinations, women's health examinations, or school physicals that may be provided as part of the routine practice of an advanced practice nurse or on a volunteer basis.

For the purposes of this Act, "generally provides or may provide in to his or her patients in the normal course of his or her clinical podiatric practice" means services, not specific tasks or duties, that the podiatric physician podiatrist routinely provides individually or through delegation to other persons so that the podiatric physician podiatrist has the experience and ability to provide collaboration and consultation.

(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 98-192, eff. 1-1-14; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 420. The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 3.1, 15, 19, and 21 as follows:

(225 ILCS 75/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 3703)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 3. Licensure requirement; exempt activities. After the effective date of this Act, no person shall practice occupational therapy or hold himself out as an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant, or as being able to practice occupational therapy or to render services designated as occupational therapy in this State, unless he is licensed in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed as preventing or restricting the practice, services, or activities of:

(1) Any person licensed in this State by any other law from engaging in the profession or occupation for which he is licensed; or

(2) Any person employed as an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant by the Government of the United States, if such person provides occupational therapy solely under the direction or control of the organization by which he or she is employed; or

(3) Any person pursuing a course of study leading to a degree or certificate in occupational therapy at an accredited or approved educational program if such activities and services constitute a part of a supervised course of study, and if such person is designated by a title which clearly indicates his or her status as a student or trainee; or

(4) Any person fulfilling the supervised work experience requirements of Sections 8 and 9 of this Act, if such activities and services constitute a part of the experience necessary to meet the requirement of those Sections; or

(5) Any person performing occupational therapy services in the State, if such a person is not a resident of this State and is not licensed under this Act, and if such services are performed for no more than 60 days a calendar year in association with an occupational therapist licensed under this Act and if such person meets the qualifications for license under this Act and:

(i) such person is licensed under the law of another state which has licensure requirements at least as restrictive as the requirements of this Act, or

(ii) such person meets the requirements for certification as an Occupational Therapist Registered (O.T.R.) or a Certified Occupational Therapy Assistant (C.O.T.A.) established by the National Board for Certification of Occupational Therapy or another nationally recognized credentialing body approved by the Board; or

(6) The practice of occupational therapy by one who has applied in writing to the Department for a license, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, and has complied with all the provisions of either Section 8 or 9 except the passing of the examination to be eligible to receive such license. In no event shall this exemption extend to any person for longer than 6 months, except as follows:

(i) if the date on which a person can take the next available examination authorized by the Department extends beyond 6 months from the date the person completes the occupational therapy program as required under Section 8 or 9, the Department shall extend the exemption until the results of that examination become available to the Department; or

(ii) if the Department is unable to complete its evaluation and processing of a person's application for a license within 6 months after the date on which the application is submitted to the Department in proper form, the Department shall extend the exemption until the Department has completed its evaluation and processing of the application.

In the event such applicant fails the examination, the applicant shall cease work immediately until such time as the applicant is licensed to practice occupational therapy in this State; or .

(7) The practice of occupational therapy by one who has applied to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, and who is licensed to practice occupational therapy under the laws of another state, territory of the United States or country and who is qualified to receive a license under the provisions of either Section 8 or 9 of this Act. In no event shall this exemption extend to any person for longer than 6 months; or .

(8) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; revised 11-14-13.)

(225 ILCS 75/3.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 3.1. Referrals.

(a) A licensed occupational therapist or licensed occupational therapy assistant may consult with, educate, evaluate, and monitor services for individuals, groups, and populations concerning occupational therapy needs. Except as indicated in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, implementation of direct occupational therapy treatment to individuals for their specific health care conditions shall be based upon a referral from a licensed physician, dentist, podiatric physician, or advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician to provide or accept referrals from licensed occupational therapists, physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide or accept referrals from or to licensed occupational therapists, or optometrist.

(b) A referral is not required for the purpose of providing consultation, habilitation, screening, education, wellness, prevention, environmental assessments, and work-related ergonomic services to individuals, groups, or populations.

(c) Referral from a physician or other health care provider is not required for evaluation or intervention for children and youths if an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant provides services in a school-based or educational environment, including the child's home.

(d) An occupational therapist shall refer to a licensed physician, dentist, optometrist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician any patient whose medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the occupational therapist.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; revised 9-9-13.)

(225 ILCS 75/15) (from Ch. 111, par. 3715)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 15. Any person who is issued a license as an occupational therapist registered under the terms of this Act may use the words "occupational therapist" or "licensed occupational therapist", or may use the letters "O.T.", "OT/L", or "OTR/L", in connection with his or her name or place of business to denote his or her licensure under this Act.

Any person who is issued a license as an a occupational therapy assistant under the terms of this Act may use the words, "occupational therapy assistant" or "licensed occupational therapy assistant", or he or she may use the letters "O.T.A.", "OTA/L", or "COTA/L" in connection with his or her name or place of business to denote his or her licensure under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(225 ILCS 75/19) (from Ch. 111, par. 3719)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 19. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation and the assessment of costs as provided under Section 19.3 of this Act, with regard to any license for any one or combination of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department;

(2) Violations of this Act, or of the rules promulgated thereunder;

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession;

(4) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act, or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act;

(5) Professional incompetence;

(6) Aiding or assisting another person, firm, partnership or corporation in violating any provision of this Act or rules;

(7) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department;

(8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public;

(9) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(10) Discipline by another state, unit of government, government agency, the District of Columbia, a territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein;

(11) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (11) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (11) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered;

(12) A finding by the Department that the license holder, after having his license disciplined, has violated the terms of the discipline;

(13) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice of occupational therapy, including but not limited to false records filed with the State agencies or departments;

(14) Physical illness, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(15) Solicitation of professional services other than by permitted advertising;

(16) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act;

(17) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, assumed name;

(18) Professional incompetence or gross negligence;

(19) Malpractice;

(20) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in any manner to exploit the client for financial gain of the licensee;

(21) Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for professional services;

(22) Mental illness or disability that results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(23) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act;

(24) Having treated patients other than by the practice of occupational therapy as defined in this Act, or having treated patients as a licensed occupational therapist independent of a referral from a physician, advanced practice nurse or physician assistant in accordance with Section 3.1, dentist, podiatric physician, or optometrist, or having failed to notify the physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, dentist, podiatric physician, or optometrist who established a diagnosis that the patient is receiving occupational therapy pursuant to that diagnosis;

(25) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Act; and

(26) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(b) The determination by a circuit court that a license holder is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as now or hereafter amended, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and an order by the court so finding and discharging the patient. In any case where a license is suspended under this provision, the licensee shall file a petition for restoration and shall include evidence acceptable to the Department that the licensee can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of their profession.

(c) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual who is licensed under this Act or any individual who has applied for licensure to submit to a mental or physical examination or evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, at the expense of the Department. The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the licensee or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination.

Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination or evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Department finds a licensee unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department shall require the licensee to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure.

When the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the licensee's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

Individuals licensed under this Act that are affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their license.

(e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; revised 9-24-13.)

(225 ILCS 75/21) (from Ch. 111, par. 3737)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 21. Home rule. The regulation and licensing as an a occupational therapist are exclusive powers and functions of the State. A home rule unit may not regulate or license an occupational therapist or the practice of occupational therapy. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 425. The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act is amended by changing Section 90 as follows:

(225 ILCS 84/90)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 90. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, or may revoke or suspend a license, or may suspend, place on probation, or reprimand a licensee or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including, but not limited to, the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation for one or any combination of the following:

(1) Making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or the Board.

(2) Violations of or negligent or intentional disregard of this Act or its rules.

(3) Conviction of, or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof or that is a misdemeanor of which an essential element is dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making a misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license.

(5) A pattern of practice or other behavior that demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(6) Gross negligence under this Act.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating a provision of this Act or its rules.

(8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct or conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(10) Inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug.

(11) Discipline by another state or territory of the United States, the federal government, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to one set forth in this Section.

(12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (12) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (12) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(13) A finding by the Board that the licensee or registrant, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(14) Abandonment of a patient or client.

(15) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(16) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(17) Inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of a physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, or a mental illness or disability.

(18) Solicitation of professional services using false or misleading advertising.

(b) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel a licensee or applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for the immediate suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause as defined by rule.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license for his or her failure to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay.

In instances in which the Secretary otherwise suspends a person's license pursuant to the results of a compelled mental or physical examination, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with subsection (a)(5) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15).

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with subsection (a)(5) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15).

(e) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, or may revoke or suspend a license, for failure to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15).

(Source: P.A. 96-682, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 430. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/3)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act, except where otherwise limited therein:

(a) "Pharmacy" or "drugstore" means and includes every store, shop, pharmacy department, or other place where pharmacist care is provided by a pharmacist (1) where drugs, medicines, or poisons are dispensed, sold or offered for sale at retail, or displayed for sale at retail; or (2) where prescriptions of physicians, dentists, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, veterinarians, podiatric physicians, or optometrists, within the limits of their licenses, are compounded, filled, or dispensed; or (3) which has upon it or displayed within it, or affixed to or used in connection with it, a sign bearing the word or words "Pharmacist", "Druggist", "Pharmacy", "Pharmaceutical Care", "Apothecary", "Drugstore", "Medicine Store", "Prescriptions", "Drugs", "Dispensary", "Medicines", or any word or words of similar or like import, either in the English language or any other language; or (4) where the characteristic prescription sign (Rx) or similar design is exhibited; or (5) any store, or shop, or other place with respect to which any of the above words, objects, signs or designs are used in any advertisement.

(b) "Drugs" means and includes (l) articles recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), or any supplement thereto and being intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (2) all other articles intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (3) articles (other than food) having for their main use and intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals; and (4) articles having for their main use and intended for use as a component or any articles specified in clause (l), (2) or (3); but does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.

(c) "Medicines" means and includes all drugs intended for human or veterinary use approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(d) "Practice of pharmacy" means (1) the interpretation and the provision of assistance in the monitoring, evaluation, and implementation of prescription drug orders; (2) the dispensing of prescription drug orders; (3) participation in drug and device selection; (4) drug administration limited to the administration of oral, topical, injectable, and inhalation as follows: in the context of patient education on the proper use or delivery of medications; vaccination of patients 14 years of age and older pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (5) vaccination of patients ages 10 through 13 limited to the Influenza (inactivated influenza vaccine and live attenuated influenza intranasal vaccine) and Tdap (defined as tetanus, diphtheria, acellular pertussis) vaccines, pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (6) drug regimen review; (7) drug or drug-related research; (8) the provision of patient counseling; (9) the practice of telepharmacy; (10) the provision of those acts or services necessary to provide pharmacist care; (11) medication therapy management; and (12) the responsibility for compounding and labeling of drugs and devices (except labeling by a manufacturer, repackager, or distributor of non-prescription drugs and commercially packaged legend drugs and devices), proper and safe storage of drugs and devices, and maintenance of required records. A pharmacist who performs any of the acts defined as the practice of pharmacy in this State must be actively licensed as a pharmacist under this Act.

(e) "Prescription" means and includes any written, oral, facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for drugs or medical devices, issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, or podiatric physician, or optometrist, within the limits of their licenses, by a physician assistant in accordance with subsection (f) of Section 4, or by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 4, containing the following: (l) name of the patient; (2) date when prescription was issued; (3) name and strength of drug or description of the medical device prescribed; and (4) quantity; (5) directions for use; (6) prescriber's name, address, and signature; and (7) DEA number where required, for controlled substances. The prescription may, but is not required to, list the illness, disease, or condition for which the drug or device is being prescribed. DEA numbers shall not be required on inpatient drug orders.

(f) "Person" means and includes a natural person, copartnership, association, corporation, government entity, or any other legal entity.

(g) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(h) "Board of Pharmacy" or "Board" means the State Board of Pharmacy of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(i) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(j) "Drug product selection" means the interchange for a prescribed pharmaceutical product in accordance with Section 25 of this Act and Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.

(k) "Inpatient drug order" means an order issued by an authorized prescriber for a resident or patient of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Hospital Licensing Act, or "An Act in relation to the founding and operation of the University of Illinois Hospital and the conduct of University of Illinois health care programs", approved July 3, 1931, as amended, or a facility which is operated by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) or the Department of Corrections.

(k-5) "Pharmacist" means an individual health care professional and provider currently licensed by this State to engage in the practice of pharmacy.

(l) "Pharmacist in charge" means the licensed pharmacist whose name appears on a pharmacy license and who is responsible for all aspects of the operation related to the practice of pharmacy.

(m) "Dispense" or "dispensing" means the interpretation, evaluation, and implementation of a prescription drug order, including the preparation and delivery of a drug or device to a patient or patient's agent in a suitable container appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal laws and regulations. "Dispense" or "dispensing" does not mean the physical delivery to a patient or a patient's representative in a home or institution by a designee of a pharmacist or by common carrier. "Dispense" or "dispensing" also does not mean the physical delivery of a drug or medical device to a patient or patient's representative by a pharmacist's designee within a pharmacy or drugstore while the pharmacist is on duty and the pharmacy is open.

(n) "Nonresident pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States, other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses, or distributes, through the United States Postal Service, commercially acceptable parcel delivery service, or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(o) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if all of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(p) (Blank).

(q) (Blank).

(r) "Patient counseling" means the communication between a pharmacist or a student pharmacist under the supervision of a pharmacist and a patient or the patient's representative about the patient's medication or device for the purpose of optimizing proper use of prescription medications or devices. "Patient counseling" may include without limitation (1) obtaining a medication history; (2) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions; (3) facilitation of the patient's understanding of the intended use of the medication; (4) proper directions for use; (5) significant potential adverse events; (6) potential food-drug interactions; and (7) the need to be compliant with the medication therapy. A pharmacy technician may only participate in the following aspects of patient counseling under the supervision of a pharmacist: (1) obtaining medication history; (2) providing the offer for counseling by a pharmacist or student pharmacist; and (3) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions.

(s) "Patient profiles" or "patient drug therapy record" means the obtaining, recording, and maintenance of patient prescription information, including prescriptions for controlled substances, and personal information.

(t) (Blank).

(u) "Medical device" means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, including any component part or accessory, required under federal law to bear the label "Caution: Federal law requires dispensing by or on the order of a physician". A seller of goods and services who, only for the purpose of retail sales, compounds, sells, rents, or leases medical devices shall not, by reasons thereof, be required to be a licensed pharmacy.

(v) "Unique identifier" means an electronic signature, handwritten signature or initials, thumb print, or other acceptable biometric or electronic identification process as approved by the Department.

(w) "Current usual and customary retail price" means the price that a pharmacy charges to a non-third-party payor.

(x) "Automated pharmacy system" means a mechanical system located within the confines of the pharmacy or remote location that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or administration, relative to storage, packaging, dispensing, or distribution of medication, and which collects, controls, and maintains all transaction information.

(y) "Drug regimen review" means and includes the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient records for (1) known allergies; (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications; (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications; (4) reasonable directions for use; (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; (6) drug-drug interactions; (7) drug-food interactions; (8) drug-disease contraindications; (9) therapeutic duplication; (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available; (11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and (12) abuse and misuse.

(z) "Electronic transmission prescription" means any prescription order for which a facsimile or electronic image of the order is electronically transmitted from a licensed prescriber to a pharmacy. "Electronic transmission prescription" includes both data and image prescriptions.

(aa) "Medication therapy management services" means a distinct service or group of services offered by licensed pharmacists, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice nurses authorized in a written agreement with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistants authorized in guidelines by a supervising physician that optimize therapeutic outcomes for individual patients through improved medication use. In a retail or other non-hospital pharmacy, medication therapy management services shall consist of the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient medication records to resolve conflicts with the following:

(1) known allergies;

(2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;

(3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications;

(4) reasonable directions for use;

(5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions;

(6) drug-drug interactions;

(7) drug-food interactions;

(8) drug-disease contraindications;

(9) identification of therapeutic duplication;

(10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available;

(11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and

(12) drug abuse and misuse.

"Medication therapy management services" includes the following:

(1) documenting the services delivered and communicating the information provided to patients' prescribers within an appropriate time frame, not to exceed 48 hours;

(2) providing patient counseling designed to enhance a patient's understanding and the appropriate use of his or her medications; and

(3) providing information, support services, and resources designed to enhance a patient's adherence with his or her prescribed therapeutic regimens.

"Medication therapy management services" may also include patient care functions authorized by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for his or her identified patient or groups of patients under specified conditions or limitations in a standing order from the physician.

"Medication therapy management services" in a licensed hospital may also include the following:

(1) reviewing assessments of the patient's health status; and

(2) following protocols of a hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee with respect to the fulfillment of medication orders.

(bb) "Pharmacist care" means the provision by a pharmacist of medication therapy management services, with or without the dispensing of drugs or devices, intended to achieve outcomes that improve patient health, quality of life, and comfort and enhance patient safety.

(cc) "Protected health information" means individually identifiable health information that, except as otherwise provided, is:

(1) transmitted by electronic media;

(2) maintained in any medium set forth in the definition of "electronic media" in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; or

(3) transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium.

"Protected health information" does not include individually identifiable health information found in:

(1) education records covered by the federal Family Educational Right and Privacy Act; or

(2) employment records held by a licensee in its role as an employer.

(dd) "Standing order" means a specific order for a patient or group of patients issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois.

(ee) "Address of record" means the address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(ff) "Home pharmacy" means the location of a pharmacy's primary operations.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1043, eff. 8-21-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 435. The Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(225 ILCS 105/8) (from Ch. 111, par. 5008)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 8. Permits.

(a) A promoter who desires to obtain a permit to conduct a professional or amateur contest, or a combination of both, shall apply to the Department at least 20 days prior to the event, in writing, on forms furnished by the Department. The application shall be accompanied by the required fee and shall contain, but not be limited to, the following information to be submitted at times specified by rule:

(1) the legal names and addresses of the promoter;

(2) the name of the matchmaker;

(3) the time and exact location of the professional or amateur contest, or a combination of both. It is the responsibility of the promoter to ensure that the building to be used for the event complies with all laws, ordinances, and regulations in the city, town, village, or county where the contest is to be held;

(4) proof of adequate security measures, as determined by Department rule, to ensure the protection of the safety of contestants and the general public while attending professional or amateur contests, or a combination of both;

(5) proof of adequate medical supervision, as determined by Department rule, to ensure the protection of the health and safety of professionals' or amateurs' while participating in the contest;

(6) the names of the professionals or amateurs competing subject to Department approval;

(7) proof of insurance for not less than $50,000 as further defined by rule for each professional or amateur participating in a professional or amateur contest, or a combination of both; insurance required under this paragraph (7) (6) shall cover (i) hospital, medication, physician, and other such expenses as would accrue in the treatment of an injury as a result of the professional or amateur contest; (ii) payment to the estate of the professional or amateur in the event of his or her death as a result of his or her participation in the professional or amateur contest; and (iii) accidental death and dismemberment; the terms of the insurance coverage must not require the contestant to pay a deductible. The promoter may not carry an insurance policy with a deductible in an amount greater than $500 for the medical, surgical, or hospital care for injuries a contestant sustains while engaged in a contest, and if a licensed or registered contestant pays for the medical, surgical, or hospital care, the insurance proceeds must be paid to the contestant or his or her beneficiaries as reimbursement for such payment;

(8) the amount of the purses to be paid to the professionals for the event; the Department shall adopt rules for payment of the purses;

(9) organizational or internationally accepted rules, per discipline, for professional or amateur full-contact martial arts contests where the Department does not provide the rules;

(10) proof of contract indicating the requisite registration and sanctioning by a Department approved sanctioning body for any full-contact martial arts contest with scheduled amateur bouts; and

(11) any other information that the Department may require to determine whether a permit shall be issued.

(b) The Department may issue a permit to any promoter who meets the requirements of this Act and the rules. The permit shall only be issued for a specific date and location of a professional or amateur contest, or a combination of both, and shall not be transferable. The Department may allow a promoter to amend a permit application to hold a professional or amateur contest, or a combination of both, in a different location other than the application specifies and may allow the promoter to substitute professionals or amateurs, respectively.

(c) The Department shall be responsible for assigning the judges, timekeepers, referees, and physicians, for a professional contest. Compensation shall be determined by the Department, and it shall be the responsibility of the promoter to pay the individuals utilized.

(Source: P.A. 96-663, eff. 8-25-09; 97-119, eff. 7-14-11; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 440. The Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Act is amended by changing Sections 20 and 75 as follows:

(225 ILCS 109/20)

Sec. 20. Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Licensing and Disciplinary Board.

(a) There is established within the Department the Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Licensing and Disciplinary Board to be appointed by the Secretary. The Board shall be composed of 8 persons who shall serve in an advisory capacity to the Secretary. The Board shall elect a chairperson and a vice chairperson.

(b) In appointing members of the Board, the Secretary shall give due consideration to recommendations by members of the profession of sex offender evaluation and treatment.

(c) Three members of the Board shall be sex offender evaluation or treatment providers, or both, who have been in active practice for at least 5 years immediately preceding their appointment. The appointees shall be licensed under this Act.

(d) One member shall represent the Department of Corrections.

(e) One member shall represent the Department of Human Services.

(f) One member shall represent the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts representing the interests of probation services.

(g) One member shall represent the Sex Offender Management Board.

(h) One member shall be representative of the general public who has no direct affiliation or work experience with the practice of sex offender evaluation and treatment and who clearly represents represent consumer interests.

(i) Board members shall be appointed for a term of 4 years, except that any person chosen to fill a vacancy shall be appointed only for the unexpired term of the Board member whom he or she shall succeed. Upon the expiration of his or her term of office, a Board member shall continue to serve until a successor is appointed and qualified. No member shall be reappointed to the Board for a term that would cause continuous service on the Board to be longer than 8 years.

(j) The membership of the Board shall reasonably reflect representation from the various geographic areas of the State.

(k) A member of the Board shall be immune from suit in any action based upon any disciplinary proceedings or other activities performed in good faith as a member of the Board.

(l) The Secretary may remove a member of the Board for any cause that, in the opinion of the Secretary, reasonably justifies termination.

(m) The Secretary may consider the recommendations of the Board on questions of standards of professional conduct, discipline, and qualification of candidates or licensees under this Act.

(n) The members of the Board shall be reimbursed for all legitimate, necessary, and authorized expenses.

(o) A majority of the Board members currently appointed shall constitute a quorum. A vacancy in the membership of the Board shall not impair the right of a quorum to exercise all the rights and perform all the duties of the Board.

(Source: P.A. 97-1098, eff. 7-1-13; revised 11-14-13.)

(225 ILCS 109/75)

Sec. 75. Refusal, revocation, or suspension.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or nondisciplinary action, as the Department considers appropriate, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license or licensee for any one or more of the following:

(1) violations of this Act or of the rules adopted under this Act;

(2) discipline by the Department under other state law and rules which the licensee is subject to;

(3) conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing for any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession;

(4) professional incompetence;

(5) advertising in a false, deceptive, or misleading manner;

(6) aiding, abetting, assisting, procuring, advising, employing, or contracting with any unlicensed person to provide sex offender evaluation or treatment services contrary to any rules or provisions of this Act;

(7) engaging in immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice;

(8) engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(9) practicing or offering to practice beyond the scope permitted by law or accepting and performing professional responsibilities which the licensee knows or has reason to know that he or she is not competent to perform;

(10) knowingly delegating professional responsibilities to a person unqualified by training, experience, or licensure to perform;

(11) failing to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department within 60 days;

(12) having a habitual or excessive use of or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(13) having a pattern of practice or other behavior that demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act;

(14) discipline by another state, District of Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section;

(15) a finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation;

(16) willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments;

(17) making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or otherwise making misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations in violation of this Act or otherwise in the practice of the profession;

(18) fraud or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act;

(19) inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, loss of motor skill, or a mental illness or disability;

(20) charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered; or

(21) practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

All fines shall be paid within 60 days of the effective date of the order imposing the fine.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a tax return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed tax return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of a court order so finding and discharging the patient.

(f) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physician shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

A person holding a license under this Act or who has applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and subject to action under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 97-1098, eff. 7-1-13; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 445. The Perfusionist Practice Act is amended by changing Section 105 as follows:

(225 ILCS 125/105)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 105. Disciplinary actions.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or restore a license, or may revoke or suspend a license, or may place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to a person licensed under this Act, including but not limited to the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, for one or any combination of the following causes:

(1) Making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violation of this Act or any rule promulgated under this Act.

(3) Conviction of, or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to, any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof, or any crime that is a misdemeanor of which an essential element is dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the practice as a perfusionist.

(4) Making a misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining, renewing, or restoring a license.

(5) Aiding or assisting another person in violating a provision of this Act or its rules.

(6) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public, as defined by rule of the Department.

(8) Discipline by another state, the District of Columbia, or territory, or a foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(9) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (9) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (9) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(10) A finding by the Board that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(11) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including but not limited to false records or reports filed with State agencies or departments.

(12) Wilfully making or signing a false statement, certificate, or affidavit to induce payment.

(13) Wilfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(14) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(15) Employment of fraud, deception, or any unlawful means in applying for or securing a license as a perfusionist.

(16) Allowing another person to use his or her license to practice.

(17) Failure to report to the Department (A) any adverse final action taken against the licensee by another licensing jurisdiction, government agency, law enforcement agency, or any court or (B) liability for conduct that would constitute grounds for action as set forth in this Section.

(18) Inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety as a result of a physical illness, including but not limited to deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, or a mental illness or disability.

(19) Inability to practice the profession for which he or she is licensed with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug.

(20) Gross malpractice.

(21) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act related to the licensee's practice, including but not limited to sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation.

(22) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(23) Solicitation of business or professional services, other than permitted advertising.

(24) Conviction of or cash compromise of a charge or violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(25) Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(26) Practicing under a false name or, except as allowed by law, an assumed name.

(27) Violating any provision of this Act or the rules promulgated under this Act, including, but not limited to, advertising.

(b) A licensee or applicant who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of the licensee. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement the Department may file a complaint to suspend or revoke the license or otherwise discipline the licensee. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in the disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

(b-5) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend, without a hearing as provided for in the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the license of a person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15).

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to the involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the licensee; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(d) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may order a licensee or applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning his or her examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The licensee or applicant may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of a licensee or applicant to submit to any such examination when directed, without reasonable cause as defined by rule, shall be grounds for either the immediate suspension of his or her license or immediate denial of his or her application.

If the Secretary immediately suspends the license of a licensee for his or her failure to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed, a hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay.

If the Secretary otherwise suspends a license pursuant to the results of the licensee's mental or physical examination, a hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the licensee's record of treatment and counseling regarding the relevant impairment or impairments to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

Any licensee suspended or otherwise affected under this subsection (d) shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with the acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 96-682, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 450. The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 130/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or registrant's application file or registration file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or registrant to inform the Department of any change of address and those changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Direct supervision" means supervision by a licensed physician, licensed podiatric physician, or licensed dentist who is physically present and who personally directs delegated acts and remains available to personally respond to an emergency until the patient is released from the operating room. A registered professional nurse may also provide direct supervision within the scope of his or her license. A registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist shall perform duties as assigned.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Registered surgical assistant" means a person who (i) is not licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, (ii) is certified by the National Surgical Assistant Association as a Certified Surgical Assistant, the National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting as a Certified Surgical First Assistant, or the American Board of Surgical Assistants as a Surgical Assistant-Certified, (iii) performs duties under direct supervision, (iv) provides services only in a licensed hospital, ambulatory treatment center, or office of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, and (v) is registered under this Act.

"Registered surgical technologist" means a person who (i) is not a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, (ii) is certified by the National Board for Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting, (iii) performs duties under direct supervision, (iv) provides services only in a licensed hospital, ambulatory treatment center, or office of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, and (v) is registered under this Act.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-364, eff. 12-31-13; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 455. The Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989 is amended by changing Section 22 as follows:

(225 ILCS 305/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 1322)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 22. Refusal, suspension and revocation of licenses; Causes.

(a) The Department may, singularly or in combination, refuse to issue, renew or restore, or may suspend, revoke, place on probation, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as deemed appropriate, including, but not limited to, the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department;

(2) negligence, incompetence or misconduct in the practice of architecture;

(3) failure to comply with any of the provisions of this Act or any of the rules;

(4) making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licensure;

(5) purposefully making false statements or signing false statements, certificates or affidavits to induce payment;

(6) conviction of or plea of guilty or nolo contendere to any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof or that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the practice of the profession of architecture;

(7) aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules;

(8) signing, affixing the architect's seal or permitting the architect's seal to be affixed to any technical submission not prepared by the architect or under that architect's responsible control;

(9) engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public;

(10) habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(11) making a statement of compliance pursuant to the Environmental Barriers Act that technical submissions prepared by the architect or prepared under the architect's responsible control for construction or alteration of an occupancy required to be in compliance with the Environmental Barriers Act are in compliance with the Environmental Barriers Act when such technical submissions are not in compliance;

(12) a finding by the Board that an applicant or registrant has failed to pay a fine imposed by the Department or a registrant, whose license has been placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation;

(13) discipline by another state, territory, foreign country, the District of Columbia, the United States government, or any other governmental agency, if at least one of the grounds for discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein;

(14) failure to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department within 30 days after the receipt of such written request;

(15) physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, mental illness, or disability which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, and safety, including without limitation deterioration through the aging process, mental illness, or disability.

(a-5) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may order a licensee or applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning his or her examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The licensee or applicant may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of a licensee or applicant to submit to any such examination when directed, without reasonable cause as defined by rule, shall be grounds for either the immediate suspension of his or her license or immediate denial of his or her application.

If the Secretary immediately suspends the license of a licensee for his or her failure to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed, a hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay.

If the Secretary otherwise suspends a license pursuant to the results of the licensee's mental or physical examination, a hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the licensee's record of treatment and counseling regarding the relevant impairment or impairments to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

Any licensee suspended under this subsection (a-5) shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with the acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(b) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume practice.

(c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly the Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department shall refuse to issue or renew or shall revoke or suspend that person's license or shall take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has failed to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) Persons who assist the Department as consultants or expert witnesses in the investigation or prosecution of alleged violations of the Act, licensure matters, restoration proceedings, or criminal prosecutions, shall not be liable for damages in any civil action or proceeding as a result of such assistance, except upon proof of actual malice. The attorney general shall defend such persons in any such action or proceeding.

(Source: P.A. 96-610, eff. 8-24-09; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 460. The Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989 is amended by changing Sections 24 and 46 as follows:

(225 ILCS 325/24) (from Ch. 111, par. 5224)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 24. Rules of professional conduct; disciplinary or administrative action.

(a) The Department shall adopt rules setting standards of professional conduct and establish appropriate penalties penalty for the breach of such rules.

(a-1) The Department may, singularly or in combination, refuse to issue, renew, or restore a license or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to a person licensed under this Act, including but not limited to, the imposition of a fine not to exceed $10,000 per violation upon any person, corporation, partnership, or professional design firm licensed or registered under this Act, for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violations of this Act or any of its rules.

(3) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof, or that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the practice of engineering.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining, renewing, or restoring a license or violating any provision of this Act or the rules promulgated under this Act pertaining to advertising.

(5) Willfully making or signing a false statement, certificate, or affidavit to induce payment.

(6) Negligence, incompetence or misconduct in the practice of professional engineering as a licensed professional engineer or in working as an engineer intern.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(8) Failing to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department within 30 days after receipt of such written request.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(10) Inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of a physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, or mental illness or disability.

(11) Discipline by the United States Government, another state, District of Columbia, territory, foreign nation or government agency, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act.

(12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership or association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered.

(13) A finding by the Department that an applicant or registrant has failed to pay a fine imposed by the Department, a registrant whose license has been placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation, or a registrant has practiced on an expired, inactive, suspended, or revoked license.

(14) Signing, affixing the professional engineer's seal or permitting the professional engineer's seal to be affixed to any technical submissions not prepared as required by Section 14 or completely reviewed by the professional engineer or under the professional engineer's direct supervision.

(15) Inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug.

(16) The making of a statement pursuant to the Environmental Barriers Act that a plan for construction or alteration of a public facility or for construction of a multi-story housing unit is in compliance with the Environmental Barriers Act when such plan is not in compliance.

(17) (Blank).

(a-2) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has failed to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15).

(a-3) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15).

(a-4) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly the Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department shall refuse to issue or renew or shall revoke or suspend that person's license or shall take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15).

(a-5) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may order a licensee or applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning his or her examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The licensee or applicant may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of a licensee or applicant to submit to any such examination when directed, without reasonable cause as defined by rule, shall be grounds for either the immediate suspension of his or her license or immediate denial of his or her application.

If the Secretary immediately suspends the license of a licensee for his or her failure to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed, a hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay.

If the Secretary otherwise suspends a license pursuant to the results of the licensee's mental or physical examination, a hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the licensee's record of treatment and counseling regarding the relevant impairment or impairments to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

Any licensee suspended under this subsection (a-5) shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with the acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(b) The determination by a circuit court that a registrant is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as now or hereafter amended, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the recommendation of the Board to the Director that the registrant be allowed to resume practice.

(Source: P.A. 96-626, eff. 8-24-09; revised 11-13-13.)

(225 ILCS 325/46) (from Ch. 111, par. 5246)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 46. Home rule. The regulation and licensing of professional engineers is an exclusive power and function of the State. Pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII 7 of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule unit may not regulate or license the occupation of professional engineer. This section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions.

(Source: P.A. 86-667; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 465. The Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989 is amended by changing Sections 27 and 47 as follows:

(225 ILCS 330/27) (from Ch. 111, par. 3277)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 27. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, or may place on probation or administrative supervision, suspend, or revoke any license, or may reprimand or take any disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 per violation, upon any person, corporation, partnership, or professional land surveying firm licensed or registered under this Act for any of the following reasons:

(1) material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department;

(2) violation, including, but not limited to, neglect or intentional disregard, of this Act, or its rules;

(3) conviction of, or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to, any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof or that is a misdemeanor of which an essential element is dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the practice of the profession;

(4) making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license, or in applying for restoration or renewal, or the practice of any fraud or deceit in taking any examination to qualify for licensure under this Act;

(5) purposefully making false statements or signing false statements, certificates, or affidavits to induce payment;

(6) proof of carelessness, incompetence, negligence, or misconduct in practicing land surveying;

(7) aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules;

(8) failing to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department within 30 days after receipt of such written request;

(9) engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(10) inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use of, or addiction to, alcohol, narcotics, stimulants or any other chemical agent or drug;

(11) discipline by the United States government, another state, District of Columbia, territory, foreign nation or government agency if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act;

(12) directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered;

(12.5) issuing a map or plat of survey where the fee for professional services is contingent on a real estate transaction closing;

(13) a finding by the Department that an applicant or licensee has failed to pay a fine imposed by the Department or a licensee whose license has been placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation;

(14) practicing on an expired, inactive, suspended, or revoked license;

(15) signing, affixing the Professional Land Surveyor's seal or permitting the Professional Land Surveyor's seal to be affixed to any map or plat of survey not prepared by the Professional Land Surveyor or under the Professional Land Surveyor's direct supervision and control;

(16) inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill or a mental illness or disability;

(17) (blank); or

(18) failure to adequately supervise or control land surveying operations being performed by subordinates.

(a-5) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel a person licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure or certification pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed shall be grounds for the immediate suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause as defined by rule.

If the Secretary immediately suspends the license of a licensee for his or her failure to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed, a hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay.

If the Secretary otherwise suspends a person's license pursuant to the results of a compelled mental or physical examination, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

Any licensee suspended under this subsection (a-5) shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with the acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(b) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as now or hereafter amended, operates as an automatic license suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Director that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15).

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly the Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department shall refuse to issue or renew or shall revoke or suspend that person's license or shall take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15).

(e) The Department shall refuse to issue or renew or shall revoke or suspend a person's license or shall take other disciplinary action against that person for his or her failure to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15).

(Source: P.A. 96-626, eff. 8-24-09; revised 11-14-13.)

(225 ILCS 330/47) (from Ch. 111, par. 3297)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 47. Home rule. Pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII 7 of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule unit may not regulate the profession of land surveying in a manner more restrictive than the regulation by the State of the profession of land surveying as provided in this Act. This Section is a limitation on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 86-987; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 470. The Structural Engineering Practice Act of 1989 is amended by changing Sections 20 and 37 as follows:

(225 ILCS 340/20) (from Ch. 111, par. 6620)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 20. Refusal; revocation; suspension.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke a license, or may suspend, place on probation, fine, or take any disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including a fine not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any licensee for any one or combination of the following reasons:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department;

(2) Negligence, incompetence or misconduct in the practice of structural engineering;

(3) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licensure;

(4) The affixing of a licensed structural engineer's seal to any plans, specifications or drawings which have not been prepared by or under the immediate personal supervision of that licensed structural engineer or reviewed as provided in this Act;

(5) Conviction of, or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to, any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United States or of any state or territory thereof, or that is a misdemeanor an essential element of which is dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the practice of the profession;

(6) Making a statement of compliance pursuant to the Environmental Barriers Act, as now or hereafter amended, that a plan for construction or alteration of a public facility or for construction of a multi-story housing unit is in compliance with the Environmental Barriers Act when such plan is not in compliance;

(7) Failure to comply with any of the provisions of this Act or its rules;

(8) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules;

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public, as defined by rule;

(10) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(11) Failure of an applicant or licensee to pay a fine imposed by the Department or a licensee whose license has been placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation;

(12) Discipline by another state, territory, foreign country, the District of Columbia, the United States government, or any other governmental agency, if at least one of the grounds for discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section;

(13) Failure to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department within 30 days after the receipt of such written request; or

(14) Physical illness, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, mental illness, or disability which results in the inability to practice the profession of structural engineering with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(a-5) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may order a licensee or applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning his or her examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The licensee or applicant may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of a licensee or applicant to submit to any such examination when directed, without reasonable cause as defined by rule, shall be grounds for either the immediate suspension of his or her license or immediate denial of his or her application.

If the Secretary immediately suspends the license of a licensee for his or her failure to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed, a hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay.

If the Secretary otherwise suspends a license pursuant to the results of the licensee's mental or physical examination, a hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the licensee's record of treatment and counseling regarding the relevant impairment or impairments to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

Any licensee suspended under this subsection (a-5) shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with the acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(b) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume practice.

(c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly the Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department shall refuse to issue or renew or shall revoke or suspend that person's license or shall take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has failed to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) Persons who assist the Department as consultants or expert witnesses in the investigation or prosecution of alleged violations of the Act, licensure matters, restoration proceedings, or criminal prosecutions, are not liable for damages in any civil action or proceeding as a result of such assistance, except upon proof of actual malice. The Attorney General of the State of Illinois shall defend such persons in any such action or proceeding.

(Source: P.A. 96-610, eff. 8-24-09; revised 11-12-13.)

(225 ILCS 340/37) (from Ch. 111, par. 6637)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 37. Pursuant to subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII 7 of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule unit may not regulate the profession of structural engineering in a manner more restrictive than the regulation by the State of the profession of structural engineering as provided in this Act. This Section is a limitation on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 86-711; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 475. The Illinois Certified Shorthand Reporters Act of 1984 is amended by changing Sections 23 and 23.2a as follows:

(225 ILCS 415/23) (from Ch. 111, par. 6223)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 23. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation and the assessment of costs as provided for in Section 23.3 of this Act, with regard to any license for any one or combination of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department;

(2) Violations of this Act, or of the rules promulgated thereunder;

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession;

(4) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act;

(5) Professional incompetence;

(6) Aiding or assisting another person, firm, partnership or corporation in violating any provision of this Act or rules;

(7) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department;

(8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public;

(9) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substances that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(10) Discipline by another state, unit of government, government agency, the District of Columbia, a territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein;

(11) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services were not rendered, or giving, directly or indirectly, any gift or anything of value to attorneys or their staff or any other persons or entities associated with any litigation, that exceeds $100 total per year; for the purposes of this Section, pro bono services, as defined by State law, are permissible in any amount;

(12) A finding by the Board that the certificate holder, after having his certificate placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation;

(13) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice of shorthand reporting, including but not limited to false records filed with State agencies or departments;

(14) Physical illness, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety;

(15) Solicitation of professional services other than by permitted advertising;

(16) Willful failure to take full and accurate stenographic notes of any proceeding;

(17) Willful alteration of any stenographic notes taken at any proceeding;

(18) Willful failure to accurately transcribe verbatim any stenographic notes taken at any proceeding;

(19) Willful alteration of a transcript of stenographic notes taken at any proceeding;

(20) Affixing one's signature to any transcript of his stenographic notes or certifying to its correctness unless the transcript has been prepared by him or under his immediate supervision;

(21) Willful failure to systematically retain stenographic notes or transcripts on paper or any electronic media for 10 years from the date that the notes or transcripts were taken;

(22) Failure to deliver transcripts in a timely manner or in accordance with contractual agreements;

(23) Establishing contingent fees as a basis of compensation;

(24) Mental illness or disability that results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(25) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except as provided by law;

(26) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Act;

(27) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(b) The determination by a circuit court that a certificate holder is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, an order by the court so finding and discharging the patient. In any case where a license is suspended under this Section, the licensee may file a petition for restoration and shall include evidence acceptable to the Department that the licensee can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of the profession.

(c) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 1205-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual who is certified under this Act or any individual who has applied for certification under this Act to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, at the expense of the Department. The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the certified shorthand reporter or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the certified shorthand reporter or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination.

Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Department finds a certified shorthand reporter unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department shall require the certified shorthand reporter to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department, as a condition for continued, reinstated, or renewed certification.

When the Secretary immediately suspends a certificate under this Section, a hearing upon the person's certificate must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the certified shorthand reporter's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

Individuals certified under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their certification.

(e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 98-445, eff. 12-31-13; revised 11-14-13.)

(225 ILCS 415/23.2a)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 23.2a. Confidentiality. All information collected by the Department in the course of an examination or investigation of a licensee or applicant, including, but not limited to, any complaint against a licensee filed with the Department and information collected to investigate any such complaint, shall be maintained for the confidential use of the Department and shall not be disclosed. The Department may not disclose the information to anyone other than law enforcement officials, other regulatory agencies that have an appropriate regulatory interest as determined by the Secretary, or to a party presenting a lawful subpoena to the Department. Information and documents disclosed to a federal, State, county, or local law enforcement agency shall not be disclosed by the agency for any purpose to any other agency or person. A formal complaint filed against a licensee by the Department or any order issued by the Department against a licensee or applicant shall be a public record, except as otherwise prohibited by law.

(Source: P.A. 98-445, eff. 12-31-13; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 480. The Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 85 as follows:

(225 ILCS 427/85)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 85. Grounds for discipline; refusal, revocation, or suspension.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, or may place on probation, reprimand, suspend, or revoke any license, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper and impose a fine not to exceed $10,000 for each violation upon any licensee or applicant under this Act or any person or entity who holds himself, herself, or itself out as an applicant or licensee for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violations of this Act or its rules.

(3) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or plea of nolo contendere to a felony or a misdemeanor under the laws of the United States, any state, or any other jurisdiction or entry of an administrative sanction by a government agency in this State or any other jurisdiction. Action taken under this paragraph (3) for a misdemeanor or an administrative sanction is limited to a misdemeanor or administrative sanction that has as an essential element dishonesty or fraud, that involves larceny, embezzlement, or obtaining money, property, or credit by false pretenses or by means of a confidence game, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license or violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(5) Professional incompetence.

(6) Gross negligence.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(8) Failing, within 30 days, to provide information in response to a request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public as defined by the rules of the Department, or violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Department.

(10) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(11) Having been disciplined by another state, the District of Columbia, a territory, a foreign nation, or a governmental agency authorized to impose discipline if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent of one of the grounds for which a licensee may be disciplined under this Act. A certified copy of the record of the action by the other state or jurisdiction shall be prima facie evidence thereof.

(12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered.

(13) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his, her, or its license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(14) Willfully making or filing false records or reports relating to a licensee's practice, including but not limited to false records filed with any State or federal agencies or departments.

(15) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(16) Physical illness or mental illness or impairment, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(17) Solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising.

(18) A finding that licensure has been applied for or obtained by fraudulent means.

(19) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name other than the full name as shown on the license or any other legally authorized name.

(20) Gross overcharging for professional services including, but not limited to, (i) collection of fees or moneys for services that are not rendered; and (ii) charging for services that are not in accordance with the contract between the licensee and the community association.

(21) Improper commingling of personal and client funds in violation of this Act or any rules promulgated thereto.

(22) Failing to account for or remit any moneys or documents coming into the licensee's possession that belong to another person or entity.

(23) Giving differential treatment to a person that is to that person's detriment because of race, color, creed, sex, religion, or national origin.

(24) Performing and charging for services without reasonable authorization to do so from the person or entity for whom service is being provided.

(25) Failing to make available to the Department, upon request, any books, records, or forms required by this Act.

(26) Purporting to be a supervising community association manager of a firm without active participation in the firm.

(27) Failing to make available to the Department at the time of the request any indicia of licensure or registration issued under this Act.

(28) Failing to maintain and deposit funds belonging to a community association in accordance with subsection (b) of Section 55 of this Act.

(29) Violating the terms of a disciplinary order issued by the Department.

(b) In accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15), the Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will terminate only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice as a licensed community association manager.

(d) In accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15), the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of that tax Act are satisfied.

(e) In accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15) and in cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(f) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel a licensee or an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license or denial of his or her application or renewal until the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, deny, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-365, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 485. The Detection of Deception Examiners Act is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(225 ILCS 430/14) (from Ch. 111, par. 2415)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 14. (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or a combination of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violations of this Act, or of the rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licensure or violating any provision of this Act or the rules adopted under this Act pertaining to advertising.

(5) Professional incompetence.

(6) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating this Act or any rule adopted under this Act.

(8) Where the license holder has been adjudged mentally ill, mentally deficient or subject to involuntary admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(9) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(10) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(11) Inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug.

(12) Discipline by another state, District of Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(13) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(14) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(15) Inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of a physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, or a mental illness or disability.

(16) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(17) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(18) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(19) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Act.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a return, or pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 1205-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient.

(f) In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

A person holding a license under this Act or who has applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 97-168, eff. 7-22-11; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 490. The Highway Advertising Control Act of 1971 is amended by changing Section 3 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 440/3) (from Ch. 121, par. 503)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the terms defined in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 4 3.01 through 3.16 have the meanings ascribed to them in those Sections.

(Source: P.A. 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; revised 11-14-13.)

(225 ILCS 440/14.1)

Sec. 14.1 15. Applicability. The changes made to this Act by Public Act 98-56 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly shall not be applicable if the application would impact the receipt, use, or reimbursement of federal funds by the Illinois Department of Transportation other than the reimbursement of Bonus Agreement funds. Any permit granted pursuant to an inapplicable provision is void.

(Source: P.A. 98-56, eff. 7-5-13; revised 10-25-13.)

(225 ILCS 440/15)

Sec. 15. "An Act relating to the restriction, prohibition, regulation, and control of billboards and other outdoor advertising devices on certain lands adjacent to National System of Interstate and Defense Highways in Illinois", approved June 28, 1965, is repealed.

(Source: P.A. 77-1815.)

Section 495. The Home Inspector License Act is amended by changing Section 15-10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 441/15-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 15-10. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed $25,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or combination of the following:

(1) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(2) Failing to meet the minimum qualifications for licensure as a home inspector established by this Act.

(3) Paying money, other than for the fees provided for by this Act, or anything of value to an employee of the Department to procure licensure under this Act.

(4) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony; (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession; or (iii) that is a crime that subjects the licensee to compliance with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(5) Committing an act or omission involving dishonesty, fraud, or misrepresentation with the intent to substantially benefit the licensee or another person or with the intent to substantially injure another person.

(6) Violating a provision or standard for the development or communication of home inspections as provided in Section 10-5 of this Act or as defined in the rules.

(7) Failing or refusing to exercise reasonable diligence in the development, reporting, or communication of a home inspection report, as defined by this Act or the rules.

(8) Violating a provision of this Act or the rules.

(9) Having been disciplined by another state, the District of Columbia, a territory, a foreign nation, a governmental agency, or any other entity authorized to impose discipline if at least one of the grounds for that discipline is the same as or substantially equivalent to one of the grounds for which a licensee may be disciplined under this Act.

(10) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(11) Accepting an inspection assignment when the employment itself is contingent upon the home inspector reporting a predetermined analysis or opinion, or when the fee to be paid is contingent upon the analysis, opinion, or conclusion reached or upon the consequences resulting from the home inspection assignment.

(12) Developing home inspection opinions or conclusions based on the race, color, religion, sex, national origin, ancestry, age, marital status, family status, physical or mental disability, or unfavorable military discharge, as defined under the Illinois Human Rights Act, of the prospective or present owners or occupants of the area or property under home inspection.

(13) Being adjudicated liable in a civil proceeding on grounds of fraud, misrepresentation, or deceit. In a disciplinary proceeding based upon a finding of civil liability, the home inspector shall be afforded an opportunity to present mitigating and extenuating circumstances, but may not collaterally attack the civil adjudication.

(14) Being adjudicated liable in a civil proceeding for violation of a State or federal fair housing law.

(15) Engaging in misleading or untruthful advertising or using a trade name or insignia of membership in a home inspection organization of which the licensee is not a member.

(16) Failing, within 30 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(17) Failing to include within the home inspection report the home inspector's license number and the date of expiration of the license. All home inspectors providing significant contribution to the development and reporting of a home inspection must be disclosed in the home inspection report. It is a violation of this Act for a home inspector to sign a home inspection report knowing that a person providing a significant contribution to the report has not been disclosed in the home inspection report.

(18) Advising a client as to whether the client should or should not engage in a transaction regarding the residential real property that is the subject of the home inspection.

(19) Performing a home inspection in a manner that damages or alters the residential real property that is the subject of the home inspection without the consent of the owner.

(20) Performing a home inspection when the home inspector is providing or may also provide other services in connection with the residential real property or transaction, or has an interest in the residential real property, without providing prior written notice of the potential or actual conflict and obtaining the prior consent of the client as provided by rule.

(21) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.

(22) Inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug.

(23) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(24) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(25) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(26) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(27) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Act.

(b) The Department may suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew an education provider's license, may reprimand, place on probation, or otherwise discipline an education provider licensee, and may suspend or revoke the course approval of any course offered by an education provider, for any of the following:

(1) Procuring or attempting to procure licensure by knowingly making a false statement, submitting false information, making any form of fraud or misrepresentation, or refusing to provide complete information in response to a question in an application for licensure.

(2) Failing to comply with the covenants certified to on the application for licensure as an education provider.

(3) Committing an act or omission involving dishonesty, fraud, or misrepresentation or allowing any such act or omission by any employee or contractor under the control of the education provider.

(4) Engaging in misleading or untruthful advertising.

(5) Failing to retain competent instructors in accordance with rules adopted under this Act.

(6) Failing to meet the topic or time requirements for course approval as the provider of a pre-license curriculum course or a continuing education course.

(7) Failing to administer an approved course using the course materials, syllabus, and examinations submitted as the basis of the course approval.

(8) Failing to provide an appropriate classroom environment for presentation of courses, with consideration for student comfort, acoustics, lighting, seating, workspace, and visual aid material.

(9) Failing to maintain student records in compliance with the rules adopted under this Act.

(10) Failing to provide a certificate, transcript, or other student record to the Department or to a student as may be required by rule.

(11) Failing to fully cooperate with a Department investigation by knowingly making a false statement, submitting false or misleading information, or refusing to provide complete information in response to written interrogatories or a written request for documentation within 30 days of the request.

(c) In appropriate cases, the Department may resolve a complaint against a licensee through the issuance of a Consent to Administrative Supervision order. A licensee subject to a Consent to Administrative Supervision order shall be considered by the Department as an active licensee in good standing. This order shall not be reported as or considered by the Department to be a discipline of the licensee. The records regarding an investigation and a Consent to Administrative Supervision order shall be considered confidential and shall not be released by the Department except as mandated by law. The complainant shall be notified that his or her complaint has been resolved by a Consent to Administrative Supervision order.

(d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a tax return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed tax return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(g) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of a court order so finding and discharging the patient.

(h) In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physician shall be specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

A person holding a license under this Act or who has applied for a license under this Act, who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11; 97-877, eff. 8-2-12; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 500. The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 is amended by changing Section 25-20 as follows:

(225 ILCS 447/25-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 25-20. Training; private security contractor and employees.

(a) Registered employees of the private security contractor agency who provide traditional guarding or other private security related functions or who respond to alarm systems shall complete, within 30 days of their employment, a minimum of 20 hours of classroom basic training provided by a qualified instructor, which shall include the following subjects:

(1) The law regarding arrest and search and seizure as it applies to private security.

(2) Civil and criminal liability for acts related to private security.

(3) The use of force, including but not limited to the use of nonlethal force (i.e., disabling spray, baton, stungun or similar weapon).

(4) Arrest and control techniques.

(5) The offenses under the Criminal Code of 2012 that are directly related to the protection of persons and property.

(6) The law on private security forces and on reporting to law enforcement agencies.

(7) Fire prevention, fire equipment, and fire safety.

(8) The procedures for report writing.

(9) Civil rights and public relations.

(10) The identification of terrorists, acts of terrorism, and terrorist organizations, as defined by federal and State statutes.

(b) All other employees of a private security contractor agency shall complete a minimum of 20 hours of training provided by the qualified instructor within 30 days of their employment. The substance of the training shall be related to the work performed by the registered employee.

(c) Registered employees of the private security contractor agency who provide guarding or other private security related functions, in addition to the classroom training required under subsection (a), within 6 months of their employment, shall complete an additional 8 hours of training on subjects to be determined by the employer, which training may be site-specific and may be conducted on the job.

(d) In addition to the basic training provided for in subsections (a) and (c), registered employees of the private security contractor agency who provide guarding or other private security related functions shall complete an additional 8 hours of refresher training on subjects to be determined by the employer each calendar year commencing with the calendar year following the employee's first employment anniversary date, which refresher training may be site-specific and may be conducted on the job.

(e) It is the responsibility of the employer to certify, on a form provided by the Department, that the employee has successfully completed the basic and refresher training. The form shall be a permanent record of training completed by the employee and shall be placed in the employee's file with the employer for the period the employee remains with the employer. An agency may place a notarized copy of the Department form in lieu of the original into the permanent employee registration card file. The original form shall be given to the employee when his or her employment is terminated. Failure to return the original form to the employee is grounds for disciplinary action. The employee shall not be required to repeat the required training once the employee has been issued the form. An employer may provide or require additional training.

(f) Any certification of completion of the 20-hour basic training issued under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security and Locksmith Act of 1993 or any prior Act shall be accepted as proof of training under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-253, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 505. The Illinois Public Accounting Act is amended by changing Sections 2.1 and 28 as follows:

(225 ILCS 450/2.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 5503)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 2.1. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is hereby expressly adopted and incorporated herein as if all of the provisions of that Act were included in this Act, except that the provision of subsection (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act that provides that at hearings the licensee has the right to show compliance with all lawful requirements for retention, continuation or renewal of the license is specifically excluded. For the purposes of this Act the notice required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is deemed sufficient when mailed to the licensee's address of record.

(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; revised 11-14-13.)

(225 ILCS 450/28) (from Ch. 111, par. 5534)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 28. Criminal penalties. Each of the following acts perpetrated in the State of Illinois is a Class A misdemeanor: .

(a) the practice of accountancy activities as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 8.05 without an active CPA license in violation of the provisions of this Act;

(b) the obtaining or attempting to obtain licensure as a licensed CPA or registration as a registered CPA by fraud;

(c) the use of the title "Certified Public Accountant", "public accountant", or the abbreviation "C.P.A.", "RCPA", "LCPA", "PA" or use of any similar words or letters indicating the user is a certified public accountant, or the title "Registered Certified Public Accountant";

(c-5) (blank);

(d) the use of the title "Certified Public Accountant", "public accountant", or the abbreviation "C.P.A.", "RCPA", "LCPA", "PA" or any similar words or letters indicating that the members are certified public accountants, by any partnership, limited liability company, corporation, or other entity in violation of this Act;

(e) the unauthorized practice in the performance of accountancy activities as defined in Section 8.05 and in violation of this Act;

(f) (blank);

(g) making false statements to the Department regarding compliance with continuing professional education or peer review requirements;

(h) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 510. The Real Estate License Act of 2000 is amended by changing Sections 5-32 and 20-20 as follows:

(225 ILCS 454/5-32)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 5-32. Real estate auction certification.

(a) An auctioneer licensed under the Auction License Act who does not possess a valid and active broker's or managing broker's license under this Act, or who is not otherwise exempt from licensure, may not engage in the practice of auctioning real estate, except as provided in this Section.

(b) The Department shall issue a real estate auction certification to applicants who:

(1) possess a valid auctioneer's license under the Auction License Act;

(2) successfully complete a real estate auction course of at least 30 hours approved by the Department, which shall cover the scope of activities that may be engaged in by a person holding a real estate auction certification and the activities for which a person must hold a real estate license, as well as other material as provided by the Department;

(3) provide documentation of the completion of the real estate auction course; and

(4) successfully complete any other reasonable requirements as provided by rule.

(c) The auctioneer's role shall be limited to establishing the time, place, and method of the real estate auction, placing advertisements regarding the auction, and crying or calling the auction; any other real estate brokerage activities must be performed by a person holding a valid and active real estate broker's or managing broker's license under the provisions of this Act or by a person who is exempt from holding a license under paragraph (13) of Section 5-20 who has a certificate under this Section.

(d) An auctioneer who conducts any real estate auction activities in violation of this Section is guilty of unlicensed practice under Section 20-10 of this Act.

(e) The Department may revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the real estate auction certification of an auctioneer who is adjudicated to be in violation of the provisions of this Section or Section 20-15 of the Auction License Act.

(f) Advertising for the real estate auction must contain the name and address of the licensed real estate broker, managing broker, or a licensed auctioneer under paragraph (13) of Section 5-20 of this Act who is providing brokerage services for the transaction.

(g) The requirement to hold a real estate auction certification shall not apply to a person exempt from this Act under the provisions of paragraph (13) of Section subsection 5-20 of this Act, unless that person is performing licensed activities in a transaction in which a licensed auctioneer with a real estate certification is providing the limited services provided for in subsection (c) of this Section.

(h) Nothing in this Section shall require a person licensed under this Act as a real estate broker or managing broker to obtain a real estate auction certification in order to auction real estate.

(i) The Department may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-553, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-15-13.)

(225 ILCS 454/20-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 20-20. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, may place on probation, suspend, or revoke any license, reprimand, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper and impose a fine not to exceed $25,000 upon any licensee or applicant under this Act or any person who holds himself or herself out as an applicant or licensee or against a licensee in handling his or her own property, whether held by deed, option, or otherwise, for any one or any combination of the following causes:

(1) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(2) The conviction of or plea of guilty or plea of nolo contendere to a felony or misdemeanor in this State or any other jurisdiction; or the entry of an administrative sanction by a government agency in this State or any other jurisdiction. Action taken under this paragraph (2) for a misdemeanor or an administrative sanction is limited to a misdemeanor or administrative sanction that has as an essential element dishonesty or fraud or involves larceny, embezzlement, or obtaining money, property, or credit by false pretenses or by means of a confidence game.

(3) Inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of a physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, or a mental illness or disability.

(4) Practice under this Act as a licensee in a retail sales establishment from an office, desk, or space that is not separated from the main retail business by a separate and distinct area within the establishment.

(5) Having been disciplined by another state, the District of Columbia, a territory, a foreign nation, or a governmental agency authorized to impose discipline if at least one of the grounds for that discipline is the same as or the equivalent of one of the grounds for which a licensee may be disciplined under this Act. A certified copy of the record of the action by the other state or jurisdiction shall be prima facie evidence thereof.

(6) Engaging in the practice of real estate brokerage without a license or after the licensee's license was expired or while the license was inoperative.

(7) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the Real Estate License Exam or continuing education exam.

(8) Aiding or abetting an applicant to subvert or cheat on the Real Estate License Exam or continuing education exam administered pursuant to this Act.

(9) Advertising that is inaccurate, misleading, or contrary to the provisions of the Act.

(10) Making any substantial misrepresentation or untruthful advertising.

(11) Making any false promises of a character likely to influence, persuade, or induce.

(12) Pursuing a continued and flagrant course of misrepresentation or the making of false promises through licensees, employees, agents, advertising, or otherwise.

(13) Any misleading or untruthful advertising, or using any trade name or insignia of membership in any real estate organization of which the licensee is not a member.

(14) Acting for more than one party in a transaction without providing written notice to all parties for whom the licensee acts.

(15) Representing or attempting to represent a broker other than the sponsoring broker.

(16) Failure to account for or to remit any moneys or documents coming into his or her possession that belong to others.

(17) Failure to maintain and deposit in a special account, separate and apart from personal and other business accounts, all escrow moneys belonging to others entrusted to a licensee while acting as a real estate broker, escrow agent, or temporary custodian of the funds of others or failure to maintain all escrow moneys on deposit in the account until the transactions are consummated or terminated, except to the extent that the moneys, or any part thereof, shall be:

(A) disbursed prior to the consummation or termination (i) in accordance with the written direction of the principals to the transaction or their duly authorized agents, (ii) in accordance with directions providing for the release, payment, or distribution of escrow moneys contained in any written contract signed by the principals to the transaction or their duly authorized agents, or (iii) pursuant to an order of a court of competent jurisdiction; or

(B) deemed abandoned and transferred to the Office of the State Treasurer to be handled as unclaimed property pursuant to the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act. Escrow moneys may be deemed abandoned under this subparagraph (B) only: (i) in the absence of disbursement under subparagraph (A); (ii) in the absence of notice of the filing of any claim in a court of competent jurisdiction; and (iii) if 6 months have elapsed after the receipt of a written demand for the escrow moneys from one of the principals to the transaction or the principal's duly authorized agent.

The account shall be noninterest bearing, unless the character of the deposit is such that payment of interest thereon is otherwise required by law or unless the principals to the transaction specifically require, in writing, that the deposit be placed in an interest bearing account.

(18) Failure to make available to the Department all escrow records and related documents maintained in connection with the practice of real estate within 24 hours of a request for those documents by Department personnel.

(19) Failing to furnish copies upon request of documents relating to a real estate transaction to a party who has executed that document.

(20) Failure of a sponsoring broker to timely provide information, sponsor cards, or termination of licenses to the Department.

(21) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(22) Commingling the money or property of others with his or her own money or property.

(23) Employing any person on a purely temporary or single deal basis as a means of evading the law regarding payment of commission to nonlicensees on some contemplated transactions.

(24) Permitting the use of his or her license as a broker to enable a salesperson or unlicensed person to operate a real estate business without actual participation therein and control thereof by the broker.

(25) Any other conduct, whether of the same or a different character from that specified in this Section, that constitutes dishonest dealing.

(26) Displaying a "for rent" or "for sale" sign on any property without the written consent of an owner or his or her duly authorized agent or advertising by any means that any property is for sale or for rent without the written consent of the owner or his or her authorized agent.

(27) Failing to provide information requested by the Department, or otherwise respond to that request, within 30 days of the request.

(28) Advertising by means of a blind advertisement, except as otherwise permitted in Section 10-30 of this Act.

(29) Offering guaranteed sales plans, as defined in clause (A) of this subdivision (29), except to the extent hereinafter set forth:

(A) A "guaranteed sales plan" is any real estate purchase or sales plan whereby a licensee enters into a conditional or unconditional written contract with a seller, prior to entering into a brokerage agreement with the seller, by the terms of which a licensee agrees to purchase a property of the seller within a specified period of time at a specific price in the event the property is not sold in accordance with the terms of a brokerage agreement to be entered into between the sponsoring broker and the seller.

(B) A licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan shall provide the details and conditions of the plan in writing to the party to whom the plan is offered.

(C) A licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan shall provide to the party to whom the plan is offered evidence of sufficient financial resources to satisfy the commitment to purchase undertaken by the broker in the plan.

(D) Any licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan shall undertake to market the property of the seller subject to the plan in the same manner in which the broker would market any other property, unless the agreement with the seller provides otherwise.

(E) The licensee cannot purchase seller's property until the brokerage agreement has ended according to its terms or is otherwise terminated.

(F) Any licensee who fails to perform on a guaranteed sales plan in strict accordance with its terms shall be subject to all the penalties provided in this Act for violations thereof and, in addition, shall be subject to a civil fine payable to the party injured by the default in an amount of up to $25,000.

(30) Influencing or attempting to influence, by any words or acts, a prospective seller, purchaser, occupant, landlord, or tenant of real estate, in connection with viewing, buying, or leasing real estate, so as to promote or tend to promote the continuance or maintenance of racially and religiously segregated housing or so as to retard, obstruct, or discourage racially integrated housing on or in any street, block, neighborhood, or community.

(31) Engaging in any act that constitutes a violation of any provision of Article 3 of the Illinois Human Rights Act, whether or not a complaint has been filed with or adjudicated by the Human Rights Commission.

(32) Inducing any party to a contract of sale or lease or brokerage agreement to break the contract of sale or lease or brokerage agreement for the purpose of substituting, in lieu thereof, a new contract for sale or lease or brokerage agreement with a third party.

(33) Negotiating a sale, exchange, or lease of real estate directly with any person if the licensee knows that the person has an exclusive brokerage agreement with another broker, unless specifically authorized by that broker.

(34) When a licensee is also an attorney, acting as the attorney for either the buyer or the seller in the same transaction in which the licensee is acting or has acted as a broker or salesperson.

(35) Advertising or offering merchandise or services as free if any conditions or obligations necessary for receiving the merchandise or services are not disclosed in the same advertisement or offer. These conditions or obligations include without limitation the requirement that the recipient attend a promotional activity or visit a real estate site. As used in this subdivision (35), "free" includes terms such as "award", "prize", "no charge", "free of charge", "without charge", and similar words or phrases that reasonably lead a person to believe that he or she may receive or has been selected to receive something of value, without any conditions or obligations on the part of the recipient.

(36) Disregarding or violating any provision of the Land Sales Registration Act of 1989, the Illinois Real Estate Time-Share Act, or the published rules promulgated by the Department to enforce those Acts.

(37) Violating the terms of a disciplinary order issued by the Department.

(38) Paying or failing to disclose compensation in violation of Article 10 of this Act.

(39) Requiring a party to a transaction who is not a client of the licensee to allow the licensee to retain a portion of the escrow moneys for payment of the licensee's commission or expenses as a condition for release of the escrow moneys to that party.

(40) Disregarding or violating any provision of this Act or the published rules promulgated by the Department to enforce this Act or aiding or abetting any individual, partnership, registered limited liability partnership, limited liability company, or corporation in disregarding any provision of this Act or the published rules promulgated by the Department to enforce this Act.

(41) Failing to provide the minimum services required by Section 15-75 of this Act when acting under an exclusive brokerage agreement.

(42) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in a managing broker, broker, salesperson, or leasing agent's inability to practice with reasonable skill or safety.

(43) Enabling, aiding, or abetting an auctioneer, as defined in the Auction License Act, to conduct a real estate auction in a manner that is in violation of this Act.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of that tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1002, eff. 8-17-12; 98-553, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 515. The Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act is amended by changing Sections 1-15, 1-35, 1-60, 1-70, 1-75, and 1-95 as follows:

(225 ILCS 732/1-15)

Sec. 1-15. Powers and duties.

(a) Except as otherwise provided, the Department shall enforce this Act and all rules and orders adopted in accordance with this Act.

(b) Except as otherwise provided, the Department shall have jurisdiction and authority over all persons and property necessary to enforce the provisions of this Act effectively. In aid of this jurisdiction, the Director, or anyone designated in writing by the Director, shall have the authority to administer oaths and to issue subpoenas for the production of records or other documents and for the attendance of witnesses at any proceedings of the Department.

(c) The Department may authorize any employee of the Department, qualified by training and experience, to perform the powers and duties set forth in this Act.

(d) For the purpose of determining compliance with the provisions of this Act and any orders or rules entered or adopted under this Act, the Department shall have the right at all times to go upon and inspect properties where high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations are being or have been conducted.

(e) The Department shall make any inquiries as it may deem proper to determine whether a violation of this Act or any orders or rules entered or adopted under this Act exists or is imminent. In the exercise of these powers, the Department shall have the authority to collect data; to require testing and sampling; to make investigation and inspections; to examine properties, including records and logs; to examine, check, and test hydrocarbon wells; to hold hearings; to adopt administrative rules; and to take any action as may be reasonably necessary to enforce this Act.

(f) Except as otherwise provided, the Department may specify the manner in which all information required to be submitted under this Act is submitted.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-18-13.)

(225 ILCS 732/1-35)

Sec. 1-35. High volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit application.

(a) Every applicant for a permit under this Act shall first register with the Department at least 30 days before applying for a permit. The Department shall make available a registration form within 90 days after the effective date of this Act. The registration form shall require the following information:

(1) the name and address of the registrant and any parent, subsidiary, or affiliate thereof;

(2) disclosure of all findings of a serious violation or an equivalent violation under federal or state laws or regulations in the development or operation of an oil or gas exploration or production site via hydraulic fracturing by the applicant or any parent, subsidiary, or affiliate thereof within the previous 5 years; and

(3) proof of insurance to cover injuries, damages, or loss related to pollution or diminution in the amount of at least $5,000,000, from an insurance carrier authorized, licensed, or permitted to do this insurance business in this State that holds at least an A- rating by A.M. Best & Co. or any comparable rating service.

A registrant must notify the Department of any change in the information identified in paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection (a) at least annually or upon request of the Department.

(b) Every applicant for a permit under this Act must submit the following information to the Department on an application form provided by the Department:

(1) the name and address of the applicant and any parent, subsidiary, or affiliate thereof;

(2) the proposed well name and address and legal description of the well site and its unit area;

(3) a statement whether the proposed location of the well site is in compliance with the requirements of Section 1-25 of this Act and a plat, which shows the proposed surface location of the well site, providing the distance in feet, from the surface location of the well site to the features described in subsection (a) of Section 1-25 of this Act;

(4) a detailed description of the proposed well to be used for the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations including, but not limited to, the following information:

(A) the approximate total depth to which the well is to be drilled or deepened;

(B) the proposed angle and direction of the well;

(C) the actual depth or the approximate depth at which the well to be drilled deviates from vertical;

(D) the angle and direction of any nonvertical portion of the wellbore until the well reaches its total target depth or its actual final depth; and

(E) the estimated length and direction of the proposed horizontal lateral or wellbore;

(5) the estimated depth and elevation, according to the most recent publication of the Illinois State Geological Survey of Groundwater for the location of the well, of the lowest potential fresh water along the entire length of the proposed wellbore;

(6) a detailed description of the proposed high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations, including, but not limited to, the following:

(A) the formation affected by the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations, including, but not limited to, geologic name and geologic description of the formation that will be stimulated by the operation;

(B) the anticipated surface treating pressure range;

(C) the maximum anticipated injection treating pressure;

(D) the estimated or calculated fracture pressure of the producing and confining zones; and

(E) the planned depth of all proposed perforations or depth to the top of the open hole section;

(7) a plat showing all known previous wellbores well bores within 750 feet of any part of the horizontal wellbore well bore that penetrated within 400 vertical feet of the formation that will be stimulated as part of the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations;

(8) unless the applicant documents why the information is not available at the time the application is submitted, a chemical disclosure report identifying each chemical and proppant anticipated to be used in hydraulic fracturing fluid for each stage of the hydraulic fracturing operations including the following:

(A) the total volume of water anticipated to be used in the hydraulic fracturing treatment of the well or the type and total volume of the base fluid anticipated to be used in the hydraulic fracturing treatment, if something other than water;

(B) each hydraulic fracturing additive anticipated to be used in the hydraulic fracturing fluid, including the trade name, vendor, a brief descriptor of the intended use or function of each hydraulic fracturing additive, and the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), if applicable;

(C) each chemical anticipated to be intentionally added to the base fluid, including for each chemical, the Chemical Abstracts Service number, if applicable; and

(D) the anticipated concentration in the base fluid, in percent by mass, of each chemical to be intentionally added to the base fluid;

(9) a certification of compliance with the Water Use Act of 1983 and applicable regional water supply plans;

(10) a fresh water withdrawal and management plan that shall include the following information:

(A) the source of the water, such as surface or groundwater, anticipated to be used for water withdrawals, and the anticipated withdrawal location;

(B) the anticipated volume and rate of each water withdrawal from each withdrawal location;

(C) the anticipated months when water withdrawals shall be made from each withdrawal location;

(D) the methods to be used to minimize water withdrawals as much as feasible; and

(E) the methods to be used for surface water withdrawals to minimize adverse impact to aquatic life.

Where a surface water source is wholly contained within a single property, and the owner of the property expressly agrees in writing to its use for water withdrawals, the applicant is not required to include this surface water source in the fresh water withdrawal and management plan; .

(11) a plan for the handling, storage, transportation, and disposal or reuse of hydraulic fracturing fluids and hydraulic fracturing flowback. The plan shall identify the specific Class II injection well or wells that will be used to dispose of the hydraulic fracturing flowback. The plan shall describe the capacity of the tanks to be used for the capture and storage of flowback and of the lined reserve pit to be used, if necessary, to temporarily store any flowback in excess of the capacity of the tanks. Identification of the Class II injection well or wells shall be by name, identification number, and specific location and shall include the date of the most recent mechanical integrity test for each Class II injection well;

(12) a well site safety plan to address proper safety measures to be employed during high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations for the protection of persons on the site as well as the general public. Within 15 calendar days after submitting the permit application to the Department, the applicant must provide a copy of the plan to the county or counties in which hydraulic fracturing operations will occur. Within 5 calendar days of its receipt, the Department shall provide a copy of the well site safety plan to the Office of the State Fire Marshal;

(13) a containment plan describing the containment practices and equipment to be used and the area of the well site where containment systems will be employed, and within 5 calendar days of its receipt, the Department shall provide a copy of the containment plan to the Office of the State Fire Marshal;

(14) a casing and cementing plan that describes the casing and cementing practices to be employed, including the size of each string of pipe, the starting point, and depth to which each string is to be set and the extent to which each string is to be cemented;

(15) a traffic management plan that identifies the anticipated roads, streets, and highways that will be used for access to and egress from the well site. The traffic management plan will include a point of contact to discuss issues related to traffic management. Within 15 calendar days after submitting the permit application to the Department, the applicant must provide a copy of the traffic management plan to the county or counties in which the well site is located, and within 5 calendar days of its receipt, the Department shall provide a copy of the traffic management plan to the Office of the State Fire Marshal;

(16) the names and addresses of all owners of any real property within 1,500 feet of the proposed well site, as disclosed by the records in the office of the recorder of the county or counties;

(17) drafts of the specific public notice and general public notice as required by Section 1-40 of this Act;

(18) a statement that the well site at which the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operation will be conducted will be restored in compliance with Section 240.1181 of Title 62 of the Illinois Administrative Code and Section 1-95 of this Act;

(19) proof of insurance to cover injuries, damages, or loss related to pollution in the amount of at least $5,000,000; and

(20) any other relevant information which the Department may, by rule, require.

(c) Where an application is made to conduct high volume horizontal fracturing operations at a well site located within the limits of any city, village, or incorporated town, the application shall state the name of the city, village, or incorporated town and be accompanied with a certified copy of the official consent for the hydraulic fracturing operations to occur from the municipal authorities where the well site is proposed to be located. No permit shall be issued unless consent is secured and filed with the permit application. In the event that an amended location is selected, the original permit shall not be valid unless a new certified consent is filed for the amended location.

(d) The hydraulic fracturing permit application shall be accompanied by a bond as required by subsection (a) of Section 1-65 of this Act.

(e) Each application for a permit under this Act shall include payment of a non-refundable fee of $13,500. Of this fee, $11,000 shall be deposited into the Mines and Minerals Regulatory Fund for the Department to use to administer and enforce this Act and otherwise support the operations and programs of the Office of Mines and Minerals. The remaining $2,500 shall be deposited into the Illinois Clean Water Fund for the Agency to use to carry out its functions under this Act. The Department shall not initiate its review of the permit application until the applicable fee under this subsection (e) has been submitted to and received by the Department.

(f) Each application submitted under this Act shall be signed, under the penalty of perjury, by the applicant or the applicant's designee who has been vested with the authority to act on behalf of the applicant and has direct knowledge of the information contained in the application and its attachments. Any person signing an application shall also sign an affidavit with the following certification:

"I certify, under penalty of perjury as provided by law and under penalty of refusal, suspension, or revocation of a high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit, that this application and all attachments are true, accurate, and complete to the best of my knowledge.".

(g) The permit application shall be submitted to the Department in both electronic and hard copy format. The electronic format shall be searchable.

(h) The application for a high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit may be submitted as a combined permit application with the operator's application to drill on a form as the Department shall prescribe. The combined application must include the information required in this Section. If the operator elects to submit a combined permit application, information required by this Section that is duplicative of information required for an application to drill is only required to be provided once as part of the combined application. The submission of a combined permit application under this subsection shall not be interpreted to relieve the applicant or the Department from complying with the requirements of this Act or the Illinois Oil and Gas Act.

(i) Upon receipt of a permit application, the Department shall have no more than 60 calendar days from the date it receives the permit application to approve, with any conditions the Department may find necessary, or reject the application for the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit. The applicant may waive, in writing, the 60-day deadline upon its own initiative or in response to a request by the Department.

(j) If at any time during the review period the Department determines that the permit application is not complete under this Act, does not meet the requirements of this Section, or requires additional information, the Department shall notify the applicant in writing of the application's deficiencies and allow the applicant to correct the deficiencies and provide the Department any information requested to complete the application. If the applicant fails to provide adequate supplemental information within the review period, the Department may reject the application.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(225 ILCS 732/1-60)

Sec. 1-60. High volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit; denial, suspension, or revocation.

(a) The Department may suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue a high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit under this Act for one or more of the following causes:

(1) providing incorrect, misleading, incomplete, or materially untrue information in a permit application or any document required to be filed with the Department;

(2) violating any condition of the permit;

(3) violating any provision of or any regulation adopted under this Act or the Illinois Oil and Gas Act;

(4) using fraudulent, coercive, or dishonest practices, or demonstrating incompetence, untrustworthiness, or financial irresponsibility in the conduct of business in this State or elsewhere;

(5) having a high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit, or its equivalent, revoked in any other state, province, district, or territory for incurring a material or major violation or using fraudulent or dishonest practices; or

(6) an emergency condition exists under which conduct of the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations would pose a significant hazard to public health, aquatic life, wildlife, or the environment.

(b) In every case in which a permit is suspended or revoked, the Department shall serve notice of its action, including a statement of the reasons for the action, either personally or by certified mail, receipt return requested, to the permittee.

(c) The order of suspension or revocation of a permit shall take effect upon issuance of the order. The permittee may request, in writing, within 30 days after the date of receiving the notice, a hearing. Except as provided under subsection (d) of this Section, in the event a hearing is requested, the order shall remain in effect until a final order is entered pursuant to the hearing.

(d) The order of suspension or revocation of a permit may be stayed if requested by the permittee and evidence is submitted demonstrating that there is no significant threat to the public health, aquatic life, wildlife, or the environment if the operation is allowed to continue.

(e) The hearing shall be held at a time and place designated by the Department. The Director of the Department or any administrative law judge designated by him or her has have the power to administer oaths and affirmations, subpoena witnesses and compel their attendance, take evidence, and require the production of books, papers, correspondence, and other records or information that he or she considers relevant or material.

(f) The costs of the administrative hearing shall be set by rule and shall be borne by the permittee.

(g) The Department's decision to suspend or revoke a high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit is subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(225 ILCS 732/1-70)

Sec. 1-70. Well preparation, construction, and drilling.

(a) This Section shall apply to all horizontal wells that are to be completed using high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations under a high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit. The requirements of this Section shall be in addition to any other laws or rules regarding wells and well sites.

(b) Site preparation standards shall be as follows:

(1) The access road to the well site must be located in accordance with access rights identified in the Illinois Oil and Gas Act and located as far as practical from occupied structures, places of assembly, and property lines of unleased property.

(2) Unless otherwise approved or directed by the Department, all topsoil stripped to facilitate the construction of the well pad and access roads must be stockpiled, stabilized, and remain on site for use in either partial or final reclamation. In the event it is anticipated that the final reclamation shall take place in excess of one year from drilling the well the topsoil may be disposed of in any lawful manner provided the operator reclaims the site with topsoil of similar characteristics of the topsoil removed.

(3) Piping, conveyances, valves, and tanks in contact with hydraulic fracturing fluid, hydraulic fracturing flowback, or produced water must be constructed of materials compatible with the composition of the hydraulic fracturing fluid, hydraulic fracturing flowback, and produced water.

(4) The improvement, construction, or repair of a publicly owned highway or roadway, if undertaken by the owner, operator, permittee, or any other private entity, shall be performed using bidding procedures outlined in the Illinois Department of Transportation rules governing local roads and streets or applicable bidding requirements outlined in the Illinois Procurement Code as though the project were publicly funded.

(c) Site maintenance standards shall be as follows:

(1) Secondary containment is required for all fueling tanks.

(2) Fueling tanks shall be subject to Section 1-25 of this Act.

(3) Fueling tank filling operations shall be supervised at the fueling truck and at the tank if the tank is not visible to the fueling operator from the truck.

(4) Troughs, drip pads, or drip pans are required beneath the fill port of a fueling tank during filling operations if the fill port is not within the secondary containment required by paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(d) All wells shall be constructed, and casing and cementing activities shall be conducted, in a manner that shall provide for control of the well at all times, prevent the migration of oil, gas, and other fluids into the fresh water and coal seams, and prevent pollution or diminution of fresh water. In addition to any of the Department's casing and cementing requirements, the following shall apply:

(1) All casings must conform to the current industry standards published by the American Petroleum Institute.

(2) Casing thread compound and its use must conform to the current industry standards published by the American Petroleum Institute.

(3) Surface casing shall be centralized at the shoe, above and below a stage collar or diverting tool, if run, and through usable-quality water zones. In non-deviated holes, pipe centralization as follows is required: a centralizer shall be placed every fourth joint from the cement shoe to the ground surface or to the bottom of the cellar. All centralizers shall meet specifications in, or equivalent to, API Spec spec 10D, Specification for Bow-Spring Casing Centralizers; API Spec 10 TR4, Technical Report on Considerations Regarding Selection of Centralizers for Primary Cementing Operations; and API RP 10D-2, Recommended Practice for Centralizer Placement and Stop Collar Testing. The Department may require additional centralization as necessary to ensure the integrity of the well design is adequate. All centralizers must conform to the current industry standards published by the American Petroleum Institute.

(4) Cement must conform to current industry standards published by the American Petroleum Institute and the cement slurry must be prepared to minimize its free water content in accordance with the current industry standards published by the American Petroleum Institute; the cement must also:

(A) secure the casing in the wellbore;

(B) isolate and protect fresh groundwater;

(C) isolate abnormally pressured zones, lost circulation zones, and any potential flow zones including hydrocarbon and fluid-bearing zones;

(D) properly control formation pressure and any pressure from drilling, completion and production;

(E) protect the casing from corrosion and degradation; and

(F) prevent gas flow in the annulus.

(5) Prior to cementing any casing string, the borehole must be circulated and conditioned to ensure an adequate cement bond.

(6) A pre-flush or spacer must be pumped ahead of the cement.

(7) The cement must be pumped at a rate and in a flow regime that inhibits channeling of the cement in the annulus.

(8) Cement compressive strength tests must be performed on all surface, intermediate, and production casing strings; after the cement is placed behind the casing, the operator shall wait on cement to set until the cement achieves a calculated compressive strength of at least 500 pounds per square inch, and a minimum of 8 hours before the casing is disturbed in any way, including installation of a blowout preventer. The cement shall have a 72-hour compressive strength of at least 1,200 psi, and the free water separation shall be no more than 6 milliliters per 250 milliliters of cement, tested in accordance with current American Petroleum petroleum Institute standards.

(9) A copy of the cement job log for any cemented casing string in the well shall be maintained in the well file and available to the Department upon request.

(10) Surface casing shall be used and set to a depth of at least 200 feet, or 100 feet below the base of the deepest fresh water, whichever is deeper, but no more than 200 feet below the base of the deepest fresh water and prior to encountering any hydrocarbon-bearing zones. The surface casing must be run and cemented as soon as practicable after the hole has been adequately circulated and conditioned.

(11) The Department must be notified at least 24 hours prior to surface casing cementing operations. Surface casing must be fully cemented to the surface with excess cements. Cementing must be by the pump and plug method with a minimum of 25% excess cement with appropriate lost circulation material, unless another amount of excess cement is approved by the Department. If cement returns are not observed at the surface, the operator must perform remedial actions as appropriate.

(12) Intermediate casing must be installed when necessary to isolate fresh water not isolated by surface casing and to seal off potential flow zones, anomalous pressure zones, lost circulation zones and other drilling hazards.

Intermediate casing must be set to protect fresh water if surface casing was set above the base of the deepest fresh water, if additional fresh water was found below the surface casing shoe, or both. Intermediate casing used to isolate fresh water must not be used as the production string in the well in which it is installed, and may not be perforated for purposes of conducting a hydraulic fracture treatment through it.

When intermediate casing is installed to protect fresh water, the operator shall set a full string of new intermediate casing at least 100 feet below the base of the deepest fresh water and bring cement to the surface. In instances where intermediate casing was set solely to protect fresh water encountered below the surface casing shoe, and cementing to the surface is technically infeasible, would result in lost circulation, or both, cement must be brought to a minimum of 600 feet above the shallowest fresh water zone encountered below the surface casing shoe or to the surface if the fresh water zone is less than 600 feet from the surface. The location and depths of any hydrocarbon-bearing zones or fresh water zones that are open to the wellbore above the casing shoe must be confirmed by coring, electric logs, or testing and must be reported to the Department.

In the case that intermediate casing was set for a reason other than to protect strata that contains fresh water, the intermediate casing string shall be cemented from the shoe to a point at least 600 true vertical feet above the shoe. If there is a hydrocarbon-bearing hydrocarbon bearing zone capable of producing exposed above the intermediate casing shoe, the casing shall be cemented from the shoe to a point at least 600 true vertical feet above the shallowest hydrocarbon-bearing hydrocarbon bearing zone or to a point at least 200 feet above the shoe of the next shallower casing string that was set and cemented in the well (or to the surface if less than 200 feet).

(13) The Department must be notified prior to intermediate casing cementing operations. Cementing must be by the pump and plug method with a minimum of 25% excess cement. A radial cement bond evaluation log, or other evaluation approved by the Department, must be run to verify the cement bond on the intermediate casing. Remedial cementing is required if the cement bond is not adequate for drilling ahead.

(14) Production casing must be run and fully cemented to 500 feet above the top perforated zone, if possible. The Department must be notified at least 24 hours prior to production casing cementing operations. Cementing must be by the pump and plug method with a minimum of 25% excess cement.

(15) At any time, the Department, as it deems necessary, may require installation of an additional cemented casing string or strings in the well.

(16) After the setting and cementing of a casing string, except the conductor casing, and prior to further drilling, the casing string shall be tested with fresh water, mud, or brine to no less than 0.22 psi per foot of casing string length or 1,500 psi, whichever is greater but not to exceed 70% of the minimum internal yield, for at least 30 minutes with less than a 5% pressure loss, except that any casing string that will have pressure exerted on it during stimulation of the well shall be tested to at least the maximum anticipated treatment pressure. If the pressure declines more than 5% or if there are other indications of a leak, corrective action shall be taken before conducting further drilling and high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations. The operator shall contact the Department's District Office for any county in which the well is located at least 24 hours prior to conducting a pressure test to enable an inspector to be present when the test is done. A record of the pressure test must be maintained by the operator and must be submitted to the Department on a form prescribed by the Department prior to conducting high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations. The actual pressure must not exceed the test pressure at any time during high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations.

(17) Any hydraulic fracturing string used in the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations must be either strung into a production liner or run with a packer set at least 100 feet below the deepest cement top and must be tested to not less than the maximum anticipated treating pressure minus the annulus pressure applied between the fracturing string and the production or immediate casing. The pressure test shall be considered successful if the pressure applied has been held for 30 minutes with no more than 5% pressure loss. A function-tested relief valve and diversion line must be installed and used to divert flow from the hydraulic fracturing string-casing annulus to a covered watertight steel tank in case of hydraulic fracturing string failure. The relief valve must be set to limit the annular pressure to no more than 95% of the working pressure rating of the casings forming the annulus. The annulus between the hydraulic fracturing string and casing must be pressurized to at least 250 psi and monitored.

(18) After a successful pressure test under paragraph (16) of this subsection, a formation pressure integrity test must be conducted below the surface casing and below all intermediate casing. The operator shall notify the Department's District Office for any county in which the well is located at least 24 hours prior to conducting a formation pressure integrity test to enable an inspector to be present when the test is done. A record of the pressure test must be maintained by the operator and must be submitted to the Department on a form prescribed by the Department prior to conducting high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations. The actual hydraulic fracturing treatment pressure must not exceed the test pressure at any time during high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations.

(e) Blowout prevention standards shall be set as follows:

(1) The operator shall use blowout prevention equipment after setting casing with a competent casing seat. Blowout prevention equipment shall be in good working condition at all times.

(2) The operator shall use pipe fittings, valves, and unions placed on or connected to the blow out blow-out prevention systems that have a working pressure capability that exceeds the anticipated pressures.

(3) During all drilling and completion operations when a blowout preventer is installed, tested, or in use, the operator or operator's designated representative shall be present at the well site and that person or personnel shall have a current well control certification from an accredited training program that is acceptable to the Department. The certification shall be available at the well site and provided to the Department upon request.

(4) Appropriate pressure control procedures and equipment in proper working order must be properly installed and employed while conducting drilling and completion operations including tripping, logging, running casing into the well, and drilling out solid-core stage plugs.

(5) Pressure testing of the blowout preventer and related equipment for any drilling or completion operation must be performed. Testing must be conducted in accordance with current industry standards published by the American Petroleum Institute. Testing of the blowout preventer shall include testing after the blowout preventer is installed on the well but prior to drilling below the last cemented casing seat. Pressure control equipment, including the blowout preventer, that fails any pressure test shall not be used until it is repaired and passes the pressure test.

(6) A remote blowout preventer actuator, that is powered by a source other than rig hydraulics, shall be located at least 50 feet from the wellhead and have an appropriate rated working pressure.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-14-13.)

(225 ILCS 732/1-75)

Sec. 1-75. High volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations.

(a) General.

(1) During all phases of high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations, the permittee shall comply with all terms of the permit.

(2) All phases of high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations shall be conducted in a manner that shall not pose a significant risk to public health, life, property, aquatic life, or wildlife.

(3) The permittee shall notify the Department by phone, electronic communication, or letter, at least 48 hours prior to the commencement of high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations.

(b) Integrity tests and monitoring.

(1) Before the commencement of high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations, all mechanical integrity tests required under subsection (d) of Section 1-70 and this subsection must be successfully completed.

(2) Prior to commencing high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations and pumping of hydraulic fracturing fluid, the injection lines and manifold, associated valves, fracture head or tree and any other wellhead component or connection not previously tested must be tested with fresh water, mud, or brine to at least the maximum anticipated treatment pressure for at least 30 minutes with less than a 5% pressure loss. A record of the pressure test must be maintained by the operator and made available to the Department upon request. The actual high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing treatment pressure must not exceed the test pressure at any time during high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations.

(3) The pressure exerted on treating equipment including valves, lines, manifolds, hydraulic fracturing head or tree, casing and hydraulic fracturing string, if used, must not exceed 95% of the working pressure rating of the weakest component. The high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing treatment pressure must not exceed the test pressure of any given component at any time during high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations.

(4) During high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations, all annulus pressures, the injection pressure, and the rate of injection shall be continuously monitored and recorded. The records of the monitoring shall be maintained by the operator and shall be provided to the Department upon request at any time during the period up to and including 5 years after the well is permanently plugged or abandoned.

(5) High volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations must be immediately suspended if any anomalous pressure or flow condition or any other anticipated pressure or flow condition is occurring in a way that indicates the mechanical integrity of the well has been compromised and continued operations pose a risk to the environment. Remedial action shall be undertaken immediately prior to recommencing high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations. The permittee shall notify the Department within 1 hour of suspending operations for any matters relating to the mechanical integrity of the well or risk to the environment.

(c) Fluid and waste management.

(1) For the purposes of storage at the well site and except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, hydraulic fracturing additives, hydraulic fracturing fluid, hydraulic fracturing flowback, and produced water shall be stored in above-ground tanks during all phases of drilling, high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing, and production operations until removed for proper disposal. For the purposes of centralized storage off site for potential reuse prior to disposal, hydraulic fracturing additives, hydraulic fracturing fluid, hydraulic fracturing flowback, and produced water shall be stored in above-ground tanks.

(2) In accordance with the plan required by paragraph (11) of subsection (b) of Section 1-35 of this Act and as approved by the Department, the use of a reserve pit is allowed for the temporary storage of hydraulic fracturing flowback. The reserve pit shall be used only in the event of a lack of capacity for tank storage due to higher than expected volume or rate of hydraulic fracturing flowback, or other unanticipated flowback occurrence. Any reserve pit must comply with the following construction standards and liner specifications:

(A) the synthetic liner material shall have a minimum thickness of 24 mils with high puncture and tear strength and be impervious and resistant to deterioration;

(B) the pit lining system shall be designed to have a capacity at least equivalent to 110% of the maximum volume of hydraulic fracturing flowback anticipated to be recovered;

(C) the lined pit shall be constructed, installed, and maintained in accordance with the manufacturers' specifications and good engineering practices to prevent overflow during any use;

(D) the liner shall have sufficient elongation to cover the bottom and interior sides of the pit with the edges secured with at least a 12 inch deep anchor trench around the pit perimeter to prevent any slippage or destruction of the liner materials; and

(E) the foundation for the liner shall be free of rock and constructed with soil having a minimum thickness of 12 inches after compaction covering the entire bottom and interior sides of the pit.

(3) Fresh water may be stored in tanks or pits at the election of the operator.

(4) Tanks required under this subsection must be above-ground tanks that are closed, watertight, and will resist corrosion. The permittee shall routinely inspect the tanks for corrosion.

(5) Hydraulic fracturing fluids and hydraulic fracturing flowback must be removed from the well site within 60 days after completion of high volume horizontal fracturing operations, except that any excess hydraulic fracturing flowback captured for temporary storage in a reserve pit as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection must be removed from the well site within 7 days.

(6) Tanks, piping, and conveyances, including valves, must be constructed of suitable materials, be of sufficient pressure rating, be able to resist corrosion, and be maintained in a leak-free condition. Fluid transfer operations from tanks to tanker trucks must be supervised at the truck and at the tank if the tank is not visible to the truck operator from the truck. During transfer operations, all interconnecting piping must be supervised if not visible to transfer personnel at the truck and tank.

(7) Hydraulic fracturing flowback must be tested for volatile organic chemicals, semi-volatile organic chemicals, inorganic chemicals, heavy metals, and naturally occurring radioactive material prior to removal from the site. Testing shall occur once per well site and the analytical results shall be filed with the Department and the Agency, and provided to the liquid oilfield waste transportation and disposal operators. Prior to plugging and site restoration, the ground adjacent to the storage tanks and any hydraulic fracturing flowback reserve pit must be measured for radioactivity.

(8) Hydraulic fracturing flowback may only be disposed of by injection into a Class II injection well that is below interface between fresh water and naturally occurring Class IV groundwater. Produced water may be disposed of by injection in a permitted enhanced oil recovery operation. Hydraulic fracturing flowback and produced water may be treated and recycled for use in hydraulic fracturing fluid for high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations.

(9) Discharge of hydraulic fracturing fluids, hydraulic fracturing flowback, and produced water into any surface water or water drainage way is prohibited.

(10) Transport of all hydraulic fracturing fluids, hydraulic fracturing flowback, and produced water by vehicle for disposal must be undertaken by a liquid oilfield waste hauler permitted by the Department under Section 8c of the Illinois Oil and Gas Act. The liquid oilfield waste hauler transporting hydraulic fracturing fluids, hydraulic fracturing flowback, or produced water under this Act shall comply with all laws, rules, and regulations concerning liquid oilfield waste.

(11) Drill cuttings, drilling fluids, and drilling wastes not containing oil-based mud or polymer-based mud may be stored in tanks or pits. Pits used to store cuttings, fluids, and drilling wastes from wells not using fresh water mud shall be subject to the construction standards identified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (c) Section. Drill cuttings not contaminated with oil-based mud or polymer-based mud may be disposed of onsite subject to the approval of the Department. Drill cuttings contaminated with oil-based mud or polymer-based mud shall not be disposed of onsite on site. Annular disposal of drill cuttings or fluid is prohibited.

(12) Any release of hydraulic fracturing fluid, hydraulic fracturing additive, or hydraulic fracturing flowback, used or generated during or after high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations shall be immediately cleaned up and remediated pursuant to Department requirements. Any release of hydraulic fracturing fluid or hydraulic fracturing flowback in excess of 1 barrel, shall be reported to the Department. Any release of a hydraulic fracturing additive shall be reported to the Department in accordance with the appropriate reportable quantity thresholds established under the federal Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act as published in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), 40 CFR Parts 355, 370, and 372, the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act as published in 40 CFR Part 302, and subsection (r) of Section 112 of the federal Federal Clean Air Act as published in 40 CFR Part 68. Any release of produced water in excess of 5 barrels shall be cleaned up, remediated, and reported pursuant to Department requirements.

(13) Secondary containment for tanks required under this subsection and additive staging areas is required. Secondary containment measures may include, as deemed appropriate by the Department, one or a combination of the following: dikes, liners, pads, impoundments, curbs, sumps, or other structures or equipment capable of containing the substance. Any secondary containment must be sufficient to contain 110% of the total capacity of the single largest container or tank within a common containment area. No more than one hour before initiating any stage of the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations, all secondary containment must be visually inspected to ensure all structures and equipment are in place and in proper working order. The results of this inspection must be recorded and documented by the operator, and available to the Department upon request.

(14) A report on the transportation and disposal of the hydraulic fracturing fluids and hydraulic fracturing flowback shall be prepared and included in the well file. The report must include the amount of fluids transported, identification of the company that transported the fluids, the destination of the fluids, and the method of disposal.

(15) Operators operating wells permitted under this Act must submit an annual report to the Department detailing the management of any produced water associated with the permitted well. The report shall be due to the Department no later than April 30th of each year and shall provide information on the operator's management of any produced water for the prior calendar year. The report shall contain information relative to the amount of produced water the well permitted under this Act produced, the method by which the produced water was disposed, and the destination where the produced water was disposed in addition to any other information the Department determines is necessary by rule.

(d) Hydraulic fracturing fluid shall be confined to the targeted formation designated in the permit. If the hydraulic fracturing fluid or hydraulic fracturing flowback are migrating into the freshwater zone or to the surface from the well in question or from other wells, the permittee shall immediately notify the Department and shut in the well until remedial action that prevents the fluid migration is completed. The permittee shall obtain the approval of the Department prior to resuming operations.

(e) Emissions controls.

(1) This subsection applies to all horizontal wells that are completed with high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (8) of this subsection (e), permittees shall be responsible for managing gas and hydrocarbon fluids produced during the flowback period by routing recovered hydrocarbon fluids to one or more storage vessels or re-injecting into the well or another well, and routing recovered natural gas into a flow line or collection system, re-injecting the gas into the well or another well, using the gas as an on-site fuel source, or using the gas for another useful purpose that a purchased fuel or raw material would serve, with no direct release to the atmosphere.

(3) If it is technically infeasible or economically unreasonable to minimize emissions associated with the venting of hydrocarbon fluids and natural gas during the flowback period using the methods specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (e), the permittee shall capture and direct the emissions to a completion combustion device, except in conditions that may result in a fire hazard or explosion, or where high heat emissions from a completion combustion device may negatively impact waterways. Completion combustion devices must be equipped with a reliable continuous ignition source over the duration of the flowback period.

(4) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (8) of this subsection (e), permittees shall be responsible for minimizing the emissions associated with venting of hydrocarbon fluids and natural gas during the production phase by:

(A) routing the recovered fluids into storage vessels and (i) routing the recovered gas into a gas gathering line, collection system, or to a generator for onsite energy generation, providing that gas to the surface owner of the well site for use for heat or energy generation, or (ii) using another method other than venting or flaring; and

(B) employing sand traps, surge vessels, separators, and tanks as soon as practicable during cleanout operations to safely maximize resource recovery and minimize releases to the environment.

(5) If the permittee establishes that it is technically infeasible or economically unreasonable to minimize emissions associated with the venting of hydrocarbon fluids and natural gas during production using the methods specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection (e), the Department shall require the permittee to capture and direct any natural gas produced during the production phase to a flare. Any flare used pursuant to this paragraph shall be equipped with a reliable continuous ignition source over the duration of production. In order to establish technical infeasibility or economic unreasonableness under this paragraph (5), the permittee must demonstrate, for each well site on an annual basis, that taking the actions listed in paragraph (4) of this subsection (e) are not cost effective based on a site-specific analysis. Permittees that use a flare during the production phase for operations other than emergency conditions shall file an updated site-specific analysis annually with the Department. The analysis shall be due one year from the date of the previous submission and shall detail whether any changes have occurred that alter the technical infeasibility or economic unreasonableness of the permittee to reduce their emissions in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (e).

(6) Uncontrolled emissions exceeding 6 tons per year from storage tanks shall be recovered and routed to a flare that is designed in accordance with 40 CFR 60.18 and is certified by the manufacturer of the device. The permittee shall maintain and operate the flare in accordance with manufacturer specifications. Any flare used under this paragraph must be equipped with a reliable continuous ignition source over the duration of production.

(7) The Department may approve an exemption that waives the flaring requirements of paragraphs (5) and (6) of this subsection (e) only if the permittee demonstrates that the use of the flare will pose a significant risk of injury or property damage and that alternative methods of collection will not threaten harm to the environment. In determining whether to approve a waiver, the Department shall consider the quantity of casinghead gas produced, the topographical and climatological features at the well site, and the proximity of agricultural structures, crops, inhabited structures, public buildings, and public roads and railways.

(8) For each wildcat well, delineation well, or low pressure well, permittees shall be responsible for minimizing the emissions associated with venting of hydrocarbon fluids and natural gas during the flowback period and production phase by capturing and directing the emissions to a completion combustion device during the flowback period and to a flare during the production phase, except in conditions that may result in a fire hazard or explosion, or where high heat emissions from a completion combustion device or flare may negatively impact waterways. Completion combustion devices and flares shall be equipped with a reliable continuous ignition source over the duration of the flowback period and the production phase, as applicable.

(9) On or after July 1, 2015, all flares used under paragraphs (5) and (8) of this subsection (e) shall (i) operate with a combustion efficiency of at least 98% and in accordance with 40 CFR 60.18; and (ii) be certified by the manufacturer of the device. The permittee shall maintain and operate the flare in accordance with manufacturer specifications.

(10) Permittees shall employ practices for control of fugitive dust related to their operations. These practices shall include, but are not limited to, the use of speed restrictions, regular road maintenance, and restriction of construction activity during high-wind days. Additional management practices such as road surfacing, wind breaks and barriers, or automation of wells to reduce truck traffic may also be required by the Department if technologically feasible and economically reasonable to minimize fugitive dust emissions.

(11) Permittees shall record and report to the Department on an annual basis the amount of gas flared or vented from each high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing well. Three years after the effective date of the first high volume high-volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing well permit issued by the Department, and every 3 years thereafter, the Department shall prepare a report that analyzes the amount of gas that has been flared or vented and make recommendations to the General Assembly on whether steps should be taken to reduce the amount of gas that is being flared or vented in this State.

(f) High volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations completion report. Within 60 calendar days after the conclusion of high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations, the operator shall file a high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations completion report with the Department. A copy of each completion report submitted to the Department shall be provided by the Department to the Illinois State Geological Survey. The completion reports required by this Section shall be considered public information and shall be made available on the Department's website. The high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations completion report shall contain the following information:

(1) the permittee name as listed in the permit application;

(2) the dates of the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations;

(3) the county where the well is located;

(4) the well name and Department reference number;

(5) the total water volume used in the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations of the well, and the type and total volume of the base fluid used if something other than water;

(6) each source from which the water used in the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations was drawn, and the specific location of each source, including, but not limited to, the name of the county and latitude and longitude coordinates;

(7) the quantity of hydraulic fracturing flowback recovered from the well;

(8) a description of how hydraulic fracturing flowback recovered from the well was disposed and, if applicable, reused;

(9) a chemical disclosure report identifying each chemical and proppant used in hydraulic fracturing fluid for each stage of the hydraulic fracturing operations including the following:

(A) the total volume of water used in the hydraulic fracturing treatment of the well or the type and total volume of the base fluid used in the hydraulic fracturing treatment, if something other than water;

(B) each hydraulic fracturing additive used in the hydraulic fracturing fluid, including the trade name, vendor, a brief descriptor of the intended use or function of each hydraulic fracturing additive, and the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), if applicable;

(C) each chemical intentionally added to the base fluid, including for each chemical, the Chemical Abstracts Service number, if applicable; and

(D) the actual concentration in the base fluid, in percent by mass, of each chemical intentionally added to the base fluid;

(10) all pressures recorded during the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations; and

(11) any other reasonable or pertinent information related to the conduct of the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations the Department may request or require by administrative rule.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(225 ILCS 732/1-95)

Sec. 1-95. Plugging; restoration.

(a) The permittee shall perform and complete plugging of the well and restoration of the well site in accordance with the Illinois Oil and Gas Act and any and all rules adopted thereunder. The permittee shall bear all costs related to plugging of the well and reclamation of the well site. If the permittee fails to plug the well in accordance with this Section, the owner of the well shall be responsible for complying with this Section.

(b) Prior to conducting high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations at a well site, the permittee shall cause to be plugged all previously unplugged wellbores well bores within 750 feet of any part of the horizontal wellbore well bore that penetrated within 400 vertical feet of the formation that will be stimulated as part of the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations.

(c) For well sites where high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations were permitted to occur, the operator shall restore any lands used by the operator other than the well site and production facility to a condition as closely approximating the pre-drilling conditions that existed before the land was disturbed for any stage of site preparation activities, drilling, and high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations. Restoration shall be commenced within 6 months of completion of the well site and completed within 12 months. Restoration shall include, but is not limited to, repair of tile lines, repair of fences and barriers, mitigation of soil compaction and rutting, application of fertilizer or lime to restore the fertility of disturbed soil, and repair of soil conservation practices such as terraces and grassed waterways.

(d) Unless contractually agreed to the contrary by the permittee and surface owner, the permittee shall restore the well site and production facility in accordance with the applicable restoration requirements in subsection (c) of this Section and shall remove all equipment and materials involved in site preparation, drilling, and high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations, including tank batteries, rock and concrete pads, oilfield oil field debris, injection and flow lines at or above the surface, electric power lines and poles extending on or above the surface, tanks, fluids, pipes at or above the surface, secondary containment measures, rock or concrete bases, drilling equipment and supplies, and any and all other equipment, facilities, or materials used during any stage of site preparation work, drilling, or hydraulic fracturing operations at the well site. Work on the removal of equipment and materials at the well site shall begin within 6 months after plugging the final well on the well site and be completed no later than 12 months after the last producing well on the well site has been plugged. Roads installed as part of the oil and gas operation may be left in place if provided in the lease or pursuant to agreement with the surface owner, as applicable.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 520. The Riverboat Gambling Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(230 ILCS 10/8) (from Ch. 120, par. 2408)

Sec. 8. Suppliers licenses.

(a) The Board may issue a suppliers license to such persons, firms or corporations which apply therefor upon the payment of a non-refundable application fee set by the Board, upon a determination by the Board that the applicant is eligible for a suppliers license and upon payment of a $5,000 annual license fee.

(b) The holder of a suppliers license is authorized to sell or lease, and to contract to sell or lease, gambling equipment and supplies to any licensee involved in the ownership or management of gambling operations.

(c) Gambling supplies and equipment may not be distributed unless supplies and equipment conform to standards adopted by rules of the Board.

(d) A person, firm or corporation is ineligible to receive a suppliers license if:

(1) the person has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State, any other state, or the United States;

(2) the person has been convicted of any violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or substantially similar laws of any other jurisdiction;

(3) the person has submitted an application for a license under this Act which contains false information;

(4) the person is a member of the Board;

(5) the firm or corporation is one in which a person defined in (1), (2), (3) or (4), is an officer, director or managerial employee;

(6) the firm or corporation employs a person who participates in the management or operation of riverboat gambling authorized under this Act;

(7) the license of the person, firm or corporation issued under this Act, or a license to own or operate gambling facilities in any other jurisdiction, has been revoked.

(e) Any person that supplies any equipment, devices, or supplies to a licensed riverboat gambling operation must first obtain a suppliers license. A supplier shall furnish to the Board a list of all equipment, devices and supplies offered for sale or lease in connection with gambling games authorized under this Act. A supplier shall keep books and records for the furnishing of equipment, devices and supplies to gambling operations separate and distinct from any other business that the supplier might operate. A supplier shall file a quarterly return with the Board listing all sales and leases. A supplier shall permanently affix its name or a distinctive logo or other mark or design element identifying the manufacturer or supplier to all its equipment, devices, and supplies, except gaming chips without a value impressed, engraved, or imprinted on it, for gambling operations. The Board may waive this requirement for any specific product or products if it determines that the requirement is not necessary to protect the integrity of the game. Items purchased from a licensed supplier may continue to be used even though the supplier subsequently changes its name, distinctive logo, or other mark or design element; undergoes a change in ownership; or ceases to be licensed as a supplier for any reason. Any supplier's equipment, devices or supplies which are used by any person in an unauthorized gambling operation shall be forfeited to the State. A licensed owner may own its own equipment, devices and supplies. Each holder of an owners license under the Act shall file an annual report listing its inventories of gambling equipment, devices and supplies.

(f) Any person who knowingly makes a false statement on an application is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(g) Any gambling equipment, devices and supplies provided by any licensed supplier may either be repaired on the riverboat or removed from the riverboat to an on-shore facility owned by the holder of an owners license for repair.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-12, eff. 5-10-13; revised 6-10-13.)

Section 525. The Raffles Act is amended by changing Section 8.1 as follows:

(230 ILCS 15/8.1) (from Ch. 85, par. 2308.1)

Sec. 8.1. (a) Political Committees.

(a) For the purposes of this Section the terms defined in this subsection have the meanings given them.

"Net Proceeds" means the gross receipts from the conduct of raffles, less reasonable sums expended for prizes, license fees and other reasonable operating expenses incurred as a result of operating a raffle.

"Raffle" means a form of lottery, as defined in Section 28-2 (b) of the Criminal Code of 2012, conducted by a political committee licensed under this Section, in which:

(1) the player pays or agrees to pay something of value for a chance, represented and differentiated by a number or by a combination of numbers or by some other medium, one or more of which chances is to be designated the winning chance;

(2) the winning chance is to be determined through a drawing or by some other method based on an element of chance by an act or set of acts on the part of persons conducting or connected with the lottery, except that the winning chance shall not be determined by the outcome of a publicly exhibited sporting contest.

"Unresolved claim" means a claim for civil penalty under Sections 9-3, 9-10, and 9-23 of The Election Code which has been begun by the State Board of Elections, has been disputed by the political committee under the applicable rules of the State Board of Elections, and has not been finally decided either by the State Board of Elections, or, where application for review has been made to the Courts of Illinois, remains finally undecided by the Courts.

"Owes" means that a political committee has been finally determined under applicable rules of the State Board of Elections to be liable for a civil penalty under Sections 9-3, 9-10, and 9-23 of The Election Code.

(b) Licenses issued pursuant to this Section shall be valid for one raffle or for a specified number of raffles to be conducted during a specified period not to exceed one year and may be suspended or revoked for any violation of this Section. The State Board of Elections shall act on a license application within 30 days from the date of application.

(c) Licenses issued by the State Board of Elections are subject to the following restrictions:

(1) No political committee shall conduct raffles or chances without having first obtained a license therefor pursuant to this Section.

(2) The application for license shall be prepared in accordance with regulations of the State Board of Elections and must specify the area or areas within the State in which raffle chances will be sold or issued, the time period during which raffle chances will be sold or issued, the time of determination of winning chances and the location or locations at which winning chances will be determined.

(3) A license authorizes the licensee to conduct raffles as defined in this Section.

The following are ineligible for any license under this Section:

(i) any political committee which has an officer who has been convicted of a felony;

(ii) any political committee which has an officer who is or has been a professional gambler or gambling promoter;

(iii) any political committee which has an officer who is not of good moral character;

(iv) any political committee which has an officer who is also an officer of a firm or corporation in which a person defined in (i), (ii) or (iii) has a proprietary, equitable or credit interest, or in which such a person is active or employed;

(v) any political committee in which a person defined in (i), (ii) or (iii) is an officer, director, or employee, whether compensated or not;

(vi) any political committee in which a person defined in (i), (ii) or (iii) is to participate in the management or operation of a raffle as defined in this Section;

(vii) any committee which, at the time of its application for a license to conduct a raffle, owes the State Board of Elections any unpaid civil penalty authorized by Sections 9-3, 9-10, and 9-23 of The Election Code, or is the subject of an unresolved claim for a civil penalty under Sections 9-3, 9-10, and 9-23 of The Election Code;

(viii) any political committee which, at the time of its application to conduct a raffle, has not submitted any report or document required to be filed by Article 9 of The Election Code and such report or document is more than 10 days overdue.

(d) (1) The conducting of raffles is subject to the following restrictions:

(i) The entire net proceeds of any raffle must be exclusively devoted to the lawful purposes of the political committee permitted to conduct that game.

(ii) No person except a bona fide member of the political committee may participate in the management or operation of the raffle.

(iii) No person may receive any remuneration or profit for participating in the management or operation of the raffle.

(iv) Raffle chances may be sold or issued only within the area specified on the license and winning chances may be determined only at those locations specified on the license.

(v) A person under the age of 18 years may participate in the conducting of raffles or chances only with the permission of a parent or guardian. A person under the age of 18 years may be within the area where winning chances are being determined only when accompanied by his parent or guardian.

(2) If a lessor rents premises where a winning chance or chances on a raffle are determined, the lessor shall not be criminally liable if the person who uses the premises for the determining of winning chances does not hold a license issued under the provisions of this Section.

(e) (1) Each political committee licensed to conduct raffles and chances shall keep records of its gross receipts, expenses and net proceeds for each single gathering or occasion at which winning chances are determined. All deductions from gross receipts for each single gathering or occasion shall be documented with receipts or other records indicating the amount, a description of the purchased item or service or other reason for the deduction, and the recipient. The distribution of net proceeds shall be itemized as to payee, purpose, amount and date of payment.

(2) Each political committee licensed to conduct raffles shall report on the next report due to be filed under Article 9 of The Election Code its gross receipts, expenses and net proceeds from raffles, and the distribution of net proceeds itemized as required in this subsection.

Such reports shall be included in the regular reports required of political committees by Article 9 of The Election Code.

(3) Records required by this subsection shall be preserved for 3 years, and political committees shall make available their records relating to operation of raffles for public inspection at reasonable times and places.

(f) Violation of any provision of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the conducting or operating of any gambling scheme, enterprise, activity or device other than raffles as provided for herein.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 530. The Video Gaming Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 15, 25, and 45 as follows:

(230 ILCS 40/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Board" means the Illinois Gaming Board.

"Credit" means one, 5, 10, or 25 cents either won or purchased by a player.

"Distributor" means an individual, partnership, corporation, or limited liability company licensed under this Act to buy, sell, lease, or distribute video gaming terminals or major components or parts of video gaming terminals to or from terminal operators.

"Electronic card" means a card purchased from a licensed establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, licensed veterans establishment, or licensed truck stop establishment for use in that establishment as a substitute for cash in the conduct of gaming on a video gaming terminal.

"Electronic voucher" means a voucher printed by an electronic video game machine that is redeemable in the licensed establishment for which it was issued.

"Terminal operator" means an individual, partnership, corporation, or limited liability company that is licensed under this Act and that owns, services, and maintains video gaming terminals for placement in licensed establishments, licensed truck stop establishments, licensed fraternal establishments, or licensed veterans establishments.

"Licensed technician" means an individual who is licensed under this Act to repair, service, and maintain video gaming terminals.

"Licensed terminal handler" means a person, including but not limited to an employee or independent contractor working for a manufacturer, distributor, supplier, technician, or terminal operator, who is licensed under this Act to possess or control a video gaming terminal or to have access to the inner workings of a video gaming terminal. A licensed terminal handler does not include an individual, partnership, corporation, or limited liability company defined as a manufacturer, distributor, supplier, technician, or terminal operator under this Act.

"Manufacturer" means an individual, partnership, corporation, or limited liability company that is licensed under this Act and that manufactures or assembles video gaming terminals.

"Supplier" means an individual, partnership, corporation, or limited liability company that is licensed under this Act to supply major components or parts to video gaming terminals to licensed terminal operators.

"Net terminal income" means money put into a video gaming terminal minus credits paid out to players.

"Video gaming terminal" means any electronic video game machine that, upon insertion of cash, electronic cards or vouchers, or any combination thereof, electronic voucher, or any combination thereof, is available to play or simulate the play of a video game, including but not limited to video poker, line up, and blackjack, as authorized by the Board utilizing a video display and microprocessors in which the player may receive free games or credits that can be redeemed for cash. The term does not include a machine that directly dispenses coins, cash, or tokens or is for amusement purposes only.

"Licensed establishment" means any licensed retail establishment where alcoholic liquor is drawn, poured, mixed, or otherwise served for consumption on the premises, whether the establishment operates on a nonprofit or for-profit basis. "Licensed establishment" includes any such establishment that has a contractual relationship with an inter-track wagering location licensee licensed under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975, provided any contractual relationship shall not include any transfer or offer of revenue from the operation of video gaming under this Act to any licensee licensed under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975. Provided, however, that the licensed establishment that has such a contractual relationship with an inter-track wagering location licensee may not, itself, be (i) an inter-track wagering location licensee, (ii) the corporate parent or subsidiary of any licensee licensed under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975, or (iii) the corporate subsidiary of a corporation that is also the corporate parent or subsidiary of any licensee licensed under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975. "Licensed establishment" does not include a facility operated by an organization licensee, an inter-track wagering licensee, or an inter-track wagering location licensee licensed under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 or a riverboat licensed under the Riverboat Gambling Act, except as provided in this paragraph. The changes made to this definition by Public Act 98-587 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are declarative of existing law.

"Licensed fraternal establishment" means the location where a qualified fraternal organization that derives its charter from a national fraternal organization regularly meets.

"Licensed veterans establishment" means the location where a qualified veterans organization that derives its charter from a national veterans organization regularly meets.

"Licensed truck stop establishment" means a facility (i) that is at least a 3-acre facility with a convenience store, (ii) with separate diesel islands for fueling commercial motor vehicles, (iii) that sells at retail more than 10,000 gallons of diesel or biodiesel fuel per month, and (iv) with parking spaces for commercial motor vehicles. "Commercial motor vehicles" has the same meaning as defined in Section 18b-101 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The requirement of item (iii) of this paragraph may be met by showing that estimated future sales or past sales average at least 10,000 gallons per month.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-31, eff. 6-24-13; 98-582, eff. 8-27-13; 98-587, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(230 ILCS 40/15)

Sec. 15. Minimum requirements for licensing and registration. Every video gaming terminal offered for play shall first be tested and approved pursuant to the rules of the Board, and each video gaming terminal offered in this State for play shall conform to an approved model. For the examination of video gaming machines and associated equipment as required by this Section, the Board may utilize the services of one or more independent outside testing laboratories that have been accredited by a national accreditation body and that, in the judgment of the Board, are qualified to perform such examinations. Every video gaming terminal offered in this State for play must meet minimum standards set by an independent outside testing laboratory approved by the Board. Each approved model shall, at a minimum, meet the following criteria:

(1) It must conform to all requirements of federal law and regulations, including FCC Class A Emissions Standards.

(2) It must theoretically pay out a mathematically demonstrable percentage during the expected lifetime of the machine of all amounts played, which must not be less than 80%. The Board shall establish a maximum payout percentage for approved models by rule. Video gaming terminals that may be affected by skill must meet this standard when using a method of play that will provide the greatest return to the player over a period of continuous play.

(3) It must use a random selection process to determine the outcome of each play of a game. The random selection process must meet 99% confidence limits using a standard chi-squared test for (randomness) goodness of fit.

(4) It must display an accurate representation of the game outcome.

(5) It must not automatically alter pay tables or any function of the video gaming terminal based on internal computation of hold percentage or have any means of manipulation that affects the random selection process or probabilities of winning a game.

(6) It must not be adversely affected by static discharge or other electromagnetic interference.

(7) It must be capable of detecting and displaying the following conditions during idle states or on demand: power reset; door open; and door just closed.

(8) It must have the capacity to display complete play history (outcome, intermediate play steps, credits available, bets placed, credits paid, and credits cashed out) for the most recent game played and 10 games prior thereto.

(9) The theoretical payback percentage of a video gaming terminal must not be capable of being changed without making a hardware or software change in the video gaming terminal, either on site or via the central communications system.

(10) Video gaming terminals must be designed so that replacement of parts or modules required for normal maintenance does not necessitate replacement of the electromechanical meters.

(11) It must have nonresettable meters housed in a locked area of the terminal that keep a permanent record of all cash inserted into the machine, all winnings made by the terminal printer, credits played in for video gaming terminals, and credits won by video gaming players. The video gaming terminal must provide the means for on-demand display of stored information as determined by the Board.

(12) Electronically stored meter information required by this Section must be preserved for a minimum of 180 days after a power loss to the service.

(13) It must have one or more mechanisms that accept cash in the form of bills. The mechanisms shall be designed to prevent obtaining credits without paying by stringing, slamming, drilling, or other means. If such attempts at physical tampering are made, the video gaming terminal shall suspend itself from operating until reset.

(14) It shall have accounting software that keeps an electronic record which includes, but is not limited to, the following: total cash inserted into the video gaming terminal; the value of winning tickets claimed by players; the total credits played; the total credits awarded by a video gaming terminal; and pay back percentage credited to players of each video game.

(15) It shall be linked by a central communications system to provide auditing program information as approved by the Board. The central communications system shall use a standard industry protocol, as defined by the Gaming Standards Association, and shall have the functionality to enable the Board or its designee to activate or deactivate individual gaming devices from the central communications system. In no event may the communications system approved by the Board limit participation to only one manufacturer of video gaming terminals by either the cost in implementing the necessary program modifications to communicate or the inability to communicate with the central communications system.

(16) The Board, in its discretion, may require video gaming terminals to display Amber Alert messages if the Board makes a finding that it would be economically and technically feasible and pose no risk to the integrity and security of the central communications system and video gaming terminals.

The Board may adopt rules to establish additional criteria to preserve the integrity and security of video gaming in this State. The central communications system vendor may be licensed as a video gaming terminal manufacturer or a video gaming terminal distributor, or both, but in no event shall the central communications system vendor be licensed as a video gaming terminal operator.

The Board shall not permit the development of information or the use by any licensee of gaming device or individual game performance data. Nothing in this Act shall inhibit or prohibit the Board from the use of gaming device or individual game performance data in its regulatory duties. The Board shall adopt rules to ensure that all licensees are treated and all licensees act in a non-discriminatory manner and develop processes and penalties to enforce those rules.

(Source: P.A. 98-31, eff. 6-24-13; 98-377, eff. 1-1-14; 98-582, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(230 ILCS 40/25)

Sec. 25. Restriction of licensees.

(a) Manufacturer. A person may not be licensed as a manufacturer of a video gaming terminal in Illinois unless the person has a valid manufacturer's license issued under this Act. A manufacturer may only sell video gaming terminals for use in Illinois to persons having a valid distributor's license.

(b) Distributor. A person may not sell, distribute, or lease or market a video gaming terminal in Illinois unless the person has a valid distributor's license issued under this Act. A distributor may only sell video gaming terminals for use in Illinois to persons having a valid distributor's or terminal operator's license.

(c) Terminal operator. A person may not own, maintain, or place a video gaming terminal unless he has a valid terminal operator's license issued under this Act. A terminal operator may only place video gaming terminals for use in Illinois in licensed establishments, licensed truck stop establishments, licensed fraternal establishments, and licensed veterans establishments. No terminal operator may give anything of value, including but not limited to a loan or financing arrangement, to a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment as any incentive or inducement to locate video terminals in that establishment. Of the after-tax profits from a video gaming terminal, 50% shall be paid to the terminal operator and 50% shall be paid to the licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment, notwithstanding any agreement to the contrary. A video terminal operator that violates one or more requirements of this subsection is guilty of a Class 4 felony and is subject to termination of his or her license by the Board.

(d) Licensed technician. A person may not service, maintain, or repair a video gaming terminal in this State unless he or she (1) has a valid technician's license issued under this Act, (2) is a terminal operator, or (3) is employed by a terminal operator, distributor, or manufacturer.

(d-5) Licensed terminal handler. No person, including, but not limited to, an employee or independent contractor working for a manufacturer, distributor, supplier, technician, or terminal operator licensed pursuant to this Act, shall have possession or control of a video gaming terminal, or access to the inner workings of a video gaming terminal, unless that person possesses a valid terminal handler's license issued under this Act.

(e) Licensed establishment. No video gaming terminal may be placed in any licensed establishment, licensed veterans establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, or licensed fraternal establishment unless the owner or agent of the owner of the licensed establishment, licensed veterans establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, or licensed fraternal establishment has entered into a written use agreement with the terminal operator for placement of the terminals. A copy of the use agreement shall be on file in the terminal operator's place of business and available for inspection by individuals authorized by the Board. A licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed veterans establishment, or licensed fraternal establishment may operate up to 5 video gaming terminals on its premises at any time.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Financial interest restrictions. As used in this Act, "substantial interest" in a partnership, a corporation, an organization, an association, a business, or a limited liability company means:

(A) When, with respect to a sole proprietorship, an individual or his or her spouse owns, operates, manages, or conducts, directly or indirectly, the organization, association, or business, or any part thereof; or

(B) When, with respect to a partnership, the individual or his or her spouse shares in any of the profits, or potential profits, of the partnership activities; or

(C) When, with respect to a corporation, an individual or his or her spouse is an officer or director, or the individual or his or her spouse is a holder, directly or beneficially, of 5% or more of any class of stock of the corporation; or

(D) When, with respect to an organization not covered in (A), (B) or (C) above, an individual or his or her spouse is an officer or manages the business affairs, or the individual or his or her spouse is the owner of or otherwise controls 10% or more of the assets of the organization; or

(E) When an individual or his or her spouse furnishes 5% or more of the capital, whether in cash, goods, or services, for the operation of any business, association, or organization during any calendar year; or

(F) When, with respect to a limited liability company, an individual or his or her spouse is a member, or the individual or his or her spouse is a holder, directly or beneficially, of 5% or more of the membership interest of the limited liability company.

For purposes of this subsection (g), "individual" includes all individuals or their spouses whose combined interest would qualify as a substantial interest under this subsection (g) and whose activities with respect to an organization, association, or business are so closely aligned or coordinated as to constitute the activities of a single entity.

(h) Location restriction. A licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment that is (i) located within 1,000 feet of a facility operated by an organization licensee licensed under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 or the home dock of a riverboat licensed under the Riverboat Gambling Act or (ii) located within 100 feet of a school or a place of worship under the Religious Corporation Act, is ineligible to operate a video gaming terminal. The location restrictions in this subsection (h) do not apply if (A) a facility operated by an organization licensee, a school, or a place of worship moves to or is established within the restricted area after a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment becomes licensed under this Act or (B) a school or place of worship moves to or is established within the restricted area after a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment obtains its original liquor license. For the purpose of this subsection, "school" means an elementary or secondary public school, or an elementary or secondary private school registered with or recognized by the State Board of Education.

Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection (h), the Board may waive the requirement that a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment not be located within 1,000 feet from a facility operated by an organization licensee or licensed under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 or the home dock of a riverboat licensed under the Riverboat Gambling Act. The Board shall not grant such waiver if there is any common ownership or control, shared business activity, or contractual arrangement of any type between the establishment and the organization licensee or owners licensee of a riverboat. The Board shall adopt rules to implement the provisions of this paragraph.

(i) Undue economic concentration. In addition to considering all other requirements under this Act, in deciding whether to approve the operation of video gaming terminals by a terminal operator in a location, the Board shall consider the impact of any economic concentration of such operation of video gaming terminals. The Board shall not allow a terminal operator to operate video gaming terminals if the Board determines such operation will result in undue economic concentration. For purposes of this Section, "undue economic concentration" means that a terminal operator would have such actual or potential influence over video gaming terminals in Illinois as to:

(1) substantially impede or suppress competition among terminal operators;

(2) adversely impact the economic stability of the video gaming industry in Illinois; or

(3) negatively impact the purposes of the Video Gaming Act.

The Board shall adopt rules concerning undue economic concentration with respect to the operation of video gaming terminals in Illinois. The rules shall include, but not be limited to, (i) limitations on the number of video gaming terminals operated by any terminal operator within a defined geographic radius and (ii) guidelines on the discontinuation of operation of any such video gaming terminals the Board determines will cause undue economic concentration.

(j) The provisions of the Illinois Antitrust Act are fully and equally applicable to the activities of any licensee under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-31, eff. 6-24-13; 98-77, eff. 7-15-13; 98-112, eff. 7-26-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(230 ILCS 40/45)

Sec. 45. Issuance of license.

(a) The burden is upon each applicant to demonstrate his suitability for licensure. Each video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, and licensed veterans establishment shall be licensed by the Board. The Board may issue or deny a license under this Act to any person pursuant to the same criteria set forth in Section 9 of the Riverboat Gambling Act.

(a-5) The Board shall not grant a license to a person who has facilitated, enabled, or participated in the use of coin-operated devices for gambling purposes or who is under the significant influence or control of such a person. For the purposes of this Act, "facilitated, enabled, or participated in the use of coin-operated amusement devices for gambling purposes" means that the person has been convicted of any violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. If there is pending legal action against a person for any such violation, then the Board shall delay the licensure of that person until the legal action is resolved.

(b) Each person seeking and possessing a license as a video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment shall submit to a background investigation conducted by the Board with the assistance of the State Police or other law enforcement. To the extent that the corporate structure of the applicant allows, the background investigation shall include any or all of the following as the Board deems appropriate or as provided by rule for each category of licensure: (i) each beneficiary of a trust, (ii) each partner of a partnership, (iii) each member of a limited liability company, (iv) each director and officer of a publicly or non-publicly held corporation, (v) each stockholder of a non-publicly held corporation, (vi) each stockholder of 5% or more of a publicly held corporation, or (vii) each stockholder of 5% or more in a parent or subsidiary corporation.

(c) Each person seeking and possessing a license as a video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment shall disclose the identity of every person, association, trust, corporation, or limited liability company having a greater than 1% direct or indirect pecuniary interest in the video gaming terminal operation for which the license is sought. If the disclosed entity is a trust, the application shall disclose the names and addresses of the beneficiaries; if a corporation, the names and addresses of all stockholders and directors; if a limited liability company, the names and addresses of all members; or if a partnership, the names and addresses of all partners, both general and limited.

(d) No person may be licensed as a video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment if that person has been found by the Board to:

(1) have a background, including a criminal record, reputation, habits, social or business associations, or prior activities that pose a threat to the public interests of the State or to the security and integrity of video gaming;

(2) create or enhance the dangers of unsuitable, unfair, or illegal practices, methods, and activities in the conduct of video gaming; or

(3) present questionable business practices and financial arrangements incidental to the conduct of video gaming activities.

(e) Any applicant for any license under this Act has the burden of proving his or her qualifications to the satisfaction of the Board. The Board may adopt rules to establish additional qualifications and requirements to preserve the integrity and security of video gaming in this State.

(f) A non-refundable application fee shall be paid at the time an application for a license is filed with the Board in the following amounts:

(1) Manufacturer..........................$5,000

(2) Distributor...........................$5,000

(3) Terminal operator.....................$5,000

(4) Supplier..............................$2,500

(5) Technician..............................$100

(6) Terminal Handler..............................$50

(g) The Board shall establish an annual fee for each license not to exceed the following:

(1) Manufacturer.........................$10,000

(2) Distributor..........................$10,000

(3) Terminal operator.....................$5,000

(4) Supplier..............................$2,000

(5) Technician..............................$100

(6) Licensed establishment, licensed truck stop

establishment, licensed fraternal establishment,

or licensed veterans establishment..............$100

(7) Video gaming terminal...................$100

(8) Terminal Handler..............................$50

(h) A terminal operator and a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment shall equally split the fees specified in item (7) of subsection (g).

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-31, eff. 6-24-13; 98-587, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-19-13.)

Section 535. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Sections 5-1, 6-2, 6-6, 6-15, and 7-1 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/5-1) (from Ch. 43, par. 115)

Sec. 5-1. Licenses issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall be of the following classes:

(a) Manufacturer's license - Class 1. Distiller, Class 2. Rectifier, Class 3. Brewer, Class 4. First Class Wine Manufacturer, Class 5. Second Class Wine Manufacturer, Class 6. First Class Winemaker, Class 7. Second Class Winemaker, Class 8. Limited Wine Manufacturer, Class 9. Craft Distiller, Class 10. Craft Brewer,

(b) Distributor's license,

(c) Importing Distributor's license,

(d) Retailer's license,

(e) Special Event Retailer's license (not-for-profit),

(f) Railroad license,

(g) Boat license,

(h) Non-Beverage User's license,

(i) Wine-maker's premises license,

(j) Airplane license,

(k) Foreign importer's license,

(l) Broker's license,

(m) Non-resident dealer's license,

(n) Brew Pub license,

(o) Auction liquor license,

(p) Caterer retailer license,

(q) Special use permit license,

(r) Winery shipper's license.

No person, firm, partnership, corporation, or other legal business entity that is engaged in the manufacturing of wine may concurrently obtain and hold a wine-maker's license and a wine manufacturer's license.

(a) A manufacturer's license shall allow the manufacture, importation in bulk, storage, distribution and sale of alcoholic liquor to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law and to licensees in this State as follows:

Class 1. A Distiller may make sales and deliveries of alcoholic liquor to distillers, rectifiers, importing distributors, distributors and non-beverage users and to no other licensees.

Class 2. A Rectifier, who is not a distiller, as defined herein, may make sales and deliveries of alcoholic liquor to rectifiers, importing distributors, distributors, retailers and non-beverage users and to no other licensees.

Class 3. A Brewer may make sales and deliveries of beer to importing distributors and distributors and may make sales as authorized under subsection (e) of Section 6-4 of this Act.

Class 4. A first class wine-manufacturer may make sales and deliveries of up to 50,000 gallons of wine to manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors, and to no other licensees.

Class 5. A second class Wine manufacturer may make sales and deliveries of more than 50,000 gallons of wine to manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors and to no other licensees.

Class 6. A first-class wine-maker's license shall allow the manufacture of up to 50,000 gallons of wine per year, and the storage and sale of such wine to distributors in the State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. A person who, prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, is a holder of a first-class wine-maker's license and annually produces more than 25,000 gallons of its own wine and who distributes its wine to licensed retailers shall cease this practice on or before July 1, 2008 in compliance with this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

Class 7. A second-class wine-maker's license shall allow the manufacture of between 50,000 and 150,000 gallons of wine per year, and the storage and sale of such wine to distributors in this State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. A person who, prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, is a holder of a second-class wine-maker's license and annually produces more than 25,000 gallons of its own wine and who distributes its wine to licensed retailers shall cease this practice on or before July 1, 2008 in compliance with this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

Class 8. A limited wine-manufacturer may make sales and deliveries not to exceed 40,000 gallons of wine per year to distributors, and to non-licensees in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

Class 9. A craft distiller license shall allow the manufacture of up to 30,000 gallons of spirits by distillation for one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and up to 35,000 gallons of spirits by distillation per year thereafter and the storage of such spirits. If a craft distiller licensee is not affiliated with any other manufacturer, then the craft distiller licensee may sell such spirits to distributors in this State and up to 2,500 gallons of such spirits to non-licensees to the extent permitted by any exemption approved by the Commission pursuant to Section 6-4 of this Act.

Any craft distiller licensed under this Act who on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly was licensed as a distiller and manufactured no more spirits than permitted by this Section shall not be required to pay the initial licensing fee.

Class 10. A craft brewer's license, which may only be issued to a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer, shall allow the manufacture of up to 930,000 gallons of beer per year. A craft brewer licensee may make sales and deliveries to importing distributors and distributors and to retail licensees in accordance with the conditions set forth in paragraph (18) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12 of this Act.

(a-1) A manufacturer which is licensed in this State to make sales or deliveries of alcoholic liquor to licensed distributors or importing distributors and which enlists agents, representatives, or individuals acting on its behalf who contact licensed retailers on a regular and continual basis in this State must register those agents, representatives, or persons acting on its behalf with the State Commission.

Registration of agents, representatives, or persons acting on behalf of a manufacturer is fulfilled by submitting a form to the Commission. The form shall be developed by the Commission and shall include the name and address of the applicant, the name and address of the manufacturer he or she represents, the territory or areas assigned to sell to or discuss pricing terms of alcoholic liquor, and any other questions deemed appropriate and necessary. All statements in the forms required to be made by law or by rule shall be deemed material, and any person who knowingly misstates any material fact under oath in an application is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Fraud, misrepresentation, false statements, misleading statements, evasions, or suppression of material facts in the securing of a registration are grounds for suspension or revocation of the registration. The State Commission shall post a list of registered agents on the Commission's website.

(b) A distributor's license shall allow the wholesale purchase and storage of alcoholic liquors and sale of alcoholic liquors to licensees in this State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law.

(c) An importing distributor's license may be issued to and held by those only who are duly licensed distributors, upon the filing of an application by a duly licensed distributor, with the Commission and the Commission shall, without the payment of any fee, immediately issue such importing distributor's license to the applicant, which shall allow the importation of alcoholic liquor by the licensee into this State from any point in the United States outside this State, and the purchase of alcoholic liquor in barrels, casks or other bulk containers and the bottling of such alcoholic liquors before resale thereof, but all bottles or containers so filled shall be sealed, labeled, stamped and otherwise made to comply with all provisions, rules and regulations governing manufacturers in the preparation and bottling of alcoholic liquors. The importing distributor's license shall permit such licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed non-resident dealers and foreign importers only.

(d) A retailer's license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in the license, alcoholic liquor for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. Nothing in this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall deny, limit, remove, or restrict the ability of a holder of a retailer's license to transfer, deliver, or ship alcoholic liquor to the purchaser for use or consumption subject to any applicable local law or ordinance. Any retail license issued to a manufacturer shall only permit the manufacturer to sell beer at retail on the premises actually occupied by the manufacturer. For the purpose of further describing the type of business conducted at a retail licensed premises, a retailer's licensee may be designated by the State Commission as (i) an on premise consumption retailer, (ii) an off premise sale retailer, or (iii) a combined on premise consumption and off premise sale retailer.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (d), a retail licensee may sell alcoholic liquors to a special event retailer licensee for resale to the extent permitted under subsection (e).

(e) A special event retailer's license (not-for-profit) shall permit the licensee to purchase alcoholic liquors from an Illinois licensed distributor (unless the licensee purchases less than $500 of alcoholic liquors for the special event, in which case the licensee may purchase the alcoholic liquors from a licensed retailer) and shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale, at retail, alcoholic liquors for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form and only at the location and on the specific dates designated for the special event in the license. An applicant for a special event retailer license must (i) furnish with the application: (A) a resale number issued under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or evidence that the applicant is registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, (B) a current, valid exemption identification number issued under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and a certification to the Commission that the purchase of alcoholic liquors will be a tax-exempt purchase, or (C) a statement that the applicant is not registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, does not hold a resale number under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and does not hold an exemption number under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, in which event the Commission shall set forth on the special event retailer's license a statement to that effect; (ii) submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance in the maximum limits; and (iii) show proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant has obtained local authority approval.

(f) A railroad license shall permit the licensee to import alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors and importing distributors from within or outside this State; and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be sold or dispensed on a club, buffet, lounge or dining car operated on an electric, gas or steam railway in this State; and provided further, that railroad licensees exercising the above powers shall be subject to all provisions of Article VIII of this Act as applied to importing distributors. A railroad license shall also permit the licensee to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors on any club, buffet, lounge or dining car operated on an electric, gas or steam railway regularly operated by a common carrier in this State, but shall not permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic liquors to any licensee within this State. A license shall be obtained for each car in which such sales are made.

(g) A boat license shall allow the sale of alcoholic liquor in individual drinks, on any passenger boat regularly operated as a common carrier on navigable waters in this State or on any riverboat operated under the Riverboat Gambling Act, which boat or riverboat maintains a public dining room or restaurant thereon.

(h) A non-beverage user's license shall allow the licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from a licensed manufacturer or importing distributor, without the imposition of any tax upon the business of such licensed manufacturer or importing distributor as to such alcoholic liquor to be used by such licensee solely for the non-beverage purposes set forth in subsection (a) of Section 8-1 of this Act, and such licenses shall be divided and classified and shall permit the purchase, possession and use of limited and stated quantities of alcoholic liquor as follows: Class 1, not to exceed ......................... 500 gallons Class 2, not to exceed ....................... 1,000 gallons Class 3, not to exceed ....................... 5,000 gallons Class 4, not to exceed ...................... 10,000 gallons Class 5, not to exceed ....................... 50,000 gallons

(i) A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee that concurrently holds a first-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises specified in such license not more than 50,000 gallons of the first-class wine-maker's wine that is made at the first-class wine-maker's licensed premises per year for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee who concurrently holds a second-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises specified in such license up to 100,000 gallons of the second-class wine-maker's wine that is made at the second-class wine-maker's licensed premises per year for use or consumption but not for resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee that concurrently holds a first-class wine-maker's license or a second-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail at the premises specified in the wine-maker's premises license, for use or consumption but not for resale in any form, any beer, wine, and spirits purchased from a licensed distributor. Upon approval from the State Commission, a wine-maker's premises license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at (i) the wine-maker's licensed premises and (ii) at up to 2 additional locations for use and consumption and not for resale. Each location shall require additional licensing per location as specified in Section 5-3 of this Act. A wine-maker's premises licensee shall secure liquor liability insurance coverage in an amount at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set forth in subsection (a) of Section 6-21 of this Act.

(j) An airplane license shall permit the licensee to import alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors and importing distributors from within or outside this State; and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be sold or dispensed on an airplane; and provided further, that airplane licensees exercising the above powers shall be subject to all provisions of Article VIII of this Act as applied to importing distributors. An airplane licensee shall also permit the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors on any passenger airplane regularly operated by a common carrier in this State, but shall not permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic liquors to any licensee within this State. A single airplane license shall be required of an airline company if liquor service is provided on board aircraft in this State. The annual fee for such license shall be as determined in Section 5-3.

(k) A foreign importer's license shall permit such licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed non-resident dealers only, and to import alcoholic liquor other than in bulk from any point outside the United States and to sell such alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed importing distributors and to no one else in Illinois; provided that (i) the foreign importer registers with the State Commission every brand of alcoholic liquor that it proposes to sell to Illinois licensees during the license period, (ii) the foreign importer complies with all of the provisions of Section 6-9 of this Act with respect to registration of such Illinois licensees as may be granted the right to sell such brands at wholesale, and (iii) the foreign importer complies with the provisions of Sections 6-5 and 6-6 of this Act to the same extent that these provisions apply to manufacturers.

(l) (i) A broker's license shall be required of all persons who solicit orders for, offer to sell or offer to supply alcoholic liquor to retailers in the State of Illinois, or who offer to retailers to ship or cause to be shipped or to make contact with distillers, rectifiers, brewers or manufacturers or any other party within or without the State of Illinois in order that alcoholic liquors be shipped to a distributor, importing distributor or foreign importer, whether such solicitation or offer is consummated within or without the State of Illinois.

No holder of a retailer's license issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall purchase or receive any alcoholic liquor, the order for which was solicited or offered for sale to such retailer by a broker unless the broker is the holder of a valid broker's license.

The broker shall, upon the acceptance by a retailer of the broker's solicitation of an order or offer to sell or supply or deliver or have delivered alcoholic liquors, promptly forward to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission a notification of said transaction in such form as the Commission may by regulations prescribe.

(ii) A broker's license shall be required of a person within this State, other than a retail licensee, who, for a fee or commission, promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for alcoholic liquor, for use or consumption and not for resale, to be shipped from this State and delivered to residents outside of this State by an express company, common carrier, or contract carrier. This Section does not apply to any person who promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for wine as specifically authorized in Section 6-29 of this Act.

A broker's license under this subsection (l) shall not entitle the holder to buy or sell any alcoholic liquors for his own account or to take or deliver title to such alcoholic liquors.

This subsection (l) shall not apply to distributors, employees of distributors, or employees of a manufacturer who has registered the trademark, brand or name of the alcoholic liquor pursuant to Section 6-9 of this Act, and who regularly sells such alcoholic liquor in the State of Illinois only to its registrants thereunder.

Any agent, representative, or person subject to registration pursuant to subsection (a-1) of this Section shall not be eligible to receive a broker's license.

(m) A non-resident dealer's license shall permit such licensee to ship into and warehouse alcoholic liquor into this State from any point outside of this State, and to sell such alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed foreign importers and importing distributors and to no one else in this State; provided that (i) said non-resident dealer shall register with the Illinois Liquor Control Commission each and every brand of alcoholic liquor which it proposes to sell to Illinois licensees during the license period, (ii) it shall comply with all of the provisions of Section 6-9 hereof with respect to registration of such Illinois licensees as may be granted the right to sell such brands at wholesale, and (iii) the non-resident dealer shall comply with the provisions of Sections 6-5 and 6-6 of this Act to the same extent that these provisions apply to manufacturers.

(n) A brew pub license shall allow the licensee (i) to manufacture beer only on the premises specified in the license, (ii) to make sales of the beer manufactured on the premises or, with the approval of the Commission, beer manufactured on another brew pub licensed premises that is substantially owned and operated by the same licensee to importing distributors, distributors, and to non-licensees for use and consumption, (iii) to store the beer upon the premises, and (iv) to sell and offer for sale at retail from the licensed premises, provided that a brew pub licensee shall not sell for off-premises consumption more than 50,000 gallons per year. A person who holds a brew pub license may simultaneously hold a craft brewer license if he or she otherwise qualifies for the craft brewer license and the craft brewer license is for a location separate from the brew pub's licensed premises. A brew pub license shall permit a person who has received prior approval from the Commission to annually transfer no more than a total of 50,000 gallons of beer manufactured on premises to all other licensed brew pubs that are substantially owned and operated by the same person.

(o) A caterer retailer license shall allow the holder to serve alcoholic liquors as an incidental part of a food service that serves prepared meals which excludes the serving of snacks as the primary meal, either on or off-site whether licensed or unlicensed.

(p) An auction liquor license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at auction wine and spirits for use or consumption, or for resale by an Illinois liquor licensee in accordance with provisions of this Act. An auction liquor license will be issued to a person and it will permit the auction liquor licensee to hold the auction anywhere in the State. An auction liquor license must be obtained for each auction at least 14 days in advance of the auction date.

(q) A special use permit license shall allow an Illinois licensed retailer to transfer a portion of its alcoholic liquor inventory from its retail licensed premises to the premises specified in the license hereby created, and to sell or offer for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in the license hereby created, the transferred alcoholic liquor for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. A special use permit license may be granted for the following time periods: one day or less; 2 or more days to a maximum of 15 days per location in any 12 month period. An applicant for the special use permit license must also submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance to the maximum limits and have local authority approval.

(r) A winery shipper's license shall allow a person with a first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's license, a first-class or second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited wine manufacturer's license or who is licensed to make wine under the laws of another state to ship wine made by that licensee directly to a resident of this State who is 21 years of age or older for that resident's personal use and not for resale. Prior to receiving a winery shipper's license, an applicant for the license must provide the Commission with a true copy of its current license in any state in which it is licensed as a manufacturer of wine. An applicant for a winery shipper's license must also complete an application form that provides any other information the Commission deems necessary. The application form shall include an acknowledgement consenting to the jurisdiction of the Commission, the Illinois Department of Revenue, and the courts of this State concerning the enforcement of this Act and any related laws, rules, and regulations, including authorizing the Department of Revenue and the Commission to conduct audits for the purpose of ensuring compliance with this amendatory Act.

A winery shipper licensee must pay to the Department of Revenue the State liquor gallonage tax under Section 8-1 for all wine that is sold by the licensee and shipped to a person in this State. For the purposes of Section 8-1, a winery shipper licensee shall be taxed in the same manner as a manufacturer of wine. A licensee who is not otherwise required to register under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act must register under the Use Tax Act to collect and remit use tax to the Department of Revenue for all gallons of wine that are sold by the licensee and shipped to persons in this State. If a licensee fails to remit the tax imposed under this Act in accordance with the provisions of Article VIII of this Act, the winery shipper's license shall be revoked in accordance with the provisions of Article VII of this Act. If a licensee fails to properly register and remit tax under the Use Tax Act or the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act for all wine that is sold by the winery shipper and shipped to persons in this State, the winery shipper's license shall be revoked in accordance with the provisions of Article VII of this Act.

A winery shipper licensee must collect, maintain, and submit to the Commission on a semi-annual basis the total number of cases per resident of wine shipped to residents of this State. A winery shipper licensed under this subsection (r) must comply with the requirements of Section 6-29 of this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-5, eff. 6-1-11; 97-455, eff. 8-19-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1166, eff. 3-1-13; 98-394, eff. 8-16-13; 98-401, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-12-13.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-2) (from Ch. 43, par. 120)

Sec. 6-2. Issuance of licenses to certain persons prohibited.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b) of this Section and in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12, no license of any kind issued by the State Commission or any local commission shall be issued to:

(1) A person who is not a resident of any city, village or county in which the premises covered by the license are located; except in case of railroad or boat licenses.

(2) A person who is not of good character and reputation in the community in which he resides.

(3) A person who is not a citizen of the United States.

(4) A person who has been convicted of a felony under any Federal or State law, unless the Commission determines that such person has been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust after considering matters set forth in such person's application and the Commission's investigation. The burden of proof of sufficient rehabilitation shall be on the applicant.

(5) A person who has been convicted of keeping a place of prostitution or keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, promoting prostitution that involves keeping a place of prostitution, or promoting juvenile prostitution that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution.

(6) A person who has been convicted of pandering or other crime or misdemeanor opposed to decency and morality.

(7) A person whose license issued under this Act has been revoked for cause.

(8) A person who at the time of application for renewal of any license issued hereunder would not be eligible for such license upon a first application.

(9) A copartnership, if any general partnership thereof, or any limited partnership thereof, owning more than 5% of the aggregate limited partner interest in such copartnership would not be eligible to receive a license hereunder for any reason other than residence within the political subdivision, unless residency is required by local ordinance.

(10) A corporation or limited liability company, if any member, officer, manager or director thereof, or any stockholder or stockholders owning in the aggregate more than 5% of the stock of such corporation, would not be eligible to receive a license hereunder for any reason other than citizenship and residence within the political subdivision.

(10a) A corporation or limited liability company unless it is incorporated or organized in Illinois, or unless it is a foreign corporation or foreign limited liability company which is qualified under the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or the Limited Liability Company Act to transact business in Illinois. The Commission shall permit and accept from an applicant for a license under this Act proof prepared from the Secretary of State's website that the corporation or limited liability company is in good standing and is qualified under the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or the Limited Liability Company Act to transact business in Illinois.

(11) A person whose place of business is conducted by a manager or agent unless the manager or agent possesses the same qualifications required by the licensee.

(12) A person who has been convicted of a violation of any Federal or State law concerning the manufacture, possession or sale of alcoholic liquor, subsequent to the passage of this Act or has forfeited his bond to appear in court to answer charges for any such violation.

(13) A person who does not beneficially own the premises for which a license is sought, or does not have a lease thereon for the full period for which the license is to be issued.

(14) Any law enforcing public official, including members of local liquor control commissions, any mayor, alderman, or member of the city council or commission, any president of the village board of trustees, any member of a village board of trustees, or any president or member of a county board; and no such official shall have a direct interest in the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor, except that a license may be granted to such official in relation to premises that are not located within the territory subject to the jurisdiction of that official if the issuance of such license is approved by the State Liquor Control Commission and except that a license may be granted, in a city or village with a population of 55,000 or less, to any alderman, member of a city council, or member of a village board of trustees in relation to premises that are located within the territory subject to the jurisdiction of that official if (i) the sale of alcoholic liquor pursuant to the license is incidental to the selling of food, (ii) the issuance of the license is approved by the State Commission, (iii) the issuance of the license is in accordance with all applicable local ordinances in effect where the premises are located, and (iv) the official granted a license does not vote on alcoholic liquor issues pending before the board or council to which the license holder is elected. Notwithstanding any provision of this paragraph (14) to the contrary, an alderman or member of a city council or commission, a member of a village board of trustees other than the president of the village board of trustees, or a member of a county board other than the president of a county board may have a direct interest in the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor as long as he or she is not a law enforcing public official, a mayor, a village board president, or president of a county board. To prevent any conflict of interest, the elected official with the direct interest in the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor shall not participate in any meetings, hearings, or decisions on matters impacting the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor. Furthermore, the mayor of a city with a population of 55,000 or less or the president of a village with a population of 55,000 or less may have an interest in the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor as long as the council or board over which he or she presides has made a local liquor control commissioner appointment that complies with the requirements of Section 4-2 of this Act.

(15) A person who is not a beneficial owner of the business to be operated by the licensee.

(16) A person who has been convicted of a gambling offense as proscribed by any of subsections (a) (3) through (a) (11) of Section 28-1 of, or as proscribed by Section 28-1.1 or 28-3 of, the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or as proscribed by a statute replaced by any of the aforesaid statutory provisions.

(17) A person or entity to whom a federal wagering stamp has been issued by the federal government, unless the person or entity is eligible to be issued a license under the Raffles Act or the Illinois Pull Tabs and Jar Games Act.

(18) A person who intends to sell alcoholic liquors for use or consumption on his or her licensed retail premises who does not have liquor liability insurance coverage for that premises in an amount that is at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set out in subsection (a) of Section 6-21.

(19) A person who is licensed by any licensing authority as a manufacturer of beer, or any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or trust or any subsidiary, affiliate, or agent thereof, or any other form of business enterprise licensed as a manufacturer of beer, having any legal, equitable, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, in a person licensed in this State as a distributor or importing distributor. For purposes of this paragraph (19), a person who is licensed by any licensing authority as a "manufacturer of beer" shall also mean a brewer and a non-resident dealer who is also a manufacturer of beer, including a partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or trust or any subsidiary, affiliate, or agent thereof, or any other form of business enterprise licensed as a manufacturer of beer.

(20) A person who is licensed in this State as a distributor or importing distributor, or any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or trust or any subsidiary, affiliate, or agent thereof, or any other form of business enterprise licensed in this State as a distributor or importing distributor having any legal, equitable, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, in a person licensed as a manufacturer of beer by any licensing authority, or any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or trust or any subsidiary, affiliate, or agent thereof, or any other form of business enterprise, except for a person who owns, on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, no more than 5% of the outstanding shares of a manufacturer of beer whose shares are publicly traded on an exchange within the meaning of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. For the purposes of this paragraph (20), a person who is licensed by any licensing authority as a "manufacturer of beer" shall also mean a brewer and a non-resident dealer who is also a manufacturer of beer, including a partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or trust or any subsidiary, affiliate, or agent thereof, or any other form of business enterprise licensed as a manufacturer of beer.

(b) A criminal conviction of a corporation is not grounds for the denial, suspension, or revocation of a license applied for or held by the corporation if the criminal conviction was not the result of a violation of any federal or State law concerning the manufacture, possession or sale of alcoholic liquor, the offense that led to the conviction did not result in any financial gain to the corporation and the corporation has terminated its relationship with each director, officer, employee, or controlling shareholder whose actions directly contributed to the conviction of the corporation. The Commission shall determine if all provisions of this subsection (b) have been met before any action on the corporation's license is initiated.

(Source: P.A. 97-1059, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-10, eff. 5-6-13; 98-21, eff. 6-13-13, revised 9-24-13.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-6) (from Ch. 43, par. 123)

Sec. 6-6. Except as otherwise provided in this Act no manufacturer or distributor or importing distributor shall, directly, or indirectly, sell, supply, furnish, give or pay for, or loan or lease, any furnishing, fixture or equipment on the premises of a place of business of another licensee authorized under this Act to sell alcoholic liquor at retail, either for consumption on or off the premises, nor shall he or she, directly or indirectly, pay for any such license, or advance, furnish, lend or give money for payment of such license, or purchase or become the owner of any note, mortgage, or other evidence of indebtedness of such licensee or any form of security therefor, nor shall such manufacturer, or distributor, or importing distributor, directly or indirectly, be interested in the ownership, conduct or operation of the business of any licensee authorized to sell alcoholic liquor at retail, nor shall any manufacturer, or distributor, or importing distributor be interested directly or indirectly or as owner or part owner of said premises or as lessee or lessor thereof, in any premises upon which alcoholic liquor is sold at retail.

No manufacturer or distributor or importing distributor shall, directly or indirectly or through a subsidiary or affiliate, or by any officer, director or firm of such manufacturer, distributor or importing distributor, furnish, give, lend or rent, install, repair or maintain, to or for any retail licensee in this State, any signs or inside advertising materials except as provided in this Section and Section 6-5. With respect to retail licensees, other than any government owned or operated auditorium, exhibition hall, recreation facility or other similar facility holding a retailer's license as described in Section 6-5, a manufacturer, distributor, or importing distributor may furnish, give, lend or rent and erect, install, repair and maintain to or for any retail licensee, for use at any one time in or about or in connection with a retail establishment on which the products of the manufacturer, distributor or importing distributor are sold, the following signs and inside advertising materials as authorized in subparts (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv):

(i) Permanent outside signs shall be limited to one outside sign, per brand, in place and in use at any one time, costing not more than $893, exclusive of erection, installation, repair and maintenance costs, and permit fees and shall bear only the manufacturer's name, brand name, trade name, slogans, markings, trademark, or other symbols commonly associated with and generally used in identifying the product including, but not limited to, "cold beer", "on tap", "carry out", and "packaged liquor".

(ii) Temporary outside signs shall be limited to one temporary outside sign per brand. Examples of temporary outside signs are banners, flags, pennants, streamers, and other items of a temporary and non-permanent nature. Each temporary outside sign must include the manufacturer's name, brand name, trade name, slogans, markings, trademark, or other symbol commonly associated with and generally used in identifying the product. Temporary outside signs may also include, for example, the product, price, packaging, date or dates of a promotion and an announcement of a retail licensee's specific sponsored event, if the temporary outside sign is intended to promote a product, and provided that the announcement of the retail licensee's event and the product promotion are held simultaneously. However, temporary outside signs may not include names, slogans, markings, or logos that relate to the retailer. Nothing in this subpart (ii) shall prohibit a distributor or importing distributor from bearing the cost of creating or printing a temporary outside sign for the retail licensee's specific sponsored event or from bearing the cost of creating or printing a temporary sign for a retail licensee containing, for example, community goodwill expressions, regional sporting event announcements, or seasonal messages, provided that the primary purpose of the temporary outside sign is to highlight, promote, or advertise the product. In addition, temporary outside signs provided by the manufacturer to the distributor or importing distributor may also include, for example, subject to the limitations of this Section, preprinted community goodwill expressions, sporting event announcements, seasonal messages, and manufacturer promotional announcements. However, a distributor or importing distributor shall not bear the cost of such manufacturer preprinted signs.

(iii) Permanent inside signs, whether visible from the outside or the inside of the premises, include, but are not limited to: alcohol lists and menus that may include names, slogans, markings, or logos that relate to the retailer; neons; illuminated signs; clocks; table lamps; mirrors; tap handles; decalcomanias; window painting; and window trim. All permanent inside signs in place and in use at any one time shall cost in the aggregate not more than $2000 per manufacturer. A permanent inside sign must include the manufacturer's name, brand name, trade name, slogans, markings, trademark, or other symbol commonly associated with and generally used in identifying the product. However, permanent inside signs may not include names, slogans, markings, or logos that relate to the retailer. For the purpose of this subpart (iii), all permanent inside signs may be displayed in an adjacent courtyard or patio commonly referred to as a "beer garden" that is a part of the retailer's licensed premises.

(iv) Temporary inside signs shall include, but are not limited to, lighted chalk boards, acrylic table tent beverage or hors d'oeuvre list holders, banners, flags, pennants, streamers, and inside advertising materials such as posters, placards, bowling sheets, table tents, inserts for acrylic table tent beverage or hors d'oeuvre list holders, sports schedules, or similar printed or illustrated materials; however, such items, for example, as coasters, trays, napkins, glassware and cups shall not be deemed to be inside signs or advertising materials and may only be sold to retailers. All temporary inside signs and inside advertising materials in place and in use at any one time shall cost in the aggregate not more than $325 per manufacturer. Nothing in this subpart (iv) prohibits a distributor or importing distributor from paying the cost of printing or creating any temporary inside banner or inserts for acrylic table tent beverage or hors d'oeuvre list holders for a retail licensee, provided that the primary purpose for the banner or insert is to highlight, promote, or advertise the product. For the purpose of this subpart (iv), all temporary inside signs and inside advertising materials may be displayed in an adjacent courtyard or patio commonly referred to as a "beer garden" that is a part of the retailer's licensed premises.

A "cost adjustment factor" shall be used to periodically update the dollar limitations prescribed in subparts (i), (iii), and (iv). The Commission shall establish the adjusted dollar limitation on an annual basis beginning in January, 1997. The term "cost adjustment factor" means a percentage equal to the change in the Bureau of Labor Statistics Consumer Price Index or 5%, whichever is greater. The restrictions contained in this Section 6-6 do not apply to signs, or promotional or advertising materials furnished by manufacturers, distributors or importing distributors to a government owned or operated facility holding a retailer's license as described in Section 6-5.

No distributor or importing distributor shall directly or indirectly or through a subsidiary or affiliate, or by any officer, director or firm of such manufacturer, distributor or importing distributor, furnish, give, lend or rent, install, repair or maintain, to or for any retail licensee in this State, any signs or inside advertising materials described in subparts (i), (ii), (iii), or (iv) of this Section except as the agent for or on behalf of a manufacturer, provided that the total cost of any signs and inside advertising materials including but not limited to labor, erection, installation and permit fees shall be paid by the manufacturer whose product or products said signs and inside advertising materials advertise and except as follows:

A distributor or importing distributor may purchase from or enter into a written agreement with a manufacturer or a manufacturer's designated supplier and such manufacturer or the manufacturer's designated supplier may sell or enter into an agreement to sell to a distributor or importing distributor permitted signs and advertising materials described in subparts (ii), (iii), or (iv) of this Section for the purpose of furnishing, giving, lending, renting, installing, repairing, or maintaining such signs or advertising materials to or for any retail licensee in this State. Any purchase by a distributor or importing distributor from a manufacturer or a manufacturer's designated supplier shall be voluntary and the manufacturer may not require the distributor or the importing distributor to purchase signs or advertising materials from the manufacturer or the manufacturer's designated supplier.

A distributor or importing distributor shall be deemed the owner of such signs or advertising materials purchased from a manufacturer or a manufacturer's designated supplier.

The provisions of Public Act 90-373 concerning signs or advertising materials delivered by a manufacturer to a distributor or importing distributor shall apply only to signs or advertising materials delivered on or after August 14, 1997.

No person engaged in the business of manufacturing, importing or distributing alcoholic liquors shall, directly or indirectly, pay for, or advance, furnish, or lend money for the payment of any license for another. Any licensee who shall permit or assent, or be a party in any way to any violation or infringement of the provisions of this Section shall be deemed guilty of a violation of this Act, and any money loaned contrary to a provision of this Act shall not be recovered back, or any note, mortgage or other evidence of indebtedness, or security, or any lease or contract obtained or made contrary to this Act shall be unenforceable and void.

This Section shall not apply to airplane licensees exercising powers provided in paragraph (i) of Section 5-1 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 89-238, eff. 8-4-95; 89-529, eff. 7-19-96; 90-373, eff. 8-14-97; 90-432, eff. 1-1-98; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 9-24-13.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-15) (from Ch. 43, par. 130)

Sec. 6-15. No alcoholic liquors shall be sold or delivered in any building belonging to or under the control of the State or any political subdivision thereof except as provided in this Act. The corporate authorities of any city, village, incorporated town, township, or county may provide by ordinance, however, that alcoholic liquor may be sold or delivered in any specifically designated building belonging to or under the control of the municipality, township, or county, or in any building located on land under the control of the municipality, township, or county; provided that such township or county complies with all applicable local ordinances in any incorporated area of the township or county. Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold under the authority of a special use permit on any property owned by a conservation district organized under the Conservation District Act, provided that (i) the alcoholic liquor is sold only at an event authorized by the governing board of the conservation district, (ii) the issuance of the special use permit is authorized by the local liquor control commissioner of the territory in which the property is located, and (iii) the special use permit authorizes the sale of alcoholic liquor for one day or less. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at any airport belonging to or under the control of a municipality of more than 25,000 inhabitants, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a park district organized under the Park District Code, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or on the grounds within 500 feet of any building owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act during times when food is dispensed for consumption within 500 feet of the building from which the food is dispensed, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in a building owned by a Local Mass Transit District organized under the Local Mass Transit District Act, subject to the approval of the governing Board of the District, or in Bicentennial Park, or on the premises of the City of Mendota Lake Park located adjacent to Route 51 in Mendota, Illinois, or on the premises of Camden Park in Milan, Illinois, or in the community center owned by the City of Loves Park that is located at 1000 River Park Drive in Loves Park, Illinois, or, in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption on the premises, and at the following aquarium and museums located in public parks: Art Institute of Chicago, Chicago Academy of Sciences, Chicago Historical Society, Field Museum of Natural History, Museum of Science and Industry, DuSable Museum of African American History, John G. Shedd Aquarium and Adler Planetarium, or at Lakeview Museum of Arts and Sciences in Peoria, or in connection with the operation of the facilities of the Chicago Zoological Society or the Chicago Horticultural Society on land owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, subject to the control of the Forest Preserve District Board of Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage, and harm, or in any building located on land owned by the Chicago Park District if approved by the Park District Commissioners, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes and owned by the Illinois International Port District if approved by the District's governing board, or at any airport, golf course, faculty center, or facility in which conference and convention type activities take place belonging to or under control of any State university or public community college district, provided that with respect to a facility for conference and convention type activities alcoholic liquors shall be limited to the use of the convention or conference participants or participants in cultural, political or educational activities held in such facilities, and provided further that the faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district, or members of an organization of students, alumni, faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district are active participants in the conference or convention, or in Memorial Stadium on the campus of the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign during games in which the Chicago Bears professional football team is playing in that stadium during the renovation of Soldier Field, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the Chicago Storm professional soccer team is playing in that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the WNBA professional women's basketball team is playing in that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the 10-minute mark of the second half of the game, or by a catering establishment which has rented facilities from a board of trustees of a public community college district, or in a restaurant that is operated by a commercial tenant in the North Campus Parking Deck building that (1) is located at 1201 West University Avenue, Urbana, Illinois and (2) is owned by the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, or, if approved by the District board, on land owned by the Metropolitan Sanitary District of Greater Chicago and leased to others for a term of at least 20 years. Nothing in this Section precludes the sale or delivery of alcoholic liquor in the form of original packaged goods in premises located at 500 S. Racine in Chicago belonging to the University of Illinois and used primarily as a grocery store by a commercial tenant during the term of a lease that predates the University's acquisition of the premises; but the University shall have no power or authority to renew, transfer, or extend the lease with terms allowing the sale of alcoholic liquor; and the sale of alcoholic liquor shall be subject to all local laws and regulations. After the acquisition by Winnebago County of the property located at 404 Elm Street in Rockford, a commercial tenant who sold alcoholic liquor at retail on a portion of the property under a valid license at the time of the acquisition may continue to do so for so long as the tenant and the County may agree under existing or future leases, subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Memorial Hall, located at 211 North Main Street, Rockford, under conditions approved by Winnebago County and subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Each facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save harmless the State, municipality, State university, airport, golf course, faculty center, facility in which conference and convention type activities take place, park district, Forest Preserve District, public community college district, aquarium, museum, or sanitary district from all financial loss, damage or harm. Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings of golf courses owned by municipalities or Illinois State University in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption upon the premises. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by a fire protection district organized under the Fire Protection District Act, provided that such delivery and sale is approved by the board of trustees of the district, and provided further that such delivery and sale is limited to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year. However, the limitation to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year does not apply to the delivery, sale, or manufacture of alcoholic liquors at the building located at 59 Main Street in Oswego, Illinois, owned by the Oswego Fire Protection District if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed as approved by the Oswego Fire Protection District and the property is no longer being utilized for fire protection purposes.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois for events that the Board may determine are public events and not related student activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, among other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) regarding the anticipated attendees at the event, the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue. In addition, any policy submitted by the Board of Trustees to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission must require that any event at which alcoholic liquors are served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees shall require the prior written approval of the Office of the Chancellor for the University campus where the event is located. The Board of Trustees shall submit its policy, and any subsequently revised, updated, new, or amended policies, to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission, and any University event, or location for an event, exempted under such policies shall apply for a license under the applicable Sections of this Act.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after June 28, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-45) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after August 2, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-132) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Dorchester Senior Business Center owned by the Village of Dolton if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons, and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Village of Dolton and the State from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building used as an Illinois State Armory provided:

(i) the Adjutant General's written consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquor in such building is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons; and

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to save harmless the facility and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Chicago Civic Center, provided that:

(i) the written consent of the Public Building Commission which administers the Chicago Civic Center is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons;

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Civic Center, the City of Chicago and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm; and

(v) all applicable local ordinances are complied with.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered or sold in any building belonging to or under the control of any city, village or incorporated town where more than 75% of the physical properties of the building is used for commercial or recreational purposes, and the building is located upon a pier extending into or over the waters of a navigable lake or stream or on the shore of a navigable lake or stream. In accordance with a license issued under this Act, alcoholic liquor may be sold, served, or delivered in buildings and facilities under the control of the Department of Natural Resources during events or activities lasting no more than 7 continuous days upon the written approval of the Director of Natural Resources acting as the controlling government authority. The Director of Natural Resources may specify conditions on that approval, including but not limited to requirements for insurance and hours of operation. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by a United States Army Corps of Engineers or Department of Natural Resources concessionaire who was operating on June 1, 1991 for on-premises consumption only is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX. Beer and wine may be sold on the premises of the Joliet Park District Stadium owned by the Joliet Park District when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such premises is filed with the local liquor commissioner by the Joliet Park District. Beer and wine may be sold in buildings on the grounds of State veterans' homes when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such buildings is filed with the Commission by the Department of Veterans' Affairs, and the facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save the facility harmless from all financial loss, damage or harm. Such liquors may be delivered to and sold at any property owned or held under lease by a Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority or Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority.

Beer and wine may be sold and dispensed at professional sporting events and at professional concerts and other entertainment events conducted on premises owned by the Forest Preserve District of Kane County, subject to the control of the District Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Nothing in this Section shall preclude the sale or delivery of beer and wine at a State or county fair or the sale or delivery of beer or wine at a city fair in any otherwise lawful manner.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in State parks under the control of the Department of Natural Resources, provided:

a. the State park has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the commission by the Department of Natural Resources, and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the State park lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by the State park or restaurant concessionaire is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings on properties under the control of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum provided:

a. the property has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the commission by the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum, and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight.

The sale of alcoholic liquors pursuant to this Section does not authorize the establishment and operation of facilities commonly called taverns, saloons, bars, cocktail lounges, and the like except as a part of lodge and restaurant facilities in State parks or golf courses owned by Forest Preserve Districts with a population of less than 3,000,000 or municipalities or park districts.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in the Springfield Administration Building of the Department of Transportation and the Illinois State Armory in Springfield; provided, that the controlling government authority may consent to such sales only if

a. the request is from a not-for-profit organization;

b. such sales would not impede normal operations of the departments involved;

c. the not-for-profit organization provides dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits and agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm;

d. no such sale shall be made during normal working hours of the State of Illinois; and

e. the consent is in writing.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in recreational areas of river conservancy districts under the control of, or leased from, the river conservancy districts. Such sales are subject to reasonable local regulations as provided in Article IV; however, no such regulations may prohibit or substantially impair the sale of alcoholic liquors on Sundays or Holidays.

Alcoholic liquors may be provided in long term care facilities owned or operated by a county under Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, when approved by the facility operator and not in conflict with the regulations of the Illinois Department of Public Health, to residents of the facility who have had their consumption of the alcoholic liquors provided approved in writing by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and dispensed in State housing assigned to employees of the Department of Corrections. No person shall furnish or allow to be furnished any alcoholic liquors to any prisoner confined in any jail, reformatory, prison or house of correction except upon a physician's prescription for medicinal purposes.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Willard Ice Building in Springfield, at the State Library in Springfield, and at Illinois State Museum facilities by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the controlling government authority, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at authorized functions.

The controlling government authority for the Willard Ice Building in Springfield shall be the Director of the Department of Revenue. The controlling government authority for Illinois State Museum facilities shall be the Director of the Illinois State Museum. The controlling government authority for the State Library in Springfield shall be the Secretary of State.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed at any facility, property or building under the jurisdiction of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum where the delivery, sale or dispensing is by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from a controlling government authority, or by (2) an individual or organization provided that such individual or organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal workings of State offices or operations located at the facility, property or building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity of the individual or organization in the facility, property or building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

The controlling government authority for the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency shall be the Director of the Historic Sites and Preservation, and the controlling government authority for the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum shall be the Director of the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed for consumption at the Michael Bilandic Building at 160 North LaSalle Street, Chicago IL 60601, after the normal business hours of any day care or child care facility located in the building, by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who accepts delivery of, sells, or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify, and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the delivery, sale, or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial, or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to accept delivery of and sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building; and

d. provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless, and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the James R. Thompson Center in Chicago, subject to the provisions of Section 7.4 of the State Property Control Act, and 222 South College Street in Springfield, Illinois by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease or sublease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered at any facility owned by the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority provided that dram shop liability insurance has been made available in a form, with such coverage and in such amounts as the Authority reasonably determines is necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Rockford State Office Building by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Department of Central Management Services, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Department of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county in the City of Bloomington, and used by the McLean County Historical Society if the sale or delivery is approved by an ordinance adopted by the county board, and the municipality in which the building is located may not prohibit that sale or delivery, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section. The regulation of the sale and delivery of alcoholic liquor in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county, and used by the McLean County Historical Society as provided in this paragraph is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of the power of a home rule municipality to regulate that sale and delivery.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in any building situated on land held in trust for any school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code, if the building is not used for school purposes and if the sale or delivery is approved by the board of education.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in buildings owned by the Community Building Complex Committee of Boone County, Illinois if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance with coverage and in amounts that the Committee reasonably determines are necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in the building located at 1200 Centerville Avenue in Belleville, Illinois and occupied by either the Belleville Area Special Education District or the Belleville Area Special Services Cooperative.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Louis Joliet Renaissance Center, City Center Campus, located at 214 N. Ottawa Street, Joliet, and the Food Services/Culinary Arts Department facilities, Main Campus, located at 1215 Houbolt Road, Joliet, owned by or under the control of Joliet Junior College, Illinois Community College District No. 525.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Triton College, Illinois Community College District No. 504.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the College of DuPage, Illinois Community College District No. 502.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the building located at 446 East Hickory Avenue in Apple River, Illinois, owned by the Apple River Fire Protection District, and occupied by the Apple River Community Association if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions approved by the Apple River Community Association for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Apple River Fire Protection District, the Village of Apple River, and the Apple River Community Association from all financial loss, damage, and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Sikia Restaurant, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago, and at the Food Services in the Great Hall/Washburne Culinary Institute Department facility, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago, owned by or under the control of City Colleges of Chicago, Illinois Community College District No. 508.

(Source: P.A. 97-33, eff. 6-28-11; 97-45, eff. 6-28-11; 97-51, eff. 6-28-11; 97-167, eff. 7-22-11; 97-250, eff. 8-4-11; 97-395, eff. 8-16-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1166, eff. 3-1-13; 98-132, eff. 8-2-13; 98-201, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-24-13.)

(235 ILCS 5/7-1) (from Ch. 43, par. 145)

Sec. 7-1. An applicant for a retail license from the State Commission shall submit to the State Commission an application in writing under oath stating:

(1) The applicant's name and mailing address;

(2) The name and address of the applicant's business;

(3) If applicable, the date of the filing of the "assumed name" of the business with the County Clerk;

(4) In case of a copartnership, the date of the formation of the partnership; in the case of an Illinois corporation, the date of its incorporation; or in the case of a foreign corporation, the State where it was incorporated and the date of its becoming qualified under the Business Corporation Act of 1983 to transact business in the State of Illinois;

(5) The number, the date of issuance and the date of expiration of the applicant's current local retail liquor license;

(6) The name of the city, village, or county that issued the local retail liquor license;

(7) The name and address of the landlord if the premises are leased;

(8) The date of the applicant's first request for a State liquor license and whether it was granted, denied or withdrawn;

(9) The address of the applicant when the first application for a State liquor license was made;

(10) The applicant's current State liquor license number;

(11) The date the applicant began liquor sales at his place of business;

(12) The address of the applicant's warehouse if he warehouses liquor;

(13) The applicant's Retailers' Retailer's Occupation Tax (ROT) Registration Number;

(14) The applicant's document locator locater number on his Federal Special Tax Stamp;

(15) Whether the applicant is delinquent in the payment of the Retailers' Occupation Retailer's Occupational Tax (Sales Tax), and if so, the reasons therefor;

(16) Whether the applicant is delinquent under the cash beer law, and if so, the reasons therefor;

(17) In the case of a retailer, whether he is delinquent under the 30-day 30 day credit law, and if so, the reasons therefor;

(18) In the case of a distributor, whether he is delinquent under the 15-day 15 day credit law, and if so, the reasons therefor;

(19) Whether the applicant has made an application for a liquor license which has been denied, and if so, the reasons therefor;

(20) Whether the applicant has ever had any previous liquor license suspended or revoked, and if so, the reasons therefor;

(21) Whether the applicant has ever been convicted of a gambling offense or felony, and if so, the particulars thereof;

(22) Whether the applicant possesses a current Federal Wagering Stamp, and if so, the reasons therefor;

(23) Whether the applicant, or any other person, directly in his place of business is a public official, and if so, the particulars thereof;

(24) The applicant's name, sex, date of birth, social security number, position and percentage of ownership in the business; and the name, sex, date of birth, social security number, position and percentage of ownership in the business of every sole owner, partner, corporate officer, director, manager and any person who owns 5% or more of the shares of the applicant business entity or parent corporations of the applicant business entity; and

(25) That he has not received or borrowed money or anything else of value, and that he will not receive or borrow money or anything else of value (other than merchandising credit in the ordinary course of business for a period not to exceed 90 days as herein expressly permitted under Section 6-5 hereof), directly or indirectly, from any manufacturer, importing distributor or distributor or from any representative of any such manufacturer, importing distributor or distributor, nor be a party in any way, directly or indirectly, to any violation by a manufacturer, distributor or importing distributor of Section 6-6 of this Act.

In addition to any other requirement of this Section, an applicant for a special use permit license and a special event retailer's license shall also submit (A) proof satisfactory to the Commission that the applicant has a resale number issued under Section 2c of the Retailers' Retailer's Occupation Tax Act or that the applicant is registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Retailer's Occupation Tax Act, (B) proof satisfactory to the Commission that the applicant has a current, valid exemption identification number issued under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and a certification to the Commission that the purchase of alcoholic liquors will be a tax-exempt purchase, or (C) a statement that the applicant is not registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, does not hold a resale number under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and does not hold an exemption number under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The applicant shall also submit proof of adequate dram shop insurance for the special event prior to being issued a license.

In addition to the foregoing information, such application shall contain such other and further information as the State Commission and the local commission may, by rule or regulation not inconsistent with law, prescribe.

If the applicant reports a felony conviction as required under paragraph (21) of this Section, such conviction may be considered by the Commission in determining qualifications for licensing, but shall not operate as a bar to licensing.

If said application is made in behalf of a partnership, firm, association, club or corporation, then the same shall be signed by one member of such partnership or the president or secretary of such corporation or an authorized agent of said partnership or corporation.

All other applications shall be on forms prescribed by the State Commission, and which may exclude any of the above requirements which the State Commission rules to be inapplicable.

(Source: P.A. 90-596, eff. 6-24-98; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 540. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 1-10, 5-5, 5-5.2, 5-5.4, 5-5f, 5A-5, 5A-8, 5A-12.4, 11-5.2, and 12-4.25 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 12-4.45 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Drug convictions.

(a) Persons convicted of an offense under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act which is a Class X felony, or a Class 1 felony, or comparable federal criminal law which has as an element the possession, use, or distribution of a controlled substance, as defined in Section 102(6) of the federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802(c)), shall not be eligible for cash assistance provided under this Code.

(b) Persons convicted of any other felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act which is not a Class X or Class 1 felony, or comparable federal criminal law which has as an element the possession, use, or distribution of a controlled substance, as defined in Section 102(6) of the federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802(c)), shall not be eligible for cash assistance provided under this Code for 2 years from the date of conviction. This prohibition shall not apply if the person is in a drug treatment program, aftercare program, or similar program as defined by rule.

(c) Persons shall not be determined ineligible for food stamps provided under this Code based upon a conviction of any felony or comparable federal or State criminal law which has an element the possession, use or distribution of a controlled substance, as defined in Section 102(6) of the federal Controlled Substances Substance Act (21 U.S.C. 802(c)).

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 11-12-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a physician, such procedures are necessary for the preservation of the life of the woman seeking such treatment, or except an induced premature birth intended to produce a live viable child and such procedure is necessary for the health of the mother or her unborn child. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance to anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician has been found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at the time such abortion procedure was performed. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no cost to render dental services through an enrolled not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through which dental services covered under this Section are performed. The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under this provision.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for women 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of drug abuse or is addicted as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant women under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under the Drug Free Families with a Future or any comparable program providing case management services for addicted women, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of her substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that if an audit is initiated within the required retention period then the records must be retained until the audit is completed and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1984, the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall require that a written statement including the required opinion of a physician shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births. This statement shall indicate what procedures were used in providing such medical services.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-104) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, establish procedures to permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms are implemented.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause. Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without penalty.

The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional enrollment period for vendors based upon category of risk of the vendor.

Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review, which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and financial background checks; fingerprinting; license, certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other screening as required by federal or State law.

The Department shall define or specify the following: (i) by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice, the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during the conditional enrollment period.

To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which medical goods or services were provided, with the following exceptions:

(1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period shall not begin until the date on the written notice from the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is complete.

(2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries which result in an inability to receive, process, or adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin until the provider has been notified of the error.

(3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois Department initiates the monthly billing process.

(4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000 when local government funds finance federal participation for claims payments.

For claims for services rendered during a period for which a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be filed within 180 days after the Department determines the applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final adjudication by the primary payer.

In the case of long term care facilities, admission documents shall be submitted within 30 days of an admission to the facility through the Medical Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient Eligibility Verification (REV) System, or shall be submitted directly to the Department of Human Services using required admission forms. Confirmation numbers assigned to an accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the admission transaction has been completed.

Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for payment under the medical assistance program, and the State shall have no liability for payment of those claims.

To the extent consistent with applicable information and privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department access to confidential and other information and data necessary to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not limited to: information pertaining to licensure; certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income; employment; supplemental security income; social security numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency; corporate information; and death records.

The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight. The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, including but not limited to: the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services; and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department shall set forth a request for information to identify the benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii) clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre- or post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case management system with link analysis. Such a request for information shall not be considered as a request for proposal or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to take any action or acquire any products or services.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants for institutional and home and community-based long term care; if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care eligibility criteria for institutional and home and community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October 1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and stakeholders representing the institutional and home and community-based long term care interests. This Section shall not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of care eligibility criteria for community-based services in circumstances where federal approval has been granted.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The filing of one copy of the report with the Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the President, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Secretary of the Senate, one copy with the Legislative Research Unit, and such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(Source: P.A. 97-48, eff. 6-28-11; 97-638, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-1061, eff. 8-24-12; 98-104, Article 9, Section 9-5, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 12, Section 12-20, eff. 7-22-13; 98-303, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.2)

Sec. 5-5.2. Payment.

(a) All nursing facilities that are grouped pursuant to Section 5-5.1 of this Act shall receive the same rate of payment for similar services.

(b) It shall be a matter of State policy that the Illinois Department shall utilize a uniform billing cycle throughout the State for the long-term care providers.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Code, the methodologies for reimbursement of nursing services as provided under this Article shall no longer be applicable for bills payable for nursing services rendered on or after a new reimbursement system based on the Resource Utilization Groups (RUGs) has been fully operationalized, which shall take effect for services provided on or after January 1, 2014.

(d) The new nursing services reimbursement methodology utilizing RUG-IV 48 grouper model, which shall be referred to as the RUGs reimbursement system, taking effect January 1, 2014, shall be based on the following:

(1) The methodology shall be resident-driven, facility-specific, and cost-based.

(2) Costs shall be annually rebased and case mix index quarterly updated. The nursing services methodology will be assigned to the Medicaid enrolled residents on record as of 30 days prior to the beginning of the rate period in the Department's Medicaid Management Information System (MMIS) as present on the last day of the second quarter preceding the rate period.

(3) Regional wage adjustors based on the Health Service Areas (HSA) groupings and adjusters in effect on April 30, 2012 shall be included.

(4) Case mix index shall be assigned to each resident class based on the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services staff time measurement study in effect on July 1, 2013, utilizing an index maximization approach.

(5) The pool of funds available for distribution by case mix and the base facility rate shall be determined using the formula contained in subsection (d-1).

(d-1) Calculation of base year Statewide RUG-IV nursing base per diem rate.

(1) Base rate spending pool shall be:

(A) The base year resident days which are calculated by multiplying the number of Medicaid residents in each nursing home as indicated in the MDS data defined in paragraph (4) by 365.

(B) Each facility's nursing component per diem in effect on July 1, 2012 shall be multiplied by subsection (A).

(C) Thirteen million is added to the product of subparagraph (A) and subparagraph (B) to adjust for the exclusion of nursing homes defined in paragraph (5).

(2) For each nursing home with Medicaid residents as indicated by the MDS data defined in paragraph (4), weighted days adjusted for case mix and regional wage adjustment shall be calculated. For each home this calculation is the product of:

(A) Base year resident days as calculated in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1).

(B) The nursing home's regional wage adjustor based on the Health Service Areas (HSA) groupings and adjustors in effect on April 30, 2012.

(C) Facility weighted case mix which is the number of Medicaid residents as indicated by the MDS data defined in paragraph (4) multiplied by the associated case weight for the RUG-IV 48 grouper model using standard RUG-IV procedures for index maximization.

(D) The sum of the products calculated for each nursing home in subparagraphs (A) through (C) above shall be the base year case mix, rate adjusted weighted days.

(3) The Statewide RUG-IV nursing base per diem rate on January 1, 2014 shall be the quotient of the paragraph (1) divided by the sum calculated under subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2).

(4) Minimum Data Set (MDS) comprehensive assessments for Medicaid residents on the last day of the quarter used to establish the base rate.

(5) Nursing facilities designated as of July 1, 2012 by the Department as "Institutions for Mental Disease" shall be excluded from all calculations under this subsection. The data from these facilities shall not be used in the computations described in paragraphs (1) through (4) above to establish the base rate.

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Department shall by rule develop a reimbursement methodology reflective of the intensity of care and services requirements of low need residents in the lowest RUG IV groupers and corresponding regulations. Only that portion of the RUGs Reimbursement System spending pool described in subsection (d-1) attributed to the groupers as of July 1, 2013 for which the methodology in this Section is developed may be diverted for this purpose. The Department shall submit the rules no later than January 1, 2014 for an implementation date no later than January 1, 2015. If the Department does not implement this reimbursement methodology by the required date, the nursing component per diem on January 1, 2015 for residents classified in RUG-IV groups PA1, PA2, BA1, and BA2 shall be the blended rate of the calculated RUG-IV nursing component per diem and the nursing component per diem in effect on July 1, 2012. This blended rate shall be applied only to nursing homes whose resident population is greater than or equal to 70% of the total residents served and whose RUG-IV nursing component per diem rate is less than the nursing component per diem in effect on July 1, 2012. This blended rate shall be in effect until the reimbursement methodology is implemented or until July 1, 2019, whichever is sooner.

(e-1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, rates established pursuant to this subsection shall not apply to any and all nursing facilities designated by the Department as "Institutions for Mental Disease" and shall be excluded from the RUGs Reimbursement System applicable to facilities not designated as "Institutions for the Mentally Diseased" by the Department.

(e-2) For dates of services beginning January 1, 2014, the RUG-IV nursing component per diem for a nursing home shall be the product of the statewide RUG-IV nursing base per diem rate, the facility average case mix index, and the regional wage adjustor. Transition rates for services provided between January 1, 2014 and December 31, 2014 shall be as follows:

(1) The transition RUG-IV per diem nursing rate for nursing homes whose rate calculated in this subsection (e-2) is greater than the nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012 shall be paid the sum of:

(A) The nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012; plus

(B) The difference of the RUG-IV nursing component per diem calculated for the current quarter minus the nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012 multiplied by 0.88.

(2) The transition RUG-IV per diem nursing rate for nursing homes whose rate calculated in this subsection (e-2) is less than the nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012 shall be paid the sum of:

(A) The nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012; plus

(B) The difference of the RUG-IV nursing component per diem calculated for the current quarter minus the nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012 multiplied by 0.13.

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on and after July 1, 2012, reimbursement rates associated with the nursing or support components of the current nursing facility rate methodology shall not increase beyond the level effective May 1, 2011 until a new reimbursement system based on the RUGs IV 48 grouper model has been fully operationalized.

(g) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on and after July 1, 2012, for facilities not designated by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services as "Institutions for Mental Disease", rates effective May 1, 2011 shall be adjusted as follows:

(1) Individual nursing rates for residents classified in RUG IV groups PA1, PA2, BA1, and BA2 during the quarter ending March 31, 2012 shall be reduced by 10%;

(2) Individual nursing rates for residents classified in all other RUG IV groups shall be reduced by 1.0%;

(3) Facility rates for the capital and support components shall be reduced by 1.7%.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on and after July 1, 2012, nursing facilities designated by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services as "Institutions for Mental Disease" and "Institutions for Mental Disease" that are facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 shall have the nursing, socio-developmental, capital, and support components of their reimbursement rate effective May 1, 2011 reduced in total by 2.7%.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-104, Article 6, Section 6-240, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 11, Section 11-35, eff. 7-22-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.4) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.4)

Sec. 5-5.4. Standards of Payment - Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop standards of payment of nursing facility and ICF/DD services in facilities providing such services under this Article which:

(1) Provide for the determination of a facility's payment for nursing facility or ICF/DD services on a prospective basis. The amount of the payment rate for all nursing facilities certified by the Department of Public Health under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities, Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, Skilled Nursing facilities, or Intermediate Care facilities under the medical assistance program shall be prospectively established annually on the basis of historical, financial, and statistical data reflecting actual costs from prior years, which shall be applied to the current rate year and updated for inflation, except that the capital cost element for newly constructed facilities shall be based upon projected budgets. The annually established payment rate shall take effect on July 1 in 1984 and subsequent years. No rate increase and no update for inflation shall be provided on or after July 1, 1994, unless specifically provided for in this Section. The changes made by Public Act 93-841 extending the duration of the prohibition against a rate increase or update for inflation are effective retroactive to July 1, 2004.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an increase of 3% plus $1.10 per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care Facilities for the Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2006 shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care Facilities for the Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2009 shall include an increase sufficient to provide a $0.50 per hour wage increase for non-executive staff.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an increase of 1.6% plus $3.00 per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an increase of 1.6% and, for services provided on or after October 1, 1999, shall be increased by $4.00 per resident-day, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, a new payment methodology must be implemented for the nursing component of the rate effective July 1, 2003. The Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services) shall develop the new payment methodology using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) as the instrument to collect information concerning nursing home resident condition necessary to compute the rate. The Department shall develop the new payment methodology to meet the unique needs of Illinois nursing home residents while remaining subject to the appropriations provided by the General Assembly. A transition period from the payment methodology in effect on June 30, 2003 to the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 shall be provided for a period not exceeding 3 years and 184 days after implementation of the new payment methodology as follows:

(A) For a facility that would receive a lower nursing component rate per patient day under the new system than the facility received effective on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be held at the level in effect on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology until a higher nursing component rate of reimbursement is achieved by that facility.

(B) For a facility that would receive a higher nursing component rate per patient day under the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 than the facility received effective on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be adjusted.

(C) Notwithstanding paragraphs (A) and (B), the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be adjusted subject to appropriations provided by the General Assembly.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on March 1, 2001 shall include a statewide increase of 7.85%, as defined by the Department.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, except facilities participating in the Department's demonstration program pursuant to the provisions of Title 77, Part 300, Subpart T of the Illinois Administrative Code, the numerator of the ratio used by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services to compute the rate payable under this Section using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) methodology shall incorporate the following annual amounts as the additional funds appropriated to the Department specifically to pay for rates based on the MDS nursing component methodology in excess of the funding in effect on December 31, 2006:

(i) For rates taking effect January 1, 2007, $60,000,000.

(ii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2008, $110,000,000.

(iii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2009, $194,000,000.

(iv) For rates taking effect April 1, 2011, or the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, $416,500,000 or an amount as may be necessary to complete the transition to the MDS methodology for the nursing component of the rate. Increased payments under this item (iv) are not due and payable, however, until (i) the methodologies described in this paragraph are approved by the federal government in an appropriate State Plan amendment and (ii) the assessment imposed by Section 5B-2 of this Code is determined to be a permissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the support component of the rates taking effect on January 1, 2008 shall be computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services no later than April 1, 2005, updated for inflation to January 1, 2006.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on April 1, 2002 shall include a statewide increase of 2.0%, as defined by the Department. This increase terminates on July 1, 2002; beginning July 1, 2002 these rates are reduced to the level of the rates in effect on March 31, 2002, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2001 shall be computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Public Aid no later than April 1, 2000, updated for inflation to January 1, 2001. For rates effective July 1, 2001 only, rates shall be the greater of the rate computed for July 1, 2001 or the rate effective on June 30, 2001.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the Illinois Department shall determine by rule the rates taking effect on July 1, 2002, which shall be 5.9% less than the rates in effect on June 30, 2002.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, if the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12 and the waiver granted under 42 CFR 433.68 are approved by the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2004 shall be 3.0% greater than the rates in effect on June 30, 2004. These rates shall take effect only upon approval and implementation of the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2005 shall be 3% more than the rates in effect on December 31, 2004.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2009, the per diem support component of the rates effective on January 1, 2008, computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services no later than April 1, 2005, updated for inflation to January 1, 2006, shall be increased to the amount that would have been derived using standard Department of Healthcare and Family Services methods, procedures, and inflators.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as intermediate care facilities that are federally defined as Institutions for Mental Disease, or facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, a socio-development component rate equal to 6.6% of the facility's nursing component rate as of January 1, 2006 shall be established and paid effective July 1, 2006. The socio-development component of the rate shall be increased by a factor of 2.53 on the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707). As of August 1, 2008, the socio-development component rate shall be equal to 6.6% of the facility's nursing component rate as of January 1, 2006, multiplied by a factor of 3.53. For services provided on or after April 1, 2011, or the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, whichever is later, the Illinois Department may by rule adjust these socio-development component rates, and may use different adjustment methodologies for those facilities participating, and those not participating, in the Illinois Department's demonstration program pursuant to the provisions of Title 77, Part 300, Subpart T of the Illinois Administrative Code, but in no case may such rates be diminished below those in effect on August 1, 2008.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or as long-term care facilities for residents under 22 years of age, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2003 shall include a statewide increase of 4%, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall include a statewide increase of 2.5%, as defined by the Department.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2005, facility rates shall be increased by the difference between (i) a facility's per diem property, liability, and malpractice insurance costs as reported in the cost report filed with the Department of Public Aid and used to establish rates effective July 1, 2001 and (ii) those same costs as reported in the facility's 2002 cost report. These costs shall be passed through to the facility without caps or limitations, except for adjustments required under normal auditing procedures.

Rates established effective each July 1 shall govern payment for services rendered throughout that fiscal year, except that rates established on July 1, 1996 shall be increased by 6.8% for services provided on or after January 1, 1997. Such rates will be based upon the rates calculated for the year beginning July 1, 1990, and for subsequent years thereafter until June 30, 2001 shall be based on the facility cost reports for the facility fiscal year ending at any point in time during the previous calendar year, updated to the midpoint of the rate year. The cost report shall be on file with the Department no later than April 1 of the current rate year. Should the cost report not be on file by April 1, the Department shall base the rate on the latest cost report filed by each skilled care facility and intermediate care facility, updated to the midpoint of the current rate year. In determining rates for services rendered on and after July 1, 1985, fixed time shall not be computed at less than zero. The Department shall not make any alterations of regulations which would reduce any component of the Medicaid rate to a level below what that component would have been utilizing in the rate effective on July 1, 1984.

(2) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by facilities in providing services for recipients of skilled nursing and intermediate care services under the medical assistance program.

(3) Shall take into account the medical and psycho-social characteristics and needs of the patients.

(4) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by facilities in meeting licensing and certification standards imposed and prescribed by the State of Illinois, any of its political subdivisions or municipalities and by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop precise standards for payments to reimburse nursing facilities for any utilization of appropriate rehabilitative personnel for the provision of rehabilitative services which is authorized by federal regulations, including reimbursement for services provided by qualified therapists or qualified assistants, and which is in accordance with accepted professional practices. Reimbursement also may be made for utilization of other supportive personnel under appropriate supervision.

The Department shall develop enhanced payments to offset the additional costs incurred by a facility serving exceptional need residents and shall allocate at least $4,000,000 of the funds collected from the assessment established by Section 5B-2 of this Code for such payments. For the purpose of this Section, "exceptional needs" means, but need not be limited to, ventilator care and traumatic brain injury care. The enhanced payments for exceptional need residents under this paragraph are not due and payable, however, until (i) the methodologies described in this paragraph are approved by the federal government in an appropriate State Plan amendment and (ii) the assessment imposed by Section 5B-2 of this Code is determined to be a permissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

Beginning January 1, 2014 the methodologies for reimbursement of nursing facility services as provided under this Section 5-5.4 shall no longer be applicable for services provided on or after January 1, 2014.

No payment increase under this Section for the MDS methodology, exceptional care residents, or the socio-development component rate established by Public Act 96-1530 of the 96th General Assembly and funded by the assessment imposed under Section 5B-2 of this Code shall be due and payable until after the Department notifies the long-term care providers, in writing, that the payment methodologies to long-term care providers required under this Section have been approved by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and the waivers under 42 CFR 433.68 for the assessment imposed by this Section, if necessary, have been granted by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Upon notification to the Department of approval of the payment methodologies required under this Section and the waivers granted under 42 CFR 433.68, all increased payments otherwise due under this Section prior to the date of notification shall be due and payable within 90 days of the date federal approval is received.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(Source: P.A. 97-10, eff. 6-14-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-584, eff. 8-26-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5f)

Sec. 5-5f. Elimination and limitations of medical assistance services. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, on and after July 1, 2012:

(a) The following services shall no longer be a covered service available under this Code: group psychotherapy for residents of any facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013; and adult chiropractic services.

(b) The Department shall place the following limitations on services: (i) the Department shall limit adult eyeglasses to one pair every 2 years; (ii) the Department shall set an annual limit of a maximum of 20 visits for each of the following services: adult speech, hearing, and language therapy services, adult occupational therapy services, and physical therapy services; (iii) the Department shall limit adult podiatry services to individuals with diabetes; (iv) the Department shall pay for caesarean sections at the normal vaginal delivery rate unless a caesarean section was medically necessary; (v) the Department shall limit adult dental services to emergencies; beginning July 1, 2013, the Department shall ensure that the following conditions are recognized as emergencies: (A) dental services necessary for an individual in order for the individual to be cleared for a medical procedure, such as a transplant; (B) extractions and dentures necessary for a diabetic to receive proper nutrition; (C) extractions and dentures necessary as a result of cancer treatment; and (D) dental services necessary for the health of a pregnant woman prior to delivery of her baby; and (vi) effective July 1, 2012, the Department shall place limitations and require concurrent review on every inpatient detoxification stay to prevent repeat admissions to any hospital for detoxification within 60 days of a previous inpatient detoxification stay. The Department shall convene a workgroup of hospitals, substance abuse providers, care coordination entities, managed care plans, and other stakeholders to develop recommendations for quality standards, diversion to other settings, and admission criteria for patients who need inpatient detoxification, which shall be published on the Department's website no later than September 1, 2013.

(c) The Department shall require prior approval of the following services: wheelchair repairs costing more than $400, coronary artery bypass graft, and bariatric surgery consistent with Medicare standards concerning patient responsibility. Wheelchair repair prior approval requests shall be adjudicated within one business day of receipt of complete supporting documentation. Providers may not break wheelchair repairs into separate claims for purposes of staying under the $400 threshold for requiring prior approval. The wholesale price of manual and power wheelchairs, durable medical equipment and supplies, and complex rehabilitation technology products and services shall be defined as actual acquisition cost including all discounts.

(d) The Department shall establish benchmarks for hospitals to measure and align payments to reduce potentially preventable hospital readmissions, inpatient complications, and unnecessary emergency room visits. In doing so, the Department shall consider items, including, but not limited to, historic and current acuity of care and historic and current trends in readmission. The Department shall publish provider-specific historical readmission data and anticipated potentially preventable targets 60 days prior to the start of the program. In the instance of readmissions, the Department shall adopt policies and rates of reimbursement for services and other payments provided under this Code to ensure that, by June 30, 2013, expenditures to hospitals are reduced by, at a minimum, $40,000,000.

(e) The Department shall establish utilization controls for the hospice program such that it shall not pay for other care services when an individual is in hospice.

(f) For home health services, the Department shall require Medicare certification of providers participating in the program and implement the Medicare face-to-face encounter rule. The Department shall require providers to implement auditable electronic service verification based on global positioning systems or other cost-effective technology.

(g) For the Home Services Program operated by the Department of Human Services and the Community Care Program operated by the Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services, in cooperation with the Department on Aging, shall implement an electronic service verification based on global positioning systems or other cost-effective technology.

(h) Effective with inpatient hospital admissions on or after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce the payment for a claim that indicates the occurrence of a provider-preventable condition during the admission as specified by the Department in rules. The Department shall not pay for services related to an other provider-preventable condition.

As used in this subsection (h):

"Provider-preventable condition" means a health care acquired condition as defined under the federal Medicaid regulation found at 42 CFR 447.26 or an other provider-preventable condition.

"Other provider-preventable condition" means a wrong surgical or other invasive procedure performed on a patient, a surgical or other invasive procedure performed on the wrong body part, or a surgical procedure or other invasive procedure performed on the wrong patient.

(i) The Department shall implement cost savings initiatives for advanced imaging services, cardiac imaging services, pain management services, and back surgery. Such initiatives shall be designed to achieve annual costs savings.

(j) The Department shall ensure that beneficiaries with a diagnosis of epilepsy or seizure disorder in Department records will not require prior approval for anticonvulsants.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-104, Article 6, Section 6-240, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 9, Section 9-5, eff. 7-22-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-5)

Sec. 5A-5. Notice; penalty; maintenance of records.

(a) The Illinois Department shall send a notice of assessment to every hospital provider subject to assessment under this Article. The notice of assessment shall notify the hospital of its assessment and shall be sent after receipt by the Department of notification from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services that the payment methodologies required under this Article and, if necessary, the waiver granted under 42 CFR 433.68 have been approved. The notice shall be on a form prepared by the Illinois Department and shall state the following:

(1) The name of the hospital provider.

(2) The address of the hospital provider's principal place of business from which the provider engages in the occupation of hospital provider in this State, and the name and address of each hospital operated, conducted, or maintained by the provider in this State.

(3) The occupied bed days, occupied bed days less Medicare days, adjusted gross hospital revenue, or outpatient gross revenue of the hospital provider (whichever is applicable), the amount of assessment imposed under Section 5A-2 for the State fiscal year for which the notice is sent, and the amount of each installment to be paid during the State fiscal year.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Other reasonable information as determined by the Illinois Department.

(b) If a hospital provider conducts, operates, or maintains more than one hospital licensed by the Illinois Department of Public Health, the provider shall pay the assessment for each hospital separately.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, in the case of a person who ceases to conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital in respect of which the person is subject to assessment under this Article as a hospital provider, the assessment for the State fiscal year in which the cessation occurs shall be adjusted by multiplying the assessment computed under Section 5A-2 by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of days in the year during which the provider conducts, operates, or maintains the hospital and the denominator of which is 365. Immediately upon ceasing to conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital, the person shall pay the assessment for the year as so adjusted (to the extent not previously paid).

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, a provider who commences conducting, operating, or maintaining a hospital, upon notice by the Illinois Department, shall pay the assessment computed under Section 5A-2 and subsection (e) in installments on the due dates stated in the notice and on the regular installment due dates for the State fiscal year occurring after the due dates of the initial notice.

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, for State fiscal years 2009 through 2015 2014, in the case of a hospital provider that did not conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital in 2005, the assessment for that State fiscal year shall be computed on the basis of hypothetical occupied bed days for the full calendar year as determined by the Illinois Department. Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, for the portion of State fiscal year 2012 beginning June 10, 2012 through June 30, 2012, and for State fiscal years 2013 through 2014, and for July 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014, in the case of a hospital provider that did not conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital in 2009, the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 for that State fiscal year shall be computed on the basis of hypothetical gross outpatient revenue for the full calendar year as determined by the Illinois Department.

(f) Every hospital provider subject to assessment under this Article shall keep sufficient records to permit the determination of adjusted gross hospital revenue for the hospital's fiscal year. All such records shall be kept in the English language and shall, at all times during regular business hours of the day, be subject to inspection by the Illinois Department or its duly authorized agents and employees.

(g) The Illinois Department may, by rule, provide a hospital provider a reasonable opportunity to request a clarification or correction of any clerical or computational errors contained in the calculation of its assessment, but such corrections shall not extend to updating the cost report information used to calculate the assessment.

(h) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-21-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-8)

Sec. 5A-8. Hospital Provider Fund.

(a) There is created in the State Treasury the Hospital Provider Fund. Interest earned by the Fund shall be credited to the Fund. The Fund shall not be used to replace any moneys appropriated to the Medicaid program by the General Assembly.

(b) The Fund is created for the purpose of receiving moneys in accordance with Section 5A-6 and disbursing moneys only for the following purposes, notwithstanding any other provision of law:

(1) For making payments to hospitals as required under this Code, under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, under the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and under the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act.

(2) For the reimbursement of moneys collected by the Illinois Department from hospitals or hospital providers through error or mistake in performing the activities authorized under this Code.

(3) For payment of administrative expenses incurred by the Illinois Department or its agent in performing activities under this Code, under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, under the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and under the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act.

(4) For payments of any amounts which are reimbursable to the federal government for payments from this Fund which are required to be paid by State warrant.

(5) For making transfers, as those transfers are authorized in the proceedings authorizing debt under the Short Term Borrowing Act, but transfers made under this paragraph (5) shall not exceed the principal amount of debt issued in anticipation of the receipt by the State of moneys to be deposited into the Fund.

(6) For making transfers to any other fund in the State treasury, but transfers made under this paragraph (6) shall not exceed the amount transferred previously from that other fund into the Hospital Provider Fund plus any interest that would have been earned by that fund on the monies that had been transferred.

(6.5) For making transfers to the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund, except that transfers made under this paragraph (6.5) shall not exceed $60,000,000 in the aggregate.

(7) For making transfers not exceeding the following amounts, in State fiscal years 2013 and 2014 in each State fiscal year during which an assessment is imposed pursuant to Section 5A-2, to the following designated funds:

Health and Human Services Medicaid Trust

Fund..............................$20,000,000

Long-Term Care Provider Fund..........$30,000,000

General Revenue Fund.................$80,000,000.

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

(7.1) For making transfers not exceeding the following amounts, in State fiscal year 2015, to the following designated funds:

Health and Human Services Medicaid Trust

Fund..............................$10,000,000

Long-Term Care Provider Fund..........$15,000,000

General Revenue Fund.................$40,000,000.

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

(7.5) (Blank).

(7.8) (Blank).

(7.9) (Blank).

(7.10) For State fiscal years 2013 and 2014, for making transfers of the moneys resulting from the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 and transferred into the Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts in that State fiscal year:

Health Care Provider Relief Fund......$50,000,000

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

(7.11) For State fiscal year 2015, for making transfers of the moneys resulting from the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 and transferred into the Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts in that State fiscal year:

Health Care Provider Relief Fund.....$25,000,000

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

(7.12) For State fiscal year 2013, for increasing by 21/365ths the transfer of the moneys resulting from the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 for the portion of State fiscal year 2012 beginning June 10, 2012 through June 30, 2012 and transferred into the Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts in that State fiscal year:

Health Care Provider Relief Fund......$2,870,000

(8) For making refunds to hospital providers pursuant to Section 5A-10.

Disbursements from the Fund, other than transfers authorized under paragraphs (5) and (6) of this subsection, shall be by warrants drawn by the State Comptroller upon receipt of vouchers duly executed and certified by the Illinois Department.

(c) The Fund shall consist of the following:

(1) All moneys collected or received by the Illinois Department from the hospital provider assessment imposed by this Article.

(2) All federal matching funds received by the Illinois Department as a result of expenditures made by the Illinois Department that are attributable to moneys deposited in the Fund.

(3) Any interest or penalty levied in conjunction with the administration of this Article.

(4) Moneys transferred from another fund in the State treasury.

(5) All other moneys received for the Fund from any other source, including interest earned thereon.

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-21-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-12.4)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2015)

Sec. 5A-12.4. Hospital access improvement payments on or after June 10, 2012.

(a) Hospital access improvement payments. To preserve and improve access to hospital services, for hospital and physician services rendered on or after June 10, 2012, the Illinois Department shall, except for hospitals described in subsection (b) of Section 5A-3, make payments to hospitals as set forth in this Section. These payments shall be paid in 12 equal installments on or before the 7th State business day of each month, except that no payment shall be due within 100 days after the later of the date of notification of federal approval of the payment methodologies required under this Section or any waiver required under 42 CFR 433.68, at which time the sum of amounts required under this Section prior to the date of notification is due and payable. Payments under this Section are not due and payable, however, until (i) the methodologies described in this Section are approved by the federal government in an appropriate State Plan amendment and (ii) the assessment imposed under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 of this Article is determined to be a permissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. The Illinois Department shall take all actions necessary to implement the payments under this Section effective June 10, 2012, including but not limited to providing public notice pursuant to federal requirements, the filing of a State Plan amendment, and the adoption of administrative rules. For State fiscal year 2013, payments under this Section shall be increased by 21/365ths. The funding source for these additional payments shall be from the increased assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 that was received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 for the portion of State fiscal year 2012 beginning June 10, 2012 through June 30, 2012.

(a-5) Accelerated schedule. The Illinois Department may, when practicable, accelerate the schedule upon which payments authorized under this Section are made.

(b) Magnet and perinatal hospital adjustment. In addition to rates paid for inpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay to each Illinois general acute care hospital that, as of August 25, 2011, was recognized as a Magnet hospital by the American Nurses Credentialing Center and that, as of September 14, 2011, was designated as a level III perinatal center amounts as follows:

(1) For hospitals with a case mix index equal to or greater than the 80th percentile of case mix indices for all Illinois hospitals, $470 for each Medicaid general acute care inpatient day of care provided by the hospital during State fiscal year 2009.

(2) For all other hospitals, $170 for each Medicaid general acute care inpatient day of care provided by the hospital during State fiscal year 2009.

(c) Trauma level II adjustment. In addition to rates paid for inpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay to each Illinois general acute care hospital that, as of July 1, 2011, was designated as a level II trauma center amounts as follows:

(1) For hospitals with a case mix index equal to or greater than the 50th percentile of case mix indices for all Illinois hospitals, $470 for each Medicaid general acute care inpatient day of care provided by the hospital during State fiscal year 2009.

(2) For all other hospitals, $170 for each Medicaid general acute care inpatient day of care provided by the hospital during State fiscal year 2009.

(3) For the purposes of this adjustment, hospitals located in the same city that alternate their trauma center designation as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.295(a)(2) shall have the adjustment provided under this Section divided between the 2 hospitals.

(d) Dual-eligible adjustment. In addition to rates paid for inpatient services, the Department shall pay each Illinois general acute care hospital that had a ratio of crossover days to total inpatient days for programs under Title XIX of the Social Security Act administered by the Department (utilizing information from 2009 paid claims) greater than 50%, and a case mix index equal to or greater than the 75th percentile of case mix indices for all Illinois hospitals, a rate of $400 for each Medicaid inpatient day during State fiscal year 2009 including crossover days.

(e) Medicaid volume adjustment. In addition to rates paid for inpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay to each Illinois general acute care hospital that provided more than 10,000 Medicaid inpatient days of care in State fiscal year 2009, has a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate of at least 29.05% as calculated by the Department for the Rate Year 2011 Disproportionate Share determination, and is not eligible for Medicaid Percentage Adjustment payments in rate year 2011 an amount equal to $135 for each Medicaid inpatient day of care provided during State fiscal year 2009.

(f) Outpatient service adjustment. In addition to the rates paid for outpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay each Illinois hospital an amount at least equal to $100 multiplied by the hospital's outpatient ambulatory procedure listing services (excluding categories 3B and 3C) and by the hospital's end stage renal disease treatment services provided for State fiscal year 2009.

(g) Ambulatory service adjustment.

(1) In addition to the rates paid for outpatient hospital services provided in the emergency department, the Department shall pay each Illinois hospital an amount equal to $105 multiplied by the hospital's outpatient ambulatory procedure listing services for categories 3A, 3B, and 3C for State fiscal year 2009.

(2) In addition to the rates paid for outpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay each Illinois freestanding psychiatric hospital an amount equal to $200 multiplied by the hospital's ambulatory procedure listing services for category 5A for State fiscal year 2009.

(h) Specialty hospital adjustment. In addition to the rates paid for outpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay each Illinois long term acute care hospital and each Illinois hospital devoted exclusively to the treatment of cancer, an amount equal to $700 multiplied by the hospital's outpatient ambulatory procedure listing services and by the hospital's end stage renal disease treatment services (including services provided to individuals eligible for both Medicaid and Medicare) provided for State fiscal year 2009.

(h-1) ER Safety Net Payments. In addition to rates paid for outpatient services, the Department shall pay to each Illinois general acute care hospital with an emergency room ratio equal to or greater than 55%, that is not eligible for Medicaid percentage adjustments payments in rate year 2011, with a case mix index equal to or greater than the 20th percentile, and that is not designated as a trauma center by the Illinois Department of Public Health on July 1, 2011, as follows:

(1) Each hospital with an emergency room ratio equal to or greater than 74% shall receive a rate of $225 for each outpatient ambulatory procedure listing and end-stage renal disease treatment service provided for State fiscal year 2009.

(2) For all other hospitals, $65 shall be paid for each outpatient ambulatory procedure listing and end-stage renal disease treatment service provided for State fiscal year 2009.

(i) Physician supplemental adjustment. In addition to the rates paid for physician services, the Department shall make an adjustment payment for services provided by physicians as follows:

(1) Physician services eligible for the adjustment payment are those provided by physicians employed by or who have a contract to provide services to patients of the following hospitals: (i) Illinois general acute care hospitals that provided at least 17,000 Medicaid inpatient days of care in State fiscal year 2009 and are eligible for Medicaid Percentage Adjustment Payments in rate year 2011; and (ii) Illinois freestanding children's hospitals, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 149.50(c)(3)(A).

(2) The amount of the adjustment for each eligible hospital under this subsection (i) shall be determined by rule by the Department to spend a total pool of at least $6,960,000 annually. This pool shall be allocated among the eligible hospitals based on the difference between the upper payment limit for what could have been paid under Medicaid for physician services provided during State fiscal year 2009 by physicians employed by or who had a contract with the hospital and the amount that was paid under Medicaid for such services, provided however, that in no event shall physicians at any individual hospital collectively receive an annual, aggregate adjustment in excess of $435,000, except that any amount that is not distributed to a hospital because of the upper payment limit shall be reallocated among the remaining eligible hospitals that are below the upper payment limitation, on a proportionate basis.

(i-5) For any children's hospital which did not charge for its services during the base period, the Department shall use data supplied by the hospital to determine payments using similar methodologies for freestanding children's hospitals under this Section or Section 5A-12.2.

(j) For purposes of this Section, a hospital that is enrolled to provide Medicaid services during State fiscal year 2009 shall have its utilization and associated reimbursements annualized prior to the payment calculations being performed under this Section.

(k) For purposes of this Section, the terms "Medicaid days", "ambulatory procedure listing services", and "ambulatory procedure listing payments" do not include any days, charges, or services for which Medicare or a managed care organization reimbursed on a capitated basis was liable for payment, except where explicitly stated otherwise in this Section.

(l) Definitions. Unless the context requires otherwise or unless provided otherwise in this Section, the terms used in this Section for qualifying criteria and payment calculations shall have the same meanings as those terms have been given in the Illinois Department's administrative rules as in effect on October 1, 2011. Other terms shall be defined by the Illinois Department by rule.

As used in this Section, unless the context requires otherwise:

"Case mix index" means, for a given hospital, the sum of the per admission (DRG) relative weighting factors in effect on January 1, 2005, for all general acute care admissions for State fiscal year 2009, excluding Medicare crossover admissions and transplant admissions reimbursed under 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.82, divided by the total number of general acute care admissions for State fiscal year 2009, excluding Medicare crossover admissions and transplant admissions reimbursed under 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.82.

"Emergency room ratio" means, for a given hospital, a fraction, the denominator of which is the number of the hospital's outpatient ambulatory procedure listing and end-stage renal disease treatment services provided for State fiscal year 2009 and the numerator of which is the hospital's outpatient ambulatory procedure listing services for categories 3A, 3B, and 3C for State fiscal year 2009.

"Medicaid inpatient day" means, for a given hospital, the sum of days of inpatient hospital days provided to recipients of medical assistance under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, excluding days for individuals eligible for Medicare under Title XVIII of that Act (Medicaid/Medicare crossover days), as tabulated from the Department's paid claims data for admissions occurring during State fiscal year 2009 that was adjudicated by the Department through June 30, 2010.

"Outpatient ambulatory procedure listing services" means, for a given hospital, ambulatory procedure listing services, as described in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.140(b), provided to recipients of medical assistance under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, excluding services for individuals eligible for Medicare under Title XVIII of the Act (Medicaid/Medicare crossover days), as tabulated from the Department's paid claims data for services occurring in State fiscal year 2009 that were adjudicated by the Department through September 2, 2010.

"Outpatient end-stage renal disease treatment services" means, for a given hospital, the services, as described in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.140(c), provided to recipients of medical assistance under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, excluding payments for individuals eligible for Medicare under Title XVIII of the Act (Medicaid/Medicare crossover days), as tabulated from the Department's paid claims data for services occurring in State fiscal year 2009 that were adjudicated by the Department through September 2, 2010.

(m) The Department may adjust payments made under this Section 5A-12.4 to comply with federal law or regulations regarding hospital-specific payment limitations on government-owned or government-operated hospitals.

(n) Notwithstanding any of the other provisions of this Section, the Department is authorized to adopt rules that change the hospital access improvement payments specified in this Section, but only to the extent necessary to conform to any federally approved amendment to the Title XIX State plan. Any such rules shall be adopted by the Department as authorized by Section 5-50 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any changes implemented as a result of this subsection (n) shall be given retroactive effect so that they shall be deemed to have taken effect as of the effective date of this Section.

(o) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must submit a State Medicaid Plan Amendment to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services to implement the payments under this Section June 14, 2012 (Public Act 97-688).

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-21-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/11-5.2)

Sec. 11-5.2. Income, Residency, and Identity Verification System.

(a) The Department shall ensure that its proposed integrated eligibility system shall include the computerized functions of income, residency, and identity eligibility verification to verify eligibility, eliminate duplication of medical assistance, and deter fraud. Until the integrated eligibility system is operational, the Department may enter into a contract with the vendor selected pursuant to Section 11-5.3 as necessary to obtain the electronic data matching described in this Section. This contract shall be exempt from the Illinois Procurement Code pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 1-10 of that Code.

(b) Prior to awarding medical assistance at application under Article V of this Code, the Department shall, to the extent such databases are available to the Department, conduct data matches using the name, date of birth, address, and Social Security Number of each applicant or recipient or responsible relative of an applicant or recipient against the following:

(1) Income tax information.

(2) Employer reports of income and unemployment insurance payment information maintained by the Department of Employment Security.

(3) Earned and unearned income, citizenship and death, and other relevant information maintained by the Social Security Administration.

(4) Immigration status information maintained by the United States Citizenship and Immigration Services.

(5) Wage reporting and similar information maintained by states contiguous to this State.

(6) Employment information maintained by the Department of Employment Security in its New Hire Directory database.

(7) Employment information maintained by the United States Department of Health and Human Services in its National Directory of New Hires database.

(8) Veterans' benefits information maintained by the United States Department of Health and Human Services, in coordination with the Department of Health and Human Services and the Department of Veterans' Affairs, in the federal Public Assistance Reporting Information System (PARIS) database.

(9) Residency information maintained by the Illinois Secretary of State.

(10) A database which is substantially similar to or a successor of a database described in this Section that contains information relevant for verifying eligibility for medical assistance.

(c) (Blank).

(d) If a discrepancy results between information provided by an applicant, recipient, or responsible relative and information contained in one or more of the databases or information tools listed under subsection (b) or (c) of this Section or subsection (c) of Section 11-5.3 and that discrepancy calls into question the accuracy of information relevant to a condition of eligibility provided by the applicant, recipient, or responsible relative, the Department or its contractor shall review the applicant's or recipient's case using the following procedures:

(1) If the information discovered under subsection (b) (c) of this Section or subsection (c) of Section 11-5.3 does not result in the Department finding the applicant or recipient ineligible for assistance under Article V of this Code, the Department shall finalize the determination or redetermination of eligibility.

(2) If the information discovered results in the Department finding the applicant or recipient ineligible for assistance, the Department shall provide notice as set forth in Section 11-7 of this Article.

(3) If the information discovered is insufficient to determine that the applicant or recipient is eligible or ineligible, the Department shall provide written notice to the applicant or recipient which shall describe in sufficient detail the circumstances of the discrepancy, the information or documentation required, the manner in which the applicant or recipient may respond, and the consequences of failing to take action. The applicant or recipient shall have 10 business days to respond.

(4) If the applicant or recipient does not respond to the notice, the Department shall deny assistance for failure to cooperate, in which case the Department shall provide notice as set forth in Section 11-7. Eligibility for assistance shall not be established until the discrepancy has been resolved.

(5) If an applicant or recipient responds to the notice, the Department shall determine the effect of the information or documentation provided on the applicant's or recipient's case and shall take appropriate action. Written notice of the Department's action shall be provided as set forth in Section 11-7 of this Article.

(6) Suspected cases of fraud shall be referred to the Department's Inspector General.

(e) The Department shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; revised 11-12-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.25) (from Ch. 23, par. 12-4.25)

Sec. 12-4.25. Medical assistance program; vendor participation.

(A) The Illinois Department may deny, suspend, or terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a vendor, and may deny, suspend, or recover payments, if after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing the Illinois Department finds:

(a) Such vendor is not complying with the Department's policy or rules and regulations, or with the terms and conditions prescribed by the Illinois Department in its vendor agreement, which document shall be developed by the Department as a result of negotiations with each vendor category, including physicians, hospitals, long term care facilities, pharmacists, optometrists, podiatric physicians, and dentists setting forth the terms and conditions applicable to the participation of each vendor group in the program; or

(b) Such vendor has failed to keep or make available for inspection, audit or copying, after receiving a written request from the Illinois Department, such records regarding payments claimed for providing services. This section does not require vendors to make available patient records of patients for whom services are not reimbursed under this Code; or

(c) Such vendor has failed to furnish any information requested by the Department regarding payments for providing goods or services; or

(d) Such vendor has knowingly made, or caused to be made, any false statement or representation of a material fact in connection with the administration of the medical assistance program; or

(e) Such vendor has furnished goods or services to a recipient which are (1) in excess of need, (2) harmful, or (3) of grossly inferior quality, all of such determinations to be based upon competent medical judgment and evaluations; or

(f) The vendor; a person with management responsibility for a vendor; an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor; an owner of a sole proprietorship which is a vendor; or a partner in a partnership which is a vendor, either:

(1) was previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in another state or federal medical assistance or health care program; or

(2) was a person with management responsibility for a vendor previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program, or terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in another state or federal medical assistance or health care program during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or

(3) was an officer, or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or limited liability company vendor previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program, or terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in a state or federal medical assistance or health care program during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or

(4) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or partner of a partnership previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program, or terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in a state or federal medical assistance or health care program during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or

(f-1) Such vendor has a delinquent debt owed to the Illinois Department; or

(g) The vendor; a person with management responsibility for a vendor; an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or limited liability company vendor; an owner of a sole proprietorship which is a vendor; or a partner in a partnership which is a vendor, either:

(1) has engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation; or

(2) was a person with management responsibility for a vendor at the time that such vendor engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation; or

(3) was an officer, or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a vendor at the time such vendor engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation; or

(4) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or partner of a partnership which was a vendor at the time such vendor engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation; or

(h) The direct or indirect ownership of the vendor (including the ownership of a vendor that is a sole proprietorship, a partner's interest in a vendor that is a partnership, or ownership of 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor) has been transferred by an individual who is terminated, suspended, or excluded or barred from participating as a vendor to the individual's spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

(A-5) The Illinois Department may deny, suspend, or terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a vendor, if, after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing, the Illinois Department finds that the vendor; a person with management responsibility for a vendor; an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor; an owner of a sole proprietorship that is a vendor; or a partner in a partnership that is a vendor has been convicted of an offense based on fraud or willful misrepresentation related to any of the following:

(1) The medical assistance program under Article V of this Code.

(2) A medical assistance or health care program in another state.

(3) The Medicare program under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act.

(4) The provision of health care services.

(5) A violation of this Code, as provided in Article VIIIA, or another state or federal medical assistance program or health care program.

(A-10) The Illinois Department may deny, suspend, or terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a vendor, if, after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing, the Illinois Department finds that (i) the vendor, (ii) a person with management responsibility for a vendor, (iii) an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor, (iv) an owner of a sole proprietorship that is a vendor, or (v) a partner in a partnership that is a vendor has been convicted of an offense related to any of the following:

(1) Murder.

(2) A Class X felony under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(3) Sexual misconduct that may subject recipients to an undue risk of harm.

(4) A criminal offense that may subject recipients to an undue risk of harm.

(5) A crime of fraud or dishonesty.

(6) A crime involving a controlled substance.

(7) A misdemeanor relating to fraud, theft, embezzlement, breach of fiduciary responsibility, or other financial misconduct related to a health care program.

(A-15) The Illinois Department may deny the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V if, after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing, the Illinois Department finds:

(1) The applicant or any person with management responsibility for the applicant; an officer or member of the board of directors of an applicant; an entity owning (directly or indirectly) 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor applicant; an owner of a sole proprietorship applicant; a partner in a partnership applicant; or a technical or other advisor to an applicant has a debt owed to the Illinois Department, and no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made by the applicant.

(2) The applicant or any person with management responsibility for the applicant; an officer or member of the board of directors of an applicant; an entity owning (directly or indirectly) 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor applicant; an owner of a sole proprietorship applicant; a partner in a partnership vendor applicant; or a technical or other advisor to an applicant was (i) a person with management responsibility, (ii) an officer or member of the board of directors of an applicant, (iii) an entity owning (directly or indirectly) 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor, (iv) an owner of a sole proprietorship, (v) a partner in a partnership vendor, (vi) a technical or other advisor to a vendor, during a period of time where the conduct of that vendor resulted in a debt owed to the Illinois Department, and no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made by that vendor.

(3) There is a credible allegation of the use, transfer, or lease of assets of any kind to an applicant from a current or prior vendor who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department, no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made by that vendor or the vendor's alternate payee, and the applicant knows or should have known of such debt.

(4) There is a credible allegation of a transfer of management responsibilities, or direct or indirect ownership, to an applicant from a current or prior vendor who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department, and no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made by that vendor or the vendor's alternate payee, and the applicant knows or should have known of such debt.

(5) There is a credible allegation of the use, transfer, or lease of assets of any kind to an applicant who is a spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, relative by marriage, nephew, cousin, or relative of a current or prior vendor who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department and no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made.

(6) There is a credible allegation that the applicant's previous affiliations with a provider of medical services that has an uncollected debt, a provider that has been or is subject to a payment suspension under a federal health care program, or a provider that has been previously excluded from participation in the medical assistance program, poses a risk of fraud, waste, or abuse to the Illinois Department.

As used in this subsection, "credible allegation" is defined to include an allegation from any source, including, but not limited to, fraud hotline complaints, claims data mining, patterns identified through provider audits, civil actions filed under the Illinois False Claims Act, and law enforcement investigations. An allegation is considered to be credible when it has indicia of reliability.

(B) The Illinois Department shall deny, suspend or terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a vendor:

(1) immediately, if such vendor is not properly licensed, certified, or authorized;

(2) within 30 days of the date when such vendor's professional license, certification or other authorization has been refused renewal, restricted, revoked, suspended, or otherwise terminated; or

(3) if such vendor has been convicted of a violation of this Code, as provided in Article VIIIA.

(C) Upon termination, suspension, or exclusion of a vendor of goods or services from participation in the medical assistance program authorized by this Article, a person with management responsibility for such vendor during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion is barred from participation in the medical assistance program.

Upon termination, suspension, or exclusion of a corporate vendor, the officers and persons owning, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in the vendor during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion are barred from participation in the medical assistance program. A person who owns, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a terminated, suspended, or excluded vendor may not transfer his or her ownership interest in that vendor to his or her spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

Upon termination, suspension, or exclusion of a sole proprietorship or partnership, the owner or partners during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion are barred from participation in the medical assistance program. The owner of a terminated, suspended, or excluded vendor that is a sole proprietorship, and a partner in a terminated, suspended, or excluded vendor that is a partnership, may not transfer his or her ownership or partnership interest in that vendor to his or her spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

A person who owns, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or limited liability company vendor who owes a debt to the Department, if that vendor has not made payment arrangements acceptable to the Department, shall not transfer his or her ownership interest in that vendor, or vendor assets of any kind, to his or her spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

Rules adopted by the Illinois Department to implement these provisions shall specifically include a definition of the term "management responsibility" as used in this Section. Such definition shall include, but not be limited to, typical job titles, and duties and descriptions which will be considered as within the definition of individuals with management responsibility for a provider.

A vendor or a prior vendor who has been terminated, excluded, or suspended from the medical assistance program, or from another state or federal medical assistance or health care program, and any individual currently or previously barred from the medical assistance program, or from another state or federal medical assistance or health care program, as a result of being an officer or a person owning, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or limited liability company vendor during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion, may be required to post a surety bond as part of a condition of enrollment or participation in the medical assistance program. The Illinois Department shall establish, by rule, the criteria and requirements for determining when a surety bond must be posted and the value of the bond.

A vendor or a prior vendor who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department and any individual currently or previously barred from the medical assistance program, or from another state or federal medical assistance or health care program, as a result of being an officer or a person owning, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in that corporate or limited liability company vendor during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for the debt, may be required to post a surety bond as part of a condition of enrollment or participation in the medical assistance program. The Illinois Department shall establish, by rule, the criteria and requirements for determining when a surety bond must be posted and the value of the bond.

(D) If a vendor has been suspended from the medical assistance program under Article V of the Code, the Director may require that such vendor correct any deficiencies which served as the basis for the suspension. The Director shall specify in the suspension order a specific period of time, which shall not exceed one year from the date of the order, during which a suspended vendor shall not be eligible to participate. At the conclusion of the period of suspension the Director shall reinstate such vendor, unless he finds that such vendor has not corrected deficiencies upon which the suspension was based.

If a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded from the medical assistance program under Article V, such vendor shall be barred from participation for at least one year, except that if a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded based on a conviction of a violation of Article VIIIA or a conviction of a felony based on fraud or a willful misrepresentation related to (i) the medical assistance program under Article V, (ii) a federal or another state's medical assistance or health care program, or (iii) the provision of health care services, then the vendor shall be barred from participation for 5 years or for the length of the vendor's sentence for that conviction, whichever is longer. At the end of one year a vendor who has been terminated, suspended, or excluded may apply for reinstatement to the program. Upon proper application to be reinstated such vendor may be deemed eligible by the Director providing that such vendor meets the requirements for eligibility under this Code. If such vendor is deemed not eligible for reinstatement, he shall be barred from again applying for reinstatement for one year from the date his application for reinstatement is denied.

A vendor whose termination, suspension, or exclusion from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program under Article V was based solely on an action by a governmental entity other than the Illinois Department may, upon reinstatement by that governmental entity or upon reversal of the termination, suspension, or exclusion, apply for rescission of the termination, suspension, or exclusion from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program. Upon proper application for rescission, the vendor may be deemed eligible by the Director if the vendor meets the requirements for eligibility under this Code.

If a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded and reinstated to the medical assistance program under Article V and the vendor is terminated, suspended, or excluded a second or subsequent time from the medical assistance program, the vendor shall be barred from participation for at least 2 years, except that if a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded a second time based on a conviction of a violation of Article VIIIA or a conviction of a felony based on fraud or a willful misrepresentation related to (i) the medical assistance program under Article V, (ii) a federal or another state's medical assistance or health care program, or (iii) the provision of health care services, then the vendor shall be barred from participation for life. At the end of 2 years, a vendor who has been terminated, suspended, or excluded may apply for reinstatement to the program. Upon application to be reinstated, the vendor may be deemed eligible if the vendor meets the requirements for eligibility under this Code. If the vendor is deemed not eligible for reinstatement, the vendor shall be barred from again applying for reinstatement for 2 years from the date the vendor's application for reinstatement is denied.

(E) The Illinois Department may recover money improperly or erroneously paid, or overpayments, either by setoff, crediting against future billings or by requiring direct repayment to the Illinois Department. The Illinois Department may suspend or deny payment, in whole or in part, if such payment would be improper or erroneous or would otherwise result in overpayment.

(1) Payments may be suspended, denied, or recovered from a vendor or alternate payee: (i) for services rendered in violation of the Illinois Department's provider notices, statutes, rules, and regulations; (ii) for services rendered in violation of the terms and conditions prescribed by the Illinois Department in its vendor agreement; (iii) for any vendor who fails to grant the Office of Inspector General timely access to full and complete records, including, but not limited to, records relating to recipients under the medical assistance program for the most recent 6 years, in accordance with Section 140.28 of Title 89 of the Illinois Administrative Code, and other information for the purpose of audits, investigations, or other program integrity functions, after reasonable written request by the Inspector General; this subsection (E) does not require vendors to make available the medical records of patients for whom services are not reimbursed under this Code or to provide access to medical records more than 6 years old; (iv) when the vendor has knowingly made, or caused to be made, any false statement or representation of a material fact in connection with the administration of the medical assistance program; or (v) when the vendor previously rendered services while terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the medical assistance program or while terminated or excluded from participation in another state or federal medical assistance or health care program.

(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if a vendor has the same taxpayer identification number (assigned under Section 6109 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986) as is assigned to a vendor with past-due financial obligations to the Illinois Department, the Illinois Department may make any necessary adjustments to payments to that vendor in order to satisfy any past-due obligations, regardless of whether the vendor is assigned a different billing number under the medical assistance program.

(E-5) Civil monetary penalties.

(1) As used in this subsection (E-5):

(a) "Knowingly" means that a person, with respect to information: (i) has actual knowledge of the information; (ii) acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the information; or (iii) acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the information. No proof of specific intent to defraud is required.

(b) "Overpayment" means any funds that a person receives or retains from the medical assistance program to which the person, after applicable reconciliation, is not entitled under this Code.

(c) "Remuneration" means the offer or transfer of items or services for free or for other than fair market value by a person; however, remuneration does not include items or services of a nominal value of no more than $10 per item or service, or $50 in the aggregate on an annual basis, or any other offer or transfer of items or services as determined by the Department.

(d) "Should know" means that a person, with respect to information: (i) acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the information; or (ii) acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the information. No proof of specific intent to defraud is required.

(2) Any person (including a vendor, provider, organization, agency, or other entity, or an alternate payee thereof, but excluding a recipient) who:

(a) knowingly presents or causes to be presented to an officer, employee, or agent of the State, a claim that the Department determines:

(i) is for a medical or other item or service that the person knows or should know was not provided as claimed, including any person who engages in a pattern or practice of presenting or causing to be presented a claim for an item or service that is based on a code that the person knows or should know will result in a greater payment to the person than the code the person knows or should know is applicable to the item or service actually provided;

(ii) is for a medical or other item or service and the person knows or should know that the claim is false or fraudulent;

(iii) is presented for a vendor physician's service, or an item or service incident to a vendor physician's service, by a person who knows or should know that the individual who furnished, or supervised the furnishing of, the service:

(AA) was not licensed as a physician;

(BB) was licensed as a physician but such license had been obtained through a misrepresentation of material fact (including cheating on an examination required for licensing); or

(CC) represented to the patient at the time the service was furnished that the physician was certified in a medical specialty by a medical specialty board, when the individual was not so certified;

(iv) is for a medical or other item or service furnished during a period in which the person was excluded from the medical assistance program or a federal or state health care program under which the claim was made pursuant to applicable law; or

(v) is for a pattern of medical or other items or services that a person knows or should know are not medically necessary;

(b) knowingly presents or causes to be presented to any person a request for payment which is in violation of the conditions for receipt of vendor payments under the medical assistance program under Section 11-13 of this Code;

(c) knowingly gives or causes to be given to any person, with respect to medical assistance program coverage of inpatient hospital services, information that he or she knows or should know is false or misleading, and that could reasonably be expected to influence the decision when to discharge such person or other individual from the hospital;

(d) in the case of a person who is not an organization, agency, or other entity, is excluded from participating in the medical assistance program or a federal or state health care program and who, at the time of a violation of this subsection (E-5):

(i) retains a direct or indirect ownership or control interest in an entity that is participating in the medical assistance program or a federal or state health care program, and who knows or should know of the action constituting the basis for the exclusion; or

(ii) is an officer or managing employee of such an entity;

(e) offers or transfers remuneration to any individual eligible for benefits under the medical assistance program that such person knows or should know is likely to influence such individual to order or receive from a particular vendor, provider, practitioner, or supplier any item or service for which payment may be made, in whole or in part, under the medical assistance program;

(f) arranges or contracts (by employment or otherwise) with an individual or entity that the person knows or should know is excluded from participation in the medical assistance program or a federal or state health care program, for the provision of items or services for which payment may be made under such a program;

(g) commits an act described in subsection (b) or (c) of Section 8A-3;

(h) knowingly makes, uses, or causes to be made or used, a false record or statement material to a false or fraudulent claim for payment for items and services furnished under the medical assistance program;

(i) fails to grant timely access, upon reasonable request (as defined by the Department by rule), to the Inspector General, for the purpose of audits, investigations, evaluations, or other statutory functions of the Inspector General of the Department;

(j) orders or prescribes a medical or other item or service during a period in which the person was excluded from the medical assistance program or a federal or state health care program, in the case where the person knows or should know that a claim for such medical or other item or service will be made under such a program;

(k) knowingly makes or causes to be made any false statement, omission, or misrepresentation of a material fact in any application, bid, or contract to participate or enroll as a vendor or provider of services or a supplier under the medical assistance program;

(l) knows of an overpayment and does not report and return the overpayment to the Department in accordance with paragraph (6);

shall be subject, in addition to any other penalties that may be prescribed by law, to a civil money penalty of not more than $10,000 for each item or service (or, in cases under subparagraph (c), $15,000 for each individual with respect to whom false or misleading information was given; in cases under subparagraph (d), $10,000 for each day the prohibited relationship occurs; in cases under subparagraph (g), $50,000 for each such act; in cases under subparagraph (h), $50,000 for each false record or statement; in cases under subparagraph (i), $15,000 for each day of the failure described in such subparagraph; or in cases under subparagraph (k), $50,000 for each false statement, omission, or misrepresentation of a material fact). In addition, such a person shall be subject to an assessment of not more than 3 times the amount claimed for each such item or service in lieu of damages sustained by the State because of such claim (or, in cases under subparagraph (g), damages of not more than 3 times the total amount of remuneration offered, paid, solicited, or received, without regard to whether a portion of such remuneration was offered, paid, solicited, or received for a lawful purpose; or in cases under subparagraph (k), an assessment of not more than 3 times the total amount claimed for each item or service for which payment was made based upon the application, bid, or contract containing the false statement, omission, or misrepresentation of a material fact).

(3) In addition, the Director or his or her designee may make a determination in the same proceeding to exclude, terminate, suspend, or bar the person from participation in the medical assistance program.

(4) The Illinois Department may seek the civil monetary penalties and exclusion, termination, suspension, or barment identified in this subsection (E-5). Prior to the imposition of any penalties or sanctions, the affected person shall be afforded an opportunity for a hearing after reasonable notice. The Department shall establish hearing procedures by rule.

(5) Any final order, decision, or other determination made, issued, or executed by the Director under the provisions of this subsection (E-5), whereby a person is aggrieved, shall be subject to review in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, which shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Director.

(6)(a) If a person has received an overpayment, the person shall:

(i) report and return the overpayment to the Department at the correct address; and

(ii) notify the Department in writing of the reason for the overpayment.

(b) An overpayment must be reported and returned under subparagraph (a) by the later of:

(i) the date which is 60 days after the date on which the overpayment was identified; or

(ii) the date any corresponding cost report is due, if applicable.

(E-10) A vendor who disputes an overpayment identified as part of a Department audit shall utilize the Department's self-referral disclosure protocol as set forth under this Code to identify, investigate, and return to the Department any undisputed audit overpayment amount. Unless the disputed overpayment amount is subject to a fraud payment suspension, or involves a termination sanction, the Department shall defer the recovery of the disputed overpayment amount up to one year after the date of the Department's final audit determination, or earlier, or as required by State or federal law. If the administrative hearing extends beyond one year, and such delay was not caused by the request of the vendor, then the Department shall not recover the disputed overpayment amount until the date of the final administrative decision. If a final administrative decision establishes that the disputed overpayment amount is owed to the Department, then the amount shall be immediately due to the Department. The Department shall be entitled to recover interest from the vendor on the overpayment amount from the date of the overpayment through the date the vendor returns the overpayment to the Department at a rate not to exceed the Wall Street Journal Prime Rate, as published from time to time, but not to exceed 5%. Any interest billed by the Department shall be due immediately upon receipt of the Department's billing statement.

(F) The Illinois Department may withhold payments to any vendor or alternate payee prior to or during the pendency of any audit or proceeding under this Section, and through the pendency of any administrative appeal or administrative review by any court proceeding. The Illinois Department shall state by rule with as much specificity as practicable the conditions under which payments will not be withheld under this Section. Payments may be denied for bills submitted with service dates occurring during the pendency of a proceeding, after a final decision has been rendered, or after the conclusion of any administrative appeal, where the final administrative decision is to terminate, exclude, or suspend eligibility to participate in the medical assistance program. The Illinois Department shall state by rule with as much specificity as practicable the conditions under which payments will not be denied for such bills. The Illinois Department shall state by rule a process and criteria by which a vendor or alternate payee may request full or partial release of payments withheld under this subsection. The Department must complete a proceeding under this Section in a timely manner.

Notwithstanding recovery allowed under subsection (E) or this subsection (F), the Illinois Department may withhold payments to any vendor or alternate payee who is not properly licensed, certified, or in compliance with State or federal agency regulations. Payments may be denied for bills submitted with service dates occurring during the period of time that a vendor is not properly licensed, certified, or in compliance with State or federal regulations. Facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act shall have payments denied or withheld pursuant to subsection (I) of this Section.

(F-5) The Illinois Department may temporarily withhold payments to a vendor or alternate payee if any of the following individuals have been indicted or otherwise charged under a law of the United States or this or any other state with an offense that is based on alleged fraud or willful misrepresentation on the part of the individual related to (i) the medical assistance program under Article V of this Code, (ii) a federal or another state's medical assistance or health care program, or (iii) the provision of health care services:

(1) If the vendor or alternate payee is a corporation: an officer of the corporation or an individual who owns, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidence of ownership of the corporation.

(2) If the vendor is a sole proprietorship: the owner of the sole proprietorship.

(3) If the vendor or alternate payee is a partnership: a partner in the partnership.

(4) If the vendor or alternate payee is any other business entity authorized by law to transact business in this State: an officer of the entity or an individual who owns, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the evidences of ownership of the entity.

If the Illinois Department withholds payments to a vendor or alternate payee under this subsection, the Department shall not release those payments to the vendor or alternate payee while any criminal proceeding related to the indictment or charge is pending unless the Department determines that there is good cause to release the payments before completion of the proceeding. If the indictment or charge results in the individual's conviction, the Illinois Department shall retain all withheld payments, which shall be considered forfeited to the Department. If the indictment or charge does not result in the individual's conviction, the Illinois Department shall release to the vendor or alternate payee all withheld payments.

(F-10) If the Illinois Department establishes that the vendor or alternate payee owes a debt to the Illinois Department, and the vendor or alternate payee subsequently fails to pay or make satisfactory payment arrangements with the Illinois Department for the debt owed, the Illinois Department may seek all remedies available under the law of this State to recover the debt, including, but not limited to, wage garnishment or the filing of claims or liens against the vendor or alternate payee.

(F-15) Enforcement of judgment.

(1) Any fine, recovery amount, other sanction, or costs imposed, or part of any fine, recovery amount, other sanction, or cost imposed, remaining unpaid after the exhaustion of or the failure to exhaust judicial review procedures under the Illinois Administrative Review Law is a debt due and owing the State and may be collected using all remedies available under the law.

(2) After expiration of the period in which judicial review under the Illinois Administrative Review Law may be sought for a final administrative decision, unless stayed by a court of competent jurisdiction, the findings, decision, and order of the Director may be enforced in the same manner as a judgment entered by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(3) In any case in which any person or entity has failed to comply with a judgment ordering or imposing any fine or other sanction, any expenses incurred by the Illinois Department to enforce the judgment, including, but not limited to, attorney's fees, court costs, and costs related to property demolition or foreclosure, after they are fixed by a court of competent jurisdiction or the Director, shall be a debt due and owing the State and may be collected in accordance with applicable law. Prior to any expenses being fixed by a final administrative decision pursuant to this subsection (F-15), the Illinois Department shall provide notice to the individual or entity that states that the individual or entity shall appear at a hearing before the administrative hearing officer to determine whether the individual or entity has failed to comply with the judgment. The notice shall set the date for such a hearing, which shall not be less than 7 days from the date that notice is served. If notice is served by mail, the 7-day period shall begin to run on the date that the notice was deposited in the mail.

(4) Upon being recorded in the manner required by Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure or by the Uniform Commercial Code, a lien shall be imposed on the real estate or personal estate, or both, of the individual or entity in the amount of any debt due and owing the State under this Section. The lien may be enforced in the same manner as a judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction. A lien shall attach to all property and assets of such person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity until the judgment is satisfied.

(5) The Director may set aside any judgment entered by default and set a new hearing date upon a petition filed at any time (i) if the petitioner's failure to appear at the hearing was for good cause, or (ii) if the petitioner established that the Department did not provide proper service of process. If any judgment is set aside pursuant to this paragraph (5), the hearing officer shall have authority to enter an order extinguishing any lien which has been recorded for any debt due and owing the Illinois Department as a result of the vacated default judgment.

(G) The provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as now or hereafter amended, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Illinois Department under this Section. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(G-5) Vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm.

(1) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Section, the Department may terminate, suspend, or exclude vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm from participation in the medical assistance program prior to an evidentiary hearing but after reasonable notice and opportunity to respond as established by the Department by rule.

(2) Vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm shall submit to a fingerprint-based criminal background check on current and future information available in the State system and current information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's system by submitting all necessary fees and information in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. The following individuals shall be subject to the check:

(A) In the case of a vendor that is a corporation, every shareholder who owns, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the outstanding shares of the corporation.

(B) In the case of a vendor that is a partnership, every partner.

(C) In the case of a vendor that is a sole proprietorship, the sole proprietor.

(D) Each officer or manager of the vendor.

Each such vendor shall be responsible for payment of the cost of the criminal background check.

(3) Vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm may be required to post a surety bond. The Department shall establish, by rule, the criteria and requirements for determining when a surety bond must be posted and the value of the bond.

(4) The Department, or its agents, may refuse to accept requests for authorization from specific vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm, including prior-approval and post-approval requests, if:

(A) the Department has initiated a notice of termination, suspension, or exclusion of the vendor from participation in the medical assistance program; or

(B) the Department has issued notification of its withholding of payments pursuant to subsection (F-5) of this Section; or

(C) the Department has issued a notification of its withholding of payments due to reliable evidence of fraud or willful misrepresentation pending investigation.

(5) As used in this subsection, the following terms are defined as follows:

(A) "Fraud" means an intentional deception or misrepresentation made by a person with the knowledge that the deception could result in some unauthorized benefit to himself or herself or some other person. It includes any act that constitutes fraud under applicable federal or State law.

(B) "Abuse" means provider practices that are inconsistent with sound fiscal, business, or medical practices and that result in an unnecessary cost to the medical assistance program or in reimbursement for services that are not medically necessary or that fail to meet professionally recognized standards for health care. It also includes recipient practices that result in unnecessary cost to the medical assistance program. Abuse does not include diagnostic or therapeutic measures conducted primarily as a safeguard against possible vendor liability.

(C) "Waste" means the unintentional misuse of medical assistance resources, resulting in unnecessary cost to the medical assistance program. Waste does not include diagnostic or therapeutic measures conducted primarily as a safeguard against possible vendor liability.

(D) "Harm" means physical, mental, or monetary damage to recipients or to the medical assistance program.

(G-6) The Illinois Department, upon making a determination based upon information in the possession of the Illinois Department that continuation of participation in the medical assistance program by a vendor would constitute an immediate danger to the public, may immediately suspend such vendor's participation in the medical assistance program without a hearing. In instances in which the Illinois Department immediately suspends the medical assistance program participation of a vendor under this Section, a hearing upon the vendor's participation must be convened by the Illinois Department within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. Such hearing shall be held to determine whether to recommend to the Director that the vendor's medical assistance program participation be denied, terminated, suspended, placed on provisional status, or reinstated. In the hearing, any evidence relevant to the vendor constituting an immediate danger to the public may be introduced against such vendor; provided, however, that the vendor, or his or her counsel, shall have the opportunity to discredit, impeach, and submit evidence rebutting such evidence.

(H) Nothing contained in this Code shall in any way limit or otherwise impair the authority or power of any State agency responsible for licensing of vendors.

(I) Based on a finding of noncompliance on the part of a nursing home with any requirement for certification under Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395 et seq. or 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396 et seq.), the Illinois Department may impose one or more of the following remedies after notice to the facility:

(1) Termination of the provider agreement.

(2) Temporary management.

(3) Denial of payment for new admissions.

(4) Civil money penalties.

(5) Closure of the facility in emergency situations or transfer of residents, or both.

(6) State monitoring.

(7) Denial of all payments when the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services has imposed this sanction.

The Illinois Department shall by rule establish criteria governing continued payments to a nursing facility subsequent to termination of the facility's provider agreement if, in the sole discretion of the Illinois Department, circumstances affecting the health, safety, and welfare of the facility's residents require those continued payments. The Illinois Department may condition those continued payments on the appointment of temporary management, sale of the facility to new owners or operators, or other arrangements that the Illinois Department determines best serve the needs of the facility's residents.

Except in the case of a facility that has a right to a hearing on the finding of noncompliance before an agency of the federal government, a facility may request a hearing before a State agency on any finding of noncompliance within 60 days after the notice of the intent to impose a remedy. Except in the case of civil money penalties, a request for a hearing shall not delay imposition of the penalty. The choice of remedies is not appealable at a hearing. The level of noncompliance may be challenged only in the case of a civil money penalty. The Illinois Department shall provide by rule for the State agency that will conduct the evidentiary hearings.

The Illinois Department may collect interest on unpaid civil money penalties.

The Illinois Department may adopt all rules necessary to implement this subsection (I).

(J) The Illinois Department, by rule, may permit individual practitioners to designate that Department payments that may be due the practitioner be made to an alternate payee or alternate payees.

(a) Such alternate payee or alternate payees shall be required to register as an alternate payee in the Medical Assistance Program with the Illinois Department.

(b) If a practitioner designates an alternate payee, the alternate payee and practitioner shall be jointly and severally liable to the Department for payments made to the alternate payee. Pursuant to subsection (E) of this Section, any Department action to suspend or deny payment or recover money or overpayments from an alternate payee shall be subject to an administrative hearing.

(c) Registration as an alternate payee or alternate payees in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program shall be conditional. At any time, the Illinois Department may deny or cancel any alternate payee's registration in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program without cause. Any such denial or cancellation is not subject to an administrative hearing.

(d) The Illinois Department may seek a revocation of any alternate payee, and all owners, officers, and individuals with management responsibility for such alternate payee shall be permanently prohibited from participating as an owner, an officer, or an individual with management responsibility with an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, if after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing the Illinois Department finds that:

(1) the alternate payee is not complying with the Department's policy or rules and regulations, or with the terms and conditions prescribed by the Illinois Department in its alternate payee registration agreement; or

(2) the alternate payee has failed to keep or make available for inspection, audit, or copying, after receiving a written request from the Illinois Department, such records regarding payments claimed as an alternate payee; or

(3) the alternate payee has failed to furnish any information requested by the Illinois Department regarding payments claimed as an alternate payee; or

(4) the alternate payee has knowingly made, or caused to be made, any false statement or representation of a material fact in connection with the administration of the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(5) the alternate payee, a person with management responsibility for an alternate payee, an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate alternate payee, or a partner in a partnership which is an alternate payee:

(a) was previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in a medical assistance program in another state that is of the same kind as the program of medical assistance provided under Article V of this Code; or

(b) was a person with management responsibility for a vendor previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in a medical assistance program in another state that is of the same kind as the program of medical assistance provided under Article V of this Code, during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion or alternate payee's revocation; or

(c) was an officer, or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in a medical assistance program in another state that is of the same kind as the program of medical assistance provided under Article V of this Code, during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or

(d) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or partner in a partnership previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in a medical assistance program in another state that is of the same kind as the program of medical assistance provided under Article V of this Code, during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion or alternate payee's revocation; or

(6) the alternate payee, a person with management responsibility for an alternate payee, an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate alternate payee, or a partner in a partnership which is an alternate payee:

(a) has engaged in conduct prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(b) was a person with management responsibility for a vendor or alternate payee at the time that the vendor or alternate payee engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(c) was an officer, or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a vendor or alternate payee at the time such vendor or alternate payee engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(d) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or partner in a partnership which was a vendor or alternate payee at the time such vendor or alternate payee engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(7) the direct or indirect ownership of the vendor or alternate payee (including the ownership of a vendor or alternate payee that is a partner's interest in a vendor or alternate payee, or ownership of 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor or alternate payee) has been transferred by an individual who is terminated, suspended, or excluded or barred from participating as a vendor or is prohibited or revoked as an alternate payee to the individual's spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

(K) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services may withhold payments, in whole or in part, to a provider or alternate payee where there is credible evidence, received from State or federal law enforcement or federal oversight agencies or from the results of a preliminary Department audit, that the circumstances giving rise to the need for a withholding of payments may involve fraud or willful misrepresentation under the Illinois Medical Assistance program. The Department shall by rule define what constitutes "credible" evidence for purposes of this subsection. The Department may withhold payments without first notifying the provider or alternate payee of its intention to withhold such payments. A provider or alternate payee may request a reconsideration of payment withholding, and the Department must grant such a request. The Department shall state by rule a process and criteria by which a provider or alternate payee may request full or partial release of payments withheld under this subsection. This request may be made at any time after the Department first withholds such payments.

(a) The Illinois Department must send notice of its withholding of program payments within 5 days of taking such action. The notice must set forth the general allegations as to the nature of the withholding action, but need not disclose any specific information concerning its ongoing investigation. The notice must do all of the following:

(1) State that payments are being withheld in accordance with this subsection.

(2) State that the withholding is for a temporary period, as stated in paragraph (b) of this subsection, and cite the circumstances under which withholding will be terminated.

(3) Specify, when appropriate, which type or types of Medicaid claims withholding is effective.

(4) Inform the provider or alternate payee of the right to submit written evidence for reconsideration of the withholding by the Illinois Department.

(5) Inform the provider or alternate payee that a written request may be made to the Illinois Department for full or partial release of withheld payments and that such requests may be made at any time after the Department first withholds such payments.

(b) All withholding-of-payment actions under this subsection shall be temporary and shall not continue after any of the following:

(1) The Illinois Department or the prosecuting authorities determine that there is insufficient evidence of fraud or willful misrepresentation by the provider or alternate payee.

(2) Legal proceedings related to the provider's or alternate payee's alleged fraud, willful misrepresentation, violations of this Act, or violations of the Illinois Department's administrative rules are completed.

(3) The withholding of payments for a period of 3 years.

(c) The Illinois Department may adopt all rules necessary to implement this subsection (K).

(K-5) The Illinois Department may withhold payments, in whole or in part, to a provider or alternate payee upon initiation of an audit, quality of care review, investigation when there is a credible allegation of fraud, or the provider or alternate payee demonstrating a clear failure to cooperate with the Illinois Department such that the circumstances give rise to the need for a withholding of payments. As used in this subsection, "credible allegation" is defined to include an allegation from any source, including, but not limited to, fraud hotline complaints, claims data mining, patterns identified through provider audits, civil actions filed under the Illinois False Claims Act, and law enforcement investigations. An allegation is considered to be credible when it has indicia of reliability. The Illinois Department may withhold payments without first notifying the provider or alternate payee of its intention to withhold such payments. A provider or alternate payee may request a hearing or a reconsideration of payment withholding, and the Illinois Department must grant such a request. The Illinois Department shall state by rule a process and criteria by which a provider or alternate payee may request a hearing or a reconsideration for the full or partial release of payments withheld under this subsection. This request may be made at any time after the Illinois Department first withholds such payments.

(a) The Illinois Department must send notice of its withholding of program payments within 5 days of taking such action. The notice must set forth the general allegations as to the nature of the withholding action but need not disclose any specific information concerning its ongoing investigation. The notice must do all of the following:

(1) State that payments are being withheld in accordance with this subsection.

(2) State that the withholding is for a temporary period, as stated in paragraph (b) of this subsection, and cite the circumstances under which withholding will be terminated.

(3) Specify, when appropriate, which type or types of claims are withheld.

(4) Inform the provider or alternate payee of the right to request a hearing or a reconsideration of the withholding by the Illinois Department, including the ability to submit written evidence.

(5) Inform the provider or alternate payee that a written request may be made to the Illinois Department for a hearing or a reconsideration for the full or partial release of withheld payments and that such requests may be made at any time after the Illinois Department first withholds such payments.

(b) All withholding of payment actions under this subsection shall be temporary and shall not continue after any of the following:

(1) The Illinois Department determines that there is insufficient evidence of fraud, or the provider or alternate payee demonstrates clear cooperation with the Illinois Department, as determined by the Illinois Department, such that the circumstances do not give rise to the need for withholding of payments; or

(2) The withholding of payments has lasted for a period in excess of 3 years.

(c) The Illinois Department may adopt all rules necessary to implement this subsection (K-5).

(L) The Illinois Department shall establish a protocol to enable health care providers to disclose an actual or potential violation of this Section pursuant to a self-referral disclosure protocol, referred to in this subsection as "the protocol". The protocol shall include direction for health care providers on a specific person, official, or office to whom such disclosures shall be made. The Illinois Department shall post information on the protocol on the Illinois Department's public website. The Illinois Department may adopt rules necessary to implement this subsection (L). In addition to other factors that the Illinois Department finds appropriate, the Illinois Department may consider a health care provider's timely use or failure to use the protocol in considering the provider's failure to comply with this Code.

(M) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department, at its discretion, may exempt an entity licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act and the ID/DD Community Care Act from the provisions of subsections (A-15), (B), and (C) of this Section if the licensed entity is in receivership.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-550, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.45)

Sec. 12-4.45. Third party liability.

(a) To the extent authorized under federal law, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall identify individuals receiving services under medical assistance programs funded or partially funded by the State who may be or may have been covered by a third party health insurer, the period of coverage for such individuals, and the nature of coverage. A company, as defined in Section 5.5 of the Illinois Insurance Code and Section 2 of the Comprehensive Health Insurance Plan Act, must provide the Department eligibility information in a federally recommended or mutually agreed-upon format that includes at a minimum:

(1) The names, addresses, dates, and sex of primary covered persons.

(2) The policy group numbers of the covered persons.

(3) The names, dates of birth, and sex of covered dependents, and the relationship of dependents to the primary covered person.

(4) The effective dates of coverage for each covered person.

(5) The generally defined covered services information, such as drugs, medical, or any other similar description of services covered.

(b) The Department may impose an administrative penalty on a company that does not comply with the request for information made under Section 5.5 of the Illinois Insurance Code and paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 20 of the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act. The amount of the penalty shall not exceed $10,000 per day for each day of noncompliance that occurs after the 180th day after the date of the request. The first day of the 180-day period commences on the business day following the date of the correspondence requesting the information sent by the Department to the company. The amount shall be based on:

(1) The seriousness of the violation, including the nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation.

(2) The economic harm caused by the violation.

(3) The history of previous violations.

(4) The amount necessary to deter a future violation.

(5) Efforts to correct the violation.

(6) Any other matter that justice may require.

(c) The enforcement of the penalty may be stayed during the time the order is under administrative review if the company files an appeal.

(d) The Attorney General may bring suit on behalf of the Department to collect the penalty.

(e) Recoveries made by the Department in connection with the imposition of an administrative penalty as provided under this Section shall be deposited into the Public Aid Recoveries Trust Fund created under Section 12-9.

(Source: P.A. 98-130, eff. 8-2-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.46)

Sec. 12-4.46 12-4.45. Change in legal guardianship; notification. Whenever there is a change in legal guardianship of a minor child who receives benefits under this Code, the appropriate State agency shall immediately inform the Department of Human Services of the change in legal guardianship to ensure such benefits are sent directly to the minor child's legal guardian.

For purposes of this Section, "legal guardian" means a person appointed guardian, or given custody, of a minor by a circuit court of the State, but does not include a person appointed guardian, or given custody, of a minor under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 98-256, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-31-13.)

Section 545. The Adult Protective Services Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 7.5 as follows:

(320 ILCS 20/2) (from Ch. 23, par. 6602)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Abuse" means causing any physical, mental or sexual injury to an eligible adult, including exploitation of such adult's financial resources.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse, neglect, or self-neglect for the sole reason that he or she is being furnished with or relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(a-5) "Abuser" means a person who abuses, neglects, or financially exploits an eligible adult.

(a-6) "Adult with disabilities" means a person aged 18 through 59 who resides in a domestic living situation and whose disability impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain protection from abuse, neglect, or exploitation.

(a-7) "Caregiver" means a person who either as a result of a family relationship, voluntarily, or in exchange for compensation has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of an eligible adult who needs assistance with activities of daily living.

(b) "Department" means the Department on Aging of the State of Illinois.

(c) "Director" means the Director of the Department.

(c-5) "Disability" means a physical or mental disability, including, but not limited to, a developmental disability, an intellectual disability, a mental illness as defined under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or dementia as defined under the Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Act.

(d) "Domestic living situation" means a residence where the eligible adult at the time of the report lives alone or with his or her family or a caregiver, or others, or other community-based unlicensed facility, but is not:

(1) A licensed facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act;

(1.5) A facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(1.7) A facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013;

(2) A "life care facility" as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act;

(3) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof or by the State of Illinois;

(4) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation of organized facilities therefor, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(5) A "community living facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(6) (Blank);

(7) A "community-integrated living arrangement" as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act or a "community residential alternative" as licensed under that Act;

(8) An assisted living or shared housing establishment as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; or

(9) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(e) "Eligible adult" means either an adult with disabilities aged 18 through 59 or a person aged 60 or older who resides in a domestic living situation and is, or is alleged to be, abused, neglected, or financially exploited by another individual or who neglects himself or herself.

(f) "Emergency" means a situation in which an eligible adult is living in conditions presenting a risk of death or physical, mental or sexual injury and the provider agency has reason to believe the eligible adult is unable to consent to services which would alleviate that risk.

(f-1) "Financial exploitation" means the use of an eligible adult's resources by another to the disadvantage of that adult or the profit or advantage of a person other than that adult.

(f-5) "Mandated reporter" means any of the following persons while engaged in carrying out their professional duties:

(1) a professional or professional's delegate while engaged in: (i) social services, (ii) law enforcement, (iii) education, (iv) the care of an eligible adult or eligible adults, or (v) any of the occupations required to be licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, the Illinois Dental Practice Act, the Dietitian Nutritionist Practice Act, the Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Naprapathic Practice Act, the Nurse Practice Act, the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act, the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, the Pharmacy Practice Act, the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Respiratory Care Practice Act, the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act, the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act, the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004, and the Illinois Public Accounting Act;

(1.5) an employee of an entity providing developmental disabilities services or service coordination funded by the Department of Human Services;

(2) an employee of a vocational rehabilitation facility prescribed or supervised by the Department of Human Services;

(3) an administrator, employee, or person providing services in or through an unlicensed community based facility;

(4) any religious practitioner who provides treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination, except as to information received in any confession or sacred communication enjoined by the discipline of the religious denomination to be held confidential;

(5) field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Department of Public Health, and Department of Human Services, and any county or municipal health department;

(6) personnel of the Department of Human Services, the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the State Fire Marshal, local fire departments, the Department on Aging and its subsidiary Area Agencies on Aging and provider agencies, and the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman;

(7) any employee of the State of Illinois not otherwise specified herein who is involved in providing services to eligible adults, including professionals providing medical or rehabilitation services and all other persons having direct contact with eligible adults;

(8) a person who performs the duties of a coroner or medical examiner; or

(9) a person who performs the duties of a paramedic or an emergency medical technician.

(g) "Neglect" means another individual's failure to provide an eligible adult with or willful withholding from an eligible adult the necessities of life including, but not limited to, food, clothing, shelter or health care. This subsection does not create any new affirmative duty to provide support to eligible adults. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of neglect because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(h) "Provider agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area appointed by the regional administrative agency with prior approval by the Department on Aging to receive and assess reports of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. A provider agency is also referenced as a "designated agency" in this Act.

(i) "Regional administrative agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area so designated by the Department, provided that the designated Area Agency on Aging shall be designated the regional administrative agency if it so requests. The Department shall assume the functions of the regional administrative agency for any planning and service area where another agency is not so designated.

(i-5) "Self-neglect" means a condition that is the result of an eligible adult's inability, due to physical or mental impairments, or both, or a diminished capacity, to perform essential self-care tasks that substantially threaten his or her own health, including: providing essential food, clothing, shelter, and health care; and obtaining goods and services necessary to maintain physical health, mental health, emotional well-being, and general safety. The term includes compulsive hoarding, which is characterized by the acquisition and retention of large quantities of items and materials that produce an extensively cluttered living space, which significantly impairs the performance of essential self-care tasks or otherwise substantially threatens life or safety.

(j) "Substantiated case" means a reported case of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect in which a provider agency, after assessment, determines that there is reason to believe abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-300, eff. 8-11-11; 97-706, eff. 6-25-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1141, eff. 12-28-12; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(320 ILCS 20/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Health Care Worker Registry.

(a) Reporting to the Registry. The Department on Aging shall report to the Department of Public Health's Health Care Worker Registry the identity and administrative finding of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult under this Act that is made against any caregiver, including consultants and volunteers, employed by a provider licensed, certified, or regulated by, or paid with public funds from, the Department of Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services, or Human Services, or the Department on Aging. For uncompensated or privately paid caregivers, the Department on Aging shall report only a verified and substantiated decision of significant abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult under this Act. An administrative finding placed in the Registry shall preclude any caregiver from providing direct access or other services, including consulting and volunteering, in a position with a provider that is licensed, certified, or regulated by, or paid with public funds from or on behalf of, the State of Illinois or any Department thereof, that permits the caregiver direct access to an adult aged 60 or older or an adult, over 18, with a disability or to that individual's living quarters or personal, financial, or medical records.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Direct care" includes, but is not limited to, direct access to an individual, his or her living quarters, or his or her personal, financial, or medical records for the purpose of providing nursing care or assistance with feeding, dressing, movement, bathing, toileting, other personal needs and activities of daily living, or assistance with financial transactions.

"Privately paid caregiver" means any caregiver who has been paid with resources other than public funds, regardless of licensure, certification, or regulation by the State of Illinois and any Department thereof. A privately paid caregiver does not include any caregiver that has been licensed, certified, or regulated by a State agency, or paid with public funds.

"Significant" means a finding of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation as determined by the Department that (i) represents a meaningful failure to adequately provide for, or a material indifference to, the financial, health, safety, or medical needs of an eligible adult or (ii) results in an eligible adult's death or other serious deterioration of an eligible adult's financial resources, physical condition, or mental condition.

"Uncompensated caregiver" means a caregiver who, in an informal capacity, assists an eligible adult with activities of daily living, financial transactions, or chore housekeeping type duties. "Uncompensated caregiver" does not refer to an individual serving in a formal capacity as a volunteer with a provider licensed, certified, or regulated by a State agency.

(c) Access to and use of the Registry. Access to the Registry shall be limited to licensed, certified, or regulated providers by the Department of Public Health, Healthcare and Family Service, or Human Services, or the Department on Aging. The State of Illinois, any Department thereof, or a provider licensed, certified, or regulated, or paid with public funds by, from, or on behalf of the Department of Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services, or Human Services, or the Department on Aging, shall not hire or compensate any person seeking employment, retain any contractors, or accept any volunteers to provide direct care without first conducting an online check of the person through the Department of Public Health's Health Care Worker Registry. The provider shall maintain a copy of the results of the online check to demonstrate compliance with this requirement. The provider is prohibited from hiring, compensating, or accepting a person, including as a consultant or volunteer, for whom the online check reveals a verified and substantiated claim of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation, to provide direct access to any adult aged 60 or older or any adult, over 18, with a disability. Additionally, a provider is prohibited from retaining a person for whom they gain knowledge of a verified and substantiated claim of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation in a position that permits the caregiver direct access to provide direct care to any adult aged 60 or older or any adult, over 18, with a disability or direct access to that individual's living quarters or personal, financial, or medical records. Failure to comply with this requirement may subject such a provider to corrective action by the appropriate regulatory agency or other lawful remedies provided under the applicable licensure, certification, or regulatory laws and rules.

(d) Notice to caregiver. The Department on Aging shall establish rules concerning notice to the caregiver in cases of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

(e) Notification to eligible adults, guardians, or agents. As part of its investigation, the Department on Aging shall notify an eligible adult, or an eligible adult's guardian or agent, that a caregiver's name may be placed on the Registry based on a finding as described in subsection (a) (a-1) of this Section.

(f) Notification to employer. A provider licensed, certified, or regulated by the Department of Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services, or Human Services, or the Department on Aging shall be notified of an administrative finding against any caregiver who is an employee, consultant, or volunteer of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult under this Act. If there is an imminent risk of danger to the eligible adult or an imminent risk of misuse of personal, medical, or financial information, the caregiver shall immediately be barred from direct access to the eligible adult, his or her living quarters, or his or her personal, financial, or medical records, pending the outcome of any challenge, criminal prosecution, or other type of collateral action.

(g) Caregiver challenges. The Department on Aging shall establish, by rule, procedures concerning caregiver challenges.

(h) Caregiver's rights to collateral action. The Department on Aging shall not make any report to the Registry if a caregiver notifies the Department in writing, including any supporting documentation, that he or she is formally challenging an adverse employment action resulting from a verified and substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation by complaint filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission, or by another means which seeks to enforce the caregiver's rights pursuant to any applicable collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken by an employer against a caregiver as a result of a finding of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation is overturned through an action filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission or under any applicable collective bargaining agreement after that caregiver's name has already been sent to the Registry, the caregiver's name shall be removed from the Registry.

(i) Removal from Registry. At any time after a report to the Registry, but no more than once in each successive 3-year period thereafter, for a maximum of 3 such requests, a caregiver may write to the Director of the Department on Aging to request removal of his or her name from the Registry in relationship to a single incident. The caregiver shall bear the burden of showing cause that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that removal of his or her name from the Registry is in the public interest. Upon receiving such a request, the Department on Aging shall conduct an investigation and consider any evidentiary material provided. The Department shall issue a decision either granting or denying removal within 60 calendar days, and shall issue such decision to the caregiver and the Registry. The waiver process at the Department of Public Health does not apply to Registry reports from the Department on Aging. The Department on Aging shall establish standards for the removal of a name from the Registry by rule.

(j) Referral of Registry reports to health care facilities. In the event an eligible adult receiving services from a provider agency changes his or her residence from a domestic living situation to that of a health care facility, the provider agency shall use reasonable efforts to promptly inform the health care facility and the appropriate Regional Long Term Care Ombudsman about any Registry reports relating to the eligible adult. For purposes of this Section, a health care facility includes, but is not limited to, any residential facility licensed, certified, or regulated by the Department of Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services, or Human Services.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 550. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 7.16 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/4)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-408)

Sec. 4. Persons required to report; privileged communications; transmitting false report. Any physician, resident, intern, hospital, hospital administrator and personnel engaged in examination, care and treatment of persons, surgeon, dentist, dentist hygienist, osteopath, chiropractor, podiatric physician, physician assistant, substance abuse treatment personnel, funeral home director or employee, coroner, medical examiner, emergency medical technician, acupuncturist, crisis line or hotline personnel, school personnel (including administrators and both certified and non-certified school employees), personnel of institutions of higher education, educational advocate assigned to a child pursuant to the School Code, member of a school board or the Chicago Board of Education or the governing body of a private school (but only to the extent required in accordance with other provisions of this Section expressly concerning the duty of school board members to report suspected child abuse), truant officers, social worker, social services administrator, domestic violence program personnel, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, genetic counselor, respiratory care practitioner, advanced practice nurse, home health aide, director or staff assistant of a nursery school or a child day care center, recreational or athletic program or facility personnel, early intervention provider as defined in the Early Intervention Services System Act, law enforcement officer, licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical professional counselor, registered psychologist and assistants working under the direct supervision of a psychologist, psychiatrist, or field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Juvenile Justice, Public Health, Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities, Rehabilitation Services, or Public Aid), Corrections, Human Rights, or Children and Family Services, supervisor and administrator of general assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code, probation officer, animal control officer or Illinois Department of Agriculture Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare field investigator, or any other foster parent, homemaker or child care worker having reasonable cause to believe a child known to them in their professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Any member of the clergy having reasonable cause to believe that a child known to that member of the clergy in his or her professional capacity may be an abused child as defined in item (c) of the definition of "abused child" in Section 3 of this Act shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Any physician, physician's assistant, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, medical technician, certified nursing assistant, social worker, or licensed professional counselor of any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives having reasonable cause to believe a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

If an allegation is raised to a school board member during the course of an open or closed school board meeting that a child who is enrolled in the school district of which he or she is a board member is an abused child as defined in Section 3 of this Act, the member shall direct or cause the school board to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse. For purposes of this paragraph, a school board member is granted the authority in his or her individual capacity to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, if an employee of a school district has made a report or caused a report to be made to the Department under this Act involving the conduct of a current or former employee of the school district and a request is made by another school district for the provision of information concerning the job performance or qualifications of the current or former employee because he or she is an applicant for employment with the requesting school district, the general superintendent of the school district to which the request is being made must disclose to the requesting school district the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department, as required under this Act. Only the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department may be disclosed by the general superintendent of the school district to which the request for information concerning the applicant is made, and this fact may be disclosed only in cases where the employee and the general superintendent have not been informed by the Department that the allegations were unfounded. An employee of a school district who is or has been the subject of a report made pursuant to this Act during his or her employment with the school district must be informed by that school district that if he or she applies for employment with another school district, the general superintendent of the former school district, upon the request of the school district to which the employee applies, shall notify that requesting school district that the employee is or was the subject of such a report.

Whenever such person is required to report under this Act in his capacity as a member of the staff of a medical or other public or private institution, school, facility or agency, or as a member of the clergy, he shall make report immediately to the Department in accordance with the provisions of this Act and may also notify the person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent that such report has been made. Under no circumstances shall any person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent to whom such notification has been made, exercise any control, restraint, modification or other change in the report or the forwarding of such report to the Department.

The privileged quality of communication between any professional person required to report and his patient or client shall not apply to situations involving abused or neglected children and shall not constitute grounds for failure to report as required by this Act or constitute grounds for failure to share information or documents with the Department during the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation. If requested by the professional, the Department shall confirm in writing that the information or documents disclosed by the professional were gathered in the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation.

The reporting requirements of this Act shall not apply to the contents of a privileged communication between an attorney and his or her client or to confidential information within the meaning of Rule 1.6 of the Illinois Rules of Professional Conduct relating to the legal representation of an individual client.

A member of the clergy may claim the privilege under Section 8-803 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives shall provide to all office personnel copies of written information and training materials about abuse and neglect and the requirements of this Act that are provided to employees of the office, clinic, or physical location who are required to make reports to the Department under this Act, and instruct such office personnel to bring to the attention of an employee of the office, clinic, or physical location who is required to make reports to the Department under this Act any reasonable suspicion that a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child. In addition to the above persons required to report suspected cases of abused or neglected children, any other person may make a report if such person has reasonable cause to believe a child may be an abused child or a neglected child.

Any person who enters into employment on and after July 1, 1986 and is mandated by virtue of that employment to report under this Act, shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the Department, to the effect that the employee has knowledge and understanding of the reporting requirements of this Act. The statement shall be signed prior to commencement of the employment. The signed statement shall be retained by the employer. The cost of printing, distribution, and filing of the statement shall be borne by the employer.

The Department shall provide copies of this Act, upon request, to all employers employing persons who shall be required under the provisions of this Section to report under this Act.

Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. A violation of this provision is a Class 4 felony.

Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any provision of this Section other than a second or subsequent violation of transmitting a false report as described in the preceding paragraph, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation; except that if the person acted as part of a plan or scheme having as its object the prevention of discovery of an abused or neglected child by lawful authorities for the purpose of protecting or insulating any person or entity from arrest or prosecution, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense (regardless of whether the second or subsequent offense involves any of the same facts or persons as the first or other prior offense).

A child whose parent, guardian or custodian in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care may be considered neglected or abused, but not for the sole reason that his parent, guardian or custodian accepts and practices such beliefs.

A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely because the child is not attending school in accordance with the requirements of Article 26 of the School Code, as amended.

Nothing in this Act prohibits a mandated reporter who reasonably believes that an animal is being abused or neglected in violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act from reporting animal abuse or neglect to the Department of Agriculture's Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare.

A home rule unit may not regulate the reporting of child abuse or neglect in a manner inconsistent with the provisions of this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

For purposes of this Section "child abuse or neglect" includes abuse or neglect of an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-189, eff. 7-22-11; 97-254, eff. 1-1-12; 97-387, eff. 8-15-11; 97-711, eff. 6-27-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-67, eff. 7-15-13; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-408)

Sec. 4. Persons required to report; privileged communications; transmitting false report. Any physician, resident, intern, hospital, hospital administrator and personnel engaged in examination, care and treatment of persons, surgeon, dentist, dentist hygienist, osteopath, chiropractor, podiatric physician, physician assistant, substance abuse treatment personnel, funeral home director or employee, coroner, medical examiner, emergency medical technician, acupuncturist, crisis line or hotline personnel, school personnel (including administrators and both certified and non-certified school employees), personnel of institutions of higher education, educational advocate assigned to a child pursuant to the School Code, member of a school board or the Chicago Board of Education or the governing body of a private school (but only to the extent required in accordance with other provisions of this Section expressly concerning the duty of school board members to report suspected child abuse), truant officers, social worker, social services administrator, domestic violence program personnel, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, genetic counselor, respiratory care practitioner, advanced practice nurse, home health aide, director or staff assistant of a nursery school or a child day care center, recreational or athletic program or facility personnel, early intervention provider as defined in the Early Intervention Services System Act, law enforcement officer, licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical professional counselor, registered psychologist and assistants working under the direct supervision of a psychologist, psychiatrist, or field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Juvenile Justice, Public Health, Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities, Rehabilitation Services, or Public Aid), Corrections, Human Rights, or Children and Family Services, supervisor and administrator of general assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code, probation officer, animal control officer or Illinois Department of Agriculture Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare field investigator, or any other foster parent, homemaker or child care worker having reasonable cause to believe a child known to them in their professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Any member of the clergy having reasonable cause to believe that a child known to that member of the clergy in his or her professional capacity may be an abused child as defined in item (c) of the definition of "abused child" in Section 3 of this Act shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Any physician, physician's assistant, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, medical technician, certified nursing assistant, social worker, or licensed professional counselor of any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives having reasonable cause to believe a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

If an allegation is raised to a school board member during the course of an open or closed school board meeting that a child who is enrolled in the school district of which he or she is a board member is an abused child as defined in Section 3 of this Act, the member shall direct or cause the school board to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse. For purposes of this paragraph, a school board member is granted the authority in his or her individual capacity to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, if an employee of a school district has made a report or caused a report to be made to the Department under this Act involving the conduct of a current or former employee of the school district and a request is made by another school district for the provision of information concerning the job performance or qualifications of the current or former employee because he or she is an applicant for employment with the requesting school district, the general superintendent of the school district to which the request is being made must disclose to the requesting school district the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department, as required under this Act. Only the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department may be disclosed by the general superintendent of the school district to which the request for information concerning the applicant is made, and this fact may be disclosed only in cases where the employee and the general superintendent have not been informed by the Department that the allegations were unfounded. An employee of a school district who is or has been the subject of a report made pursuant to this Act during his or her employment with the school district must be informed by that school district that if he or she applies for employment with another school district, the general superintendent of the former school district, upon the request of the school district to which the employee applies, shall notify that requesting school district that the employee is or was the subject of such a report.

Whenever such person is required to report under this Act in his capacity as a member of the staff of a medical or other public or private institution, school, facility or agency, or as a member of the clergy, he shall make report immediately to the Department in accordance with the provisions of this Act and may also notify the person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent that such report has been made. Under no circumstances shall any person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent to whom such notification has been made, exercise any control, restraint, modification or other change in the report or the forwarding of such report to the Department.

The privileged quality of communication between any professional person required to report and his patient or client shall not apply to situations involving abused or neglected children and shall not constitute grounds for failure to report as required by this Act or constitute grounds for failure to share information or documents with the Department during the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation. If requested by the professional, the Department shall confirm in writing that the information or documents disclosed by the professional were gathered in the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation.

The reporting requirements of this Act shall not apply to the contents of a privileged communication between an attorney and his or her client or to confidential information within the meaning of Rule 1.6 of the Illinois Rules of Professional Conduct relating to the legal representation of an individual client.

A member of the clergy may claim the privilege under Section 8-803 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives shall provide to all office personnel copies of written information and training materials about abuse and neglect and the requirements of this Act that are provided to employees of the office, clinic, or physical location who are required to make reports to the Department under this Act, and instruct such office personnel to bring to the attention of an employee of the office, clinic, or physical location who is required to make reports to the Department under this Act any reasonable suspicion that a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child. In addition to the above persons required to report suspected cases of abused or neglected children, any other person may make a report if such person has reasonable cause to believe a child may be an abused child or a neglected child.

Any person who enters into employment on and after July 1, 1986 and is mandated by virtue of that employment to report under this Act, shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the Department, to the effect that the employee has knowledge and understanding of the reporting requirements of this Act. The statement shall be signed prior to commencement of the employment. The signed statement shall be retained by the employer. The cost of printing, distribution, and filing of the statement shall be borne by the employer.

Within one year of initial employment and at least every 5 years thereafter, school personnel required to report child abuse as provided under this Section must complete mandated reporter training by a provider or agency with expertise in recognizing and reporting child abuse.

The Department shall provide copies of this Act, upon request, to all employers employing persons who shall be required under the provisions of this Section to report under this Act.

Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. A violation of this provision is a Class 4 felony.

Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any provision of this Section other than a second or subsequent violation of transmitting a false report as described in the preceding paragraph, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation; except that if the person acted as part of a plan or scheme having as its object the prevention of discovery of an abused or neglected child by lawful authorities for the purpose of protecting or insulating any person or entity from arrest or prosecution, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense (regardless of whether the second or subsequent offense involves any of the same facts or persons as the first or other prior offense).

A child whose parent, guardian or custodian in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care may be considered neglected or abused, but not for the sole reason that his parent, guardian or custodian accepts and practices such beliefs.

A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely because the child is not attending school in accordance with the requirements of Article 26 of the School Code, as amended.

Nothing in this Act prohibits a mandated reporter who reasonably believes that an animal is being abused or neglected in violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act from reporting animal abuse or neglect to the Department of Agriculture's Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare.

A home rule unit may not regulate the reporting of child abuse or neglect in a manner inconsistent with the provisions of this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

For purposes of this Section "child abuse or neglect" includes abuse or neglect of an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-189, eff. 7-22-11; 97-254, eff. 1-1-12; 97-387, eff. 8-15-11; 97-711, eff. 6-27-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-67, eff. 7-15-13; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-408, eff. 7-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)

(325 ILCS 5/7.16) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057.16)

Sec. 7.16. For any investigation or appeal initiated on or after, or pending on July 1, 1998, the following time frames shall apply. Within 60 days after the notification of the completion of the Child Protective Service Unit investigation, determined by the date of the notification sent by the Department, the perpetrator named in the notification may request the Department to amend the record or remove the record of the report from the register, except that the 60-day deadline for filing a request to amend the record or remove the record of the report from the State Central Register shall be tolled until after the conclusion of any criminal court action in the circuit court or after adjudication in any juvenile court action concerning the circumstances that give rise to an indicated report. Such request shall be in writing and directed to such person as the Department designates in the notification letter notifying the perpetrator of the indicated finding. The perpetrator shall have the right to a timely hearing within the Department to determine whether the record of the report should be amended or removed on the grounds that it is inaccurate or it is being maintained in a manner inconsistent with this Act, except that there shall be no such right to a hearing on the ground of the report's inaccuracy if there has been a court finding of child abuse or neglect or a criminal finding of guilt as to the perpetrator. Such hearing shall be held within a reasonable time after the perpetrator's request and at a reasonable place and hour. The appropriate Child Protective Service Unit shall be given notice of the hearing. If the minor, who is the victim named in the report sought to be amended or removed from the State Central Register, is the subject of a pending action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and the report was made while a guardian ad litem was appointed for the minor under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, then the minor shall, through the minor's attorney or guardian ad litem appointed under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, have the right to participate and be heard in such hearing as defined under the Department's rules. In such hearings, the burden of proving the accuracy and consistency of the record shall be on the Department and the appropriate Child Protective Service Unit. The hearing shall be conducted by the Director or his designee, who is hereby authorized and empowered to order the amendment or removal of the record to make it accurate and consistent with this Act. The decision shall be made, in writing, at the close of the hearing, or within 60 days thereof, and shall state the reasons upon which it is based. Decisions of the Department under this Section are administrative decisions subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.

Should the Department grant the request of the perpetrator pursuant to this Section either on administrative review or after an administrative hearing to amend an indicated report to an unfounded report, the report shall be released and expunged in accordance with the standards set forth in Section 7.14 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-453, eff. 8-16-13; 98-487, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-1-13.)

Section 555. The Early Intervention Services System Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(325 ILCS 20/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 4155)

Sec. 5. Lead Agency. The Department of Human Services is designated the lead agency and shall provide leadership in establishing and implementing the coordinated, comprehensive, interagency and interdisciplinary system of early intervention services. The lead agency shall not have the sole responsibility for providing these services. Each participating State agency shall continue to coordinate those early intervention services relating to health, social service and education provided under this authority.

The lead agency is responsible for carrying out the following:

(a) The general administration, supervision, and monitoring of programs and activities receiving assistance under Section 673 of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 United States Code 1473).

(b) The identification and coordination of all available resources within the State from federal, State, local and private sources.

(c) The development of procedures to ensure that services are provided to eligible infants and toddlers and their families in a timely manner pending the resolution of any disputes among public agencies or service providers.

(d) The resolution of intra-agency and interagency regulatory and procedural disputes.

(e) The development and implementation of formal interagency agreements, and the entry into such agreements, between the lead agency and (i) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, (ii) the University of Illinois Division of Specialized Care for Children, and (iii) other relevant State agencies that:

(1) define the financial responsibility of each agency for paying for early intervention services (consistent with existing State and federal law and rules, including the requirement that early intervention funds be used as the payor of last resort), a hierarchical order of payment as among the agencies for early intervention services that are covered under or may be paid by programs in other agencies, and procedures for direct billing, collecting reimbursements for payments made, and resolving service and payment disputes; and

(2) include all additional components necessary to ensure meaningful cooperation and coordination.

Interagency agreements under this paragraph (e) must be reviewed and revised to implement the purposes of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly no later than 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

(f) The maintenance of an early intervention website. Within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, the lead agency shall post and keep posted on this website the following: (i) the current annual report required under subdivision (b)(5) of Section 4 of this Act, and the annual reports of the prior 3 years, (ii) the most recent Illinois application for funds prepared under Section 637 of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act filed with the United States Department of Education, (iii) proposed modifications of the application prepared for public comment, (iv) notice of Council meetings, Council agendas, and minutes of its proceedings for at least the previous year, (v) proposed and final early intervention rules, (vi) requests for proposals, and (vii) all reports created for dissemination to the public that are related to the early intervention program, including reports prepared at the request of the Council, and the General Assembly. Each such document shall be posted on the website within 3 working days after the document's completion.

(g) Before adopting any new policy or procedure (including any revisions to an existing policy or procedure) needed to comply with Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, the lead agency must hold public hearings on the new policy or procedure, provide notice of the hearings at least 30 days before the hearings are conducted to enable public participation, and provide an opportunity for the general public, including individuals with disabilities and parents of infants and toddlers with disabilities, early intervention providers, and members of the Council to comment for at least 30 days on the new policy or procedure needed to comply with Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act and with 34 CFR Part 300 and Part 303.

(Source: P.A. 98-41, eff. 6-28-13; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 560. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code is amended by changing Section 2-107.1 as follows:

(405 ILCS 5/2-107.1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 2-107.1)

Sec. 2-107.1. Administration of psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive therapy upon application to a court.

(a) (Blank).

(a-5) Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 2-107 of this Code, psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive therapy may be administered to an adult recipient of services on an inpatient or outpatient basis without the informed consent of the recipient under the following standards:

(1) Any person 18 years of age or older, including any guardian, may petition the circuit court for an order authorizing the administration of psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive therapy to a recipient of services. The petition shall state that the petitioner has made a good faith attempt to determine whether the recipient has executed a power of attorney for health care under the Powers of Attorney for Health Care Law or a declaration for mental health treatment under the Mental Health Treatment Preference Declaration Act and to obtain copies of these instruments if they exist. If either of the above-named instruments is available to the petitioner, the instrument or a copy of the instrument shall be attached to the petition as an exhibit. The petitioner shall deliver a copy of the petition, and notice of the time and place of the hearing, to the respondent, his or her attorney, any known agent or attorney-in-fact, if any, and the guardian, if any, no later than 3 days prior to the date of the hearing. Service of the petition and notice of the time and place of the hearing may be made by transmitting them via facsimile machine to the respondent or other party. Upon receipt of the petition and notice, the party served, or the person delivering the petition and notice to the party served, shall acknowledge service. If the party sending the petition and notice does not receive acknowledgement of service within 24 hours, service must be made by personal service.

The petition may include a request that the court authorize such testing and procedures as may be essential for the safe and effective administration of the psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy sought to be administered, but only where the petition sets forth the specific testing and procedures sought to be administered.

If a hearing is requested to be held immediately following the hearing on a petition for involuntary admission, then the notice requirement shall be the same as that for the hearing on the petition for involuntary admission, and the petition filed pursuant to this Section shall be filed with the petition for involuntary admission.

(2) The court shall hold a hearing within 7 days of the filing of the petition. The People, the petitioner, or the respondent shall be entitled to a continuance of up to 7 days as of right. An additional continuance of not more than 7 days may be granted to any party (i) upon a showing that the continuance is needed in order to adequately prepare for or present evidence in a hearing under this Section or (ii) under exceptional circumstances. The court may grant an additional continuance not to exceed 21 days when, in its discretion, the court determines that such a continuance is necessary in order to provide the recipient with an examination pursuant to Section 3-803 or 3-804 of this Act, to provide the recipient with a trial by jury as provided in Section 3-802 of this Act, or to arrange for the substitution of counsel as provided for by the Illinois Supreme Court Rules. The hearing shall be separate from a judicial proceeding held to determine whether a person is subject to involuntary admission but may be heard immediately preceding or following such a judicial proceeding and may be heard by the same trier of fact or law as in that judicial proceeding.

(3) Unless otherwise provided herein, the procedures set forth in Article VIII of Chapter III 3 of this Act, including the provisions regarding appointment of counsel, shall govern hearings held under this subsection (a-5).

(4) Psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive therapy may be administered to the recipient if and only if it has been determined by clear and convincing evidence that all of the following factors are present. In determining whether a person meets the criteria specified in the following paragraphs (A) through (G), the court may consider evidence of the person's history of serious violence, repeated past pattern of specific behavior, actions related to the person's illness, or past outcomes of various treatment options.

(A) That the recipient has a serious mental illness or developmental disability.

(B) That because of said mental illness or developmental disability, the recipient currently exhibits any one of the following: (i) deterioration of his or her ability to function, as compared to the recipient's ability to function prior to the current onset of symptoms of the mental illness or disability for which treatment is presently sought, (ii) suffering, or (iii) threatening behavior.

(C) That the illness or disability has existed for a period marked by the continuing presence of the symptoms set forth in item (B) of this subdivision (4) or the repeated episodic occurrence of these symptoms.

(D) That the benefits of the treatment outweigh the harm.

(E) That the recipient lacks the capacity to make a reasoned decision about the treatment.

(F) That other less restrictive services have been explored and found inappropriate.

(G) If the petition seeks authorization for testing and other procedures, that such testing and procedures are essential for the safe and effective administration of the treatment.

(5) In no event shall an order issued under this Section be effective for more than 90 days. A second 90-day period of involuntary treatment may be authorized pursuant to a hearing that complies with the standards and procedures of this subsection (a-5). Thereafter, additional 180-day periods of involuntary treatment may be authorized pursuant to the standards and procedures of this Section without limit. If a new petition to authorize the administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy is filed at least 15 days prior to the expiration of the prior order, and if any continuance of the hearing is agreed to by the recipient, the administration of the treatment may continue in accordance with the prior order pending the completion of a hearing under this Section.

(6) An order issued under this subsection (a-5) shall designate the persons authorized to administer the treatment under the standards and procedures of this subsection (a-5). Those persons shall have complete discretion not to administer any treatment authorized under this Section. The order shall also specify the medications and the anticipated range of dosages that have been authorized and may include a list of any alternative medications and range of dosages deemed necessary.

(a-10) The court may, in its discretion, appoint a guardian ad litem for a recipient before the court or authorize an existing guardian of the person to monitor treatment and compliance with court orders under this Section.

(b) A guardian may be authorized to consent to the administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy to an objecting recipient only under the standards and procedures of subsection (a-5).

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a guardian may consent to the administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy to a non-objecting recipient under Article XIa of the Probate Act of 1975.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy to recipients in an emergency under Section 2-107 of this Act.

(e) Notwithstanding any of the provisions of this Section, psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy may be administered pursuant to a power of attorney for health care under the Powers of Attorney for Health Care Law or a declaration for mental health treatment under the Mental Health Treatment Preference Declaration Act.

(f) The Department shall conduct annual trainings for physicians and registered nurses working in State-operated mental health facilities on the appropriate use of psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive therapy, standards for their use, and the preparation of court petitions under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-375, eff. 8-15-11; revised 9-11-13.)

Section 565. The Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act is amended by changing Section 2-5 as follows:

(405 ILCS 80/2-5) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-5)

Sec. 2-5. The Department shall establish eligibility standards for the Program, taking into consideration the disability levels and service needs of the target population. The Department shall create application forms which shall be used to determine the eligibility of mentally disabled adults to participate in the Program. The forms shall be made available by the Department and shall require at least the following items of information which constitute eligibility criteria for participation in the Program:

(a) A statement that the mentally disabled adult resides in the State of Illinois and is over the age of 18 years.

(b) Verification that the mentally disabled adult has one of the following conditions: severe autism, severe mental illness, a severe or profound intellectual disability, or severe and multiple impairments.

(c) Verification that the mentally disabled adult has applied and is eligible for federal Supplemental Security Income or federal Social Security Disability Income benefits.

(d) Verification that the mentally disabled adult resides full-time in his or her own home or that, within 2 months of receipt of services under this Article, he or she will reside full-time in his or her own home.

The Department may by rule adopt provisions establishing liability of responsible relatives of a recipient of services under this Article for the payment of sums representing charges for services to such recipient. Such rules shall be substantially similar to the provisions for such liability contained in Chapter V 5 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as now or hereafter amended, and rules adopted pursuant thereto.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-11-13.)

Section 570. The Illinois Mental Health First Aid Training Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(405 ILCS 105/30)

Sec. 30. Distribution of training grants. When awarding training grants under this Act, the Department or other appropriate State agency shall distribute training grants equitably among the geographical regions of the State, paying particular attention to the training needs of rural areas and areas with underserved populations or professional shortages.

(Source: P.A. 98-195, eff. 8-7-13; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 575. The Mercury-added Product Prohibition Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(410 ILCS 46/25)

Sec. 25. Sale, distribution, or promotional gifts of mercury-added novelty products prohibited. On and after July 1, 2004, no mercury-added novelty products may be offered for sale or distributed for promotional purposes in Illinois if the offeror offerer or distributor knows or has reason to know that the product contains mercury, unless the mercury is solely within a button-cell battery or a fluorescent light bulb.

(Source: P.A. 93-165, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-11-13.)

Section 580. The Newborn Metabolic Screening Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(410 ILCS 240/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4904)

Sec. 2. General provisions. The Department of Public Health shall administer the provisions of this Act and shall:

(a) Institute and carry on an intensive educational program among physicians, hospitals, public health nurses and the public concerning disorders included in newborn screening. This educational program shall include information about the nature of the diseases and examinations for the detection of the diseases in early infancy in order that measures may be taken to prevent the disabilities resulting from the diseases.

(a-5) Require that all newborns be screened for the presence of certain genetic, metabolic, and congenital anomalies as determined by the Department, by rule.

(a-5.1) Require that all blood and biological specimens collected pursuant to this Act or the rules adopted under this Act be submitted for testing to the nearest Department laboratory designated to perform such tests. The following provisions shall apply concerning testing:

(1) The Department may develop a reasonable fee structure and may levy fees according to such structure to cover the cost of providing this testing service and for the follow-up of infants with an abnormal screening test. Fees collected from the provision of this testing service shall be placed in the Metabolic Screening and Treatment Fund. Other State and federal funds for expenses related to metabolic screening, follow-up, and treatment programs may also be placed in the Fund.

(2) Moneys shall be appropriated from the Fund to the Department solely for the purposes of providing newborn screening, follow-up, and treatment programs. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit any licensed medical facility from collecting additional specimens for testing for metabolic or neonatal diseases or any other diseases or conditions, as it deems fit. Any person violating the provisions of this subsection (a-5.1) is guilty of a petty offense.

(3) If the Department is unable to provide the screening using the State Laboratory, it shall temporarily provide such screening through an accredited laboratory selected by the Department until the Department has the capacity to provide screening through the State Laboratory. If screening is provided on a temporary basis through an accredited laboratory, the Department shall substitute the fee charged by the accredited laboratory, plus a 5% surcharge for documentation and handling, for the fee authorized in this subsection (a-5.1).

(a-5.2) Maintain a registry of cases, including information of importance for the purpose of follow-up services to assess long-term outcomes.

(a-5.3) Supply the necessary metabolic treatment formulas where practicable for diagnosed cases of amino acid metabolism disorders, including phenylketonuria, organic acid disorders, and fatty acid oxidation disorders for as long as medically indicated, when the product is not available through other State agencies.

(a-5.4) Arrange for or provide public health nursing, nutrition, and social services and clinical consultation as indicated.

(a-5.5) Utilize The Department shall utilize the Genetic and Metabolic Diseases Advisory Committee established under the Genetic and Metabolic Diseases Advisory Committee Act to provide guidance and recommendations to the Department's newborn screening program. The Genetic and Metabolic Diseases Advisory Committee shall review the feasibility and advisability of including additional metabolic, genetic, and congenital disorders in the newborn screening panel, according to a review protocol applied to each suggested addition to the screening panel. The Department shall consider the recommendations of the Genetic and Metabolic Diseases Advisory Committee in determining whether to include an additional disorder in the screening panel prior to proposing an administrative rule concerning inclusion of an additional disorder in the newborn screening panel. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no new screening may begin prior to the occurrence of all the following:

(1) the establishment and verification of relevant and appropriate performance specifications as defined under the federal Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments and regulations thereunder for U.S. Food and Drug Administration-cleared or in-house developed methods, performed under an institutional review board-approved protocol, if required;

(2) the availability of quality assurance testing methodology for the processes set forth in item (1) of this subsection (a-5.5);

(3) the acquisition and installment by the Department of the equipment necessary to implement the screening tests;

(4) the establishment of precise threshold values ensuring defined disorder identification for each screening test;

(5) the authentication of pilot testing achieving each milestone described in items (1) through (4) of this subsection (a-5.5) for each disorder screening test; and

(6) the authentication of achieving the potential of high throughput standards for statewide volume of each disorder screening test concomitant with each milestone described in items (1) through (4) of this subsection (a-5.5).

(a-6) (Blank).

(a-7) (Blank).

(a-8) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-532, eff. 8-23-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-440, eff. 8-16-13; revised 11-15-13.)

Section 585. The Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act is amended by changing Section 5.5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 325/5.5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7405.5)

Sec. 5.5. Risk assessment.

(a) Whenever the Department receives a report of HIV infection or AIDS pursuant to this Act and the Department determines that the subject of the report may present or may have presented a possible risk of HIV transmission, the Department shall, when medically appropriate, investigate the subject of the report and that person's contacts as defined in subsection (c), to assess the potential risks of transmission. Any investigation and action shall be conducted in a timely fashion. All contacts other than those defined in subsection (c) shall be investigated in accordance with Section 5 of this Act.

(b) If the Department determines that there is or may have been potential risks of HIV transmission from the subject of the report to other persons, the Department shall afford the subject the opportunity to submit any information and comment on proposed actions the Department intends to take with respect to the subject's contacts who are at potential risk of transmission of HIV prior to notification of the subject's contacts. The Department shall also afford the subject of the report the opportunity to notify the subject's contacts in a timely fashion who are at potential risk of transmission of HIV prior to the Department taking any steps to notify such contacts. If the subject declines to notify such contacts or if the Department determines the notices to be inadequate or incomplete, the Department shall endeavor to notify such other persons of the potential risk, and offer testing and counseling services to these individuals. When the contacts are notified, they shall be informed of the disclosure provisions of the AIDS Confidentiality Act and the penalties therein and this Section.

(c) Contacts investigated under this Section shall in the case of HIV infection include (i) individuals who have undergone invasive procedures performed by an HIV infected health care provider and (ii) health care providers who have performed invasive procedures for persons infected with HIV, provided the Department has determined that there is or may have been potential risk of HIV transmission from the health care provider to those individuals or from infected persons to health care providers. The Department shall have access to the subject's records to review for the identity of contacts. The subject's records shall not be copied or seized by the Department.

For purposes of this subsection, the term "invasive procedures" means those procedures termed invasive by the Centers for Disease Control in current guidelines or recommendations for the prevention of HIV transmission in health care settings, and the term "health care provider" means any physician, dentist, podiatric physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, nurse, or other person providing health care services of any kind.

(d) All information and records held by the Department and local health authorities pertaining to activities conducted pursuant to this Section shall be strictly confidential and exempt from copying and inspection under the Freedom of Information Act. Such information and records shall not be released or made public by the Department or local health authorities, and shall not be admissible as evidence, nor discoverable in any action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal, board, agency or person and shall be treated in the same manner as the information and those records subject to the provisions of Part 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure except under the following circumstances:

(1) When made with the written consent of all persons to whom this information pertains;

(2) When authorized under Section 8 to be released under court order or subpoena pursuant to Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(3) When made by the Department for the purpose of seeking a warrant authorized by Sections 6 and 7 of this Act. Such disclosure shall conform to the requirements of subsection (a) of Section 8 of this Act.

(e) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates any information or report concerning the existence of any disease under this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-19-13.)

Section 590. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 3.330, 21, 22.2, and 58.16 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/3.330) (was 415 ILCS 5/3.32)

Sec. 3.330. Pollution control facility.

(a) "Pollution control facility" is any waste storage site, sanitary landfill, waste disposal site, waste transfer station, waste treatment facility, or waste incinerator. This includes sewers, sewage treatment plants, and any other facilities owned or operated by sanitary districts organized under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act.

The following are not pollution control facilities:

(1) (blank);

(2) waste storage sites regulated under 40 CFR, Part 761.42;

(3) sites or facilities used by any person conducting a waste storage, waste treatment, waste disposal, waste transfer or waste incineration operation, or a combination thereof, for wastes generated by such person's own activities, when such wastes are stored, treated, disposed of, transferred or incinerated within the site or facility owned, controlled or operated by such person, or when such wastes are transported within or between sites or facilities owned, controlled or operated by such person;

(4) sites or facilities at which the State is performing removal or remedial action pursuant to Section 22.2 or 55.3;

(5) abandoned quarries used solely for the disposal of concrete, earth materials, gravel, or aggregate debris resulting from road construction activities conducted by a unit of government or construction activities due to the construction and installation of underground pipes, lines, conduit or wires off of the premises of a public utility company which are conducted by a public utility;

(6) sites or facilities used by any person to specifically conduct a landscape composting operation;

(7) regional facilities as defined in the Central Midwest Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste Compact;

(8) the portion of a site or facility where coal combustion wastes are stored or disposed of in accordance with subdivision (r)(2) or (r)(3) of Section 21;

(9) the portion of a site or facility used for the collection, storage or processing of waste tires as defined in Title XIV;

(10) the portion of a site or facility used for treatment of petroleum contaminated materials by application onto or incorporation into the soil surface and any portion of that site or facility used for storage of petroleum contaminated materials before treatment. Only those categories of petroleum listed in Section 57.9(a)(3) are exempt under this subdivision (10);

(11) the portion of a site or facility where used oil is collected or stored prior to shipment to a recycling or energy recovery facility, provided that the used oil is generated by households or commercial establishments, and the site or facility is a recycling center or a business where oil or gasoline is sold at retail;

(11.5) processing sites or facilities that receive only on-specification used oil, as defined in 35 Ill. Admin. Code 739, originating from used oil collectors for processing that is managed under 35 Ill. Admin. Code 739 to produce products for sale to off-site petroleum facilities, if these processing sites or facilities are: (i) located within a home rule unit of local government with a population of at least 30,000 according to the 2000 federal census, that home rule unit of local government has been designated as an Urban Round II Empowerment Zone by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development, and that home rule unit of local government has enacted an ordinance approving the location of the site or facility and provided funding for the site or facility; and (ii) in compliance with all applicable zoning requirements;

(12) the portion of a site or facility utilizing coal combustion waste for stabilization and treatment of only waste generated on that site or facility when used in connection with response actions pursuant to the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, or the Illinois Environmental Protection Act or as authorized by the Agency;

(13) the portion of a site or facility that (i) accepts exclusively general construction or demolition debris, (ii) is located in a county with a population over 3,000,000 as of January 1, 2000 or in a county that is contiguous to such a county, and (iii) is operated and located in accordance with Section 22.38 of this Act;

(14) the portion of a site or facility, located within a unit of local government that has enacted local zoning requirements, used to accept, separate, and process uncontaminated broken concrete, with or without protruding metal bars, provided that the uncontaminated broken concrete and metal bars are not speculatively accumulated, are at the site or facility no longer than one year after their acceptance, and are returned to the economic mainstream in the form of raw materials or products;

(15) the portion of a site or facility located in a county with a population over 3,000,000 that has obtained local siting approval under Section 39.2 of this Act for a municipal waste incinerator on or before July 1, 2005 and that is used for a non-hazardous waste transfer station;

(16) a site or facility that temporarily holds in transit for 10 days or less, non-putrescible solid waste in original containers, no larger in capacity than 500 gallons, provided that such waste is further transferred to a recycling, disposal, treatment, or storage facility on a non-contiguous site and provided such site or facility complies with the applicable 10-day transfer requirements of the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 and United States Department of Transportation hazardous material requirements. For purposes of this Section only, "non-putrescible solid waste" means waste other than municipal garbage that does not rot or become putrid, including, but not limited to, paints, solvent, filters, and absorbents;

(17) the portion of a site or facility located in a county with a population greater than 3,000,000 that has obtained local siting approval, under Section 39.2 of this Act, for a municipal waste incinerator on or before July 1, 2005 and that is used for wood combustion facilities for energy recovery that accept and burn only wood material, as included in a fuel specification approved by the Agency;

(18) a transfer station used exclusively for landscape waste, including a transfer station where landscape waste is ground to reduce its volume, where the landscape waste is held no longer than 24 hours from the time it was received;

(19) the portion of a site or facility that (i) is used for the composting of food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, or paper waste, including, but not limited to, corrugated paper or cardboard, and (ii) meets all of the following requirements:

(A) There must not be more than a total of 30,000 cubic yards of livestock waste in raw form or in the process of being composted at the site or facility at any one time.

(B) All food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, and paper waste must, by the end of each operating day, be processed and placed into an enclosed vessel in which air flow and temperature are controlled, or all of the following additional requirements must be met:

(i) The portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must include a setback of at least 200 feet from the nearest potable water supply well.

(ii) The portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must be located outside the boundary of the 10-year floodplain or floodproofed.

(iii) Except in municipalities with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants, the portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must be located at least one-eighth of a mile from the nearest residence, other than a residence located on the same property as the site or facility.

(iv) The portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must be located at least one-eighth of a mile from the property line of all of the following areas:

(I) Facilities that primarily serve to house or treat people that are immunocompromised or immunosuppressed, such as cancer or AIDS patients; people with asthma, cystic fibrosis, or bioaerosol allergies; or children under the age of one year.

(II) Primary and secondary schools and adjacent areas that the schools use for recreation.

(III) Any facility for child care licensed under Section 3 of the Child Care Act of 1969; preschools; and adjacent areas that the facilities or preschools use for recreation.

(v) By the end of each operating day, all food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, and paper waste must be (i) processed into windrows or other piles and (ii) covered in a manner that prevents scavenging by birds and animals and that prevents other nuisances.

(C) Food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, paper waste, and compost must not be placed within 5 feet of the water table.

(D) The site or facility must meet all of the requirements of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1271 et seq.).

(E) The site or facility must not (i) restrict the flow of a 100-year flood, (ii) result in washout of food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, or paper waste from a 100-year flood, or (iii) reduce the temporary water storage capacity of the 100-year floodplain, unless measures are undertaken to provide alternative storage capacity, such as by providing lagoons, holding tanks, or drainage around structures at the facility.

(F) The site or facility must not be located in any area where it may pose a threat of harm or destruction to the features for which:

(i) an irreplaceable historic or archaeological site has been listed under the National Historic Preservation Act (16 U.S.C. 470 et seq.) or the Illinois Historic Preservation Act;

(ii) a natural landmark has been designated by the National Park Service or the Illinois State Historic Preservation Office; or

(iii) a natural area has been designated as a Dedicated Illinois Nature Preserve under the Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act.

(G) The site or facility must not be located in an area where it may jeopardize the continued existence of any designated endangered species, result in the destruction or adverse modification of the critical habitat for such species, or cause or contribute to the taking of any endangered or threatened species of plant, fish, or wildlife listed under the Endangered Species Act (16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq.) or the Illinois Endangered Species Protection Act;

(20) the portion of a site or facility that is located entirely within a home rule unit having a population of no less than 120,000 and no more than 135,000, according to the 2000 federal census, and that meets all of the following requirements:

(i) the portion of the site or facility is used exclusively to perform testing of a thermochemical conversion technology using only woody biomass, collected as landscape waste within the boundaries of the home rule unit, as the hydrocarbon feedstock for the production of synthetic gas in accordance with Section 39.9 of this Act;

(ii) the portion of the site or facility is in compliance with all applicable zoning requirements; and

(iii) a complete application for a demonstration permit at the portion of the site or facility has been submitted to the Agency in accordance with Section 39.9 of this Act within one year after July 27, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1314);

(21) the portion of a site or facility used to perform limited testing of a gasification conversion technology in accordance with Section 39.8 of this Act and for which a complete permit application has been submitted to the Agency prior to one year from April 9, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-887);

(22) the portion of a site or facility that is used to incinerate only pharmaceuticals from residential sources that are collected and transported by law enforcement agencies under Section 17.9A of this Act; and

(23) until July 1, 2017, the portion of a site or facility:

(A) that is used exclusively for the transfer of commingled landscape waste and food scrap held at the site or facility for no longer than 24 hours after their receipt;

(B) that is located entirely within a home rule unit having a population of either (i) not less than 100,000 and not more than 115,000 according to the 2010 federal census or (ii) not less than 5,000 and not more than 10,000 according to the 2010 federal census;

(C) that is permitted, by the Agency, prior to January 1, 2002, for the transfer of landscape waste; and

(D) for which a permit application is submitted to the Agency within 6 months after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-146) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly to modify an existing permit for the transfer of landscape waste to also include, on a demonstration basis not to exceed 18 months, the transfer of commingled landscape waste and food scrap.

(b) A new pollution control facility is:

(1) a pollution control facility initially permitted for development or construction after July 1, 1981; or

(2) the area of expansion beyond the boundary of a currently permitted pollution control facility; or

(3) a permitted pollution control facility requesting approval to store, dispose of, transfer or incinerate, for the first time, any special or hazardous waste.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-545, eff. 1-1-12; 98-146, eff. 1-1-14; 98-239, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(415 ILCS 5/21) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1021)

Sec. 21. Prohibited acts. No person shall:

(a) Cause or allow the open dumping of any waste.

(b) Abandon, dump, or deposit any waste upon the public highways or other public property, except in a sanitary landfill approved by the Agency pursuant to regulations adopted by the Board.

(c) Abandon any vehicle in violation of the "Abandoned Vehicles Amendment to the Illinois Vehicle Code", as enacted by the 76th General Assembly.

(d) Conduct any waste-storage, waste-treatment, or waste-disposal operation:

(1) without a permit granted by the Agency or in violation of any conditions imposed by such permit, including periodic reports and full access to adequate records and the inspection of facilities, as may be necessary to assure compliance with this Act and with regulations and standards adopted thereunder; provided, however, that, except for municipal solid waste landfill units that receive waste on or after October 9, 1993, no permit shall be required for (i) any person conducting a waste-storage, waste-treatment, or waste-disposal operation for wastes generated by such person's own activities which are stored, treated, or disposed within the site where such wastes are generated, or (ii) a facility located in a county with a population over 700,000 as of January 1, 2000, operated and located in accordance with Section 22.38 of this Act, and used exclusively for the transfer, storage, or treatment of general construction or demolition debris, provided that the facility was receiving construction or demolition debris on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly;

(2) in violation of any regulations or standards adopted by the Board under this Act; or

(3) which receives waste after August 31, 1988, does not have a permit issued by the Agency, and is (i) a landfill used exclusively for the disposal of waste generated at the site, (ii) a surface impoundment receiving special waste not listed in an NPDES permit, (iii) a waste pile in which the total volume of waste is greater than 100 cubic yards or the waste is stored for over one year, or (iv) a land treatment facility receiving special waste generated at the site; without giving notice of the operation to the Agency by January 1, 1989, or 30 days after the date on which the operation commences, whichever is later, and every 3 years thereafter. The form for such notification shall be specified by the Agency, and shall be limited to information regarding: the name and address of the location of the operation; the type of operation; the types and amounts of waste stored, treated or disposed of on an annual basis; the remaining capacity of the operation; and the remaining expected life of the operation.

Item (3) of this subsection (d) shall not apply to any person engaged in agricultural activity who is disposing of a substance that constitutes solid waste, if the substance was acquired for use by that person on his own property, and the substance is disposed of on his own property in accordance with regulations or standards adopted by the Board.

This subsection (d) shall not apply to hazardous waste.

(e) Dispose, treat, store or abandon any waste, or transport any waste into this State for disposal, treatment, storage or abandonment, except at a site or facility which meets the requirements of this Act and of regulations and standards thereunder.

(f) Conduct any hazardous waste-storage, hazardous waste-treatment or hazardous waste-disposal operation:

(1) without a RCRA permit for the site issued by the Agency under subsection (d) of Section 39 of this Act, or in violation of any condition imposed by such permit, including periodic reports and full access to adequate records and the inspection of facilities, as may be necessary to assure compliance with this Act and with regulations and standards adopted thereunder; or

(2) in violation of any regulations or standards adopted by the Board under this Act; or

(3) in violation of any RCRA permit filing requirement established under standards adopted by the Board under this Act; or

(4) in violation of any order adopted by the Board under this Act.

Notwithstanding the above, no RCRA permit shall be required under this subsection or subsection (d) of Section 39 of this Act for any person engaged in agricultural activity who is disposing of a substance which has been identified as a hazardous waste, and which has been designated by Board regulations as being subject to this exception, if the substance was acquired for use by that person on his own property and the substance is disposed of on his own property in accordance with regulations or standards adopted by the Board.

(g) Conduct any hazardous waste-transportation operation:

(1) without registering with and obtaining a special waste hauling permit from the Agency in accordance with the regulations adopted by the Board under this Act; or

(2) in violation of any regulations or standards adopted by the Board under this Act.

(h) Conduct any hazardous waste-recycling or hazardous waste-reclamation or hazardous waste-reuse operation in violation of any regulations, standards or permit requirements adopted by the Board under this Act.

(i) Conduct any process or engage in any act which produces hazardous waste in violation of any regulations or standards adopted by the Board under subsections (a) and (c) of Section 22.4 of this Act.

(j) Conduct any special waste transportation operation in violation of any regulations, standards or permit requirements adopted by the Board under this Act. However, sludge from a water or sewage treatment plant owned and operated by a unit of local government which (1) is subject to a sludge management plan approved by the Agency or a permit granted by the Agency, and (2) has been tested and determined not to be a hazardous waste as required by applicable State and federal laws and regulations, may be transported in this State without a special waste hauling permit, and the preparation and carrying of a manifest shall not be required for such sludge under the rules of the Pollution Control Board. The unit of local government which operates the treatment plant producing such sludge shall file a semiannual report with the Agency identifying the volume of such sludge transported during the reporting period, the hauler of the sludge, and the disposal sites to which it was transported. This subsection (j) shall not apply to hazardous waste.

(k) Fail or refuse to pay any fee imposed under this Act.

(l) Locate a hazardous waste disposal site above an active or inactive shaft or tunneled mine or within 2 miles of an active fault in the earth's crust. In counties of population less than 225,000 no hazardous waste disposal site shall be located (1) within 1 1/2 miles of the corporate limits as defined on June 30, 1978, of any municipality without the approval of the governing body of the municipality in an official action; or (2) within 1000 feet of an existing private well or the existing source of a public water supply measured from the boundary of the actual active permitted site and excluding existing private wells on the property of the permit applicant. The provisions of this subsection do not apply to publicly-owned sewage works or the disposal or utilization of sludge from publicly-owned sewage works.

(m) Transfer interest in any land which has been used as a hazardous waste disposal site without written notification to the Agency of the transfer and to the transferee of the conditions imposed by the Agency upon its use under subsection (g) of Section 39.

(n) Use any land which has been used as a hazardous waste disposal site except in compliance with conditions imposed by the Agency under subsection (g) of Section 39.

(o) Conduct a sanitary landfill operation which is required to have a permit under subsection (d) of this Section, in a manner which results in any of the following conditions:

(1) refuse in standing or flowing waters;

(2) leachate flows entering waters of the State;

(3) leachate flows exiting the landfill confines (as determined by the boundaries established for the landfill by a permit issued by the Agency);

(4) open burning of refuse in violation of Section 9 of this Act;

(5) uncovered refuse remaining from any previous operating day or at the conclusion of any operating day, unless authorized by permit;

(6) failure to provide final cover within time limits established by Board regulations;

(7) acceptance of wastes without necessary permits;

(8) scavenging as defined by Board regulations;

(9) deposition of refuse in any unpermitted portion of the landfill;

(10) acceptance of a special waste without a required manifest;

(11) failure to submit reports required by permits or Board regulations;

(12) failure to collect and contain litter from the site by the end of each operating day;

(13) failure to submit any cost estimate for the site or any performance bond or other security for the site as required by this Act or Board rules.

The prohibitions specified in this subsection (o) shall be enforceable by the Agency either by administrative citation under Section 31.1 of this Act or as otherwise provided by this Act. The specific prohibitions in this subsection do not limit the power of the Board to establish regulations or standards applicable to sanitary landfills.

(p) In violation of subdivision (a) of this Section, cause or allow the open dumping of any waste in a manner which results in any of the following occurrences at the dump site:

(1) litter;

(2) scavenging;

(3) open burning;

(4) deposition of waste in standing or flowing waters;

(5) proliferation of disease vectors;

(6) standing or flowing liquid discharge from the dump site;

(7) deposition of:

(i) general construction or demolition debris as defined in Section 3.160(a) of this Act; or

(ii) clean construction or demolition debris as defined in Section 3.160(b) of this Act.

The prohibitions specified in this subsection (p) shall be enforceable by the Agency either by administrative citation under Section 31.1 of this Act or as otherwise provided by this Act. The specific prohibitions in this subsection do not limit the power of the Board to establish regulations or standards applicable to open dumping.

(q) Conduct a landscape waste composting operation without an Agency permit, provided, however, that no permit shall be required for any person:

(1) conducting a landscape waste composting operation for landscape wastes generated by such person's own activities which are stored, treated, or disposed of within the site where such wastes are generated; or

(1.5) conducting a landscape waste composting operation that (i) has no more than 25 cubic yards of landscape waste, composting additives, composting material, or end-product compost on-site at any one time and (ii) is not engaging in commercial activity; or

(2) applying landscape waste or composted landscape waste at agronomic rates; or

(2.5) operating a landscape waste composting facility at a site having 10 or more occupied non-farm residences within 1/2 mile of its boundaries, if the facility meets all of the following criteria:

(A) the composting facility is operated by the farmer on property on which the composting material is utilized, and the composting facility constitutes no more than 2% of the site's total acreage;

(A-5) any composting additives that the composting facility accepts and uses at the facility are necessary to provide proper conditions for composting and do not exceed 10% of the total composting material at the facility at any one time;

(B) the property on which the composting facility is located, and any associated property on which the compost is used, is principally and diligently devoted to the production of agricultural crops and is not owned, leased, or otherwise controlled by any waste hauler or generator of nonagricultural compost materials, and the operator of the composting facility is not an employee, partner, shareholder, or in any way connected with or controlled by any such waste hauler or generator;

(C) all compost generated by the composting facility is applied at agronomic rates and used as mulch, fertilizer, or soil conditioner on land actually farmed by the person operating the composting facility, and the finished compost is not stored at the composting site for a period longer than 18 months prior to its application as mulch, fertilizer, or soil conditioner;

(D) no fee is charged for the acceptance of materials to be composted at the facility; and

(E) the owner or operator, by January 1, 2014 (or the January 1 following commencement of operation, whichever is later) and January 1 of each year thereafter, registers the site with the Agency, (ii) reports to the Agency on the volume of composting material received and used at the site; (iii) certifies to the Agency that the site complies with the requirements set forth in subparagraphs (A), (A-5), (B), (C), and (D) of this paragraph (2.5); and (iv) certifies to the Agency that all composting material was placed more than 200 feet from the nearest potable water supply well, was placed outside the boundary of the 10-year floodplain or on a part of the site that is floodproofed, was placed at least 1/4 mile from the nearest residence (other than a residence located on the same property as the facility) or a lesser distance from the nearest residence (other than a residence located on the same property as the facility) if the municipality in which the facility is located has by ordinance approved a lesser distance than 1/4 mile, and was placed more than 5 feet above the water table; any ordinance approving a residential setback of less than 1/4 mile that is used to meet the requirements of this subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2.5) of this subsection must specifically reference this paragraph; or

(3) operating a landscape waste composting facility on a farm, if the facility meets all of the following criteria:

(A) the composting facility is operated by the farmer on property on which the composting material is utilized, and the composting facility constitutes no more than 2% of the property's total acreage, except that the Board may allow a higher percentage for individual sites where the owner or operator has demonstrated to the Board that the site's soil characteristics or crop needs require a higher rate;

(A-1) the composting facility accepts from other agricultural operations for composting with landscape waste no materials other than uncontaminated and source-separated (i) crop residue and other agricultural plant residue generated from the production and harvesting of crops and other customary farm practices, including, but not limited to, stalks, leaves, seed pods, husks, bagasse, and roots and (ii) plant-derived animal bedding, such as straw or sawdust, that is free of manure and was not made from painted or treated wood;

(A-2) any composting additives that the composting facility accepts and uses at the facility are necessary to provide proper conditions for composting and do not exceed 10% of the total composting material at the facility at any one time;

(B) the property on which the composting facility is located, and any associated property on which the compost is used, is principally and diligently devoted to the production of agricultural crops and is not owned, leased or otherwise controlled by any waste hauler or generator of nonagricultural compost materials, and the operator of the composting facility is not an employee, partner, shareholder, or in any way connected with or controlled by any such waste hauler or generator;

(C) all compost generated by the composting facility is applied at agronomic rates and used as mulch, fertilizer or soil conditioner on land actually farmed by the person operating the composting facility, and the finished compost is not stored at the composting site for a period longer than 18 months prior to its application as mulch, fertilizer, or soil conditioner;

(D) the owner or operator, by January 1 of each year, (i) registers the site with the Agency, (ii) reports to the Agency on the volume of composting material received and used at the site, (iii) certifies to the Agency that the site complies with the requirements set forth in subparagraphs (A), (A-1), (A-2), (B), and (C) of this paragraph (q)(3), and (iv) certifies to the Agency that all composting material:

(I) was placed more than 200 feet from the nearest potable water supply well;

(II) was placed outside the boundary of the 10-year floodplain or on a part of the site that is floodproofed;

(III) was placed either (aa) at least 1/4 mile from the nearest residence (other than a residence located on the same property as the facility) and there are not more than 10 occupied non-farm residences within 1/2 mile of the boundaries of the site on the date of application or (bb) a lesser distance from the nearest residence (other than a residence located on the same property as the facility) provided that the municipality or county in which the facility is located has by ordinance approved a lesser distance than 1/4 mile and there are not more than 10 occupied non-farm residences within 1/2 mile of the boundaries of the site on the date of application; and

(IV) was placed more than 5 feet above the water table.

Any ordinance approving a residential setback of less than 1/4 mile that is used to meet the requirements of this subparagraph (D) must specifically reference this subparagraph.

For the purposes of this subsection (q), "agronomic rates" means the application of not more than 20 tons per acre per year, except that the Board may allow a higher rate for individual sites where the owner or operator has demonstrated to the Board that the site's soil characteristics or crop needs require a higher rate.

(r) Cause or allow the storage or disposal of coal combustion waste unless:

(1) such waste is stored or disposed of at a site or facility for which a permit has been obtained or is not otherwise required under subsection (d) of this Section; or

(2) such waste is stored or disposed of as a part of the design and reclamation of a site or facility which is an abandoned mine site in accordance with the Abandoned Mined Lands and Water Reclamation Act; or

(3) such waste is stored or disposed of at a site or facility which is operating under NPDES and Subtitle D permits issued by the Agency pursuant to regulations adopted by the Board for mine-related water pollution and permits issued pursuant to the Federal Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (P.L. 95-87) or the rules and regulations thereunder or any law or rule or regulation adopted by the State of Illinois pursuant thereto, and the owner or operator of the facility agrees to accept the waste; and either

(i) such waste is stored or disposed of in accordance with requirements applicable to refuse disposal under regulations adopted by the Board for mine-related water pollution and pursuant to NPDES and Subtitle D permits issued by the Agency under such regulations; or

(ii) the owner or operator of the facility demonstrates all of the following to the Agency, and the facility is operated in accordance with the demonstration as approved by the Agency: (1) the disposal area will be covered in a manner that will support continuous vegetation, (2) the facility will be adequately protected from wind and water erosion, (3) the pH will be maintained so as to prevent excessive leaching of metal ions, and (4) adequate containment or other measures will be provided to protect surface water and groundwater from contamination at levels prohibited by this Act, the Illinois Groundwater Protection Act, or regulations adopted pursuant thereto.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Title, the disposal of coal combustion waste pursuant to item (2) or (3) of this subdivision (r) shall be exempt from the other provisions of this Title V, and notwithstanding the provisions of Title X of this Act, the Agency is authorized to grant experimental permits which include provision for the disposal of wastes from the combustion of coal and other materials pursuant to items (2) and (3) of this subdivision (r).

(s) After April 1, 1989, offer for transportation, transport, deliver, receive or accept special waste for which a manifest is required, unless the manifest indicates that the fee required under Section 22.8 of this Act has been paid.

(t) Cause or allow a lateral expansion of a municipal solid waste landfill unit on or after October 9, 1993, without a permit modification, granted by the Agency, that authorizes the lateral expansion.

(u) Conduct any vegetable by-product treatment, storage, disposal or transportation operation in violation of any regulation, standards or permit requirements adopted by the Board under this Act. However, no permit shall be required under this Title V for the land application of vegetable by-products conducted pursuant to Agency permit issued under Title III of this Act to the generator of the vegetable by-products. In addition, vegetable by-products may be transported in this State without a special waste hauling permit, and without the preparation and carrying of a manifest.

(v) (Blank).

(w) Conduct any generation, transportation, or recycling of construction or demolition debris, clean or general, or uncontaminated soil generated during construction, remodeling, repair, and demolition of utilities, structures, and roads that is not commingled with any waste, without the maintenance of documentation identifying the hauler, generator, place of origin of the debris or soil, the weight or volume of the debris or soil, and the location, owner, and operator of the facility where the debris or soil was transferred, disposed, recycled, or treated. This documentation must be maintained by the generator, transporter, or recycler for 3 years. This subsection (w) shall not apply to (1) a permitted pollution control facility that transfers or accepts construction or demolition debris, clean or general, or uncontaminated soil for final disposal, recycling, or treatment, (2) a public utility (as that term is defined in the Public Utilities Act) or a municipal utility, (3) the Illinois Department of Transportation, or (4) a municipality or a county highway department, with the exception of any municipality or county highway department located within a county having a population of over 3,000,000 inhabitants or located in a county that is contiguous to a county having a population of over 3,000,000 inhabitants; but it shall apply to an entity that contracts with a public utility, a municipal utility, the Illinois Department of Transportation, or a municipality or a county highway department. The terms "generation" and "recycling" as used in this subsection do not apply to clean construction or demolition debris when (i) used as fill material below grade outside of a setback zone if covered by sufficient uncontaminated soil to support vegetation within 30 days of the completion of filling or if covered by a road or structure, (ii) solely broken concrete without protruding metal bars is used for erosion control, or (iii) milled asphalt or crushed concrete is used as aggregate in construction of the shoulder of a roadway. The terms "generation" and "recycling", as used in this subsection, do not apply to uncontaminated soil that is not commingled with any waste when (i) used as fill material below grade or contoured to grade, or (ii) used at the site of generation.

(Source: P.A. 97-220, eff. 7-28-11; 98-239, eff. 8-9-13; 98-484, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(415 ILCS 5/22.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1022.2)

Sec. 22.2. Hazardous waste; fees; liability.

(a) There are hereby created within the State Treasury 2 special funds to be known respectively as the "Hazardous Waste Fund" and the "Hazardous Waste Research Fund", constituted from the fees collected pursuant to this Section. In addition to the fees collected under this Section, the Hazardous Waste Fund shall include other moneys made available from any source for deposit into the Fund.

(b)(1) On and after January 1, 1989, the Agency shall collect from the owner or operator of each of the following sites a fee in the amount of:

(A) 9 cents per gallon or $18.18 per cubic yard, if the hazardous waste disposal site is located off the site where such waste was produced. The maximum amount payable under this subdivision (A) with respect to the hazardous waste generated by a single generator and deposited in monofills is $30,000 per year. If, as a result of the use of multiple monofills, waste fees in excess of the maximum are assessed with respect to a single waste generator, the generator may apply to the Agency for a credit.

(B) 9 cents or $18.18 per cubic yard, if the hazardous waste disposal site is located on the site where such waste was produced, provided however the maximum amount of fees payable under this paragraph (B) is $30,000 per year for each such hazardous waste disposal site.

(C) If the hazardous waste disposal site is an underground injection well, $6,000 per year if not more than 10,000,000 gallons per year are injected, $15,000 per year if more than 10,000,000 gallons but not more than 50,000,000 gallons per year are injected, and $27,000 per year if more than 50,000,000 gallons per year are injected.

(D) 3 cents per gallon or $6.06 per cubic yard of hazardous waste received for treatment at a hazardous waste treatment site, if the hazardous waste treatment site is located off the site where such waste was produced and if such hazardous waste treatment site is owned, controlled and operated by a person other than the generator of such waste. After treatment at such hazardous waste treatment site, the waste shall not be subject to any other fee imposed by this subsection (b). For purposes of this subsection (b), the term "treatment" is defined as in Section 3.505 but shall not include recycling, reclamation or reuse.

(2) The General Assembly shall annually appropriate to the Fund such amounts as it deems necessary to fulfill the purposes of this Act.

(3) The Agency shall have the authority to accept, receive, and administer on behalf of the State any moneys made available to the State from any source for the purposes of the Hazardous Waste Fund set forth in subsection (d) of this Section.

(4) Of the amount collected as fees provided for in this Section, the Agency shall manage the use of such funds to assure that sufficient funds are available for match towards federal expenditures for response action at sites which are listed on the National Priorities List; provided, however, that this shall not apply to additional monies appropriated to the Fund by the General Assembly, nor shall it apply in the event that the Director finds that revenues in the Hazardous Waste Fund must be used to address conditions which create or may create an immediate danger to the environment or public health or to the welfare of the people of the State of Illinois.

(5) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this subsection (b), sludge from a publicly-owned sewage works generated in Illinois, coal mining wastes and refuse generated in Illinois, bottom boiler ash, flyash and flue gas desulphurization sludge from public utility electric generating facilities located in Illinois, and bottom boiler ash and flyash from all incinerators which process solely municipal waste shall not be subject to the fee.

(6) For the purposes of this subsection (b), "monofill" means a facility, or a unit at a facility, that accepts only wastes bearing the same USEPA hazardous waste identification number, or compatible wastes as determined by the Agency.

(c) The Agency shall establish procedures, not later than January 1, 1984, relating to the collection of the fees authorized by this Section. Such procedures shall include, but not be limited to: (1) necessary records identifying the quantities of hazardous waste received or disposed; (2) the form and submission of reports to accompany the payment of fees to the Agency; and (3) the time and manner of payment of fees to the Agency, which payments shall be not more often than quarterly.

(d) Beginning July 1, 1996, the Agency shall deposit all such receipts in the State Treasury to the credit of the Hazardous Waste Fund, except as provided in subsection (e) of this Section. All monies in the Hazardous Waste Fund shall be used by the Agency for the following purposes:

(1) Taking whatever preventive or corrective action is necessary or appropriate, in circumstances certified by the Director, including but not limited to removal or remedial action whenever there is a release or substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide; provided, the Agency shall expend no more than $1,000,000 on any single incident without appropriation by the General Assembly.

(2) To meet any requirements which must be met by the State in order to obtain federal funds pursuant to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980, (P.L. 96-510).

(3) In an amount up to 30% of the amount collected as fees provided for in this Section, for use by the Agency to conduct groundwater protection activities, including providing grants to appropriate units of local government which are addressing protection of underground waters pursuant to the provisions of this Act.

(4) To fund the development and implementation of the model pesticide collection program under Section 19.1 of the Illinois Pesticide Act.

(5) To the extent the Agency has received and deposited monies in the Fund other than fees collected under subsection (b) of this Section, to pay for the cost of Agency employees for services provided in reviewing the performance of response actions pursuant to Title XVII of this Act.

(6) In an amount up to 15% of the fees collected annually under subsection (b) of this Section, for use by the Agency for administration of the provisions of this Section.

(e) The Agency shall deposit 10% of all receipts collected under subsection (b) of this Section, but not to exceed $200,000 per year, in the State Treasury to the credit of the Hazardous Waste Research Fund established by this Act. Pursuant to appropriation, all monies in such Fund shall be used by the University of Illinois for the purposes set forth in this subsection.

The University of Illinois may enter into contracts with business, industrial, university, governmental or other qualified individuals or organizations to assist in the research and development intended to recycle, reduce the volume of, separate, detoxify or reduce the hazardous properties of hazardous wastes in Illinois. Monies in the Fund may also be used by the University of Illinois for technical studies, monitoring activities, and educational and research activities which are related to the protection of underground waters. Monies in the Hazardous Waste Research Fund may be used to administer the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act. Monies in the Hazardous Waste Research Fund shall not be used for any sanitary landfill or the acquisition or construction of any facility. This does not preclude the purchase of equipment for the purpose of public demonstration projects. The University of Illinois shall adopt guidelines for cost sharing, selecting, and administering projects under this subsection.

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision or rule of law, and subject only to the defenses set forth in subsection (j) of this Section, the following persons shall be liable for all costs of removal or remedial action incurred by the State of Illinois or any unit of local government as a result of a release or substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide:

(1) the owner and operator of a facility or vessel from which there is a release or substantial threat of release of a hazardous substance or pesticide;

(2) any person who at the time of disposal, transport, storage or treatment of a hazardous substance or pesticide owned or operated the facility or vessel used for such disposal, transport, treatment or storage from which there was a release or substantial threat of a release of any such hazardous substance or pesticide;

(3) any person who by contract, agreement, or otherwise has arranged with another party or entity for transport, storage, disposal or treatment of hazardous substances or pesticides owned, controlled or possessed by such person at a facility owned or operated by another party or entity from which facility there is a release or substantial threat of a release of such hazardous substances or pesticides; and

(4) any person who accepts or accepted any hazardous substances or pesticides for transport to disposal, storage or treatment facilities or sites from which there is a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide.

Any monies received by the State of Illinois pursuant to this subsection (f) shall be deposited in the State Treasury to the credit of the Hazardous Waste Fund.

In accordance with the other provisions of this Section, costs of removal or remedial action incurred by a unit of local government may be recovered in an action before the Board brought by the unit of local government under subsection (i) of this Section. Any monies so recovered shall be paid to the unit of local government.

(g)(1) No indemnification, hold harmless, or similar agreement or conveyance shall be effective to transfer from the owner or operator of any vessel or facility or from any person who may be liable for a release or substantial threat of a release under this Section, to any other person the liability imposed under this Section. Nothing in this Section shall bar any agreement to insure, hold harmless or indemnify a party to such agreements for any liability under this Section.

(2) Nothing in this Section, including the provisions of paragraph (g)(1) of this Section, shall bar a cause of action that an owner or operator or any other person subject to liability under this Section, or a guarantor, has or would have, by reason of subrogation or otherwise against any person.

(h) For purposes of this Section:

(1) The term "facility" means:

(A) any building, structure, installation, equipment, pipe or pipeline including but not limited to any pipe into a sewer or publicly owned treatment works, well, pit, pond, lagoon, impoundment, ditch, landfill, storage container, motor vehicle, rolling stock, or aircraft; or

(B) any site or area where a hazardous substance has been deposited, stored, disposed of, placed, or otherwise come to be located.

(2) The term "owner or operator" means:

(A) any person owning or operating a vessel or facility;

(B) in the case of an abandoned facility, any person owning or operating the abandoned facility or any person who owned, operated, or otherwise controlled activities at the abandoned facility immediately prior to such abandonment;

(C) in the case of a land trust as defined in Section 2 of the Land Trustee as Creditor Act, the person owning the beneficial interest in the land trust;

(D) in the case of a fiduciary (other than a land trustee), the estate, trust estate, or other interest in property held in a fiduciary capacity, and not the fiduciary. For the purposes of this Section, "fiduciary" means a trustee, executor, administrator, guardian, receiver, conservator or other person holding a facility or vessel in a fiduciary capacity;

(E) in the case of a "financial institution", meaning the Illinois Housing Development Authority and that term as defined in Section 2 of the Illinois Banking Act, that has acquired ownership, operation, management, or control of a vessel or facility through foreclosure or under the terms of a security interest held by the financial institution or under the terms of an extension of credit made by the financial institution, the financial institution only if the financial institution takes possession of the vessel or facility and the financial institution exercises actual, direct, and continual or recurrent managerial control in the operation of the vessel or facility that causes a release or substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide resulting in removal or remedial action;

(F) In the case of an owner of residential property, the owner if the owner is a person other than an individual, or if the owner is an individual who owns more than 10 dwelling units in Illinois, or if the owner, or an agent, representative, contractor, or employee of the owner, has caused, contributed to, or allowed the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance or pesticide. The term "residential property" means single family residences of one to 4 dwelling units, including accessory land, buildings, or improvements incidental to those dwellings that are exclusively used for the residential use. For purposes of this subparagraph (F), the term "individual" means a natural person, and shall not include corporations, partnerships, trusts, or other non-natural persons.

(G) In the case of any facility, title or control of which was conveyed due to bankruptcy, foreclosure, tax delinquency, abandonment, or similar means to a unit of State or local government, any person who owned, operated, or otherwise controlled activities at the facility immediately beforehand.

(H) The term "owner or operator" does not include a unit of State or local government which acquired ownership or control through bankruptcy, tax delinquency, abandonment, or other circumstances in which the government acquires title by virtue of its function as sovereign. The exclusion provided under this paragraph shall not apply to any State or local government which has caused or contributed to the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance from the facility, and such a State or local government shall be subject to the provisions of this Act in the same manner and to the same extent, both procedurally and substantively, as any nongovernmental entity, including liability under Section 22.2(f).

(i) The costs and damages provided for in this Section may be imposed by the Board in an action brought before the Board in accordance with Title VIII of this Act, except that Section 33(c) of this Act shall not apply to any such action.

(j)(1) There shall be no liability under this Section for a person otherwise liable who can establish by a preponderance of the evidence that the release or substantial threat of release of a hazardous substance and the damages resulting therefrom were caused solely by:

(A) an act of God;

(B) an act of war;

(C) an act or omission of a third party other than an employee or agent of the defendant, or other than one whose act or omission occurs in connection with a contractual relationship, existing directly or indirectly, with the defendant (except where the sole contractual arrangement arises from a published tariff and acceptance for carriage by a common carrier by rail), if the defendant establishes by a preponderance of the evidence that (i) he exercised due care with respect to the hazardous substance concerned, taking into consideration the characteristics of such hazardous substance, in light of all relevant facts and circumstances, and (ii) he took precautions against foreseeable acts or omissions of any such third party and the consequences that could foreseeably result from such acts or omissions; or

(D) any combination of the foregoing paragraphs.

(2) There shall be no liability under this Section for any release permitted by State or federal law.

(3) There shall be no liability under this Section for damages as a result of actions taken or omitted in the course of rendering care, assistance, or advice in accordance with this Section or the National Contingency Plan pursuant to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980 (P.L. 96-510) or at the direction of an on-scene coordinator appointed under such plan, with respect to an incident creating a danger to public health or welfare or the environment as a result of any release of a hazardous substance or a substantial threat thereof. This subsection shall not preclude liability for damages as the result of gross negligence or intentional misconduct on the part of such person. For the purposes of the preceding sentence, reckless, willful, or wanton misconduct shall constitute gross negligence.

(4) There shall be no liability under this Section for any person (including, but not limited to, an owner of residential property who applies a pesticide to the residential property or who has another person apply a pesticide to the residential property) for response costs or damages as the result of the storage, handling and use, or recommendation for storage, handling and use, of a pesticide consistent with:

(A) its directions for storage, handling and use as stated in its label or labeling;

(B) its warnings and cautions as stated in its label or labeling; and

(C) the uses for which it is registered under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act and the Illinois Pesticide Act.

(4.5) There shall be no liability under subdivision (f)(1) of this Section for response costs or damages as the result of a release of a pesticide from an agrichemical facility site if the Agency has received notice from the Department of Agriculture pursuant to Section 19.3 of the Illinois Pesticide Act, the owner or operator of the agrichemical facility is proceeding with a corrective action plan under the Agrichemical Facility Response Action Program implemented under that Section, and the Agency has provided a written endorsement of a corrective action plan.

(4.6) There shall be no liability under subdivision (f)(1) of this Section for response costs or damages as the result of a substantial threat of a release of a pesticide from an agrichemical facility site if the Agency has received notice from the Department of Agriculture pursuant to Section 19.3 of the Illinois Pesticide Act and the owner or operator of the agrichemical facility is proceeding with a corrective action plan under the Agrichemical Facility Response Action Program implemented under that Section.

(5) Nothing in this subsection (j) shall affect or modify in any way the obligations or liability of any person under any other provision of this Act or State or federal law, including common law, for damages, injury, or loss resulting from a release or substantial threat of a release of any hazardous substance or for removal or remedial action or the costs of removal or remedial action of such hazardous substance.

(6)(A) The term "contractual relationship", for the purpose of this subsection includes, but is not limited to, land contracts, deeds or other instruments transferring title or possession, unless the real property on which the facility concerned is located was acquired by the defendant after the disposal or placement of the hazardous substance on, in, or at the facility, and one or more of the circumstances described in clause (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph is also established by the defendant by a preponderance of the evidence:

(i) At the time the defendant acquired the facility the defendant did not know and had no reason to know that any hazardous substance which is the subject of the release or threatened release was disposed of on, in or at the facility.

(ii) The defendant is a government entity which acquired the facility by escheat, or through any other involuntary transfer or acquisition, or through the exercise of eminent domain authority by purchase or condemnation.

(iii) The defendant acquired the facility by inheritance or bequest.

In addition to establishing the foregoing, the defendant must establish that he has satisfied the requirements of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (l) of this subsection (j).

(B) To establish the defendant had no reason to know, as provided in clause (i) of subparagraph (A) of this paragraph, the defendant must have undertaken, at the time of acquisition, all appropriate inquiry into the previous ownership and uses of the property consistent with good commercial or customary practice in an effort to minimize liability. For purposes of the preceding sentence, the court shall take into account any specialized knowledge or experience on the part of the defendant, the relationship of the purchase price to the value of the property if uncontaminated, commonly known or reasonably ascertainable information about the property, the obviousness of the presence or likely presence of contamination at the property, and the ability to detect such contamination by appropriate inspection.

(C) Nothing in this paragraph (6) or in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of this subsection shall diminish the liability of any previous owner or operator of such facility who would otherwise be liable under this Act. Notwithstanding this paragraph (6), if the defendant obtained actual knowledge of the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance at such facility when the defendant owned the real property and then subsequently transferred ownership of the property to another person without disclosing such knowledge, such defendant shall be treated as liable under subsection (f) of this Section and no defense under subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of this subsection shall be available to such defendant.

(D) Nothing in this paragraph (6) shall affect the liability under this Act of a defendant who, by any act or omission, caused or contributed to the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance which is the subject of the action relating to the facility.

(E)(i) Except as provided in clause (ii) of this subparagraph (E), a defendant who has acquired real property shall have established a rebuttable presumption against all State claims and a conclusive presumption against all private party claims that the defendant has made all appropriate inquiry within the meaning of subdivision (6)(B) of this subsection (j) if the defendant proves that immediately prior to or at the time of the acquisition:

(I) the defendant obtained a Phase I Environmental Audit of the real property that meets or exceeds the requirements of this subparagraph (E), and the Phase I Environmental Audit did not disclose the presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the real property; or

(II) the defendant obtained a Phase II Environmental Audit of the real property that meets or exceeds the requirements of this subparagraph (E), and the Phase II Environmental Audit did not disclose the presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the real property.

(ii) No presumption shall be created under clause (i) of this subparagraph (E), and a defendant shall be precluded from demonstrating that the defendant has made all appropriate inquiry within the meaning of subdivision (6)(B) of this subsection (j), if:

(I) the defendant fails to obtain all Environmental Audits required under this subparagraph (E) or any such Environmental Audit fails to meet or exceed the requirements of this subparagraph (E);

(II) a Phase I Environmental Audit discloses the presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from real property, and the defendant fails to obtain a Phase II Environmental Audit;

(III) a Phase II Environmental Audit discloses the presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the real property;

(IV) the defendant fails to maintain a written compilation and explanatory summary report of the information reviewed in the course of each Environmental Audit under this subparagraph (E); or

(V) there is any evidence of fraud, material concealment, or material misrepresentation by the defendant of environmental conditions or of related information discovered during the course of an Environmental Audit.

(iii) For purposes of this subparagraph (E), the term "environmental professional" means an individual (other than a practicing attorney) who, through academic training, occupational experience, and reputation (such as engineers, industrial hygienists, or geologists) can objectively conduct one or more aspects of an Environmental Audit and who either:

(I) maintains at the time of the Environmental Audit and for at least one year thereafter at least $500,000 of environmental consultants' professional liability insurance coverage issued by an insurance company licensed to do business in Illinois; or

(II) is an Illinois licensed professional engineer or a Certified Industrial Hygienist certified by the American Board of Industrial Hygiene.

An environmental professional may employ persons who are not environmental professionals to assist in the preparation of an Environmental Audit if such persons are under the direct supervision and control of the environmental professional.

(iv) For purposes of this subparagraph (E), the term "real property" means any interest in any parcel of land, and includes, but is not limited to, buildings, fixtures, and improvements.

(v) For purposes of this subparagraph (E), the term "Phase I Environmental Audit" means an investigation of real property, conducted by environmental professionals, to discover the presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from real property, and whether a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide has occurred or may occur at, on, to, or from the real property. Until such time as the United States Environmental Protection Agency establishes standards for making appropriate inquiry into the previous ownership and uses of the facility pursuant to 42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601(35)(B)(ii), the investigation shall comply with the procedures of the American Society for Testing and Materials, including the document known as Standard E1527-97, entitled "Standard Procedures for Environmental Site Assessment: Phase 1 Environmental Site Assessment Process". Upon their adoption, the standards promulgated by USEPA pursuant to 42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601(35)(B)(ii) shall govern the performance of Phase I Environmental Audits. In addition to the above requirements, the Phase I Environmental Audit shall include a review of recorded land title records for the purpose of determining whether the real property is subject to an environmental land use restriction such as a No Further Remediation Letter, Environmental Land Use Control, or Highway Authority Agreement.

(vi) For purposes of subparagraph (E), the term "Phase II Environmental Audit" means an investigation of real property, conducted by environmental professionals, subsequent to a Phase I Environmental Audit. If the Phase I Environmental Audit discloses the presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance or a pesticide or a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide:

(I) In or to soil, the defendant, as part of the Phase II Environmental Audit, shall perform a series of soil borings sufficient to determine whether there is a presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance or pesticide and whether there is or has been a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the real property.

(II) In or to groundwater, the defendant, as part of the Phase II Environmental Audit, shall: review information regarding local geology, water well locations, and locations of waters of the State as may be obtained from State, federal, and local government records, including but not limited to the United States Geological Survey, the State Geological Survey of the University of Illinois, and the State Water Survey of the University of Illinois; and perform groundwater monitoring sufficient to determine whether there is a presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance or pesticide, and whether there is or has been a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the real property.

(III) On or to media other than soil or groundwater, the defendant, as part of the Phase II Environmental Audit, shall perform an investigation sufficient to determine whether there is a presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance or pesticide, and whether there is or has been a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the real property.

(vii) The findings of each Environmental Audit prepared under this subparagraph (E) shall be set forth in a written audit report. Each audit report shall contain an affirmation by the defendant and by each environmental professional who prepared the Environmental Audit that the facts stated in the report are true and are made under a penalty of perjury as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012. It is perjury for any person to sign an audit report that contains a false material statement that the person does not believe to be true.

(viii) The Agency is not required to review, approve, or certify the results of any Environmental Audit. The performance of an Environmental Audit shall in no way entitle a defendant to a presumption of Agency approval or certification of the results of the Environmental Audit.

The presence or absence of a disclosure document prepared under the Responsible Property Transfer Act of 1988 shall not be a defense under this Act and shall not satisfy the requirements of subdivision (6)(A) of this subsection (j).

(7) No person shall be liable under this Section for response costs or damages as the result of a pesticide release if the Agency has found that a pesticide release occurred based on a Health Advisory issued by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency or an action level developed by the Agency, unless the Agency notified the manufacturer of the pesticide and provided an opportunity of not less than 30 days for the manufacturer to comment on the technical and scientific justification supporting the Health Advisory or action level.

(8) No person shall be liable under this Section for response costs or damages as the result of a pesticide release that occurs in the course of a farm pesticide collection program operated under Section 19.1 of the Illinois Pesticide Act, unless the release results from gross negligence or intentional misconduct.

(k) If any person who is liable for a release or substantial threat of release of a hazardous substance or pesticide fails without sufficient cause to provide removal or remedial action upon or in accordance with a notice and request by the Agency or upon or in accordance with any order of the Board or any court, such person may be liable to the State for punitive damages in an amount at least equal to, and not more than 3 times, the amount of any costs incurred by the State of Illinois as a result of such failure to take such removal or remedial action. The punitive damages imposed by the Board shall be in addition to any costs recovered from such person pursuant to this Section and in addition to any other penalty or relief provided by this Act or any other law.

Any monies received by the State pursuant to this subsection (k) shall be deposited in the Hazardous Waste Fund.

(l) Beginning January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 2013, the Agency shall annually collect a $250 fee for each Special Waste Hauling Permit Application and, in addition, shall collect a fee of $20 for each waste hauling vehicle identified in the annual permit application and for each vehicle which is added to the permit during the annual period. Beginning January 1, 2013, the Agency shall issue 3-year Special Waste Hauling Permits instead of annual Special Waste Hauling Permits and shall collect a $750 fee for each Special Waste Hauling Permit Application. In addition, beginning January 1, 2013, the Agency shall collect a fee of $60 for each waste hauling vehicle identified in the permit application and for each vehicle that is added to the permit during the 3-year period. The Agency shall deposit 85% of such fees collected under this subsection in the State Treasury to the credit of the Hazardous Waste Research Fund; and shall deposit the remaining 15% of such fees collected in the State Treasury to the credit of the Environmental Protection Permit and Inspection Fund. The majority of such receipts which are deposited in the Hazardous Waste Research Fund pursuant to this subsection shall be used by the University of Illinois for activities which relate to the protection of underground waters.

(l-5) (Blank).

(m) (Blank).

(n) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-220, eff. 7-28-11; 97-1081, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-78, eff. 7-15-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(415 ILCS 5/58.16)

Sec. 58.16. Construction of school; requirements. This Section applies only to counties with a population of more than 3,000,000. In this Section, "school" means any public school located in whole or in part in a county with a population of more than 3,000,000. No person shall commence construction on real property of a building intended for use as a school unless:

(1) a Phase I 1 Environmental Audit, conducted in accordance with Section 22.2 of this Act, is obtained;

(2) if the Phase I 1 Environmental Audit discloses the presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release of a regulated substance at, on, to, or from the real property, a Phase II Environmental Audit, conducted in accordance with Section 22.2 of this Act, is obtained; and

(3) if the Phase II Environmental Audit discloses the presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release of a regulated substance at, on, to, or from the real property: , and (i) the real property is enrolled in the Site Remediation Program, and (ii) the remedial action plan is approved by the Agency, if a remedial action plan is required by Board regulations.

No person shall cause or allow any person to occupy a building intended to be used as a school for which a remedial action plan is required by Board regulations unless all work pursuant to the remedial action plan is completed.

(Source: P.A. 91-442, eff. 1-1-00; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-151, eff. 7-24-01; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 595. The Illinois Pesticide Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(415 ILCS 60/4) (from Ch. 5, par. 804)

Sec. 4. Definitions. As used in this Act:

1. "Director" means Director of the Illinois Department of Agriculture or his authorized representative.

2. "Active Ingredient" means any ingredient which will prevent, destroy, repel, control or mitigate a pest or which will act as a plant regulator, defoliant or desiccant.

3. "Adulterated" shall apply to any pesticide if the strength or purity is not within the standard of quality expressed on the labeling under which it is sold, distributed or used, including any substance which has been substituted wholly or in part for the pesticide as specified on the labeling under which it is sold, distributed or used, or if any valuable constituent of the pesticide has been wholly or in part abstracted.

4. "Agricultural Commodity" means produce of the land including but not limited to plants and plant parts, livestock and poultry and livestock or poultry products, seeds, sod, shrubs and other products of agricultural origin including the premises necessary to and used directly in agricultural production. Agricultural commodity also includes aquatic products as defined in the Aquaculture Development Act.

5. "Animal" means all vertebrate and invertebrate species including, but not limited to, man and other mammals, bird, fish, and shellfish.

6. "Beneficial Insects" means those insects which during their life cycle are effective pollinators of plants, predators of pests or are otherwise beneficial.

7. "Certified applicator".

A. "Certified applicator" means any individual who is certified under this Act to purchase, use, or supervise the use of pesticides which are classified for restricted use.

B. "Private applicator" means a certified applicator who purchases, uses, or supervises the use of any pesticide classified for restricted use, for the purpose of producing any agricultural commodity on property owned, rented, or otherwise controlled by him or his employer, or applied to other property if done without compensation other than trading of personal services between no more than 2 producers of agricultural commodities.

C. "Licensed Commercial Applicator" means a certified applicator, whether or not he is a private applicator with respect to some uses, who owns or manages a business that is engaged in applying pesticides, whether classified for general or restricted use, for hire. The term also applies to a certified applicator who uses or supervises the use of pesticides, whether classified for general or restricted use, for any purpose or on property of others excluding those specified by subparagraphs 7 (B), (D), (E) of Section 4 of this Act.

D. "Commercial Not For Hire Applicator" means a certified applicator who uses or supervises the use of pesticides classified for general or restricted use for any purpose on property of an employer when such activity is a requirement of the terms of employment and such application of pesticides under this certification is limited to property under the control of the employer only and includes, but is not limited to, the use or supervision of the use of pesticides in a greenhouse setting.

E. "Licensed Public Applicator" means a certified applicator who uses or supervises the use of pesticides classified for general or restricted use as an employee of a state agency, municipality, or other duly constituted governmental agency or unit.

8. "Defoliant" means any substance or combination of substances which cause leaves or foliage to drop from a plant with or without causing abscission.

9. "Desiccant" means any substance or combination of substances intended for artificially accelerating the drying of plant tissue.

10. "Device" means any instrument or contrivance, other than a firearm or equipment for application of pesticides when sold separately from pesticides, which is intended for trapping, repelling, destroying, or mitigating any pest, other than bacteria, virus, or other microorganisms on or living in man or other living animals.

11. "Distribute" means offer or hold for sale, sell, barter, ship, deliver for shipment, receive and then deliver, or offer to deliver pesticides, within the State.

12. "Environment" includes water, air, land, and all plants and animals including man, living therein and the interrelationships which exist among these.

13. "Equipment" means any type of instruments and contrivances using motorized, mechanical or pressure power which is used to apply any pesticide, excluding pressurized hand-size household apparatus containing dilute ready to apply pesticide or used to apply household pesticides.

14. "FIFRA" means the "Federal Insecticide Fungicide Rodenticide Act", as amended.

15. "Fungi" means any non-chlorophyll bearing thallophytes, any non-chlorophyll bearing plant of a lower order than mosses or liverworts, as for example rust, smut, mildew, mold, yeast and bacteria, except those on or in living animals including man and those on or in processed foods, beverages or pharmaceuticals.

16. "Household Substance" means any pesticide customarily produced and distributed for use by individuals in or about the household.

17. "Imminent Hazard" means a situation which exists when continued use of a pesticide would likely result in unreasonable adverse effect on the environment or will involve unreasonable hazard to the survival of a species declared endangered by the U.S. Secretary of the Interior or to species declared to be protected by the Illinois Department of Natural Resources.

18. "Inert Ingredient" means an ingredient which is not an active ingredient.

19. "Ingredient Statement" means a statement of the name and percentage of each active ingredient together with the total percentage of inert ingredients in a pesticide and for pesticides containing arsenic in any form, the ingredient statement shall include percentage of total and water soluble arsenic, each calculated as elemental arsenic. In the case of spray adjuvants the ingredient statement need contain only the names of the functioning agents and the total percent of those constituents ineffective as spray adjuvants.

20. "Insect" means any of the numerous small invertebrate animals generally having the body more or less obviously segmented for the most part belonging to the class Insects, comprised of six-legged, usually winged forms, as for example beetles, caterpillars, and flies. This definition encompasses other allied classes of arthropods whose members are wingless and usually have more than 6 legs as for example spiders, mites, ticks, centipedes, and millipedes.

21. "Label" means the written, printed or graphic matter on or attached to the pesticide or device or any of its containers or wrappings.

22. "Labeling" means the label and all other written, printed or graphic matter: (a) on the pesticide or device or any of its containers or wrappings, (b) accompanying the pesticide or device or referring to it in any other media used to disseminate information to the public, (c) to which reference is made to the pesticide or device except when references are made to current official publications of the U. S. Environmental Protection Agency, Departments of Agriculture, Health, Education and Welfare or other Federal Government institutions, the state experiment station or colleges of agriculture or other similar state institution authorized to conduct research in the field of pesticides.

23. "Land" means all land and water area including airspace, and all plants, animals, structures, buildings, contrivances, and machinery appurtenant thereto or situated thereon, fixed or mobile, including any used for transportation.

24. "Licensed Operator" means a person employed to apply pesticides to the lands of others under the direction of a "licensed commercial applicator" or a "licensed public applicator" or a "licensed commercial not-for-hire applicator".

25. "Nematode" means invertebrate animals of the phylum nemathelminthes and class nematoda, also referred to as nemas or eelworms, which are unsegmented roundworms with elongated fusiform or sac-like bodies covered with cuticle and inhabiting soil, water, plants or plant parts.

26. "Permit" means a written statement issued by the Director or his authorized agent, authorizing certain acts of pesticide purchase or of pesticide use or application on an a interim basis prior to normal certification, registration, or licensing.

27. "Person" means any individual, partnership, association, fiduciary, corporation, or any organized group of persons whether incorporated or not.

28. "Pest" means (a) any insect, rodent, nematode, fungus, weed, or (b) any other form of terrestrial or aquatic plant or animal life or virus, bacteria, or other microorganism, excluding virus, bacteria, or other microorganism on or in living animals including man, which the Director declares to be a pest.

29. "Pesticide" means any substance or mixture of substances intended for preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any pest or any substance or mixture of substances intended for use as a plant regulator, defoliant or desiccant.

30. "Pesticide Dealer" means any person who distributes registered pesticides to the user.

31. "Plant Regulator" means any substance or mixture of substances intended through physiological action to affect the rate of growth or maturation or otherwise alter the behavior of ornamental or crop plants or the produce thereof. This does not include substances which are not intended as plant nutrient trace elements, nutritional chemicals, plant or seed inoculants or soil conditioners or amendments.

32. "Protect Health and Environment" means to guard against any unreasonable adverse effects on the environment.

33. "Registrant" means person who has registered any pesticide pursuant to the provision of FIFRA and this Act.

34. "Restricted Use Pesticide" means any pesticide with one or more of its uses classified as restricted by order of the Administrator of USEPA.

35. "SLN Registration" means registration of a pesticide for use under conditions of special local need as defined by FIFRA.

36. "State Restricted Pesticide Use" means any pesticide use which the Director determines, subsequent to public hearing, that an additional restriction for that use is needed to prevent unreasonable adverse effects.

37. "Structural Pest" means any pests which attack and destroy buildings and other structures or which attack clothing, stored food, commodities stored at food manufacturing and processing facilities or manufactured and processed goods.

38. "Unreasonable Adverse Effects on the Environment" means the unreasonable risk to the environment, including man, from the use of any pesticide, when taking into account accrued benefits of as well as the economic, social, and environmental costs of its use.

39. "USEPA" means United States Environmental Protection Agency.

40. "Use inconsistent with the label" means to use a pesticide in a manner not consistent with the label instruction, the definition adopted in FIFRA as interpreted by USEPA shall apply in Illinois.

41. "Weed" means any plant growing in a place where it is not wanted.

42. "Wildlife" means all living things, not human, domestic, or pests.

43. "Bulk pesticide" means any registered pesticide which is transported or held in an individual container in undivided quantities of greater than 55 U.S. gallons liquid measure or 100 pounds net dry weight.

44. "Bulk repackaging" means the transfer of a registered pesticide from one bulk container (containing undivided quantities of greater than 100 U.S. gallons liquid measure or 100 pounds net dry weight) to another bulk container (containing undivided quantities of greater than 100 U.S. gallons liquid measure or 100 pounds net dry weight) in an unaltered state in preparation for sale or distribution to another person.

45. "Business" means any individual, partnership, corporation or association engaged in a business operation for the purpose of selling or distributing pesticides or providing the service of application of pesticides in this State.

46. "Facility" means any building or structure and all real property contiguous thereto, including all equipment fixed thereon used for the operation of the business.

47. "Chemigation" means the application of a pesticide through the systems or equipment employed for the primary purpose of irrigation of land and crops.

48. "Use" means any activity covered by the pesticide label including but not limited to application of pesticide, mixing and loading, storage of pesticides or pesticide containers, disposal of pesticides and pesticide containers and reentry into treated sites or areas.

(Source: P.A. 92-113, eff. 7-20-01; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 600. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/8) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8)

Sec. 8. Grounds for denial and revocation. The Department of State Police has authority to deny an application for or to revoke and seize a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued under this Act only if the Department finds that the applicant or the person to whom such card was issued is or was at the time of issuance:

(a) A person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent;

(b) A person under 21 years of age who does not have the written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire and possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;

(d) A person addicted to narcotics;

(e) A person who has been a patient of a mental health facility within the past 5 years or a person who has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5 years ago who has not received the certification required under subsection (u) of this Section. An active law enforcement officer employed by a unit of government who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under this subsection (e) may obtain relief as described in subsection (c-5) of Section 10 of this Act if the officer did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical psychologist or physician, and the officer seeks mental health treatment;

(f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant, any other person or persons or the community;

(g) A person who is intellectually disabled;

(h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement in the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;

(i) An alien who is unlawfully present in the United States under the laws of the United States;

(i-5) An alien who has been admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), except that this subsection (i-5) does not apply to any alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign government who is:

(A) accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to which that alien is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);

(j) (Blank);

(k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;

(l) A person who has been convicted of domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant or person who has been previously issued a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described in this paragraph (l) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying an application for and for revoking and seizing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued to the person under this Act;

(m) (Blank);

(n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or possessing firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois State statute or by federal law;

(o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(q) A person who is not a resident of the State of Illinois, except as provided in subsection (a-10) of Section 4;

(r) A person who has been adjudicated as a mentally disabled person;

(s) A person who has been found to be developmentally disabled;

(t) A person involuntarily admitted into a mental health facility; or

(u) A person who has had his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card revoked or denied under subsection (e) of this Section or item (iv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 4 of this Act because he or she was a patient in a mental health facility as provided in item (2) of subsection (e) of this Section, shall not be permitted to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, after the 5-year 5 year period has lapsed, unless he or she has received a mental health evaluation by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner as those terms are defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and has received a certification that he or she is not a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or others. The physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the certification and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the certification required under this subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct. This subsection does not apply to a person whose firearm possession rights have been restored through administrative or judicial action under Section 10 or 11 of this Act. ; or

(v) Upon revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the Department of State Police shall provide notice to the person and the person shall comply with Section 9.5 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-508, eff. 8-19-13; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 605. The Firearm Concealed Carry Act is amended by changing Sections 25, 35, 50, and 70 as follows:

(430 ILCS 66/25)

Sec. 25. Qualifications for a license.

The Department shall issue a license to an applicant completing an application in accordance with Section 30 of this Act if the person:

(1) is at least 21 years of age;

(2) has a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and at the time of application meets the requirements for the issuance of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and is not prohibited under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or federal law from possessing or receiving a firearm;

(3) has not been convicted or found guilty in this State or in any other state of:

(A) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of physical force or violence to any person within the 5 years preceding the date of the license application; or

(B) 2 or more violations related to driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the license application; and

(4) is not the subject of a pending arrest warrant, prosecution, or proceeding for an offense or action that could lead to disqualification to own or possess a firearm;

(5) has not been in residential or court-ordered treatment for alcoholism, alcohol detoxification, or drug treatment within the 5 years immediately preceding the date of the license application; and

(6) has completed firearms training and any education component required under Section 75 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(430 ILCS 66/35)

Sec. 35. Investigation of the applicant.

The Department shall conduct a background check of the applicant to ensure compliance with the requirements of this Act and all federal, State, and local laws. The background check shall include a search of the following:

(1) the National Instant Criminal Background Check System of the Federal Bureau of Investigation;

(2) all available state and local criminal history record information files, including records of juvenile adjudications;

(3) all available federal, state, and local records regarding wanted persons;

(4) all available federal, state, and local records of domestic violence restraining and protective orders;

(5) the files of the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and developmental disabilities; and

(6) all other available records of a federal, state, or local agency or other public entity in any jurisdiction likely to contain information relevant to whether the applicant is prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or carrying a firearm under federal, state, or local law.

(7) Fingerprints collected under Section 30 shall be checked against the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases now and hereafter filed. The Department shall charge applicants a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(430 ILCS 66/50)

Sec. 50. License renewal. Applications for renewal of a license shall be made to the Department. A license shall be renewed for a period of 5 years upon receipt of a completed renewal application, completion of 3 hours of training required under Section 75 of this Act Section, payment of the applicable renewal fee, and completion of an investigation under Section 35 of this Act. The renewal application shall contain the information required in Section 30 of this Act, except that the applicant need not resubmit a full set of fingerprints.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(430 ILCS 66/70)

Sec. 70. Violations.

(a) A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found to be ineligible for a license under this Act or the licensee no longer meets the eligibility requirements of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(b) A license shall be suspended if an order of protection, including an emergency order of protection, plenary order of protection, or interim order of protection under Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, is issued against a licensee for the duration of the order, or if the Department is made aware of a similar order issued against the licensee in any other jurisdiction. If an order of protection is issued against a licensee, the licensee shall surrender the license, as applicable, to the court at the time the order is entered or to the law enforcement agency or entity serving process at the time the licensee is served the order. The court, law enforcement agency, or entity responsible for serving the order of protection shall notify the Department within 7 days and transmit the license to the Department.

(c) A license is invalid upon expiration of the license, unless the licensee has submitted an application to renew the license, and the applicant is otherwise eligible to possess a license under this Act.

(d) A licensee shall not carry a concealed firearm while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or combination of compounds, or any combination thereof, under the standards set forth in subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

A licensee in violation of this subsection (d) shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first or second violation and a Class 4 felony for a third violation. The Department may suspend a license for up to 6 months for a second violation and shall permanently revoke a license for a third violation.

(e) Except as otherwise provided, a licensee in violation of this Act shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class A misdemeanor. The Department may suspend a license for up to 6 months for a second violation and shall permanently revoke a license for 3 or more violations of Section 65 of this Act. Any person convicted of a violation under this Section shall pay a $150 fee to be deposited into the Mental Health Reporting Fund, plus any applicable court costs or fees.

(f) A licensee convicted or found guilty of a violation of this Act who has a valid license and is otherwise eligible to carry a concealed firearm shall only be subject to the penalties under this Section and shall not be subject to the penalties under Section 21-6, paragraph (4), (8), or (10) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1, or subparagraph (A-5) or (B-5) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 2012. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, nothing in this subsection prohibits the licensee from being subjected to penalties for violations other than those specified in this Act.

(g) A licensee whose license is revoked, suspended, or denied shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the revocation, suspension, or denial, surrender his or her concealed carry license to the local law enforcement agency where the person resides. The local law enforcement agency shall provide the licensee a receipt and transmit the concealed carry license to the Department of State Police. If the licensee whose concealed carry license has been revoked, suspended, or denied fails to comply with the requirements of this subsection, the law enforcement agency where the person resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to search for and seize the concealed carry license in the possession and under the custody or control of the licensee whose concealed carry license has been revoked, suspended, or denied. The observation of a concealed carry license in the possession of a person whose license has been revoked, suspended, or denied constitutes a sufficient basis for the arrest of that person for violation of this subsection. A violation of this subsection is a Class A misdemeanor.

(h) A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found ineligible for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or the licensee no longer possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card. A licensee whose license is revoked under this subsection (h) shall surrender his or her concealed carry license as provided for in subsection (g) of this Section.

This subsection shall not apply to a person who has filed an application with the State Police for renewal of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and who is not otherwise ineligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 610. The Boiler and Pressure Vessel Safety Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(430 ILCS 75/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 3206)

Sec. 5. Exemptions.

(a) This Act shall not apply to the following boilers and pressure vessels:

(1) Boilers and pressure vessels under federal regulations, except for boiler and pressure vessels in nuclear facilities subject to Section 2a, and boilers and pressure vessels located in cities of more than 500,000 inhabitants.

(2) Pressure vessels used for transportation and storage of compressed or liquefied gases when constructed in compliance with specifications of the Department of Transportation and charged with gas or liquid, marked, maintained, and periodically requalified for use, as required by appropriate regulations of the Department of Transportation.

(3) Pressure vessels located on vehicles operating under the rules of other State authorities and used for carrying passengers or freight.

(4) Pressure vessels installed on the right of way of railroads and used directly in the operation of trains.

(5) Boilers and pressure vessels under the inspection jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources and located on mine property.

(6) Boilers and pressure vessels located on farms and used solely for agricultural purposes.

(7) Steam boilers of a miniature model locomotive, boat, tractor, or stationary engine constructed and maintained as a hobby and not for commercial use, that have an inside diameter not exceeding 12 inches and a grate area not exceeding 1 1/2 square feet, provided they are constantly attended while in operation and are equipped with a water level indicator, pressure gauge, and a safety valve of adequate capacity.

(8) Pressure vessels regulated and inspected under the Illinois Fertilizer Act of 1961.

(9) Pressure vessels containing liquefied liquified petroleum gas regulated under the Liquefied Liquified Petroleum Gas Regulation Act.

(b) The following boilers and pressure vessels shall be exempt from the requirements of Sections 10, 11, 12, and 13 of this Act:

(1) Steam boilers used for heating purposes and operated at a pressure not in excess of 15 pounds per square inch gauge (psig) and having a rating not in excess of 200,000 B.T.U. per hour input.

(2) Hot water heating boilers operated at a pressure not in excess of 30 psig and having a rating not in excess of 200,000 B.T.U. per hour.

(3) Boilers and pressure vessels, located in private residences or in multi-family buildings having fewer than 6 dwelling units.

(4) Hot water supply boilers that are directly fired with oil, gas, or electricity when none of the following limitations are exceeded:

(A) Heat input of 200,000 BTU per hour.

(B) Water temperature of 200 degrees Fahrenheit.

(C) Nominal water containing capacity of 120 U.S. gallons.

(5) Coil type hot water boilers where the water can flash into steam when released directly to the atmosphere through a manually operated nozzle provided the following conditions are met:

(A) There is no drum, headers, or other steam space.

(B) No steam is generated within the coil.

(C) Outside diameter of tubing does not exceed 1 inch.

(D) Pipe size does not exceed 3/4 inch NPS.

(E) Water capacity of unit does not exceed 6 U.S. gallons.

(F) Water temperature does not exceed 350 degrees Fahrenheit.

(6) Pressure vessels containing only water under pressure for domestic supply purposes, including those containing air, the compression of which serves only a cushion or airlift pumping function.

(7) Pressure vessels operated at a pressure not exceeding 15 psig with no limitation on size.

(8) Pressure vessels that do not exceed:

(A) Both a volume of 15 cubic feet and 250 psig when not located in a place of public assembly.

(B) Both a volume of 5 cubic and 250 psig when located in a place of public assembly.

(C) A volume of 1 1/2 cubic feet or an inside diameter of 6 inches with no limitation on pressure.

(9) Water conditioning equipment used for the removal of minerals, chemicals, or organic or inorganic particles from water by means other than application of heat including, without limitation, water softeners, water filters, dealkalizers, and demineralizers.

(10) Steam boilers of railroad locomotives and traction engines built prior to 1955 that were constructed or operated in compliance with the Federal Locomotive Inspection Law and are in the permanent collection of a museum or historical association are exempt from the requirements of subsection (c) of Section 10 upon proof of such construction or inspection being furnished to the Board.

(c) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 94-748, eff. 5-8-06; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 615. The Carnival and Amusement Rides Safety Act is amended by changing Sections 2-8.1, 2-12, and 2-15 as follows:

(430 ILCS 85/2-8.1)

Sec. 2-8.1. Suspension and revocation of permit to operate.

(a) The Department shall have the power to suspend or revoke an owner's permit for any good cause under the meaning and purpose of this Act. If a person whose permit has been suspended or revoked, or whose application for a permit has been denied, believes that the violation or condition justifying suspension, revocation, or denial of the permit does not exist, the person may apply to the Department for reconsideration through a hearing within 10 working days after the Department's action. A hearing shall be scheduled, unless otherwise mutually agreed by the parties, within 48 hours after the request for hearing.

(b) Service of notice of a hearing shall be made by personal service or certified mail to the address shown on the application for permit, or to any other address on file with the Department and reasonably believed to be the current address of the permit holder.

(c) The written notice of a hearing shall specify the time, date, and location of the hearing and the reasons for the action proposed by the Department.

(d) At the hearing, the Department shall have the burden of establishing good cause for its action. Good cause exists if the Department establishes that the permit holder has failed to comply with the requirements of a permit under this Act and its rules.

(e) All hearings held under this Section shall comply with Article 10 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and the Department's rules of procedure in administrative hearings, except that formal discovery, such as production requests, interrogatories, requests to admit, and depositions shall not be allowed. The parties shall exchange documents and witness lists prior to hearing and may request third party subpoenas to be issued.

(f) The final determination by the Department of Labor shall be rendered within 5 working days after the conclusion of the hearing.

(g) Final determinations made under this Section are subject to the Administrative Review Law.

(Source: P.A. 98-541, eff. 8-23-13; revised 11-14-13.)

(430 ILCS 85/2-12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4062)

Sec. 2-12. Order for cessation of operation of amusement ride or attraction.

(a) The Department of Labor may order, in writing, a temporary and immediate cessation of operation of any amusement ride or amusement attraction if it:

(1) has been determined after inspection to be hazardous or unsafe;

(2) is in operation before the Director has issued a permit to operate such equipment; or

(3) the owner or operator is not in compliance with the insurance requirements contained in Section 2-14 of this Act and any rules or regulations adopted hereunder.

(b) Operation of the amusement ride or amusement attraction shall not resume until:

(1) the unsafe or hazardous condition is corrected to the satisfaction of the Director or such inspector;

(2) the Director has issued a permit to operate such equipment; or

(3) the owner or operator is in compliance with the insurance requirements contained in Section 2-14 of this Act and any rules or regulations adopted hereunder, respectively.

(c) The Department shall notify the owner or operator in writing of the grounds for the cessation of operation of the amusement ride or attraction and of the conditions in need of correction at the time the order for cessation is issued.

(d) The owner or operator may appeal an order of cessation by filing a request for a hearing. The Department shall afford the owner or operator 10 working days after the date of the notice to request a hearing. Upon written request for hearing, the Department shall schedule a formal administrative hearing in compliance with Article 10 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and pursuant to the provisions of the Department's rules of procedure in administrative hearings, except that formal discovery, such as production requests, interrogatories, requests to admit, and depositions will not be allowed. The parties shall exchange documents and witness lists prior to hearing and may request third party subpoenas to be issued.

(e) The final determination by the Department of Labor shall be rendered within 5 working days after the conclusion of the hearing.

(f) The provisions of the Administrative Review Law shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of a final determination under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-541, eff. 8-23-13; revised 11-15-13.)

(430 ILCS 85/2-15) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4065)

Sec. 2-15. Penalties.

(a) Criminal penalties.

1. Any person who operates an amusement ride or amusement attraction at a carnival or fair without having obtained a permit from the Department or who violates any order or rule issued by the Department under this Act is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. Each day shall constitute a separate and distinct offense.

2. Any person who interferes with, impedes, or obstructs in any manner the Director or any authorized representative of the Department in the performance of their duties under this Act is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) Civil penalties. Unless otherwise provided in this Act, any person who operates an amusement ride or amusement attraction without having obtained a permit from the Department in violation of this Act is subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $2,500 per violation for a first violation and not to exceed $5,000 for a second or subsequent violation.

Prior to any determination, or the imposition of any civil penalty, under this subsection (b), the Department shall notify the operator in writing of the alleged violation. The Department shall afford the operator 10 working days after the date of the notice to request a hearing. Upon written request of the operator, the Department shall schedule a formal administrative hearing in compliance with Article 10 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and the Department's rules of procedure in administrative hearings, except that formal discovery, such as production requests, interrogatories, requests to admit, and depositions shall not be allowed. The parties shall exchange documents and witness lists prior to hearing and may request third party subpoenas to be issued. The final determination by the Department of Labor shall be rendered within 5 working days after the conclusion of the hearing. Final determinations made under this Section are subject to the provisions of the Administrative Review Law. In determining the amount of a penalty, the Director may consider the appropriateness of the penalty to the person or entity charged, upon determination of the gravity of the violation. The penalties, when finally determined, may be recovered in a civil action brought by the Director of Labor in any circuit court. In this litigation, the Director of Labor shall be represented by the Attorney General.

(Source: P.A. 98-541, eff. 8-23-13; revised 11-15-13.)

Section 620. The Agricultural Production Contract Code is amended by changing Section 50 as follows:

(505 ILCS 17/50)

Sec. 50. Enforcement; offenses; remedies. The Attorney General is primarily responsible for enforcing this Act.

A violation of Section 20, 25, 30, or 35 is a business offense under the Unified Code of Corrections punishable by a fine of not more than $10,000 per offense.

A producer may recover his or her actual damages for a contractor's violation of Section 40 or 45 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-522, eff. 1-1-05; 93-815, eff. 1-1-05; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 625. The Illinois AgriFIRST Program Act of 2001 is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(505 ILCS 19/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Agribusiness" means any sole proprietorship, limited partnership, co-partnership, joint venture, corporation, or cooperative that operates or will operate a facility located within the State of Illinois that is related to the processing of agricultural commodities (including, but not limited to, the products of aquaculture, hydroponics, and silviculture) or the manufacturing, production, or construction of agricultural buildings, structures, equipment, implements, and supplies, or any other facilities or processes used in agricultural production. "Agribusiness" includes but is not limited to the following:

(1) grain handling and processing, including grain storage, drying, treatment, conditioning, milling, and packaging;

(2) seed and feed grain development and processing;

(3) fruit and vegetable processing, including preparation, canning, and packaging;

(4) processing of livestock and livestock products, dairy products, poultry and poultry products, fish or apiarian products, including slaughter, shearing, collecting, preparation, canning, and packaging;

(5) fertilizer and agricultural chemical manufacturing, processing, application and supplying;

(6) farm machinery, equipment, and implement manufacturing and supplying;

(7) manufacturing and supplying of agricultural commodity processing machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment used in slaughter, treatment, handling, collecting, preparation, canning, or packaging of agricultural commodities;

(8) farm building and farm structure manufacturing, construction, and supplying;

(9) construction, manufacturing, implementation, supplying, or servicing of irrigation, drainage, and soil and water conservation devices or equipment;

(10) fuel processing and development facilities that produce fuel from agricultural commodities or by-products;

(11) facilities and equipment for processing and packaging agricultural commodities specifically for export;

(12) facilities and equipment for forestry product processing and supplying, including sawmilling operations, wood chip operations, timber harvesting operations, and manufacturing of prefabricated buildings, paper, furniture, or other goods from forestry products; and

(13) facilities and equipment for research and development of products, processes, and equipment for the production, processing, preparation, or packaging of agricultural commodities and by-products.

"Agricultural facility" means land, any building or other improvement on or to land, and any personal properties deemed necessary or suitable for use, whether or not now in existence, in farming, ranching, the production of agricultural commodities (including, but not limited to, the products of aquaculture, hydroponics, and silviculture) or the treating, processing, or storing of agricultural commodities.

"Agricultural land" means land suitable for agriculture production.

"Asset" includes, but is not limited to, the following: cash crops or feed on hand; livestock held for sale; breeding stock; marketable bonds and securities; securities not readily marketable; accounts receivable; notes receivable; cash invested in growing crops; net cash value of life insurance; machinery and equipment; cars and trucks; farm and other real estate including life estates and personal residence; value of beneficial interest in trusts; government payments or grants; and any other assets.

"Department" means the Department of Agriculture.

"Director" means the Director of Agriculture.

"Fund" means the Illinois AgriFIRST Program Fund.

"Grantee" means the person or entity to whom a grant is made to from the Fund.

"Lender" means any federal or State chartered bank, federal land bank, production credit association, bank for cooperatives, federal or state chartered savings and loan association or building and loan association, small business investment company, or any other institution qualified within this State to originate and service loans, including, but not limited to, insurance companies, credit unions, and mortgage loan companies. "Lender" includes a wholly owned subsidiary of a manufacturer, seller or distributor of goods or services that makes loans to businesses or individuals, commonly known as a "captive finance company".

"Liability" includes, but is not limited to, the following: accounts payable; notes or other indebtedness owed to any source; taxes; rent; amounts owed on real estate contracts or real estate mortgages; judgments; accrued interest payable; and any other liability.

"Person" means, unless limited to a natural person by the context in which it is used, a person, corporation, association, trust, partnership, limited partnership, joint venture, or cooperative.

"State" means the State of Illinois.

"Value-added" means the processing, packaging, or otherwise enhancing the value of farm and agricultural products or by-products produced in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 92-346, eff. 8-14-01; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 630. The Illinois Fertilizer Act of 1961 is amended by changing Sections 3, 4, 6, and 12 as follows:

(505 ILCS 80/3) (from Ch. 5, par. 55.3)

Sec. 3. Definitions of words and terms. When used in this Act unless the context otherwise requires:

"AAPFCO" means the Association of American Plant Food Control Officials.

"Adulterated" shall apply to any fertilizer:

(i) that contains any deleterious or harmful substance, defined under the provisions of this Act or its rules or regulations, in sufficient amount to render it injurious to beneficial plant life, animals, humans, aquatic life, soil, or water when applied in accordance with directions for use on the label;

(ii) when its composition falls below or differs from that which it is purported to possess by its labeling;

(iii) that contains unwanted crop seed or weed seed.

"Anhydrous ammonia" means the compound formed by the combination of 2 gaseous elements, nitrogen and hydrogen, in the proportion of one part of nitrogen to 3 parts of hydrogen (NH₃) by volume. Anhydrous ammonia is a fertilizer of ammonia gas in compressed and liquified form. It is not aqueous ammonia which is a solution of ammonia gas in water and which is considered a low-pressure nitrogen solution.

"Blender" means any entity or system engaged in the business of blending fertilizer. This includes both mobile and fixed equipment, excluding application equipment, used to achieve this function.

"Blending" means the physical mixing or combining of: one or more fertilizer materials and one or more filler materials; 2 or more fertilizer materials; 2 or more fertilizer materials and filler materials, including mixing through the simultaneous or sequential application of any of the outlined combinations listed in this definition, to produce a uniform mixture.

"Brand" means a term, design, or trademark used in connection with one or several grades of fertilizers.

"Bulk" means any fertilizer distributed in a single container greater than 100 pounds.

"Consumer or end user" means the final purchaser prior to application.

"Custom blend" means a fertilizer blended according to specifications provided to a blender in a soil test nutrient recommendation or to meet the specific consumer request prior to blending.

"Custom blender" means any entity who produces and sells custom blended fertilizers.

"Deficiency" means the amount of nutrient found by analysis less than that guaranteed that may result from a lack of nutrient ingredients or from lack of uniformity.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Agriculture.

"Department rules or regulations" means any rule or regulation implemented by the Department as authorized under Section 14 of this Act.

"Director" means the Director of Agriculture or a duly authorized representative.

"Distribute" means to import, consign, manufacture, produce, store, transport, custom blend, compound, or blend fertilizer or to transfer from one container to another for the purpose of selling, giving away, bartering, or otherwise supplying fertilizer in this State.

"Distributor" means any entity that who distributes fertilizer.

"Entity" means any individual, partnership, association, firm, or corporation.

"Fertilizer" means any substance containing one or more of the recognized plant nutrient nitrogen, phosphate, potash, or those defined under 8 Ill. Adm. Code 210.20 that is used for its plant nutrient content and that is designed for use or claimed to have value in promoting plant growth, except unmanipulated animal and vegetable manures, sea solids, marl, lime, limestone, wood ashes, and other products exempted by regulation by the Director.

"Fertilizer material" means a fertilizer that either:

(A) contains important quantities of no more than one of the primary plant nutrients: nitrogen (N), phosphate (P₂O₅), and potash (K₂O);

(B) has 85% or more of its plant nutrient content present in the form of a single chemical compound; or

(C) is derived from a plant or animal residue or by-product or natural material deposit that has been processed in such a way that its content of plant nutrients has not been materially changed except by purification and concentration.

"Grade" means the minimum percentage of total nitrogen, available phosphate (P₂O₅), and soluble potash (K₂O) stated in the whole numbers in the same terms, order, and percentages as in the guaranteed analysis, provided that specialty fertilizers may be guaranteed in fractional units of less than 1% of total nitrogen, available phosphate, and soluble potash and that fertilizer materials, bone meal, manures, and similar materials may be guaranteed in fractional units.

"Guaranteed analysis" means the minimum percentages of plant nutrients claimed in the following order and form:

A. Total Nitrogen (N)...............................%

Available Phosphate (P₂O₅).......................%

Soluble Potash (K₂O).............................%

B. For unacidulated mineral phosphatic materials and basic slag, both total and available phosphate and the degree of fineness. For bone, tankage, and other organic phosphatic materials, total phosphate.

C. Guarantees for plant nutrients other than nitrogen, phosphate, and potash may be permitted or required by regulation by the Director. The guarantees for such other nutrients shall be expressed in the form of the element.

"Investigational allowance" means an allowance for variations inherent in the taking, preparation, and analysis of an official sample of fertilizer.

"Label" means the display of all written, printed, or graphic matter upon the immediate container or a statement accompanying a fertilizer.

"Labeling" means all (i) written, printed, or graphic matter upon or accompanying any fertilizer or (ii) advertisements, Internet, brochures, posters, and television and radio announcements used in promoting the sale of fertilizer.

"Lot" means an identifiable quantity of fertilizer that can be sampled according to AOAC International procedures, such as the amount contained in a single vehicle, the amount delivered under a single invoice, or in the case of bagged fertilizer, not more than 25 tons.

"Low-pressure nitrogen solution" means a solution containing 2 per cent or more by weight of free ammonia and/or having vapor pressure of 5 pounds or more per square inch gauge at 104 degrees Fahrenheit 104° F.

"Misbranded" shall apply to any fertilizer:

(i) with labeling that is false or misleading in any particular;

(ii) that is distributed under the name of another fertilizer product;

(iii) that is not labeled as required by this Act or its rules; or

(iv) that which purports to be or is represented as a fertilizer, or is represented as containing a plant nutrient or fertilizer unless such plant nutrient or fertilizer conforms to the definition of identity, if any, prescribed by regulation.

"Mixed fertilizer" means any combination or mixture of fertilizer materials designed for use or claimed to have value in promoting plant growth.

"NREC" means the Nutrient Research and Education Council.

"Official sample" means any sample of fertilizer taken by the Director or his or her agent and designated as official by the Director.

"Per cent" or "percentage" means the percentage by weight.

"Registrant" means the entity that who registers fertilizer and obtains a license under the provisions of this Act.

"Specialty fertilizer" means a fertilizer distributed primarily for nonfarm use, such as home gardens, lawns, shrubbery, flowers, golf courses, municipal parks, cemeteries, green houses and nurseries, and may include fertilizer used for research or experimental purposes.

"Ton" means a net weight of 2,000 pounds avoirdupois.

"Unit" means 20 pounds or 1% of a ton of plant nutrient.

(Source: P.A. 97-960, eff. 8-15-12; revised 11-18-13.)

(505 ILCS 80/4) (from Ch. 5, par. 55.4)

Sec. 4. License and product registration.

(a) Each brand and grade of fertilizer shall be registered by the entity whose name appears upon the label before being distributed in this State. The application for registration shall be submitted with a label or facsimile of same to the Director on forms furnished by the Director, and shall be accompanied by a fee of $20 per grade within a brand. Upon approval by the Director a copy of the registration shall be furnished to the applicant. All registrations expire on December 31 of each year.

The application shall include the following information:

(1) The net weight

(2) The brand and grade

(3) The guaranteed analysis

(4) The name and address of the registrant.

(a-5) No entity whose name appears on the label shall distribute a fertilizer in the State unless the entity has secured a license under this Act on forms provided by the Director. The license application shall be accompanied by a fee of $100. Entities that who store anhydrous ammonia as a fertilizer, store bulk fertilizer, or custom blend a fertilizer at more than one site under the same entity's name shall list any and all additional sites with a complete address for each site and remit a license fee of $50 for each site identified. Entities performing lawn care applications for hire are exempt from obtaining a license under this Act. All licenses expire on December 31 of each year.

(b) A distributor shall not be required to register any brand of fertilizer or a custom blend which is already registered under this Act by another entity.

(c) The plant nutrient content of each and every fertilizer must remain uniform for the period of registration and, in no case, shall the percentage of any guaranteed plant nutrient element be changed in such a manner that the crop-producing quality of the fertilizer is lowered.

(d) (Blank).

(e) A custom blend, as defined in Section 3, prepared for one consumer or end user shall not be co-mingled with the custom blended fertilizer prepared for another consumer or end user.

(f) All fees collected pursuant to this Section shall be paid to the Fertilizer Control Fund for activities related to the administration and enforcement of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-960, eff. 8-15-12; revised 11-18-13.)

(505 ILCS 80/6) (from Ch. 5, par. 55.6)

Sec. 6. Inspection fees.

(a) There shall be paid to the Director for all fertilizers distributed in this State an inspection fee at the rate of 25¢ per ton with a minimum inspection fee of $15. Sales or exchanges between registrants are hereby exempted from the inspection fee.

On individual packages of fertilizers containing 5 pounds or less, or if in liquid form containers of 4,000 cubic centimeters or less, there shall be paid instead of the 25¢ per ton inspection fee, an annual inspection fee of $50 for each grade within a brand sold or distributed. Where an entity sells fertilizers in packages of 5 pounds or less, or 4,000 cubic centimeters or less if in liquid form, and also sells in larger packages than 5 pounds or liquid containers larger than 4,000 cubic centimeters, this annual inspection fee of $50 applies only to that portion sold in packages of 5 pounds or less or 4,000 cubic centimeters or less, and that portion sold in larger packages or containers shall be subject to the same inspection fee of 25¢ per ton as provided in this Act.

(b) Every entity that who distributes a fertilizer, custom blend, or speciality fertilizer in this State shall file with the Director, on forms furnished by the Director, a semi-annual statement for the periods ending June 30 and December 31, setting forth the number of net tons of each grade of fertilizers within a brand or the net tons of custom blend distributed. The report shall be due on or before the 30th day of the month following the close of each semi-annual period and upon the statement shall pay the inspection fee at the rate stated in paragraph (a) of this Section.

If the tonnage report is not filed and the payment of inspection fee is not made within 30 days after the end of the semi-annual period, a collection fee amounting to 15% (minimum $15) of the amount shall be assessed against the registrant. The amount of fees due shall constitute a debt and become the basis of a judgment against the registrant. Upon the written request to the Director additional time may be granted past the normal date of filing the semi-annual statement.

(c) When more than one entity is involved in the distribution of a fertilizer, the last registrant who distributes to the consumer or end user end-user is responsible for reporting the tonnage and paying the inspection fee.

(d) All fees collected under this Section shall be paid to the Fertilizer Control Fund for activities related to the administration and enforcement of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-960, eff. 8-15-12; revised 11-18-13.)

(505 ILCS 80/12) (from Ch. 5, par. 55.12)

Sec. 12. Tonnage reports; records.

(a) Any entity distributing fertilizer to a consumer or end user end-user in this State shall provide the Director with a summary report on or before the 10th day of each month covering the shipments made during the preceding month of tonnage on a form, provided by the Director, for that purpose.

Specialty fertilizer sold in packages weighing 5 pounds or less or in container of 4000 cubic centimeters or less, shall be reported but no inspection fee will be charged. No information furnished under this Section shall be disclosed by the Department in such a way as to divulge the operation of any entity.

(b) Each entity location engaged in the sale of ammonium nitrate shall obtain the following information upon its distribution:

(1) the date of distribution;

(2) the quantity purchased;

(3) the license number of the purchaser's valid State or federal driver's license, or an equivalent number taken from another form of picture identification approved for purchaser identification by the Director; and

(4) the purchaser's name, current physical address, and telephone number.

Any retailer of ammonium nitrate may refuse to sell ammonium nitrate to any person attempting to purchase ammonium nitrate (i) out of season, (ii) in unusual quantities, or (iii) under suspect purchase patterns.

(c) Records created under subsection (b) of this Section shall be maintained for a minimum of 2 years. Such records shall be available for inspection, copying, and audit by the Department as provided under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-960, eff. 8-15-12; revised 11-18-13.)

Section 635. The Animal Control Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(510 ILCS 5/2) (from Ch. 8, par. 352)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the terms specified in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 3 Sections 2.01 through 2.19 have the meanings ascribed to them in those Sections.

(Source: P.A. 78-795; revised 11-18-13.)

Section 640. The Bees and Apiaries Act is amended by changing Section 2-1 as follows:

(510 ILCS 20/2-1)

Sec. 2-1. Nuisances. All bees, colonies, or items of bee equipment, where bee diseases, bee parasites or exotic strains of bees exist; or hives that cannot be readily inspected; or colonies that are not registered, are declared to be nuisances to be regulated as prescribed by the Department.

If the Department finds by inspection that any person is maintaining a nuisance as described in this Section, it shall proceed to regulate the nuisance by methods or procedures deemed necessary for control in accordance with rules and regulations of the Department.

If the owner or beekeeper cannot be found or will not consent to the terms for regulation of the nuisance, the Department shall notify in writing the owner or beekeeper, disclose the fact that a nuisance exists, exits and prescribe the method by which the nuisance may be abated. The notice declaring that a nuisance exists and ordering its abatement shall include:

(1) a statement of conditions constituting the nuisance;

(2) establishment of the time period within which the nuisance is to be abated;

(3) directions, written or printed, pointing out the methods that shall be employed to abate the nuisance;

(4) a statement of the consequences should the owner or beekeeper fail to comply.

The notice may be served personally or by certified mail with a return receipt requested. The directions for abatement of a nuisance may consist of a printed circular, bulletin or report of the Department, the United States Department of Agriculture or others, or an extract from such document.

If the person so notified refuses or fails to abate the nuisance in the manner and in the time prescribed in the notice, the Department may cause the nuisance to be abated. The Department shall certify, to the owner or beekeeper, the cost of the abatement. The owner or beekeeper shall pay to the Department any costs of that action, within 60 days after certification that the nuisance has been abated. If the costs of abatement are not remitted, the Department may recover the costs before any court in the State having competent jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 88-138; revised 11-19-13.)

Section 645. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Sections 1.2 and 2.33 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/1.2) (from Ch. 61, par. 1.2)

Sec. 1.2. This Act shall be administered by and under the direction of the Department of Natural Resources. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the terms specified in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 1.3 Sections 1.2a through 1.2t have the meanings ascribed to them in those Sections.

(Source: P.A. 89-445, eff. 2-7-96; revised 11-19-13.)

(520 ILCS 5/2.33) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.33)

Sec. 2.33. Prohibitions.

(a) It is unlawful to carry or possess any gun in any State refuge unless otherwise permitted by administrative rule.

(b) It is unlawful to use or possess any snare or snare-like device, deadfall, net, or pit trap to take any species, except that snares not powered by springs or other mechanical devices may be used to trap fur-bearing mammals, in water sets only, if at least one-half of the snare noose is located underwater at all times.

(c) It is unlawful for any person at any time to take a wild mammal protected by this Act from its den by means of any mechanical device, spade, or digging device or to use smoke or other gases to dislodge or remove such mammal except as provided in Section 2.37.

(d) It is unlawful to use a ferret or any other small mammal which is used in the same or similar manner for which ferrets are used for the purpose of frightening or driving any mammals from their dens or hiding places.

(e) (Blank).

(f) It is unlawful to use spears, gigs, hooks or any like device to take any species protected by this Act.

(g) It is unlawful to use poisons, chemicals or explosives for the purpose of taking any species protected by this Act.

(h) It is unlawful to hunt adjacent to or near any peat, grass, brush or other inflammable substance when it is burning.

(i) It is unlawful to take, pursue or intentionally harass or disturb in any manner any wild birds or mammals by use or aid of any vehicle or conveyance, except as permitted by the Code of Federal Regulations for the taking of waterfowl. It is also unlawful to use the lights of any vehicle or conveyance or any light from or any light connected to the vehicle or conveyance in any area where wildlife may be found except in accordance with Section 2.37 of this Act; however, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the normal use of headlamps for the purpose of driving upon a roadway. Striped skunk, opossum, red fox, gray fox, raccoon and coyote may be taken during the open season by use of a small light which is worn on the body or hand-held by a person on foot and not in any vehicle.

(j) It is unlawful to use any shotgun larger than 10 gauge while taking or attempting to take any of the species protected by this Act.

(k) It is unlawful to use or possess in the field any shotgun shell loaded with a shot size larger than lead BB or steel T (.20 diameter) when taking or attempting to take any species of wild game mammals (excluding white-tailed deer), wild game birds, migratory waterfowl or migratory game birds protected by this Act, except white-tailed deer as provided for in Section 2.26 and other species as provided for by subsection (l) or administrative rule.

(l) It is unlawful to take any species of wild game, except white-tailed deer and fur-bearing mammals, with a shotgun loaded with slugs unless otherwise provided for by administrative rule.

(m) It is unlawful to use any shotgun capable of holding more than 3 shells in the magazine or chamber combined, except on game breeding and hunting preserve areas licensed under Section 3.27 and except as permitted by the Code of Federal Regulations for the taking of waterfowl. If the shotgun is capable of holding more than 3 shells, it shall, while being used on an area other than a game breeding and shooting preserve area licensed pursuant to Section 3.27, be fitted with a one piece plug that is irremovable without dismantling the shotgun or otherwise altered to render it incapable of holding more than 3 shells in the magazine and chamber, combined.

(n) It is unlawful for any person, except persons who possess a permit to hunt from a vehicle as provided in this Section and persons otherwise permitted by law, to have or carry any gun in or on any vehicle, conveyance or aircraft, unless such gun is unloaded and enclosed in a case, except that at field trials authorized by Section 2.34 of this Act, unloaded guns or guns loaded with blank cartridges only, may be carried on horseback while not contained in a case, or to have or carry any bow or arrow device in or on any vehicle unless such bow or arrow device is unstrung or enclosed in a case, or otherwise made inoperable.

(o) It is unlawful to use any crossbow for the purpose of taking any wild birds or mammals, except as provided for in Section 2.5.

(p) It is unlawful to take game birds, migratory game birds or migratory waterfowl with a rifle, pistol, revolver or airgun.

(q) It is unlawful to fire a rifle, pistol, revolver or airgun on, over or into any waters of this State, including frozen waters.

(r) It is unlawful to discharge any gun or bow and arrow device along, upon, across, or from any public right-of-way or highway in this State.

(s) It is unlawful to use a silencer or other device to muffle or mute the sound of the explosion or report resulting from the firing of any gun.

(t) It is unlawful for any person to take or attempt to take any species of wildlife or parts thereof, intentionally or wantonly allow a dog to hunt, within or upon the land of another, or upon waters flowing over or standing on the land of another, or to knowingly shoot a gun or bow and arrow device at any wildlife physically on or flying over the property of another without first obtaining permission from the owner or the owner's designee. For the purposes of this Section, the owner's designee means anyone who the owner designates in a written authorization and the authorization must contain (i) the legal or common description of property for such authority is given, (ii) the extent that the owner's designee is authorized to make decisions regarding who is allowed to take or attempt to take any species of wildlife or parts thereof, and (iii) the owner's notarized signature. Before enforcing this Section the law enforcement officer must have received notice from the owner or the owner's designee of a violation of this Section. Statements made to the law enforcement officer regarding this notice shall not be rendered inadmissible by the hearsay rule when offered for the purpose of showing the required notice.

(u) It is unlawful for any person to discharge any firearm for the purpose of taking any of the species protected by this Act, or hunt with gun or dog, or intentionally or wantonly allow a dog to hunt, within 300 yards of an inhabited dwelling without first obtaining permission from the owner or tenant, except that while trapping, hunting with bow and arrow, hunting with dog and shotgun using shot shells only, or hunting with shotgun using shot shells only, or on licensed game breeding and hunting preserve areas, as defined in Section 3.27, on property operated under a Migratory Waterfowl Hunting Area Permit, on federally owned and managed lands and on Department owned, managed, leased or controlled lands, a 100 yard restriction shall apply.

(v) It is unlawful for any person to remove fur-bearing mammals from, or to move or disturb in any manner, the traps owned by another person without written authorization of the owner to do so.

(w) It is unlawful for any owner of a dog to knowingly or wantonly allow his or her dog to pursue, harass or kill deer, except that nothing in this Section shall prohibit the tracking of wounded deer with a dog in accordance with the provisions of Section 2.26 of this Code.

(x) It is unlawful for any person to wantonly or carelessly injure or destroy, in any manner whatsoever, any real or personal property on the land of another while engaged in hunting or trapping thereon.

(y) It is unlawful to hunt wild game protected by this Act between one half hour after sunset and one half hour before sunrise, except that hunting hours between one half hour after sunset and one half hour before sunrise may be established by administrative rule for fur-bearing mammals.

(z) It is unlawful to take any game bird (excluding wild turkeys and crippled pheasants not capable of normal flight and otherwise irretrievable) protected by this Act when not flying. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a person from carrying an uncased, unloaded shotgun in a boat, while in pursuit of a crippled migratory waterfowl that is incapable of normal flight, for the purpose of attempting to reduce the migratory waterfowl to possession, provided that the attempt is made immediately upon downing the migratory waterfowl and is done within 400 yards of the blind from which the migratory waterfowl was downed. This exception shall apply only to migratory game birds that are not capable of normal flight. Migratory waterfowl that are crippled may be taken only with a shotgun as regulated by subsection (j) of this Section using shotgun shells as regulated in subsection (k) of this Section.

(aa) It is unlawful to use or possess any device that may be used for tree climbing or cutting, while hunting fur-bearing mammals, excluding coyotes.

(bb) It is unlawful for any person, except licensed game breeders, pursuant to Section 2.29 to import, carry into, or possess alive in this State any species of wildlife taken outside of this State, without obtaining permission to do so from the Director.

(cc) It is unlawful for any person to have in his or her possession any freshly killed species protected by this Act during the season closed for taking.

(dd) It is unlawful to take any species protected by this Act and retain it alive except as provided by administrative rule.

(ee) It is unlawful to possess any rifle while in the field during gun deer season except as provided in Section 2.26 and administrative rules.

(ff) It is unlawful for any person to take any species protected by this Act, except migratory waterfowl, during the gun deer hunting season in those counties open to gun deer hunting, unless he or she wears, when in the field, a cap and upper outer garment of a solid blaze orange color, with such articles of clothing displaying a minimum of 400 square inches of blaze orange material.

(gg) It is unlawful during the upland game season for any person to take upland game with a firearm unless he or she wears, while in the field, a cap of solid blaze orange color. For purposes of this Act, upland game is defined as Bobwhite Quail, Hungarian Partridge, Ring-necked Pheasant, Eastern Cottontail and Swamp Rabbit.

(hh) It shall be unlawful to kill or cripple any species protected by this Act for which there is a bag limit without making a reasonable effort to retrieve such species and include such in the bag limit. It shall be unlawful for any person having control over harvested game mammals, game birds, or migratory game birds for which there is a bag limit to wantonly waste or destroy the usable meat of the game, except this shall not apply to wildlife taken under Sections 2.37 or 3.22 of this Code. For purposes of this subsection, "usable meat" means the breast meat of a game bird or migratory game bird and the hind ham and front shoulders of a game mammal. It shall be unlawful for any person to place, leave, dump, or abandon a wildlife carcass or parts of it along or upon a public right-of-way or highway or on public or private property, including a waterway or stream, without the permission of the owner or tenant. It shall not be unlawful to discard game meat that is determined to be unfit for human consumption.

(ii) This Section shall apply only to those species protected by this Act taken within the State. Any species or any parts thereof, legally taken in and transported from other states or countries, may be possessed within the State, except as provided in this Section and Sections 2.35, 2.36 and 3.21.

(jj) (Blank).

(kk) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit the Director from issuing permits to paraplegics or to other disabled persons who meet the requirements set forth in administrative rule to shoot or hunt from a vehicle as provided by that rule, provided that such is otherwise in accord with this Act.

(ll) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the taking of aquatic life protected by the Fish and Aquatic Life Code or birds and mammals protected by this Act, except deer and fur-bearing mammals, from a boat not camouflaged or disguised to alter its identity or to further provide a place of concealment and not propelled by sail or mechanical power. However, only shotguns not larger than 10 gauge nor smaller than .410 bore loaded with not more than 3 shells of a shot size no larger than lead BB or steel T (.20 diameter) may be used to take species protected by this Act.

(mm) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the use of a shotgun, not larger than 10 gauge nor smaller than a 20 gauge, with a rifled barrel.

(nn) It shall be unlawful to possess any species of wildlife or wildlife parts taken unlawfully in Illinois, any other state, or any other country, whether or not the wildlife or wildlife parts is indigenous to Illinois. For the purposes of this subsection, the statute of limitations for unlawful possession of wildlife or wildlife parts shall not cease until 2 years after the possession has permanently ended.

(Source: P.A. 97-645, eff. 12-30-11; 97-907, eff. 8-7-12; 98-119, eff. 1-1-14; 98-181, eff. 8-5-13; 98-183, eff. 1-1-14; 98-290, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 650. The Open Space Lands Acquisition and Development Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(525 ILCS 35/3) (from Ch. 85, par. 2103)

Sec. 3. From appropriations made from the Capital Development Fund, Build Illinois Bond Fund or other available or designated funds for such purposes, the Department shall make grants to local governments as financial assistance for the capital development and improvement of park, recreation or conservation areas, marinas and shorelines, including planning and engineering costs, and for the acquisition of open space lands, including acquisition of easements and other property interests less than fee simple ownership if the Department determines that such property interests are sufficient to carry out the purposes of this Act, subject to the conditions and limitations set forth in this Act.

No more than 10% of the amount so appropriated for any fiscal year may be committed or expended on any one project described in an application under this Act.

Any grant under this Act to a local government shall be conditioned upon the state providing assistance on a 50/50 matching basis for the acquisition of open space lands and for capital development and improvement proposals. However, a local government defined as "distressed" under criteria adopted by the Department through administrative rule shall be eligible for assistance up to 90% for the acquisition of open space lands and for capital development and improvement proposals, provided that no more than 10% of the amount appropriated under this Act in any fiscal year is made available as grants to distressed local governments.

A minimum of 50% of any grant made to a unit of local government under this Act must be paid to the unit of local government at the time the Department awards the grant. The remainder of the grant shall be distributed to the local government quarterly on a reimbursement basis.

(Source: P.A. 98-326, eff. 8-12-13; 98-520, eff. 8-23-13; revised 9-19-13.)

Section 655. The Illinois Highway Code is amended by renumbering Section 223 as follows:

(605 ILCS 5/4-223)

Sec. 4-223 223. Electric vehicle charging stations. By January 1, 2016 or as soon thereafter as possible, the Department may provide for at least one electric vehicle charging station at each Interstate highway rest area where electrical service will reasonably permit and if these stations and charging user fees at these stations are allowed by federal regulations.

The Department may adopt and publish specifications detailing the kind and type of electric vehicle charging station to be provided and may adopt rules governing the place of erection, user fees, and maintenance of electric vehicle charging stations.

(Source: P.A. 98-442, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-17-13.)

Section 660. The Illinois Aeronautics Act is amended by changing Section 43d as follows:

(620 ILCS 5/43d) (from Ch. 15 1/2, par. 22.43d)

Sec. 43d. Intoxicated persons in or about aircraft.

(a) No person shall:

(1) Operate or attempt to operate any aircraft in this State while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any narcotic drug or other controlled substance.

(2) Knowingly permit any individual who is under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any narcotic drug or other controlled substance to operate any aircraft owned by the person or in his custody or control.

(3) Perform any act in connection with the maintenance or operation of any aircraft when under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any narcotic drug or other controlled substance, except medication prescribed by a physician which will not render the person incapable of performing his duties safely.

(4) (i) Consume alcoholic liquor within 8 hours prior to operating or acting as a crew member of any aircraft within this State.

(ii) Act as a crew member of any aircraft within this State while under the influence of alcohol or when the alcohol concentration in the person's blood or breath is 0.04 or more based on the definition of blood and breath units contained in Section 11-501.2 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(iii) Operate any aircraft within this State when the alcohol concentration in the person's blood or breath is 0.04 or more based on the definition of blood and breath units contained in Section 11-501.2 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(iv) Operate or act as a crew member of any aircraft within this State when there is any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's blood or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act or a controlled substance as listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Substance Act.

(5) Knowingly consume while a crew member of any aircraft any intoxicating liquor, narcotic drug, or other controlled substance while the aircraft is in operation.

(b) Any person who violates clause (4)(i) of subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A person who violates paragraph (2), (3), or (5) or clause (4)(ii) of subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person who violates paragraph (1) or clause (4)(iii) or (4)(iv) of subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 92-517, eff. 6-1-02; revised 11-19-13.)

Section 665. The County Airport Law of 1943 is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(620 ILCS 45/6) (from Ch. 15 1/2, par. 89)

Sec. 6. The directors shall, immediately after appointment, meet and organize by the election of one of their number as president and one as secretary, and by the election of such other officers as they may deem necessary. They shall make and adopt such by-laws, rules and regulations for their own guidance and for the government of the airport and landing field, buildings, equipment and other facilities or activities and institutions connected therewith as may be expedient, not inconsistent with the "Illinois Aeronautics Act", as now or hereafter amended or supplemented, or any rule, ruling, regulation, order or decision of the Department of Transportation of this State. They shall have the exclusive control of the expenditure of all moneys collected to the credit of the Airport Fund, and of the construction of any airport, building, landing strips or other facilities connected therewith, or auxiliary institutions or activities in connection therewith, and of the supervision, care and custody of the grounds, buildings and facilities constructed, leased, or set apart for that purpose: Provided, that all moneys received for such airport with the exception of moneys the title to which rests in the Board of Directors in accordance with Section 9, shall be deposited in the treasury of the county to the credit of the Airport fund and shall not be used for any other purpose, and shall be drawn upon by the proper officers of the county upon the properly authenticated vouchers of the Board of Directors. The Board of Directors may purchase or lease ground within the limits of such county, and occupy, lease or erect an appropriate building or buildings for the use of the airport, auxiliary institutions and activities connected therewith: Provided, however, that no such building, landing strips or other facilities shall be constructed or erected until detailed plans therefor shall have been submitted to and approved by the Department of Transportation of this State. The Board of Directors may appoint suitable managers, assistants and employees and fix their compensation by resolution duly adopted, and may also remove such appointees, and shall carry out the spirit and intent of this Act in establishing and maintaining an airport and landing field.

The Board of Directors shall, in addition to the powers set forth in this Act, specifically have the powers designated as follows:

1. To locate, establish and maintain an airport and airport facilities within the area of its jurisdiction, and to develop, expand, extend and improve any such airport or airport facility.

2. To acquire land, rights in and over land and easements upon, over or across land, and leasehold interests in land, and tangible and intangible personal property, used or useful for the location, establishment, maintenance, development, expansion, extension or improvement of any such airport or airport facility. Such acquisition may be by dedication, purchase, gift, agreement, lease, or by user or adverse possession or condemnation. In the determination of the compensation to be paid in any condemnation proceeding under this subsection involving property or facilities used in agriculture, commerce, industry or trade there shall be included not only the value of the property and facilities affected and the cost of any changes in or relocation of such property and facilities but also compensation for any loss occasioned in the operation thereof.

3. To operate, manage, lease, sublease, and to make and enter into contracts for the use, operation or management of, and to provide rules and regulations for the operation, management or use of any such airport or airport facility.

4. To fix, charge and collect rentals, tolls, fees and charges for the use of any such airport, or any part thereof, or any such airport facility, and to grant privileges within any airport or structure therein or any part thereof, and to charge and collect compensation for such privileges and to lease any building or structure or any part thereof to private or public concerns or corporations in connection with the use and operation of such airport and to enter into contracts or agreements permitting private or public concerns to erect and build structures for airport purposes and purposes auxiliary thereto and connected therewith, on such terms and conditions as the directors deem expedient and in the public interest; provided, that no such structure may be erected by any public or private concern or corporation pursuant to such agreement until the plans and specifications therefor shall have been submitted to and approved by the Department of Transportation of this State.

5. To establish, maintain, extend and improve roadways and approaches by land, water or air to any such airport.

6. To contract or otherwise to provide by condemnation if necessary for the removal or relocation of all private structures, railways, mains, pipes, conduits, wires, poles and all other facilities and equipment which may interfere with the location, expansion, development, or improvement of airports or with the safe approach thereto or takeoff therefrom by aircraft, and to assume any obligation and pay any expense incidental to such removal or relocation.

7. Within territory two miles from any airport or landing field, as measured at a right angle from any side, or in a radial line from the corner of any established boundary line thereof, to enter into contracts for a term of years or permanently with the owners of such land to restrict the height of any structure upon the relationship of one foot of height to each twenty feet of distance from the boundary line, upon such terms and conditions and for the such consideration as the Board of Directors deems equitable; and to adopt, administer and enforce airport zoning regulations for and within the county and within any territory which extends not more than 2 miles beyond the boundaries of any Airport under the control of the Board of Directors.

8. To borrow money and to issue bonds, notes, certificates or other evidences of indebtedness for the purpose of accomplishing any of the corporate purposes, subject, however, to compliance with the conditions or limitations of this Act or otherwise provided by the constitution or laws of the State of Illinois.

9. To employ or enter into contracts for the employment of any person, firm or corporation, and for professional services, necessary or desirable for the accomplishment of the objects of the Board of Directors or the proper administration, management, protection or control of its property.

10. To police its property and to exercise police powers in respect thereto or in respect to the enforcement of any rule or regulation provided by the resolutions of the Board of Directors and to employ and commission police officers and other qualified persons to enforce the same.

Nothing in this section or in other provisions of this Act shall be construed to authorize the Board of Directors to establish or enforce any regulation or rule in respect to aviation or the operation or maintenance of any airport or any airport facility within its jurisdiction which is in conflict with any federal or state law or regulation applicable to the same subject matter.

This section is subject to the "Illinois Aeronautics Act", as now or hereafter amended or supplemented, or any rule, ruling, regulation, order or decision of the Department of Transportation of this State.

The Federal Government or any department or agency thereof, the State of Illinois or any department or agency thereof, or any political subdivision of the State of Illinois and any public or private aircraft shall be permitted to use any airport facility subject to the regulation and control of, and upon such terms and conditions as shall be established by the Board of Directors.

(Source: P.A. 81-840; revised 11-19-13.)

Section 670. The Public-Private Agreements for the South Suburban Airport Act is amended by changing Section 2-35 as follows:

(620 ILCS 75/2-35)

Sec. 2-35. Provisions of the public-private agreement.

(a) The public-private agreement shall include all of the following:

(1) the term of the public-private agreement that is consistent with Section 2-20 of this Act;

(2) the powers, duties, responsibilities, obligations, and functions of the Department and the contractor;

(3) compensation or payments to the Department;

(4) compensation or payments to the contractor;

(5) a provision specifying that the Department has:

(A) ready access to information regarding the contractor's powers, duties, responsibilities, obligations, and functions under the public-private agreement;

(B) the right to demand and receive information from the contractor concerning any aspect of the contractor's powers, duties, responsibilities, obligations, and functions under the public-private agreement; and

(C) the authority to direct or countermand decisions by the contractor at any time;

(6) a provision imposing an affirmative duty on the contractor to provide the Department with any information the Department reasonably would want to know or would need to know to enable the Department to exercise its powers, carry out its duties, responsibilities, and obligations, and perform its functions under this Act or the public-private agreement or as otherwise required by law;

(7) a provision requiring the contractor to provide the Department with advance written notice of any decision that bears significantly on the public interest so the Department has a reasonable opportunity to evaluate and countermand that decision under this Section;

(8) a requirement that the Department monitor and oversee the contractor's practices and take action that the Department considers appropriate to ensure that the contractor is in compliance with the terms of the public-private agreement;

(9) the authority of the Department to enter into contracts with third parties pursuant to Section 2-65 of this Act;

(10) a provision governing the contractor's authority to negotiate and execute subcontracts with third parties;

(11) the authority of the contractor to impose user fees and the amounts of those fees;

(12) a provision governing the deposit and allocation of revenues including user fees;

(13) a provision governing rights to real and personal property of the State, the Department, the contractor, and other third parties;

(14) a provision stating that the contractor shall, pursuant to Section 2-85 of this Act, pay the costs of an independent audit if the construction costs under the contract exceed $50,000,000;

(15) a provision regarding the implementation and delivery of a comprehensive system of internal audits;

(16) a provision regarding the implementation and delivery of reports, which shall include a requirement that the contractor file with the Department, at least on an annual basis, financial statements containing information required by generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP);

(17) procedural requirements for obtaining the prior approval of the Department when rights that are the subject of the agreement, including, but not limited to development rights, construction rights, property rights, and rights to certain revenues, are sold, assigned, transferred, or pledged as collateral to secure financing or for any other reason;

(18) grounds for termination of the agreement by the Department or the contractor and a restatement of the Department's rights under Section 2-45 of this Act;

(19) a requirement that the contractor enter into a project labor agreement under Section 2-120 of this Act;

(20) a provision stating that construction contractors shall comply with Section 2-120 of this Act;

(21) timelines, deadlines, and scheduling;

(22) review of plans, including development, financing, construction, management, operations, or maintenance plans, by the Department;

(23) a provision regarding inspections by the Department, including inspections of construction work and improvements;

(24) rights and remedies of the Department in the event that the contractor defaults or otherwise fails to comply with the terms of the public-private agreement;

(25) a code of ethics for the contractor's officers and employees; and

(26) procedures for amendment to the agreement.

(b) The public-private agreement may include any or all of the following:

(1) a provision regarding the extension of the agreement that is consistent with Section 2-20 of this Act;

(2) provisions leasing to the contractor all or any portion of the South Suburban Airport, provided that the lease may not extend beyond the term of the public-private agreement; .

(3) cash reserves requirements;

(4) delivery of performance and payment bonds or other performance security in a form and amount that is satisfactory to the Department;

(5) maintenance of public liability insurance;

(6) maintenance of self-insurance;

(7) provisions governing grants and loans, pursuant to which the Department may agree to make grants or loans for the development, financing, construction, management, or operation of the South Suburban Airport project from time to time from amounts received from the federal government or any agency or instrumentality of the federal government or from any State or local agency;

(8) reimbursements to the Department for work performed and goods, services, and equipment provided by the Department;

(9) provisions allowing the Department to submit any contractual disputes with the contractor relating to the public-private agreement to non-binding alternative dispute resolution proceedings; and

(10) any other terms, conditions, and provisions acceptable to the Department that the Department deems necessary and proper and in the public interest.

(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; revised 11-19-13.)

Section 675. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 1-105, 2-119, 3-918, 5-301, 6-103, 6-106, 6-108, 6-118, 6-201, 6-206, 6-303, 6-508, 6-514, 11-208, 11-208.7, 11-501, 11-709.2, 12-215, 12-610.2, and 15-111 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 3-699 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/1-105) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-105)

Sec. 1-105. Authorized emergency vehicle. Emergency vehicles of municipal departments or public service corporations as are designated or authorized by proper local authorities; police vehicles; vehicles of the fire department; vehicles of a HazMat or technical rescue team authorized by a county board under Section 5-1127 of the Counties Code; ambulances; vehicles of the Illinois Department of Corrections; vehicles of the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice; vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency; vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal; mine rescue and explosives emergency response vehicles of the Department of Natural Resources; vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public Health; vehicles of the Illinois Department of Transportation identified as Emergency Traffic Patrol; and vehicles of a municipal or county emergency services and disaster agency, as defined by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-149, eff. 7-14-11; 97-333, eff. 7-12-11; 98-123, eff. 1-1-14; 98-468, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/2-119) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 2-119)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-176)

Sec. 2-119. Disposition of fees and taxes.

(a) All moneys received from Salvage Certificates shall be deposited in the Common School Fund in the State Treasury.

(b) Beginning January 1, 1990 and concluding December 31, 1994, of the money collected for each certificate of title, duplicate certificate of title and corrected certificate of title, $0.50 shall be deposited into the Used Tire Management Fund. Beginning January 1, 1990 and concluding December 31, 1994, of the money collected for each certificate of title, duplicate certificate of title and corrected certificate of title, $1.50 shall be deposited in the Park and Conservation Fund.

Beginning January 1, 1995, of the money collected for each certificate of title, duplicate certificate of title and corrected certificate of title, $3.25 shall be deposited in the Park and Conservation Fund. The moneys deposited in the Park and Conservation Fund pursuant to this Section shall be used for the acquisition and development of bike paths as provided for in Section 805-420 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law (20 ILCS 805/805-420). The monies deposited into the Park and Conservation Fund under this subsection shall not be subject to administrative charges or chargebacks unless otherwise authorized by this Act.

Beginning January 1, 2000, of the moneys collected for each certificate of title, duplicate certificate of title, and corrected certificate of title, $48 shall be deposited into the Road Fund and $4 shall be deposited into the Motor Vehicle License Plate Fund, except that if the balance in the Motor Vehicle License Plate Fund exceeds $40,000,000 on the last day of a calendar month, then during the next calendar month the $4 shall instead be deposited into the Road Fund.

Beginning January 1, 2005, of the moneys collected for each delinquent vehicle registration renewal fee, $20 shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

Except as otherwise provided in this Code, all remaining moneys collected for certificates of title, and all moneys collected for filing of security interests, shall be placed in the General Revenue Fund in the State Treasury.

(c) All moneys collected for that portion of a driver's license fee designated for driver education under Section 6-118 shall be placed in the Driver Education Fund in the State Treasury.

(d) Beginning January 1, 1999, of the monies collected as a registration fee for each motorcycle, motor driven cycle and moped, 27% of each annual registration fee for such vehicle and 27% of each semiannual registration fee for such vehicle is deposited in the Cycle Rider Safety Training Fund.

(e) Of the monies received by the Secretary of State as registration fees or taxes or as payment of any other fee, as provided in this Act, except fees received by the Secretary under paragraph (7) of subsection (b) of Section 5-101 and Section 5-109 of this Code, 37% shall be deposited into the State Construction Account Fund.

(f) Of the total money collected for a CDL instruction permit or original or renewal issuance of a commercial driver's license (CDL) pursuant to the Uniform Commercial Driver's License Act (UCDLA): (i) $6 of the total fee for an original or renewal CDL, and $6 of the total CDL instruction permit fee when such permit is issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license, shall be paid into the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund (Commercial Driver's License Information System/American Association of Motor Vehicle Administrators network/National Motor Vehicle Title Information Service Trust Fund) and shall be used for the purposes provided in Section 6z-23 of the State Finance Act and (ii) $20 of the total fee for an original or renewal CDL or commercial driver instruction permit shall be paid into the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund, which is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury, to be used by the Department of State Police, subject to appropriation, to hire additional officers to conduct motor carrier safety inspections pursuant to Chapter 18b of this Code.

(g) All remaining moneys received by the Secretary of State as registration fees or taxes or as payment of any other fee, as provided in this Act, except fees received by the Secretary under paragraph (7)(A) of subsection (b) of Section 5-101 and Section 5-109 of this Code, shall be deposited in the Road Fund in the State Treasury. Moneys in the Road Fund shall be used for the purposes provided in Section 8.3 of the State Finance Act.

(h) (Blank).

(i) (Blank).

(j) (Blank).

(k) There is created in the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund. Money deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the Secretary of State (i) to help defray plate manufacturing and plate processing costs for the issuance and, when applicable, renewal of any new or existing registration plates authorized under this Code and (ii) for grants made by the Secretary of State to benefit Illinois Veterans Home libraries.

On or before October 1, 1995, the Secretary of State shall direct the State Comptroller and State Treasurer to transfer any unexpended balance in the Special Environmental License Plate Fund, the Special Korean War Veteran License Plate Fund, and the Retired Congressional License Plate Fund to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(l) The Motor Vehicle Review Board Fund is created as a special fund in the State Treasury. Moneys deposited into the Fund under paragraph (7) of subsection (b) of Section 5-101 and Section 5-109 shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the Secretary of State to administer the Motor Vehicle Review Board, including without limitation payment of compensation and all necessary expenses incurred in administering the Motor Vehicle Review Board under the Motor Vehicle Franchise Act.

(m) Effective July 1, 1996, there is created in the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the Family Responsibility Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the Secretary of State for the purpose of enforcing the Family Financial Responsibility Law.

(n) The Illinois Fire Fighters' Memorial Fund is created as a special fund in the State Treasury. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the State Fire Marshal for construction of the Illinois Fire Fighters' Memorial to be located at the State Capitol grounds in Springfield, Illinois. Upon the completion of the Memorial, moneys in the Fund shall be used in accordance with Section 3-634.

(o) Of the money collected for each certificate of title for all-terrain vehicles and off-highway motorcycles, $17 shall be deposited into the Off-Highway Vehicle Trails Fund.

(p) For audits conducted on or after July 1, 2003 pursuant to Section 2-124(d) of this Code, 50% of the money collected as audit fees shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13; 98-177, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-176)

Sec. 2-119. Disposition of fees and taxes.

(a) All moneys received from Salvage Certificates shall be deposited in the Common School Fund in the State Treasury.

(b) Beginning January 1, 1990 and concluding December 31, 1994, of the money collected for each certificate of title, duplicate certificate of title and corrected certificate of title, $0.50 shall be deposited into the Used Tire Management Fund. Beginning January 1, 1990 and concluding December 31, 1994, of the money collected for each certificate of title, duplicate certificate of title and corrected certificate of title, $1.50 shall be deposited in the Park and Conservation Fund.

Beginning January 1, 1995, of the money collected for each certificate of title, duplicate certificate of title and corrected certificate of title, $3.25 shall be deposited in the Park and Conservation Fund. The moneys deposited in the Park and Conservation Fund pursuant to this Section shall be used for the acquisition and development of bike paths as provided for in Section 805-420 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law (20 ILCS 805/805-420). The monies deposited into the Park and Conservation Fund under this subsection shall not be subject to administrative charges or chargebacks unless otherwise authorized by this Act.

Beginning January 1, 2000, of the moneys collected for each certificate of title, duplicate certificate of title, and corrected certificate of title, $48 shall be deposited into the Road Fund and $4 shall be deposited into the Motor Vehicle License Plate Fund, except that if the balance in the Motor Vehicle License Plate Fund exceeds $40,000,000 on the last day of a calendar month, then during the next calendar month the $4 shall instead be deposited into the Road Fund.

Beginning January 1, 2005, of the moneys collected for each delinquent vehicle registration renewal fee, $20 shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

Except as otherwise provided in this Code, all remaining moneys collected for certificates of title, and all moneys collected for filing of security interests, shall be placed in the General Revenue Fund in the State Treasury.

(c) All moneys collected for that portion of a driver's license fee designated for driver education under Section 6-118 shall be placed in the Driver Education Fund in the State Treasury.

(d) Beginning January 1, 1999, of the monies collected as a registration fee for each motorcycle, motor driven cycle and moped, 27% of each annual registration fee for such vehicle and 27% of each semiannual registration fee for such vehicle is deposited in the Cycle Rider Safety Training Fund.

(e) Of the monies received by the Secretary of State as registration fees or taxes or as payment of any other fee, as provided in this Act, except fees received by the Secretary under paragraph (7) of subsection (b) of Section 5-101 and Section 5-109 of this Code, 37% shall be deposited into the State Construction Account Fund.

(f) Of the total money collected for a commercial learner's permit (CLP) or original or renewal issuance of a commercial driver's license (CDL) pursuant to the Uniform Commercial Driver's License Act (UCDLA): (i) $6 of the total fee for an original or renewal CDL, and $6 of the total CLP fee when such permit is issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license, shall be paid into the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund (Commercial Driver's License Information System/American Association of Motor Vehicle Administrators network/National Motor Vehicle Title Information Service Trust Fund) and shall be used for the purposes provided in Section 6z-23 of the State Finance Act and (ii) $20 of the total fee for an original or renewal CDL or CLP shall be paid into the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund, which is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury, to be used by the Department of State Police, subject to appropriation, to hire additional officers to conduct motor carrier safety inspections pursuant to Chapter 18b of this Code.

(g) All remaining moneys received by the Secretary of State as registration fees or taxes or as payment of any other fee, as provided in this Act, except fees received by the Secretary under paragraph (7)(A) of subsection (b) of Section 5-101 and Section 5-109 of this Code, shall be deposited in the Road Fund in the State Treasury. Moneys in the Road Fund shall be used for the purposes provided in Section 8.3 of the State Finance Act.

(h) (Blank).

(i) (Blank).

(j) (Blank).

(k) There is created in the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund. Money deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the Secretary of State (i) to help defray plate manufacturing and plate processing costs for the issuance and, when applicable, renewal of any new or existing registration plates authorized under this Code and (ii) for grants made by the Secretary of State to benefit Illinois Veterans Home libraries.

On or before October 1, 1995, the Secretary of State shall direct the State Comptroller and State Treasurer to transfer any unexpended balance in the Special Environmental License Plate Fund, the Special Korean War Veteran License Plate Fund, and the Retired Congressional License Plate Fund to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(l) The Motor Vehicle Review Board Fund is created as a special fund in the State Treasury. Moneys deposited into the Fund under paragraph (7) of subsection (b) of Section 5-101 and Section 5-109 shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the Secretary of State to administer the Motor Vehicle Review Board, including without limitation payment of compensation and all necessary expenses incurred in administering the Motor Vehicle Review Board under the Motor Vehicle Franchise Act.

(m) Effective July 1, 1996, there is created in the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the Family Responsibility Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the Secretary of State for the purpose of enforcing the Family Financial Responsibility Law.

(n) The Illinois Fire Fighters' Memorial Fund is created as a special fund in the State Treasury. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the State Fire Marshal for construction of the Illinois Fire Fighters' Memorial to be located at the State Capitol grounds in Springfield, Illinois. Upon the completion of the Memorial, moneys in the Fund shall be used in accordance with Section 3-634.

(o) Of the money collected for each certificate of title for all-terrain vehicles and off-highway motorcycles, $17 shall be deposited into the Off-Highway Vehicle Trails Fund.

(p) For audits conducted on or after July 1, 2003 pursuant to Section 2-124(d) of this Code, 50% of the money collected as audit fees shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13; 98-176, eff. 7-1-14; 98-177, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699)

Sec. 3-699. National Wild Turkey Federation license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as National Wild Turkey Federation license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the National Wild Turkey Federation Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the National Wild Turkey Federation Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The National Wild Turkey Federation Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the National Wild Turkey Federation Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants to National Wild Turkey Federation, Inc., a tax exempt entity under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, to fund turkey habitat protection, enhancement, and restoration projects in the State of Illinois, to fund education and outreach for media, volunteers, members, and the general public regarding turkeys and turkey habitat conservation in the State of Illinois, and to cover the reasonable cost for National Wild Turkey Federation special plate advertising and administration of the conservation projects and education program.

(Source: P.A. 98-66, eff. 1-1-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.2)

Sec. 3-699.2 3-699. Diabetes Awareness license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Diabetes Awareness license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. The Secretary, in his or her discretion, may allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Diabetes Research Checkoff Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Diabetes Research Checkoff Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-96, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.3)

Sec. 3-699.3 3-699. Illinois Nurses license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Illinois Nurses license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $35 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $20 shall be deposited into the Illinois Nurses Foundation Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $22 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $20 shall be deposited into the Illinois Nurses Foundation Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Illinois Nurses Foundation Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Illinois Nurses Foundation Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants to the Illinois Nurses Foundation, to promote the health of the public by advancing the nursing profession in this State.

(Source: P.A. 98-150, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.4)

Sec. 3-699.4 3-699. American Red Cross license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as American Red Cross license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the special plates shall be within the discretion of the Secretary, but shall include the American Red Cross official logo. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the American Red Cross Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs. For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the American Red Cross Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The American Red Cross Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the American Red Cross Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants to the American Red Cross or to charitable entities designated by the American Red Cross.

(Source: P.A. 98-151, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.5)

Sec. 3-699.5 3-699. Illinois Police Benevolent and Protective Association license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Illinois Police Benevolent and Protective Association license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the Illinois Police Benevolent and Protective Association Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Illinois Police Benevolent and Protective Association Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Illinois Police Benevolent and Protective Association Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Illinois Police Benevolent and Protective Association Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants to the Illinois Police Benevolent and Protective Association for the purposes of providing death benefits for the families of police officers killed in the line of duty, providing scholarships for undergraduate study to children and spouses of police officers killed in the line of duty, and educating the public and police officers regarding policing and public safety.

(Source: P.A. 98-233, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.6)

Sec. 3-699.6 3-699. Alzheimer's Awareness license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Alzheimer's Awareness license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the Alzheimer's Awareness Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Alzheimer's Awareness Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Alzheimer's Awareness Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Alzheimer's Awareness Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants to the Alzheimer's Disease and Related Disorders Association, Greater Illinois Chapter, for Alzheimer's care, support, education, and awareness programs.

(Source: P.A. 98-259, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.7)

Sec. 3-699.7 3-699. Prince Hall Freemasonry plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Prince Hall Freemasonry license plates.

The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the Master Mason Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Master Mason Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-300, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.8)

Sec. 3-699.8 3-699. Illinois Police K-9 Memorial Plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Illinois Police K-9 Memorial license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the applicable registration fee. Of this additional fee, $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund and $25 shall be deposited into the Illinois Police K-9 Memorial Fund. For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this additional fee, $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund and $25 shall be deposited into the Illinois Police K-9 Memorial Fund.

(d) The Illinois Police K-9 Memorial Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Illinois Police K-9 Memorial Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants to the Northern Illinois Police K-9 Memorial for the creation, operation, and maintenance of a police K-9 memorial monument.

(Source: P.A. 98-360, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.9)

Sec. 3-699.9 3-699. Public Safety Diver license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates designated to be Public Safety Diver license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds, and recreational vehicles as defined by Section 1-169 of this Code. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany the application. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code.

(c) An applicant shall be charged a $45 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee, if applicable. Of this fee, $30 shall be deposited into the Public Safety Diver Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund. For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Public Safety Diver Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Public Safety Diver Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Public Safety Diver Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, to the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board for the purposes of providing grants based on need for training, standards, and equipment to public safety disciplines within the State and to units of local government involved in public safety diving and water rescue services.

(e) The Public Safety Diver Advisory Committee shall recommend grant rewards with the intent of achieving reasonably equitable distribution of funds between police, firefighting, and public safety diving services making application for grants under this Section.

(f) The administrative costs related to management of grants made from the Public Safety Diver Fund shall be paid from the Public Safety Diver Fund to the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(Source: P.A. 98-376, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.10)

Sec. 3-699.10 3-699. The H Foundation - Committed to a Cure for Cancer plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as The H Foundation - Committed to a Cure for Cancer license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Committed to a Cure Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs. For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Committed to a Cure Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Committed to a Cure Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Committed to a Cure Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants to the Robert H. Lurie Comprehensive Cancer Center of Northwestern University for the purpose of funding scientific research on cancer.

(Source: P.A. 98-382, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.11)

Sec. 3-699.11 3-699. Retired Law Enforcement license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Retired Law Enforcement license plates to residents of Illinois who meet eligibility requirements prescribed by the Secretary of State. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the Illinois Sheriffs' Association Scholarship and Training Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Illinois Sheriffs' Association Scholarship and Training Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Illinois Sheriffs' Association Scholarship and Training Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Illinois Sheriffs' Association Scholarship and Training Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants to the Illinois Sheriffs' Association, for scholarships obtained in a competitive process to attend the Illinois Teen Institute or an accredited college or university, for programs designed to benefit the elderly and teens, and for law enforcement training.

(Source: P.A. 98-395, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.12)

Sec. 3-699.12 3-699. Legion of Merit plates. The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates designated as Legion of Merit license plates to recipients awarded the Legion of Merit by a branch of the armed forces of the United States who reside in Illinois. The special plates issued pursuant to this Section should be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the 1st division, including motorcycles, or motor vehicles of the 2nd division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary of State must make a version of the special registration plates authorized under this Section in a form appropriate for motorcycles.

The design and color of such plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. No registration fee, including the fees established under Section 3-806 of this Code, shall be charged for the issuance or renewal of any plates issued under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-406, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.13)

Sec. 3-699.13 3-699. Illinois State Police Memorial Park license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates designated as Illinois State Police Memorial Park license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant shall be charged a $25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee, if applicable. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the Illinois State Police Memorial Park Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund. For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Illinois State Police Memorial Park Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Illinois State Police Memorial Park Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Illinois State Police Memorial Park Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants to the Illinois State Police Heritage Foundation, Inc. for building and maintaining a memorial and park, holding an annual memorial commemoration, giving scholarships to children of State police officers killed or catastrophically injured in the line of duty, and providing financial assistance to police officers and their families when a police officer is killed or injured in the line of duty.

(Source: P.A. 98-469, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-918)

Sec. 3-918. Vehicle registration and insurance. Beginning with the 2016 registration year, any remittance agent engaged in the business of remitting applications for the issuance or renewal of vehicle registration shall ask applicants for information relating to the insurance policy for the motor vehicle, including the name of the insurer that issued the policy, the policy number, and the expiration date of the policy. This information shall be remitted to the Secretary of State as part of the application. Failure to obtain this information and supply it to the Secretary of State shall subject the remittance agent to suspension or revocation of the remittance agent's their license as described in Section 3-907 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-539, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-301) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-301)

Sec. 5-301. Automotive parts recyclers, scrap processors, repairers and rebuilders must be licensed.

(a) No person in this State shall, except as an incident to the servicing of vehicles, carry on or conduct the business of an a automotive parts recycler recyclers, a scrap processor, a repairer, or a rebuilder, unless licensed to do so in writing by the Secretary of State under this Section. No person shall rebuild a salvage vehicle unless such person is licensed as a rebuilder by the Secretary of State under this Section. No person shall engage in the business of acquiring 5 or more previously owned vehicles in one calendar year for the primary purpose of disposing of those vehicles in the manner described in the definition of a "scrap processor" in this Code unless the person is licensed as an automotive parts recycler by the Secretary of State under this Section. Each license shall be applied for and issued separately, except that a license issued to a new vehicle dealer under Section 5-101 of this Code shall also be deemed to be a repairer license.

(b) Any application filed with the Secretary of State, shall be duly verified by oath, in such form as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe and shall contain:

1. The name and type of business organization of the applicant and his principal or additional places of business, if any, in this State.

2. The kind or kinds of business enumerated in subsection (a) of this Section to be conducted at each location.

3. If the applicant is a corporation, a list of its officers, directors, and shareholders having a ten percent or greater ownership interest in the corporation, setting forth the residence address of each; if the applicant is a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association, a trust, or any similar form of business organization, the names and residence address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee or manager.

4. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a ten percent or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager, or other principals in the business have not committed in the past three years any one violation as determined in any civil or criminal or administrative proceedings of any one of the following Acts:

(a) The Anti-Theft Anti Theft Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(b) The "Certificate of Title Laws" of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(c) The "Offenses against Registration and Certificates of Title Laws" of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(d) The "Dealers, Transporters, Wreckers and Rebuilders Laws" of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(e) Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Criminal Trespass to Vehicles; or

(f) The Retailers Occupation Tax Act.

5. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a ten percent or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager or other principals in the business have not committed in any calendar year 3 or more violations, as determined in any civil or criminal or administrative proceedings, of any one or more of the following Acts:

(a) The Consumer Finance Act;

(b) The Consumer Installment Loan Act;

(c) The Retail Installment Sales Act;

(d) The Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales Act;

(e) The Interest Act;

(f) The Illinois Wage Assignment Act;

(g) Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure; or

(h) The Consumer Fraud Act.

6. An application for a license shall be accompanied by the following fees: $50 for applicant's established place of business; $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; provided, however, that if such an application is made after June 15 of any year, the license fee shall be $25 for applicant's established place of business plus $12.50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that such application shall be denied by the Secretary of State.

7. A statement that the applicant understands Chapter 1 through Chapter 5 of this Code.

8. A statement that the applicant shall comply with subsection (e) of this Section.

(c) Any change which renders no longer accurate any information contained in any application for a license filed with the Secretary of State shall be amended within 30 days after the occurrence of such change on such form as the Secretary of State may prescribe by rule or regulation, accompanied by an amendatory fee of $2.

(d) Anything in this chapter to the contrary, notwithstanding, no person shall be licensed under this Section unless such person shall maintain an established place of business as defined in this Chapter.

(e) The Secretary of State shall within a reasonable time after receipt thereof, examine an application submitted to him under this Section and unless he makes a determination that the application submitted to him does not conform with the requirements of this Section or that grounds exist for a denial of the application, as prescribed in Section 5-501 of this Chapter, grant the applicant an original license as applied for in writing for his established place of business and a supplemental license in writing for each additional place of business in such form as he may prescribe by rule or regulation which shall include the following:

1. The name of the person licensed;

2. If a corporation, the name and address of its officers or if a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association or any similar form of business organization, the name and address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee or manager;

3. A designation of the kind or kinds of business enumerated in subsection (a) of this Section to be conducted at each location;

4. In the case of an original license, the established place of business of the licensee;

5. In the case of a supplemental license, the established place of business of the licensee and the additional place of business to which such supplemental license pertains.

(f) The appropriate instrument evidencing the license or a certified copy thereof, provided by the Secretary of State shall be kept, posted, conspicuously in the established place of business of the licensee and in each additional place of business, if any, maintained by such licensee. The licensee also shall post conspicuously in the established place of business and in each additional place of business a notice which states that such business is required to be licensed by the Secretary of State under Section 5-301, and which provides the license number of the business and the license expiration date. This notice also shall advise the consumer that any complaints as to the quality of service may be brought to the attention of the Attorney General. The information required on this notice also shall be printed conspicuously on all estimates and receipts for work by the licensee subject to this Section. The Secretary of State shall prescribe the specific format of this notice.

(g) Except as provided in subsection (h) hereof, licenses granted under this Section shall expire by operation of law on December 31 of the calendar year for which they are granted unless sooner revoked or cancelled under the provisions of Section 5-501 of this Chapter.

(h) Any license granted under this Section may be renewed upon application and payment of the fee required herein as in the case of an original license, provided, however, that in case an application for the renewal of an effective license is made during the month of December, such effective license shall remain in force until such application is granted or denied by the Secretary of State.

(i) All automotive repairers and rebuilders shall, in addition to the requirements of subsections (a) through (h) of this Section, meet the following licensing requirements:

1. Provide proof that the property on which first time applicants plan to do business is in compliance with local zoning laws and regulations, and a listing of zoning classification;

2. Provide proof that the applicant for a repairer's license complies with the proper workers' compensation rate code or classification, and listing the code of classification for that industry;

3. Provide proof that the applicant for a rebuilder's license complies with the proper workers' compensation rate code or classification for the repair industry or the auto parts recycling industry and listing the code of classification;

4. Provide proof that the applicant has obtained or applied for a hazardous waste generator number, and listing the actual number if available or certificate of exemption;

5. Provide proof that applicant has proper liability insurance, and listing the name of the insurer and the policy number; and

6. Provide proof that the applicant has obtained or applied for the proper State sales tax classification and federal identification tax number, and listing the actual numbers if available.

(i-1) All automotive repairers shall provide proof that they comply with all requirements of the Automotive Collision Repair Act.

(j) All automotive parts recyclers shall, in addition to the requirements of subsections (a) through (h) of this Section, meet the following licensing requirements:

1. Provide a A statement that the applicant purchases 5 vehicles per year or has 5 hulks or chassis in stock;

2. Provide proof that the property on which all first time applicants will do business does comply to the proper local zoning laws in existence, and a listing of zoning classifications;

3. Provide proof that applicant complies with the proper workers' compensation rate code or classification, and listing the code of classification; and

4. Provide proof that applicant has obtained or applied for the proper State sales tax classification and federal identification tax number, and listing the actual numbers if available.

(Source: P.A. 97-832, eff. 7-20-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 9-24-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-103) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-167)

Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers or granted permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue, renew, or allow the retention of any driver's license nor issue any permit under this Code:

1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of 18 years except as provided in Section 6-107, and except that an instruction permit may be issued under Section 6-107.1 to a child who is not less than 15 years of age if the child is enrolled in an approved driver education course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and requires an instruction permit to participate therein, except that an instruction permit may be issued under the provisions of Section 6-107.1 to a child who is 17 years and 3 months of age without the child having enrolled in an approved driver education course and except that an instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least 15 years and 3 months of age, is enrolled in school, meets the educational requirements of the Driver Education Act, and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in his or her discretion may prescribe;

2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an operator of a motorcycle other than a motor driven cycle unless the person has, in addition to meeting the provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully completed a motorcycle training course approved by the Illinois Department of Transportation and successfully completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle driver's examination;

3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license or permit has been suspended, during the suspension, nor to any person whose driver's license or permit has been revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and 6-208;

4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol or any other drug to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving a motor vehicle;

5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental or physical disability or disease and who has not at the time of application been restored to competency by the methods provided by law;

6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the Secretary of State to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation or take an examination provided for in this Code unless the person has successfully passed the examination and submitted any required evaluation;

7. To any person who is required under the provisions of the laws of this State to deposit security or proof of financial responsibility and who has not deposited the security or proof;

8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good cause to believe that the person by reason of physical or mental disability would not be able to safely operate a motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the person shall furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a competent medical specialist, a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or her supervising physician, or a licensed advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical examinations, to the effect that the operation of a motor vehicle by the person would not be inimical to the public safety;

9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age or older, unless the person has successfully complied with the provisions of Section 6-109;

10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of application for a license, of any of the sexual offenses enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection (b) of Section 6-205;

11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section 6-104 and to any person who is under the age of 18 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of Section 6-104;

12. To any person who has been either convicted of or adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while that person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year;

13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle without a valid license or permit in violation of Section 6-101 or a similar out of state offense;

14. To any person who is 90 days or more delinquent in court ordered child support payments or has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days' obligation or more and who has been found in contempt of court for failure to pay the support, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support under an order of support entered by a court or administrative body of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code regarding those certifications;

15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment for violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide or for violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate cause of a death, within 24 months of release from a term of imprisonment;

16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit, by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the owner or employee of any commercial driver training school licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual authorized by the laws of this State to give driving instructions or administer all or part of a driver's license examination, promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which that person is not authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or tendering such property or personal advantage shall be disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing this period of disqualification and the procedures by which persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review of the decision to disqualify;

17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State cannot verify the accuracy of any information or documentation submitted in application for a driver's license; or

18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is determined by the court to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied a license or permit for the period determined by the court.

The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction information, if the information is required to be held confidential under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 96-607, eff. 8-24-09; 96-740, eff. 1-1-10; 96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-185, eff. 7-22-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-167)

Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers or granted permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue, renew, or allow the retention of any driver's license nor issue any permit under this Code:

1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of 18 years except as provided in Section 6-107, and except that an instruction permit may be issued under Section 6-107.1 to a child who is not less than 15 years of age if the child is enrolled in an approved driver education course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and requires an instruction permit to participate therein, except that an instruction permit may be issued under the provisions of Section 6-107.1 to a child who is 17 years and 3 months of age without the child having enrolled in an approved driver education course and except that an instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least 15 years and 3 months of age, is enrolled in school, meets the educational requirements of the Driver Education Act, and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in his or her discretion may prescribe;

1.5. To any person at least 18 years of age but less than 21 years of age unless the person has, in addition to any other requirements of this Code, successfully completed an adult driver education course as provided in Section 6-107.5 of this Code; .

2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an operator of a motorcycle other than a motor driven cycle unless the person has, in addition to meeting the provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully completed a motorcycle training course approved by the Illinois Department of Transportation and successfully completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle driver's examination;

3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license or permit has been suspended, during the suspension, nor to any person whose driver's license or permit has been revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and 6-208;

4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol or any other drug to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving a motor vehicle;

5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental or physical disability or disease and who has not at the time of application been restored to competency by the methods provided by law;

6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the Secretary of State to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation or take an examination provided for in this Code unless the person has successfully passed the examination and submitted any required evaluation;

7. To any person who is required under the provisions of the laws of this State to deposit security or proof of financial responsibility and who has not deposited the security or proof;

8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good cause to believe that the person by reason of physical or mental disability would not be able to safely operate a motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the person shall furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a competent medical specialist, a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or her supervising physician, or a licensed advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical examinations, to the effect that the operation of a motor vehicle by the person would not be inimical to the public safety;

9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age or older, unless the person has successfully complied with the provisions of Section 6-109;

10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of application for a license, of any of the sexual offenses enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection (b) of Section 6-205;

11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section 6-104 and to any person who is under the age of 18 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of Section 6-104;

12. To any person who has been either convicted of or adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while that person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year;

13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle without a valid license or permit in violation of Section 6-101 or a similar out of state offense;

14. To any person who is 90 days or more delinquent in court ordered child support payments or has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days' obligation or more and who has been found in contempt of court for failure to pay the support, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support under an order of support entered by a court or administrative body of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code regarding those certifications;

15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment for violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide or for violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate cause of a death, within 24 months of release from a term of imprisonment;

16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit, by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the owner or employee of any commercial driver training school licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual authorized by the laws of this State to give driving instructions or administer all or part of a driver's license examination, promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which that person is not authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or tendering such property or personal advantage shall be disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing this period of disqualification and the procedures by which persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review of the decision to disqualify;

17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State cannot verify the accuracy of any information or documentation submitted in application for a driver's license; or

18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is determined by the court to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied a license or permit for the period determined by the court.

The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction information, if the information is required to be held confidential under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 97-185, eff. 7-22-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-167, eff. 7-1-14; revised 9-18-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-106)

Sec. 6-106. Application for license or instruction permit.

(a) Every application for any permit or license authorized to be issued under this Code Act shall be made upon a form furnished by the Secretary of State. Every application shall be accompanied by the proper fee and payment of such fee shall entitle the applicant to not more than 3 attempts to pass the examination within a period of one 1 year after the date of application.

(b) Every application shall state the legal name, social security number, zip code, date of birth, sex, and residence address of the applicant; briefly describe the applicant; state whether the applicant has theretofore been licensed as a driver, and, if so, when and by what state or country, and whether any such license has ever been cancelled, suspended, revoked or refused, and, if so, the date and reason for such cancellation, suspension, revocation or refusal; shall include an affirmation by the applicant that all information set forth is true and correct; and shall bear the applicant's signature. In addition to the residence address, the Secretary may allow the applicant to provide a mailing address. In the case of an applicant who is a judicial officer or peace officer, the Secretary may allow the applicant to provide an office or work address in lieu of a residence or mailing address. The application form may also require the statement of such additional relevant information as the Secretary of State shall deem necessary to determine the applicant's competency and eligibility. The Secretary of State may, in his discretion, by rule or regulation, provide that an application for a drivers license or permit may include a suitable photograph of the applicant in the form prescribed by the Secretary, and he may further provide that each drivers license shall include a photograph of the driver. The Secretary of State may utilize a photograph process or system most suitable to deter alteration or improper reproduction of a drivers license and to prevent substitution of another photo thereon. For the purposes of this subsection (b), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(c) The application form shall include a notice to the applicant of the registration obligations of sex offenders under the Sex Offender Registration Act. The notice shall be provided in a form and manner prescribed by the Secretary of State. For purposes of this subsection (c), "sex offender" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(d) Any male United States citizen or immigrant who applies for any permit or license authorized to be issued under this Code Act or for a renewal of any permit or license, and who is at least 18 years of age but less than 26 years of age, must be registered in compliance with the requirements of the federal Military Selective Service Act. The Secretary of State must forward in an electronic format the necessary personal information regarding the applicants identified in this subsection (d) to the Selective Service System. The applicant's signature on the application serves as an indication that the applicant either has already registered with the Selective Service System or that he is authorizing the Secretary to forward to the Selective Service System the necessary information for registration. The Secretary must notify the applicant at the time of application that his signature constitutes consent to registration with the Selective Service System, if he is not already registered.

(e) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, for each original or renewal driver's license application under this Code Act, the Secretary shall inquire as to whether the applicant is a veteran for purposes of issuing a driver's license with a veteran designation under subsection (e-5) of Section 6-110 of this Code Chapter. The acceptable forms of proof shall include, but are not limited to, Department of Defense form DD-214. The Secretary shall determine by rule what other forms of proof of a person's status as a veteran are acceptable.

The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall confirm the status of the applicant as an honorably discharged veteran before the Secretary may issue the driver's license.

For purposes of this subsection (e):

"Active duty" means active duty under an executive order of the President of the United States, an Act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

"Armed forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component or National Guard unit called to active duty.

"Veteran" means a person who has served on active duty in the armed forces and was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(Source: P.A. 97-263, eff. 8-5-11; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847, eff. 1-1-13; 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 11-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-108) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-108)

Sec. 6-108. Cancellation of license issued to minor.

(a) The Secretary of State shall cancel the license or permit of any minor under the age of 18 years in any of the following events:

1. Upon the verified written request of the person who consented to the application of the minor that the license or permit be cancelled;

2. Upon receipt of satisfactory evidence of the death of the person who consented to the application of the minor;

3. Upon receipt of satisfactory evidence that the person who consented to the application of a minor no longer has legal custody of the minor;

4. Upon receipt of information, submitted on a form prescribed by the Secretary of State under Section 26-3a of the School Code and provided voluntarily by nonpublic schools, that a license-holding minor no longer meets the school attendance requirements defined in Section 6-107 of this Code.

A minor who provides proof acceptable to the Secretary that the minor has resumed regular school attendance or home instruction or that his or her license or permit was cancelled in error shall have his or her license reinstated. The Secretary shall adopt rules for implementing this subdivision (a)4; .

5. Upon determination by the Secretary that at the time of license issuance, the minor held an instruction permit and had a traffic citation for which a disposition had not been rendered.

After cancellation, the Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit until the applicant meets the provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code.

(b) The Secretary of State shall cancel the license or permit of any person under the age of 18 years if he or she is convicted of violating the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while that person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. After the cancellation, the Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year after the date of cancellation or until the minor attains the age of 18 years, whichever is longer. However, upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety, or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the person's residence and person's place of employment or within the scope of the person's employment related duties, or to allow transportation for the person or a household member of the person's family for the receipt of necessary medical care or, if the professional evaluation indicates, provide transportation for the petitioner for alcohol remedial or rehabilitative activity, or for the person to attend classes, as a student, in an accredited educational institution; if the person is able to demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship would result from a failure to issue such restricted driving permit. In each case the Secretary of State may issue a restricted driving permit for a period as he deems appropriate, except that the permit shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued hereunder shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued hereunder may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial or rehabilitative program. Thereafter, upon reapplication for a license as provided in Section 6-106 of this Code or a permit as provided in Section 6-105 of this Code and upon payment of the appropriate application fee, the Secretary of State shall issue the applicant a license as provided in Section 6-106 of this Code or shall issue the applicant a permit as provided in Section 6-105.

(Source: P.A. 98-168, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-118)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-176)

Sec. 6-118. Fees.

(a) The fee for licenses and permits under this Article is as follows:

Original driver's license.............................$30

Original or renewal driver's license

issued to 18, 19 and 20 year olds.................. 5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 69 through age 80.............................. 5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 81 through age 86.............................. 2

All driver's licenses for persons

age 87 or older.....................................0

Renewal driver's license (except for

applicants ages 18, 19 and 20 or

age 69 and older)..................................30

Original instruction permit issued to

persons (except those age 69 and older)

who do not hold or have not previously

held an Illinois instruction permit or

driver's license.................................. 20

Instruction permit issued to any person

holding an Illinois driver's license

who wishes a change in classifications,

other than at the time of renewal.................. 5

Any instruction permit issued to a person

age 69 and older................................... 5

Instruction permit issued to any person,

under age 69, not currently holding a

valid Illinois driver's license or

instruction permit but who has

previously been issued either document

in Illinois....................................... 10

Restricted driving permit.............................. 8

Monitoring device driving permit...................... 8

Duplicate or corrected driver's license

or permit.......................................... 5

Duplicate or corrected restricted

driving permit..................................... 5

Duplicate or corrected monitoring

device driving permit.................................. 5

Duplicate driver's license or permit issued to

an active-duty member of the

United States Armed Forces,

the member's spouse, or

the dependent children living

with the member................................... 0

Original or renewal M or L endorsement................. 5 SPECIAL FEES FOR COMMERCIAL DRIVER'S LICENSE

The fees for commercial driver licenses and permits under Article V shall be as follows:

Commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund

(Commercial Driver's License Information

System/American Association of Motor Vehicle

Administrators network/National Motor Vehicle

Title Information Service Trust Fund);

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license;

and $24 for the CDL:............................. $60

Renewal commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license; and

$24 for the CDL:................................. $60

Commercial driver instruction permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois driver's license for the

purpose of changing to a

CDL classification: $6 for the

CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier

Safety Inspection Fund; and

$24 for the CDL classification................... $50

Commercial driver instruction permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois CDL for the purpose of

making a change in a classification,

endorsement or restriction........................ $5

CDL duplicate or corrected license.................... $5

In order to ensure the proper implementation of the Uniform Commercial Driver License Act, Article V of this Chapter, the Secretary of State is empowered to pro-rate the $24 fee for the commercial driver's license proportionate to the expiration date of the applicant's Illinois driver's license.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person who presents the Secretary of State's office with a police report showing that his license or permit was stolen.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person age 60 or older whose driver's license or permit has been lost or stolen.

No additional fee shall be charged for a driver's license, or for a commercial driver's license, when issued to the holder of an instruction permit for the same classification or type of license who becomes eligible for such license.

(b) Any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked under Section 3-707, any provision of Chapter 6, Chapter 11, or Section 7-205, 7-303, or 7-702 of the Family Financial Responsibility Law of this Code, shall in addition to any other fees required by this Code, pay a reinstatement fee as follows:

Suspension under Section 3-707..................... $100

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1...........$250

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Other suspension......................................$70

Revocation...........................................$500

However, any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501 or 11-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and each suspension or revocation was for a violation of Section 11-501 or 11-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall pay, in addition to any other fees required by this Code, a reinstatement fee as follows:

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1............$500

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Revocation...........................................$500

(c) All fees collected under the provisions of this Chapter 6 shall be paid into the Road Fund in the State Treasury except as follows:

1. The following amounts shall be paid into the Driver Education Fund:

(A) $16 of the $20 fee for an original driver's instruction permit;

(B) $5 of the $30 fee for an original driver's license;

(C) $5 of the $30 fee for a 4 year renewal driver's license;

(D) $4 of the $8 fee for a restricted driving permit; and

(E) $4 of the $8 fee for a monitoring device driving permit.

2. $30 of the $250 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. However, for a person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501 or 11-501.1 of this Code or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1, and $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a revoked license shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily revoked pursuant to Section 11-501.1 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund.

3. $6 of such original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license and $6 of the commercial driver instruction permit fee when such permit is issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license, shall be paid into the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund.

4. $30 of the $70 fee for reinstatement of a license suspended under the Family Financial Responsibility Law shall be paid into the Family Responsibility Fund.

5. The $5 fee for each original or renewal M or L endorsement shall be deposited into the Cycle Rider Safety Training Fund.

6. $20 of any original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license or commercial driver instruction permit shall be paid into the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund.

7. The following amounts shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund:

(A) $190 of the $250 reinstatement fee for a summary suspension under Section 11-501.1;

(B) $40 of the $70 reinstatement fee for any other suspension provided in subsection (b) of this Section; and

(C) $440 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a first offense revocation and $310 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a second or subsequent revocation.

(d) All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

(e) The additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall become effective 90 days after becoming law.

(f) As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-177, eff. 1-1-14.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-176)

Sec. 6-118. Fees.

(a) The fee for licenses and permits under this Article is as follows:

Original driver's license.............................$30

Original or renewal driver's license

issued to 18, 19 and 20 year olds.................. 5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 69 through age 80.............................. 5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 81 through age 86.............................. 2

All driver's licenses for persons

age 87 or older.....................................0

Renewal driver's license (except for

applicants ages 18, 19 and 20 or

age 69 and older)..................................30

Original instruction permit issued to

persons (except those age 69 and older)

who do not hold or have not previously

held an Illinois instruction permit or

driver's license.................................. 20

Instruction permit issued to any person

holding an Illinois driver's license

who wishes a change in classifications,

other than at the time of renewal.................. 5

Any instruction permit issued to a person

age 69 and older................................... 5

Instruction permit issued to any person,

under age 69, not currently holding a

valid Illinois driver's license or

instruction permit but who has

previously been issued either document

in Illinois....................................... 10

Restricted driving permit.............................. 8

Monitoring device driving permit...................... 8

Duplicate or corrected driver's license

or permit.......................................... 5

Duplicate or corrected restricted

driving permit..................................... 5

Duplicate or corrected monitoring

device driving permit.................................. 5

Duplicate driver's license or permit issued to

an active-duty member of the

United States Armed Forces,

the member's spouse, or

the dependent children living

with the member................................... 0

Original or renewal M or L endorsement................. 5 SPECIAL FEES FOR COMMERCIAL DRIVER'S LICENSE

The fees for commercial driver licenses and permits under Article V shall be as follows:

Commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund

(Commercial Driver's License Information

System/American Association of Motor Vehicle

Administrators network/National Motor Vehicle

Title Information Service Trust Fund);

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license;

and $24 for the CDL:............................. $60

Renewal commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license; and

$24 for the CDL:................................. $60

Commercial learner's permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois driver's license for the

purpose of changing to a

CDL classification: $6 for the

CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier

Safety Inspection Fund; and

$24 for the CDL classification................... $50

Commercial learner's permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois CDL for the purpose of

making a change in a classification,

endorsement or restriction........................ $5

CDL duplicate or corrected license.................... $5

In order to ensure the proper implementation of the Uniform Commercial Driver License Act, Article V of this Chapter, the Secretary of State is empowered to pro-rate the $24 fee for the commercial driver's license proportionate to the expiration date of the applicant's Illinois driver's license.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person who presents the Secretary of State's office with a police report showing that his license or permit was stolen.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person age 60 or older whose driver's license or permit has been lost or stolen.

No additional fee shall be charged for a driver's license, or for a commercial driver's license, when issued to the holder of an instruction permit for the same classification or type of license who becomes eligible for such license.

(b) Any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked under Section 3-707, any provision of Chapter 6, Chapter 11, or Section 7-205, 7-303, or 7-702 of the Family Financial Responsibility Law of this Code, shall in addition to any other fees required by this Code, pay a reinstatement fee as follows:

Suspension under Section 3-707..................... $100

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1...........$250

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Other suspension......................................$70

Revocation...........................................$500

However, any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501 or 11-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and each suspension or revocation was for a violation of Section 11-501 or 11-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall pay, in addition to any other fees required by this Code, a reinstatement fee as follows:

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1............$500

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Revocation...........................................$500

(c) All fees collected under the provisions of this Chapter 6 shall be paid into the Road Fund in the State Treasury except as follows:

1. The following amounts shall be paid into the Driver Education Fund:

(A) $16 of the $20 fee for an original driver's instruction permit;

(B) $5 of the $30 fee for an original driver's license;

(C) $5 of the $30 fee for a 4 year renewal driver's license;

(D) $4 of the $8 fee for a restricted driving permit; and

(E) $4 of the $8 fee for a monitoring device driving permit.

2. $30 of the $250 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. However, for a person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501 or 11-501.1 of this Code or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1, and $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a revoked license shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily revoked pursuant to Section 11-501.1 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund.

3. $6 of the original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license and $6 of the commercial learner's permit fee when the permit is issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license, shall be paid into the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund.

4. $30 of the $70 fee for reinstatement of a license suspended under the Family Financial Responsibility Law shall be paid into the Family Responsibility Fund.

5. The $5 fee for each original or renewal M or L endorsement shall be deposited into the Cycle Rider Safety Training Fund.

6. $20 of any original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license or commercial learner's permit shall be paid into the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund.

7. The following amounts shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund:

(A) $190 of the $250 reinstatement fee for a summary suspension under Section 11-501.1;

(B) $40 of the $70 reinstatement fee for any other suspension provided in subsection (b) of this Section; and

(C) $440 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a first offense revocation and $310 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a second or subsequent revocation.

(d) All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

(e) The additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall become effective 90 days after becoming law.

(f) As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-176, eff. 7-1-14; 98-177, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-201)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-176)

Sec. 6-201. Authority to cancel licenses and permits.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel any license or permit upon determining that the holder thereof:

1. was not entitled to the issuance thereof hereunder; or

2. failed to give the required or correct information in his application; or

3. failed to pay any fees, civil penalties owed to the Illinois Commerce Commission, or taxes due under this Act and upon reasonable notice and demand; or

4. committed any fraud in the making of such application; or

5. is ineligible therefor under the provisions of Section 6-103 of this Act, as amended; or

6. has refused or neglected to submit an alcohol, drug, and intoxicating compound evaluation or to submit to examination or re-examination as required under this Act; or

7. has been convicted of violating the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act while that individual was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. After the cancellation, the Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year after the date of cancellation. However, upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety, or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow transportation for the petitioner or a household member of the petitioner's family for the receipt of necessary medical care, or provide transportation for the petitioner to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or for the petitioner to attend classes, as a student, in an accredited educational institution. The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship, as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State, would result from a failure to issue such restricted driving permit. In each case the Secretary of State may issue such restricted driving permit for such period as he deems appropriate, except that such permit shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued hereunder shall be subject to cancellation, revocation and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued hereunder may be cancelled, revoked or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial or rehabilitative program. In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been revoked, suspended, cancelled, or disqualified under this Code; or

8. failed to submit a report as required by Section 6-116.5 of this Code; or

9. has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act. The driver's license shall remain cancelled until the driver registers as a sex offender as required by the Sex Offender Registration Act, proof of the registration is furnished to the Secretary of State and the sex offender provides proof of current address to the Secretary; or

10. is ineligible for a license or permit under Section 6-107, 6-107.1, or 6-108 of this Code; or

11. refused or neglected to appear at a Driver Services facility to have the license or permit corrected and a new license or permit issued or to present documentation for verification of identity; or

12. failed to submit a medical examiner's certificate or medical variance as required by 49 C.F.R. 383.71 or submitted a fraudulent medical examiner's certificate or medical variance; or

13. has had his or her medical examiner's certificate, medical variance, or both removed or rescinded by the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration; or

14. failed to self-certify as to the type of driving in which the CDL driver engages or expects to engage; or

15. has submitted acceptable documentation indicating out-of-state residency to the Secretary of State to be released from the requirement of showing proof of financial responsibility in this State.

(b) Upon such cancellation the licensee or permittee must surrender the license or permit so cancelled to the Secretary of State.

(c) Except as provided in Sections 6-206.1 and 7-702.1, the Secretary of State shall have exclusive authority to grant, issue, deny, cancel, suspend and revoke driving privileges, drivers' licenses and restricted driving permits.

(d) The Secretary of State may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-208, eff. 1-1-12; 97-229; eff. 7-28-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-835, eff. 7-20-12; 98-178, eff. 1-1-14.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-176)

Sec. 6-201. Authority to cancel licenses and permits.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel any license or permit upon determining that the holder thereof:

1. was not entitled to the issuance thereof hereunder; or

2. failed to give the required or correct information in his application; or

3. failed to pay any fees, civil penalties owed to the Illinois Commerce Commission, or taxes due under this Act and upon reasonable notice and demand; or

4. committed any fraud in the making of such application; or

5. is ineligible therefor under the provisions of Section 6-103 of this Act, as amended; or

6. has refused or neglected to submit an alcohol, drug, and intoxicating compound evaluation or to submit to examination or re-examination as required under this Act; or

7. has been convicted of violating the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act while that individual was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. After the cancellation, the Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year after the date of cancellation. However, upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety, or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow transportation for the petitioner or a household member of the petitioner's family for the receipt of necessary medical care, or provide transportation for the petitioner to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or for the petitioner to attend classes, as a student, in an accredited educational institution. The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship, as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State, would result from a failure to issue such restricted driving permit. In each case the Secretary of State may issue such restricted driving permit for such period as he deems appropriate, except that such permit shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued hereunder shall be subject to cancellation, revocation and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued hereunder may be cancelled, revoked or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial or rehabilitative program. In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been revoked, suspended, cancelled, or disqualified under this Code; or

8. failed to submit a report as required by Section 6-116.5 of this Code; or

9. has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act. The driver's license shall remain cancelled until the driver registers as a sex offender as required by the Sex Offender Registration Act, proof of the registration is furnished to the Secretary of State and the sex offender provides proof of current address to the Secretary; or

10. is ineligible for a license or permit under Section 6-107, 6-107.1, or 6-108 of this Code; or

11. refused or neglected to appear at a Driver Services facility to have the license or permit corrected and a new license or permit issued or to present documentation for verification of identity; or

12. failed to submit a medical examiner's certificate or medical variance as required by 49 C.F.R. 383.71 or submitted a fraudulent medical examiner's certificate or medical variance; or

13. has had his or her medical examiner's certificate, medical variance, or both removed or rescinded by the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration; or

14. failed to self-certify as to the type of driving in which the CDL driver engages or expects to engage; or

15. has submitted acceptable documentation indicating out-of-state residency to the Secretary of State to be released from the requirement of showing proof of financial responsibility in this State; or .

16. 15. was convicted of fraud relating to the testing or issuance of a CDL or CLP, in which case only the CDL or CLP shall be cancelled. After cancellation, the Secretary shall not issue a CLP or CDL for a period of one year from the date of cancellation.

(b) Upon such cancellation the licensee or permittee must surrender the license or permit so cancelled to the Secretary of State.

(c) Except as provided in Sections 6-206.1 and 7-702.1, the Secretary of State shall have exclusive authority to grant, issue, deny, cancel, suspend and revoke driving privileges, drivers' licenses and restricted driving permits.

(d) The Secretary of State may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-208, eff. 1-1-12; 97-229; eff. 7-28-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-835, eff. 7-20-12; 98-176, eff. 7-1-14; 98-178, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-206)

Sec. 6-206. Discretionary authority to suspend or revoke license or permit; Right to a hearing.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to suspend or revoke the driving privileges of any person without preliminary hearing upon a showing of the person's records or other sufficient evidence that the person:

1. Has committed an offense for which mandatory revocation of a driver's license or permit is required upon conviction;

2. Has been convicted of not less than 3 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 12 month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

3. Has been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or has been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree that indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

4. Has by the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle caused or contributed to an accident resulting in injury requiring immediate professional treatment in a medical facility or doctor's office to any person, except that any suspension or revocation imposed by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this subsection shall start no later than 6 months after being convicted of violating a law or ordinance regulating the movement of traffic, which violation is related to the accident, or shall start not more than one year after the date of the accident, whichever date occurs later;

5. Has permitted an unlawful or fraudulent use of a driver's license, identification card, or permit;

6. Has been lawfully convicted of an offense or offenses in another state, including the authorization contained in Section 6-203.1, which if committed within this State would be grounds for suspension or revocation;

7. Has refused or failed to submit to an examination provided for by Section 6-207 or has failed to pass the examination;

8. Is ineligible for a driver's license or permit under the provisions of Section 6-103;

9. Has made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact or has used false information or identification in any application for a license, identification card, or permit;

10. Has possessed, displayed, or attempted to fraudulently use any license, identification card, or permit not issued to the person;

11. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driving privilege or privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit was revoked or suspended unless the operation was authorized by a monitoring device driving permit, judicial driving permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, probationary license to drive, or a restricted driving permit issued under this Code;

12. Has submitted to any portion of the application process for another person or has obtained the services of another person to submit to any portion of the application process for the purpose of obtaining a license, identification card, or permit for some other person;

13. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driver's license or permit was invalid under the provisions of Sections 6-107.1 and 6-110;

14. Has committed a violation of Section 6-301, 6-301.1, or 6-301.2 of this Act, or Section 14, 14A, or 14B of the Illinois Identification Card Act;

15. Has been convicted of violating Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to criminal trespass to vehicles in which case, the suspension shall be for one year;

16. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-204 of this Code relating to fleeing from a peace officer;

17. Has refused to submit to a test, or tests, as required under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and the person has not sought a hearing as provided for in Section 11-501.1;

18. Has, since issuance of a driver's license or permit, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease;

19. Has committed a violation of paragraph (a) or (b) of Section 6-101 relating to driving without a driver's license;

20. Has been convicted of violating Section 6-104 relating to classification of driver's license;

21. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-402 of this Code relating to leaving the scene of an accident resulting in damage to a vehicle in excess of $1,000, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

22. Has used a motor vehicle in violating paragraph (3), (4), (7), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to unlawful use of weapons, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

23. Has, as a driver, been convicted of committing a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code for a second or subsequent time within one year of a similar violation;

24. Has been convicted by a court-martial or punished by non-judicial punishment by military authorities of the United States at a military installation in Illinois of or for a traffic related offense that is the same as or similar to an offense specified under Section 6-205 or 6-206 of this Code;

25. Has permitted any form of identification to be used by another in the application process in order to obtain or attempt to obtain a license, identification card, or permit;

26. Has altered or attempted to alter a license or has possessed an altered license, identification card, or permit;

27. Has violated Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934;

28. Has been convicted for a first time of the illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year. Any defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State;

29. Has been convicted of the following offenses that were committed while the person was operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle: criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, juvenile pimping, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, and the manufacture, sale or delivery of controlled substances or instruments used for illegal drug use or abuse in which case the driver's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year;

30. Has been convicted a second or subsequent time for any combination of the offenses named in paragraph 29 of this subsection, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for 5 years;

31. Has refused to submit to a test as required by Section 11-501.6 of this Code or Section 5-16c of the Boat Registration and Safety Act or has submitted to a test resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance as listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound as listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the penalty shall be as prescribed in Section 6-208.1;

32. Has been convicted of Section 24-1.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the aggravated discharge of a firearm if the offender was located in a motor vehicle at the time the firearm was discharged, in which case the suspension shall be for 3 years;

33. Has as a driver, who was less than 21 years of age on the date of the offense, been convicted a first time of a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

34. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.5 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

35. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.6 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

36. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of not less than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 24 month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

37. Has committed a violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of this Code that resulted in damage to the property of another or the death or injury of another;

38. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

39. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

40. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-908 of this Code;

41. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-605.1 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar violation in any other state within 2 years of the date of the previous violation, in which case the suspension shall be for 90 days;

42. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

43. Has received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of subsection (a), (d), or (e) of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, in which case the suspension shall be for a period of 3 months;

44. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles after having previously had his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked pursuant to subparagraph 36 of this Section;

45. Has, in connection with or during the course of a formal hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code: (i) committed perjury; (ii) submitted fraudulent or falsified documents; (iii) submitted documents that have been materially altered; or (iv) submitted, as his or her own, documents that were in fact prepared or composed for another person;

46. Has committed a violation of subsection (j) of Section 3-413 of this Code; or

47. Has committed a violation of Section 11-502.1 of this Code.

For purposes of paragraphs 5, 9, 10, 12, 14, 19, 25, 26, and 27 of this subsection, license means any driver's license, any traffic ticket issued when the person's driver's license is deposited in lieu of bail, a suspension notice issued by the Secretary of State, a duplicate or corrected driver's license, a probationary driver's license or a temporary driver's license.

(b) If any conviction forming the basis of a suspension or revocation authorized under this Section is appealed, the Secretary of State may rescind or withhold the entry of the order of suspension or revocation, as the case may be, provided that a certified copy of a stay order of a court is filed with the Secretary of State. If the conviction is affirmed on appeal, the date of the conviction shall relate back to the time the original judgment of conviction was entered and the 6 month limitation prescribed shall not apply.

(c) 1. Upon suspending or revoking the driver's license or permit of any person as authorized in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately notify the person in writing of the revocation or suspension. The notice to be deposited in the United States mail, postage prepaid, to the last known address of the person.

2. If the Secretary of State suspends the driver's license of a person under subsection 2 of paragraph (a) of this Section, a person's privilege to operate a vehicle as an occupation shall not be suspended, provided an affidavit is properly completed, the appropriate fee received, and a permit issued prior to the effective date of the suspension, unless 5 offenses were committed, at least 2 of which occurred while operating a commercial vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. All other driving privileges shall be suspended by the Secretary of State. Any driver prior to operating a vehicle for occupational purposes only must submit the affidavit on forms to be provided by the Secretary of State setting forth the facts of the person's occupation. The affidavit shall also state the number of offenses committed while operating a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. The affidavit shall be accompanied by the driver's license. Upon receipt of a properly completed affidavit, the Secretary of State shall issue the driver a permit to operate a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation only. Unless the permit is issued by the Secretary of State prior to the date of suspension, the privilege to drive any motor vehicle shall be suspended as set forth in the notice that was mailed under this Section. If an affidavit is received subsequent to the effective date of this suspension, a permit may be issued for the remainder of the suspension period.

The provisions of this subparagraph shall not apply to any driver required to possess a CDL for the purpose of operating a commercial motor vehicle.

Any person who falsely states any fact in the affidavit required herein shall be guilty of perjury under Section 6-302 and upon conviction thereof shall have all driving privileges revoked without further rights.

3. At the conclusion of a hearing under Section 2-118 of this Code, the Secretary of State shall either rescind or continue an order of revocation or shall substitute an order of suspension; or, good cause appearing therefor, rescind, continue, change, or extend the order of suspension. If the Secretary of State does not rescind the order, the Secretary may upon application, to relieve undue hardship (as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State), issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself, or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility, to receive necessary medical care, to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or disabled persons who do not hold driving privileges and are living in the petitioner's household to and from daycare. The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare. Those multiple offenders identified in subdivision (b)4 of Section 6-208 of this Code, however, shall not be eligible for the issuance of a restricted driving permit.

(A) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(B) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times within a 10 year period due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension under Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(C) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(D) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes.

(E) In each case the Secretary may issue a restricted driving permit for a period deemed appropriate, except that all permits shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. The Secretary may not, however, issue a restricted driving permit to any person whose current revocation is the result of a second or subsequent conviction for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or any similar out-of-state offense, or any combination of those offenses, until the expiration of at least one year from the date of the revocation. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program.

(c-3) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall, except during the actual time the suspension is in effect, be privileged information and for use only by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities, the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the Secretary of State, or the parent or legal guardian of a driver under the age of 18. However, beginning January 1, 2008, if the person is a CDL holder, the suspension shall also be made available to the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the affected driver or motor carrier or prospective motor carrier upon request.

(c-4) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), the Secretary of State shall notify the person by mail that his or her driving privileges and driver's license will be suspended one month after the date of the mailing of the notice.

(c-5) The Secretary of State may, as a condition of the reissuance of a driver's license or permit to an applicant whose driver's license or permit has been suspended before he or she reached the age of 21 years pursuant to any of the provisions of this Section, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial education course and be retested under Section 6-109 of this Code.

(d) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Drivers License Compact.

(e) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been suspended or revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(f) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, revoked, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-743, eff. 1-1-13; 97-838, eff. 1-1-13; 97-844, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-103, eff. 1-1-14; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-303) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-303)

Sec. 6-303. Driving while driver's license, permit or privilege to operate a motor vehicle is suspended or revoked.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (a-5), any person who drives or is in actual physical control of a motor vehicle on any highway of this State at a time when such person's driver's license, permit or privilege to do so or the privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit is revoked or suspended as provided by this Code or the law of another state, except as may be specifically allowed by a judicial driving permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, monitoring device driving permit, family financial responsibility driving permit, probationary license to drive, or a restricted driving permit issued pursuant to this Code or under the law of another state, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(a-3) A second or subsequent violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 4 felony if committed by a person whose driving or operation of a motor vehicle is the proximate cause of a motor vehicle accident that causes personal injury or death to another. For purposes of this subsection, a personal injury includes any Type A injury as indicated on the traffic accident report completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate professional attention in either a doctor's office or a medical facility. A Type A injury includes severe bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene.

(a-5) Any person who violates this Section as provided in subsection (a) while his or her driver's license, permit or privilege is revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar provision of a law of another state, is guilty of a Class 4 felony. The person shall be required to undergo a professional evaluation, as provided in Section 11-501 of this Code, to determine if an alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound problem exists and the extent of the problem, and to undergo the imposition of treatment as appropriate.

(a-10) A person's driver's license, permit, or privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit may be subject to multiple revocations, multiple suspensions, or any combination of both simultaneously. No revocation or suspension shall serve to negate, invalidate, cancel, postpone, or in any way lessen the effect of any other revocation or suspension entered prior or subsequent to any other revocation or suspension.

(b) (Blank).

(b-1) Upon receiving a report of the conviction of any violation indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle during the time when the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was suspended by the Secretary of State or the driver's licensing administrator of another state, except as specifically allowed by a probationary license, judicial driving permit, restricted driving permit or monitoring device driving permit the Secretary shall extend the suspension for the same period of time as the originally imposed suspension unless the suspension has already expired, in which case the Secretary shall be authorized to suspend the person's driving privileges for the same period of time as the originally imposed suspension.

(b-2) Except as provided in subsection (b-6), upon receiving a report of the conviction of any violation indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle when the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked by the Secretary of State or the driver's license administrator of any other state, except as specifically allowed by a restricted driving permit issued pursuant to this Code or the law of another state, the Secretary shall not issue a driver's license for an additional period of one year from the date of such conviction indicating such person was operating a vehicle during such period of revocation.

(b-3) (Blank).

(b-4) When the Secretary of State receives a report of a conviction of any violation indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle that was not equipped with an ignition interlock device during a time when the person was prohibited from operating a motor vehicle not equipped with such a device, the Secretary shall not issue a driver's license to that person for an additional period of one year from the date of the conviction.

(b-5) Any person convicted of violating this Section shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 consecutive days or 300 hours of community service when the person's driving privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(b-6) Upon receiving a report of a first conviction of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the Secretary shall not issue a driver's license for an additional period of three years from the date of such conviction.

(c) Except as provided in subsections (c-3) and (c-4), any person convicted of violating this Section shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service when the person's driving privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of:

(1) a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, any other drug or any combination thereof; or

(2) a violation of paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of leaving the scene of a motor vehicle accident involving personal injury or death; or

(3) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

Such sentence of imprisonment or community service shall not be subject to suspension in order to reduce such sentence.

(c-1) Except as provided in subsections (c-5) and (d), any person convicted of a second violation of this Section shall be ordered by the court to serve a minimum of 100 hours of community service.

(c-2) In addition to other penalties imposed under this Section, the court may impose on any person convicted a fourth time of violating this Section any of the following:

(1) Seizure of the license plates of the person's vehicle.

(2) Immobilization of the person's vehicle for a period of time to be determined by the court.

(c-3) Any person convicted of a violation of this Section during a period of summary suspension imposed pursuant to Section 11-501.1 when the person was eligible for a MDDP shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days.

(c-4) Any person who has been issued a MDDP and who is convicted of a violation of this Section as a result of operating or being in actual physical control of a motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device at the time of the offense shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days.

(c-5) Any person convicted of a second violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony, is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, and shall serve a mandatory term of imprisonment, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense; and

(2) the prior conviction under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense, or was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d) Any person convicted of a second violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and

(2) the prior conviction under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(d-1) Except as provided in subsections (d-2), (d-2.5), and (d-3), any person convicted of a third or subsequent violation of this Section shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court.

(d-2) Any person convicted of a third violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony and must serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and

(2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(d-2.5) Any person convicted of a third violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 1 felony, is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, and must serve a mandatory term of imprisonment, if:

(1) the current violation occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of the person's life; and

(2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense, or was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d-3) Any person convicted of a fourth, fifth, sixth, seventh, eighth, or ninth violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony and must serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and

(2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(d-3.5) Any person convicted of a fourth or subsequent violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 1 felony, is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, and must serve a mandatory term of imprisonment, and is eligible for an extended term, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense; and

(2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense, or was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d-4) Any person convicted of a tenth, eleventh, twelfth, thirteenth, or fourteenth violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony, and is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and

(2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(d-5) Any person convicted of a fifteenth or subsequent violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony, and is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and

(2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(e) Any person in violation of this Section who is also in violation of Section 7-601 of this Code relating to mandatory insurance requirements, in addition to other penalties imposed under this Section, shall have his or her motor vehicle immediately impounded by the arresting law enforcement officer. The motor vehicle may be released to any licensed driver upon a showing of proof of insurance for the vehicle that was impounded and the notarized written consent for the release by the vehicle owner.

(f) For any prosecution under this Section, a certified copy of the driving abstract of the defendant shall be admitted as proof of any prior conviction.

(g) The motor vehicle used in a violation of this Section is subject to seizure and forfeiture as provided in Sections 36-1 and 36-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 if the person's driving privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of:

(1) a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar provision of a law of another state;

(2) a violation of paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar provision of a law of another state;

(3) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a law of another state; or

(4) a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(Source: P.A. 97-984, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-285, eff. 1-1-14; 98-418, eff. 8-16-13; 98-573, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-508) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-508)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-176)

Sec. 6-508. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) - qualification standards.

(a) Testing.

(1) General. No person shall be issued an original or renewal CDL unless that person is domiciled in this State. The Secretary shall cause to be administered such tests as the Secretary deems necessary to meet the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383, subparts F, G, H, and J.

(2) Third party testing. The Secretary of State state may authorize a "third party tester", pursuant to 49 C.F.R. Part 383.75, to administer the skills test or tests specified by the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration pursuant to the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 and any appropriate federal rule.

(b) Waiver of Skills Test. The Secretary of State may waive the skills test specified in this Section for a driver applicant for a commercial driver license who meets the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383.77 and Part 383.123. The Secretary of State shall waive the skills tests specified in this Section for a driver applicant who has military commercial motor vehicle experience, subject to the requirements of 49 C.F.R. 383.77.

(b-1) No person shall be issued a commercial driver instruction permit or CDL unless the person certifies to the Secretary one of the following types of driving operations in which he or she will be engaged:

(1) non-excepted interstate;

(2) non-excepted intrastate;

(3) excepted interstate; or

(4) excepted intrastate.

(b-2) Persons who hold a commercial driver instruction permit or CDL on January 30, 2012 must certify to the Secretary no later than January 30, 2014 one of the following applicable self-certifications:

(1) non-excepted interstate;

(2) non-excepted intrastate;

(3) excepted interstate; or

(4) excepted intrastate.

(c) Limitations on issuance of a CDL. A CDL, or a commercial driver instruction permit, shall not be issued to a person while the person is subject to a disqualification from driving a commercial motor vehicle, or unless otherwise permitted by this Code, while the person's driver's license is suspended, revoked or cancelled in any state, or any territory or province of Canada; nor may a CDL be issued to a person who has a CDL issued by any other state, or foreign jurisdiction, unless the person first surrenders all such licenses. No CDL shall be issued to or renewed for a person who does not meet the requirement of 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11). The requirement may be met with the aid of a hearing aid.

(c-1) The Secretary may issue a CDL with a school bus driver endorsement to allow a person to drive the type of bus described in subsection (d-5) of Section 6-104 of this Code. The CDL with a school bus driver endorsement may be issued only to a person meeting the following requirements:

(1) the person has submitted his or her fingerprints to the Department of State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases;

(2) the person has passed a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on charter bus operation, charter bus safety, and certain special traffic laws relating to school buses determined by the Secretary of State to be relevant to charter buses, and submitted to a review of the driver applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

(3) the person has demonstrated physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use; and

(4) the person has not been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Sections 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.

The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and may not exceed the actual cost of the records check.

(c-2) The Secretary shall issue a CDL with a school bus endorsement to allow a person to drive a school bus as defined in this Section. The CDL shall be issued according to the requirements outlined in 49 C.F.R. 383. A person may not operate a school bus as defined in this Section without a school bus endorsement. The Secretary of State may adopt rules consistent with Federal guidelines to implement this subsection (c-2).

(d) Commercial driver instruction permit. A commercial driver instruction permit may be issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license if such person successfully passes such tests as the Secretary determines to be necessary. A commercial driver instruction permit shall not be issued to a person who does not meet the requirements of 49 CFR 391.41 (b)(11), except for the renewal of a commercial driver instruction permit for a person who possesses a commercial instruction permit prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1999.

(Source: P.A. 97-208, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-52, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-176)

Sec. 6-508. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) - qualification standards.

(a) Testing.

(1) General. No person shall be issued an original or renewal CDL unless that person is domiciled in this State or is applying for a non-domiciled CDL under Sections 6-509 and 6-510 of this Code. The Secretary shall cause to be administered such tests as the Secretary deems necessary to meet the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383, subparts F, G, H, and J.

(1.5) Effective July 1, 2014, no person shall be issued an original CDL or an upgraded CDL that requires a skills test unless that person has held a CLP, for a minimum of 14 calendar days, for the classification of vehicle and endorsement, if any, for which the person is seeking a CDL.

(2) Third party testing. The Secretary of State state may authorize a "third party tester", pursuant to 49 C.F.R. Part 383.75 and 49 C.F.R. 384.228 and 384.229, to administer the skills test or tests specified by the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration pursuant to the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 and any appropriate federal rule.

(b) Waiver of Skills Test. The Secretary of State may waive the skills test specified in this Section for a driver applicant for a commercial driver license who meets the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383.77. The Secretary of State shall waive the skills tests specified in this Section for a driver applicant who has military commercial motor vehicle experience, subject to the requirements of 49 C.F.R. 383.77.

(b-1) No person shall be issued a CDL unless the person certifies to the Secretary one of the following types of driving operations in which he or she will be engaged:

(1) non-excepted interstate;

(2) non-excepted intrastate;

(3) excepted interstate; or

(4) excepted intrastate.

(b-2) (Blank).

(c) Limitations on issuance of a CDL. A CDL shall not be issued to a person while the person is subject to a disqualification from driving a commercial motor vehicle, or unless otherwise permitted by this Code, while the person's driver's license is suspended, revoked or cancelled in any state, or any territory or province of Canada; nor may a CLP or CDL be issued to a person who has a CLP or CDL issued by any other state, or foreign jurisdiction, nor may a CDL be issued to a person who has an Illinois CLP unless the person first surrenders all of these licenses or permits. However, a person may hold an Illinois CLP and an Illinois CDL providing the CLP is necessary to train or practice for an endorsement or vehicle classification not present on the current CDL. No CDL shall be issued to or renewed for a person who does not meet the requirement of 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11). The requirement may be met with the aid of a hearing aid.

(c-1) The Secretary may issue a CDL with a school bus driver endorsement to allow a person to drive the type of bus described in subsection (d-5) of Section 6-104 of this Code. The CDL with a school bus driver endorsement may be issued only to a person meeting the following requirements:

(1) the person has submitted his or her fingerprints to the Department of State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases;

(2) the person has passed a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on charter bus operation, charter bus safety, and certain special traffic laws relating to school buses determined by the Secretary of State to be relevant to charter buses, and submitted to a review of the driver applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

(3) the person has demonstrated physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use; and

(4) the person has not been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Sections 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.

The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and may not exceed the actual cost of the records check.

(c-2) The Secretary shall issue a CDL with a school bus endorsement to allow a person to drive a school bus as defined in this Section. The CDL shall be issued according to the requirements outlined in 49 C.F.R. 383. A person may not operate a school bus as defined in this Section without a school bus endorsement. The Secretary of State may adopt rules consistent with Federal guidelines to implement this subsection (c-2).

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-208, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-52, eff. 1-1-14; 98-176, eff. 7-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-514) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-514)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-176)

Sec. 6-514. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) - Disqualifications.

(a) A person shall be disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than 12 months for the first violation of:

(1) Refusing to submit to or failure to complete a test or tests authorized under Section 11-501.1 while driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CDL holder, while driving a non-CMV; or

(2) Operating a commercial motor vehicle while the alcohol concentration of the person's blood, breath or urine is at least 0.04, or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's blood or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act as indicated by a police officer's sworn report or other verified evidence; or operating a non-commercial motor vehicle while the alcohol concentration of the person's blood, breath, or urine was above the legal limit defined in Section 11-501.1 or 11-501.8 or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's blood or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act as indicated by a police officer's sworn report or other verified evidence while holding a commercial driver's license; or

(3) Conviction for a first violation of:

(i) Driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CDL holder, driving a non-CMV while under the influence of alcohol, or any other drug, or combination of drugs to a degree which renders such person incapable of safely driving; or

(ii) Knowingly leaving the scene of an accident while operating a commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CDL holder, while driving a non-CMV; or

(iii) Driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CDL holder, driving a non-CMV while committing any felony; or

(iv) Driving a commercial motor vehicle while the person's driving privileges or driver's license or permit is revoked, suspended, or cancelled or the driver is disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle; or

(v) Causing a fatality through the negligent operation of a commercial motor vehicle, including but not limited to the crimes of motor vehicle manslaughter, homicide by a motor vehicle, and negligent homicide.

As used in this subdivision (a)(3)(v), "motor vehicle manslaughter" means the offense of involuntary manslaughter if committed by means of a vehicle; "homicide by a motor vehicle" means the offense of first degree murder or second degree murder, if either offense is committed by means of a vehicle; and "negligent homicide" means reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof under subdivision (d)(1)(F) of Section 11-501 of this Code.

If any of the above violations or refusals occurred while transporting hazardous material(s) required to be placarded, the person shall be disqualified for a period of not less than 3 years; or

(4) If the person is a qualifying patient licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act who is in possession of a valid registry card issued under that Act, operating a commercial motor vehicle under impairment resulting from the consumption of cannabis, as determined by failure of standardized field sobriety tests administered by a law enforcement officer as directed by subsection (a-5) of Section 11-501.2.

(b) A person is disqualified for life for a second conviction of any of the offenses specified in paragraph (a), or any combination of those offenses, arising from 2 or more separate incidents.

(c) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for life if the person either (i) uses a commercial motor vehicle in the commission of any felony involving the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of a controlled substance, or possession with intent to manufacture, distribute or dispense a controlled substance or (ii) if the person is a CDL holder, uses a non-CMV in the commission of a felony involving any of those activities.

(d) The Secretary of State may, when the United States Secretary of Transportation so authorizes, issue regulations in which a disqualification for life under paragraph (b) may be reduced to a period of not less than 10 years. If a reinstated driver is subsequently convicted of another disqualifying offense, as specified in subsection (a) of this Section, he or she shall be permanently disqualified for life and shall be ineligible to again apply for a reduction of the lifetime disqualification.

(e) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than 2 months if convicted of 2 serious traffic violations, committed in a commercial motor vehicle, non-CMV while holding a CDL, or any combination thereof, arising from separate incidents, occurring within a 3 year period, provided the serious traffic violation committed in a non-CMV would result in the suspension or revocation of the CDL holder's non-CMV privileges. However, a person will be disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than 4 months if convicted of 3 serious traffic violations, committed in a commercial motor vehicle, non-CMV while holding a CDL, or any combination thereof, arising from separate incidents, occurring within a 3 year period, provided the serious traffic violation committed in a non-CMV would result in the suspension or revocation of the CDL holder's non-CMV privileges. If all the convictions occurred in a non-CMV, the disqualification shall be entered only if the convictions would result in the suspension or revocation of the CDL holder's non-CMV privileges.

(e-1) (Blank).

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, any driver disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle, pursuant to this UCDLA, shall not be eligible for restoration of commercial driving privileges during any such period of disqualification.

(g) After suspending, revoking, or cancelling a commercial driver's license, the Secretary of State must update the driver's records to reflect such action within 10 days. After suspending or revoking the driving privilege of any person who has been issued a CDL or commercial driver instruction permit from another jurisdiction, the Secretary shall originate notification to such issuing jurisdiction within 10 days.

(h) The "disqualifications" referred to in this Section shall not be imposed upon any commercial motor vehicle driver, by the Secretary of State, unless the prohibited action(s) occurred after March 31, 1992.

(i) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle in accordance with the following:

(1) For 6 months upon a first conviction of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) of Section 6-507 of this Code.

(2) For 2 years upon a second conviction of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) or any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code within a 10-year period if the second conviction is a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3).

(3) For 3 years upon a third or subsequent conviction of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) or any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code within a 10-year period if the third or subsequent conviction is a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3).

(4) For one year upon a first conviction of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code.

(5) For 3 years upon a second conviction of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) or any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code within a 10-year period if the second conviction is a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or (b-5).

(6) For 5 years upon a third or subsequent conviction of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) or any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code within a 10-year period if the third or subsequent conviction is a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or (b-5).

(j) Disqualification for railroad-highway grade crossing violation.

(1) General rule. A driver who is convicted of a violation of a federal, State, or local law or regulation pertaining to one of the following 6 offenses at a railroad-highway grade crossing must be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for the period of time specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (j) if the offense was committed while operating a commercial motor vehicle:

(i) For drivers who are not required to always stop, failing to slow down and check that the tracks are clear of an approaching train or railroad track equipment, as described in subsection (a-5) of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

(ii) For drivers who are not required to always stop, failing to stop before reaching the crossing, if the tracks are not clear, as described in subsection (a) of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

(iii) For drivers who are always required to stop, failing to stop before driving onto the crossing, as described in Section 11-1202 of this Code;

(iv) For all drivers, failing to have sufficient space to drive completely through the crossing without stopping, as described in subsection (b) of Section 11-1425 of this Code;

(v) For all drivers, failing to obey a traffic control device or the directions of an enforcement official at the crossing, as described in subdivision (a)2 of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

(vi) For all drivers, failing to negotiate a crossing because of insufficient undercarriage clearance, as described in subsection (d-1) of Section 11-1201 of this Code.

(2) Duration of disqualification for railroad-highway grade crossing violation.

(i) First violation. A driver must be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for not less than 60 days if the driver is convicted of a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) and, in the three-year period preceding the conviction, the driver had no convictions for a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j).

(ii) Second violation. A driver must be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for not less than 120 days if the driver is convicted of a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) and, in the three-year period preceding the conviction, the driver had one other conviction for a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) that was committed in a separate incident.

(iii) Third or subsequent violation. A driver must be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for not less than one year if the driver is convicted of a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) and, in the three-year period preceding the conviction, the driver had 2 or more other convictions for violations described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) that were committed in separate incidents.

(k) Upon notification of a disqualification of a driver's commercial motor vehicle privileges imposed by the U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, in accordance with 49 C.F.R. 383.52, the Secretary of State shall immediately record to the driving record the notice of disqualification and confirm to the driver the action that has been taken.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-176)

Sec. 6-514. Commercial driver's license (CDL); commercial learner's permit (CLP); disqualifications. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) - Disqualifications.

(a) A person shall be disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than 12 months for the first violation of:

(1) Refusing to submit to or failure to complete a test or tests authorized under Section 11-501.1 while driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CLP or CDL holder, while driving a non-CMV; or

(2) Operating a commercial motor vehicle while the alcohol concentration of the person's blood, breath or urine is at least 0.04, or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's blood or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act as indicated by a police officer's sworn report or other verified evidence; or operating a non-commercial motor vehicle while the alcohol concentration of the person's blood, breath, or urine was above the legal limit defined in Section 11-501.1 or 11-501.8 or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's blood or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act as indicated by a police officer's sworn report or other verified evidence while holding a CLP or CDL; or

(3) Conviction for a first violation of:

(i) Driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CLP or CDL holder, driving a non-CMV while under the influence of alcohol, or any other drug, or combination of drugs to a degree which renders such person incapable of safely driving; or

(ii) Knowingly leaving the scene of an accident while operating a commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CLP or CDL holder, while driving a non-CMV; or

(iii) Driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CLP or CDL holder, driving a non-CMV while committing any felony; or

(iv) Driving a commercial motor vehicle while the person's driving privileges or driver's license or permit is revoked, suspended, or cancelled or the driver is disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle; or

(v) Causing a fatality through the negligent operation of a commercial motor vehicle, including but not limited to the crimes of motor vehicle manslaughter, homicide by a motor vehicle, and negligent homicide.

As used in this subdivision (a)(3)(v), "motor vehicle manslaughter" means the offense of involuntary manslaughter if committed by means of a vehicle; "homicide by a motor vehicle" means the offense of first degree murder or second degree murder, if either offense is committed by means of a vehicle; and "negligent homicide" means reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof under subdivision (d)(1)(F) of Section 11-501 of this Code.

If any of the above violations or refusals occurred while transporting hazardous material(s) required to be placarded, the person shall be disqualified for a period of not less than 3 years; or

(4) If the person is a qualifying patient licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act who is in possession of a valid registry card issued under that Act, operating a commercial motor vehicle under impairment resulting from the consumption of cannabis, as determined by failure of standardized field sobriety tests administered by a law enforcement officer as directed by subsection (a-5) of Section 11-501.2.

(b) A person is disqualified for life for a second conviction of any of the offenses specified in paragraph (a), or any combination of those offenses, arising from 2 or more separate incidents.

(c) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for life if the person either (i) uses a commercial motor vehicle in the commission of any felony involving the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of a controlled substance, or possession with intent to manufacture, distribute or dispense a controlled substance or (ii) if the person is a CLP or CDL holder, uses a non-CMV in the commission of a felony involving any of those activities.

(d) The Secretary of State may, when the United States Secretary of Transportation so authorizes, issue regulations in which a disqualification for life under paragraph (b) may be reduced to a period of not less than 10 years. If a reinstated driver is subsequently convicted of another disqualifying offense, as specified in subsection (a) of this Section, he or she shall be permanently disqualified for life and shall be ineligible to again apply for a reduction of the lifetime disqualification.

(e) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than 2 months if convicted of 2 serious traffic violations, committed in a commercial motor vehicle, non-CMV while holding a CLP or CDL, or any combination thereof, arising from separate incidents, occurring within a 3 year period, provided the serious traffic violation committed in a non-CMV would result in the suspension or revocation of the CLP or CDL holder's non-CMV privileges. However, a person will be disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than 4 months if convicted of 3 serious traffic violations, committed in a commercial motor vehicle, non-CMV while holding a CLP or CDL, or any combination thereof, arising from separate incidents, occurring within a 3 year period, provided the serious traffic violation committed in a non-CMV would result in the suspension or revocation of the CLP or CDL holder's non-CMV privileges. If all the convictions occurred in a non-CMV, the disqualification shall be entered only if the convictions would result in the suspension or revocation of the CLP or CDL holder's non-CMV privileges.

(e-1) (Blank).

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, any driver disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle, pursuant to this UCDLA, shall not be eligible for restoration of commercial driving privileges during any such period of disqualification.

(g) After suspending, revoking, or cancelling a CLP or CDL, the Secretary of State must update the driver's records to reflect such action within 10 days. After suspending or revoking the driving privilege of any person who has been issued a CLP or CDL from another jurisdiction, the Secretary shall originate notification to such issuing jurisdiction within 10 days.

(h) The "disqualifications" referred to in this Section shall not be imposed upon any commercial motor vehicle driver, by the Secretary of State, unless the prohibited action(s) occurred after March 31, 1992.

(i) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle in accordance with the following:

(1) For 6 months upon a first conviction of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) of Section 6-507 of this Code.

(2) For 2 years upon a second conviction of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) or any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code within a 10-year period if the second conviction is a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3).

(3) For 3 years upon a third or subsequent conviction of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) or any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code within a 10-year period if the third or subsequent conviction is a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3).

(4) For one year upon a first conviction of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code.

(5) For 3 years upon a second conviction of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) or any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code within a 10-year period if the second conviction is a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or (b-5).

(6) For 5 years upon a third or subsequent conviction of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) or any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code within a 10-year period if the third or subsequent conviction is a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or (b-5).

(j) Disqualification for railroad-highway grade crossing violation.

(1) General rule. A driver who is convicted of a violation of a federal, State, or local law or regulation pertaining to one of the following 6 offenses at a railroad-highway grade crossing must be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for the period of time specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (j) if the offense was committed while operating a commercial motor vehicle:

(i) For drivers who are not required to always stop, failing to slow down and check that the tracks are clear of an approaching train or railroad track equipment, as described in subsection (a-5) of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

(ii) For drivers who are not required to always stop, failing to stop before reaching the crossing, if the tracks are not clear, as described in subsection (a) of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

(iii) For drivers who are always required to stop, failing to stop before driving onto the crossing, as described in Section 11-1202 of this Code;

(iv) For all drivers, failing to have sufficient space to drive completely through the crossing without stopping, as described in subsection (b) of Section 11-1425 of this Code;

(v) For all drivers, failing to obey a traffic control device or the directions of an enforcement official at the crossing, as described in subdivision (a)2 of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

(vi) For all drivers, failing to negotiate a crossing because of insufficient undercarriage clearance, as described in subsection (d-1) of Section 11-1201 of this Code.

(2) Duration of disqualification for railroad-highway grade crossing violation.

(i) First violation. A driver must be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for not less than 60 days if the driver is convicted of a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) and, in the three-year period preceding the conviction, the driver had no convictions for a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j).

(ii) Second violation. A driver must be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for not less than 120 days if the driver is convicted of a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) and, in the three-year period preceding the conviction, the driver had one other conviction for a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) that was committed in a separate incident.

(iii) Third or subsequent violation. A driver must be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for not less than one year if the driver is convicted of a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) and, in the three-year period preceding the conviction, the driver had 2 or more other convictions for violations described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) that were committed in separate incidents.

(k) Upon notification of a disqualification of a driver's commercial motor vehicle privileges imposed by the U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, in accordance with 49 C.F.R. 383.52, the Secretary of State shall immediately record to the driving record the notice of disqualification and confirm to the driver the action that has been taken.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-176, eff. 7-1-14; revised 8-8-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-208) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-208)

Sec. 11-208. Powers of local authorities.

(a) The provisions of this Code shall not be deemed to prevent local authorities with respect to streets and highways under their jurisdiction and within the reasonable exercise of the police power from:

1. Regulating the standing or parking of vehicles, except as limited by Sections 11-1306 and 11-1307 of this Act;

2. Regulating traffic by means of police officers or traffic control signals;

3. Regulating or prohibiting processions or assemblages on the highways; and certifying persons to control traffic for processions or assemblages;

4. Designating particular highways as one-way highways and requiring that all vehicles thereon be moved in one specific direction;

5. Regulating the speed of vehicles in public parks subject to the limitations set forth in Section 11-604;

6. Designating any highway as a through highway, as authorized in Section 11-302, and requiring that all vehicles stop before entering or crossing the same or designating any intersection as a stop intersection or a yield right-of-way intersection and requiring all vehicles to stop or yield the right-of-way at one or more entrances to such intersections;

7. Restricting the use of highways as authorized in Chapter 15;

8. Regulating the operation of bicycles and requiring the registration and licensing of same, including the requirement of a registration fee;

9. Regulating or prohibiting the turning of vehicles or specified types of vehicles at intersections;

10. Altering the speed limits as authorized in Section 11-604;

11. Prohibiting U-turns;

12. Prohibiting pedestrian crossings at other than designated and marked crosswalks or at intersections;

13. Prohibiting parking during snow removal operation;

14. Imposing fines in accordance with Section 11-1301.3 as penalties for use of any parking place reserved for persons with disabilities, as defined by Section 1-159.1, or disabled veterans by any person using a motor vehicle not bearing registration plates specified in Section 11-1301.1 or a special decal or device as defined in Section 11-1301.2 as evidence that the vehicle is operated by or for a person with disabilities or disabled veteran;

15. Adopting such other traffic regulations as are specifically authorized by this Code; or

16. Enforcing the provisions of subsection (f) of Section 3-413 of this Code or a similar local ordinance.

(b) No ordinance or regulation enacted under subsections 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11 or 13 of paragraph (a) shall be effective until signs giving reasonable notice of such local traffic regulations are posted.

(c) The provisions of this Code shall not prevent any municipality having a population of 500,000 or more inhabitants from prohibiting any person from driving or operating any motor vehicle upon the roadways of such municipality with headlamps on high beam or bright.

(d) The provisions of this Code shall not be deemed to prevent local authorities within the reasonable exercise of their police power from prohibiting, on private property, the unauthorized use of parking spaces reserved for persons with disabilities.

(e) No unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may enact or enforce an ordinance that applies only to motorcycles if the principal purpose for that ordinance is to restrict the access of motorcycles to any highway or portion of a highway for which federal or State funds have been used for the planning, design, construction, or maintenance of that highway. No unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may enact an ordinance requiring motorcycle users to wear protective headgear. Nothing in this subsection (e) shall affect the authority of a unit of local government to regulate motorcycles for traffic control purposes or in accordance with Section 12-602 of this Code. No unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may regulate motorcycles in a manner inconsistent with this Code. This subsection (e) is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(f) A municipality or county designated in Section 11-208.6 may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law enforcement system to enforce violations of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and imposing liability on a registered owner or lessee of a vehicle used in such a violation.

(g) A municipality or county, as provided in Section 11-1201.1, may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law enforcement system to enforce violations of Section 11-1201 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and imposing liability on a registered owner of a vehicle used in such a violation.

(h) A municipality designated in Section 11-208.8 may enact an ordinance providing for an automated speed enforcement system to enforce violations of Article VI of Chapter 11 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(i) A municipality or county designated in Section 11-208.9 may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law enforcement system to enforce violations of Section 11-1414 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and imposing liability on a registered owner or lessee of a vehicle used in such a violation.

(Source: P.A. 97-29, eff. 1-1-12; 97-672, eff. 7-1-12; 98-396, eff. 1-1-14; 98-556, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-208.7)

Sec. 11-208.7. Administrative fees and procedures for impounding vehicles for specified violations.

(a) Any municipality may, consistent with this Section, provide by ordinance procedures for the release of properly impounded vehicles and for the imposition of a reasonable administrative fee related to its administrative and processing costs associated with the investigation, arrest, and detention of an offender, or the removal, impoundment, storage, and release of the vehicle. The administrative fee imposed by the municipality may be in addition to any fees charged for the towing and storage of an impounded vehicle. The administrative fee shall be waived by the municipality upon verifiable proof that the vehicle was stolen at the time the vehicle was impounded.

(b) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the release of properly impounded vehicles under this Section may impose fees for the following violations:

(1) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense for which a motor vehicle may be seized and forfeited pursuant to Section 36-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(2) driving under the influence of alcohol, another drug or drugs, an intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, in violation of Section 11-501 of this Code; or

(3) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, a felony or in violation of the Cannabis Control Act; or

(4) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense in violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; or

(5) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense in violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.5, or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(6) driving while a driver's license, permit, or privilege to operate a motor vehicle is suspended or revoked pursuant to Section 6-303 of this Code; except that vehicles shall not be subjected to seizure or impoundment if the suspension is for an unpaid citation (parking or moving) or due to failure to comply with emission testing; or

(7) operation or use of a motor vehicle while soliciting, possessing, or attempting to solicit or possess cannabis or a controlled substance, as defined by the Cannabis Control Act or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; or

(8) operation or use of a motor vehicle with an expired driver's license, in violation of Section 6-101 of this Code, if the period of expiration is greater than one year; or

(9) operation or use of a motor vehicle without ever having been issued a driver's license or permit, in violation of Section 6-101 of this Code, or operating a motor vehicle without ever having been issued a driver's license or permit due to a person's age; or

(10) operation or use of a motor vehicle by a person against whom a warrant has been issued by a circuit clerk in Illinois for failing to answer charges that the driver violated Section 6-101, 6-303, or 11-501 of this Code; or

(11) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense in violation of Article 16 or 16A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(12) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, any other misdemeanor or felony offense in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when so provided by local ordinance; or

(13) operation or use of a motor vehicle in violation of Section 11-503 of this Code:

(A) while the vehicle is part of a funeral procession; or

(B) in a manner that interferes with a funeral procession.

(c) The following shall apply to any fees imposed for administrative and processing costs pursuant to subsection (b):

(1) All administrative fees and towing and storage charges shall be imposed on the registered owner of the motor vehicle or the agents of that owner.

(2) The fees shall be in addition to (i) any other penalties that may be assessed by a court of law for the underlying violations; and (ii) any towing or storage fees, or both, charged by the towing company.

(3) The fees shall be uniform for all similarly situated vehicles.

(4) The fees shall be collected by and paid to the municipality imposing the fees.

(5) The towing or storage fees, or both, shall be collected by and paid to the person, firm, or entity that tows and stores the impounded vehicle.

(d) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the release of properly impounded vehicles under this Section shall provide for an opportunity for a hearing, as provided in subdivision (b)(4) of Section 11-208.3 of this Code, and for the release of the vehicle to the owner of record, lessee, or a lienholder of record upon payment of all administrative fees and towing and storage fees.

(e) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the impoundment and release of vehicles under this Section shall include the following provisions concerning notice of impoundment:

(1) Whenever a police officer has cause to believe that a motor vehicle is subject to impoundment, the officer shall provide for the towing of the vehicle to a facility authorized by the municipality.

(2) At the time the vehicle is towed, the municipality shall notify or make a reasonable attempt to notify the owner, lessee, or person identifying himself or herself as the owner or lessee of the vehicle, or any person who is found to be in control of the vehicle at the time of the alleged offense, of the fact of the seizure, and of the vehicle owner's or lessee's right to an administrative hearing.

(3) The municipality shall also provide notice that the motor vehicle will remain impounded pending the completion of an administrative hearing, unless the owner or lessee of the vehicle or a lienholder posts with the municipality a bond equal to the administrative fee as provided by ordinance and pays for all towing and storage charges.

(f) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the impoundment and release of vehicles under this Section shall include a provision providing that the registered owner or lessee of the vehicle and any lienholder of record shall be provided with a notice of hearing. The notice shall:

(1) be served upon the owner, lessee, and any lienholder of record either by personal service or by first class mail to the interested party's address as registered with the Secretary of State;

(2) be served upon interested parties within 10 days after a vehicle is impounded by the municipality; and

(3) contain the date, time, and location of the administrative hearing. An initial hearing shall be scheduled and convened no later than 45 days after the date of the mailing of the notice of hearing.

(g) In addition to the requirements contained in subdivision (b)(4) of Section 11-208.3 of this Code relating to administrative hearings, any ordinance providing for the impoundment and release of vehicles under this Section shall include the following requirements concerning administrative hearings:

(1) administrative hearings shall be conducted by a hearing officer who is an attorney licensed to practice law in this State for a minimum of 3 years;

(2) at the conclusion of the administrative hearing, the hearing officer shall issue a written decision either sustaining or overruling the vehicle impoundment;

(3) if the basis for the vehicle impoundment is sustained by the administrative hearing officer, any administrative fee posted to secure the release of the vehicle shall be forfeited to the municipality;

(4) all final decisions of the administrative hearing officer shall be subject to review under the provisions of the Administrative Review Law; and

(5) unless the administrative hearing officer overturns the basis for the vehicle impoundment, no vehicle shall be released to the owner, lessee, or lienholder of record until all administrative fees and towing and storage charges are paid.

(h) Vehicles not retrieved from the towing facility or storage facility within 35 days after the administrative hearing officer issues a written decision shall be deemed abandoned and disposed of in accordance with the provisions of Article II of Chapter 4 of this Code.

(i) Unless stayed by a court of competent jurisdiction, any fine, penalty, or administrative fee imposed under this Section which remains unpaid in whole or in part after the expiration of the deadline for seeking judicial review under the Administrative Review Law may be enforced in the same manner as a judgment entered by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 97-109, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-518, eff. 8-22-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501)

Sec. 11-501. Driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof.

(a) A person shall not drive or be in actual physical control of any vehicle within this State while:

(1) the alcohol concentration in the person's blood or breath is 0.08 or more based on the definition of blood and breath units in Section 11-501.2;

(2) under the influence of alcohol;

(3) under the influence of any intoxicating compound or combination of intoxicating compounds to a degree that renders the person incapable of driving safely;

(4) under the influence of any other drug or combination of drugs to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving;

(5) under the combined influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving; or

(6) there is any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's breath, blood, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act. Subject to all other requirements and provisions under this Section, this paragraph (6) does not apply to the lawful consumption of cannabis by a qualifying patient licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act who is in possession of a valid registry card issued under that Act, unless that person is impaired by the use of cannabis.

(b) The fact that any person charged with violating this Section is or has been legally entitled to use alcohol, cannabis under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, shall not constitute a defense against any charge of violating this Section.

(c) Penalties.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, any person convicted of violating subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A person who violates subsection (a) or a similar provision a second time shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of either 5 days of imprisonment or 240 hours of community service in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(3) A person who violates subsection (a) is subject to 6 months of imprisonment, an additional mandatory minimum fine of $1,000, and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children if the person was transporting a person under the age of 16 at the time of the violation.

(4) A person who violates subsection (a) a first time, if the alcohol concentration in his or her blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, shall be subject, in addition to any other penalty that may be imposed, to a mandatory minimum of 100 hours of community service and a mandatory minimum fine of $500.

(5) A person who violates subsection (a) a second time, if at the time of the second violation the alcohol concentration in his or her blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, shall be subject, in addition to any other penalty that may be imposed, to a mandatory minimum of 2 days of imprisonment and a mandatory minimum fine of $1,250.

(d) Aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof.

(1) Every person convicted of committing a violation of this Section shall be guilty of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof if:

(A) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) or a similar provision for the third or subsequent time;

(B) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) while driving a school bus with one or more passengers on board;

(C) the person in committing a violation of subsection (a) was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to another, when the violation was a proximate cause of the injuries;

(D) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) and has been previously convicted of violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide in which the person was determined to have been under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds as an element of the offense or the person has previously been convicted under subparagraph (C) or subparagraph (F) of this paragraph (1);

(E) the person, in committing a violation of subsection (a) while driving at any speed in a school speed zone at a time when a speed limit of 20 miles per hour was in effect under subsection (a) of Section 11-605 of this Code, was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in bodily harm, other than great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement, to another person, when the violation of subsection (a) was a proximate cause of the bodily harm;

(F) the person, in committing a violation of subsection (a), was involved in a motor vehicle, snowmobile, all-terrain vehicle, or watercraft accident that resulted in the death of another person, when the violation of subsection (a) was a proximate cause of the death;

(G) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) during a period in which the defendant's driving privileges are revoked or suspended, where the revocation or suspension was for a violation of subsection (a) or a similar provision, Section 11-501.1, paragraph (b) of Section 11-401, or for reckless homicide as defined in Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(H) the person committed the violation while he or she did not possess a driver's license or permit or a restricted driving permit or a judicial driving permit or a monitoring device driving permit;

(I) the person committed the violation while he or she knew or should have known that the vehicle he or she was driving was not covered by a liability insurance policy;

(J) the person in committing a violation of subsection (a) was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in bodily harm, but not great bodily harm, to the child under the age of 16 being transported by the person, if the violation was the proximate cause of the injury;

(K) the person in committing a second violation of subsection (a) or a similar provision was transporting a person under the age of 16; or

(L) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) of this Section while transporting one or more passengers in a vehicle for-hire.

(2)(A) Except as provided otherwise, a person convicted of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(B) A third violation of this Section or a similar provision is a Class 2 felony. If at the time of the third violation the alcohol concentration in his or her blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum of 90 days of imprisonment and a mandatory minimum fine of $2,500 shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If at the time of the third violation, the defendant was transporting a person under the age of 16, a mandatory fine of $25,000 and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(C) A fourth violation of this Section or a similar provision is a Class 2 felony, for which a sentence of probation or conditional discharge may not be imposed. If at the time of the violation, the alcohol concentration in the defendant's blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If at the time of the fourth violation, the defendant was transporting a person under the age of 16 a mandatory fine of $25,000 and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(D) A fifth violation of this Section or a similar provision is a Class 1 felony, for which a sentence of probation or conditional discharge may not be imposed. If at the time of the violation, the alcohol concentration in the defendant's blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If at the time of the fifth violation, the defendant was transporting a person under the age of 16, a mandatory fine of $25,000, and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(E) A sixth or subsequent violation of this Section or similar provision is a Class X felony. If at the time of the violation, the alcohol concentration in the defendant's blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If at the time of the violation, the defendant was transporting a person under the age of 16, a mandatory fine of $25,000 and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(F) For a violation of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d), the defendant, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than one year nor more than 12 years.

(G) A violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) is a Class 2 felony, for which the defendant, unless the court determines that extraordinary circumstances exist and require probation, shall be sentenced to: (i) a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years if the violation resulted in the death of one person; or (ii) a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 28 years if the violation resulted in the deaths of 2 or more persons.

(H) For a violation of subparagraph (J) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d), a mandatory fine of $2,500, and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(I) A violation of subparagraph (K) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d), is a Class 2 felony and a mandatory fine of $2,500, and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If the child being transported suffered bodily harm, but not great bodily harm, in a motor vehicle accident, and the violation was the proximate cause of that injury, a mandatory fine of $5,000 and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(J) A violation of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) is a Class 3 felony, for which a sentence of probation or conditional discharge may not be imposed.

(3) Any person sentenced under this subsection (d) who receives a term of probation or conditional discharge must serve a minimum term of either 480 hours of community service or 10 days of imprisonment as a condition of the probation or conditional discharge in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(e) Any reference to a prior violation of subsection (a) or a similar provision includes any violation of a provision of a local ordinance or a provision of a law of another state or an offense committed on a military installation that is similar to a violation of subsection (a) of this Section.

(f) The imposition of a mandatory term of imprisonment or assignment of community service for a violation of this Section shall not be suspended or reduced by the court.

(g) Any penalty imposed for driving with a license that has been revoked for a previous violation of subsection (a) of this Section shall be in addition to the penalty imposed for any subsequent violation of subsection (a).

(h) For any prosecution under this Section, a certified copy of the driving abstract of the defendant shall be admitted as proof of any prior conviction.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-573, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-709.2)

Sec. 11-709.2. Bus on shoulder pilot program.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "bus on shoulders" is the use of specifically designated shoulders of roadways by authorized transit buses. The shoulders may be used by transit buses at times and locations as set by the Department in cooperation with the Regional Transportation Authority and the Suburban Bus Division of the Regional Transportation Authority.

(b) Commencing on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the Department along with the Regional Transportation Authority and Suburban Bus Division of the Regional Transportation Authority in cooperation with the Illinois State Police shall establish a 5-year pilot program within the boundaries of the Regional Transportation Authority for transit buses on highways and shoulders. The pilot program may be implemented on shoulders of highways as designated by the Department in cooperation with the Regional Transportation Authority and Suburban Bus Division of the Regional Transportation Authority. The Department may adopt rules necessary for transit buses to use roadway shoulders.

(c) After the pilot program established under subsection (b) of this Section has been operating for 2 years, the Department in cooperation with the Regional Transportation Transit Authority, the Suburban Bus Division of the Regional Transportation Authority, and the Illinois State Police shall issue a report to the General Assembly on the effectiveness of the bus on shoulders pilot program.

(Source: P.A. 97-292, eff. 8-11-11; revised 11-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-215) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-215)

Sec. 12-215. Oscillating, rotating or flashing lights on motor vehicles. Except as otherwise provided in this Code:

(a) The use of red or white oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Law enforcement vehicles of State, Federal or local authorities;

2. A vehicle operated by a police officer or county coroner and designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, as a law enforcement vehicle; however, such designation or authorization must be carried in the vehicle;

2.1. A vehicle operated by a fire chief who has completed an emergency vehicle operation training course approved by the Office of the State Fire Marshal and designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, as a fire department, fire protection district, or township fire department vehicle; however, the designation or authorization must be carried in the vehicle, and the lights may be visible or activated only when responding to a bona fide emergency;

3. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or federal firefighting vehicles;

4. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as ambulances or rescue vehicles; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call for and while actually conveying the sick or injured;

5. Tow trucks licensed in a state that requires such lights; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on any such tow truck while the tow truck is operating in the State of Illinois;

6. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public Health, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Corrections, and vehicles of the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice;

7. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act;

8. School buses operating alternately flashing head lamps as permitted under Section 12-805 of this Code;

9. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as organ transplant vehicles when used in combination with blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights; furthermore, these lights shall be lighted only when the transportation is declared an emergency by a member of the transplant team or a representative of the organ procurement organization; and

10. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives emergency response; and .

11. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Transportation identified as Emergency Traffic Patrol; the . The lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call or when parked or stationary while engaged in motor vehicle assistance or at the scene of the emergency.

(b) The use of amber oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Second division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except as required in this paragraph 1; such lights shall be lighted when such vehicles are actually being used at the scene of an accident or disablement; if the towing vehicle is equipped with a flat bed that supports all wheels of the vehicle being transported, the lights shall not be lighted while the vehicle is engaged in towing on a highway; if the towing vehicle is not equipped with a flat bed that supports all wheels of a vehicle being transported, the lights shall be lighted while the towing vehicle is engaged in towing on a highway during all times when the use of headlights is required under Section 12-201 of this Code; in addition, these vehicles may use white oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights in combination with amber oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights as provided in this paragraph;

2. Motor vehicles or equipment of the State of Illinois, local authorities and contractors; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except while such vehicles are engaged in maintenance or construction operations within the limits of construction projects;

3. Vehicles or equipment used by engineering or survey crews; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except while such vehicles are actually engaged in work on a highway;

4. Vehicles of public utilities, municipalities, or other construction, maintenance or automotive service vehicles except that such lights shall be lighted only as a means for indicating the presence of a vehicular traffic hazard requiring unusual care in approaching, overtaking or passing while such vehicles are engaged in maintenance, service or construction on a highway;

5. Oversized vehicle or load; however, such lights shall only be lighted when moving under permit issued by the Department under Section 15-301 of this Code;

6. The front and rear of motorized equipment owned and operated by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof, which is designed and used for removal of snow and ice from highways;

6.1. (6.1) The front and rear of motorized equipment or vehicles that (i) are not owned by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State, (ii) are designed and used for removal of snow and ice from highways and parking lots, and (iii) are equipped with a snow plow that is 12 feet in width; these lights may not be lighted except when the motorized equipment or vehicle is actually being used for those purposes on behalf of a unit of government;

7. Fleet safety vehicles registered in another state, furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except as provided for in Section 12-212 of this Code;

8. Such other vehicles as may be authorized by local authorities;

9. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local authorities when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights;

9.5. Propane delivery trucks;

10. Vehicles used for collecting or delivering mail for the United States Postal Service provided that such lights shall not be lighted except when such vehicles are actually being used for such purposes;

10.5. Vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, provided that such lights shall not be lighted except for when such vehicles are engaged in work for the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal;

11. Any vehicle displaying a slow-moving vehicle emblem as provided in Section 12-205.1;

12. All trucks equipped with self-compactors or roll-off hoists and roll-on containers for garbage or refuse hauling. Such lights shall not be lighted except when such vehicles are actually being used for such purposes;

13. Vehicles used by a security company, alarm responder, control agency, or the Illinois Department of Corrections;

14. Security vehicles of the Department of Human Services; however, the lights shall not be lighted except when being used for security related purposes under the direction of the superintendent of the facility where the vehicle is located; and

15. Vehicles of union representatives, except that the lights shall be lighted only while the vehicle is within the limits of a construction project.

(c) The use of blue oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Rescue squad vehicles not owned by a fire department and vehicles owned or operated by a:

voluntary firefighter;

paid firefighter;

part-paid firefighter;

call firefighter;

member of the board of trustees of a fire protection district;

paid or unpaid member of a rescue squad;

paid or unpaid member of a voluntary ambulance unit; or

paid or unpaid members of a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, and carrying that designation or authorization in the vehicle.

However, such lights are not to be lighted except when responding to a bona fide emergency or when parked or stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance call, or motor vehicle accident.

Any person using these lights in accordance with this subdivision (c)1 must carry on his or her person an identification card or letter identifying the bona fide member of a fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency that owns or operates that vehicle. The card or letter must include:

(A) the name of the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency;

(B) the member's position within the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency;

(C) the member's term of service; and

(D) the name of a person within the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency to contact to verify the information provided.

2. Police department vehicles in cities having a population of 500,000 or more inhabitants.

3. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local authorities when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights.

4. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or federal firefighting vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights.

5. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as ambulances or rescue vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call.

6. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as organ transport vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights; furthermore, these lights shall only be lighted when the transportation is declared an emergency by a member of the transplant team or a representative of the organ procurement organization.

7. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public Health, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Corrections, and vehicles of the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

8. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

9. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives emergency response, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

(c-1) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a voluntary firefighter, a voluntary member of a rescue squad, or a member of a voluntary ambulance unit may be equipped with flashing white headlights and blue grill lights, which may be used only in responding to an emergency call or when parked or stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance call, or motor vehicle accident.

(c-2) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a paid or unpaid member of a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, may be equipped with white oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights to be used in combination with blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights, if authorization by local authorities is in writing and carried in the vehicle.

(d) The use of a combination of amber and white oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on second division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles or motor vehicles or equipment of the State of Illinois, local authorities, contractors, and union representatives; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on second division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles or vehicles of the State of Illinois, local authorities, and contractors except while such vehicles are engaged in a tow operation, highway maintenance, or construction operations within the limits of highway construction projects, and shall not be lighted on the vehicles of union representatives except when those vehicles are within the limits of a construction project.

(e) All oscillating, rotating or flashing lights referred to in this Section shall be of sufficient intensity, when illuminated, to be visible at 500 feet in normal sunlight.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a manufacturer of oscillating, rotating or flashing lights or his representative or authorized vendor from temporarily mounting such lights on a vehicle for demonstration purposes only. If the lights are not covered while the vehicle is operated upon a highway, the vehicle shall display signage indicating that the vehicle is out of service or not an emergency vehicle. The signage shall be displayed on all sides of the vehicle in letters at least 2 inches tall and one-half inch wide. A vehicle authorized to have oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights mounted for demonstration purposes may not activate the lights while the vehicle is operated upon a highway.

(g) Any person violating the provisions of subsections (a), (b), (c) or (d) of this Section who without lawful authority stops or detains or attempts to stop or detain another person shall be guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(h) Except as provided in subsection (g) above, any person violating the provisions of subsections (a) or (c) of this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-39, eff. 1-1-12; 97-149, eff. 7-14-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1173, eff. 1-1-14; 98-80, eff. 7-15-13; 98-123, eff. 1-1-14; 98-468, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-17-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-610.2)

Sec. 12-610.2. Electronic communication devices.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Electronic communication device" means an electronic device, including but not limited to a hand-held wireless telephone, hand-held personal digital assistant, or a portable or mobile computer, but does not include a global positioning system or navigation system or a device that is physically or electronically integrated into the motor vehicle.

(b) A person may not operate a motor vehicle on a roadway while using an electronic communication device.

(b-5) A person commits aggravated use of an electronic communication device when he or she violates subsection (b) and in committing the violation he or she was involved in a motor vehicle accident that results in great bodily harm, permanent disability, disfigurement, or death to another and the violation was a proximate cause of the injury or death.

(c) A second or subsequent violation of this Section is an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles. A person who violates this Section shall be fined a maximum of $75 for a first offense, $100 for a second offense, $125 for a third offense, and $150 for a fourth or subsequent offense.

(d) This Section does not apply to:

(1) a law enforcement officer or operator of an emergency vehicle while performing his or her official duties;

(2) a driver using an electronic communication device for the sole purpose of reporting an emergency situation and continued communication with emergency personnel during the emergency situation;

(3) a driver using an electronic communication device in hands-free or voice-operated mode, which may include the use of a headset;

(4) a driver of a commercial motor vehicle reading a message displayed on a permanently installed communication device designed for a commercial motor vehicle with a screen that does not exceed 10 inches tall by 10 inches wide in size;

(5) a driver using an electronic communication device while parked on the shoulder of a roadway;

(6) a driver using an electronic communication device when the vehicle is stopped due to normal traffic being obstructed and the driver has the motor vehicle transmission in neutral or park;

(7) a driver using two-way or citizens band radio services;

(8) a driver using two-way mobile radio transmitters or receivers for licensees of the Federal Communications Commission in the amateur radio service;

(9) a driver using an electronic communication device by pressing a single button to initiate or terminate a voice communication; or

(10) a driver using an electronic communication device capable of performing multiple functions, other than a hand-held wireless telephone or hand-held personal digital assistant (for example, a fleet management system, dispatching device, citizens band radio, or music player) for a purpose that is not otherwise prohibited by this Section.

(e) A person convicted of violating subsection (b-5) commits a Class A misdemeanor if the violation resulted in great bodily harm, permanent disability, or disfigurement to another. A person convicted of violating subsection (b-5) commits a Class 4 felony if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(Source: P.A. 97-828, eff. 7-20-12; 98-506, eff. 1-1-14; 98-507, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-111) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-111)

Sec. 15-111. Wheel and axle loads and gross weights.

(a) No vehicle or combination of vehicles with pneumatic tires may be operated, unladen or with load, when the total weight on the road surface exceeds the following: 20,000 pounds on a single axle; 34,000 pounds on a tandem axle with no axle within the tandem exceeding 20,000 pounds; 80,000 pounds gross weight for vehicle combinations of 5 or more axles; or a total weight on a group of 2 or more consecutive axles in excess of that weight produced by the application of the following formula: W = 500 times the sum of (LN divided by N-1) + 12N + 36, where "W" equals overall total weight on any group of 2 or more consecutive axles to the nearest 500 pounds, "L" equals the distance measured to the nearest foot between extremes of any group of 2 or more consecutive axles, and "N" equals the number of axles in the group under consideration.

The above formula when expressed in tabular form results in allowable loads as follows:

Distance measured to the nearest foot between the extremes of any Maximum weight in pounds group of 2 or of any group of more consecutive 2 or more consecutive axles axles

*If the distance between 2 axles is 96 inches or less, the 2 axles are tandem axles and the maximum total weight may not exceed 34,000 pounds, notwithstanding the higher limit resulting from the application of the formula.

Vehicles not in a combination having more than 4 axles may not exceed the weight in the table in this subsection (a) for 4 axles measured between the extreme axles of the vehicle.

Vehicles in a combination having more than 6 axles may not exceed the weight in the table in this subsection (a) for 6 axles measured between the extreme axles of the combination.

Local authorities, with respect to streets and highways under their jurisdiction, without additional fees, may also by ordinance or resolution allow the weight limitations of this subsection, provided the maximum gross weight on any one axle shall not exceed 20,000 pounds and the maximum total weight on any tandem axle shall not exceed 34,000 pounds, on designated highways when appropriate regulatory signs giving notice are erected upon the street or highway or portion of any street or highway affected by the ordinance or resolution.

The following are exceptions to the above formula:

(1) Vehicles for which a different limit is established and posted in accordance with Section 15-316 of this Code.

(2) Vehicles for which the Department of Transportation and local authorities issue overweight permits under authority of Section 15-301 of this Code. These vehicles are not subject to the bridge formula.

(3) Cities having a population of more than 50,000 may permit by ordinance axle loads on 2 axle motor vehicles 33 1/2% above those provided for herein, but the increase shall not become effective until the city has officially notified the Department of the passage of the ordinance and shall not apply to those vehicles when outside of the limits of the city, nor shall the gross weight of any 2 axle motor vehicle operating over any street of the city exceed 40,000 pounds.

(4) Weight limitations shall not apply to vehicles (including loads) operated by a public utility when transporting equipment required for emergency repair of public utility facilities or properties or water wells.

(5) Two consecutive sets of tandem axles may carry a total weight of 34,000 pounds each if the overall distance between the first and last axles of the consecutive sets of tandem axles is 36 feet or more, notwithstanding the lower limit resulting from the application of the above formula.

(6) A truck, not in combination and used exclusively for the collection of rendering materials, may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle.

(7) A truck not in combination, equipped with a self compactor or an industrial roll-off hoist and roll-off container, used exclusively for garbage, refuse, or recycling operations, may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle; 40,000 pounds gross weight on a 2-axle vehicle; 54,000 pounds gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle. This vehicle is not subject to the bridge formula.

(7.5) A 3-axle rear discharge truck mixer registered as a Special Hauling Vehicle, used exclusively for the mixing and transportation of concrete in the plastic state, may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle; 54,000 pounds gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle. This vehicle is not subject to the bridge formula.

(8) Except as provided in paragraph (7.5) of this subsection (a), tandem axles on a 3-axle truck registered as a Special Hauling Vehicle, manufactured prior to or in the model year of 2024 and first registered in Illinois prior to January 1, 2025, with a distance greater than 72 inches but not more than 96 inches between any series of 2 axles, is allowed a combined weight on the series not to exceed 36,000 pounds and neither axle of the series may exceed 20,000 pounds. Any vehicle of this type manufactured after the model year of 2024 or first registered in Illinois after December 31, 2024 may not exceed a combined weight of 34,000 pounds through the series of 2 axles and neither axle of the series may exceed 20,000 pounds.

A 3-axle combination sewer cleaning jetting vacuum truck registered as a Special Hauling Vehicle, used exclusively for the transportation of non-hazardous solid waste, manufactured before or in the model year of 2014, first registered in Illinois before January 1, 2015, may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle; 54,000 pounds gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle. This vehicle is not subject to the bridge formula.

(9) A 4-axle truck mixer registered as a Special Hauling Vehicle, used exclusively for the mixing and transportation of concrete in the plastic state, 2024 2025 and not operated on a highway that is part of the National System of Interstate Highways, is allowed the following maximum weights: 20,000 pounds on any single axle; 36,000 pounds on a series of axles greater than 72 inches but not more than 96 inches; and 34,000 pounds on any series of 2 axles greater than 40 inches but not more than 72 inches. The gross weight of this vehicle may not exceed the weights allowed by the bridge formula for 4 axles. The bridge formula does not apply to any series of 3 axles while the vehicle is transporting concrete in the plastic state, but no axle or tandem axle of the series may exceed the maximum weight permitted under this paragraph (9) of subsection (a).

(10) Combinations of vehicles, registered as Special Hauling Vehicles that include a semitrailer manufactured prior to or in the model year of 2024, and registered in Illinois prior to January 1, 2025, having 5 axles with a distance of 42 feet or less between extreme axles, may not exceed the following maximum weights: 20,000 pounds on a single axle; 34,000 pounds on a tandem axle; and 72,000 pounds gross weight. This combination of vehicles is not subject to the bridge formula. For all those combinations of vehicles that include a semitrailer manufactured after the effective date of P.A. 92-0417, the overall distance between the first and last axles of the 2 sets of tandems must be 18 feet 6 inches or more. Any combination of vehicles that has had its cargo container replaced in its entirety after December 31, 2024 may not exceed the weights allowed by the bridge formula.

(11) The maximum weight allowed on a vehicle with crawler type tracks is 40,000 pounds.

(12) A combination of vehicles, including a tow truck and a disabled vehicle or disabled combination of vehicles, that exceeds the weight restriction imposed by this Code, may be operated on a public highway in this State provided that neither the disabled vehicle nor any vehicle being towed nor the tow truck itself shall exceed the weight limitations permitted under this Chapter. During the towing operation, neither the tow truck nor the vehicle combination shall exceed 24,000 pounds on a single rear axle and 44,000 pounds on a tandem rear axle, provided the towing vehicle:

(i) is specifically designed as a tow truck having a gross vehicle weight rating of at least 18,000 pounds and is equipped with air brakes, provided that air brakes are required only if the towing vehicle is towing a vehicle, semitrailer, or tractor-trailer combination that is equipped with air brakes;

(ii) is equipped with flashing, rotating, or oscillating amber lights, visible for at least 500 feet in all directions;

(iii) is capable of utilizing the lighting and braking systems of the disabled vehicle or combination of vehicles; and

(iv) does not engage in a tow exceeding 20 miles from the initial point of wreck or disablement. Any additional movement of the vehicles may occur only upon issuance of authorization for that movement under the provisions of Sections 15-301 through 15-319 of this Code. The towing vehicle, however, may tow any disabled vehicle to a point where repairs are actually to occur. This movement shall be valid only on State routes. The tower must abide by posted bridge weight limits.

Gross weight limits shall not apply to the combination of the tow truck and vehicles being towed. The tow truck license plate must cover the operating empty weight of the tow truck only. The weight of each vehicle being towed shall be covered by a valid license plate issued to the owner or operator of the vehicle being towed and displayed on that vehicle. If no valid plate issued to the owner or operator of that vehicle is displayed on that vehicle, or the plate displayed on that vehicle does not cover the weight of the vehicle, the weight of the vehicle shall be covered by the third tow truck plate issued to the owner or operator of the tow truck and temporarily affixed to the vehicle being towed. If a roll-back carrier is registered and being used as a tow truck, however, the license plate or plates for the tow truck must cover the gross vehicle weight, including any load carried on the bed of the roll-back carrier.

The Department may by rule or regulation prescribe additional requirements. However, nothing in this Code shall prohibit a tow truck under instructions of a police officer from legally clearing a disabled vehicle, that may be in violation of weight limitations of this Chapter, from the roadway to the berm or shoulder of the highway. If in the opinion of the police officer that location is unsafe, the officer is authorized to have the disabled vehicle towed to the nearest place of safety.

For the purpose of this subsection, gross vehicle weight rating, or GVWR, means the value specified by the manufacturer as the loaded weight of the tow truck.

(b) As used in this Section, "recycling haul" or "recycling operation" means the hauling of non-hazardous, non-special, non-putrescible materials, such as paper, glass, cans, or plastic, for subsequent use in the secondary materials market.

(c) No vehicle or combination of vehicles equipped with pneumatic tires shall be operated, unladen or with load, upon the highways of this State in violation of the provisions of any permit issued under the provisions of Sections 15-301 through 15-319 of this Chapter.

(d) No vehicle or combination of vehicles equipped with other than pneumatic tires may be operated, unladen or with load, upon the highways of this State when the gross weight on the road surface through any wheel exceeds 800 pounds per inch width of tire tread or when the gross weight on the road surface through any axle exceeds 16,000 pounds.

(e) No person shall operate a vehicle or combination of vehicles over a bridge or other elevated structure constituting part of a highway with a gross weight that is greater than the maximum weight permitted by the Department, when the structure is sign posted as provided in this Section.

(f) The Department upon request from any local authority shall, or upon its own initiative may, conduct an investigation of any bridge or other elevated structure constituting a part of a highway, and if it finds that the structure cannot with safety to itself withstand the weight of vehicles otherwise permissible under this Code the Department shall determine and declare the maximum weight of vehicles that the structures can withstand, and shall cause or permit suitable signs stating maximum weight to be erected and maintained before each end of the structure. No person shall operate a vehicle or combination of vehicles over any structure with a gross weight that is greater than the posted maximum weight.

(g) Upon the trial of any person charged with a violation of subsection (e) or (f) of this Section, proof of the determination of the maximum allowable weight by the Department and the existence of the signs, constitutes conclusive evidence of the maximum weight that can be maintained with safety to the bridge or structure.

(Source: P.A. 97-201, eff. 1-1-12; 98-409, eff. 1-1-14; 98-410, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-19-13.)

Section 680. The Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act is amended by changing Section 1-2.06 as follows:

(625 ILCS 40/1-2.06) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 601-2.06)

Sec. 1-2.06. "Intoxicating Beverage" means any beverage enumerated in the "Liquor Control Act of 1934".

(Source: P.A. 78-856; revised 9-23-13.)

Section 685. The Circuit Courts Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(705 ILCS 35/1) (from Ch. 37, par. 72.1)

Sec. 1. Judicial circuits created. The county of Cook shall be one judicial circuit and the State of Illinois, exclusive of the county of Cook, shall be and is divided into judicial circuits as follows:

First Circuit--The counties of Alexander, Pulaski, Massac, Pope, Johnson, Union, Jackson, Williamson and Saline.

Second Circuit--The counties of Hardin, Gallatin, White, Hamilton, Franklin, Wabash, Edwards, Wayne, Jefferson, Richland, Lawrence and Crawford.

Third Circuit--The counties of Madison and Bond.

Fourth Circuit--The counties of Clinton, Marion, Clay, Fayette, Effingham, Jasper, Montgomery, Shelby and Christian.

Fifth Circuit--The counties of Vermilion, Edgar, Clark, Cumberland and Coles.

Sixth Circuit--The counties of Champaign, Douglas, Moultrie, Macon, DeWitt and Piatt.

Seventh Circuit--The counties of Sangamon, Macoupin, Morgan, Scott, Greene and Jersey.

Eighth Circuit--The counties of Adams, Schuyler, Mason, Cass, Brown, Pike, Calhoun and Menard.

Ninth Circuit--The counties of Knox, Warren, Henderson, Hancock, McDonough and Fulton.

Tenth Circuit--The counties of Peoria, Marshall, Putnam, Stark and Tazewell.

Eleventh Circuit--The counties of McLean, Livingston, Logan, Ford and Woodford.

Twelfth Circuit--The county of Will.

Thirteenth Circuit--The counties of Bureau, LaSalle and Grundy.

Fourteenth Circuit--The counties of Rock Island, Mercer, Whiteside and Henry.

Fifteenth Circuit--The counties of Jo Daviess JoDaviess, Stephenson, Carroll, Ogle and Lee.

Sixteenth Circuit--Before December 3, 2012, the counties of Kane, DeKalb, and Kendall. On and after December 3, 2012, the County of Kane.

Seventeenth Circuit--The counties of Winnebago and Boone.

Eighteenth Circuit--The county of DuPage.

Nineteenth Circuit--Before December 4, 2006, the counties of Lake and McHenry. On and after December 4, 2006, the County of Lake.

Twentieth Circuit--The counties of Randolph, Monroe, St. Clair, Washington and Perry.

Twenty-first Circuit--The counties of Iroquois and Kankakee.

Twenty-second Circuit--On and after December 4, 2006, the County of McHenry.

Twenty-third Circuit--On and after December 3, 2012, the counties of DeKalb and Kendall.

(Source: P.A. 97-585, eff. 8-26-11; revised 11-22-13.)

Section 690. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 1-7, 1-8, 2-10, 2-28, 3-12, 4-9, 5-105, 5-130, 5-401.5, 5-410, 5-901, 5-905, and 5-915 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/1-7) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-7)

Sec. 1-7. Confidentiality of law enforcement records.

(A) Inspection and copying of law enforcement records maintained by law enforcement agencies that relate to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday shall be restricted to the following:

(1) Any local, State or federal law enforcement officers of any jurisdiction or agency when necessary for the discharge of their official duties during the investigation or prosecution of a crime or relating to a minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by a criminal street gang, or, when necessary for the discharge of its official duties in connection with a particular investigation of the conduct of a law enforcement officer, an independent agency or its staff created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers. For purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(2) Prosecutors, probation officers, social workers, or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or pre-disposition investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for minors pursuant to the order of the juvenile court, when essential to performing their responsibilities.

(3) Prosecutors and probation officers:

(a) in the course of a trial when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805; or

(b) when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and such minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the amount of bail; or

(c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and such minor is the subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence investigation, fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation.

(4) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Board.

(5) Authorized military personnel.

(6) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the Presiding Judge of the Juvenile Court and the chief executive of the respective law enforcement agency; provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the minor's record.

(7) Department of Children and Family Services child protection investigators acting in their official capacity.

(8) The appropriate school official only if the agency or officer believes that there is an imminent threat of physical harm to students, school personnel, or others who are present in the school or on school grounds.

(A) Inspection and copying shall be limited to law enforcement records transmitted to the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by a local law enforcement agency under a reciprocal reporting system established and maintained between the school district and the local law enforcement agency under Section 10-20.14 of the School Code concerning a minor enrolled in a school within the school district who has been arrested or taken into custody for any of the following offenses:

(i) any violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act;

(iii) a violation of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iv) a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(v) a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act;

(vi) a violation of Section 1-2 of the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act;

(vii) a violation of the Hazing Act; or

(viii) a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-3.5, 12-5, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 25-1, or 25-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The information derived from the law enforcement records shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of that child and shall not be a public record. The information shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest to aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child and to protect the safety of students and employees in the school. If the designated law enforcement and school officials deem it to be in the best interest of the minor, the student may be referred to in-school or community based social services if those services are available. "Rehabilitation services" may include interventions by school support personnel, evaluation for eligibility for special education, referrals to community-based agencies such as youth services, behavioral healthcare service providers, drug and alcohol prevention or treatment programs, and other interventions as deemed appropriate for the student.

(B) Any information provided to appropriate school officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by local law enforcement officials about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation that is directly related to school safety shall consist of oral information only, and not written law enforcement records, and shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials to protect the safety of students and employees in the school and aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child. The information derived orally from the local law enforcement officials shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of the child and shall not be a public record. This limitation on the use of information about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation shall in no way limit the use of this information by prosecutors in pursuing criminal charges arising out of the information disclosed during a police investigation of the minor. For purposes of this paragraph, "investigation" means an official systematic inquiry by a law enforcement agency into actual or suspected criminal activity.

(9) Mental health professionals on behalf of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating, prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of juvenile law enforcement records or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act who is the subject of the juvenile law enforcement records sought. Any records and any information obtained from those records under this paragraph (9) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(10) The president of a park district. Inspection and copying shall be limited to law enforcement records transmitted to the president of the park district by the Illinois State Police under Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act concerning a person who is seeking employment with that park district and who has been adjudicated a juvenile delinquent for any of the offenses listed in subsection (c) of Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or subsection (c) of Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act.

(B)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), no law enforcement officer or other person or agency may knowingly transmit to the Department of Corrections or the Department of State Police or to the Federal Bureau of Investigation any fingerprint or photograph relating to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday, unless the court in proceedings under this Act authorizes the transmission or enters an order under Section 5-805 permitting or requiring the institution of criminal proceedings.

(2) Law enforcement officers or other persons or agencies shall transmit to the Department of State Police copies of fingerprints and descriptions of all minors who have been arrested or taken into custody before their 18th birthday for the offense of unlawful use of weapons under Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a Class X or Class 1 felony, a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a Class 2 or greater felony under the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Chapter 4 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, pursuant to Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department pursuant to this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files pursuant to Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act. Nothing in this Act prohibits a law enforcement agency from fingerprinting a minor taken into custody or arrested before his or her 18th birthday for an offense other than those listed in this paragraph (2).

(C) The records of law enforcement officers, or of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, concerning all minors under 18 years of age must be maintained separate from the records of arrests and may not be open to public inspection or their contents disclosed to the public except by order of the court presiding over matters pursuant to this Act or when the institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805 or such a person has been convicted of a crime and is the subject of pre-sentence investigation or proceedings on an application for probation or when provided by law. For purposes of obtaining documents pursuant to this Section, a civil subpoena is not an order of the court.

(1) In cases where the law enforcement, or independent agency, records concern a pending juvenile court case, the party seeking to inspect the records shall provide actual notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor whose records are sought.

(2) In cases where the records concern a juvenile court case that is no longer pending, the party seeking to inspect the records shall provide actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(3) In determining whether the records should be available for inspection, the court shall consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation over the moving party's interest in obtaining the information. Any records obtained in violation of this subsection (C) shall not be admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from subsequently holding public office or securing employment, or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or right to receive any license granted by public authority.

(D) Nothing contained in subsection (C) of this Section shall prohibit the inspection or disclosure to victims and witnesses of photographs contained in the records of law enforcement agencies when the inspection and disclosure is conducted in the presence of a law enforcement officer for the purpose of the identification or apprehension of any person subject to the provisions of this Act or for the investigation or prosecution of any crime.

(E) Law enforcement officers, and personnel of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, may not disclose the identity of any minor in releasing information to the general public as to the arrest, investigation or disposition of any case involving a minor.

(F) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit law enforcement agencies from communicating with each other by letter, memorandum, teletype or intelligence alert bulletin or other means the identity or other relevant information pertaining to a person under 18 years of age if there are reasonable grounds to believe that the person poses a real and present danger to the safety of the public or law enforcement officers. The information provided under this subsection (F) shall remain confidential and shall not be publicly disclosed, except as otherwise allowed by law.

(G) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of any state, county or municipality examining the character and fitness of an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency, correctional institution, or fire department from obtaining and examining the records of any law enforcement agency relating to any record of the applicant having been arrested or taken into custody before the applicant's 18th birthday.

(H) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-700, eff. 6-22-12; 97-1083, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1104, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/1-8) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-8)

Sec. 1-8. Confidentiality and accessibility of juvenile court records.

(A) Inspection and copying of juvenile court records relating to a minor who is the subject of a proceeding under this Act shall be restricted to the following:

(1) The minor who is the subject of record, his parents, guardian and counsel.

(2) Law enforcement officers and law enforcement agencies when such information is essential to executing an arrest or search warrant or other compulsory process, or to conducting an ongoing investigation or relating to a minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by a criminal street gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" means any ongoing organization, association, or group of 3 or more persons, whether formal or informal, having as one of its primary activities the commission of one or more criminal acts and that has a common name or common identifying sign, symbol or specific color apparel displayed, and whose members individually or collectively engage in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal activity.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(3) Judges, hearing officers, prosecutors, probation officers, social workers or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or predisposition investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for minors pursuant to the order of the juvenile court when essential to performing their responsibilities.

(4) Judges, prosecutors and probation officers:

(a) in the course of a trial when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805; or

(b) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the amount of bail; or

(c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence investigation or fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation; or

(d) when a minor becomes 18 years of age or older, and is the subject of criminal proceedings, including a hearing to determine the amount of bail, a pre-trial investigation, a pre-sentence investigation, a fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation.

(5) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Boards.

(6) Authorized military personnel.

(7) Victims, their subrogees and legal representatives; however, such persons shall have access only to the name and address of the minor and information pertaining to the disposition or alternative adjustment plan of the juvenile court.

(8) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court and the chief executive of the agency that prepared the particular records; provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the record.

(9) The Secretary of State to whom the Clerk of the Court shall report the disposition of all cases, as required in Section 6-204 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. However, information reported relative to these offenses shall be privileged and available only to the Secretary of State, courts, and police officers.

(10) The administrator of a bonafide substance abuse student assistance program with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court.

(11) Mental health professionals on behalf of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating, prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of juvenile court records or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act, who is the subject of juvenile court records sought. Any records and any information obtained from those records under this paragraph (11) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(A-1) Findings and exclusions of paternity entered in proceedings occurring under Article II of this Act shall be disclosed, in a manner and form approved by the Presiding Judge of the Juvenile Court, to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services when necessary to discharge the duties of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(B) A minor who is the victim in a juvenile proceeding shall be provided the same confidentiality regarding disclosure of identity as the minor who is the subject of record.

(C) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (C), juvenile court records shall not be made available to the general public. Subject to the limitations in paragraphs (0.1) through (0.4) of this subsection (C), the judge presiding over a juvenile court proceeding brought under this Act, in his or her discretion, may order that juvenile court records of an individual case be made available for inspection upon request by a representative of an agency, association, or news media entity or by a properly interested person. For purposes of inspecting documents under this subsection (C), a civil subpoena is not an order of the court.

(0.1) In cases where the records concern a pending juvenile court case, the requesting party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor whose records are sought.

(0.2) In cases where the records concern a juvenile court case that is no longer pending, the requesting party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(0.3) In determining whether records should be made available for inspection and whether inspection should be limited to certain parts of the file, the court shall consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation over the requesting party's interest in obtaining the information. The State's Attorney, the minor, and the minor's parents, guardian, and counsel shall at all times have the right to examine court files and records.

(0.4) Any records obtained in violation of this subsection (C) shall not be admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from subsequently holding public office, or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or right to receive any license granted by public authority.

(1) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is adjudicated a delinquent minor under this Act under either of the following circumstances:

(A) The adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault; or

(B) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the act was committed and the adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of: (i) an act in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (ii) an act involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (iii) an act that would be a Class X felony offense under or the minor's second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act if committed by an adult, (iv) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, (v) an act that would be an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, (vi) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 60 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or (vii) an act that would be an offense under another Section of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(2) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is at least 13 years of age at the time the offense is committed and who is convicted, in criminal proceedings permitted or required under Section 5-4, under either of the following circumstances:

(A) The minor has been convicted of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault,

(B) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the offense was committed and the conviction was based upon the minor's commission of: (i) an offense in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (ii) an offense involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (iii) a Class X felony offense under or a second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act, (iv) a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, (v) an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, (vi) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 60 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or (vii) an act that would be an offense under another Section of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(D) Pending or following any adjudication of delinquency for any offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the victim of any such offense shall receive the rights set out in Sections 4 and 6 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act; and the juvenile who is the subject of the adjudication, notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, shall be treated as an adult for the purpose of affording such rights to the victim.

(E) Nothing in this Section shall affect the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of any state, county or municipality examining the character and fitness of an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency, correctional institution, or fire department to ascertain whether that applicant was ever adjudicated to be a delinquent minor and, if so, to examine the records of disposition or evidence which were made in proceedings under this Act.

(F) Following any adjudication of delinquency for a crime which would be a felony if committed by an adult, or following any adjudication of delinquency for a violation of Section 24-1, 24-3, 24-3.1, or 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State's Attorney shall ascertain whether the minor respondent is enrolled in school and, if so, shall provide a copy of the dispositional order to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school. Access to such juvenile records shall be limited to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any guidance counselor designated by him.

(G) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is used to assist in the early identification and treatment of habitual juvenile offenders.

(H) When a Court hearing a proceeding under Article II of this Act becomes aware that an earlier proceeding under Article II had been heard in a different county, that Court shall request, and the Court in which the earlier proceedings were initiated shall transmit, an authenticated copy of the Court record, including all documents, petitions, and orders filed therein and the minute orders, transcript of proceedings, and docket entries of the Court.

(I) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall report to the Department of State Police, in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police, the final disposition of each minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday for those offenses required to be reported under Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department under this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(J) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; 98-552, eff. 8-27-13; revised 1-17-14.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-10) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-10)

Sec. 2-10. Temporary custody hearing. At the appearance of the minor before the court at the temporary custody hearing, all witnesses present shall be examined before the court in relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in the petition.

(1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected or dependent it shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.

(2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected or dependent, the court shall state in writing the factual basis supporting its finding and the minor, his or her parent, guardian, custodian and other persons able to give relevant testimony shall be examined before the court. The Department of Children and Family Services shall give testimony concerning indicated reports of abuse and neglect, of which they are aware of through the central registry, involving the minor's parent, guardian or custodian. After such testimony, the court may, consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the request of parent, guardian or custodian if the parent, guardian or custodian appears to take custody. If it is determined that a parent's, guardian's, or custodian's compliance with critical services mitigates the necessity for removal of the minor from his or her home, the court may enter an Order of Protection setting forth reasonable conditions of behavior that a parent, guardian, or custodian must observe for a specified period of time, not to exceed 12 months, without a violation; provided, however, that the 12-month period shall begin anew after any violation. Custodian shall include any agency of the State which has been given custody or wardship of the child. If it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, the court may also prescribe shelter care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court or in a shelter care facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency; however, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department of Children and Family Services by any court, except a minor less than 15 years of age and committed to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 5-710 of this Act or a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency.

In placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. In determining the health, safety and best interests of the minor to prescribe shelter care, the court must find that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the safety and protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility or that he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, and must further find that reasonable efforts have been made or that, consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, no efforts reasonably can be made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home. The court shall require documentation from the Department of Children and Family Services as to the reasonable efforts that were made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home or the reasons why no efforts reasonably could be made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal. When a minor is placed in the home of a relative, the Department of Children and Family Services shall complete a preliminary background review of the members of the minor's custodian's household in accordance with Section 4.3 of the Child Care Act of 1969 within 90 days of that placement. If the minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, the court shall, upon request of the appropriate Department or other agency, appoint the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator or other appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody as it deems fit and proper, including the provision of services to the minor or his family to ameliorate the causes contributing to the finding of probable cause or to the finding of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity.

Where the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive temporary custodian, the Department of Children and Family Services shall file with the court and serve on the parties a parent-child visiting plan, within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, after the appointment. The parent-child visiting plan shall set out the time and place of visits, the frequency of visits, the length of visits, who shall be present at the visits, and where appropriate, the minor's opportunities to have telephone and mail communication with the parents.

Where the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive temporary custodian, and when the child has siblings in care, the Department of Children and Family Services shall file with the court and serve on the parties a sibling placement and contact plan within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, after the appointment. The sibling placement and contact plan shall set forth whether the siblings are placed together, and if they are not placed together, what, if any, efforts are being made to place them together. If the Department has determined that it is not in a child's best interest to be placed with a sibling, the Department shall document in the sibling placement and contact plan the basis for its determination. For siblings placed separately, the sibling placement and contact plan shall set the time and place for visits, the frequency of the visits, the length of visits, who shall be present for the visits, and where appropriate, the child's opportunities to have contact with their siblings in addition to in person contact. If the Department determines it is not in the best interest of a sibling to have contact with a sibling, the Department shall document in the sibling placement and contact plan the basis for its determination. The sibling placement and contact plan shall specify a date for development of the Sibling Contact Support Plan, under subsection (f) of Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act, and shall remain in effect until the Sibling Contact Support Plan is developed.

For good cause, the court may waive the requirement to file the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling placement and contact plan, or extend the time for filing either plan. Any party may, by motion, request the court to review the parent-child visiting plan to determine whether it is reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal. A party may, by motion, request the court to review the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling placement and contact plan to determine whether it is consistent with the minor's best interest. The court may refer the parties to mediation where available. The frequency, duration, and locations of visitation shall be measured by the needs of the child and family, and not by the convenience of Department personnel. Child development principles shall be considered by the court in its analysis of how frequent visitation should be, how long it should last, where it should take place, and who should be present. If upon motion of the party to review either plan and after receiving evidence, the court determines that the parent-child visiting plan is not reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal or that the restrictions placed on parent-child contact or sibling placement or contact are contrary to the child's best interests, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting the determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. The court shall enter an order for the Department to implement changes to the parent-child visiting plan or sibling placement or contact plan, consistent with the court's findings. At any stage of proceeding, any party may by motion request the court to enter any orders necessary to implement the parent-child visiting plan, sibling placement or contact plan or subsequently developed Sibling Contact Support Plan. Nothing under this subsection (2) shall restrict the court from granting discretionary authority to the Department to increase opportunities for additional parent-child contacts or sibling contacts, without further court orders. Nothing in this subsection (2) shall restrict the Department from immediately restricting or terminating parent-child contact or sibling contacts, without either amending the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling contact plan or obtaining a court order, where the Department or its assigns reasonably believe that continuation of the contact, as set out in the plan, would be contrary to the child's health, safety, and welfare. The Department shall file with the court and serve on the parties any amendments to the plan within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, of the change of the visitation.

Acceptance of services shall not be considered an admission of any allegation in a petition made pursuant to this Act, nor may a referral of services be considered as evidence in any proceeding pursuant to this Act, except where the issue is whether the Department has made reasonable efforts to reunite the family. In making its findings that it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor to prescribe shelter care, the court shall state in writing (i) the factual basis supporting its findings concerning the immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another and (ii) the factual basis supporting its findings that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the removal of the minor from his or her home or that no efforts reasonably could be made to prevent or eliminate the removal of the minor from his or her home. The parents, guardian, custodian, temporary custodian and minor shall each be furnished a copy of such written findings. The temporary custodian shall maintain a copy of the court order and written findings in the case record for the child. The order together with the court's findings of fact in support thereof shall be entered of record in the court.

Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the protection of the minor.

If the child is placed in the temporary custody of the Department of Children and Family Services for his or her protection, the court shall admonish the parents, guardian, custodian or responsible relative that the parents must cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services, comply with the terms of the service plans, and correct the conditions which require the child to be in care, or risk termination of their parental rights.

(3) If prior to the shelter care hearing for a minor described in Sections 2-3, 2-4, 3-3 and 4-3 the moving party is unable to serve notice on the party respondent, the shelter care hearing may proceed ex-parte. A shelter care order from an ex-parte hearing shall be endorsed with the date and hour of issuance and shall be filed with the clerk's office and entered of record. The order shall expire after 10 days from the time it is issued unless before its expiration it is renewed, at a hearing upon appearance of the party respondent, or upon an affidavit of the moving party as to all diligent efforts to notify the party respondent by notice as herein prescribed. The notice prescribed shall be in writing and shall be personally delivered to the minor or the minor's attorney and to the last known address of the other person or persons entitled to notice. The notice shall also state the nature of the allegations, the nature of the order sought by the State, including whether temporary custody is sought, and the consequences of failure to appear and shall contain a notice that the parties will not be entitled to further written notices or publication notices of proceedings in this case, including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights, except as required by Supreme Court Rule 11; and shall explain the right of the parties and the procedures to vacate or modify a shelter care order as provided in this Section. The notice for a shelter care hearing shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE TO PARENTS AND CHILDREN

OF SHELTER CARE HEARING

On ................ at ........., before the Honorable ................, (address:) ................., the State of Illinois will present evidence (1) that (name of child or children) ....................... are abused, neglected or dependent for the following reasons:

.............................................. and (2) whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child or children from the responsible relative.

YOUR FAILURE TO APPEAR AT THE HEARING MAY RESULT IN PLACEMENT of the child or children in foster care until a trial can be held. A trial may not be held for up to 90 days. You will not be entitled to further notices of proceedings in this case, including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights.

At the shelter care hearing, parents have the following rights:

1. To ask the court to appoint a lawyer if they cannot afford one.

2. To ask the court to continue the hearing to allow them time to prepare.

3. To present evidence concerning:

a. Whether or not the child or children were abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether or not there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child from home (including: their ability to care for the child, conditions in the home, alternative means of protecting the child other than removal).

c. The best interests of the child.

4. To cross examine the State's witnesses.

The Notice for rehearings shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE OF PARENT'S AND CHILDREN'S RIGHTS

TO REHEARING ON TEMPORARY CUSTODY

If you were not present at and did not have adequate notice of the Shelter Care Hearing at which temporary custody of ............... was awarded to ................, you have the right to request a full rehearing on whether the State should have temporary custody of ................. To request this rehearing, you must file with the Clerk of the Juvenile Court (address): ........................, in person or by mailing a statement (affidavit) setting forth the following:

1. That you were not present at the shelter care hearing.

2. That you did not get adequate notice (explaining how the notice was inadequate).

3. Your signature.

4. Signature must be notarized.

The rehearing should be scheduled within 48 hours of your filing this affidavit.

At the rehearing, your rights are the same as at the initial shelter care hearing. The enclosed notice explains those rights.

At the Shelter Care Hearing, children have the following rights:

1. To have a guardian ad litem appointed.

2. To be declared competent as a witness and to present testimony concerning:

a. Whether they are abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to be removed from home.

c. Their best interests.

3. To cross examine witnesses for other parties.

4. To obtain an explanation of any proceedings and orders of the court.

(4) If the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible relative, minor age 8 or over, or counsel of the minor did not have actual notice of or was not present at the shelter care hearing, he or she may file an affidavit setting forth these facts, and the clerk shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 48 hours, excluding Sundays and legal holidays, after the filing of the affidavit. At the rehearing, the court shall proceed in the same manner as upon the original hearing.

(5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).

(6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners in a police station. Minors under 18 years of age must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with adults confined pursuant to the criminal law.

(7) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer within the time period as specified in Section 2-9, the minor must immediately be released from custody.

(8) If neither the parent, guardian or custodian appears within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons directed to the parent, guardian or custodian to appear. At the same time the probation department shall prepare a report on the minor. If a parent, guardian or custodian does not appear at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency.

(9) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section any interested party, including the State, the temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their representatives, on notice to all parties entitled to notice, may file a motion that it is in the best interests of the minor to modify or vacate a temporary custody order on any of the following grounds:

(a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or

(b) There is a material change in the circumstances of the natural family from which the minor was removed and the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; or

(c) A person not a party to the alleged abuse, neglect or dependency, including a parent, relative or legal guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the minor; or

(d) Services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service provider have been successful in eliminating the need for temporary custody and the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety.

In ruling on the motion, the court shall determine whether it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor to modify or vacate a temporary custody order.

The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than 14 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the minor and his or her family.

(10) When the court finds or has found that there is probable cause to believe a minor is an abused minor as described in subsection (2) of Section 2-3 and that there is an immediate and urgent necessity for the abused minor to be placed in shelter care, immediate and urgent necessity shall be presumed for any other minor residing in the same household as the abused minor provided:

(a) Such other minor is the subject of an abuse or neglect petition pending before the court; and

(b) A party to the petition is seeking shelter care for such other minor.

Once the presumption of immediate and urgent necessity has been raised, the burden of demonstrating the lack of immediate and urgent necessity shall be on any party that is opposing shelter care for the other minor.

(11) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1076, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-28) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-28)

Sec. 2-28. Court review.

(1) The court may require any legal custodian or guardian of the person appointed under this Act to report periodically to the court or may cite him into court and require him or his agency, to make a full and accurate report of his or its doings in behalf of the minor. The custodian or guardian, within 10 days after such citation, shall make the report, either in writing verified by affidavit or orally under oath in open court, or otherwise as the court directs. Upon the hearing of the report the court may remove the custodian or guardian and appoint another in his stead or restore the minor to the custody of his parents or former guardian or custodian. However, custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian or legal custodian in any case in which the minor is found to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 or dependent under Section 2-4 of this Act, unless the minor can be cared for at home without endangering the minor's health or safety and it is in the best interests of the minor, and if such neglect, abuse, or dependency is found by the court under paragraph (1) of Section 2-21 of this Act to have come about due to the acts or omissions or both of such parent, guardian or legal custodian, until such time as an investigation is made as provided in paragraph (5) and a hearing is held on the issue of the fitness of such parent, guardian or legal custodian to care for the minor and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor.

(2) The first permanency hearing shall be conducted by the judge. Subsequent permanency hearings may be heard by a judge or by hearing officers appointed or approved by the court in the manner set forth in Section 2-28.1 of this Act. The initial hearing shall be held (a) within 12 months from the date temporary custody was taken, regardless of whether an adjudication or dispositional hearing has been completed within that time frame, (b) if the parental rights of both parents have been terminated in accordance with the procedure described in subsection (5) of Section 2-21, within 30 days of the order for termination of parental rights and appointment of a guardian with power to consent to adoption, or (c) in accordance with subsection (2) of Section 2-13.1. Subsequent permanency hearings shall be held every 6 months or more frequently if necessary in the court's determination following the initial permanency hearing, in accordance with the standards set forth in this Section, until the court determines that the plan and goal have been achieved. Once the plan and goal have been achieved, if the minor remains in substitute care, the case shall be reviewed at least every 6 months thereafter, subject to the provisions of this Section, unless the minor is placed in the guardianship of a suitable relative or other person and the court determines that further monitoring by the court does not further the health, safety or best interest of the child and that this is a stable permanent placement. The permanency hearings must occur within the time frames set forth in this subsection and may not be delayed in anticipation of a report from any source or due to the agency's failure to timely file its written report (this written report means the one required under the next paragraph and does not mean the service plan also referred to in that paragraph).

The public agency that is the custodian or guardian of the minor, or another agency responsible for the minor's care, shall ensure that all parties to the permanency hearings are provided a copy of the most recent service plan prepared within the prior 6 months at least 14 days in advance of the hearing. If not contained in the plan, the agency shall also include a report setting forth (i) any special physical, psychological, educational, medical, emotional, or other needs of the minor or his or her family that are relevant to a permanency or placement determination and (ii) for any minor age 16 or over, a written description of the programs and services that will enable the minor to prepare for independent living. The agency's written report must detail what progress or lack of progress the parent has made in correcting the conditions requiring the child to be in care; whether the child can be returned home without jeopardizing the child's health, safety, and welfare, and if not, what permanency goal is recommended to be in the best interests of the child, and why the other permanency goals are not appropriate. The caseworker must appear and testify at the permanency hearing. If a permanency hearing has not previously been scheduled by the court, the moving party shall move for the setting of a permanency hearing and the entry of an order within the time frames set forth in this subsection.

At the permanency hearing, the court shall determine the future status of the child. The court shall set one of the following permanency goals:

(A) The minor will be returned home by a specific date within 5 months.

(B) The minor will be in short-term care with a continued goal to return home within a period not to exceed one year, where the progress of the parent or parents is substantial giving particular consideration to the age and individual needs of the minor.

(B-1) The minor will be in short-term care with a continued goal to return home pending a status hearing. When the court finds that a parent has not made reasonable efforts or reasonable progress to date, the court shall identify what actions the parent and the Department must take in order to justify a finding of reasonable efforts or reasonable progress and shall set a status hearing to be held not earlier than 9 months from the date of adjudication nor later than 11 months from the date of adjudication during which the parent's progress will again be reviewed.

(C) The minor will be in substitute care pending court determination on termination of parental rights.

(D) Adoption, provided that parental rights have been terminated or relinquished.

(E) The guardianship of the minor will be transferred to an individual or couple on a permanent basis provided that goals (A) through (D) have been ruled out.

(F) The minor over age 15 will be in substitute care pending independence.

(G) The minor will be in substitute care because he or she cannot be provided for in a home environment due to developmental disabilities or mental illness or because he or she is a danger to self or others, provided that goals (A) through (D) have been ruled out.

In selecting any permanency goal, the court shall indicate in writing the reasons the goal was selected and why the preceding goals were ruled out. Where the court has selected a permanency goal other than (A), (B), or (B-1), the Department of Children and Family Services shall not provide further reunification services, but shall provide services consistent with the goal selected.

(H) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Section, the court may select the goal of continuing foster care as a permanency goal if:

(1) The Department of Children and Family Services has custody and guardianship of the minor;

(2) The court has ruled out all other permanency goals based on the child's best interest;

(3) The court has found compelling reasons, based on written documentation reviewed by the court, to place the minor in continuing foster care. Compelling reasons include:

(a) the child does not wish to be adopted or to be placed in the guardianship of his or her relative or foster care placement;

(b) the child exhibits an extreme level of need such that the removal of the child from his or her placement would be detrimental to the child; or

(c) the child who is the subject of the permanency hearing has existing close and strong bonds with a sibling, and achievement of another permanency goal would substantially interfere with the subject child's sibling relationship, taking into consideration the nature and extent of the relationship, and whether ongoing contact is in the subject child's best interest, including long-term emotional interest, as compared with the legal and emotional benefit of permanence;

(4) The child has lived with the relative or foster parent for at least one year; and

(5) The relative or foster parent currently caring for the child is willing and capable of providing the child with a stable and permanent environment.

The court shall set a permanency goal that is in the best interest of the child. In determining that goal, the court shall consult with the minor in an age-appropriate manner regarding the proposed permanency or transition plan for the minor. The court's determination shall include the following factors:

(1) Age of the child.

(2) Options available for permanence, including both out-of-State and in-State placement options.

(3) Current placement of the child and the intent of the family regarding adoption.

(4) Emotional, physical, and mental status or condition of the child.

(5) Types of services previously offered and whether or not the services were successful and, if not successful, the reasons the services failed.

(6) Availability of services currently needed and whether the services exist.

(7) Status of siblings of the minor.

The court shall consider (i) the permanency goal contained in the service plan, (ii) the appropriateness of the services contained in the plan and whether those services have been provided, (iii) whether reasonable efforts have been made by all the parties to the service plan to achieve the goal, and (iv) whether the plan and goal have been achieved. All evidence relevant to determining these questions, including oral and written reports, may be admitted and may be relied on to the extent of their probative value.

The court shall make findings as to whether, in violation of Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, any portion of the service plan compels a child or parent to engage in any activity or refrain from any activity that is not reasonably related to remedying a condition or conditions that gave rise or which could give rise to any finding of child abuse or neglect. The services contained in the service plan shall include services reasonably related to remedy the conditions that gave rise to removal of the child from the home of his or her parents, guardian, or legal custodian or that the court has found must be remedied prior to returning the child home. Any tasks the court requires of the parents, guardian, or legal custodian or child prior to returning the child home, must be reasonably related to remedying a condition or conditions that gave rise to or which could give rise to any finding of child abuse or neglect.

If the permanency goal is to return home, the court shall make findings that identify any problems that are causing continued placement of the children away from the home and identify what outcomes would be considered a resolution to these problems. The court shall explain to the parents that these findings are based on the information that the court has at that time and may be revised, should additional evidence be presented to the court.

The court shall review the Sibling Contact and Support Plan developed or modified under subsection (f) of Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act, if applicable. If the Department has not convened a meeting to develop or modify a Sibling Contact Support Plan, or if the court finds that the existing Plan is not in the child's best interest, the court may enter an order requiring the Department to develop, modify or implement a Sibling Contact Support Plan, or order mediation.

If the goal has been achieved, the court shall enter orders that are necessary to conform the minor's legal custody and status to those findings.

If, after receiving evidence, the court determines that the services contained in the plan are not reasonably calculated to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting the determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. The court also shall enter an order for the Department to develop and implement a new service plan or to implement changes to the current service plan consistent with the court's findings. The new service plan shall be filed with the court and served on all parties within 45 days of the date of the order. The court shall continue the matter until the new service plan is filed. Unless otherwise specifically authorized by law, the court is not empowered under this subsection (2) or under subsection (3) to order specific placements, specific services, or specific service providers to be included in the plan.

A guardian or custodian appointed by the court pursuant to this Act shall file updated case plans with the court every 6 months.

Rights of wards of the court under this Act are enforceable against any public agency by complaints for relief by mandamus filed in any proceedings brought under this Act.

(3) Following the permanency hearing, the court shall enter a written order that includes the determinations required under subsection (2) of this Section and sets forth the following:

(a) The future status of the minor, including the permanency goal, and any order necessary to conform the minor's legal custody and status to such determination; or

(b) If the permanency goal of the minor cannot be achieved immediately, the specific reasons for continuing the minor in the care of the Department of Children and Family Services or other agency for short term placement, and the following determinations:

(i) (Blank).

(ii) Whether the services required by the court and by any service plan prepared within the prior 6 months have been provided and (A) if so, whether the services were reasonably calculated to facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal or (B) if not provided, why the services were not provided.

(iii) Whether the minor's placement is necessary, and appropriate to the plan and goal, recognizing the right of minors to the least restrictive (most family-like) setting available and in close proximity to the parents' home consistent with the health, safety, best interest and special needs of the minor and, if the minor is placed out-of-State, whether the out-of-State placement continues to be appropriate and consistent with the health, safety, and best interest of the minor.

(iv) (Blank).

(v) (Blank).

(4) The minor or any person interested in the minor may apply to the court for a change in custody of the minor and the appointment of a new custodian or guardian of the person or for the restoration of the minor to the custody of his parents or former guardian or custodian.

When return home is not selected as the permanency goal:

(a) The Department, the minor, or the current foster parent or relative caregiver seeking private guardianship may file a motion for private guardianship of the minor. Appointment of a guardian under this Section requires approval of the court.

(b) The State's Attorney may file a motion to terminate parental rights of any parent who has failed to make reasonable efforts to correct the conditions which led to the removal of the child or reasonable progress toward the return of the child, as defined in subdivision (D)(m) of Section 1 of the Adoption Act or for whom any other unfitness ground for terminating parental rights as defined in subdivision (D) of Section 1 of the Adoption Act exists.

When parental rights have been terminated for a minimum of 3 years and the child who is the subject of the permanency hearing is 13 years old or older and is not currently placed in a placement likely to achieve permanency, the Department of Children and Family Services shall make reasonable efforts to locate parents whose rights have been terminated, except when the Court determines that those efforts would be futile or inconsistent with the subject child's best interests. The Department of Children and Family Services shall assess the appropriateness of the parent whose rights have been terminated, and shall, as appropriate, foster and support connections between the parent whose rights have been terminated and the youth. The Department of Children and Family Services shall document its determinations and efforts to foster connections in the child's case plan.

Custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian or legal custodian in any case in which the minor is found to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 or dependent under Section 2-4 of this Act, unless the minor can be cared for at home without endangering his or her health or safety and it is in the best interest of the minor, and if such neglect, abuse, or dependency is found by the court under paragraph (1) of Section 2-21 of this Act to have come about due to the acts or omissions or both of such parent, guardian or legal custodian, until such time as an investigation is made as provided in paragraph (5) and a hearing is held on the issue of the health, safety and best interest of the minor and the fitness of such parent, guardian or legal custodian to care for the minor and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor. In the event that the minor has attained 18 years of age and the guardian or custodian petitions the court for an order terminating his guardianship or custody, guardianship or custody shall terminate automatically 30 days after the receipt of the petition unless the court orders otherwise. No legal custodian or guardian of the person may be removed without his consent until given notice and an opportunity to be heard by the court.

When the court orders a child restored to the custody of the parent or parents, the court shall order the parent or parents to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services and comply with the terms of an after-care plan, or risk the loss of custody of the child and possible termination of their parental rights. The court may also enter an order of protective supervision in accordance with Section 2-24.

(5) Whenever a parent, guardian, or legal custodian files a motion for restoration of custody of the minor, and the minor was adjudicated neglected, abused, or dependent as a result of physical abuse, the court shall cause to be made an investigation as to whether the movant has ever been charged with or convicted of any criminal offense which would indicate the likelihood of any further physical abuse to the minor. Evidence of such criminal convictions shall be taken into account in determining whether the minor can be cared for at home without endangering his or her health or safety and fitness of the parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(a) Any agency of this State or any subdivision thereof shall co-operate with the agent of the court in providing any information sought in the investigation.

(b) The information derived from the investigation and any conclusions or recommendations derived from the information shall be provided to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian seeking restoration of custody prior to the hearing on fitness and the movant shall have an opportunity at the hearing to refute the information or contest its significance.

(c) All information obtained from any investigation shall be confidential as provided in Section 5-150 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-600, eff. 8-21-09; 96-1375, eff. 7-29-10; 97-425, eff. 8-16-11; 97-1076, eff. 8-24-12; revised 11-22-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-12) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-12)

Sec. 3-12. Shelter care hearing. At the appearance of the minor before the court at the shelter care hearing, all witnesses present shall be examined before the court in relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in the petition.

(1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to believe that the minor is a person requiring authoritative intervention, it shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.

(2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is a person requiring authoritative intervention, the minor, his or her parent, guardian, custodian and other persons able to give relevant testimony shall be examined before the court. After such testimony, the court may enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the request of a parent, guardian or custodian if the parent, guardian or custodian appears to take custody. Custodian shall include any agency of the State which has been given custody or wardship of the child. The Court shall require documentation by representatives of the Department of Children and Family Services or the probation department as to the reasonable efforts that were made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home, and shall consider the testimony of any person as to those reasonable efforts. If the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, or that he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, and further finds that reasonable efforts have been made or good cause has been shown why reasonable efforts cannot prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home, the court may prescribe shelter care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court or in a shelter care facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency; otherwise it shall release the minor from custody. If the court prescribes shelter care, then in placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. If the minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, the court shall, upon request of the Department or other agency, appoint the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator or other appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody as it deems fit and proper, including the provision of services to the minor or his family to ameliorate the causes contributing to the finding of probable cause or to the finding of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity. Acceptance of services shall not be considered an admission of any allegation in a petition made pursuant to this Act, nor may a referral of services be considered as evidence in any proceeding pursuant to this Act, except where the issue is whether the Department has made reasonable efforts to reunite the family. In making its findings that reasonable efforts have been made or that good cause has been shown why reasonable efforts cannot prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home, the court shall state in writing its findings concerning the nature of the services that were offered or the efforts that were made to prevent removal of the child and the apparent reasons that such services or efforts could not prevent the need for removal. The parents, guardian, custodian, temporary custodian and minor shall each be furnished a copy of such written findings. The temporary custodian shall maintain a copy of the court order and written findings in the case record for the child.

The order together with the court's findings of fact and support thereof shall be entered of record in the court.

Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the protection of the minor.

(3) If prior to the shelter care hearing for a minor described in Sections 2-3, 2-4, 3-3 and 4-3 the petitioner is unable to serve notice on the party respondent, the shelter care hearing may proceed ex-parte. A shelter care order from an ex-parte hearing shall be endorsed with the date and hour of issuance and shall be filed with the clerk's office and entered of record. The order shall expire after 10 days from the time it is issued unless before its expiration it is renewed, at a hearing upon appearance of the party respondent, or upon an affidavit of the moving party as to all diligent efforts to notify the party respondent by notice as herein prescribed. The notice prescribed shall be in writing and shall be personally delivered to the minor or the minor's attorney and to the last known address of the other person or persons entitled to notice. The notice shall also state the nature of the allegations, the nature of the order sought by the State, including whether temporary custody is sought, and the consequences of failure to appear; and shall explain the right of the parties and the procedures to vacate or modify a shelter care order as provided in this Section. The notice for a shelter care hearing shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE TO PARENTS AND CHILDREN OF SHELTER CARE HEARING

On ................ at ........., before the Honorable ................, (address:) ................., the State of Illinois will present evidence (1) that (name of child or children) ....................... are abused, neglected or dependent for the following reasons:

............................................................. and (2) that there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child or children from the responsible relative.

YOUR FAILURE TO APPEAR AT THE HEARING MAY RESULT IN PLACEMENT of the child or children in foster care until a trial can be held. A trial may not be held for up to 90 days.

At the shelter care hearing, parents have the following rights:

1. To ask the court to appoint a lawyer if they cannot afford one.

2. To ask the court to continue the hearing to allow them time to prepare.

3. To present evidence concerning:

a. Whether or not the child or children were abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether or not there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child from home (including: their ability to care for the child, conditions in the home, alternative means of protecting the child other than removal).

c. The best interests of the child.

4. To cross examine the State's witnesses.

The Notice for rehearings shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE OF PARENT'S AND CHILDREN'S RIGHTS

TO REHEARING ON TEMPORARY CUSTODY

If you were not present at and did not have adequate notice of the Shelter Care Hearing at which temporary custody of ............... was awarded to ................, you have the right to request a full rehearing on whether the State should have temporary custody of ................. To request this rehearing, you must file with the Clerk of the Juvenile Court (address): ........................, in person or by mailing a statement (affidavit) setting forth the following:

1. That you were not present at the shelter care hearing.

2. That you did not get adequate notice (explaining how the notice was inadequate).

3. Your signature.

4. Signature must be notarized.

The rehearing should be scheduled within one day of your filing this affidavit.

At the rehearing, your rights are the same as at the initial shelter care hearing. The enclosed notice explains those rights.

At the Shelter Care Hearing, children have the following rights:

1. To have a guardian ad litem appointed.

2. To be declared competent as a witness and to present testimony concerning:

a. Whether they are abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to be removed from home.

c. Their best interests.

3. To cross examine witnesses for other parties.

4. To obtain an explanation of any proceedings and orders of the court.

(4) If the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible relative, or counsel of the minor did not have actual notice of or was not present at the shelter care hearing, he or she may file an affidavit setting forth these facts, and the clerk shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 48 hours, excluding Sundays and legal holidays, after the filing of the affidavit. At the rehearing, the court shall proceed in the same manner as upon the original hearing.

(5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).

(6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners in a police station. Minors under 18 years of age must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with adults confined pursuant to the criminal law.

(7) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer within the time period specified in Section 3-11, the minor must immediately be released from custody.

(8) If neither the parent, guardian or custodian appears within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons directed to the parent, guardian or custodian to appear. At the same time the probation department shall prepare a report on the minor. If a parent, guardian or custodian does not appear at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency.

(9) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any interested party, including the State, the temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their representatives, on notice to all parties entitled to notice, may file a motion to modify or vacate a temporary custody order on any of the following grounds:

(a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or

(b) There is a material change in the circumstances of the natural family from which the minor was removed; or

(c) A person, including a parent, relative or legal guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the minor; or

(d) Services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service provider have been successful in eliminating the need for temporary custody.

The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than 14 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the minor and his or her family.

(10) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/4-9) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-9)

Sec. 4-9. Shelter care hearing. At the appearance of the minor before the court at the shelter care hearing, all witnesses present shall be examined before the court in relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in the petition.

(1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to believe that the minor is addicted, it shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.

(2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is addicted, the minor, his or her parent, guardian, custodian and other persons able to give relevant testimony shall be examined before the court. After such testimony, the court may enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the request of a parent, guardian or custodian if the parent, guardian or custodian appears to take custody and agrees to abide by a court order which requires the minor and his or her parent, guardian, or legal custodian to complete an evaluation by an entity licensed by the Department of Human Services, as the successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, and complete any treatment recommendations indicated by the assessment. Custodian shall include any agency of the State which has been given custody or wardship of the child.

The Court shall require documentation by representatives of the Department of Children and Family Services or the probation department as to the reasonable efforts that were made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home, and shall consider the testimony of any person as to those reasonable efforts. If the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be or placed in a shelter care facility or that he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, and further, finds that reasonable efforts have been made or good cause has been shown why reasonable efforts cannot prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home, the court may prescribe shelter care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court or in a shelter care facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, or in a facility or program licensed by the Department of Human Services for shelter and treatment services; otherwise it shall release the minor from custody. If the court prescribes shelter care, then in placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. If the minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, or in a facility or program licensed by the Department of Human Services for shelter and treatment services, the court shall, upon request of the appropriate Department or other agency, appoint the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator or other appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody as it deems fit and proper, including the provision of services to the minor or his family to ameliorate the causes contributing to the finding of probable cause or to the finding of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity. Acceptance of services shall not be considered an admission of any allegation in a petition made pursuant to this Act, nor may a referral of services be considered as evidence in any proceeding pursuant to this Act, except where the issue is whether the Department has made reasonable efforts to reunite the family. In making its findings that reasonable efforts have been made or that good cause has been shown why reasonable efforts cannot prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home, the court shall state in writing its findings concerning the nature of the services that were offered or the efforts that were made to prevent removal of the child and the apparent reasons that such services or efforts could not prevent the need for removal. The parents, guardian, custodian, temporary custodian and minor shall each be furnished a copy of such written findings. The temporary custodian shall maintain a copy of the court order and written findings in the case record for the child. The order together with the court's findings of fact in support thereof shall be entered of record in the court.

Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the protection of the minor.

(3) If neither the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible relative nor counsel of the minor has had actual notice of or is present at the shelter care hearing, he or she may file his or her affidavit setting forth these facts, and the clerk shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 24 hours, excluding Sundays and legal holidays, after the filing of the affidavit. At the rehearing, the court shall proceed in the same manner as upon the original hearing.

(4) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer within the time period as specified in Section 4-8, the minor must immediately be released from custody.

(5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).

(6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners in a police station. Minors under 18 years of age must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room or yard with adults confined pursuant to the criminal law.

(7) If neither the parent, guardian or custodian appears within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons directed to the parent, guardian or custodian to appear. At the same time the probation department shall prepare a report on the minor. If a parent, guardian or custodian does not appear at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency.

(8) Any interested party, including the State, the temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their representatives, may file a motion to modify or vacate a temporary custody order on any of the following grounds:

(a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or

(b) There is a material change in the circumstances of the natural family from which the minor was removed; or

(c) A person, including a parent, relative or legal guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the minor; or

(d) Services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service provider have been successful in eliminating the need for temporary custody.

The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than 14 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the minor and his or her family.

(9) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-105)

Sec. 5-105. Definitions. As used in this Article:

(1) "Aftercare release" means the conditional and revocable release of an adjudicated delinquent juvenile committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the supervision of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(1.5) "Court" means the circuit court in a session or division assigned to hear proceedings under this Act, and includes the term Juvenile Court.

(2) "Community service" means uncompensated labor for a community service agency as hereinafter defined.

(2.5) "Community service agency" means a not-for-profit organization, community organization, church, charitable organization, individual, public office, or other public body whose purpose is to enhance the physical or mental health of a delinquent minor or to rehabilitate the minor, or to improve the environmental quality or social welfare of the community which agrees to accept community service from juvenile delinquents and to report on the progress of the community service to the State's Attorney pursuant to an agreement or to the court or to any agency designated by the court or to the authorized diversion program that has referred the delinquent minor for community service.

(3) "Delinquent minor" means any minor who prior to his or her 18th birthday has violated or attempted to violate, regardless of where the act occurred, any federal, State, county or municipal law or ordinance.

(4) "Department" means the Department of Human Services unless specifically referenced as another department.

(5) "Detention" means the temporary care of a minor who is alleged to be or has been adjudicated delinquent and who requires secure custody for the minor's own protection or the community's protection in a facility designed to physically restrict the minor's movements, pending disposition by the court or execution of an order of the court for placement or commitment. Design features that physically restrict movement include, but are not limited to, locked rooms and the secure handcuffing of a minor to a rail or other stationary object. In addition, "detention" includes the court ordered care of an alleged or adjudicated delinquent minor who requires secure custody pursuant to Section 5-125 of this Act.

(6) "Diversion" means the referral of a juvenile, without court intervention, into a program that provides services designed to educate the juvenile and develop a productive and responsible approach to living in the community.

(7) "Juvenile detention home" means a public facility with specially trained staff that conforms to the county juvenile detention standards promulgated by the Department of Corrections.

(8) "Juvenile justice continuum" means a set of delinquency prevention programs and services designed for the purpose of preventing or reducing delinquent acts, including criminal activity by youth gangs, as well as intervention, rehabilitation, and prevention services targeted at minors who have committed delinquent acts, and minors who have previously been committed to residential treatment programs for delinquents. The term includes children-in-need-of-services and families-in-need-of-services programs; aftercare and reentry services; substance abuse and mental health programs; community service programs; community service work programs; and alternative-dispute resolution programs serving youth-at-risk of delinquency and their families, whether offered or delivered by State or local governmental entities, public or private for-profit or not-for-profit organizations, or religious or charitable organizations. This term would also encompass any program or service consistent with the purpose of those programs and services enumerated in this subsection.

(9) "Juvenile police officer" means a sworn police officer who has completed a Basic Recruit Training Course, has been assigned to the position of juvenile police officer by his or her chief law enforcement officer and has completed the necessary juvenile officers training as prescribed by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, or in the case of a State police officer, juvenile officer training approved by the Director of State Police.

(10) "Minor" means a person under the age of 21 years subject to this Act.

(11) "Non-secure custody" means confinement where the minor is not physically restricted by being placed in a locked cell or room, by being handcuffed to a rail or other stationary object, or by other means. Non-secure custody may include, but is not limited to, electronic monitoring, foster home placement, home confinement, group home placement, or physical restriction of movement or activity solely through facility staff.

(12) "Public or community service" means uncompensated labor for a not-for-profit organization or public body whose purpose is to enhance physical or mental stability of the offender, environmental quality or the social welfare and which agrees to accept public or community service from offenders and to report on the progress of the offender and the public or community service to the court or to the authorized diversion program that has referred the offender for public or community service.

(13) "Sentencing hearing" means a hearing to determine whether a minor should be adjudged a ward of the court, and to determine what sentence should be imposed on the minor. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the term "sentencing hearing" replace the term "dispositional hearing" and be synonymous with that definition as it was used in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(14) "Shelter" means the temporary care of a minor in physically unrestricting facilities pending court disposition or execution of court order for placement.

(15) "Site" means a not-for-profit organization, public body, church, charitable organization, or individual agreeing to accept community service from offenders and to report on the progress of ordered or required public or community service to the court or to the authorized diversion program that has referred the offender for public or community service.

(16) "Station adjustment" means the informal or formal handling of an alleged offender by a juvenile police officer.

(17) "Trial" means a hearing to determine whether the allegations of a petition under Section 5-520 that a minor is delinquent are proved beyond a reasonable doubt. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the term "trial" replace the term "adjudicatory hearing" and be synonymous with that definition as it was used in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to violations or attempted violations committed on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 1-21-14.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-130)

Sec. 5-130. Excluded jurisdiction.

(1)(a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who at the time of an offense was at least 15 years of age and who is charged with: (i) first degree murder, (ii) aggravated criminal sexual assault, (iii) aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05 where the minor personally discharged a firearm as defined in Section 2-15.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, (iv) armed robbery when the armed robbery was committed with a firearm, or (v) aggravated vehicular hijacking when the hijacking was committed with a firearm.

These charges and all other charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(b)(i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that does not charge an offense specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) the State's Attorney may proceed on any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may proceed on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.

(ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that includes one or more charges specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) and additional charges that are not specified in that paragraph, all of the charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(c)(i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of any offense covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (1), then, in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(ii) If after trial or plea the court finds that the minor committed an offense not covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (1), that finding shall not invalidate the verdict or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of the State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections 5-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the State must file a written motion within 10 days following the entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine if the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age of the minor; (c) the previous history of the minor; (d) whether there are facilities particularly available to the Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to it any or all dispositions so prescribed.

(2) (Blank).

(3)(a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who at the time of the offense was at least 15 years of age and who is charged with a violation of the provisions of paragraph (1), (3), (4), or (10) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 while in school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, or on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year. School is defined, for purposes of this Section as any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university. These charges and all other charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(b)(i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that does not charge an offense specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (3) the State's Attorney may proceed on any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may proceed under the criminal laws of this State on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.

(ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that includes one or more charges specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (3) and additional charges that are not specified in that paragraph, all of the charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(c)(i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of any offense covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (3), then, in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(ii) If after trial or plea the court finds that the minor committed an offense not covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (3), that finding shall not invalidate the verdict or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of the State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections 5-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the State must file a written motion within 10 days following the entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine if the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age of the minor; (c) the previous history of the minor; (d) whether there are facilities particularly available to the Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to it any or all dispositions so prescribed.

(4)(a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who at the time of an offense was at least 13 years of age and who is charged with first degree murder committed during the course of either aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping. However, this subsection (4) does not include a minor charged with first degree murder based exclusively upon the accountability provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b)(i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that does not charge first degree murder committed during the course of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping, the State's Attorney may proceed on any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may proceed under the criminal laws of this State on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.

(ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that includes first degree murder committed during the course of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping, and additional charges that are not specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection, all of the charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(c)(i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of first degree murder committed during the course of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping, in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(ii) If the minor was not yet 15 years of age at the time of the offense, and if after trial or plea the court finds that the minor committed an offense other than first degree murder committed during the course of either aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnapping, the finding shall not invalidate the verdict or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of the State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections 5-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the State must file a written motion within 10 days following the entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age of the minor; (c) the previous delinquent history of the minor; (d) whether there are facilities particularly available to the Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the best interest of the minor and the security of the public require sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to it any or all dispositions so prescribed.

(5)(a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who is charged with a violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-6 or Section 32-10 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the minor is subject to prosecution under the criminal laws of this State as a result of the application of the provisions of Section 5-125, or subsection (1) or (2) of this Section. These charges and all other charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(b)(i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that does not charge an offense specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (5), the State's Attorney may proceed on any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may proceed under the criminal laws of this State on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.

(ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that includes one or more charges specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (5) and additional charges that are not specified in that paragraph, all of the charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(c)(i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of any offense covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (5), then, in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(ii) If after trial or plea the court finds that the minor committed an offense not covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (5), the conviction shall not invalidate the verdict or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of this State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections 5-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the State must file a written motion within 10 days following the entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine if whether the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age of the minor; (c) the previous delinquent history of the minor; (d) whether there are facilities particularly available to the Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to it any or all dispositions so prescribed.

(6) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who, pursuant to subsection (1) or (3) or Section 5-805 or 5-810, has previously been placed under the jurisdiction of the criminal court and has been convicted of a crime under an adult criminal or penal statute. Such a minor shall be subject to prosecution under the criminal laws of this State.

(7) The procedures set out in this Article for the investigation, arrest and prosecution of juvenile offenders shall not apply to minors who are excluded from jurisdiction of the Juvenile Court, except that minors under 18 years of age shall be kept separate from confined adults.

(8) Nothing in this Act prohibits or limits the prosecution of any minor for an offense committed on or after his or her 18th birthday even though he or she is at the time of the offense a ward of the court.

(9) If an original petition for adjudication of wardship alleges the commission by a minor 13 years of age or over of an act that constitutes a crime under the laws of this State, the minor, with the consent of his or her counsel, may, at any time before commencement of the adjudicatory hearing, file with the court a motion that criminal prosecution be ordered and that the petition be dismissed insofar as the act or acts involved in the criminal proceedings are concerned. If such a motion is filed as herein provided, the court shall enter its order accordingly.

(10) If, prior to August 12, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-574), a minor is charged with a violation of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act under the criminal laws of this State, other than a minor charged with a Class X felony violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, any party including the minor or the court sua sponte may, before trial, move for a hearing for the purpose of trying and sentencing the minor as a delinquent minor. To request a hearing, the party must file a motion prior to trial. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to all parties. On its own motion or upon the filing of a motion by one of the parties including the minor, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the minor should be tried and sentenced as a delinquent minor under this Article. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters:

(a) The age of the minor;

(b) Any previous delinquent or criminal history of the minor;

(c) Any previous abuse or neglect history of the minor;

(d) Any mental health or educational history of the minor, or both; and

(e) Whether there is probable cause to support the charge, whether the minor is charged through accountability, and whether there is evidence the minor possessed a deadly weapon or caused serious bodily harm during the offense.

Any material that is relevant and reliable shall be admissible at the hearing. In all cases, the judge shall enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of Illinois unless the judge makes a finding based on a preponderance of the evidence that the minor would be amenable to the care, treatment, and training programs available through the facilities of the juvenile court based on an evaluation of the factors listed in this subsection (10).

(11) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-401.5)

Sec. 5-401.5. When statements by minor may be used.

(a) In this Section, "custodial interrogation" means any interrogation (i) during which a reasonable person in the subject's position would consider himself or herself to be in custody and (ii) during which a question is asked that is reasonably likely to elicit an incriminating response.

In this Section, "electronic recording" includes motion picture, audiotape, videotape, or digital recording.

In this Section, "place of detention" means a building or a police station that is a place of operation for a municipal police department or county sheriff department or other law enforcement agency at which persons are or may be held in detention in connection with criminal charges against those persons or allegations that those persons are delinquent minors.

(b) An oral, written, or sign language statement of a minor who, at the time of the commission of the offense was under the age of 18 years, made as a result of a custodial interrogation conducted at a police station or other place of detention on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly shall be presumed to be inadmissible as evidence against the minor in any criminal proceeding or juvenile court proceeding, for an act that if committed by an adult would be brought under Section 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, or 9-3.3, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or under clause (d)(1)(F) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code unless:

(1) an electronic recording is made of the custodial interrogation; and

(2) the recording is substantially accurate and not intentionally altered.

(b-5) Under the following circumstances, an oral, written, or sign language statement of a minor who, at the time of the commission of the offense was under the age of 17 years, made as a result of a custodial interrogation conducted at a police station or other place of detention shall be presumed to be inadmissible as evidence against the minor, unless an electronic recording is made of the custodial interrogation and the recording is substantially accurate and not intentionally altered:

(1) in any criminal proceeding or juvenile court proceeding, for an act that if committed by an adult would be brought under Section 11-1.40 or 20-1.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if the custodial interrogation was conducted on or after June 1, 2014;

(2) in any criminal proceeding or juvenile court proceeding, for an act that if committed by an adult would be brought under Section 10-2, 18-4, or 19-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if the custodial interrogation was conducted on or after June 1, 2015; and

(3) in any criminal proceeding or juvenile court proceeding, for an act that if committed by an adult would be brought under Section 11-1.30 or 18-2 or subsection (e) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if the custodial interrogation was conducted on or after June 1, 2016.

(b-10) If, during the course of an electronically recorded custodial interrogation conducted under this Section of a minor who, at the time of the commission of the offense was under the age of 17 years, the minor makes a statement that creates a reasonable suspicion to believe the minor has committed an act that if committed by an adult would be an offense other than an offense required to be recorded under subsection (b) or (b-5), the interrogators may, without the minor's consent, continue to record the interrogation as it relates to the other offense notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary. Any oral, written, or sign language statement of a minor made as a result of an interrogation under this subsection shall be presumed to be inadmissible as evidence against the minor in any criminal proceeding or juvenile court proceeding, unless the recording is substantially accurate and not intentionally altered.

(c) Every electronic recording made under this Section must be preserved until such time as the minor's adjudication for any offense relating to the statement is final and all direct and habeas corpus appeals are exhausted, or the prosecution of such offenses is barred by law.

(d) If the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the minor was subjected to a custodial interrogation in violation of this Section, then any statements made by the minor during or following that non-recorded custodial interrogation, even if otherwise in compliance with this Section, are presumed to be inadmissible in any criminal proceeding or juvenile court proceeding against the minor except for the purposes of impeachment.

(e) Nothing in this Section precludes the admission (i) of a statement made by the minor in open court in any criminal proceeding or juvenile court proceeding, before a grand jury, or at a preliminary hearing, (ii) of a statement made during a custodial interrogation that was not recorded as required by this Section because electronic recording was not feasible, (iii) of a voluntary statement, whether or not the result of a custodial interrogation, that has a bearing on the credibility of the accused as a witness, (iv) of a spontaneous statement that is not made in response to a question, (v) of a statement made after questioning that is routinely asked during the processing of the arrest of the suspect, (vi) of a statement made during a custodial interrogation by a suspect who requests, prior to making the statement, to respond to the interrogator's questions only if an electronic recording is not made of the statement, provided that an electronic recording is made of the statement of agreeing to respond to the interrogator's question, only if a recording is not made of the statement, (vii) of a statement made during a custodial interrogation that is conducted out-of-state, (viii) of a statement given in violation of subsection (b) at a time when the interrogators are unaware that a death has in fact occurred, (ix) of a statement given in violation of subsection (b-5) at a time when the interrogators are unaware of facts and circumstances that would create probable cause to believe that the minor committed an act that if committed by an adult would be an offense required to be recorded under subsection (b-5), or (x) of any other statement that may be admissible under law. The State shall bear the burden of proving, by a preponderance of the evidence, that one of the exceptions described in this subsection (e) is applicable. Nothing in this Section precludes the admission of a statement, otherwise inadmissible under this Section, that is used only for impeachment and not as substantive evidence.

(f) The presumption of inadmissibility of a statement made by a suspect at a custodial interrogation at a police station or other place of detention may be overcome by a preponderance of the evidence that the statement was voluntarily given and is reliable, based on the totality of the circumstances.

(g) Any electronic recording of any statement made by a minor during a custodial interrogation that is compiled by any law enforcement agency as required by this Section for the purposes of fulfilling the requirements of this Section shall be confidential and exempt from public inspection and copying, as provided under Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act, and the information shall not be transmitted to anyone except as needed to comply with this Section.

(h) A statement, admission, confession, or incriminating information made by or obtained from a minor related to the instant offense, as part of any behavioral health screening, assessment, evaluation, or treatment, whether or not court-ordered, shall not be admissible as evidence against the minor on the issue of guilt only in the instant juvenile court proceeding. The provisions of this subsection (h) are in addition to and do not override any existing statutory and constitutional prohibition on the admission into evidence in delinquency proceedings of information obtained during screening, assessment, or treatment.

(i) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to statements of a minor made on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; 98-547, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-410)

Sec. 5-410. Non-secure custody or detention.

(1) Any minor arrested or taken into custody pursuant to this Act who requires care away from his or her home but who does not require physical restriction shall be given temporary care in a foster family home or other shelter facility designated by the court.

(2) (a) Any minor 10 years of age or older arrested pursuant to this Act where there is probable cause to believe that the minor is a delinquent minor and that (i) secured custody is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another, (ii) the minor is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, or (iii) the minor was taken into custody under a warrant, may be kept or detained in an authorized detention facility. No minor under 12 years of age shall be detained in a county jail or a municipal lockup for more than 6 hours.

(b) The written authorization of the probation officer or detention officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) constitutes authority for the superintendent of any juvenile detention home to detain and keep a minor for up to 40 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays and court-designated holidays. These records shall be available to the same persons and pursuant to the same conditions as are law enforcement records as provided in Section 5-905.

(b-4) The consultation required by subsection (b-5) shall not be applicable if the probation officer or detention officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) utilizes a scorable detention screening instrument, which has been developed with input by the State's Attorney, to determine whether a minor should be detained, however, subsection (b-5) shall still be applicable where no such screening instrument is used or where the probation officer, detention officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) deviates from the screening instrument.

(b-5) Subject to the provisions of subsection (b-4), if a probation officer or detention officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) does not intend to detain a minor for an offense which constitutes one of the following offenses he or she shall consult with the State's Attorney's Office prior to the release of the minor: first degree murder, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated or heinous battery involving permanent disability or disfigurement or great bodily harm, robbery, aggravated robbery, armed robbery, vehicular hijacking, aggravated vehicular hijacking, vehicular invasion, arson, aggravated arson, kidnapping, aggravated kidnapping, home invasion, burglary, or residential burglary.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a), (d), or (e), no minor shall be detained in a county jail or municipal lockup for more than 12 hours, unless the offense is a crime of violence in which case the minor may be detained up to 24 hours. For the purpose of this paragraph, "crime of violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(i) The period of detention is deemed to have begun once the minor has been placed in a locked room or cell or handcuffed to a stationary object in a building housing a county jail or municipal lockup. Time spent transporting a minor is not considered to be time in detention or secure custody.

(ii) Any minor so confined shall be under periodic supervision and shall not be permitted to come into or remain in contact with adults in custody in the building.

(iii) Upon placement in secure custody in a jail or lockup, the minor shall be informed of the purpose of the detention, the time it is expected to last and the fact that it cannot exceed the time specified under this Act.

(iv) A log shall be kept which shows the offense which is the basis for the detention, the reasons and circumstances for the decision to detain and the length of time the minor was in detention.

(v) Violation of the time limit on detention in a county jail or municipal lockup shall not, in and of itself, render inadmissible evidence obtained as a result of the violation of this time limit. Minors under 18 years of age shall be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room or yard with adults confined pursuant to criminal law. Persons 18 years of age and older who have a petition of delinquency filed against them may be confined in an adult detention facility. In making a determination whether to confine a person 18 years of age or older who has a petition of delinquency filed against the person, these factors, among other matters, shall be considered:

(A) The age of the person;

(B) Any previous delinquent or criminal history of the person;

(C) Any previous abuse or neglect history of the person; and

(D) Any mental health or educational history of the person, or both.

(d) (i) If a minor 12 years of age or older is confined in a county jail in a county with a population below 3,000,000 inhabitants, then the minor's confinement shall be implemented in such a manner that there will be no contact by sight, sound or otherwise between the minor and adult prisoners. Minors 12 years of age or older must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with confined adults. This paragraph (d)(i) shall only apply to confinement pending an adjudicatory hearing and shall not exceed 40 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays and court designated holidays. To accept or hold minors during this time period, county jails shall comply with all monitoring standards promulgated by the Department of Corrections and training standards approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(ii) To accept or hold minors, 12 years of age or older, after the time period prescribed in paragraph (d)(i) of this subsection (2) of this Section but not exceeding 7 days including Saturdays, Sundays and holidays pending an adjudicatory hearing, county jails shall comply with all temporary detention standards promulgated by the Department of Corrections and training standards approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(iii) To accept or hold minors 12 years of age or older, after the time period prescribed in paragraphs (d)(i) and (d)(ii) of this subsection (2) of this Section, county jails shall comply with all programmatic and training standards for juvenile detention homes promulgated by the Department of Corrections.

(e) When a minor who is at least 15 years of age is prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State, the court may enter an order directing that the juvenile be confined in the county jail. However, any juvenile confined in the county jail under this provision shall be separated from adults who are confined in the county jail in such a manner that there will be no contact by sight, sound or otherwise between the juvenile and adult prisoners.

(f) For purposes of appearing in a physical lineup, the minor may be taken to a county jail or municipal lockup under the direct and constant supervision of a juvenile police officer. During such time as is necessary to conduct a lineup, and while supervised by a juvenile police officer, the sight and sound separation provisions shall not apply.

(g) For purposes of processing a minor, the minor may be taken to a County Jail or municipal lockup under the direct and constant supervision of a law enforcement officer or correctional officer. During such time as is necessary to process the minor, and while supervised by a law enforcement officer or correctional officer, the sight and sound separation provisions shall not apply.

(3) If the probation officer or State's Attorney (or such other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) determines that the minor may be a delinquent minor as described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105, and should be retained in custody but does not require physical restriction, the minor may be placed in non-secure custody for up to 40 hours pending a detention hearing.

(4) Any minor taken into temporary custody, not requiring secure detention, may, however, be detained in the home of his or her parent or guardian subject to such conditions as the court may impose.

(5) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-901)

Sec. 5-901. Court file.

(1) The Court file with respect to proceedings under this Article shall consist of the petitions, pleadings, victim impact statements, process, service of process, orders, writs and docket entries reflecting hearings held and judgments and decrees entered by the court. The court file shall be kept separate from other records of the court.

(a) The file, including information identifying the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense, shall be disclosed only to the following parties when necessary for discharge of their official duties:

(i) A judge of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge;

(ii) Parties to the proceedings and their attorneys;

(iii) Victims and their attorneys, except in cases of multiple victims of sex offenses in which case the information identifying the nonrequesting victims shall be redacted;

(iv) Probation officers, law enforcement officers or prosecutors or their staff;

(v) Adult and juvenile Prisoner Review Boards.

(b) The Court file redacted to remove any information identifying the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense shall be disclosed only to the following parties when necessary for discharge of their official duties:

(i) Authorized military personnel;

(ii) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the judge of the juvenile court and the chief executive of the agency that prepared the particular recording: provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the record;

(iii) The Secretary of State to whom the Clerk of the Court shall report the disposition of all cases, as required in Section 6-204 or Section 6-205.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. However, information reported relative to these offenses shall be privileged and available only to the Secretary of State, courts, and police officers;

(iv) The administrator of a bonafide substance abuse student assistance program with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court;

(v) Any individual, or any public or private agency or institution, having custody of the juvenile under court order or providing educational, medical or mental health services to the juvenile or a court-approved advocate for the juvenile or any placement provider or potential placement provider as determined by the court.

(3) A minor who is the victim or alleged victim in a juvenile proceeding shall be provided the same confidentiality regarding disclosure of identity as the minor who is the subject of record. Information identifying victims and alleged victims of sex offenses, shall not be disclosed or open to public inspection under any circumstances. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense from voluntarily disclosing his or her identity.

(4) Relevant information, reports and records shall be made available to the Department of Juvenile Justice when a juvenile offender has been placed in the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(5) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (5), juvenile court records shall not be made available to the general public but may be inspected by representatives of agencies, associations and news media or other properly interested persons by general or special order of the court. The State's Attorney, the minor, his or her parents, guardian and counsel shall at all times have the right to examine court files and records.

(a) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is adjudicated a delinquent minor under this Act under either of the following circumstances:

(i) The adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault; or

(ii) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the act was committed and the adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of: (A) an act in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (B) an act involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (C) an act that would be a Class X felony offense under or the minor's second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act if committed by an adult, (D) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, (E) an act that would be an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, or (F) an act that would be an offense under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act if committed by an adult.

(b) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is at least 13 years of age at the time the offense is committed and who is convicted, in criminal proceedings permitted or required under Section 5-805, under either of the following circumstances:

(i) The minor has been convicted of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault,

(ii) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the offense was committed and the conviction was based upon the minor's commission of: (A) an offense in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (B) an offense involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (C) a Class X felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act or a second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act, (D) a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, (E) an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or (F) an offense under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(6) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the use of a adjudication of delinquency as evidence in any juvenile or criminal proceeding, where it would otherwise be admissible under the rules of evidence, including but not limited to, use as impeachment evidence against any witness, including the minor if he or she testifies.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall affect the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority examining the character and fitness of an applicant for a position as a law enforcement officer to ascertain whether that applicant was ever adjudicated to be a delinquent minor and, if so, to examine the records or evidence which were made in proceedings under this Act.

(8) Following any adjudication of delinquency for a crime which would be a felony if committed by an adult, or following any adjudication of delinquency for a violation of Section 24-1, 24-3, 24-3.1, or 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State's Attorney shall ascertain whether the minor respondent is enrolled in school and, if so, shall provide a copy of the sentencing order to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school. Access to such juvenile records shall be limited to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any guidance counselor designated by him or her.

(9) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is used to assist in the early identification and treatment of habitual juvenile offenders.

(11) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall report to the Department of State Police, in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police, the final disposition of each minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday for those offenses required to be reported under Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department under this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(12) Information or records may be disclosed to the general public when the court is conducting hearings under Section 5-805 or 5-810.

(13) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to juvenile court records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-905)

Sec. 5-905. Law enforcement records.

(1) Law Enforcement Records. Inspection and copying of law enforcement records maintained by law enforcement agencies that relate to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday shall be restricted to the following and when necessary for the discharge of their official duties:

(a) A judge of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge;

(b) Law enforcement officers, probation officers or prosecutors or their staff, or, when necessary for the discharge of its official duties in connection with a particular investigation of the conduct of a law enforcement officer, an independent agency or its staff created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers;

(c) The minor, the minor's parents or legal guardian and their attorneys, but only when the juvenile has been charged with an offense;

(d) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Boards;

(e) Authorized military personnel;

(f) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the judge of juvenile court and the chief executive of the agency that prepared the particular recording: provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the record;

(g) Individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody of minors pursuant to orders of the juvenile court or directives from officials of the Department of Children and Family Services or the Department of Human Services who certify in writing that the information will not be disclosed to any other party except as provided under law or order of court;

(h) The appropriate school official only if the agency or officer believes that there is an imminent threat of physical harm to students, school personnel, or others who are present in the school or on school grounds.

(A) Inspection and copying shall be limited to law enforcement records transmitted to the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by a local law enforcement agency under a reciprocal reporting system established and maintained between the school district and the local law enforcement agency under Section 10-20.14 of the School Code concerning a minor enrolled in a school within the school district who has been arrested or taken into custody for any of the following offenses:

(i) any violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act;

(iii) a violation of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iv) a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(v) a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act;

(vi) a violation of Section 1-2 of the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act;

(vii) a violation of the Hazing Act; or

(viii) a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-3.5, 12-5, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 25-1, or 25-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The information derived from the law enforcement records shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of that child and shall not be a public record. The information shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest to aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child and to protect the safety of students and employees in the school. If the designated law enforcement and school officials deem it to be in the best interest of the minor, the student may be referred to in-school or community based social services if those services are available. "Rehabilitation services" may include interventions by school support personnel, evaluation for eligibility for special education, referrals to community-based agencies such as youth services, behavioral healthcare service providers, drug and alcohol prevention or treatment programs, and other interventions as deemed appropriate for the student.

(B) Any information provided to appropriate school officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by local law enforcement officials about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation that is directly related to school safety shall consist of oral information only, and not written law enforcement records, and shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials to protect the safety of students and employees in the school and aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child. The information derived orally from the local law enforcement officials shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of the child and shall not be a public record. This limitation on the use of information about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation shall in no way limit the use of this information by prosecutors in pursuing criminal charges arising out of the information disclosed during a police investigation of the minor. For purposes of this paragraph, "investigation" means an official systematic inquiry by a law enforcement agency into actual or suspected criminal activity;

(i) The president of a park district. Inspection and copying shall be limited to law enforcement records transmitted to the president of the park district by the Illinois State Police under Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act concerning a person who is seeking employment with that park district and who has been adjudicated a juvenile delinquent for any of the offenses listed in subsection (c) of Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or subsection (c) of Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act.

(2) Information identifying victims and alleged victims of sex offenses, shall not be disclosed or open to public inspection under any circumstances. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense from voluntarily disclosing his or her identity.

(2.5) If the minor is a victim of aggravated battery, battery, attempted first degree murder, or other non-sexual violent offense, the identity of the victim may be disclosed to appropriate school officials, for the purpose of preventing foreseeable future violence involving minors, by a local law enforcement agency pursuant to an agreement established between the school district and a local law enforcement agency subject to the approval by the presiding judge of the juvenile court.

(3) Relevant information, reports and records shall be made available to the Department of Juvenile Justice when a juvenile offender has been placed in the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(4) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the inspection or disclosure to victims and witnesses of photographs contained in the records of law enforcement agencies when the inspection or disclosure is conducted in the presence of a law enforcement officer for purposes of identification or apprehension of any person in the course of any criminal investigation or prosecution.

(5) The records of law enforcement officers, or of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, concerning all minors under 18 years of age must be maintained separate from the records of adults and may not be open to public inspection or their contents disclosed to the public except by order of the court or when the institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted under Section 5-130 or 5-805 or required under Section 5-130 or 5-805 or such a person has been convicted of a crime and is the subject of pre-sentence investigation or when provided by law.

(6) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (6), law enforcement officers, and personnel of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, may not disclose the identity of any minor in releasing information to the general public as to the arrest, investigation or disposition of any case involving a minor. Any victim or parent or legal guardian of a victim may petition the court to disclose the name and address of the minor and the minor's parents or legal guardian, or both. Upon a finding by clear and convincing evidence that the disclosure is either necessary for the victim to pursue a civil remedy against the minor or the minor's parents or legal guardian, or both, or to protect the victim's person or property from the minor, then the court may order the disclosure of the information to the victim or to the parent or legal guardian of the victim only for the purpose of the victim pursuing a civil remedy against the minor or the minor's parents or legal guardian, or both, or to protect the victim's person or property from the minor.

(7) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit law enforcement agencies when acting in their official capacity from communicating with each other by letter, memorandum, teletype or intelligence alert bulletin or other means the identity or other relevant information pertaining to a person under 18 years of age. The information provided under this subsection (7) shall remain confidential and shall not be publicly disclosed, except as otherwise allowed by law.

(8) No person shall disclose information under this Section except when acting in his or her official capacity and as provided by law or order of court.

(9) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-700, eff. 6-22-12; 97-1104, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-915)

Sec. 5-915. Expungement of juvenile law enforcement and court records.

(0.05) For purposes of this Section and Section 5-622:

"Expunge" means to physically destroy the records and to obliterate the minor's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the internal office records, files, or databases maintained by a State's Attorney's Office or other prosecutor.

"Law enforcement record" includes but is not limited to records of arrest, station adjustments, fingerprints, probation adjustments, the issuance of a notice to appear, or any other records maintained by a law enforcement agency relating to a minor suspected of committing an offense.

(1) Whenever any person has attained the age of 18 or whenever all juvenile court proceedings relating to that person have been terminated, whichever is later, the person may petition the court to expunge law enforcement records relating to incidents occurring before his or her 18th birthday or his or her juvenile court records, or both, but only in the following circumstances:

(a) the minor was arrested and no petition for delinquency was filed with the clerk of the circuit court; or

(b) the minor was charged with an offense and was found not delinquent of that offense; or

(c) the minor was placed under supervision pursuant to Section 5-615, and the order of supervision has since been successfully terminated; or

(d) the minor was adjudicated for an offense which would be a Class B misdemeanor, Class C misdemeanor, or a petty or business offense if committed by an adult.

(2) Any person may petition the court to expunge all law enforcement records relating to any incidents occurring before his or her 18th birthday which did not result in proceedings in criminal court and all juvenile court records with respect to any adjudications except those based upon first degree murder and sex offenses which would be felonies if committed by an adult, if the person for whom expungement is sought has had no convictions for any crime since his or her 18th birthday and:

(a) has attained the age of 21 years; or

(b) 5 years have elapsed since all juvenile court proceedings relating to him or her have been terminated or his or her commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice pursuant to this Act has been terminated;

whichever is later of (a) or (b). Nothing in this Section 5-915 precludes a minor from obtaining expungement under Section 5-622.

(2.5) If a minor is arrested and no petition for delinquency is filed with the clerk of the circuit court as provided in paragraph (a) of subsection (1) at the time the minor is released from custody, the youth officer, if applicable, or other designated person from the arresting agency, shall notify verbally and in writing to the minor or the minor's parents or guardians that if the State's Attorney does not file a petition for delinquency, the minor has a right to petition to have his or her arrest record expunged when the minor attains the age of 18 or when all juvenile court proceedings relating to that minor have been terminated and that unless a petition to expunge is filed, the minor shall have an arrest record and shall provide the minor and the minor's parents or guardians with an expungement information packet, including a petition to expunge juvenile records obtained from the clerk of the circuit court.

(2.6) If a minor is charged with an offense and is found not delinquent of that offense; or if a minor is placed under supervision under Section 5-615, and the order of supervision is successfully terminated; or if a minor is adjudicated for an offense that would be a Class B misdemeanor, a Class C misdemeanor, or a business or petty offense if committed by an adult; or if a minor has incidents occurring before his or her 18th birthday that have not resulted in proceedings in criminal court, or resulted in proceedings in juvenile court, and the adjudications were not based upon first degree murder or sex offenses that would be felonies if committed by an adult; then at the time of sentencing or dismissal of the case, the judge shall inform the delinquent minor of his or her right to petition for expungement as provided by law, and the clerk of the circuit court shall provide an expungement information packet to the delinquent minor, written in plain language, including a petition for expungement, a sample of a completed petition, expungement instructions that shall include information informing the minor that (i) once the case is expunged, it shall be treated as if it never occurred, (ii) he or she may apply to have petition fees waived, (iii) once he or she obtains an expungement, he or she may not be required to disclose that he or she had a juvenile record, and (iv) he or she may file the petition on his or her own or with the assistance of an attorney. The failure of the judge to inform the delinquent minor of his or her right to petition for expungement as provided by law does not create a substantive right, nor is that failure grounds for: (i) a reversal of an adjudication of delinquency, (ii) a new trial; or (iii) an appeal.

(2.7) For counties with a population over 3,000,000, the clerk of the circuit court shall send a "Notification of a Possible Right to Expungement" post card to the minor at the address last received by the clerk of the circuit court on the date that the minor attains the age of 18 based on the birthdate provided to the court by the minor or his or her guardian in cases under paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of subsection (1); and when the minor attains the age of 21 based on the birthdate provided to the court by the minor or his or her guardian in cases under subsection (2).

(2.8) The petition for expungement for subsection (1) shall be substantially in the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ......, ILLINOIS

........ JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

PETITION TO EXPUNGE JUVENILE RECORDS

(705 ILCS 405/5-915 (SUBSECTION 1))

(Please prepare a separate petition for each offense) Now comes ............., petitioner, and respectfully requests that this Honorable Court enter an order expunging all juvenile law enforcement and court records of petitioner and in support thereof states that: Petitioner has attained the age of 18, his/her birth date being ......, or all Juvenile Court proceedings terminated as of ......, whichever occurred later. Petitioner was arrested on ..... by the ....... Police Department for the offense of ......., and:

(Check One:)

( ) a. no petition was filed with the Clerk of the Circuit Court. ( ) b. was charged with ...... and was found not delinquent of the offense. ( ) c. a petition was filed and the petition was dismissed without a finding of delinquency on ..... ( ) d. on ....... placed under supervision pursuant to Section 5-615 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and such order of supervision successfully terminated on ........ ( ) e. was adjudicated for the offense, which would have been a Class B misdemeanor, a Class C misdemeanor, or a petty offense or business offense if committed by an adult.

Petitioner .... has .... has not been arrested on charges in this or any county other than the charges listed above. If petitioner has been arrested on additional charges, please list the charges below:

Charge(s): ...... Arresting Agency or Agencies: ........... Disposition/Result: (choose from a. through e., above): .....

WHEREFORE, the petitioner respectfully requests this Honorable Court to (1) order all law enforcement agencies to expunge all records of petitioner to this incident, and (2) to order the Clerk of the Court to expunge all records concerning the petitioner regarding this incident.

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Petitioner (Signature)

..........................

Petitioner's Street Address

.....................

City, State, Zip Code

.............................

Petitioner's Telephone Number

Pursuant to the penalties of perjury under the Code of Civil Procedure, 735 ILCS 5/1-109, I hereby certify that the statements in this petition are true and correct, or on information and belief I believe the same to be true.

......................

Petitioner (Signature)

The Petition for Expungement for subsection (2) shall be substantially in the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ........, ILLINOIS

........ JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

PETITION TO EXPUNGE JUVENILE RECORDS

(705 ILCS 405/5-915 (SUBSECTION 2))

(Please prepare a separate petition for each offense) Now comes ............, petitioner, and respectfully requests that this Honorable Court enter an order expunging all Juvenile Law Enforcement and Court records of petitioner and in support thereof states that: The incident for which the Petitioner seeks expungement occurred before the Petitioner's 18th birthday and did not result in proceedings in criminal court and the Petitioner has not had any convictions for any crime since his/her 18th birthday; and

The incident for which the Petitioner seeks expungement occurred before the Petitioner's 18th birthday and the adjudication was not based upon first-degree murder or sex offenses which would be felonies if committed by an adult, and the Petitioner has not had any convictions for any crime since his/her 18th birthday. Petitioner was arrested on ...... by the ....... Police Department for the offense of ........, and: (Check whichever one occurred the latest:) ( ) a. The Petitioner has attained the age of 21 years, his/her birthday being .......; or ( ) b. 5 years have elapsed since all juvenile court proceedings relating to the Petitioner have been terminated; or the Petitioner's commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice pursuant to the expungement of juvenile law enforcement and court records provisions of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 has been terminated. Petitioner ...has ...has not been arrested on charges in this or any other county other than the charge listed above. If petitioner has been arrested on additional charges, please list the charges below: Charge(s): .......... Arresting Agency or Agencies: ....... Disposition/Result: (choose from a or b, above): .......... WHEREFORE, the petitioner respectfully requests this Honorable Court to (1) order all law enforcement agencies to expunge all records of petitioner related to this incident, and (2) to order the Clerk of the Court to expunge all records concerning the petitioner regarding this incident.

.......................

Petitioner (Signature)

......................

Petitioner's Street Address

.....................

City, State, Zip Code

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Petitioner's Telephone Number

Pursuant to the penalties of perjury under the Code of Civil Procedure, 735 ILCS 5/1-109, I hereby certify that the statements in this petition are true and correct, or on information and belief I believe the same to be true.

......................

Petitioner (Signature)

(3) The chief judge of the circuit in which an arrest was made or a charge was brought or any judge of that circuit designated by the chief judge may, upon verified petition of a person who is the subject of an arrest or a juvenile court proceeding under subsection (1) or (2) of this Section, order the law enforcement records or official court file, or both, to be expunged from the official records of the arresting authority, the clerk of the circuit court and the Department of State Police. The person whose records are to be expunged shall petition the court using the appropriate form containing his or her current address and shall promptly notify the clerk of the circuit court of any change of address. Notice of the petition shall be served upon the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, and the arresting agency or agencies by the clerk of the circuit court. If an objection is filed within 45 days of the notice of the petition, the clerk of the circuit court shall set a date for hearing after the 45 day objection period. At the hearing the court shall hear evidence on whether the expungement should or should not be granted. Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, or an arresting agency objects to the expungement within 45 days of the notice, the court may enter an order granting expungement. The person whose records are to be expunged shall pay the clerk of the circuit court a fee equivalent to the cost associated with expungement of records by the clerk and the Department of State Police. The clerk shall forward a certified copy of the order to the Department of State Police, the appropriate portion of the fee to the Department of State Police for processing, and deliver a certified copy of the order to the arresting agency.

(3.1) The Notice of Expungement shall be in substantially the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ....., ILLINOIS

.... JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

NOTICE TO: State's Attorney TO: Arresting Agency

................ ................

................ ................

TO: Illinois State Police

.....................

.....................

ATTENTION: Expungement

You are hereby notified that on ....., at ....., in courtroom ..., located at ..., before the Honorable ..., Judge, or any judge sitting in his/her stead, I shall then and there present a Petition to Expunge Juvenile records in the above-entitled matter, at which time and place you may appear.

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Petitioner's Signature

...........................

Petitioner's Street Address

.....................

City, State, Zip Code

.............................

Petitioner's Telephone Number

PROOF OF SERVICE On the ....... day of ......, 20..., I on oath state that I served this notice and true and correct copies of the above-checked documents by: (Check One:) delivering copies personally to each entity to whom they are directed; or by mailing copies to each entity to whom they are directed by depositing the same in the U.S. Mail, proper postage fully prepaid, before the hour of 5:00 p.m., at the United States Postal Depository located at .................

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Signature

Clerk of the Circuit Court or Deputy Clerk

Printed Name of Delinquent Minor/Petitioner: .... Address: ........................................ Telephone Number: ...............................

(3.2) The Order of Expungement shall be in substantially the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ....., ILLINOIS

.... JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

DOB ................ Arresting Agency/Agencies ......

ORDER OF EXPUNGEMENT

(705 ILCS 405/5-915 (SUBSECTION 3))

This matter having been heard on the petitioner's motion and the court being fully advised in the premises does find that the petitioner is indigent or has presented reasonable cause to waive all costs in this matter, IT IS HEREBY ORDERED that:

( ) 1. Clerk of Court and Department of State Police costs are hereby waived in this matter.

( ) 2. The Illinois State Police Bureau of Identification and the following law enforcement agencies expunge all records of petitioner relating to an arrest dated ...... for the offense of ......

Law Enforcement Agencies:

.........................

.........................

( ) 3. IT IS FURTHER ORDERED that the Clerk of the Circuit Court expunge all records regarding the above-captioned case.

ENTER: ......................

JUDGE DATED: ....... Name:

Attorney for:

Address: City/State/Zip:

Attorney Number:

(3.3) The Notice of Objection shall be in substantially the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ....., ILLINOIS

....................... JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

NOTICE OF OBJECTION TO:(Attorney, Public Defender, Minor)

.................................

.................................

TO:(Illinois State Police)

.................................

................................. TO:(Clerk of the Court)

.................................

.................................

TO:(Judge)

.................................

.................................

TO:(Arresting Agency/Agencies)

.................................

................................. ATTENTION: You are hereby notified that an objection has been filed by the following entity regarding the above-named minor's petition for expungement of juvenile records: ( ) State's Attorney's Office;

( ) Prosecutor (other than State's Attorney's Office) charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense sought to be expunged;

( ) Department of Illinois State Police; or

( ) Arresting Agency or Agencies.

The agency checked above respectfully requests that this case be continued and set for hearing on whether the expungement should or should not be granted.

DATED: ....... Name: Attorney For:

Address: City/State/Zip:

Telephone:

Attorney No.:

FOR USE BY CLERK OF THE COURT PERSONNEL ONLY

This matter has been set for hearing on the foregoing objection, on ...... in room ...., located at ....., before the Honorable ....., Judge, or any judge sitting in his/her stead. (Only one hearing shall be set, regardless of the number of Notices of Objection received on the same case).

A copy of this completed Notice of Objection containing the court date, time, and location, has been sent via regular U.S. Mail to the following entities. (If more than one Notice of Objection is received on the same case, each one must be completed with the court date, time and location and mailed to the following entities):

( ) Attorney, Public Defender or Minor;

( ) State's Attorney's Office; ( ) Prosecutor (other than State's Attorney's Office) charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense sought to be expunged; ( ) Department of Illinois State Police; and ( ) Arresting agency or agencies.

Date: ...... Initials of Clerk completing this section: .....

(4) Upon entry of an order expunging records or files, the offense, which the records or files concern shall be treated as if it never occurred. Law enforcement officers and other public offices and agencies shall properly reply on inquiry that no record or file exists with respect to the person.

(5) Records which have not been expunged are sealed, and may be obtained only under the provisions of Sections 5-901, 5-905 and 5-915.

(6) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit the maintenance of information relating to an offense after records or files concerning the offense have been expunged if the information is kept in a manner that does not enable identification of the offender. This information may only be used for statistical and bona fide research purposes.

(7)(a) The State Appellate Defender shall establish, maintain, and carry out, by December 31, 2004, a juvenile expungement program to provide information and assistance to minors eligible to have their juvenile records expunged.

(b) The State Appellate Defender shall develop brochures, pamphlets, and other materials in printed form and through the agency's World Wide Web site. The pamphlets and other materials shall include at a minimum the following information:

(i) An explanation of the State's juvenile expungement process;

(ii) The circumstances under which juvenile expungement may occur;

(iii) The juvenile offenses that may be expunged;

(iv) The steps necessary to initiate and complete the juvenile expungement process; and

(v) Directions on how to contact the State Appellate Defender.

(c) The State Appellate Defender shall establish and maintain a statewide toll-free telephone number that a person may use to receive information or assistance concerning the expungement of juvenile records. The State Appellate Defender shall advertise the toll-free telephone number statewide. The State Appellate Defender shall develop an expungement information packet that may be sent to eligible persons seeking expungement of their juvenile records, which may include, but is not limited to, a pre-printed expungement petition with instructions on how to complete the petition and a pamphlet containing information that would assist individuals through the juvenile expungement process.

(d) The State Appellate Defender shall compile a statewide list of volunteer attorneys willing to assist eligible individuals through the juvenile expungement process.

(e) This Section shall be implemented from funds appropriated by the General Assembly to the State Appellate Defender for this purpose. The State Appellate Defender shall employ the necessary staff and adopt the necessary rules for implementation of this Section.

(8)(a) Except with respect to law enforcement agencies, the Department of Corrections, State's Attorneys, or other prosecutors, an expunged juvenile record may not be considered by any private or public entity in employment matters, certification, licensing, revocation of certification or licensure, or registration. Applications for employment must contain specific language that states that the applicant is not obligated to disclose expunged juvenile records of conviction or arrest. Employers may not ask if an applicant has had a juvenile record expunged. Effective January 1, 2005, the Department of Labor shall develop a link on the Department's website to inform employers that employers may not ask if an applicant had a juvenile record expunged and that application for employment must contain specific language that states that the applicant is not obligated to disclose expunged juvenile records of arrest or conviction.

(b) A person whose juvenile records have been expunged is not entitled to remission of any fines, costs, or other money paid as a consequence of expungement. This amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly does not affect the right of the victim of a crime to prosecute or defend a civil action for damages.

(c) The expungement of juvenile records under Section 5-622 shall be funded by the additional fine imposed under Section 5-9-1.17 of the Unified Code of Corrections and additional appropriations made by the General Assembly for such purpose.

(9) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 3-27-14.)

Section 695. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 2-10.1, 3-6, 10-9, 11-1.40, 11-9.1B, 11-14, 12-3.05, 12C-10, 19-4, 21-1.3, 31A-1.1, 33-1, and 33E-18 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/2-10.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 2-10.1)

Sec. 2-10.1. "Severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person" means a person (i) whose intelligence quotient does not exceed 40 or (ii) whose intelligence quotient does not exceed 55 and who suffers from significant mental illness to the extent that the person's ability to exercise rational judgment is impaired. In any proceeding in which the defendant is charged with committing a violation of Section 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.30, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-4.3, 12-14, or 12-16, or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, of this Code against a victim who is alleged to be a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, any findings concerning the victim's status as a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, made by a court after a judicial admission hearing concerning the victim under Articles V and VI of Chapter IV 4 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall be admissible.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 960, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1035, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-11-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/3-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 3-6)

Sec. 3-6. Extended limitations. The period within which a prosecution must be commenced under the provisions of Section 3-5 or other applicable statute is extended under the following conditions:

(a) A prosecution for theft involving a breach of a fiduciary obligation to the aggrieved person may be commenced as follows:

(1) If the aggrieved person is a minor or a person under legal disability, then during the minority or legal disability or within one year after the termination thereof.

(2) In any other instance, within one year after the discovery of the offense by an aggrieved person, or by a person who has legal capacity to represent an aggrieved person or has a legal duty to report the offense, and is not himself or herself a party to the offense; or in the absence of such discovery, within one year after the proper prosecuting officer becomes aware of the offense. However, in no such case is the period of limitation so extended more than 3 years beyond the expiration of the period otherwise applicable.

(b) A prosecution for any offense based upon misconduct in office by a public officer or employee may be commenced within one year after discovery of the offense by a person having a legal duty to report such offense, or in the absence of such discovery, within one year after the proper prosecuting officer becomes aware of the offense. However, in no such case is the period of limitation so extended more than 3 years beyond the expiration of the period otherwise applicable.

(b-5) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons and related offenses under Section 10-9 of this Code may be commenced within one year of the victim attaining the age of 18 years. However, in no such case shall the time period for prosecution expire sooner than 3 years after the commission of the offense.

(c) (Blank).

(d) A prosecution for child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, juvenile pimping, exploitation of a child, or promoting juvenile prostitution except for keeping a place of juvenile prostitution may be commenced within one year of the victim attaining the age of 18 years. However, in no such case shall the time period for prosecution expire sooner than 3 years after the commission of the offense. When the victim is under 18 years of age, a prosecution for criminal sexual abuse may be commenced within one year of the victim attaining the age of 18 years. However, in no such case shall the time period for prosecution expire sooner than 3 years after the commission of the offense.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (j), a prosecution for any offense involving sexual conduct or sexual penetration, as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code, where the defendant was within a professional or fiduciary relationship or a purported professional or fiduciary relationship with the victim at the time of the commission of the offense may be commenced within one year after the discovery of the offense by the victim.

(f) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section 44 of the "Environmental Protection Act", approved June 29, 1970, as amended, may be commenced within 5 years after the discovery of such an offense by a person or agency having the legal duty to report the offense or in the absence of such discovery, within 5 years after the proper prosecuting officer becomes aware of the offense.

(f-5) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section 16-30 of this Code may be commenced within 5 years after the discovery of the offense by the victim of that offense.

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(i) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (j), a prosecution for criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse may be commenced within 10 years of the commission of the offense if the victim reported the offense to law enforcement authorities within 3 years after the commission of the offense.

Nothing in this subdivision (i) shall be construed to shorten a period within which a prosecution must be commenced under any other provision of this Section.

(j) (1) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or felony criminal sexual abuse may be commenced at any time when corroborating physical evidence is available or an individual who is required to report an alleged or suspected commission of any of these offenses under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act fails to do so.

(2) In circumstances other than as described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j), when the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or felony criminal sexual abuse, or a prosecution for failure of a person who is required to report an alleged or suspected commission of any of these offenses under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act may be commenced within 20 years after the child victim attains 18 years of age.

(3) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for misdemeanor criminal sexual abuse may be commenced within 10 years after the child victim attains 18 years of age.

(4) Nothing in this subdivision (j) shall be construed to shorten a period within which a prosecution must be commenced under any other provision of this Section.

(k) A prosecution for theft involving real property exceeding $100,000 in value under Section 16-1, identity theft under subsection (a) of Section 16-30, aggravated identity theft under subsection (b) of Section 16-30, or any offense set forth in Article 16H or Section 17-10.6 may be commenced within 7 years of the last act committed in furtherance of the crime.

(l) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section 26-4 of this Code may be commenced within one year after the discovery of the offense by the victim of that offense.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; 98-293, eff. 1-1-14; 98-379, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/10-9)

Sec. 10-9. Trafficking in persons, involuntary servitude, and related offenses.

(a) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Intimidation" has the meaning prescribed in Section 12-6.

(2) "Commercial sexual activity" means any sex act on account of which anything of value is given, promised to, or received by any person.

(3) "Financial harm" includes intimidation that brings about financial loss, criminal usury, or employment contracts that violate the Frauds Act.

(4) (Blank). "

(5) "Labor" means work of economic or financial value.

(6) "Maintain" means, in relation to labor or services, to secure continued performance thereof, regardless of any initial agreement on the part of the victim to perform that type of service.

(7) "Obtain" means, in relation to labor or services, to secure performance thereof.

(7.5) "Serious harm" means any harm, whether physical or nonphysical, including psychological, financial, or reputational harm, that is sufficiently serious, under all the surrounding circumstances, to compel a reasonable person of the same background and in the same circumstances to perform or to continue performing labor or services in order to avoid incurring that harm.

(8) "Services" means activities resulting from a relationship between a person and the actor in which the person performs activities under the supervision of or for the benefit of the actor. Commercial sexual activity and sexually-explicit performances are forms of activities that are "services" under this Section. Nothing in this definition may be construed to legitimize or legalize prostitution.

(9) "Sexually-explicit performance" means a live, recorded, broadcast (including over the Internet), or public act or show intended to arouse or satisfy the sexual desires or appeal to the prurient interests of patrons.

(10) "Trafficking victim" means a person subjected to the practices set forth in subsection (b), (c), or (d).

(b) Involuntary servitude. A person commits involuntary servitude when he or she knowingly subjects, attempts to subject, or engages in a conspiracy to subject another person to labor or services obtained or maintained through any of the following means, or any combination of these means:

(1) causes or threatens to cause physical harm to any person;

(2) physically restrains or threatens to physically restrain another person;

(3) abuses or threatens to abuse the law or legal process;

(4) knowingly destroys, conceals, removes, confiscates, or possesses any actual or purported passport or other immigration document, or any other actual or purported government identification document, of another person;

(5) uses intimidation, or exerts financial control over any person; or

(6) uses any scheme, plan, or pattern intended to cause the person to believe that, if the person did not perform the labor or services, that person or another person would suffer serious harm or physical restraint.

Sentence. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e) or (f), a violation of subsection (b)(1) is a Class X felony, (b)(2) is a Class 1 felony, (b)(3) is a Class 2 felony, (b)(4) is a Class 3 felony, (b)(5) and (b)(6) is a Class 4 felony.

(c) Involuntary sexual servitude of a minor. A person commits involuntary sexual servitude of a minor when he or she knowingly recruits, entices, harbors, transports, provides, or obtains by any means, or attempts to recruit, entice, harbor, provide, or obtain by any means, another person under 18 years of age, knowing that the minor will engage in commercial sexual activity, a sexually-explicit performance, or the production of pornography, or causes or attempts to cause a minor to engage in one or more of those activities and:

(1) there is no overt force or threat and the minor is between the ages of 17 and 18 years;

(2) there is no overt force or threat and the minor is under the age of 17 years; or

(3) there is overt force or threat.

Sentence. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e) or (f), a violation of subsection (c)(1) is a Class 1 felony, (c)(2) is a Class X felony, and (c)(3) is a Class X felony.

(d) Trafficking in persons. A person commits trafficking in persons when he or she knowingly: (1) recruits, entices, harbors, transports, provides, or obtains by any means, or attempts to recruit, entice, harbor, transport, provide, or obtain by any means, another person, intending or knowing that the person will be subjected to involuntary servitude; or (2) benefits, financially or by receiving anything of value, from participation in a venture that has engaged in an act of involuntary servitude or involuntary sexual servitude of a minor.

Sentence. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e) or (f), a violation of this subsection is a Class 1 felony.

(e) Aggravating factors. A violation of this Section involving kidnapping or an attempt to kidnap, aggravated criminal sexual assault or an attempt to commit aggravated criminal sexual assault, or an attempt to commit first degree murder is a Class X felony.

(f) Sentencing considerations.

(1) Bodily injury. If, pursuant to a violation of this Section, a victim suffered bodily injury, the defendant may be sentenced to an extended-term sentence under Section 5-8-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The sentencing court must take into account the time in which the victim was held in servitude, with increased penalties for cases in which the victim was held for between 180 days and one year, and increased penalties for cases in which the victim was held for more than one year.

(2) Number of victims. In determining sentences within statutory maximums, the sentencing court should take into account the number of victims, and may provide for substantially increased sentences in cases involving more than 10 victims.

(g) Restitution. Restitution is mandatory under this Section. In addition to any other amount of loss identified, the court shall order restitution including the greater of (1) the gross income or value to the defendant of the victim's labor or services or (2) the value of the victim's labor as guaranteed under the Minimum Wage Law and overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) or the Minimum Wage Law, whichever is greater.

(h) Trafficking victim services. Subject to the availability of funds, the Department of Human Services may provide or fund emergency services and assistance to individuals who are victims of one or more offenses defined in this Section.

(i) Certification. The Attorney General, a State's Attorney, or any law enforcement official shall certify in writing to the United States Department of Justice or other federal agency, such as the United States Department of Homeland Security, that an investigation or prosecution under this Section has begun and the individual who is a likely victim of a crime described in this Section is willing to cooperate or is cooperating with the investigation to enable the individual, if eligible under federal law, to qualify for an appropriate special immigrant visa and to access available federal benefits. Cooperation with law enforcement shall not be required of victims of a crime described in this Section who are under 18 years of age. This certification shall be made available to the victim and his or her designated legal representative.

(j) A person who commits involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons under subsection (b), (c), or (d) of this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; incorporates 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-1.40) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-14.1)

Sec. 11-1.40. Predatory criminal sexual assault of a child.

(a) A person commits predatory criminal sexual assault of a child if that person commits an act of sexual penetration or an act of contact, however slight, between the sex organ or anus of one person and the part of the body of another, and the accused is 17 years of age or older, and:

(1) the victim is under 13 years of age; or

(2) the victim is under 13 years of age and that person:

(A) is armed with a firearm;

(B) personally discharges a firearm during the commission of the offense;

(C) causes great bodily harm to the victim that:

(i) results in permanent disability; or

(ii) is life threatening; or

(D) delivers (by injection, inhalation, ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) any controlled substance to the victim without the victim's consent or by threat or deception, for other than medical purposes.

(b) Sentence.

(1) A person convicted of a violation of subsection (a)(1) commits a Class X felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years. A person convicted of a violation of subsection (a)(2)(A) commits a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A person convicted of a violation of subsection (a)(2)(B) commits a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A person convicted of a violation of subsection (a)(2)(C) commits a Class X felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 50 years or up to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(1.1) A person convicted of a violation of subsection (a)(2)(D) commits a Class X felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 50 years and not more than 60 years.

(1.2) A person convicted of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child committed against 2 or more persons regardless of whether the offenses occurred as the result of the same act or of several related or unrelated acts shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(2) A person who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or who is convicted of the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child after having previously been convicted of the offense of criminal sexual assault or the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault, or who is convicted of the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child after having previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of an offense that is substantially equivalent to the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault or the offense of criminal sexual assault, shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment. The commission of the second or subsequent offense is required to have been after the initial conviction for this paragraph (2) to apply.

(Source: P.A. 98-370, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-12-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-9.1B)

Sec. 11-9.1B. Failure to report sexual abuse of a child.

(a) For the purposes of this Section:

"Child" means any person under the age of 13.

"Sexual abuse" means any contact, however slight, between the sex organ or anus of the victim or the accused and an object or body part, including, but not limited to, the sex organ, mouth, or anus of the victim or the accused, or any intrusion, however slight, of any part of the body of the victim or the accused or of any animal or object into the sex organ or anus of the victim or the accused, including, but not limited to, cunnilingus, fellatio, or anal penetration. Evidence of emission of semen is not required to prove sexual abuse.

(b) A person over the age of 18 commits failure to report sexual abuse of a child when he or she personally observes sexual abuse, as defined by this Section, between a person who he or she knows is over the age of 18 and a person he or she knows is a child, and knowingly fails to report the sexual abuse to law enforcement.

(c) This Section does not apply to a person who makes timely and reasonable efforts to stop the sexual abuse by reporting the sexual abuse in conformance with the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by reporting the sexual abuse or causing a report to be made, to medical or law enforcement authorities or anyone who is a mandated reporter under Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(d) A person may not be charged with the offense of failure to report sexual abuse of a child under this Section until the person who committed the offense is charged with criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse.

(e) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of failure to report sexual abuse of a child under this Section that the person who personally observed the sexual abuse had a reasonable apprehension that timely action to stop the abuse would result in the imminent infliction of death, great bodily harm, permanent disfigurement, or permanent disability to that person or another in retaliation for reporting.

(f) Sentence. A person who commits failure to report sexual abuse of a child is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow prosecution of a person who personally observes the act of sexual abuse and assists with an investigation and any subsequent prosecution of the offender.

(Source: P.A. 98-370, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-12-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-14)

Sec. 11-14. Prostitution.

(a) Any person who knowingly performs, offers or agrees to perform any act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code for anything of value, or any touching or fondling of the sex organs of one person by another person, for anything of value, for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification commits an act of prostitution.

(b) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) (Blank). or 5-6-3.4

(d) Notwithstanding the foregoing, if it is determined, after a reasonable detention for investigative purposes, that a person suspected of or charged with a violation of this Section is a person under the age of 18, that person shall be immune from prosecution for a prostitution offense under this Section, and shall be subject to the temporary protective custody provisions of Sections 2-5 and 2-6 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Pursuant to the provisions of Section 2-6 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, a law enforcement officer who takes a person under 18 years of age into custody under this Section shall immediately report an allegation of a violation of Section 10-9 of this Code to the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services State Central Register, which shall commence an initial investigation into child abuse or child neglect within 24 hours pursuant to Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14; 98-538, eff. 8-23-13; revised 9-24-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.05) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-4)

Sec. 12-3.05. Aggravated battery.

(a) Offense based on injury. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement.

(2) Causes severe and permanent disability, great bodily harm, or disfigurement by means of a caustic or flammable substance, a poisonous gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant or agent, a radioactive substance, or a bomb or explosive compound.

(3) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an individual whom the person knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an individual 60 years of age or older.

(5) Strangles another individual.

(b) Offense based on injury to a child or intellectually disabled person. A person who is at least 18 years of age commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly and without legal justification by any means:

(1) causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years, or to any severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person; or

(2) causes bodily harm or disability or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years or to any severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person.

(c) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she is or the person battered is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of accommodation or amusement, a sports venue, or a domestic violence shelter.

(d) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she knows the individual battered to be any of the following:

(1) A person 60 years of age or older.

(2) A person who is pregnant or physically handicapped.

(3) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(5) A judge, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, or utility worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(6) An officer or employee of the State of Illinois, a unit of local government, or a school district, while performing his or her official duties.

(7) A transit employee performing his or her official duties, or a transit passenger.

(8) A taxi driver on duty.

(9) A merchant who detains the person for an alleged commission of retail theft under Section 16-26 of this Code and the person without legal justification by any means causes bodily harm to the merchant.

(10) A person authorized to serve process under Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process server appointed by the circuit court while that individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a process server.

(11) A nurse while in the performance of his or her duties as a nurse.

(e) Offense based on use of a firearm. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(2) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(3) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician employed by a municipality or other governmental unit:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4) Discharges a firearm and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher, a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(5) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(6) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician employed by a municipality or other governmental unit:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(8) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher, or a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(f) Offense based on use of a weapon or device. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon other than by discharge of a firearm, or uses an air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code the Air Rifle Act.

(2) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her identity.

(3) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device attached to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes upon or against the person of another.

(4) Knowingly video or audio records the offense with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(g) Offense based on certain conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Violates Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act by unlawfully delivering a controlled substance to another and any user experiences great bodily harm or permanent disability as a result of the injection, inhalation, or ingestion of any amount of the controlled substance.

(2) Knowingly administers to an individual or causes him or her to take, without his or her consent or by threat or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any intoxicating, poisonous, stupefying, narcotic, anesthetic, or controlled substance, or gives to another person any food containing any substance or object intended to cause physical injury if eaten.

(3) Knowingly causes or attempts to cause a correctional institution employee or Department of Human Services employee to come into contact with blood, seminal fluid, urine, or feces by throwing, tossing, or expelling the fluid or material, and the person is an inmate of a penal institution or is a sexually dangerous person or sexually violent person in the custody of the Department of Human Services.

(h) Sentence. Unless otherwise provided, aggravated battery is a Class 3 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(4), (d)(4), or (g)(3) is a Class 2 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(3) or (g)(1) is a Class 1 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(1) is a Class 1 felony when the aggravated battery was intentional and involved the infliction of torture, as defined in paragraph (14) of subsection (b) of Section 9-1 of this Code, as the infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, suffering, or agony of the victim.

Aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(5) is a Class 1 felony if:

(A) the person used or attempted to use a dangerous instrument while committing the offense; or

(B) the person caused great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to the other person while committing the offense; or

(C) the person has been previously convicted of a violation of subdivision (a)(5) under the laws of this State or laws similar to subdivision (a)(5) of any other state.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(1) is a Class X felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(2) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 6 years and a maximum of 45 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(5) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 12 years and a maximum of 45 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 15 years and a maximum of 60 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(6), (e)(7), or (e)(8) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 20 years and a maximum of 60 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (b)(1) is a Class X felony, except that:

(1) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(2) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(3) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(i) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

"Building or other structure used to provide shelter" has the meaning ascribed to "shelter" in Section 1 of the Domestic Violence Shelters Act.

"Domestic violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Domestic violence shelter" means any building or other structure used to provide shelter or other services to victims or to the dependent children of victims of domestic violence pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or the Domestic Violence Shelters Act, or any place within 500 feet of such a building or other structure in the case of a person who is going to or from such a building or other structure.

"Firearm" has the meaning provided under Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, and does not include an air rifle as defined by Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code.

"Machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

"Merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of this Code.

"Strangle" means intentionally impeding the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by applying pressure on the throat or neck of that individual or by blocking the nose or mouth of that individual.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12, 97-313, eff. 1-1-12, and 97-467, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-369, eff. 1-1-14; 98-385, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-10) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-21.5)

Sec. 12C-10. Child abandonment.

(a) A person commits child abandonment when he or she, as a parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of a child, without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that child, knowingly leaves that child who is under the age of 13 without supervision by a responsible person over the age of 14 for a period of 24 hours or more. It is not a violation of this Section for a person to relinquish a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(b) For the purposes of determining whether the child was left without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that child, the trier of fact shall consider the following factors:

(1) the age of the child;

(2) the number of children left at the location;

(3) special needs of the child, including whether the child is physically or mentally handicapped, or otherwise in need of ongoing prescribed medical treatment such as periodic doses of insulin or other medications;

(4) the duration of time in which the child was left without supervision;

(5) the condition and location of the place where the child was left without supervision;

(6) the time of day or night when the child was left without supervision;

(7) the weather conditions, including whether the child was left in a location with adequate protection from the natural elements such as adequate heat or light;

(8) the location of the parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of the child at the time the child was left without supervision, the physical distance the child was from the parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of the child at the time the child was without supervision;

(9) whether the child's movement was restricted, or the child was otherwise locked within a room or other structure;

(10) whether the child was given a phone number of a person or location to call in the event of an emergency and whether the child was capable of making an emergency call;

(11) whether there was food and other provision left for the child;

(12) whether any of the conduct is attributable to economic hardship or illness and the parent, guardian or other person having physical custody or control of the child made a good faith effort to provide for the health and safety of the child;

(13) the age and physical and mental capabilities of the person or persons who provided supervision for the child;

(14) any other factor that would endanger the health or safety of that particular child;

(15) whether the child was left under the supervision of another person.

(c) (d) Child abandonment is a Class 4 felony. A second or subsequent offense after a prior conviction is a Class 3 felony. A parent, who is found to be in violation of this Section with respect to his or her child, may be sentenced to probation for this offense pursuant to Section 12C-15.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/19-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-4)

Sec. 19-4. Criminal trespass to a residence.

(a) (1) A person commits criminal trespass to a residence when, without authority, he or she knowingly enters or remains within any residence, including a house trailer that is the dwelling place of another.

(2) A person commits criminal trespass to a residence when, without authority, he or she knowingly enters the residence of another and knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present or he or she knowingly enters the residence of another and remains in the residence after he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present.

(a-5) (3) For purposes of this Section, in the case of a multi-unit residential building or complex, "residence" shall only include the portion of the building or complex which is the actual dwelling place of any person and shall not include such places as common recreational areas or lobbies.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Criminal trespass to a residence under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Criminal trespass to a residence under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-1.3)

Sec. 21-1.3. Criminal defacement of property.

(a) A person commits criminal defacement of property when the person knowingly damages the property of another by defacing, deforming, or otherwise damaging the property by the use of paint or any other similar substance, or by the use of a writing instrument, etching tool, or any other similar device. It is an affirmative defense to a violation of this Section that the owner of the property damaged consented to such damage.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Criminal defacement of property is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense when the aggregate value of the damage to the property does not exceed $300. Criminal defacement of property is a Class 4 felony when the aggregate value of the damage to property does not exceed $300 and the property damaged is a school building or place of worship or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces or , National Guard, or veterans. Criminal defacement of property is a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent conviction or when the aggregate value of the damage to the property exceeds $300. Criminal defacement of property is a Class 3 felony when the aggregate value of the damage to property exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building or place of worship or property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces or , National Guard, or veterans.

(2) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed for a violation of this Section, a person convicted of criminal defacement of property shall:

(A) pay the actual costs incurred by the property owner or the unit of government to abate, remediate, repair, or remove the effect of the damage to the property. To the extent permitted by law, reimbursement for the costs of abatement, remediation, repair, or removal shall be payable to the person who incurred the costs; and

(B) if convicted of criminal defacement of property that is chargeable as a Class 3 or Class 4 felony, pay a mandatory minimum fine of $500.

(3) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of criminal defacement of property to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of the damage to property that was caused by the offense, or similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the offense occurred. When the property damaged is a school building, the community service may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection (b), aggregate value shall be determined by adding the value of the damage to one or more properties if the offenses were committed as part of a single course of conduct.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-315, eff. 1-1-14; 98-466, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-24-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/31A-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 31A-1.1)

Sec. 31A-1.1. Bringing Contraband into a Penal Institution; Possessing Contraband in a Penal Institution.

(a) A person commits bringing contraband into a penal institution when he or she knowingly and without authority of any person designated or authorized to grant this authority (1) brings an item of contraband into a penal institution or (2) causes another to bring an item of contraband into a penal institution or (3) places an item of contraband in such proximity to a penal institution as to give an inmate access to the contraband.

(b) A person commits possessing contraband in a penal institution when he or she knowingly possesses contraband in a penal institution, regardless of the intent with which he or she possesses it.

(c) (Blank).

(d) Sentence.

(1) Bringing into or possessing alcoholic liquor in a penal institution is a Class 4 felony.

(2) Bringing into or possessing cannabis in a penal institution is a Class 3 felony.

(3) Bringing into or possessing any amount of a controlled substance classified in Schedules III, IV or V of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Substance Act in a penal institution is a Class 2 felony.

(4) Bringing into or possessing any amount of a controlled substance classified in Schedules I or II of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Substance Act in a penal institution is a Class 1 felony.

(5) Bringing into or possessing a hypodermic syringe in a penal institution is a Class 1 felony.

(6) Bringing into or possessing a weapon, tool to defeat security mechanisms, cutting tool, or electronic contraband in a penal institution is a Class 1 felony.

(7) Bringing into or possessing a firearm, firearm ammunition, or explosive in a penal institution is a Class X felony.

(e) It shall be an affirmative defense to subsection (b), that the possession was specifically authorized by rule, regulation, or directive of the governing authority of the penal institution or order issued under it.

(f) It shall be an affirmative defense to subsection (a)(1) and subsection (b) that the person bringing into or possessing contraband in a penal institution had been arrested, and that person possessed the contraband at the time of his or her arrest, and that the contraband was brought into or possessed in the penal institution by that person as a direct and immediate result of his or her arrest.

(g) Items confiscated may be retained for use by the Department of Corrections or disposed of as deemed appropriate by the Chief Administrative Officer in accordance with Department rules or disposed of as required by law.

(Source: P.A. 96-1112, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/33-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 33-1)

Sec. 33-1. Bribery. A person commits bribery when:

(a) With intent to influence the performance of any act related to the employment or function of any public officer, public employee, juror or witness, he or she promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which he or she is not authorized by law to accept; or

(b) With intent to influence the performance of any act related to the employment or function of any public officer, public employee, juror or witness, he or she promises or tenders to one whom he or she believes to be a public officer, public employee, juror or witness, any property or personal advantage which a public officer, public employee, juror or witness would not be authorized by law to accept; or

(c) With intent to cause any person to influence the performance of any act related to the employment or function of any public officer, public employee, juror or witness, he or she promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which he or she is not authorized by law to accept; or

(d) He or she receives, retains or agrees to accept any property or personal advantage which he or she is not authorized by law to accept knowing that the property or personal advantage was promised or tendered with intent to cause him or her to influence the performance of any act related to the employment or function of any public officer, public employee, juror or witness; or

(e) He or she solicits, receives, retains, or agrees to accept any property or personal advantage pursuant to an understanding that he or she shall improperly influence or attempt to influence the performance of any act related to the employment or function of any public officer, public employee, juror or witness.

(f) As used in this Section, "tenders" means any delivery or proffer made with the requisite intent.

(g) Sentence. Bribery is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-18)

Sec. 33E-18. Unlawful stringing of bids.

(a) A person commits unlawful stringing of bids when he or she, with the intent to evade the bidding requirements of any unit of local government or school district, knowingly strings or assists in stringing, or attempts to string any contract or job order with the unit of local government or school district.

(b) Sentence. Unlawful stringing of bids is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 700. The Cannabis Control Act is amended by changing Section 15.1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 550/15.1) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 715.1)

Sec. 15.1. (a) If any cannabis derivative is designated or rescheduled as a controlled substance under federal law and notice thereof is given to the Department, the Department shall similarly control the substance under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act after the expiration of 30 days from publication in the Federal Register of a final order designating a substance as a controlled substance or rescheduling a substance unless within that 30 day period the Department objects, or a party adversely affected files with the Department substantial written objections to inclusion or rescheduling. In that case, the Department shall publish the reasons for objection or the substantial written objections and afford all interested parties an opportunity to be heard. At the conclusion of the hearing, the Department shall publish its decision, by means of a rule, which shall be final unless altered by statute. Upon publication of objections by the Department, similar control under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act whether by inclusion or rescheduling is suspended until the Department publishes its ruling.

(b) If any cannabis derivative is deleted as a controlled substance under Federal law and notice thereof is given to the Department, the Department shall similarly control the substance under this Act after the expiration of 30 days from publication in the Federal Register of a final order deleting a substance as a controlled substance or rescheduling a substance unless within that 30 day period the Department objects, or a party adversely affected files with the Department substantial written objections to inclusion or rescheduling. In that case, the Department shall publish the reasons for objection or the substantial written objections and afford all interested parties an opportunity to be heard. At the conclusion of the hearing, the Department shall publish its decision, by means of a rule, which shall be final unless altered by statute. Upon publication of objections by the Department, similar control under this Act whether by inclusion or rescheduling is suspended until the Department publishes its ruling.

(c) Cannabis derivatives are deemed to be regulated under this Act until such time as those derivatives are scheduled as provided for under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. Following such scheduling, those derivatives shall be excepted from this Act and shall be regulated pursuant to the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. At such time that any derivative is deleted from schedules provided for under the Illinois Controlled Substances Substance Act, that derivative shall be regulated pursuant to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 84-1313; 84-1362; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 705. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 102 and 201 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)

Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self control with reference to his or her addiction.

(b) "Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient, research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:

(1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his or her authorized agent),

(2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an order, or

(3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.

(c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.

(c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:

(i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,

(iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(vi) 4-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),

(vii) 5-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),

(viii) 1-androstenedione

([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),

(ix) 4-androstenedione

(androst-4-en-3,17-dione),

(x) 5-androstenedione

(androst-5-en-3,17-dione),

(xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

1,4,-diene-3-one),

(xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-

diene-3,17-dione),

(xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17

[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-

17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-

androst-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]

-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),

(xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.

'1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-

androstan-3-one),

(xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-

5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-

1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),

(xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one)

(xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-

androst-4-en-3-one),

(xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-

dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),

(xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),

(xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

[5a]-androstan-3-one),

(xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),

(xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxy-5a-androstane),

(xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy

-5a-androstane),

(xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),

(xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-

methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),

(xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),

(xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone

(17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-

androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-

1-testosterone'),

(xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione

(estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),

(xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-

en-3,17-dione),

(xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-

en-3,17-dione),

(l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),

(li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-

17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

(5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),

(lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-

(5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-

secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic

acid lactone),

(lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

4-en-3-one),

(lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-

diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-

4,9,11-trien-3-one),

(lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,

11-trien-3-one).

Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, and which the person intends to administer or have administered through such implants, shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for purposes of this Act.

(d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.

(d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" means a Department of Human Services administrative employee licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription Information Library.

(d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.

(f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or immediate precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by the Department through administrative rule. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.

(f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:

(1) the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;

(2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or

(3) with respect to a particular person, which such person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II.

(g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.

(h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.

(j) (Blank).

(k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics.

(n) (Blank).

(o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designated agents.

(p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.

(q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.

(r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.

(s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.

(t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

(t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase, store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.

(t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.

(u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by accepted professional standards including, but not limited to the following, in making the judgment:

(1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient relationship,

(2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one prescriber for large numbers of patients,

(3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,

(4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual dose may be used legitimately),

(5) unusual geographic distances between patient, pharmacist and prescriber,

(6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.

(u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any type.

(u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.

(u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the State of Illinois, or its successor agency.

(v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:

(1) which the Department has found to be and by rule designated as being a principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;

(2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled substance; and

(3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled substance.

(w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled substances within educational facilities approved by the State Board of Education or its successor agency.

(x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, County or Municipal peace unit or police force.

(y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether the representations made or the circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the following factors in addition to any other factor that may be relevant:

(a) statements made by the owner or person in control of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;

(b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the substance may be resold for profit;

(c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled substances;

(d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable retail market value of the substance.

Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.

Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances involved were controlled substances.

Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).

(y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state of the United States that delivers, dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include:

(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or

(2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent under his or her supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance:

(a) as an incident to his or her administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice; or

(b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or chemical analysis and not for sale.

(z-1) (Blank).

(z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, or (iii) an animal euthanasia agency.

(aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; however the term "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

(2) (blank);

(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;

(4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have been removed;

(5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

(6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers;

(7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subparagraphs (1) through (6).

(bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(cc) (Blank).

(dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability.

(ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.

(ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or solution or other liquid form of medication intended for administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal administration.

(ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.

(hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.

(kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.

(ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written prescription that is individually generated by machine or computer in the prescriber's office.

(mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist for a Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substance in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act when required by law.

(nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an electronic library that contains reported controlled substance data.

(nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.

(oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine.

(pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to register under Section 302 of this Act.

(qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each person authorized to handle controlled substances under the laws of the United States and of this State.

(qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Secretary's designated agents.

(rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.

(rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine and its analogs.

(ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(720 ILCS 570/201) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1201)

Sec. 201. (a) The Department shall carry out the provisions of this Article. The Department or its successor agency may, by administrative rule, add additional substances to or delete or reschedule all controlled substances in the Schedules of Sections 204, 206, 208, 210 and 212 of this Act. In making a determination regarding the addition, deletion, or rescheduling of a substance, the Department shall consider the following:

(1) the actual or relative potential for abuse;

(2) the scientific evidence of its pharmacological effect, if known;

(3) the state of current scientific knowledge regarding the substance;

(4) the history and current pattern of abuse;

(5) the scope, duration, and significance of abuse;

(6) the risk to the public health;

(7) the potential of the substance to produce psychological or physiological dependence;

(8) whether the substance is an immediate precursor of a substance already controlled under this Article;

(9) the immediate harmful effect in terms of potentially fatal dosage; and

(10) the long-range effects in terms of permanent health impairment.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) If any substance is scheduled, rescheduled, or deleted as a controlled substance under Federal law and notice thereof is given to the Department, the Department shall similarly control the substance under this Act after the expiration of 30 days from publication in the Federal Register of a final order scheduling a substance as a controlled substance or rescheduling or deleting a substance, unless within that 30 day period the Department objects, or a party adversely affected files with the Department substantial written objections objecting to inclusion, rescheduling, or deletion. In that case, the Department shall publish the reasons for objection or the substantial written objections and afford all interested parties an opportunity to be heard. At the conclusion of the hearing, the Department shall publish its decision, by means of a rule, which shall be final unless altered by statute. Upon publication of objections by the Department, similar control under this Act whether by inclusion, rescheduling or deletion is stayed until the Department publishes its ruling.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) Authority to control under this Section does not extend to distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.

(h) Persons registered with the Drug Enforcement Administration to manufacture or distribute controlled substances shall maintain adequate security and provide effective controls and procedures to guard against theft and diversion, but shall not otherwise be required to meet the physical security control requirements (such as cage or vault) for Schedule V controlled substances containing pseudoephedrine or Schedule II controlled substances containing dextromethorphan.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 710. The Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act is amended by changing Section 4.5 as follows:

(725 ILCS 120/4.5)

Sec. 4.5. Procedures to implement the rights of crime victims. To afford crime victims their rights, law enforcement, prosecutors, judges and corrections will provide information, as appropriate of the following procedures:

(a) At the request of the crime victim, law enforcement authorities investigating the case shall provide notice of the status of the investigation, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation, until such time as the alleged assailant is apprehended or the investigation is closed.

(a-5) When law enforcement authorities re-open a closed case to resume investigating, they shall provide notice of the re-opening of the case, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation.

(b) The office of the State's Attorney:

(1) shall provide notice of the filing of information, the return of an indictment by which a prosecution for any violent crime is commenced, or the filing of a petition to adjudicate a minor as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(2) shall provide notice of the date, time, and place of trial;

(3) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information of social services and financial assistance available for victims of crime, including information of how to apply for these services and assistance;

(3.5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information about available victim services, including referrals to programs, counselors, and agencies that assist a victim to deal with trauma, loss, and grief;

(4) shall assist in having any stolen or other personal property held by law enforcement authorities for evidentiary or other purposes returned as expeditiously as possible, pursuant to the procedures set out in Section 115-9 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide appropriate employer intercession services to ensure that employers of victims will cooperate with the criminal justice system in order to minimize an employee's loss of pay and other benefits resulting from court appearances;

(6) shall provide information whenever possible, of a secure waiting area during court proceedings that does not require victims to be in close proximity to defendant or juveniles accused of a violent crime, and their families and friends;

(7) shall provide notice to the crime victim of the right to have a translator present at all court proceedings and, in compliance with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, the right to communications access through a sign language interpreter or by other means;

(8) in the case of the death of a person, which death occurred in the same transaction or occurrence in which acts occurred for which a defendant is charged with an offense, shall notify the spouse, parent, child or sibling of the decedent of the date of the trial of the person or persons allegedly responsible for the death;

(9) shall inform the victim of the right to have present at all court proceedings, subject to the rules of evidence, an advocate or other support person of the victim's choice, and the right to retain an attorney, at the victim's own expense, who, upon written notice filed with the clerk of the court and State's Attorney, is to receive copies of all notices, motions and court orders filed thereafter in the case, in the same manner as if the victim were a named party in the case;

(9.5) shall inform the victim of (A) the victim's right under Section 6 of this Act to make a victim impact statement at the sentencing hearing; (B) the right of the victim's spouse, guardian, parent, grandparent and other immediate family and household members under Section 6 of this Act to present an impact statement at sentencing; and (C) if a presentence report is to be prepared, the right of the victim's spouse, guardian, parent, grandparent and other immediate family and household members to submit information to the preparer of the presentence report about the effect the offense has had on the victim and the person;

(10) at the sentencing hearing shall make a good faith attempt to explain the minimum amount of time during which the defendant may actually be physically imprisoned. The Office of the State's Attorney shall further notify the crime victim of the right to request from the Prisoner Review Board information concerning the release of the defendant under subparagraph (d)(1) of this Section;

(11) shall request restitution at sentencing and shall consider restitution in any plea negotiation, as provided by law; and

(12) shall, upon the court entering a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity, inform the victim of the notification services available from the Department of Human Services, including the statewide telephone number, under subparagraph (d)(2) of this Section.

(c) At the written request of the crime victim, the office of the State's Attorney shall:

(1) provide notice a reasonable time in advance of the following court proceedings: preliminary hearing, any hearing the effect of which may be the release of defendant from custody, or to alter the conditions of bond and the sentencing hearing. The crime victim shall also be notified of the cancellation of the court proceeding in sufficient time, wherever possible, to prevent an unnecessary appearance in court;

(2) provide notice within a reasonable time after receipt of notice from the custodian, of the release of the defendant on bail or personal recognizance or the release from detention of a minor who has been detained for a violent crime;

(3) explain in nontechnical language the details of any plea or verdict of a defendant, or any adjudication of a juvenile as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(4) where practical, consult with the crime victim before the Office of the State's Attorney makes an offer of a plea bargain to the defendant or enters into negotiations with the defendant concerning a possible plea agreement, and shall consider the written victim impact statement, if prepared prior to entering into a plea agreement;

(5) provide notice of the ultimate disposition of the cases arising from an indictment or an information, or a petition to have a juvenile adjudicated as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(6) provide notice of any appeal taken by the defendant and information on how to contact the appropriate agency handling the appeal;

(7) provide notice of any request for post-conviction review filed by the defendant under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and of the date, time and place of any hearing concerning the petition. Whenever possible, notice of the hearing shall be given in advance;

(8) forward a copy of any statement presented under Section 6 to the Prisoner Review Board to be considered by the Board in making its determination under subsection (b) of Section 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(d)(1) The Prisoner Review Board shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen, upon written request, of the prisoner's release on parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a violent crime from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall provide to a victim or any other concerned citizen a recent photograph of any person convicted of a felony, upon his or her release from custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen when feasible at least 7 days prior to the prisoner's release on furlough of the times and dates of such furlough. Upon written request by the victim or any other concerned citizen, the State's Attorney shall notify the person once of the times and dates of release of a prisoner sentenced to periodic imprisonment. Notification shall be based on the most recent information as to victim's or other concerned citizen's residence or other location available to the notifying authority.

(2) When the defendant has been committed to the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 5-2-4 or any other provision of the Unified Code of Corrections, the victim may request to be notified by the releasing authority of the approval by the court of an on-grounds pass, a supervised off-grounds pass, an unsupervised off-grounds pass, or conditional release; the release on an off-grounds pass; the return from an off-grounds pass; transfer to another facility; conditional release; escape; death; or final discharge from State custody. The Department of Human Services shall establish and maintain a statewide telephone number to be used by victims to make notification requests under these provisions and shall publicize this telephone number on its website and to the State's Attorney of each county.

(3) In the event of an escape from State custody, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of the escape and the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim. The notification shall be based upon the most recent information as to the victim's residence or other location available to the Board. When no such information is available, the Board shall make all reasonable efforts to obtain the information and make the notification. When the escapee is apprehended, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board and the Board shall notify the victim.

(4) The victim of the crime for which the prisoner has been sentenced shall receive reasonable written notice not less than 30 days prior to the parole or aftercare release hearing and may submit, in writing, on film, videotape or other electronic means or in the form of a recording or in person at the parole or aftercare release hearing or if a victim of a violent crime, by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f) of this Section, information for consideration by the Prisoner Review Board. The victim shall be notified within 7 days after the prisoner has been granted parole or aftercare release and shall be informed of the right to inspect the registry of parole or aftercare release decisions, established under subsection (g) of Section 3-3-5 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The provisions of this paragraph (4) are subject to the Open Parole Hearings Act.

(5) If a statement is presented under Section 6, the Prisoner Review Board shall inform the victim of any order of discharge entered by the Board pursuant to Section 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(6) At the written request of the victim of the crime for which the prisoner was sentenced or the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole or aftercare release was prosecuted, the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim and the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole or aftercare release was prosecuted of the death of the prisoner if the prisoner died while on parole or aftercare release or mandatory supervised release.

(7) When a defendant who has been committed to the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, or the Department of Human Services is released or discharged and subsequently committed to the Department of Human Services as a sexually violent person and the victim had requested to be notified by the releasing authority of the defendant's discharge, conditional release, death, or escape from State custody, the releasing authority shall provide to the Department of Human Services such information that would allow the Department of Human Services to contact the victim.

(8) When a defendant has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act and has been sentenced to the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim of the sex offense of the prisoner's eligibility for release on parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a sex offense from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The notification shall be made to the victim at least 30 days, whenever possible, before release of the sex offender.

(e) The officials named in this Section may satisfy some or all of their obligations to provide notices and other information through participation in a statewide victim and witness notification system established by the Attorney General under Section 8.5 of this Act.

(f) To permit a victim of a violent crime to provide information to the Prisoner Review Board for consideration by the Board at a parole or aftercare release hearing of a person who committed the crime against the victim in accordance with clause (d)(4) of this Section or at a proceeding to determine the conditions of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence or at a hearing on revocation of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence, the Board shall establish a toll-free number that may be accessed by the victim of a violent crime to present that information to the Board.

(Source: P.A. 97-457, eff. 1-1-12; 97-572, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-815, eff. 1-1-13; 98-372, eff. 1-1-14; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 715. The Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(725 ILCS 207/30)

Sec. 30. Detention; probable cause hearing; transfer for examination.

(a) Upon the filing of a petition under Section 15 of this Act, the court shall review the petition to determine whether to issue an order for detention of the person who is the subject of the petition. The person shall be detained only if there is cause to believe that the person is eligible for commitment under subsection (f) of Section 35 of this Act. A person detained under this Section shall be held in a facility approved by the Department. The Department may elect to place persons who have been ordered by the court to be detained in a State-operated mental health facility or a portion of that facility. Persons placed in a State-operated mental health facility under this Act shall be separated and shall not comingle with the recipients of the mental health facility. The portion of a State-operated mental health facility that is used for the persons detained under this Act shall not be a part of the mental health facility for the enforcement and implementation of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code nor shall their care and treatment be subject to the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The changes added to this Section by Public Act 98-79 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are inoperative on and after June 30, 2015. If the person is serving a sentence of imprisonment, is in a Department of Corrections correctional facility or juvenile correctional facility or is committed to institutional care, and the court orders detention under this Section, the court shall order that the person be transferred to a detention facility approved by the Department. A detention order under this Section remains in effect until the person is discharged after a trial under Section 35 of this Act or until the effective date of a commitment order under Section 40 of this Act, whichever is applicable.

(b) Whenever a petition is filed under Section 15 of this Act, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether there is probable cause to believe that the person named in the petition is a sexually violent person. If the person named in the petition is in custody, the court shall hold the probable cause hearing within 72 hours after the petition is filed, excluding Saturdays, Sundays and legal holidays. The court may grant a continuance of the probable cause hearing for no more than 7 additional days upon the motion of the respondent, for good cause. If the person named in the petition has been released, is on parole, is on aftercare release, is on mandatory supervised release, or otherwise is not in custody, the court shall hold the probable cause hearing within a reasonable time after the filing of the petition. At the probable cause hearing, the court shall admit and consider all relevant hearsay evidence.

(c) If the court determines after a hearing that there is probable cause to believe that the person named in the petition is a sexually violent person, the court shall order that the person be taken into custody if he or she is not in custody and shall order the person to be transferred within a reasonable time to an appropriate facility for an evaluation as to whether the person is a sexually violent person. If the person who is named in the petition refuses to speak to, communicate with, or otherwise fails to cooperate with the examining evaluator from the Department of Human Services or the Department of Corrections, that person may only introduce evidence and testimony from any expert or professional person who is retained or court-appointed to conduct an examination of the person that results from a review of the records and may not introduce evidence resulting from an examination of the person. Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, all evaluations conducted pursuant to this Act and all Illinois Department of Corrections treatment records shall be admissible at all proceedings held pursuant to this Act, including the probable cause hearing and the trial.

If the court determines that probable cause does not exist to believe that the person is a sexually violent person, the court shall dismiss the petition.

(d) The Department shall promulgate rules that provide the qualifications for persons conducting evaluations under subsection (c) of this Section.

(e) If the person named in the petition claims or appears to be indigent, the court shall, prior to the probable cause hearing under subsection (b) of this Section, appoint counsel.

(Source: P.A. 98-79, eff. 7-15-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 720. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-2-2, 3-2.5-20, 3-3-2, 3-5-1, 5-5-3, 5-5-3.2, 5-5-5, and 5-8A-3 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-2-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-2-2)

Sec. 3-2-2. Powers and Duties of the Department.

(1) In addition to the powers, duties and responsibilities which are otherwise provided by law, the Department shall have the following powers:

(a) To accept persons committed to it by the courts of this State for care, custody, treatment and rehabilitation, and to accept federal prisoners and aliens over whom the Office of the Federal Detention Trustee is authorized to exercise the federal detention function for limited purposes and periods of time.

(b) To develop and maintain reception and evaluation units for purposes of analyzing the custody and rehabilitation needs of persons committed to it and to assign such persons to institutions and programs under its control or transfer them to other appropriate agencies. In consultation with the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse (now the Department of Human Services), the Department of Corrections shall develop a master plan for the screening and evaluation of persons committed to its custody who have alcohol or drug abuse problems, and for making appropriate treatment available to such persons; the Department shall report to the General Assembly on such plan not later than April 1, 1987. The maintenance and implementation of such plan shall be contingent upon the availability of funds.

(b-1) To create and implement, on January 1, 2002, a pilot program to establish the effectiveness of pupillometer technology (the measurement of the pupil's reaction to light) as an alternative to a urine test for purposes of screening and evaluating persons committed to its custody who have alcohol or drug problems. The pilot program shall require the pupillometer technology to be used in at least one Department of Corrections facility. The Director may expand the pilot program to include an additional facility or facilities as he or she deems appropriate. A minimum of 4,000 tests shall be included in the pilot program. The Department must report to the General Assembly on the effectiveness of the program by January 1, 2003.

(b-5) To develop, in consultation with the Department of State Police, a program for tracking and evaluating each inmate from commitment through release for recording his or her gang affiliations, activities, or ranks.

(c) To maintain and administer all State correctional institutions and facilities under its control and to establish new ones as needed. Pursuant to its power to establish new institutions and facilities, the Department may, with the written approval of the Governor, authorize the Department of Central Management Services to enter into an agreement of the type described in subsection (d) of Section 405-300 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-300). The Department shall designate those institutions which shall constitute the State Penitentiary System.

Pursuant to its power to establish new institutions and facilities, the Department may authorize the Department of Central Management Services to accept bids from counties and municipalities for the construction, remodeling or conversion of a structure to be leased to the Department of Corrections for the purposes of its serving as a correctional institution or facility. Such construction, remodeling or conversion may be financed with revenue bonds issued pursuant to the Industrial Building Revenue Bond Act by the municipality or county. The lease specified in a bid shall be for a term of not less than the time needed to retire any revenue bonds used to finance the project, but not to exceed 40 years. The lease may grant to the State the option to purchase the structure outright.

Upon receipt of the bids, the Department may certify one or more of the bids and shall submit any such bids to the General Assembly for approval. Upon approval of a bid by a constitutional majority of both houses of the General Assembly, pursuant to joint resolution, the Department of Central Management Services may enter into an agreement with the county or municipality pursuant to such bid.

(c-5) To build and maintain regional juvenile detention centers and to charge a per diem to the counties as established by the Department to defray the costs of housing each minor in a center. In this subsection (c-5), "juvenile detention center" means a facility to house minors during pendency of trial who have been transferred from proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 to prosecutions under the criminal laws of this State in accordance with Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether the transfer was by operation of law or permissive under that Section. The Department shall designate the counties to be served by each regional juvenile detention center.

(d) To develop and maintain programs of control, rehabilitation and employment of committed persons within its institutions.

(d-5) To provide a pre-release job preparation program for inmates at Illinois adult correctional centers.

(e) To establish a system of supervision and guidance of committed persons in the community.

(f) To establish in cooperation with the Department of Transportation to supply a sufficient number of prisoners for use by the Department of Transportation to clean up the trash and garbage along State, county, township, or municipal highways as designated by the Department of Transportation. The Department of Corrections, at the request of the Department of Transportation, shall furnish such prisoners at least annually for a period to be agreed upon between the Director of Corrections and the Director of Transportation. The prisoners used on this program shall be selected by the Director of Corrections on whatever basis he deems proper in consideration of their term, behavior and earned eligibility to participate in such program - where they will be outside of the prison facility but still in the custody of the Department of Corrections. Prisoners convicted of first degree murder, or a Class X felony, or armed violence, or aggravated kidnapping, or criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or a subsequent conviction for criminal sexual abuse, or forcible detention, or arson, or a prisoner adjudged a Habitual Criminal shall not be eligible for selection to participate in such program. The prisoners shall remain as prisoners in the custody of the Department of Corrections and such Department shall furnish whatever security is necessary. The Department of Transportation shall furnish trucks and equipment for the highway cleanup program and personnel to supervise and direct the program. Neither the Department of Corrections nor the Department of Transportation shall replace any regular employee with a prisoner.

(g) To maintain records of persons committed to it and to establish programs of research, statistics and planning.

(h) To investigate the grievances of any person committed to the Department, to inquire into any alleged misconduct by employees or committed persons, and to investigate the assets of committed persons to implement Section 3-7-6 of this Code; and for these purposes it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of writings and papers, and may examine under oath any witnesses who may appear before it; to also investigate alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole or release; and for this purpose it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents only if there is reason to believe that such procedures would provide evidence that such violations have occurred.

If any person fails to obey a subpoena issued under this subsection, the Director may apply to any circuit court to secure compliance with the subpoena. The failure to comply with the order of the court issued in response thereto shall be punishable as contempt of court.

(i) To appoint and remove the chief administrative officers, and administer programs of training and development of personnel of the Department. Personnel assigned by the Department to be responsible for the custody and control of committed persons or to investigate the alleged misconduct of committed persons or employees or alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole shall be conservators of the peace for those purposes, and shall have the full power of peace officers outside of the facilities of the Department in the protection, arrest, retaking and reconfining of committed persons or where the exercise of such power is necessary to the investigation of such misconduct or violations. This subsection shall not apply to persons committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 on aftercare release.

(j) To cooperate with other departments and agencies and with local communities for the development of standards and programs for better correctional services in this State.

(k) To administer all moneys and properties of the Department.

(l) To report annually to the Governor on the committed persons, institutions and programs of the Department.

(l-5) (Blank).

(m) To make all rules and regulations and exercise all powers and duties vested by law in the Department.

(n) To establish rules and regulations for administering a system of sentence credits, established in accordance with Section 3-6-3, subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board.

(o) To administer the distribution of funds from the State Treasury to reimburse counties where State penal institutions are located for the payment of assistant state's attorneys' salaries under Section 4-2001 of the Counties Code.

(p) To exchange information with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services for the purpose of verifying living arrangements and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Code and the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(q) To establish a diversion program.

The program shall provide a structured environment for selected technical parole or mandatory supervised release violators and committed persons who have violated the rules governing their conduct while in work release. This program shall not apply to those persons who have committed a new offense while serving on parole or mandatory supervised release or while committed to work release.

Elements of the program shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(1) The staff of a diversion facility shall provide supervision in accordance with required objectives set by the facility.

(2) Participants shall be required to maintain employment.

(3) Each participant shall pay for room and board at the facility on a sliding-scale basis according to the participant's income.

(4) Each participant shall:

(A) provide restitution to victims in accordance with any court order;

(B) provide financial support to his dependents; and

(C) make appropriate payments toward any other court-ordered obligations.

(5) Each participant shall complete community service in addition to employment.

(6) Participants shall take part in such counseling, educational and other programs as the Department may deem appropriate.

(7) Participants shall submit to drug and alcohol screening.

(8) The Department shall promulgate rules governing the administration of the program.

(r) To enter into intergovernmental cooperation agreements under which persons in the custody of the Department may participate in a county impact incarceration program established under Section 3-6038 or 3-15003.5 of the Counties Code.

(r-5) (Blank).

(r-10) To systematically and routinely identify with respect to each streetgang active within the correctional system: (1) each active gang; (2) every existing inter-gang affiliation or alliance; and (3) the current leaders in each gang. The Department shall promptly segregate leaders from inmates who belong to their gangs and allied gangs. "Segregate" means no physical contact and, to the extent possible under the conditions and space available at the correctional facility, prohibition of visual and sound communication. For the purposes of this paragraph (r-10), "leaders" means persons who:

(i) are members of a criminal streetgang;

(ii) with respect to other individuals within the streetgang, occupy a position of organizer, supervisor, or other position of management or leadership; and

(iii) are actively and personally engaged in directing, ordering, authorizing, or requesting commission of criminal acts by others, which are punishable as a felony, in furtherance of streetgang related activity both within and outside of the Department of Corrections.

"Streetgang", "gang", and "streetgang related" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(s) To operate a super-maximum security institution, in order to manage and supervise inmates who are disruptive or dangerous and provide for the safety and security of the staff and the other inmates.

(t) To monitor any unprivileged conversation or any unprivileged communication, whether in person or by mail, telephone, or other means, between an inmate who, before commitment to the Department, was a member of an organized gang and any other person without the need to show cause or satisfy any other requirement of law before beginning the monitoring, except as constitutionally required. The monitoring may be by video, voice, or other method of recording or by any other means. As used in this subdivision (1)(t), "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

As used in this subdivision (1)(t), "unprivileged conversation" or "unprivileged communication" means a conversation or communication that is not protected by any privilege recognized by law or by decision, rule, or order of the Illinois Supreme Court.

(u) To establish a Women's and Children's Pre-release Community Supervision Program for the purpose of providing housing and services to eligible female inmates, as determined by the Department, and their newborn and young children.

(u-5) To issue an order, whenever a person committed to the Department absconds or absents himself or herself, without authority to do so, from any facility or program to which he or she is assigned. The order shall be certified by the Director, the Supervisor of the Apprehension Unit, or any person duly designated by the Director, with the seal of the Department affixed. The order shall be directed to all sheriffs, coroners, and police officers, or to any particular person named in the order. Any order issued pursuant to this subdivision (1) (u-5) shall be sufficient warrant for the officer or person named in the order to arrest and deliver the committed person to the proper correctional officials and shall be executed the same as criminal process.

(v) To do all other acts necessary to carry out the provisions of this Chapter.

(2) The Department of Corrections shall by January 1, 1998, consider building and operating a correctional facility within 100 miles of a county of over 2,000,000 inhabitants, especially a facility designed to house juvenile participants in the impact incarceration program.

(3) When the Department lets bids for contracts for medical services to be provided to persons committed to Department facilities by a health maintenance organization, medical service corporation, or other health care provider, the bid may only be let to a health care provider that has obtained an irrevocable letter of credit or performance bond issued by a company whose bonds have an investment grade or higher rating by a bond rating organization.

(4) When the Department lets bids for contracts for food or commissary services to be provided to Department facilities, the bid may only be let to a food or commissary services provider that has obtained an irrevocable letter of credit or performance bond issued by a company whose bonds have an investment grade or higher rating by a bond rating organization.

(5) On and after the date 6 months after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-488) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, as provided in the Executive Order 1 (2012) Implementation Act, all of the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under this Code that were transferred from the Department of Corrections to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services by Executive Order 3 (2005) are transferred back to the Department of Corrections; however, powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under this Code that were exercised by the Department of Corrections before the effective date of Executive Order 3 (2005) but that pertain to individuals resident in facilities operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice are transferred to the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(Source: P.A. 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-800, eff. 7-13-12; 97-802, eff. 7-13-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-488, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-20)

Sec. 3-2.5-20. General powers and duties.

(a) In addition to the powers, duties, and responsibilities which are otherwise provided by law or transferred to the Department as a result of this Article, the Department, as determined by the Director, shall have, but are not limited to, the following rights, powers, functions and duties:

(1) To accept juveniles committed to it by the courts of this State for care, custody, treatment, and rehabilitation.

(2) To maintain and administer all State juvenile correctional institutions previously under the control of the Juvenile and Women's & Children Divisions of the Department of Corrections, and to establish and maintain institutions as needed to meet the needs of the youth committed to its care.

(3) To identify the need for and recommend the funding and implementation of an appropriate mix of programs and services within the juvenile justice continuum, including but not limited to prevention, nonresidential and residential commitment programs, day treatment, and conditional release programs and services, with the support of educational, vocational, alcohol, drug abuse, and mental health services where appropriate.

(3.5) To assist youth committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 with successful reintegration into society, the Department shall retain custody and control of all adjudicated delinquent juveniles released under Section 3-3-10 of this Code, shall provide a continuum of post-release treatment and services to those youth, and shall supervise those youth during their release period in accordance with the conditions set by the Prisoner Review Board.

(4) To establish and provide transitional and post-release treatment programs for juveniles committed to the Department. Services shall include but are not limited to:

(i) family and individual counseling and treatment placement;

(ii) referral services to any other State or local agencies;

(iii) mental health services;

(iv) educational services;

(v) family counseling services; and

(vi) substance abuse services.

(5) To access vital records of juveniles for the purposes of providing necessary documentation for transitional services such as obtaining identification, educational enrollment, employment, and housing.

(6) To develop staffing and workload standards and coordinate staff development and training appropriate for juvenile populations.

(7) To develop, with the approval of the Office of the Governor and the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, annual budget requests.

(8) To administer the Interstate Compact for Juveniles, with respect to all juveniles under its jurisdiction, and to cooperate with the Department of Human Services with regard to all non-offender juveniles subject to the Interstate Compact for Juveniles.

(b) The Department may employ personnel in accordance with the Personnel Code and Section 3-2.5-15 of this Code, provide facilities, contract for goods and services, and adopt rules as necessary to carry out its functions and purposes, all in accordance with applicable State and federal law.

(c) On and after the date 6 months after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-488) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, as provided in the Executive Order 1 (2012) Implementation Act, all of the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under this Code that were transferred from the Department of Corrections to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services by Executive Order 3 (2005) are transferred back to the Department of Corrections; however, powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under this Code that were exercised by the Department of Corrections before the effective date of Executive Order 3 (2005) but that pertain to individuals resident in facilities operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice are transferred to the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(Source: P.A. 98-488, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-2)

Sec. 3-3-2. Powers and Duties.

(a) The Parole and Pardon Board is abolished and the term "Parole and Pardon Board" as used in any law of Illinois, shall read "Prisoner Review Board." After the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, the Prisoner Review Board shall provide by rule for the orderly transition of all files, records, and documents of the Parole and Pardon Board and for such other steps as may be necessary to effect an orderly transition and shall:

(1) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, cases of prisoners who were sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, and who are eligible for parole;

(2) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the conditions of parole and the time of discharge from parole, impose sanctions for violations of parole, and revoke parole for those sentenced under the law in effect prior to this amendatory Act of 1977; provided that the decision to parole and the conditions of parole for all prisoners who were sentenced for first degree murder or who received a minimum sentence of 20 years or more under the law in effect prior to February 1, 1978 shall be determined by a majority vote of the Prisoner Review Board. One representative supporting parole and one representative opposing parole will be allowed to speak. Their comments shall be limited to making corrections and filling in omissions to the Board's presentation and discussion;

(3) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the conditions of mandatory supervised release and the time of discharge from mandatory supervised release, impose sanctions for violations of mandatory supervised release, and revoke mandatory supervised release for those sentenced under the law in effect after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977;

(3.5) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the conditions of mandatory supervised release and the time of discharge from mandatory supervised release, to impose sanctions for violations of mandatory supervised release and revoke mandatory supervised release for those serving extended supervised release terms pursuant to paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1;

(3.6) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the time of aftercare release, the conditions of aftercare release and the time of discharge from aftercare release, impose sanctions for violations of aftercare release, and revoke aftercare release for those adjudicated delinquent under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(4) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members, decide cases brought by the Department of Corrections against a prisoner in the custody of the Department for alleged violation of Department rules with respect to sentence credits under Section 3-6-3 of this Code in which the Department seeks to revoke sentence credits, if the amount of time at issue exceeds 30 days or when, during any 12 month period, the cumulative amount of credit revoked exceeds 30 days except where the infraction is committed or discovered within 60 days of scheduled release. In such cases, the Department of Corrections may revoke up to 30 days of sentence credit. The Board may subsequently approve the revocation of additional sentence credit, if the Department seeks to revoke sentence credit in excess of thirty days. However, the Board shall not be empowered to review the Department's decision with respect to the loss of 30 days of sentence credit for any prisoner or to increase any penalty beyond the length requested by the Department;

(5) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the release dates for certain prisoners sentenced under the law in existence prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, in accordance with Section 3-3-2.1 of this Code;

(6) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, all requests for pardon, reprieve or commutation, and make confidential recommendations to the Governor;

(7) comply with the requirements of the Open Parole Hearings Act;

(8) hear by at least one member and, through a panel of at least 3 members, decide cases brought by the Department of Corrections against a prisoner in the custody of the Department for court dismissal of a frivolous lawsuit pursuant to Section 3-6-3(d) of this Code in which the Department seeks to revoke up to 180 days of sentence credit, and if the prisoner has not accumulated 180 days of sentence credit at the time of the dismissal, then all sentence credit accumulated by the prisoner shall be revoked;

(9) hear by at least 3 members, and, through a panel of at least 3 members, decide whether to grant certificates of relief from disabilities or certificates of good conduct as provided in Article 5.5 of Chapter V;

(10) upon a petition by a person who has been convicted of a Class 3 or Class 4 felony and who meets the requirements of this paragraph, hear by at least 3 members and, with the unanimous vote of a panel of 3 members, issue a certificate of eligibility for sealing recommending that the court order the sealing of all official records of the arresting authority, the circuit court clerk, and the Department of State Police concerning the arrest and conviction for the Class 3 or 4 felony. A person may not apply to the Board for a certificate of eligibility for sealing:

(A) until 5 years have elapsed since the expiration of his or her sentence;

(B) until 5 years have elapsed since any arrests or detentions by a law enforcement officer for an alleged violation of law, other than a petty offense, traffic offense, conservation offense, or local ordinance offense;

(C) if convicted of a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Precursor Tracking Act unless the petitioner has completed a drug abuse program for the offense on which sealing is sought and provides proof that he or she has completed the program successfully;

(D) if convicted of:

(i) a sex offense described in Article 11 or Sections 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) aggravated assault;

(iii) aggravated battery;

(iv) domestic battery;

(v) aggravated domestic battery;

(vi) violation of an order of protection;

(vii) an offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 involving a firearm;

(viii) driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof;

(ix) aggravated driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof; or

(x) any crime defined as a crime of violence under Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

If a person has applied to the Board for a certificate of eligibility for sealing and the Board denies the certificate, the person must wait at least 4 years before filing again or filing for pardon from the Governor unless the Chairman of the Prisoner Review Board grants a waiver.

The decision to issue or refrain from issuing a certificate of eligibility for sealing shall be at the Board's sole discretion, and shall not give rise to any cause of action against either the Board or its members.

The Board may only authorize the sealing of Class 3 and 4 felony convictions of the petitioner from one information or indictment under this paragraph (10). A petitioner may only receive one certificate of eligibility for sealing under this provision for life; and

(11) upon a petition by a person who after having been convicted of a Class 3 or Class 4 felony thereafter served in the United States Armed Forces or National Guard of this or any other state and had received an honorable discharge from the United States Armed Forces or National Guard or who at the time of filing the petition is enlisted in the United States Armed Forces or National Guard of this or any other state and served one tour of duty and who meets the requirements of this paragraph, hear by at least 3 members and, with the unanimous vote of a panel of 3 members, issue a certificate of eligibility for expungement recommending that the court order the expungement of all official records of the arresting authority, the circuit court clerk, and the Department of State Police concerning the arrest and conviction for the Class 3 or 4 felony. A person may not apply to the Board for a certificate of eligibility for expungement:

(A) if convicted of:

(i) a sex offense described in Article 11 or Sections 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) an offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or Criminal Code of 2012 involving a firearm; or

(iii) a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act; or

(B) if the person has not served in the United States Armed Forces or National Guard of this or any other state or has not received an honorable discharge from the United States Armed Forces or National Guard of this or any other state or who at the time of the filing of the petition is serving in the United States Armed Forces or National Guard of this or any other state and has not completed one tour of duty.

If a person has applied to the Board for a certificate of eligibility for expungement and the Board denies the certificate, the person must wait at least 4 years before filing again or filing for a pardon with authorization for expungement from the Governor unless the Governor or Chairman of the Prisoner Review Board grants a waiver.

(a-5) The Prisoner Review Board, with the cooperation of and in coordination with the Department of Corrections and the Department of Central Management Services, shall implement a pilot project in 3 correctional institutions providing for the conduct of hearings under paragraphs (1) and (4) of subsection (a) of this Section through interactive video conferences. The project shall be implemented within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996. Within 6 months after the implementation of the pilot project, the Prisoner Review Board, with the cooperation of and in coordination with the Department of Corrections and the Department of Central Management Services, shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly regarding the use, costs, effectiveness, and future viability of interactive video conferences for Prisoner Review Board hearings.

(b) Upon recommendation of the Department the Board may restore sentence credit previously revoked.

(c) The Board shall cooperate with the Department in promoting an effective system of parole, aftercare release, and mandatory supervised release.

(d) The Board shall promulgate rules for the conduct of its work, and the Chairman shall file a copy of such rules and any amendments thereto with the Director and with the Secretary of State.

(e) The Board shall keep records of all of its official actions and shall make them accessible in accordance with law and the rules of the Board.

(f) The Board or one who has allegedly violated the conditions of his or her parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release may require by subpoena the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of documentary evidence relating to any matter under investigation or hearing. The Chairman of the Board may sign subpoenas which shall be served by any agent or public official authorized by the Chairman of the Board, or by any person lawfully authorized to serve a subpoena under the laws of the State of Illinois. The attendance of witnesses, and the production of documentary evidence, may be required from any place in the State to a hearing location in the State before the Chairman of the Board or his or her designated agent or agents or any duly constituted Committee or Subcommittee of the Board. Witnesses so summoned shall be paid the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the circuit courts of the State, and witnesses whose depositions are taken and the persons taking those depositions are each entitled to the same fees as are paid for like services in actions in the circuit courts of the State. Fees and mileage shall be vouchered for payment when the witness is discharged from further attendance.

In case of disobedience to a subpoena, the Board may petition any circuit court of the State for an order requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of documentary evidence or both. A copy of such petition shall be served by personal service or by registered or certified mail upon the person who has failed to obey the subpoena, and such person shall be advised in writing that a hearing upon the petition will be requested in a court room to be designated in such notice before the judge hearing motions or extraordinary remedies at a specified time, on a specified date, not less than 10 nor more than 15 days after the deposit of the copy of the written notice and petition in the U.S. mails addressed to the person at his last known address or after the personal service of the copy of the notice and petition upon such person. The court upon the filing of such a petition, may order the person refusing to obey the subpoena to appear at an investigation or hearing, or to there produce documentary evidence, if so ordered, or to give evidence relative to the subject matter of that investigation or hearing. Any failure to obey such order of the circuit court may be punished by that court as a contempt of court.

Each member of the Board and any hearing officer designated by the Board shall have the power to administer oaths and to take the testimony of persons under oath.

(g) Except under subsection (a) of this Section, a majority of the members then appointed to the Prisoner Review Board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of all business of the Board.

(h) The Prisoner Review Board shall annually transmit to the Director a detailed report of its work for the preceding calendar year. The annual report shall also be transmitted to the Governor for submission to the Legislature.

(Source: P.A. 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-1120, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-399, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 8-28-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-5-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-5-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-528)

Sec. 3-5-1. Master Record File.

(a) The Department of Corrections and the Department of Juvenile Justice shall maintain a master record file on each person committed to it, which shall contain the following information:

(1) all information from the committing court;

(2) reception summary;

(3) evaluation and assignment reports and recommendations;

(4) reports as to program assignment and progress;

(5) reports of disciplinary infractions and disposition, including tickets and Administrative Review Board action;

(6) any parole or aftercare release plan;

(7) any parole or aftercare release reports;

(8) the date and circumstances of final discharge;

(9) criminal history;

(10) current and past gang affiliations and ranks;

(11) information regarding associations and family relationships;

(12) any grievances filed and responses to those grievances; and

(13) other information that the respective Department determines is relevant to the secure confinement and rehabilitation of the committed person.

(b) All files shall be confidential and access shall be limited to authorized personnel of the respective Department. Personnel of other correctional, welfare or law enforcement agencies may have access to files under rules and regulations of the respective Department. The respective Department shall keep a record of all outside personnel who have access to files, the files reviewed, any file material copied, and the purpose of access. If the respective Department or the Prisoner Review Board makes a determination under this Code which affects the length of the period of confinement or commitment, the committed person and his counsel shall be advised of factual information relied upon by the respective Department or Board to make the determination, provided that the Department or Board shall not be required to advise a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice any such information which in the opinion of the Department of Juvenile Justice or Board would be detrimental to his treatment or rehabilitation.

(c) The master file shall be maintained at a place convenient to its use by personnel of the respective Department in charge of the person. When custody of a person is transferred from the Department to another department or agency, a summary of the file shall be forwarded to the receiving agency with such other information required by law or requested by the agency under rules and regulations of the respective Department.

(d) The master file of a person no longer in the custody of the respective Department shall be placed on inactive status and its use shall be restricted subject to rules and regulations of the Department.

(e) All public agencies may make available to the respective Department on request any factual data not otherwise privileged as a matter of law in their possession in respect to individuals committed to the respective Department.

(Source: P.A. 97-696, eff. 6-22-12; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-528)

Sec. 3-5-1. Master Record File.

(a) The Department of Corrections and the Department of Juvenile Justice shall maintain a master record file on each person committed to it, which shall contain the following information:

(1) all information from the committing court;

(1.5) ethnic and racial background data collected in accordance with Section 4.5 of the Criminal Identification Act;

(2) reception summary;

(3) evaluation and assignment reports and recommendations;

(4) reports as to program assignment and progress;

(5) reports of disciplinary infractions and disposition, including tickets and Administrative Review Board action;

(6) any parole or aftercare release plan;

(7) any parole or aftercare release reports;

(8) the date and circumstances of final discharge;

(9) criminal history;

(10) current and past gang affiliations and ranks;

(11) information regarding associations and family relationships;

(12) any grievances filed and responses to those grievances; and

(13) other information that the respective Department determines is relevant to the secure confinement and rehabilitation of the committed person.

(b) All files shall be confidential and access shall be limited to authorized personnel of the respective Department. Personnel of other correctional, welfare or law enforcement agencies may have access to files under rules and regulations of the respective Department. The respective Department shall keep a record of all outside personnel who have access to files, the files reviewed, any file material copied, and the purpose of access. If the respective Department or the Prisoner Review Board makes a determination under this Code which affects the length of the period of confinement or commitment, the committed person and his counsel shall be advised of factual information relied upon by the respective Department or Board to make the determination, provided that the Department or Board shall not be required to advise a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice any such information which in the opinion of the Department of Juvenile Justice or Board would be detrimental to his treatment or rehabilitation.

(c) The master file shall be maintained at a place convenient to its use by personnel of the respective Department in charge of the person. When custody of a person is transferred from the Department to another department or agency, a summary of the file shall be forwarded to the receiving agency with such other information required by law or requested by the agency under rules and regulations of the respective Department.

(d) The master file of a person no longer in the custody of the respective Department shall be placed on inactive status and its use shall be restricted subject to rules and regulations of the Department.

(e) All public agencies may make available to the respective Department on request any factual data not otherwise privileged as a matter of law in their possession in respect to individuals committed to the respective Department.

(Source: P.A. 97-696, eff. 6-22-12; 98-528, eff. 1-1-15; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3)

Sec. 5-5-3. Disposition.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (1) (Blank).

(2) A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the following offenses. The court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment set forth in this Code for the following offenses, and may order a fine or restitution or both in conjunction with such term of imprisonment:

(A) First degree murder where the death penalty is not imposed.

(B) Attempted first degree murder.

(C) A Class X felony.

(D) A violation of Section 401.1 or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of subdivision (c)(1.5) or (c)(2) of Section 401 of that Act which relates to more than 5 grams of a substance containing cocaine, fentanyl, or an analog thereof.

(D-5) A violation of subdivision (c)(1) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act which relates to 3 or more grams of a substance containing heroin or an analog thereof.

(E) A violation of Section 5.1 or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(F) A Class 2 or greater felony if the offender had been convicted of a Class 2 or greater felony, including any state or federal conviction for an offense that contained, at the time it was committed, the same elements as an offense now (the date of the offense committed after the prior Class 2 or greater felony) classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(F-5) A violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.1, or 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 for which imprisonment is prescribed in those Sections.

(G) Residential burglary, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(H) Criminal sexual assault.

(I) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(J) A forcible felony if the offense was related to the activities of an organized gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" means an association of 5 or more persons, with an established hierarchy, that encourages members of the association to perpetrate crimes or provides support to the members of the association who do commit crimes.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(K) Vehicular hijacking.

(L) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of hate crime when the underlying offense upon which the hate crime is based is felony aggravated assault or felony mob action.

(M) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of institutional vandalism if the damage to the property exceeds $300.

(N) A Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(O) A violation of Section 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(P) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Q) A violation of subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 20-1, Section 20-1.2, or Section 20-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(R) A violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(S) (Blank).

(T) A second or subsequent violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(U) A second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(V) A violation of paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.1B or paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or paragraph (6) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim is under 13 years of age and the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses.

(W) A violation of Section 24-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(X) A violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-1a of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Y) A conviction for unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained firearm ammunition.

(Z) A Class 1 felony committed while he or she was serving a term of probation or conditional discharge for a felony.

(AA) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not exceeding $1,000,000 in value.

(BB) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $500,000.

(CC) Knowingly selling, offering for sale, holding for sale, or using 2,000 or more counterfeit items or counterfeit items having a retail value in the aggregate of $500,000 or more.

(DD) A conviction for aggravated assault under paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of Section 12-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the firearm is aimed toward the person against whom the firearm is being used.

(3) (Blank).

(4) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service shall be imposed for a violation of paragraph (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.1) (Blank).

(4.2) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.3) and (4.8) of this subsection (c), a minimum of 100 hours of community service shall be imposed for a second violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.3) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.4) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.5), (4.6), and (4.9) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.5) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.6) Except as provided in paragraph (4.10) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days shall be imposed for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.7) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 30 consecutive days, or 300 hours of community service, shall be imposed for a violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (b-5) of that Section.

(4.8) A mandatory prison sentence shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (c-5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for a period of not less than 5 years from the date of his or her release from prison.

(4.9) A mandatory prison sentence of not less than 4 and not more than 15 years shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-2.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(4.10) A mandatory prison sentence for a Class 1 felony shall be imposed, and the person shall be eligible for an extended term sentence, for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-3.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(5) The court may sentence a corporation or unincorporated association convicted of any offense to:

(A) a period of conditional discharge;

(B) a fine;

(C) make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(5.1) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.2) or (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 90 days but not more than one year, if the violation resulted in damage to the property of another person.

(5.2) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 180 days but not more than 2 years, if the violation resulted in injury to another person.

(5.3) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 2 years, if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(5.4) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 3 months and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(5.5) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code during a period in which his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges were suspended for a previous violation of that Section shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for an additional 6 months after the expiration of the original 3-month suspension and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(6) (Blank).

(7) (Blank).

(8) (Blank).

(9) A defendant convicted of a second or subsequent offense of ritualized abuse of a child may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(10) (Blank).

(11) The court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000 for a first offense and $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense upon a person convicted of or placed on supervision for battery when the individual harmed was a sports official or coach at any level of competition and the act causing harm to the sports official or coach occurred within an athletic facility or within the immediate vicinity of the athletic facility at which the sports official or coach was an active participant of the athletic contest held at the athletic facility. For the purposes of this paragraph (11), "sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee; "athletic facility" means an indoor or outdoor playing field or recreational area where sports activities are conducted; and "coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducted the sporting event.

(12) A person may not receive a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act if that person has previously received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of that Section.

(13) A person convicted of or placed on court supervision for an assault or aggravated assault when the victim and the offender are family or household members as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or convicted of domestic battery or aggravated domestic battery may be required to attend a Partner Abuse Intervention Program under protocols set forth by the Illinois Department of Human Services under such terms and conditions imposed by the court. The costs of such classes shall be paid by the offender.

(d) In any case in which a sentence originally imposed is vacated, the case shall be remanded to the trial court. The trial court shall hold a hearing under Section 5-4-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections which may include evidence of the defendant's life, moral character and occupation during the time since the original sentence was passed. The trial court shall then impose sentence upon the defendant. The trial court may impose any sentence which could have been imposed at the original trial subject to Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections. If a sentence is vacated on appeal or on collateral attack due to the failure of the trier of fact at trial to determine beyond a reasonable doubt the existence of a fact (other than a prior conviction) necessary to increase the punishment for the offense beyond the statutory maximum otherwise applicable, either the defendant may be re-sentenced to a term within the range otherwise provided or, if the State files notice of its intention to again seek the extended sentence, the defendant shall be afforded a new trial.

(e) In cases where prosecution for aggravated criminal sexual abuse under Section 11-1.60 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 results in conviction of a defendant who was a family member of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, the court shall consider the safety and welfare of the victim and may impose a sentence of probation only where:

(1) the court finds (A) or (B) or both are appropriate:

(A) the defendant is willing to undergo a court approved counseling program for a minimum duration of 2 years; or

(B) the defendant is willing to participate in a court approved plan including but not limited to the defendant's:

(i) removal from the household;

(ii) restricted contact with the victim;

(iii) continued financial support of the family;

(iv) restitution for harm done to the victim; and

(v) compliance with any other measures that the court may deem appropriate; and

(2) the court orders the defendant to pay for the victim's counseling services, to the extent that the court finds, after considering the defendant's income and assets, that the defendant is financially capable of paying for such services, if the victim was under 18 years of age at the time the offense was committed and requires counseling as a result of the offense.

Probation may be revoked or modified pursuant to Section 5-6-4; except where the court determines at the hearing that the defendant violated a condition of his or her probation restricting contact with the victim or other family members or commits another offense with the victim or other family members, the court shall revoke the defendant's probation and impose a term of imprisonment.

For the purposes of this Section, "family member" and "victim" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease, including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any such medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the defendant's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of the test results. The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or legal guardian of the test results. The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(g-5) When an inmate is tested for an airborne communicable disease, as determined by the Illinois Department of Public Health including but not limited to tuberculosis, the results of the test shall be personally delivered by the warden or his or her designee in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the inmate must appear for the judge's inspection in camera if requested by the judge. Acting in accordance with the best interests of those in the courtroom, the judge shall have the discretion to determine what if any precautions need to be taken to prevent transmission of the disease in the courtroom.

(h) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Section 1 or 2 of the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of a positive test showing an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(i) All fines and penalties imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(j) In cases when prosecution for any violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-8, 11-9, 11-11, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-30, 11-40, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act results in conviction, a disposition of court supervision, or an order of probation granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Substance Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act of a defendant, the court shall determine whether the defendant is employed by a facility or center as defined under the Child Care Act of 1969, a public or private elementary or secondary school, or otherwise works with children under 18 years of age on a daily basis. When a defendant is so employed, the court shall order the Clerk of the Court to send a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the defendant's employer by certified mail. If the employer of the defendant is a school, the Clerk of the Court shall direct the mailing of a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the appropriate regional superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of schools shall notify the State Board of Education of any notification under this subsection.

(j-5) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a felony and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony and who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in the Illinois Department of Corrections shall as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program offered by the Department of Corrections. If a defendant fails to complete the educational training required by his or her sentence during the term of incarceration, the Prisoner Review Board shall, as a condition of mandatory supervised release, require the defendant, at his or her own expense, to pursue a course of study toward a high school diploma or passage of the GED test. The Prisoner Review Board shall revoke the mandatory supervised release of a defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (j-5) upon his or her release from confinement in a penal institution while serving a mandatory supervised release term; however, the inability of the defendant after making a good faith effort to obtain financial aid or pay for the educational training shall not be deemed a wilful failure to comply. The Prisoner Review Board shall recommit the defendant whose mandatory supervised release term has been revoked under this subsection (j-5) as provided in Section 3-3-9. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(k) (Blank).

(l) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of subsection (l), whenever a defendant, who is an alien as defined by the Immigration and Nationality Act, is convicted of any felony or misdemeanor offense, the court after sentencing the defendant may, upon motion of the State's Attorney, hold sentence in abeyance and remand the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent to be deported when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

Otherwise, the defendant shall be sentenced as provided in this Chapter V.

(B) If the defendant has already been sentenced for a felony or misdemeanor offense, or has been placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the court may, upon motion of the State's Attorney to suspend the sentence imposed, commit the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

(C) This subsection (l) does not apply to offenders who are subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3.

(D) Upon motion of the State's Attorney, if a defendant sentenced under this Section returns to the jurisdiction of the United States, the defendant shall be recommitted to the custody of the county from which he or she was sentenced. Thereafter, the defendant shall be brought before the sentencing court, which may impose any sentence that was available under Section 5-5-3 at the time of initial sentencing. In addition, the defendant shall not be eligible for additional sentence credit for good conduct as provided under Section 3-6-3.

(m) A person convicted of criminal defacement of property under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which the property damage exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building, shall be ordered to perform community service that may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement.

(n) The court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (i) to an impact incarceration program if the person is otherwise eligible for that program under Section 5-8-1.1, (ii) to community service, or (iii) if the person is an addict or alcoholic, as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, to a substance or alcohol abuse program licensed under that Act.

(o) Whenever a person is convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the defendant's driver's license or permit shall be subject to renewal on an annual basis in accordance with the provisions of license renewal established by the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 96-348, eff. 8-12-09; 96-400, eff. 8-13-09; 96-829, eff. 12-3-09; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 970, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-159, eff. 7-21-11; 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-917, eff. 8-9-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 11-12-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2)

Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in Aggravation and Extended-Term Sentencing.

(a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:

(1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened serious harm;

(2) the defendant received compensation for committing the offense;

(3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or criminal activity;

(4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense committed or to bring the offenders committing it to justice;

(5) the defendant held public office at the time of the offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that office;

(6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation or position in the community to commit the offense, or to afford him an easier means of committing it;

(7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from committing the same crime;

(8) the defendant committed the offense against a person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;

(9) the defendant committed the offense against a person who is physically handicapped or such person's property;

(10) by reason of another individual's actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin, the defendant committed the offense against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii) the person or property of a person who has an association with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i) or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual orientation" means heterosexuality, homosexuality, or bisexuality;

(11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to, during or immediately following worship services. For purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or place used primarily for religious worship;

(12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was released on bail or his own recognizance pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was serving a period of probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;

(13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;

(14) the defendant held a position of trust or supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the defendant committed an offense in violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-11, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against that victim;

(15) the defendant committed an offense related to the activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on the real property of a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and has now committed either a felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;

(20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or the offense of driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(22) the defendant committed the offense against a person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component thereof or National Guard unit called to active duty;

(23) the defendant committed the offense against a person who was elderly, disabled, or infirm by taking advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the elderly, disabled, or infirm person;

(24) the defendant committed any offense under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and possessed 100 or more images;

(25) the defendant committed the offense while the defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other vehicle used for public transportation;

(26) the defendant committed the offense of child pornography or aggravated child pornography, specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context and specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1B or Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context;

(27) the defendant committed the offense of first degree murder, assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person who was a veteran and the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, that the person was a veteran performing duties as a representative of a veterans' organization. For the purposes of this paragraph (27), "veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the United States Reserve Forces; and "veterans' organization" means an organization comprised of members of which substantially all are individuals who are veterans or spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, the primary purpose of which is to promote the welfare of its members and to provide assistance to the general public in such a way as to confer a public benefit; or

(28) the defendant committed the offense of assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person that the defendant knew or reasonably should have known was a letter carrier or postal worker while that person was performing his or her duties delivering mail for the United States Postal Service.

For the purposes of this Section:

"School" is defined as a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"Day care center" means a public or private State certified and licensed day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view stating that the property is a day care center.

"Public transportation" means the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, and includes paratransit services.

(b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts; or

(2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the court finds that the offense was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony committed against:

(i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of the offense or such person's property;

(ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(iii) a person physically handicapped at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the offense involved any of the following types of specific misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social group:

(i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or animals;

(ii) the theft of human corpses;

(iii) the kidnapping of humans;

(iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious, fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or other building or property; or

(v) ritualized abuse of a child; or

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financier, or any other position of management or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or

(6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense committed while using a firearm with a laser sight attached to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser sight" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 26-7 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous adjudication, excluding time spent in custody; or

(8) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement officer engaged in the execution of his or her official duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang in which the defendant is engaged; or

(9) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant knowingly video or audio records the offense with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(c) The following factors may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) upon any offender for the listed offenses:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3), when that conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and the charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts.

(1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) or aggravated domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.3) committed on the same victim or after having been previously convicted of violation of an order of protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) in which the same victim was the protected person.

(2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant has been convicted of causing the death of more than one individual.

(3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of the participation of the others in the crime, and the commission of the crime was part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective.

(4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under subsection (a)(1) of Section 11-1.40 or subsection (a)(1) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/11-1.40 or 5/12-14.1).

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) and there is a finding that the defendant is a member of an organized gang.

(6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful use of weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) for possessing a weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1).

(7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/25), or the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency response officer in the performance of his or her duties is killed or injured at the scene of the offense while responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the offense. In this paragraph, "emergency" means a situation in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy; and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical technician-ambulance, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency room personnel.

(8) When the defendant is convicted of attempted mob action, solicitation to commit mob action, or conspiracy to commit mob action under Section 8-1, 8-2, or 8-4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, where the criminal object is a violation of Section 25-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, and an electronic communication is used in the commission of the offense. For the purposes of this paragraph (8), "electronic communication" shall have the meaning provided in Section 26.5-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(e) The court may impose an extended term sentence under Article 4.5 of Chapter V upon an offender who has been convicted of a felony violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim of the offense is under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and, during the commission of the offense, the victim was under the influence of alcohol, regardless of whether or not the alcohol was supplied by the offender; and the offender, at the time of the commission of the offense, knew or should have known that the victim had consumed alcohol.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11, 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-693, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-14, eff. 1-1-14; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-385, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-5)

Sec. 5-5-5. Loss and Restoration of Rights.

(a) Conviction and disposition shall not entail the loss by the defendant of any civil rights, except under this Section and Sections 29-6 and 29-10 of The Election Code, as now or hereafter amended.

(b) A person convicted of a felony shall be ineligible to hold an office created by the Constitution of this State until the completion of his sentence.

(c) A person sentenced to imprisonment shall lose his right to vote until released from imprisonment.

(d) On completion of sentence of imprisonment or upon discharge from probation, conditional discharge or periodic imprisonment, or at any time thereafter, all license rights and privileges granted under the authority of this State which have been revoked or suspended because of conviction of an offense shall be restored unless the authority having jurisdiction of such license rights finds after investigation and hearing that restoration is not in the public interest. This paragraph (d) shall not apply to the suspension or revocation of a license to operate a motor vehicle under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(e) Upon a person's discharge from incarceration or parole, or upon a person's discharge from probation or at any time thereafter, the committing court may enter an order certifying that the sentence has been satisfactorily completed when the court believes it would assist in the rehabilitation of the person and be consistent with the public welfare. Such order may be entered upon the motion of the defendant or the State or upon the court's own motion.

(f) Upon entry of the order, the court shall issue to the person in whose favor the order has been entered a certificate stating that his behavior after conviction has warranted the issuance of the order.

(g) This Section shall not affect the right of a defendant to collaterally attack his conviction or to rely on it in bar of subsequent proceedings for the same offense.

(h) No application for any license specified in subsection (i) of this Section granted under the authority of this State shall be denied by reason of an eligible offender who has obtained a certificate of relief from disabilities, as defined in Article 5.5 of this Chapter, having been previously convicted of one or more criminal offenses, or by reason of a finding of lack of "good moral character" when the finding is based upon the fact that the applicant has previously been convicted of one or more criminal offenses, unless:

(1) there is a direct relationship between one or more of the previous criminal offenses and the specific license sought; or

(2) the issuance of the license would involve an unreasonable risk to property or to the safety or welfare of specific individuals or the general public.

In making such a determination, the licensing agency shall consider the following factors:

(1) the public policy of this State, as expressed in Article 5.5 of this Chapter, to encourage the licensure and employment of persons previously convicted of one or more criminal offenses;

(2) the specific duties and responsibilities necessarily related to the license being sought;

(3) the bearing, if any, the criminal offenses or offenses for which the person was previously convicted will have on his or her fitness or ability to perform one or more such duties and responsibilities;

(4) the time which has elapsed since the occurrence of the criminal offense or offenses;

(5) the age of the person at the time of occurrence of the criminal offense or offenses;

(6) the seriousness of the offense or offenses;

(7) any information produced by the person or produced on his or her behalf in regard to his or her rehabilitation and good conduct, including a certificate of relief from disabilities issued to the applicant, which certificate shall create a presumption of rehabilitation in regard to the offense or offenses specified in the certificate; and

(8) the legitimate interest of the licensing agency in protecting property, and the safety and welfare of specific individuals or the general public.

(i) A certificate of relief from disabilities shall be issued only for a license or certification issued under the following Acts:

(1) the Animal Welfare Act; except that a certificate of relief from disabilities may not be granted to provide for the issuance or restoration of a license under the Animal Welfare Act for any person convicted of violating Section 3, 3.01, 3.02, 3.03, 3.03-1, or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) the Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act;

(3) the Barber, Cosmetology, Esthetics, Hair Braiding, and Nail Technology Act of 1985;

(4) the Boiler and Pressure Vessel Repairer Regulation Act;

(5) the Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act;

(6) the Illinois Certified Shorthand Reporters Act of 1984;

(7) the Illinois Farm Labor Contractor Certification Act;

(8) the Interior Design Title Act;

(9) the Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989;

(10) the Illinois Landscape Architecture Act of 1989;

(11) the Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act;

(12) the Private Employment Agency Act;

(13) the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act;

(14) the Real Estate License Act of 2000;

(15) the Illinois Roofing Industry Licensing Act;

(16) the Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989;

(17) the Water Well and Pump Installation Contractor's License Act;

(18) the Electrologist Licensing Act;

(19) the Auction License Act;

(20) the Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989;

(21) the Dietitian Nutritionist Practice Act;

(22) the Environmental Health Practitioner Licensing Act;

(23) the Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code;

(24) the Land Sales Registration Act of 1999;

(25) the Professional Geologist Licensing Act;

(26) the Illinois Public Accounting Act; and

(27) the Structural Engineering Practice Act of 1989.

(Source: P.A. 96-1246, eff. 1-1-11; 97-119, eff. 7-14-11; 97-706, eff. 6-25-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1141, eff. 12-28-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 2-22-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8A-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8A-3)

Sec. 5-8A-3. Application.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (d), a person charged with or convicted of an excluded offense may not be placed in an electronic home detention program, except for bond pending trial or appeal or while on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release.

(b) A person serving a sentence for a conviction of a Class 1 felony, other than an excluded offense, may be placed in an electronic home detention program for a period not to exceed the last 90 days of incarceration.

(c) A person serving a sentence for a conviction of a Class X felony, other than an excluded offense, may be placed in an electronic home detention program for a period not to exceed the last 90 days of incarceration, provided that the person was sentenced on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1993 and provided that the court has not prohibited the program for the person in the sentencing order.

(d) A person serving a sentence for conviction of an offense other than for predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or felony criminal sexual abuse, may be placed in an electronic home detention program for a period not to exceed the last 12 months of incarceration, provided that (i) the person is 55 years of age or older; (ii) the person is serving a determinate sentence; (iii) the person has served at least 25% of the sentenced prison term; and (iv) placement in an electronic home detention program is approved by the Prisoner Review Board.

(e) A person serving a sentence for conviction of a Class 2, 3 or 4 felony offense which is not an excluded offense may be placed in an electronic home detention program pursuant to Department administrative directives.

(f) Applications for electronic home detention may include the following:

(1) pretrial or pre-adjudicatory detention;

(2) probation;

(3) conditional discharge;

(4) periodic imprisonment;

(5) parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release;

(6) work release;

(7) furlough; or

(8) post-trial incarceration.

(g) A person convicted of an offense described in clause (4) or (5) of subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code shall be placed in an electronic home detention program for at least the first 2 years of the person's mandatory supervised release term.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 725. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Sections 8-2001, 8-2005, 11-106, and 13-110 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/8-2001) (from Ch. 110, par. 8-2001)

Sec. 8-2001. Examination of health care records.

(a) In this Section:

"Health care facility" or "facility" means a public or private hospital, ambulatory surgical treatment center, nursing home, independent practice association, or physician hospital organization, or any other entity where health care services are provided to any person. The term does not include a health care practitioner.

"Health care practitioner" means any health care practitioner, including a physician, dentist, podiatric physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, clinical psychologist, or clinical social worker. The term includes a medical office, health care clinic, health department, group practice, and any other organizational structure for a licensed professional to provide health care services. The term does not include a health care facility.

(b) Every private and public health care facility shall, upon the request of any patient who has been treated in such health care facility, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative, or as authorized by Section 8-2001.5, permit the patient, his or her health care practitioner, authorized attorney, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative to examine the health care facility patient care records, including but not limited to the history, bedside notes, charts, pictures and plates, kept in connection with the treatment of such patient, and permit copies of such records to be made by him or her or his or her health care practitioner or authorized attorney.

(c) Every health care practitioner shall, upon the request of any patient who has been treated by the health care practitioner, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative, permit the patient and the patient's health care practitioner or authorized attorney, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative, to examine and copy the patient's records, including but not limited to those relating to the diagnosis, treatment, prognosis, history, charts, pictures and plates, kept in connection with the treatment of such patient.

(d) A request for copies of the records shall be in writing and shall be delivered to the administrator or manager of such health care facility or to the health care practitioner. The person (including patients, health care practitioners and attorneys) requesting copies of records shall reimburse the facility or the health care practitioner at the time of such copying for all reasonable expenses, including the costs of independent copy service companies, incurred in connection with such copying not to exceed a $20 handling charge for processing the request and the actual postage or shipping charge, if any, plus: (1) for paper copies 75 cents per page for the first through 25th pages, 50 cents per page for the 26th through 50th pages, and 25 cents per page for all pages in excess of 50 (except that the charge shall not exceed $1.25 per page for any copies made from microfiche or microfilm; records retrieved from scanning, digital imaging, electronic information or other digital format do not qualify as microfiche or microfilm retrieval for purposes of calculating charges); and (2) for electronic records, retrieved from a scanning, digital imaging, electronic information or other digital format in an a electronic document, a charge of 50% of the per page charge for paper copies under subdivision (d)(1). This per page charge includes the cost of each CD Rom, DVD, or other storage media. Records already maintained in an electronic or digital format shall be provided in an electronic format when so requested. If the records system does not allow for the creation or transmission of an electronic or digital record, then the facility or practitioner shall inform the requester in writing of the reason the records can not be provided electronically. The written explanation may be included with the production of paper copies, if the requester chooses to order paper copies. These rates shall be automatically adjusted as set forth in Section 8-2006. The facility or health care practitioner may, however, charge for the reasonable cost of all duplication of record material or information that cannot routinely be copied or duplicated on a standard commercial photocopy machine such as x-ray films or pictures.

(d-5) The handling fee shall not be collected from the patient or the patient's personal representative who obtains copies of records under Section 8-2001.5.

(e) The requirements of this Section shall be satisfied within 30 days of the receipt of a written request by a patient or by his or her legally authorized representative, health care practitioner, authorized attorney, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative. If the facility or health care practitioner needs more time to comply with the request, then within 30 days after receiving the request, the facility or health care practitioner must provide the requesting party with a written statement of the reasons for the delay and the date by which the requested information will be provided. In any event, the facility or health care practitioner must provide the requested information no later than 60 days after receiving the request.

(f) A health care facility or health care practitioner must provide the public with at least 30 days prior notice of the closure of the facility or the health care practitioner's practice. The notice must include an explanation of how copies of the facility's records may be accessed by patients. The notice may be given by publication in a newspaper of general circulation in the area in which the health care facility or health care practitioner is located.

(g) Failure to comply with the time limit requirement of this Section shall subject the denying party to expenses and reasonable attorneys' fees incurred in connection with any court ordered enforcement of the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-623, eff. 11-23-11; 97-867, eff. 7-30-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 11-22-13.)

(735 ILCS 5/8-2005)

Sec. 8-2005. Attorney's records. This Section applies only if a client and his or her authorized attorney have complied with all applicable legal requirements regarding examination and copying of client files, including but not limited to satisfaction of expenses and attorney retaining liens.

Upon the request of a client, an attorney shall permit the client's authorized attorney to examine and copy the records kept by the attorney in connection with the representation of the client, with the exception of attorney work product. The request for examination and copying of the records shall be in writing and shall be delivered to the attorney. Within a reasonable time after the attorney receives the written request, the attorney shall comply with the written request at his or her office or any other place designated by him or her. At the time of copying, the person requesting the records shall reimburse the attorney for all reasonable expenses, including the costs of independent copy service companies, incurred by the attorney in connection with the copying not to exceed a $20 handling charge for processing the request, and the actual postage or shipping charges, if any, plus (1) for paper copies 75 cents per page for the first through 25th pages, 50 cents per page for the 26th through 50th pages, and 25 cents per page for all pages in excess of 50 (except that the charge shall not exceed $1.25 per page for any copies made from microfiche or microfilm; records retrieved from scanning, digital imaging, electronic information or other digital format do not qualify as microfiche or microfilm retrieval for purposes of calculating charges); and (2) for electronic records, retrieved from a scanning, digital imaging, electronic information or other digital format in an a electronic document, a charge of 50% of the per page charge for paper copies under subdivision (d)(1). This per page charge includes the cost of each CD Rom, DVD, or other storage media. Records already maintained in an electronic or digital format shall be provided in an electronic format when so requested. If the records system does not allow for the creation or transmission of an electronic or digital record, then the attorney shall inform the requester in writing of the reason the records cannot be provided electronically. The written explanation may be included with the production of paper copies, if the requester chooses to order paper copies. These rates shall be automatically adjusted as set forth in Section 8-2006. The attorney may, however, charge for the reasonable cost of all duplication of record material or information that cannot routinely be copied or duplicated on a standard commercial photocopy machine such as pictures.

An attorney shall satisfy the requirements of this Section within 60 days after he or she receives a request from a client or his or her authorized attorney. An attorney who fails to comply with the time limit requirement of this Section shall be required to pay expenses and reasonable attorney's fees incurred in connection with any court-ordered enforcement of the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-478, eff. 1-1-08 (changed from 8-27-07 by P.A. 95-480); 95-480, eff. 1-1-08; revised 11-22-13.)

(735 ILCS 5/11-106) (from Ch. 110, par. 11-106)

Sec. 11-106. Injunctive relief on Saturday, Sunday or legal holiday. When an application is made on a Saturday, Sunday, legal holiday or on a day when courts are not in session for injunctive relief and there is filed with the complaint an affidavit of the plaintiff, or his, her or their agent or attorney, stating that the benefits of injunctive relief will be lost or endangered, or irremediable damage occasioned unless such injunctive relief is immediately granted, and stating the bases for such alleged consequence,, and if it appears to the court from such affidavit that the benefits of injunctive relief will be lost or endangered, or irremediable damage occasioned unless such injunctive relief is immediately granted, and if the plaintiff otherwise is entitled to such relief under the law, the court may grant injunctive relief on a Saturday, Sunday, legal holiday, or on a day when courts are not in session; and it shall be lawful for the clerk to certify, and for the sheriff or coroner to serve such order for injunctive relief on a Saturday, Sunday, legal holiday or on a day when courts are not in session as on any other day, and all affidavits and bonds made and proceedings had in such case shall have the same force and effect as if made or had on any other day.

(Source: P.A. 82-280; revised 11-22-13.)

(735 ILCS 5/13-110) (from Ch. 110, par. 13-110)

Sec. 13-110. Vacant land - Payment of taxes with color of title. Whenever a person having color of title, made in good faith, to vacant and unoccupied land, pays all taxes legally assessed thereon for 7 successive years, he or she shall be deemed and adjudged to be the legal owner of such vacant and unoccupied land, to the extent and according to the purport of his or her paper title. All persons holding under such taxpayer, by purchase, legacy or descent, before such 7 years expired, and who continue to pay the taxes, as above set out, so as to complete the payment of taxes for the such term, are entitled to the benefit of this Section. However, if any person, having a better paper title to such vacant and unoccupied land, during the term of 7 years, pays the taxes assessed on such land for any one or more years of the term of 7 years, then such taxpayer, his or her heirs, legatees or assigns, shall not be entitled to the benefit of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 83-707; revised 11-22-13.)

Section 730. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by changing Sections 15-5-15, 15-5-35, and 15-5-47 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 25-5-45 as follows:

(735 ILCS 30/15-5-15)

Sec. 15-5-15. Eminent domain powers in ILCS Chapters 70 through 75. The following provisions of law may include express grants of the power to acquire property by condemnation or eminent domain:

(70 ILCS 5/8.02 and 5/9); Airport Authorities Act; airport authorities; for public airport facilities.

(70 ILCS 5/8.05 and 5/9); Airport Authorities Act; airport authorities; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 5/8.06 and 5/9); Airport Authorities Act; airport authorities; for reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 10/4); Interstate Airport Authorities Act; interstate airport authorities; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 15/3); Kankakee River Valley Area Airport Authority Act; Kankakee River Valley Area Airport Authority; for acquisition of land for airports.

(70 ILCS 200/2-20); Civic Center Code; civic center authorities; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/5-35); Civic Center Code; Aledo Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/10-15); Civic Center Code; Aurora Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/15-40); Civic Center Code; Benton Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/20-15); Civic Center Code; Bloomington Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/35-35); Civic Center Code; Brownstown Park District Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/40-35); Civic Center Code; Carbondale Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/55-60); Civic Center Code; Chicago South Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/60-30); Civic Center Code; Collinsville Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/70-35); Civic Center Code; Crystal Lake Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/75-20); Civic Center Code; Decatur Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/80-15); Civic Center Code; DuPage County Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/85-35); Civic Center Code; Elgin Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/95-25); Civic Center Code; Herrin Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/110-35); Civic Center Code; Illinois Valley Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/115-35); Civic Center Code; Jasper County Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/120-25); Civic Center Code; Jefferson County Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/125-15); Civic Center Code; Jo Daviess County Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/130-30); Civic Center Code; Katherine Dunham Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/145-35); Civic Center Code; Marengo Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/150-35); Civic Center Code; Mason County Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/155-15); Civic Center Code; Matteson Metropolitan Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/160-35); Civic Center Code; Maywood Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/165-35); Civic Center Code; Melrose Park Metropolitan Exposition Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/170-20); Civic Center Code; certain Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authorities; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 200/180-35); Civic Center Code; Normal Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/185-15); Civic Center Code; Oak Park Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/195-35); Civic Center Code; Ottawa Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/200-15); Civic Center Code; Pekin Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/205-15); Civic Center Code; Peoria Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/210-35); Civic Center Code; Pontiac Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/215-15); Civic Center Code; Illinois Quad City Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/220-30); Civic Center Code; Quincy Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/225-35); Civic Center Code; Randolph County Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/230-35); Civic Center Code; River Forest Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/235-40); Civic Center Code; Riverside Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/245-35); Civic Center Code; Salem Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/255-20); Civic Center Code; Springfield Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority; for grounds, centers, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/260-35); Civic Center Code; Sterling Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/265-20); Civic Center Code; Vermilion County Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/270-35); Civic Center Code; Waukegan Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/275-35); Civic Center Code; West Frankfort Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/280-20); Civic Center Code; Will County Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority; for grounds, centers, and parking.

(70 ILCS 210/5); Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act; Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority; for general purposes, including quick-take power.

(70 ILCS 405/22.04); Soil and Water Conservation Districts Act; soil and water conservation districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 410/10 and 410/12); Conservation District Act; conservation districts; for open space, wildland, scenic roadway, pathway, outdoor recreation, or other conservation benefits.

(70 ILCS 503/25); Chanute-Rantoul National Aviation Center Redevelopment Commission Act; Chanute-Rantoul National Aviation Center Redevelopment Commission; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 507/15); Fort Sheridan Redevelopment Commission Act; Fort Sheridan Redevelopment Commission; for general purposes or to carry out comprehensive or redevelopment plans.

(70 ILCS 520/8); Southwestern Illinois Development Authority Act; Southwestern Illinois Development Authority; for general purposes, including quick-take power.

(70 ILCS 605/4-17 and 605/5-7); Illinois Drainage Code; drainage districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 615/5 and 615/6); Chicago Drainage District Act; corporate authorities; for construction and maintenance of works.

(70 ILCS 705/10); Fire Protection District Act; fire protection districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 750/20); Flood Prevention District Act; flood prevention districts; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 805/6); Downstate Forest Preserve District Act; certain forest preserve districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 805/18.8); Downstate Forest Preserve District Act; certain forest preserve districts; for recreational and cultural facilities.

(70 ILCS 810/8); Cook County Forest Preserve District Act; Forest Preserve District of Cook County; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 810/38); Cook County Forest Preserve District Act; Forest Preserve District of Cook County; for recreational facilities.

(70 ILCS 910/15 and 910/16); Hospital District Law; hospital districts; for hospitals or hospital facilities.

(70 ILCS 915/3); Illinois Medical District Act; Illinois Medical District Commission; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 915/4.5); Illinois Medical District Act; Illinois Medical District Commission; quick-take power for the Illinois State Police Forensic Science Laboratory (obsolete).

(70 ILCS 920/5); Tuberculosis Sanitarium District Act; tuberculosis sanitarium districts; for tuberculosis sanitariums.

(70 ILCS 925/20); Mid-Illinois Medical District Act; Mid-Illinois Medical District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 930/20); Mid-America Medical District Act; Mid-America Medical District Commission; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 935/20); Roseland Community Medical District Act; medical district; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1005/7); Mosquito Abatement District Act; mosquito abatement districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1105/8); Museum District Act; museum districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1205/7-1); Park District Code; park districts; for streets and other purposes.

(70 ILCS 1205/8-1); Park District Code; park districts; for parks.

(70 ILCS 1205/9-2 and 1205/9-4); Park District Code; park districts; for airports and landing fields.

(70 ILCS 1205/11-2 and 1205/11-3); Park District Code; park districts; for State land abutting public water and certain access rights.

(70 ILCS 1205/11.1-3); Park District Code; park districts; for harbors.

(70 ILCS 1225/2); Park Commissioners Land Condemnation Act; park districts; for street widening.

(70 ILCS 1230/1 and 1230/1-a); Park Commissioners Water Control Act; park districts; for parks, boulevards, driveways, parkways, viaducts, bridges, or tunnels.

(70 ILCS 1250/2); Park Commissioners Street Control (1889) Act; park districts; for boulevards or driveways.

(70 ILCS 1290/1); Park District Aquarium and Museum Act; municipalities or park districts; for aquariums or museums.

(70 ILCS 1305/2); Park District Airport Zoning Act; park districts; for restriction of the height of structures.

(70 ILCS 1310/5); Park District Elevated Highway Act; park districts; for elevated highways.

(70 ILCS 1505/15); Chicago Park District Act; Chicago Park District; for parks and other purposes.

(70 ILCS 1505/25.1); Chicago Park District Act; Chicago Park District; for parking lots or garages.

(70 ILCS 1505/26.3); Chicago Park District Act; Chicago Park District; for harbors.

(70 ILCS 1570/5); Lincoln Park Commissioners Land Condemnation Act; Lincoln Park Commissioners; for land and interests in land, including riparian rights.

(70 ILCS 1801/30); Alexander-Cairo Port District Act; Alexander-Cairo Port District; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1805/8); Havana Regional Port District Act; Havana Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1810/7); Illinois International Port District Act; Illinois International Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1815/13); Illinois Valley Regional Port District Act; Illinois Valley Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1820/4); Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port District Act; Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards or reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1820/5); Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port District Act; Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1825/4.9); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1825/4.10); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet Regional Port District; for reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1825/4.18); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet Regional Port District; for removal of hazards from ports and terminals.

(70 ILCS 1825/5); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1830/7.1); Kaskaskia Regional Port District Act; Kaskaskia Regional Port District; for removal of hazards from ports and terminals.

(70 ILCS 1830/14); Kaskaskia Regional Port District Act; Kaskaskia Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1831/30); Massac-Metropolis Port District Act; Massac-Metropolis Port District; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1835/5.10); Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act; Mt. Carmel Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1835/5.11); Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act; Mt. Carmel Regional Port District; for reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1835/6); Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act; Mt. Carmel Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1837/30); Ottawa Port District Act; Ottawa Port District; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1845/4.9); Seneca Regional Port District Act; Seneca Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1845/4.10); Seneca Regional Port District Act; Seneca Regional Port District; for reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1845/5); Seneca Regional Port District Act; Seneca Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1850/4); Shawneetown Regional Port District Act; Shawneetown Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards or reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1850/5); Shawneetown Regional Port District Act; Shawneetown Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1855/4); Southwest Regional Port District Act; Southwest Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards or reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1855/5); Southwest Regional Port District Act; Southwest Regional Port District; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1860/4); Tri-City Regional Port District Act; Tri-City Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1860/5); Tri-City Regional Port District Act; Tri-City Regional Port District; for the development of facilities.

(70 ILCS 1863/11); Upper Mississippi River International Port District Act; Upper Mississippi River International Port District; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1865/4.9); Waukegan Port District Act; Waukegan Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1865/4.10); Waukegan Port District Act; Waukegan Port District; for restricting the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1865/5); Waukegan Port District Act; Waukegan Port District; for the development of facilities.

(70 ILCS 1870/8); White County Port District Act; White County Port District; for the development of facilities.

(70 ILCS 1905/16); Railroad Terminal Authority Act; Railroad Terminal Authority (Chicago); for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1915/25); Grand Avenue Railroad Relocation Authority Act; Grand Avenue Railroad Relocation Authority; for general purposes, including quick-take power (now obsolete). (70 ILCS 1935/25); Elmwood Park Grade Separation Authority Act; Elmwood Park Grade Separation Authority; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 2105/9b); River Conservancy Districts Act; river conservancy districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 2105/10a); River Conservancy Districts Act; river conservancy districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2205/15); Sanitary District Act of 1907; sanitary districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2205/18); Sanitary District Act of 1907; sanitary districts; for improvements and works.

(70 ILCS 2205/19); Sanitary District Act of 1907; sanitary districts; for access to property.

(70 ILCS 2305/8); North Shore Sanitary District Act; North Shore Sanitary District; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2305/15); North Shore Sanitary District Act; North Shore Sanitary District; for improvements.

(70 ILCS 2405/7.9); Sanitary District Act of 1917; Sanitary District of Decatur; for carrying out agreements to sell, convey, or disburse treated wastewater to a private entity. (70 ILCS 2405/8); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2405/15); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for improvements.

(70 ILCS 2405/16.9 and 2405/16.10); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for waterworks.

(70 ILCS 2405/17.2); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for public sewer and water utility treatment works.

(70 ILCS 2405/18); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for dams or other structures to regulate water flow.

(70 ILCS 2605/8); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2605/16); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; quick-take power for improvements.

(70 ILCS 2605/17); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; for bridges.

(70 ILCS 2605/35); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; for widening and deepening a navigable stream.

(70 ILCS 2805/10); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2805/24); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for improvements.

(70 ILCS 2805/26i and 2805/26j); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for drainage systems.

(70 ILCS 2805/27); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for dams or other structures to regulate water flow.

(70 ILCS 2805/32k); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for water supply.

(70 ILCS 2805/32l); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for waterworks.

(70 ILCS 2905/2-7); Metro-East Sanitary District Act of 1974; Metro-East Sanitary District; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2905/2-8); Metro-East Sanitary District Act of 1974; Metro-East Sanitary District; for access to property.

(70 ILCS 3010/10); Sanitary District Revenue Bond Act; sanitary districts; for sewerage systems.

(70 ILCS 3205/12); Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act; Illinois Sports Facilities Authority; quick-take power for its corporate purposes (obsolete).

(70 ILCS 3405/16); Surface Water Protection District Act; surface water protection districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 3605/7); Metropolitan Transit Authority Act; Chicago Transit Authority; for transportation systems.

(70 ILCS 3605/8); Metropolitan Transit Authority Act; Chicago Transit Authority; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 3605/10); Metropolitan Transit Authority Act; Chicago Transit Authority; for general purposes, including railroad property.

(70 ILCS 3610/3 and 3610/5); Local Mass Transit District Act; local mass transit districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 3615/2.13); Regional Transportation Authority Act; Regional Transportation Authority; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 3705/8 and 3705/12); Public Water District Act; public water districts; for waterworks.

(70 ILCS 3705/23a); Public Water District Act; public water districts; for sewerage properties.

(70 ILCS 3705/23e); Public Water District Act; public water districts; for combined waterworks and sewerage systems.

(70 ILCS 3715/6); Water Authorities Act; water authorities; for facilities to ensure adequate water supply.

(70 ILCS 3715/27); Water Authorities Act; water authorities; for access to property.

(75 ILCS 5/4-7); Illinois Local Library Act; boards of library trustees; for library buildings.

(75 ILCS 16/30-55.80); Public Library District Act of 1991; public library districts; for general purposes.

(75 ILCS 65/1 and 65/3); Libraries in Parks Act; corporate authorities of city or park district, or board of park commissioners; for free public library buildings.

(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; incorporates 96-1522, eff. 2-14-11, and 97-259, eff. 8-5-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; incorporates 98-564, eff. 8-27-13; revised 11-25-13.)

(735 ILCS 30/15-5-35)

Sec. 15-5-35. Eminent domain powers in ILCS Chapters 605 through 625. The following provisions of law may include express grants of the power to acquire property by condemnation or eminent domain:

(605 ILCS 5/4-501); Illinois Highway Code; Department of Transportation and counties; for highway purposes.

(605 ILCS 5/4-502); Illinois Highway Code; Department of Transportation; for ditches and drains.

(605 ILCS 5/4-505); Illinois Highway Code; Department of Transportation; for replacement of railroad and public utility property taken for highway purposes.

(605 ILCS 5/4-509); Illinois Highway Code; Department of Transportation; for replacement of property taken for highway purposes.

(605 ILCS 5/4-510); Illinois Highway Code; Department of Transportation; for rights-of-way for future highway purposes.

(605 ILCS 5/4-511); Illinois Highway Code; Department of Transportation; for relocation of structures taken for highway purposes.

(605 ILCS 5/5-107); Illinois Highway Code; counties; for county highway relocation.

(605 ILCS 5/5-801); Illinois Highway Code; counties; for highway purposes.

(605 ILCS 5/5-802); Illinois Highway Code; counties; for ditches and drains.

(605 ILCS 5/6-309); Illinois Highway Code; highway commissioners or county superintendents; for township or road district roads.

(605 ILCS 5/6-801); Illinois Highway Code; highway commissioners; for road district or township roads.

(605 ILCS 5/6-802); Illinois Highway Code; highway commissioners; for ditches and drains.

(605 ILCS 5/8-102); Illinois Highway Code; Department of Transportation, counties, and municipalities; for limiting freeway access.

(605 ILCS 5/8-103); Illinois Highway Code; Department of Transportation, counties, and municipalities; for freeway purposes.

(605 ILCS 5/8-106); Illinois Highway Code; Department of Transportation and counties; for relocation of existing crossings for freeway purposes.

(605 ILCS 5/9-113); Illinois Highway Code; highway authorities; for utility and other uses in rights-of-ways.

(605 ILCS 5/10-302); Illinois Highway Code; counties; for bridge purposes.

(605 ILCS 5/10-602); Illinois Highway Code; municipalities; for ferry and bridge purposes.

(605 ILCS 5/10-702); Illinois Highway Code; municipalities; for bridge purposes.

(605 ILCS 5/10-901); Illinois Highway Code; Department of Transportation; for ferry property.

(605 ILCS 10/9); Toll Highway Act; Illinois State Toll Highway Authority; for toll highway purposes.

(605 ILCS 10/9.5); Toll Highway Act; Illinois State Toll Highway Authority; for its authorized purposes.

(605 ILCS 10/10); Toll Highway Act; Illinois State Toll Highway Authority; for property of a municipality or political subdivision for toll highway purposes.

(605 ILCS 115/14); Toll Bridge Act; counties; for toll bridge purposes.

(605 ILCS 115/15); Toll Bridge Act; counties; for the purpose of taking a toll bridge to make it a free bridge.

(605 ILCS 130/80); Public Private Agreements for the Illiana Expressway Act; Department of Transportation; for the Illiana Expressway project. (610 ILCS 5/17); Railroad Incorporation Act; railroad corporation; for real estate for railroad purposes.

(610 ILCS 5/18); Railroad Incorporation Act; railroad corporations; for materials for railways.

(610 ILCS 5/19); Railroad Incorporation Act; railways; for land along highways.

(610 ILCS 70/1); Railroad Powers Act; purchasers and lessees of railroad companies; for railroad purposes.

(610 ILCS 115/2 and 115/3); Street Railroad Right of Way Act; street railroad companies; for street railroad purposes.

(615 ILCS 5/19); Rivers, Lakes, and Streams Act; Department of Natural Resources; for land along public waters for pleasure, recreation, or sport purposes.

(615 ILCS 10/7.8); Illinois Waterway Act; Department of Natural Resources; for waterways and appurtenances.

(615 ILCS 15/7); Flood Control Act of 1945; Department of Natural Resources; for the purposes of the Act.

(615 ILCS 30/9); Illinois and Michigan Canal Management Act; Department of Natural Resources; for dams, locks, and improvements.

(615 ILCS 45/10); Illinois and Michigan Canal Development Act; Department of Natural Resources; for development and management of the canal.

(620 ILCS 5/72); Illinois Aeronautics Act; Division of Aeronautics of the Department of Transportation; for airport purposes.

(620 ILCS 5/73); Illinois Aeronautics Act; Division of Aeronautics of the Department of Transportation; for removal of airport hazards.

(620 ILCS 5/74); Illinois Aeronautics Act; Division of Aeronautics of the Department of Transportation; for airport purposes.

(620 ILCS 25/33); Airport Zoning Act; Division of Aeronautics of the Department of Transportation; for air rights.

(620 ILCS 40/2 and 40/3); General County Airport and Landing Field Act; counties; for airport purposes.

(620 ILCS 40/5); General County Airport and Landing Field Act; counties; for removing hazards.

(620 ILCS 45/6 and 45/7); County Airport Law of 1943; boards of directors of airports and landing fields; for airport and landing field purposes.

(620 ILCS 50/22 and 50/31); County Airports Act; counties; for airport purposes.

(620 ILCS 50/24); County Airports Act; counties; for removal of airport hazards.

(620 ILCS 50/26); County Airports Act; counties; for acquisition of airport protection privileges.

(620 ILCS 52/15); County Air Corridor Protection Act; counties; for airport zones.

(620 ILCS 55/1); East St. Louis Airport Act; Department of Transportation; for airport in East St. Louis metropolitan area.

(620 ILCS 65/15); O'Hare Modernization Act; Chicago; for the O'Hare modernization program, including quick-take power.

(620 ILCS 75/2-15 and 75/2-90); Public-Private Agreements for the South Suburban Airport Act; Department of Transportation; for South Suburban Airport purposes. (625 ILCS 5/2-105); Illinois Vehicle Code; Secretary of State; for general purposes.

(625 ILCS 5/18c-7501); Illinois Vehicle Code; rail carriers; for railroad purposes, including quick-take power.

(Source: P.A. 97-808, eff. 7-13-12; incorporates 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; revised 11-25-13.)

(735 ILCS 30/15-5-47)

Sec. 15-5-47. Eminent domain powers in new Acts. The following provisions of law may include express grants of the power to acquire property by condemnation or eminent domain:

(Reserved). The Elmwood Park Grade Separation Authority Act; Elmwood Park Grade Separation Authority; for general purposes. Public-Private Agreements for the South Suburban Airport Act; Department of Transportation; for South Suburban Airport purposes.

(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; 98-564, eff. 8-27-13; revised 11-25-13.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-45)

Sec. 25-5-45. Quick-take; South Suburban Airport. Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used by the Department of Transportation for the purpose of development of the South Suburban Airport within the boundaries designated on the map filed with the Secretary of State on May 28, 2013 and known as file number 98-GA-D01.

(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-50)

Sec. 25-5-50 25-5-45. Quick-take; McHenry County. Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of no longer than one year from the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly by McHenry County for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of public improvements to serve McHenry County:

Route: F.A.U. 168 (Johnsburg Road) Section: 05-00314-00-WR County: McHenry Job No.: R-91-005-06 Parcel: 1HK0045 Sta. 58+07.09 To Sta. 58+31.89 Sta. 176+10.72 To Sta. 177+36.15 Owner: JNL-Johnsburg Properties, Inc. Index No. 09-13-277-001 09-13-277-002

That part of Sub Lot 2 of Lot 28 in Plat Number 3 McHenry, County Clerk's Plat of Section 13, Township 45 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 6, 1902 as document number 14079, in McHenry County, Illinois, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of the Northeast Quarter of said Section 13; thence on an assumed bearing of South 89 degrees 15 minutes 13 seconds West along the south line of the Northeast Quarter of said Section 13, as monumented and occupied, a distance of 824.94 feet (825.2 feet, recorded) (826.0 feet, recorded) to a point of intersection with the Southerly extension of the east line of the grantor; thence North 1 degree 20 minutes 53 seconds East along the said Southerly extension of the east line of the grantor, a distance of 132.49 feet to the northeasterly right of way line of Chapel Hill Road recorded January 26, 1932 as document number 100422, being also the southeast corner of the grantor; thence North 46 degrees 56 minutes 58 seconds West along the said northeasterly right of way line of Chapel Hill Road and along the northeasterly right of way line of Chapel Hill Road recorded January 26, 1932 as document number 100421, a distance of 261.08 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing North 46 degrees 56 minutes 58 seconds West along the northeasterly right of way line of Chapel Hill Road recorded as document number 100421, a distance of 14.94 feet to the east right of way line of Chapel Hill Road recorded January 26, 1932 as document number 100420; thence North 2 degrees 09 minutes 50 seconds East along the said east right of way line of Chapel Hill Road and the Northerly extension thereof, a distance of 64.92 feet (64.91 feet, more or less, recorded) to the center line of Johnsburg Road; thence North 87 degrees 42 minutes 53 seconds East along the said center line of Johnsburg Road, a distance of 123.08 feet; thence South 2 degrees 17 minutes 07 seconds East, a distance of 30.00 feet to the south right of way line of Johnsburg Road according to a Plat of Survey by the County Surveyor dated October 21, 1952 in Surveyor Book Number 5, page 204; thence South 2 degrees 48 minutes 02 seconds East, a distance of 1.05 feet; thence westerly 59.83 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 987.47 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 85 degrees 27 minutes 49 seconds West, 59.82 feet; thence South 70 degrees 14 minutes 11 seconds West, a distance of 47.08 feet; thence South 22 degrees 40 minutes 19 seconds West, a distance of 30.69 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.117 acre, more or less, of which 0.086 acre, more or less, was previously dedicated or used for highway purposes.

(Source: P.A. 98-229, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-25-13.)

Section 735. The Crime Victims Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(740 ILCS 45/17) (from Ch. 70, par. 87)

Sec. 17. (a) Subrogation.

(a) The Court of Claims may award compensation on the condition that the applicant subrogate to the State his rights to collect damages from the assailant or any third party who may be liable in damages to the applicant. In such a case the Attorney General may, on behalf of the State, bring an action against an assailant or third party for money damages, but must first notify the applicant and give him an opportunity to participate in the prosecution of the action. The excess of the amount recovered in such action over the amount of the compensation offered and accepted or awarded under this Act plus costs of the action and attorneys' fees actually incurred shall be paid to the applicant.

(b) Nothing in this Act affects the right of the applicant to seek civil damages from the assailant and any other party, but that applicant must give written notice to the Attorney General within 10 days after the making of a claim or the filing of an action for such damages, and within 10 days after the conclusion of the claim or action. The applicant must attach to the written notice a copy of the complaint, settlement agreement, jury verdict, or judgment. Failure to timely notify the Attorney General of such claims and actions is a willful omission of fact and the applicant thereby becomes subject to the provisions of Section 20 of this Act.

(c) The State has a charge for the amount of compensation paid under this Act upon all claims or causes of action against an assailant and any other party to recover for the injuries or death of a victim which were the basis for that payment of compensation. At the time compensation is ordered to be paid under this Act, the Court of Claims shall give written notice of this charge to the applicant. The charge attaches to any verdict or judgment entered and to any money or property which is recovered on account of the claim or cause of action against the assailant or any other party after the notice is given. On petition filed by the Attorney General on behalf of the State or by the applicant, the circuit court, on written notice to all interested parties, shall adjudicate the right of the parties and enforce the charge. This subsection does not affect the priority of a lien under "AN ACT creating attorney's lien and for enforcement of same", filed June 16, 1909, as amended.

Only the Court of Claims may reduce the State's lien under this Act. The Court of Claims may consider the nature and extent of the injury, economic loss, settlements, hospital costs, physician costs, attorney's fees and costs, and all other appropriate costs. The burden of producing evidence sufficient to support the exercise by the Court of Claims of its discretion to reduce the amount of a proven charge sought to be enforced against the recovery shall rest with the party seeking such reduction. The charges of the State described in this Section, however, shall take priority over all other liens and charges existing under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(d) Where compensation is awarded under this Act and the person receiving same also receives any sum required to be, and that has not been deducted under Section 10.1, he shall refund to the State the amount of compensation paid to him which would have been deducted at the time the award was made.

(e) An amount not to exceed 25% of all money recovered under subsections (b) or (c) of this Section shall be placed in the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund to assist with costs related to recovery efforts. "Recovery efforts" means those activities that are directly attributable to obtaining restitution, civil suit recoveries, and other reimbursements.

(f) The applicant must give written notice to the Attorney General within 10 days after an offender is ordered by a court to pay restitution. The applicant shall attach a copy of the restitution order or judgment to the written notice. Failure to timely notify the Attorney General of court-ordered restitution is a willful omission of fact and the applicant thereby becomes subject to the provisions of Section 20 of this Act. The Attorney General may file a written copy of the Court of Claims' decision awarding crime victims compensation in a criminal case in which the offender has been ordered to pay restitution for the victim's expenses incurred as a result of the same criminal conduct. Upon the filing of the order, the circuit court clerk shall send restitution payments directly to the compensation program for any paid expense reflected in the Court of Claims' decision.

(Source: P.A. 97-817, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-12-13.)

Section 740. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 12.2 as follows:

(740 ILCS 110/12.2) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 812.2)

Sec. 12.2. (a) When a recipient who has been judicially or involuntarily admitted, or is a forensic recipient admitted to a developmental disability or mental health facility, as defined in Section 1-107 or 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, is on an unauthorized absence or otherwise has left the facility without being discharged or being free to do so, the facility director shall immediately furnish and disclose to the appropriate local law enforcement agency identifying information, as defined in this Section, and all further information unrelated to the diagnosis, treatment or evaluation of the recipient's mental or physical health that would aid the law enforcement agency in locating and apprehending the recipient and returning him to the facility. When a forensic recipient is on an unauthorized absence or otherwise has left the facility without being discharged or being free to do so, the facility director, or designee, of a mental health facility or developmental facility operated by the Department shall also immediately notify, in like manner, the Department of State Police.

(b) If a law enforcement agency requests information from a developmental disability or mental health facility, as defined in Section 1-107 or 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, relating to a recipient who has been admitted to the facility and for whom a missing person report has been filed with a law enforcement agency, the facility director shall, except in the case of a voluntary recipient wherein the recipient's permission in writing must first be obtained, furnish and disclose to the law enforcement agency identifying information as is necessary to confirm or deny whether that person is, or has been since the missing person report was filed, a resident of that facility. The facility director shall notify the law enforcement agency if the missing person is admitted after the request. Any person participating in good faith in the disclosure of information in accordance with this provision shall have immunity from any liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise, if the information is disclosed relying upon the representation of an officer of a law enforcement agency that a missing person report has been filed.

(c) Upon the request of a law enforcement agency in connection with the investigation of a particular felony or sex offense, when the investigation case file number is furnished by the law enforcement agency, a facility director shall immediately disclose to that law enforcement agency identifying information on any forensic recipient who is admitted to a developmental disability or mental health facility, as defined in Section 1-107 or 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, who was or may have been away from the facility at or about the time of the commission of a particular felony or sex offense, and: (1) whose description, clothing, or both reasonably match the physical description of any person allegedly involved in that particular felony or sex offense; or (2) whose past modus operandi matches the modus operandi of that particular felony or sex offense.

(d) For the purposes of this Section and Section 12.1, "law enforcement agency" means an agency of the State or unit of local government that is vested by law or ordinance with the duty to maintain public order and to enforce criminal laws or ordinances, the Federal Bureau of Investigation, the Central Intelligence Agency, and the United States Secret Service.

(e) For the purpose of this Section, "identifying information" means the name, address, age, and a physical description, including clothing, of the recipient of services, the names and addresses of the recipient's nearest known relatives, where the recipient was known to have been during any past unauthorized absences from a facility, whether the recipient may be suicidal, and the condition of the recipient's physical health as it relates to exposure to the weather. Except as provided in Section 11, in no case shall the facility director disclose to the law enforcement agency any information relating to the diagnosis, treatment, or evaluation of the recipient's mental or physical health, unless the disclosure is deemed necessary by the facility director to insure the safety of the investigating officers or general public.

(f) For the purpose of this Section, "forensic recipient" means a recipient who is placed in a developmental disability facility or mental health facility, as defined in Section 1-107 or 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, pursuant to Article 104 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or Sections 3-8-5, 3-10-5 or 5-2-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 96-1191, eff. 7-22-10; revised 11-22-13.)

Section 745. The Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(750 ILCS 45/15) (from Ch. 40, par. 2515)

Sec. 15. Enforcement of Judgment or Order.

(a) If existence of the parent and child relationship is declared, or paternity or duty of support has been established under this Act or under prior law or under the law of any other jurisdiction, the judgment rendered thereunder may be enforced in the same or other proceedings by any party or any person or agency that has furnished or may furnish financial assistance or services to the child. The Income Withholding for Support Act and Sections 14 and 16 of this Act shall also be applicable with respect to entry, modification and enforcement of any support judgment entered under provisions of the "Paternity Act", approved July 5, 1957, as amended, repealed July 1, 1985.

(b) Failure to comply with any order of the court shall be punishable as contempt as in other cases of failure to comply under the "Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act", as now or hereafter amended. In addition to other penalties provided by law, the court may, after finding the party guilty of contempt, order that the party be:

(1) Placed on probation with such conditions of probation as the court deems advisable;

(2) Sentenced to periodic imprisonment for a period not to exceed 6 months. However, the court may permit the party to be released for periods of time during the day or night to work or conduct business or other self-employed occupation. The court may further order any part of all the earnings of a party during a sentence of periodic imprisonment to be paid to the Clerk of the Circuit Court or to the person or parent having custody of the minor child for the support of said child until further order of the court.

(c) (2.5) The court may also pierce the ownership veil of a person, persons, or business entity to discover assets of a non-custodial parent held in the name of that person, those persons, or that business entity if there is a unity of interest and ownership sufficient to render no financial separation between the non-custodial parent and that person, those persons, or the business entity. The following circumstances are sufficient for a court to order discovery of the assets of a person, persons, or business entity and to compel the application of any discovered assets toward payment on the judgment for support:

(1) The (A) the non-custodial parent and the person, persons, or business entity maintain records together.

(2) The (B) the non-custodial parent and the person, persons, or business entity fail to maintain an arms length relationship between themselves with regard to any assets.

(3) The (C) the non-custodial parent transfers assets to the person, persons, or business entity with the intent to perpetrate a fraud on the custodial parent.

With respect to assets which are real property, no order entered under this subsection (c) subdivision (2.5) shall affect the rights of bona fide purchasers, mortgagees, judgment creditors, or other lien holders who acquire their interests in the property prior to the time a notice of lis pendens pursuant to the Code of Civil Procedure or a copy of the order is placed of record in the office of the recorder of deeds for the county in which the real property is located.

(d) (3) The court may also order that, in cases where the party is 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support or has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days obligation or more, that the party's Illinois driving privileges be suspended until the court determines that the party is in compliance with the judgement or duty of support. The court may also order that the parent be issued a family financial responsibility driving permit that would allow limited driving privileges for employment and medical purposes in accordance with Section 7-702.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The clerk of the circuit court shall certify the order suspending the driving privileges of the parent or granting the issuance of a family financial responsibility driving permit to the Secretary of State on forms prescribed by the Secretary. Upon receipt of the authenticated documents, the Secretary of State shall suspend the party's driving privileges until further order of the court and shall, if ordered by the court, subject to the provisions of Section 7-702.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, issue a family financial responsibility driving permit to the parent.

(e) In addition to the penalties or punishment that may be imposed under this Section, any person whose conduct constitutes a violation of Section 15 of the Non-Support Punishment Act may be prosecuted under that Act, and a person convicted under that Act may be sentenced in accordance with that Act. The sentence may include but need not be limited to a requirement that the person perform community service under Section 50 of that Act or participate in a work alternative program under Section 50 of that Act. A person may not be required to participate in a work alternative program under Section 50 of that Act if the person is currently participating in a work program pursuant to Section 15.1 of this Act.

(f) (b-5) If a party who is found guilty of contempt for a failure to comply with an order to pay support is a person who conducts a business or who is self-employed, the court may in addition to other penalties provided by law order that the party do one or more of the following: (i) provide to the court monthly financial statements showing income and expenses from the business or the self-employment; (ii) seek employment and report periodically to the court with a diary, listing, or other memorandum of his or her employment search efforts; or (iii) report to the Department of Employment Security for job search services to find employment that will be subject to withholding of child support.

(g) (c) In any post-judgment proceeding to enforce or modify the judgment the parties shall continue to be designated as in the original proceeding.

(Source: P.A. 97-1029, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-22-13.)

Section 750. The Adoption Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(750 ILCS 50/1) (from Ch. 40, par. 1501)

Sec. 1. Definitions. When used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

A. "Child" means a person under legal age subject to adoption under this Act.

B. "Related child" means a child subject to adoption where either or both of the adopting parents stands in any of the following relationships to the child by blood or marriage: parent, grand-parent, brother, sister, step-parent, step-grandparent, step-brother, step-sister, uncle, aunt, great-uncle, great-aunt, or cousin of first degree. A child whose parent has executed a final irrevocable consent to adoption or a final irrevocable surrender for purposes of adoption, or whose parent has had his or her parental rights terminated, is not a related child to that person, unless the consent is determined to be void or is void pursuant to subsection O of Section 10.

C. "Agency" for the purpose of this Act means a public child welfare agency or a licensed child welfare agency.

D. "Unfit person" means any person whom the court shall find to be unfit to have a child, without regard to the likelihood that the child will be placed for adoption. The grounds of unfitness are any one or more of the following, except that a person shall not be considered an unfit person for the sole reason that the person has relinquished a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act:

(a) Abandonment of the child.

(a-1) Abandonment of a newborn infant in a hospital.

(a-2) Abandonment of a newborn infant in any setting where the evidence suggests that the parent intended to relinquish his or her parental rights.

(b) Failure to maintain a reasonable degree of interest, concern or responsibility as to the child's welfare.

(c) Desertion of the child for more than 3 months next preceding the commencement of the Adoption proceeding.

(d) Substantial neglect of the child if continuous or repeated.

(d-1) Substantial neglect, if continuous or repeated, of any child residing in the household which resulted in the death of that child.

(e) Extreme or repeated cruelty to the child.

(f) There is a rebuttable presumption, which can be overcome only by clear and convincing evidence, that a parent is unfit if:

(1) Two or more findings of physical abuse have been entered regarding any children under Section 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the most recent of which was determined by the juvenile court hearing the matter to be supported by clear and convincing evidence; or

(2) The parent has been convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity and the conviction or finding resulted from the death of any child by physical abuse; or

(3) There is a finding of physical child abuse resulting from the death of any child under Section 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant to Article V 5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of applying any presumption under this item (f).

(g) Failure to protect the child from conditions within his environment injurious to the child's welfare.

(h) Other neglect of, or misconduct toward the child; provided that in making a finding of unfitness the court hearing the adoption proceeding shall not be bound by any previous finding, order or judgment affecting or determining the rights of the parents toward the child sought to be adopted in any other proceeding except such proceedings terminating parental rights as shall be had under either this Act, the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(i) Depravity. Conviction of any one of the following crimes shall create a presumption that a parent is depraved which can be overcome only by clear and convincing evidence: (1) first degree murder in violation of paragraph 1 or 2 of subsection (a) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or conviction of second degree murder in violation of subsection (a) of Section 9-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 of a parent of the child to be adopted; (2) first degree murder or second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (3) attempt or conspiracy to commit first degree murder or second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (4) solicitation to commit murder of any child, solicitation to commit murder of any child for hire, or solicitation to commit second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (5) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child in violation of Section 11-1.40 or 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (6) heinous battery of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961; or (7) aggravated battery of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is depraved if the parent has been criminally convicted of at least 3 felonies under the laws of this State or any other state, or under federal law, or the criminal laws of any United States territory; and at least one of these convictions took place within 5 years of the filing of the petition or motion seeking termination of parental rights.

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is depraved if that parent has been criminally convicted of either first or second degree murder of any person as defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 within 10 years of the filing date of the petition or motion to terminate parental rights.

No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant to Article 5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of applying any presumption under this item (i).

(j) Open and notorious adultery or fornication.

(j-1) (Blank).

(k) Habitual drunkenness or addiction to drugs, other than those prescribed by a physician, for at least one year immediately prior to the commencement of the unfitness proceeding.

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is unfit under this subsection with respect to any child to which that parent gives birth where there is a confirmed test result that at birth the child's blood, urine, or meconium contained any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or metabolites of such substances, the presence of which in the newborn infant was not the result of medical treatment administered to the mother or the newborn infant; and the biological mother of this child is the biological mother of at least one other child who was adjudicated a neglected minor under subsection (c) of Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(l) Failure to demonstrate a reasonable degree of interest, concern or responsibility as to the welfare of a new born child during the first 30 days after its birth.

(m) Failure by a parent (i) to make reasonable efforts to correct the conditions that were the basis for the removal of the child from the parent during any 9-month period following the adjudication of neglected or abused minor under Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or dependent minor under Section 2-4 of that Act, or (ii) to make reasonable progress toward the return of the child to the parent during any 9-month period following the adjudication of neglected or abused minor under Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or dependent minor under Section 2-4 of that Act. If a service plan has been established as required under Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act to correct the conditions that were the basis for the removal of the child from the parent and if those services were available, then, for purposes of this Act, "failure to make reasonable progress toward the return of the child to the parent" includes the parent's failure to substantially fulfill his or her obligations under the service plan and correct the conditions that brought the child into care during any 9-month period following the adjudication under Section 2-3 or 2-4 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Notwithstanding any other provision, when a petition or motion seeks to terminate parental rights on the basis of item (ii) of this subsection (m), the petitioner shall file with the court and serve on the parties a pleading that specifies the 9-month period or periods relied on. The pleading shall be filed and served on the parties no later than 3 weeks before the date set by the court for closure of discovery, and the allegations in the pleading shall be treated as incorporated into the petition or motion. Failure of a respondent to file a written denial of the allegations in the pleading shall not be treated as an admission that the allegations are true.

(m-1) Pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, a child has been in foster care for 15 months out of any 22 month period which begins on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998 unless the child's parent can prove by a preponderance of the evidence that it is more likely than not that it will be in the best interests of the child to be returned to the parent within 6 months of the date on which a petition for termination of parental rights is filed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The 15 month time limit is tolled during any period for which there is a court finding that the appointed custodian or guardian failed to make reasonable efforts to reunify the child with his or her family, provided that (i) the finding of no reasonable efforts is made within 60 days of the period when reasonable efforts were not made or (ii) the parent filed a motion requesting a finding of no reasonable efforts within 60 days of the period when reasonable efforts were not made. For purposes of this subdivision (m-1), the date of entering foster care is the earlier of: (i) the date of a judicial finding at an adjudicatory hearing that the child is an abused, neglected, or dependent minor; or (ii) 60 days after the date on which the child is removed from his or her parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(n) Evidence of intent to forgo his or her parental rights, whether or not the child is a ward of the court, (1) as manifested by his or her failure for a period of 12 months: (i) to visit the child, (ii) to communicate with the child or agency, although able to do so and not prevented from doing so by an agency or by court order, or (iii) to maintain contact with or plan for the future of the child, although physically able to do so, or (2) as manifested by the father's failure, where he and the mother of the child were unmarried to each other at the time of the child's birth, (i) to commence legal proceedings to establish his paternity under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 or the law of the jurisdiction of the child's birth within 30 days of being informed, pursuant to Section 12a of this Act, that he is the father or the likely father of the child or, after being so informed where the child is not yet born, within 30 days of the child's birth, or (ii) to make a good faith effort to pay a reasonable amount of the expenses related to the birth of the child and to provide a reasonable amount for the financial support of the child, the court to consider in its determination all relevant circumstances, including the financial condition of both parents; provided that the ground for termination provided in this subparagraph (n)(2)(ii) shall only be available where the petition is brought by the mother or the husband of the mother.

Contact or communication by a parent with his or her child that does not demonstrate affection and concern does not constitute reasonable contact and planning under subdivision (n). In the absence of evidence to the contrary, the ability to visit, communicate, maintain contact, pay expenses and plan for the future shall be presumed. The subjective intent of the parent, whether expressed or otherwise, unsupported by evidence of the foregoing parental acts manifesting that intent, shall not preclude a determination that the parent has intended to forgo his or her parental rights. In making this determination, the court may consider but shall not require a showing of diligent efforts by an authorized agency to encourage the parent to perform the acts specified in subdivision (n).

It shall be an affirmative defense to any allegation under paragraph (2) of this subsection that the father's failure was due to circumstances beyond his control or to impediments created by the mother or any other person having legal custody. Proof of that fact need only be by a preponderance of the evidence.

(o) Repeated or continuous failure by the parents, although physically and financially able, to provide the child with adequate food, clothing, or shelter.

(p) Inability to discharge parental responsibilities supported by competent evidence from a psychiatrist, licensed clinical social worker, or clinical psychologist of mental impairment, mental illness or an intellectual disability as defined in Section 1-116 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or developmental disability as defined in Section 1-106 of that Code, and there is sufficient justification to believe that the inability to discharge parental responsibilities shall extend beyond a reasonable time period. However, this subdivision (p) shall not be construed so as to permit a licensed clinical social worker to conduct any medical diagnosis to determine mental illness or mental impairment.

(q) (Blank).

(r) The child is in the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, the parent is incarcerated as a result of criminal conviction at the time the petition or motion for termination of parental rights is filed, prior to incarceration the parent had little or no contact with the child or provided little or no support for the child, and the parent's incarceration will prevent the parent from discharging his or her parental responsibilities for the child for a period in excess of 2 years after the filing of the petition or motion for termination of parental rights.

(s) The child is in the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, the parent is incarcerated at the time the petition or motion for termination of parental rights is filed, the parent has been repeatedly incarcerated as a result of criminal convictions, and the parent's repeated incarceration has prevented the parent from discharging his or her parental responsibilities for the child.

(t) A finding that at birth the child's blood, urine, or meconium contained any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a metabolite of a controlled substance, with the exception of controlled substances or metabolites of such substances, the presence of which in the newborn infant was the result of medical treatment administered to the mother or the newborn infant, and that the biological mother of this child is the biological mother of at least one other child who was adjudicated a neglected minor under subsection (c) of Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, after which the biological mother had the opportunity to enroll in and participate in a clinically appropriate substance abuse counseling, treatment, and rehabilitation program.

E. "Parent" means the father or mother of a lawful child of the parties or child born out of wedlock. For the purpose of this Act, a person who has executed a final and irrevocable consent to adoption or a final and irrevocable surrender for purposes of adoption, or whose parental rights have been terminated by a court, is not a parent of the child who was the subject of the consent or surrender, unless the consent is void pursuant to subsection O of Section 10.

F. A person is available for adoption when the person is:

(a) a child who has been surrendered for adoption to an agency and to whose adoption the agency has thereafter consented;

(b) a child to whose adoption a person authorized by law, other than his parents, has consented, or to whose adoption no consent is required pursuant to Section 8 of this Act;

(c) a child who is in the custody of persons who intend to adopt him through placement made by his parents;

(c-1) a child for whom a parent has signed a specific consent pursuant to subsection O of Section 10;

(d) an adult who meets the conditions set forth in Section 3 of this Act; or

(e) a child who has been relinquished as defined in Section 10 of the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

A person who would otherwise be available for adoption shall not be deemed unavailable for adoption solely by reason of his or her death.

G. The singular includes the plural and the plural includes the singular and the "male" includes the "female", as the context of this Act may require.

H. "Adoption disruption" occurs when an adoptive placement does not prove successful and it becomes necessary for the child to be removed from placement before the adoption is finalized.

I. "Habitual residence" has the meaning ascribed to it in the federal Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000 and regulations promulgated thereunder.

J. "Immediate relatives" means the biological parents, the parents of the biological parents and siblings of the biological parents.

K. "Intercountry adoption" is a process by which a child from a country other than the United States is adopted by persons who are habitual residents of the United States, or the child is a habitual resident of the United States who is adopted by persons who are habitual residents of a country other than the United States.

L. "Intercountry Adoption Coordinator" means a staff person of the Department of Children and Family Services appointed by the Director to coordinate the provision of services related to an intercountry adoption.

M. "Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children" is a law enacted by all states and certain territories for the purpose of establishing uniform procedures for handling the interstate placement of children in foster homes, adoptive homes, or other child care facilities.

N. (Blank).

O. "Preadoption requirements" means any conditions or standards established by the laws or administrative rules of this State that must be met by a prospective adoptive parent prior to the placement of a child in an adoptive home.

P. "Abused child" means a child whose parent or immediate family member, or any person responsible for the child's welfare, or any individual residing in the same home as the child, or a paramour of the child's parent:

(a) inflicts, causes to be inflicted, or allows to be inflicted upon the child physical injury, by other than accidental means, that causes death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(b) creates a substantial risk of physical injury to the child by other than accidental means which would be likely to cause death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(c) commits or allows to be committed any sex offense against the child, as sex offenses are defined in the Criminal Code of 2012 and extending those definitions of sex offenses to include children under 18 years of age;

(d) commits or allows to be committed an act or acts of torture upon the child; or

(e) inflicts excessive corporal punishment.

Q. "Neglected child" means any child whose parent or other person responsible for the child's welfare withholds or denies nourishment or medically indicated treatment including food or care denied solely on the basis of the present or anticipated mental or physical impairment as determined by a physician acting alone or in consultation with other physicians or otherwise does not provide the proper or necessary support, education as required by law, or medical or other remedial care recognized under State law as necessary for a child's well-being, or other care necessary for his or her well-being, including adequate food, clothing and shelter; or who is abandoned by his or her parents or other person responsible for the child's welfare.

A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible for his or her welfare depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care as provided under Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible for the child's welfare failed to vaccinate, delayed vaccination, or refused vaccination for the child due to a waiver on religious or medical grounds as permitted by law.

R. "Putative father" means a man who may be a child's father, but who (1) is not married to the child's mother on or before the date that the child was or is to be born and (2) has not established paternity of the child in a court proceeding before the filing of a petition for the adoption of the child. The term includes a male who is less than 18 years of age. "Putative father" does not mean a man who is the child's father as a result of criminal sexual abuse or assault as defined under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

S. "Standby adoption" means an adoption in which a parent consents to custody and termination of parental rights to become effective upon the occurrence of a future event, which is either the death of the parent or the request of the parent for the entry of a final judgment of adoption.

T. (Blank).

U. "Interstate adoption" means the placement of a minor child with a prospective adoptive parent for the purpose of pursuing an adoption for that child that is subject to the provisions of the Interstate Compact on Placement of Children.

V. "Endorsement letter" means the letter issued by the Department of Children and Family Services to document that a prospective adoptive parent has met preadoption requirements and has been deemed suitable by the Department to adopt a child who is the subject of an intercountry adoption.

W. "Denial letter" means the letter issued by the Department of Children and Family Services to document that a prospective adoptive parent has not met preadoption requirements and has not been deemed suitable by the Department to adopt a child who is the subject of an intercountry adoption.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-455, eff. 1-1-14; 98-532, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 755. The Illinois Religious Freedom Protection and Civil Union Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(750 ILCS 75/25)

Sec. 25. Prohibited civil unions. The following civil unions are prohibited:

(1) a civil union entered into prior to both parties attaining 18 years of age;

(2) a civil union entered into prior to the dissolution of a marriage or civil union or substantially similar legal relationship of one of the parties;

(3) a civil union between an ancestor and a descendant descendent or between siblings whether the relationship is by the half or the whole blood or by adoption;

(4) a civil union between an aunt or uncle and a niece or nephew, whether the relationship is by the half or the whole blood or by adoption; and

(5) a civil union between first cousins.

(Source: P.A. 96-1513, eff. 6-1-11; revised 11-22-13.)

Section 760. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing Sections 11a-10 and 11a-23 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/11a-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-10)

Sec. 11a-10. Procedures preliminary to hearing.

(a) Upon the filing of a petition pursuant to Section 11a-8, the court shall set a date and place for hearing to take place within 30 days. The court shall appoint a guardian ad litem to report to the court concerning the respondent's best interests consistent with the provisions of this Section, except that the appointment of a guardian ad litem shall not be required when the court determines that such appointment is not necessary for the protection of the respondent or a reasonably informed decision on the petition. If the guardian ad litem is not a licensed attorney, he or she shall be qualified, by training or experience, to work with or advocate for the developmentally disabled, mentally ill, physically disabled, the elderly, or persons disabled because of mental deterioration, depending on the type of disability that is alleged in the petition. The court may allow the guardian ad litem reasonable compensation. The guardian ad litem may consult with a person who by training or experience is qualified to work with persons with a developmental disability, persons with mental illness, or physically disabled persons, or persons disabled because of mental deterioration, depending on the type of disability that is alleged. The guardian ad litem shall personally observe the respondent prior to the hearing and shall inform him orally and in writing of the contents of the petition and of his rights under Section 11a-11. The guardian ad litem shall also attempt to elicit the respondent's position concerning the adjudication of disability, the proposed guardian, a proposed change in residential placement, changes in care that might result from the guardianship, and other areas of inquiry deemed appropriate by the court. Notwithstanding any provision in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act or any other law, a guardian ad litem shall have the right to inspect and copy any medical or mental health record of the respondent which the guardian ad litem deems necessary, provided that the information so disclosed shall not be utilized for any other purpose nor be redisclosed except in connection with the proceedings. At or before the hearing, the guardian ad litem shall file a written report detailing his or her observations of the respondent, the responses of the respondent to any of the inquires detailed in this Section, the opinion of the guardian ad litem or other professionals with whom the guardian ad litem consulted concerning the appropriateness of guardianship, and any other material issue discovered by the guardian ad litem. The guardian ad litem shall appear at the hearing and testify as to any issues presented in his or her report.

(b) The court (1) may appoint counsel for the respondent, if the court finds that the interests of the respondent will be best served by the appointment, and (2) shall appoint counsel upon respondent's request or if the respondent takes a position adverse to that of the guardian ad litem. The respondent shall be permitted to obtain the appointment of counsel either at the hearing or by any written or oral request communicated to the court prior to the hearing. The summons shall inform the respondent of this right to obtain appointed counsel. The court may allow counsel for the respondent reasonable compensation.

(c) If the respondent is unable to pay the fee of the guardian ad litem or appointed counsel, or both, the court may enter an order for the petitioner to pay all such fees or such amounts as the respondent or the respondent's estate may be unable to pay. However, in cases where the Office of State Guardian is the petitioner, consistent with Section 30 of the Guardianship and Advocacy Act, where the public guardian is the petitioner, consistent with Section 13-5 of the Probate Act of 1975, where an adult protective services agency is the petitioner, pursuant to Section 9 of the Adult Protective Services Act, or where the Department of Children and Family Services is the petitioner under subparagraph (d) of subsection (1) of Section 2-27 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, no guardian ad litem or legal fees shall be assessed against the Office of State Guardian, the public guardian, or the adult protective services agency, or the Department of Children and Family Services.

(d) The hearing may be held at such convenient place as the court directs, including at a facility in which the respondent resides.

(e) Unless he is the petitioner, the respondent shall be personally served with a copy of the petition and a summons not less than 14 days before the hearing. The summons shall be printed in large, bold type and shall include the following notice:

NOTICE OF RIGHTS OF RESPONDENT

You have been named as a respondent in a guardianship petition asking that you be declared a disabled person. If the court grants the petition, a guardian will be appointed for you. A copy of the guardianship petition is attached for your convenience.

The date and time of the hearing are: The place where the hearing will occur is: The Judge's name and phone number is:

If a guardian is appointed for you, the guardian may be given the right to make all important personal decisions for you, such as where you may live, what medical treatment you may receive, what places you may visit, and who may visit you. A guardian may also be given the right to control and manage your money and other property, including your home, if you own one. You may lose the right to make these decisions for yourself.

You have the following legal rights:

(1) You have the right to be present at the court hearing.

(2) You have the right to be represented by a lawyer, either one that you retain, or one appointed by the Judge.

(3) You have the right to ask for a jury of six persons to hear your case.

(4) You have the right to present evidence to the court and to confront and cross-examine witnesses.

(5) You have the right to ask the Judge to appoint an independent expert to examine you and give an opinion about your need for a guardian.

(6) You have the right to ask that the court hearing be closed to the public.

(7) You have the right to tell the court whom you prefer to have for your guardian.

You do not have to attend the court hearing if you do not want to be there. If you do not attend, the Judge may appoint a guardian if the Judge finds that a guardian would be of benefit to you. The hearing will not be postponed or canceled if you do not attend.

IT IS VERY IMPORTANT THAT YOU ATTEND THE HEARING IF YOU DO NOT WANT A GUARDIAN OR IF YOU WANT SOMEONE OTHER THAN THE PERSON NAMED IN THE GUARDIANSHIP PETITION TO BE YOUR GUARDIAN. IF YOU DO NOT WANT A GUARDIAN OF IF YOU HAVE ANY OTHER PROBLEMS, YOU SHOULD CONTACT AN ATTORNEY OR COME TO COURT AND TELL THE JUDGE.

Service of summons and the petition may be made by a private person 18 years of age or over who is not a party to the action.

(f) Notice of the time and place of the hearing shall be given by the petitioner by mail or in person to those persons, including the proposed guardian, whose names and addresses appear in the petition and who do not waive notice, not less than 14 days before the hearing.

(Source: P.A. 97-375, eff. 8-15-11; 97-1095, eff. 8-24-12; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-89, eff. 7-15-13; revised 9-24-13.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-23)

Sec. 11a-23. Reliance on authority of guardian, standby guardian, short-term guardian.

(a) For the purpose of this Section, "guardian", "standby guardian", and "short-term guardian" includes temporary, plenary, or limited guardians of all wards.

(b) Every health care provider and other person (reliant) has the right to rely on any decision or direction made by the guardian, standby guardian, or short-term guardian that is not clearly contrary to the law, to the same extent and with the same effect as though the decision or direction had been made or given by the ward. Any person dealing with the guardian, standby guardian, or short-term guardian may presume in the absence of actual knowledge to the contrary that the acts of the guardian, standby guardian, or short-term guardian conform to the provisions of the law. A reliant shall not be protected if the reliant has actual knowledge that the guardian, standby guardian, or short-term guardian is not entitled to act or that any particular action or inaction is contrary to the provisions of the law.

(c) A health care provider (provider) who relies on and carries out a guardian's, standby guardian's, or short-term guardian's directions and who acts with due care and in accordance with the law shall not be subject to any claim based on lack of consent, or to criminal prosecution, or to discipline for unprofessional conduct. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to protect a provider from liability for the provider's own negligence in the performance of the provider's duties or in carrying out any instructions of the guardian, standby guardian, or short-term guardian, and nothing in this Section shall be deemed to alter the law of negligence as it applies to the acts of any guardian or provider.

(d) A guardian, standby guardian, or short-term short term guardian, who acts or refrains from acting is not subject to criminal prosecution or any claim based upon lack of his or her authority or failure to act, if the act or failure to act was with due care and in accordance with law. The guardian, standby guardian, or short-term short term guardian, shall not be liable merely because he or she may benefit from the act, has individual or conflicting interests in relation to the care and affairs of the ward, or acts in a different manner with respect to the guardian's, standby guardian's, or short-term guardian's own care or interests.

(Source: P.A. 89-438, eff. 12-15-95; 90-796, eff. 12-15-98; revised 11-22-13.)

Section 765. The Illinois Power of Attorney Act is amended by changing Sections 2-7 and 2-10 as follows:

(755 ILCS 45/2-7) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 802-7)

Sec. 2-7. Duty - standard of care - record-keeping - exoneration.

(a) The agent shall be under no duty to exercise the powers granted by the agency or to assume control of or responsibility for any of the principal's property, care or affairs, regardless of the principal's physical or mental condition. Whenever a power is exercised, the agent shall act in good faith for the benefit of the principal using due care, competence, and diligence in accordance with the terms of the agency and shall be liable for negligent exercise. An agent who acts with due care for the benefit of the principal shall not be liable or limited merely because the agent also benefits from the act, has individual or conflicting interests in relation to the property, care or affairs of the principal or acts in a different manner with respect to the agency and the agent's individual interests. The agent shall not be affected by any amendment or termination of the agency until the agent has actual knowledge thereof. The agent shall not be liable for any loss due to error of judgment nor for the act or default of any other person.

(b) An agent that has accepted appointment must act in accordance with the principal's expectations to the extent actually known to the agent and otherwise in the principal's best interests.

(c) An agent shall keep a record of all receipts, disbursements, and significant actions taken under the authority of the agency and shall provide a copy of this record when requested to do so by:

(1) the principal, a guardian, another fiduciary acting on behalf of the principal, and, after the death of the principal, the personal representative or successors in interest of the principal's estate;

(2) a representative of a provider agency, as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, acting in the course of an assessment of a complaint of elder abuse or neglect under that Act;

(3) a representative of the Office of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman, acting in the course of an investigation of a complaint of financial exploitation of a nursing home resident under Section 4.04 of the Illinois Act on the Aging;

(4) a representative of the Office of Inspector General for the Department of Human Services, acting in the course of an assessment of a complaint of financial exploitation of an adult with disabilities pursuant to Section 35 of the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act;

(5) a court under Section 2-10 of this Act; or

(6) a representative of the Office of State Guardian or public guardian for the county in which the principal resides acting in the course of investigating whether to file a petition for guardianship of the principal under Section 11a-4 or 11a-8 of the Probate Act of 1975.

(d) If the agent fails to provide his or her record of all receipts, disbursements, and significant actions within 21 days after a request under subsection (c), the adult abuse provider agency, the State Guardian, the public guardian, or the State Long Term Care Ombudsman may petition the court for an order requiring the agent to produce his or her record of receipts, disbursements, and significant actions. If the court finds that the agent's failure to provide his or her record in a timely manner to the adult abuse provider agency, the State Guardian, the public guardian, or the State Long Term Care Ombudsman was without good cause, the court may assess reasonable costs and attorney's fees against the agent, and order such other relief as is appropriate.

(e) An agent is not required to disclose receipts, disbursements, or other significant actions conducted on behalf of the principal except as otherwise provided in the power of attorney or as required under subsection (c).

(f) An agent that violates this Act is liable to the principal or the principal's successors in interest for the amount required (i) to restore the value of the principal's property to what it would have been had the violation not occurred, and (ii) to reimburse the principal or the principal's successors in interest for the attorney's fees and costs paid on the agent's behalf. This subsection does not limit any other applicable legal or equitable remedies.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-562, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-24-13.)

(755 ILCS 45/2-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 802-10)

Sec. 2-10. Agency-court relationship.

(a) Upon petition by any interested person (including the agent), with such notice to interested persons as the court directs and a finding by the court that the principal lacks either the capacity to control or the capacity to revoke the agency, the court may construe a power of attorney, review the agent's conduct, and grant appropriate relief including compensatory damages.

(b) If the court finds that the agent is not acting for the benefit of the principal in accordance with the terms of the agency or that the agent's action or inaction has caused or threatens substantial harm to the principal's person or property in a manner not authorized or intended by the principal, the court may order a guardian of the principal's person or estate to exercise any powers of the principal under the agency, including the power to revoke the agency, or may enter such other orders without appointment of a guardian as the court deems necessary to provide for the best interests of the principal.

(c) If the court finds that the agency requires interpretation, the court may construe the agency and instruct the agent, but the court may not amend the agency.

(d) If the court finds that the agent has not acted for the benefit of the principal in accordance with the terms of the agency and the Illinois Power of Attorney Act, or that the agent's action caused or threatened substantial harm to the principal's person or property in a manner not authorized or intended by the principal, then the agent shall not be authorized to pay or be reimbursed from the estate of the principal the attorneys' fees and costs of the agent in defending a proceeding brought pursuant to this Section.

(e) Upon a finding that the agent's action has caused substantial harm to the principal's person or property, the court may assess against the agent reasonable costs and attorney's fees to a prevailing party who is a provider agency as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, a representative of the Office of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman, the State Guardian, a public guardian, or a governmental agency having regulatory authority to protect the welfare of the principal.

(f) As used in this Section, the term "interested person" includes (1) the principal or the agent; (2) a guardian of the person, guardian of the estate, or other fiduciary charged with management of the principal's property; (3) the principal's spouse, parent, or descendant; (4) a person who would be a presumptive heir-at-law of the principal; (5) a person named as a beneficiary to receive any property, benefit, or contractual right upon the principal's death, or as a beneficiary of a trust created by or for the principal; (6) a provider agency as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, a representative of the Office of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman, the State Guardian, a public guardian, or a governmental agency having regulatory authority to protect the welfare of the principal; and (7) the principal's caregiver or another person who demonstrates sufficient interest in the principal's welfare.

(g) Absent court order directing a guardian to exercise powers of the principal under the agency, a guardian will have no power, duty or liability with respect to any property subject to the agency or any personal or health care matters covered by the agency.

(h) Proceedings under this Section shall be commenced in the county where the guardian was appointed or, if no Illinois guardian is acting, then in the county where the agent or principal resides or where the principal owns real property.

(i) This Section shall not be construed to limit any other remedies available.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-562, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 770. The Illinois Anatomical Gift Act is amended by changing Section 1-10 as follows:

(755 ILCS 50/1-10) (was 755 ILCS 50/2)

Sec. 1-10. Definitions.

"Close friend" means any person 18 years of age or older who has exhibited special care and concern for the decedent and who presents an affidavit to the decedent's attending physician, or the hospital administrator or his or her designated representative, stating that he or she (i) was a close friend of the decedent, (ii) is willing and able to authorize the donation, and (iii) maintained such regular contact with the decedent as to be familiar with the decedent's health and social history, and religious and moral beliefs. The affidavit must also state facts and circumstances that demonstrate that familiarity.

"Death" means, for the purposes of the Act, when, according to accepted medical standards, there is (i) an irreversible cessation of circulatory and respiratory functions; or (ii) an irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brain stem.

"Decedent" means a deceased individual and includes a stillborn infant or fetus.

"Disinterested witness" means a witness other than the spouse, child, parent, sibling, grandchild, grandparent, or guardian of the individual who makes, amends, revokes, or refuses to make an anatomical gift, or another adult who exhibited special care and concern for the individual. The term does not include a person to whom an anatomical gift could pass under Section 5-12.

"Document of gift" means a donor card or other record used to make an anatomical gift. The term includes a donor registry.

"Donee" means the individual designated by the donor as the intended recipient or an entity which receives the anatomical gift, including, but not limited to, a hospital; an accredited medical school, dental school, college, or university; an organ procurement organization; an eye bank; a tissue bank; for research or education, a non-transplant anatomic bank; or other appropriate person.

"Donor" means an individual whose body or part is the subject of an anatomical gift..

"Hospital" means a hospital licensed, accredited or approved under the laws of any state; and includes a hospital operated by the United States government, a state, or a subdivision thereof, although not required to be licensed under state laws.

"Non-transplant anatomic bank" means any facility or program operating or providing services in this State that is accredited by the American Association of Tissue Banks and that is involved in procuring, furnishing, or distributing whole bodies or parts for the purpose of medical education. For purposes of this Section, a non-transplant anatomic bank operating under the auspices of a hospital, accredited medical school, dental school, college or university, or federally designated organ procurement organization is not required to be accredited by the American Association of Tissue Banks.

"Organ" means a human kidney, liver, heart, lung, pancreas, small bowel, or other transplantable vascular body part as determined by the Organ Procurement and Transplantation Network, as periodically selected by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.

"Organ procurement organization" means the organ procurement organization designated by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for the service area in which a hospital is located, or the organ procurement organization for which the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services has granted the hospital a waiver pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 1320b-8(a).

"Part" means organs, tissues, eyes, bones, arteries, blood, other fluids and any other portions of a human body.

"Person" means an individual, corporation, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association or any other legal entity.

"Physician" or "surgeon" means a physician or surgeon licensed or authorized to practice medicine in all of its branches under the laws of any state.

"Procurement organization" means an organ procurement organization or a tissue bank.

"Reasonably available for the giving of consent or refusal" means being able to be contacted by a procurement organization without undue effort and being willing and able to act in a timely manner consistent with existing medical criteria necessary for the making of an anatomical gift.

"Recipient" means an individual into whose body a donor's part has been or is intended to be transplanted.

"State" includes any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession, and any other area subject to the legislative authority of the United States of America.

"Technician" means an individual trained and certified to remove tissue, by a recognized medical training institution in the State of Illinois.

"Tissue" means eyes, bones, heart valves, veins, skin, and any other portions of a human body excluding blood, blood products or organs.

"Tissue bank" means any facility or program operating in Illinois that is accredited by the American Association of Tissue Banks, the Eye Bank Association of America, or the Association of Organ Procurement Organizations and is involved in procuring, furnishing, donating, or distributing corneas, bones, or other human tissue for the purpose of injecting, transfusing, or transplanting any of them into the human body or for the purpose of research or education. "Tissue bank" does not include a licensed blood bank. For the purposes of this Act, "tissue" does not include organs or blood or blood products.

(Source: P.A. 98-172, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)

Section 775. The Common Interest Community Association Act is amended by changing Section 1-30 as follows:

(765 ILCS 160/1-30)

Sec. 1-30. Board duties and obligations; records.

(a) The board shall meet at least 4 times annually.

(b) A common interest community association may not enter into a contract with a current board member, or with a corporation or partnership in which a board member or a member of his or her immediate family has 25% or more interest, unless notice of intent to enter into the contract is given to members within 20 days after a decision is made to enter into the contract and the members are afforded an opportunity by filing a petition, signed by 20% of the membership, for an election to approve or disapprove the contract; such petition shall be filed within 20 days after such notice and such election shall be held within 30 days after filing the petition. For purposes of this subsection, a board member's immediate family means the board member's spouse, parents, siblings, and children.

(c) The bylaws shall provide for the maintenance, repair, and replacement of the common areas and payments therefor, including the method of approving payment vouchers.

(d) (Blank).

(e) The association may engage the services of a manager or management company.

(f) The association shall have one class of membership unless the declaration or bylaws provide otherwise; however, this subsection (f) shall not be construed to limit the operation of subsection (c) of Section 1-20 of this Act.

(g) The board shall have the power, after notice and an opportunity to be heard, to levy and collect reasonable fines from members or unit owners for violations of the declaration, bylaws, and rules and regulations of the common interest community association.

(h) Other than attorney's fees and court or arbitration costs, no fees pertaining to the collection of a member's or unit owner's financial obligation to the association, including fees charged by a manager or managing agent, shall be added to and deemed a part of a member's or unit owner's respective share of the common expenses unless: (i) the managing agent fees relate to the costs to collect common expenses for the association; (ii) the fees are set forth in a contract between the managing agent and the association; and (iii) the authority to add the management fees to a member's or unit owner's respective share of the common expenses is specifically stated in the declaration or bylaws of the association.

(i) Board records.

(1) The board shall maintain the following records of the association and make them available for examination and copying at convenient hours of weekdays by any member or unit owner in a common interest community subject to the authority of the board, their mortgagees, and their duly authorized agents or attorneys:

(i) Copies of the recorded declaration, other community instruments, other duly recorded covenants and bylaws and any amendments, articles of incorporation, annual reports, and any rules and regulations adopted by the board shall be available. Prior to the organization of the board, the developer shall maintain and make available the records set forth in this paragraph (i) for examination and copying.

(ii) Detailed and accurate records in chronological order of the receipts and expenditures affecting the common areas, specifying and itemizing the maintenance and repair expenses of the common areas and any other expenses incurred, and copies of all contracts, leases, or other agreements entered into by the board shall be maintained.

(iii) The minutes of all meetings of the board which shall be maintained for not less than 7 years.

(iv) With a written statement of a proper purpose, ballots and proxies related thereto, if any, for any election held for the board and for any other matters voted on by the members, which shall be maintained for not less than one year.

(v) With a written statement of a proper purpose, such other records of the board as are available for inspection by members of a not-for-profit corporation pursuant to Section 107.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 shall be maintained.

(vi) With respect to units owned by a land trust, a living trust, or other legal entity, the trustee, officer, or manager of the entity may designate, in writing, a person to cast votes on behalf of the member or unit owner and a designation shall remain in effect until a subsequent document is filed with the association.

(2) Where a request for records under this subsection is made in writing to the board or its agent, failure to provide the requested record or to respond within 30 days shall be deemed a denial by the board.

(3) A reasonable fee may be charged by the board for the cost of retrieving and copying records properly requested.

(4) If the board fails to provide records properly requested under paragraph (1) of this subsection (i) within the time period provided in that paragraph (1), the member may seek appropriate relief and shall be entitled to an award of reasonable attorney's fees and costs if the member prevails and the court finds that such failure is due to the acts or omissions of the board of managers or the board of directors.

(j) The board shall have standing and capacity to act in a representative capacity in relation to matters involving the common areas or more than one unit, on behalf of the members or unit owners as their interests may appear.

(Source: P.A. 97-605, eff. 8-26-11; 97-1090, eff. 8-24-12; 98-232, eff. 1-1-14; 98-241, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 780. The Illinois Coordinate System Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(765 ILCS 225/3) (from Ch. 133, par. 103)

Sec. 3. For the purpose of the use of the Illinois Coordinate System, the State is divided into an "East Zone" and a "West Zone".

The area now included in the following counties constitutes the "East Zone": Boone, Champaign, Clark, Clay, Coles, Cook, Crawford, Cumberland, DeKalb, DeWitt, Douglas, DuPage, Edgar, Edwards, Effingham, Fayette, Ford, Franklin, Gallatin, Grundy, Hamilton, Hardin, Iroquois, Jasper, Jefferson, Johnson, Kane, Kankakee, Kendall, Lake, LaSalle, Lawrence, Livingston, McHenry, McLean, Macon, Marion, Massac, Moultrie, Piatt, Pope, Richland, Saline, Shelby, Vermilion, Wabash, Wayne, White, Will and Williamson.

The area now included in the following counties constitutes the "West Zone": Adams, Alexander, Bond, Brown, Bureau, Calhoun, Carroll, Cass, Christian, Clinton, Fulton, Greene, Hancock, Henderson, Henry, Jackson, Jersey, Jo Daviess JoDaviess, Knox, Lee, Logan, McDonough, Macoupin, Madison, Marshall, Mason, Menard, Mercer, Monroe, Montgomery, Morgan, Ogle, Peoria, Perry, Pike, Pulaski, Putnam, Randolph, Rock Island, St. Clair, Sangamon, Schuyler, Scott, Stark, Stephenson, Tazewell, Union, Warren, Washington, Whiteside, Winnebago and Woodford.

(Source: P.A. 83-742; revised 11-22-13.)

Section 785. The Security Deposit Return Act is amended by changing Section 1.2 as follows:

(765 ILCS 710/1.2)

Sec. 1.2. Security deposit transfer. Notwithstanding Section 1.1, when a lessor transfers actual possession of a security deposit received from a lessee, including any statutory interest that has not been paid to a lessee, to a holder of the certificate of sale or deed issued pursuant to that certificate or, if no certificate or deed was issued, the purchaser of a foreclosed property under Article XV 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the holder or purchaser shall be liable to a lessee for the transferred security deposit, including any statutory interest that has not been paid to the lessee, as provided in this Act. Within 21 days after the transfer of the security deposits and receipt of the name and address of any lessee who paid a deposit, the holder or purchaser shall post a written notice on the primary entrance of each dwelling unit at the property with respect to which the holder or purchaser has acquired actual possession of a security deposit. The written notice shall state that the holder or purchaser has acquired the security deposit paid by the lessee in connection with the lessee's rental of that dwelling unit.

(Source: P.A. 97-575, eff. 8-26-11; revised 11-22-13.)

Section 790. The Cemetery Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 13 and 14 as follows:

(765 ILCS 835/13) (from Ch. 21, par. 21.6)

Sec. 13. In the event that, at any time within one year after adjudication of abandonment, the owner or claimant of an a interment right, entombment rights in a community mausoleum or lawn crypt section, or an inurnment right in a community columbarium which has been adjudged abandoned, shall contact the court or the cemetery authority and pay all maintenance or care charges that are due and unpaid, shall reimburse the cemetery authority for the costs of suit and necessary expenses incurred in the proceeding with respect to such interment right, entombment rights in a community mausoleum or lawn crypt section, or inurnment right in a community columbarium and shall contract for its future care and maintenance, then such lot, or part thereof, shall not be sold as herein provided and, upon petition of the owner or claimant, the order or judgment adjudging the same to have been abandoned shall be vacated as to such interment right, entombment rights in a community mausoleum or lawn crypt section, or inurnment right in a community columbarium.

(Source: P.A. 94-44, eff. 6-17-05; revised 11-22-13.)

(765 ILCS 835/14) (from Ch. 21, par. 21.7)

Sec. 14. After the expiration of one year from the date of entry of an order adjudging an a interment right, entombment rights in a community mausoleum or lawn crypt section, or inurnment right in a community columbarium to have been abandoned, a cemetery authority shall have the right to do so and may sell such interment right, entombment rights in a community mausoleum or lawn crypt section, or inurnment right in a community columbarium at public sale and grant an easement therein for burial purposes to the purchaser at such sale, subject to the interment of any human remains theretofore placed therein and the right to maintain memorials placed thereon. A cemetery authority may bid at and purchase such interment right, entombment rights in a community mausoleum or lawn crypt section, or inurnment right in a community columbarium at such sale.

Notice of the time and place of any sale held pursuant to an order adjudicating abandonment of a cemetery interment right, entombment rights in a community mausoleum or lawn crypt section, or inurnment right in a community columbarium shall be published once in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the cemetery is located, such publication to be not less than 30 days prior to the date of sale.

The proceeds derived from any sale shall be used to reimburse the petitioner for the costs of suit and necessary expenses, including attorney's fees, incurred by petitioner in the proceeding, and the balance, if any, shall be deposited into the cemetery authority's care fund or, if there is no care fund, used by the cemetery authority for the care of its cemetery and for no other purpose.

(Source: P.A. 94-44, eff. 6-17-05; revised 11-22-13.)

Section 795. The Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act is amended by changing Section 18 as follows:

(765 ILCS 1025/18) (from Ch. 141, par. 118)

Sec. 18. Deposit of funds received under the Act.

(a) The State Treasurer shall retain all funds received under this Act, including the proceeds from the sale of abandoned property under Section 17, in a trust fund. The State Treasurer may deposit any amount in the Trust Fund into the State Pensions Fund during the fiscal year at his or her discretion; however, he or she shall, on April 15 and October 15 of each year, deposit any amount in the trust fund exceeding $2,500,000 into the State Pensions Fund. If on either April 15 or October 15, the State Treasurer determines that a balance of $2,500,000 is insufficient for the prompt payment of unclaimed property claims authorized under this Act, the Treasurer may retain more than $2,500,000 in the Unclaimed Property Trust Fund in order to ensure the prompt payment of claims. Beginning in State fiscal year 2015, all amounts that are deposited into the State Pensions Fund from the Unclaimed Property Trust Fund shall be apportioned to the designated retirement systems as provided in subsection (c-6) of Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act to reduce their actuarial reserve deficiencies. He or she shall make prompt payment of claims he or she duly allows as provided for in this Act for the trust fund. Before making the deposit the State Treasurer shall record the name and last known address of each person appearing from the holders' reports to be entitled to the abandoned property. The record shall be available for public inspection during reasonable business hours.

(b) Before making any deposit to the credit of the State Pensions Fund, the State Treasurer may deduct: (1) any costs in connection with sale of abandoned property, (2) any costs of mailing and publication in connection with any abandoned property, and (3) any costs in connection with the maintenance of records or disposition of claims made pursuant to this Act. The State Treasurer shall semiannually file an itemized report of all such expenses with the Legislative Audit Commission.

(Source: P.A. 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; 98-19, eff. 6-10-13; 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 800. The Business Corporation Act of 1983 is amended by changing Section 15.75 as follows:

(805 ILCS 5/15.75) (from Ch. 32, par. 15.75)

Sec. 15.75. Rate of franchise taxes payable by foreign corporations.

(a) The annual franchise tax payable by each foreign corporation shall be computed at the rate of 1/12 of 1/10 of 1% for each calendar month or fraction thereof for the period commencing on the first day of July 1983 to the first day of the anniversary month in 1984, but in no event shall the amount of the annual franchise tax be less than $2.083333 per month based on a minimum of $25 per annum or more than $83,333.333333 per month; commencing on January 1, 1984 to the first day of the anniversary month in 2004, the annual franchise tax payable by each foreign corporation shall be computed at the rate of 1/10 of 1% for the 12-months' period commencing on the first day of the anniversary month or, in the case of a corporation that has established an extended filing month, the extended filing month of the corporation, but in no event shall the amount of the annual franchise tax be less than $25 nor more than $1,000,000 per annum; commencing on January 1, 2004, the annual franchise tax payable by each foreign corporation shall be computed at the rate of 1/10 of 1% for the 12-month period commencing on the first day of the anniversary month or, in the case of a corporation that has established an extended filing month, the extended filing month of the corporation, but in no event shall the amount of the annual franchise tax be less than $25 nor more than then $2,000,000 per annum.

(b) The annual franchise tax payable by each foreign corporation at the time of filing a statement of election and interim annual report in connection with an anniversary month prior to January, 2004 shall be computed at the rate of 1/10 of 1% for the 12 month period commencing on the first day of the anniversary month of the corporation next following the filing, but in no event shall the amount of the annual franchise tax be less than $25 nor more than $1,000,000 per annum; commencing with the first anniversary month that occurs after December, 2003, the annual franchise tax payable by each foreign corporation at the time of filing a statement of election and interim annual report shall be computed at the rate of 1/10 of 1% for the 12-month period commencing on the first day of the anniversary month of the corporation next following such filing, but in no event shall the amount of the annual franchise tax be less than $25 nor more than $2,000,000 per annum.

(c) The annual franchise tax payable at the time of filing the final transition annual report in connection with an anniversary month prior to January, 2004 shall be an amount equal to (i) 1/12 of 1/10 of 1% per month of the proportion of paid-in capital represented in this State as shown in the final transition annual report multiplied by (ii) the number of months commencing with the anniversary month next following the filing of the statement of election until, but excluding, the second extended filing month, less the annual franchise tax theretofore paid at the time of filing the statement of election, but in no event shall the amount of the annual franchise tax be less than $2.083333 per month based on a minimum of $25 per annum or more than $83,333.333333 per month; commencing with the first anniversary month that occurs after December, 2003, the annual franchise tax payable at the time of filing the final transition annual report shall be an amount equal to (i) 1/12 of 1/10 of 1% per month of the proportion of paid-in capital represented in this State as shown in the final transition annual report multiplied by (ii) the number of months commencing with the anniversary month next following the filing of the statement of election until, but excluding, the second extended filing month, less the annual franchise tax theretofore paid at the time of filing the statement of election, but in no event shall the amount of the annual franchise tax be less than $2.083333 per month based on a minimum of $25 per annum or more than $166,666.666666 per month.

(d) The initial franchise tax payable after January 1, 1983, but prior to January 1, 1991, by each foreign corporation shall be computed at the rate of 1/10 of 1% for the 12 months' period commencing on the first day of the anniversary month in which the application for authority is filed by the corporation under Section 13.15 of this Act, but in no event shall the franchise tax be less than $25 nor more than $1,000,000 per annum. Except in the case of a foreign corporation that has begun transacting business in Illinois prior to January 1, 1991, the initial franchise tax payable on or after January 1, 1991, by each foreign corporation, shall be computed at the rate of 15/100 of 1% for the 12-month period commencing on the first day of the anniversary month in which the application for authority is filed by the corporation under Section 13.15 of this Act, but in no event shall the franchise tax for a taxable year commencing prior to January 1, 2004 be less than $25 nor more than $1,000,000 per annum plus 1/20 of 1% of the basis therefor and in no event shall the franchise tax for a taxable year commencing on or after January 1, 2004 be less than $25 or more than $2,000,000 per annum plus 1/20 of 1% of the basis therefor.

(e) Whenever the application for authority indicates that the corporation commenced transacting business:

(1) prior to January 1, 1991, the initial franchise tax shall be computed at the rate of 1/12 of 1/10 of 1% for each calendar month; or

(2) after December 31, 1990, the initial franchise tax shall be computed at the rate of 1/12 of 15/100 of 1% for each calendar month.

(f) Each additional franchise tax payable by each foreign corporation for the period beginning January 1, 1983 through December 31, 1983 shall be computed at the rate of 1/12 of 1/10 of 1% for each calendar month or fraction thereof between the date of each respective increase in its paid-in capital and its anniversary month in 1984; thereafter until the last day of the month that is both after December 31, 1990 and the third month immediately preceding the anniversary month in 1991, each additional franchise tax payable by each foreign corporation shall be computed at the rate of 1/12 of 1/10 of 1% for each calendar month, or fraction thereof, between the date of each respective increase in its paid-in capital and its next anniversary month; however, if the increase occurs within the 2 month period immediately preceding the anniversary month, the tax shall be computed to the anniversary month of the next succeeding calendar year. Commencing with increases in paid-in capital that occur subsequent to both December 31, 1990 and the last day of the third month immediately preceding the anniversary month in 1991, the additional franchise tax payable by a foreign corporation shall be computed at the rate of 15/100 of 1%.

(Source: P.A. 92-33, eff. 7-1-01; 93-32, eff. 12-1-03; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 805. The Illinois Securities Law of 1953 is amended by changing Section 11.5 as follows:

(815 ILCS 5/11.5)

Sec. 11.5. Securities exchange registration.

(a) A person shall not operate a securities exchange in this State unless it has been registered with the Secretary of State.

(b) The Secretary of State shall adopt rules or regulations necessary to carry out the provisions of this Section, including rules or regulations prescribing:

(1) The fees for the registration of a securities exchange; and

(2) The bonding and minimum capitalization requirements for a securities exchange.

(c) The Securities Director, or his or her designee, shall investigate the qualifications of each person who applies to the Secretary of State for the registration of a securities exchange. The applicant shall pay the cost of the investigation.

(d) The Secretary of State may deny, suspend, or revoke the registration of a securities exchange if the Securities Director, or his or her designee, determines that such action is in the public interest and the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section are applicable to the person who applied for the registration of a securities exchange.

(e) A securities exchange located in this State shall not allow the trading of a security in this State unless it is issued by an issuer that has complied with the requirements of this Act and any other applicable requirements of federal or State law.

(f) Any transaction, solicitation, or other activity directly related to the purchase, sale, or other transfer of securities listed on a securities exchange located in this State shall be deemed to be a transaction in this State.

(g) The Secretary of State may establish reasonable fees by rule or regulation.

(h) A registered dealer or salesperson shall not use a securities exchange to effect or report any transaction concerning a security unless the securities exchange is registered with the Secretary of State or is excluded from the provisions of Section 2.28 and this Section of the Act.

(Source: P.A. 89-209, eff. 1-1-96; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 810. The Waste Oil Recovery Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(815 ILCS 440/2) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 7702)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, words and phrases shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 3 Sections 2.1 through 2.10.

(Source: P.A. 81-379; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 815. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by changing Section 2MM as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2MM)

Sec. 2MM. Verification of accuracy of consumer reporting information used to extend consumers credit and security freeze on credit reports.

(a) A credit card issuer who mails an offer or solicitation to apply for a credit card and who receives a completed application in response to the offer or solicitation which lists an address that is not substantially the same as the address on the offer or solicitation may not issue a credit card based on that application until reasonable steps have been taken to verify the applicant's change of address.

(b) Any person who uses a consumer credit report in connection with the approval of credit based on the application for an extension of credit, and who has received notification of a police report filed with a consumer reporting agency that the applicant has been a victim of financial identity theft, as defined in Section 16-30 or 16G-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, may not lend money or extend credit without taking reasonable steps to verify the consumer's identity and confirm that the application for an extension of credit is not the result of financial identity theft.

(c) A consumer may request that a security freeze be placed on his or her credit report by sending a request in writing by certified mail to a consumer reporting agency at an address designated by the consumer reporting agency to receive such requests.

The following persons may request that a security freeze be placed on the credit report of a disabled person:

(1) a guardian of the disabled person that is the subject of the request, appointed under Article XIa of the Probate Act of 1975; and

(2) an agent of the disabled person that is the subject of the request, under a written durable power of attorney that complies with the Illinois Power of Attorney Act.

The following persons may request that a security freeze be placed on the credit report of a minor:

(1) a guardian of the minor that is the subject of the request, appointed under Article XI of the Probate Act of 1975;

(2) a parent of the minor that is the subject of the request; and

(3) a guardian appointed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for a minor under the age of 18 who is the subject of the request or, with a court order authorizing the guardian consent power, for a youth who is the subject of the request who has attained the age of 18, but who is under the age of 21.

This subsection (c) does not prevent a consumer reporting agency from advising a third party that a security freeze is in effect with respect to the consumer's credit report.

(d) A consumer reporting agency shall place a security freeze on a consumer's credit report no later than 5 business days after receiving a written request from the consumer:

(1) a written request described in subsection (c);

(2) proper identification; and

(3) payment of a fee, if applicable.

(e) Upon placing the security freeze on the consumer's credit report, the consumer reporting agency shall send to the consumer within 10 business days a written confirmation of the placement of the security freeze and a unique personal identification number or password or similar device, other than the consumer's Social Security number, to be used by the consumer when providing authorization for the release of his or her credit report for a specific party or period of time.

(f) If the consumer wishes to allow his or her credit report to be accessed for a specific party or period of time while a freeze is in place, he or she shall contact the consumer reporting agency using a point of contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, request that the freeze be temporarily lifted, and provide the following:

(1) Proper identification;

(2) The unique personal identification number or password or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency;

(3) The proper information regarding the third party or time period for which the report shall be available to users of the credit report; and

(4) A fee, if applicable.

A security freeze for a minor may not be temporarily lifted. This Section does not require a consumer reporting agency to provide to a minor or a parent or guardian of a minor on behalf of the minor a unique personal identification number, password, or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency for the minor, or parent or guardian of the minor, to use to authorize the consumer reporting agency to release information from a minor.

(g) A consumer reporting agency shall develop a contact method to receive and process a request from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to subsection (f) in an expedited manner.

A contact method under this subsection shall include: (i) a postal address; and (ii) an electronic contact method chosen by the consumer reporting agency, which may include the use of telephone, fax, Internet, or other electronic means.

(h) A consumer reporting agency that receives a request from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to subsection (f), shall comply with the request no later than 3 business days after receiving the request.

(i) A consumer reporting agency shall remove or temporarily lift a freeze placed on a consumer's credit report only in the following cases:

(1) upon consumer request, pursuant to subsection (f) or subsection (l) of this Section; or

(2) if the consumer's credit report was frozen due to a material misrepresentation of fact by the consumer.

If a consumer reporting agency intends to remove a freeze upon a consumer's credit report pursuant to this subsection, the consumer reporting agency shall notify the consumer in writing prior to removing the freeze on the consumer's credit report.

(j) If a third party requests access to a credit report on which a security freeze is in effect, and this request is in connection with an application for credit or any other use, and the consumer does not allow his or her credit report to be accessed for that specific party or period of time, the third party may treat the application as incomplete.

(k) If a consumer requests a security freeze, the credit reporting agency shall disclose to the consumer the process of placing and temporarily lifting a security freeze, and the process for allowing access to information from the consumer's credit report for a specific party or period of time while the freeze is in place.

(l) A security freeze shall remain in place until the consumer or person authorized under subsection (c) to act on behalf of the minor or disabled person that is the subject of the security freeze requests, using a point of contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, that the security freeze be removed. A credit reporting agency shall remove a security freeze within 3 business days of receiving a request for removal from the consumer, who provides:

(1) Proper identification;

(2) The unique personal identification number or password or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency; and

(3) A fee, if applicable.

(m) A consumer reporting agency shall require proper identification of the person making a request to place or remove a security freeze and may require proper identification and proper authority from the person making the request to place or remove a freeze on behalf of the disabled person or minor.

(n) The provisions of subsections (c) through (m) of this Section do not apply to the use of a consumer credit report by any of the following:

(1) A person or entity, or a subsidiary, affiliate, or agent of that person or entity, or an assignee of a financial obligation owing by the consumer to that person or entity, or a prospective assignee of a financial obligation owing by the consumer to that person or entity in conjunction with the proposed purchase of the financial obligation, with which the consumer has or had prior to assignment an account or contract, including a demand deposit account, or to whom the consumer issued a negotiable instrument, for the purposes of reviewing the account or collecting the financial obligation owing for the account, contract, or negotiable instrument. For purposes of this subsection, "reviewing the account" includes activities related to account maintenance, monitoring, credit line increases, and account upgrades and enhancements.

(2) A subsidiary, affiliate, agent, assignee, or prospective assignee of a person to whom access has been granted under subsection (f) of this Section for purposes of facilitating the extension of credit or other permissible use.

(3) Any state or local agency, law enforcement agency, trial court, or private collection agency acting pursuant to a court order, warrant, or subpoena.

(4) A child support agency acting pursuant to Title IV-D of the Social Security Act.

(5) The State or its agents or assigns acting to investigate fraud.

(6) The Department of Revenue or its agents or assigns acting to investigate or collect delinquent taxes or unpaid court orders or to fulfill any of its other statutory responsibilities.

(7) The use of credit information for the purposes of prescreening as provided for by the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act.

(8) Any person or entity administering a credit file monitoring subscription or similar service to which the consumer has subscribed.

(9) Any person or entity for the purpose of providing a consumer with a copy of his or her credit report or score upon the consumer's request.

(10) Any person using the information in connection with the underwriting of insurance.

(n-5) This Section does not prevent a consumer reporting agency from charging a fee of no more than $10 to a consumer for each freeze, removal, or temporary lift of the freeze, regarding access to a consumer credit report, except that a consumer reporting agency may not charge a fee to (i) a consumer 65 years of age or over for placement and removal of a freeze, or (ii) a victim of identity theft who has submitted to the consumer reporting agency a valid copy of a police report, investigative report, or complaint that the consumer has filed with a law enforcement agency about unlawful use of his or her personal information by another person.

(o) If a security freeze is in place, a consumer reporting agency shall not change any of the following official information in a credit report without sending a written confirmation of the change to the consumer within 30 days of the change being posted to the consumer's file: (i) name, (ii) date of birth, (iii) Social Security number, and (iv) address. Written confirmation is not required for technical modifications of a consumer's official information, including name and street abbreviations, complete spellings, or transposition of numbers or letters. In the case of an address change, the written confirmation shall be sent to both the new address and to the former address.

(p) The following entities are not required to place a security freeze in a consumer report, however, pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection, a consumer reporting agency acting as a reseller shall honor any security freeze placed on a consumer credit report by another consumer reporting agency:

(1) A check services or fraud prevention services company, which issues reports on incidents of fraud or authorizations for the purpose of approving or processing negotiable instruments, electronic funds transfers, or similar methods of payment.

(2) A deposit account information service company, which issues reports regarding account closures due to fraud, substantial overdrafts, ATM abuse, or similar negative information regarding a consumer to inquiring banks or other financial institutions for use only in reviewing a consumer request for a deposit account at the inquiring bank or financial institution.

(3) A consumer reporting agency that:

(A) acts only to resell credit information by assembling and merging information contained in a database of one or more consumer reporting agencies; and

(B) does not maintain a permanent database of credit information from which new credit reports are produced.

(q) For purposes of this Section:

"Credit report" has the same meaning as "consumer report", as ascribed to it in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(d).

"Consumer reporting agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(f).

"Security freeze" means a notice placed in a consumer's credit report, at the request of the consumer and subject to certain exceptions, that prohibits the consumer reporting agency from releasing the consumer's credit report or score relating to an extension of credit, without the express authorization of the consumer.

"Extension of credit" does not include an increase in an existing open-end credit plan, as defined in Regulation Z of the Federal Reserve System (12 C.F.R. 226.2), or any change to or review of an existing credit account.

"Proper authority" means documentation that shows that a parent, guardian, or agent has authority to act on behalf of a minor or disabled person. "Proper authority" includes (1) an order issued by a court of law that shows that a guardian has authority to act on behalf of a minor or disabled person, (2) a written, notarized statement signed by a parent that expressly describes the authority of the parent to act on behalf of the minor, or (3) a durable power of attorney that complies with the Illinois Power of Attorney Act.

"Proper identification" means information generally deemed sufficient to identify a person. Only if the consumer is unable to reasonably identify himself or herself with the information described above, may a consumer reporting agency require additional information concerning the consumer's employment and personal or family history in order to verify his or her identity.

(r) Any person who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-486, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 820. The Dating Referral Services Act is amended by changing Sections 20 and 25 as follows:

(815 ILCS 615/20) (from Ch. 29, par. 1051-20)

Sec. 20. Cancellation and refund requirements.

(a) Every contract for dating referral services shall provide the following:

(1) That the contract may be cancelled by the customer within 3 business days after the first business day after the contract is signed by the customer, and that all monies paid under the contract shall be refunded to the customer. For the purposes of this Section, "business day" means any day on which the facility is open for business. A customer purchasing a plan at a facility that has not yet opened for business at the time the contract is signed, or who does not purchase a contract at an existing facility, shall have 7 calendar days in which to cancel the contract and receive a full refund of all monies paid. The customer's rights to cancel described in this Section are in addition to any other contract rights or remedies provided by law.

(2) In the event of the relocation of a customer's residence to a location that is more than 20 miles farther than the original distance from the customer's residence to the original enterprise, and upon the failure of the original enterprise to designate an a enterprise, with comparable facilities and services within 25 miles of the customer's new residence that agrees to accept the original enterprise's obligations under the contract, the customer may cancel the contract and shall be liable for only that portion of the charges allocable to the time before reasonable evidence of the relocation is presented to the enterprise, plus a reasonable fee if so provided in the contract, but the fee shall not exceed 10% of the unused balance, or $50, whichever is less.

(3) If the customer dies during the term of the contract, the customer's estate shall be liable for only that portion of the charges allocable to the time before the customer's death. The enterprise shall have the right to require and verify reasonable evidence of the death.

(b) Every contract for dating referral services shall provide that notice of cancellation under subsection (a) of this Section shall be made in writing and delivered by certified or registered mail to the enterprise at the address specified in the contract. All refunds to which a customer or his or her estate is entitled shall be made within 30 days of receipt by the enterprise of the cancellation notice.

(Source: P.A. 87-450; revised 11-14-13.)

(815 ILCS 615/25) (from Ch. 29, par. 1051-25)

Sec. 25. Contract requirements for planned enterprises. Every contract for dating referral services at a planned dating referral enterprise or an a enterprise under construction shall further provide that, in the event that the facilities and services contracted for are not available within 6 months from the date the contract is entered into, or within 3 months of a date specified in the contract, whichever is earlier, the contract may be cancelled at the option of the customer, and all payments refunded within 30 days of receipt by the enterprise of the cancellation notice.

(Source: P.A. 87-450; revised 11-14-13.)

Section 825. The Prevailing Wage Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 5 as follows:

(820 ILCS 130/2) (from Ch. 48, par. 39s-2)

Sec. 2. This Act applies to the wages of laborers, mechanics and other workers employed in any public works, as hereinafter defined, by any public body and to anyone under contracts for public works. This includes any maintenance, repair, assembly, or disassembly work performed on equipment whether owned, leased, or rented.

As used in this Act, unless the context indicates otherwise:

"Public works" means all fixed works constructed or demolished by any public body, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds. "Public works" as defined herein includes all projects financed in whole or in part with bonds, grants, loans, or other funds made available by or through the State or any of its political subdivisions, including but not limited to: bonds issued under the Industrial Project Revenue Bond Act (Article 11, Division 74 of the Illinois Municipal Code), the Industrial Building Revenue Bond Act, the Illinois Finance Authority Act, the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act, or the Build Illinois Bond Act; loans or other funds made available pursuant to the Build Illinois Act; loans or other funds made available pursuant to the Riverfront Development Fund under Section 10-15 of the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act; or funds from the Fund for Illinois' Future under Section 6z-47 of the State Finance Act, funds for school construction under Section 5 of the General Obligation Bond Act, funds authorized under Section 3 of the School Construction Bond Act, funds for school infrastructure under Section 6z-45 of the State Finance Act, and funds for transportation purposes under Section 4 of the General Obligation Bond Act. "Public works" also includes (i) all projects financed in whole or in part with funds from the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under the Illinois Renewable Fuels Development Program Act for which there is no project labor agreement; (ii) all work performed pursuant to a public private agreement under the Public Private Agreements for the Illiana Expressway Act or the Public-Private Agreements for the South Suburban Airport Act; and (iii) all projects undertaken under a public-private agreement under the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act. "Public works" also includes all projects at leased facility property used for airport purposes under Section 35 of the Local Government Facility Lease Act. "Public works" also includes the construction of a new wind power facility by a business designated as a High Impact Business under Section 5.5(a)(3)(E) of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act. "Public works" does not include work done directly by any public utility company, whether or not done under public supervision or direction, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds. "Public works" also includes any corrective action performed pursuant to Title XVI of the Environmental Protection Act for which payment from the Underground Storage Tank Fund is requested. "Public works" does not include projects undertaken by the owner at an owner-occupied single-family residence or at an owner-occupied unit of a multi-family residence.

"Construction" means all work on public works involving laborers, workers or mechanics. This includes any maintenance, repair, assembly, or disassembly work performed on equipment whether owned, leased, or rented.

"Locality" means the county where the physical work upon public works is performed, except (1) that if there is not available in the county a sufficient number of competent skilled laborers, workers and mechanics to construct the public works efficiently and properly, "locality" includes any other county nearest the one in which the work or construction is to be performed and from which such persons may be obtained in sufficient numbers to perform the work and (2) that, with respect to contracts for highway work with the Department of Transportation of this State, "locality" may at the discretion of the Secretary of the Department of Transportation be construed to include two or more adjacent counties from which workers may be accessible for work on such construction.

"Public body" means the State or any officer, board or commission of the State or any political subdivision or department thereof, or any institution supported in whole or in part by public funds, and includes every county, city, town, village, township, school district, irrigation, utility, reclamation improvement or other district and every other political subdivision, district or municipality of the state whether such political subdivision, municipality or district operates under a special charter or not.

The terms "general prevailing rate of hourly wages", "general prevailing rate of wages" or "prevailing rate of wages" when used in this Act mean the hourly cash wages plus annualized fringe benefits for training and apprenticeship programs approved by the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, health and welfare, insurance, vacations and pensions paid generally, in the locality in which the work is being performed, to employees engaged in work of a similar character on public works.

(Source: P.A. 97-502, eff. 8-23-11; 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; 98-482, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)

(820 ILCS 130/5) (from Ch. 48, par. 39s-5)

Sec. 5. Certified payroll.

(a) Any contractor and each subcontractor who participates in public works shall:

(1) make and keep, for a period of not less than 3 years from the date of the last payment made before January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-328) the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and for a period of 5 years from the date of the last payment made on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-328) the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly on a contract or subcontract for public works, records of all laborers, mechanics, and other workers employed by them on the project; the records shall include (i) the worker's name, (ii) the worker's address, (iii) the worker's telephone number when available, (iv) the worker's social security number, (v) the worker's classification or classifications, (vi) the worker's gross and net wages paid in each pay period, (vii) the worker's number of hours worked each day, (viii) the worker's starting and ending times of work each day, (ix) the worker's hourly wage rate, (x) the worker's hourly overtime wage rate, (xi) the worker's hourly fringe benefit rates, (xii) the name and address of each fringe benefit fund, (xiii) the plan sponsor of each fringe benefit, if applicable, and (xiv) the plan administrator of each fringe benefit, if applicable; and

(2) no later than the 15th day of each calendar month file a certified payroll for the immediately preceding month with the public body in charge of the project. A certified payroll must be filed for only those calendar months during which construction on a public works project has occurred. The certified payroll shall consist of a complete copy of the records identified in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a), but may exclude the starting and ending times of work each day. The certified payroll shall be accompanied by a statement signed by the contractor or subcontractor or an officer, employee, or agent of the contractor or subcontractor which avers that: (i) he or she has examined the certified payroll records required to be submitted by the Act and such records are true and accurate; (ii) the hourly rate paid to each worker is not less than the general prevailing rate of hourly wages required by this Act; and (iii) the contractor or subcontractor is aware that filing a certified payroll that he or she knows to be false is a Class A misdemeanor. A general contractor is not prohibited from relying on the certification of a lower tier subcontractor, provided the general contractor does not knowingly rely upon a subcontractor's false certification. Any contractor or subcontractor subject to this Act and any officer, employee, or agent of such contractor or subcontractor whose duty as such officer, employee, or agent it is to file such certified payroll who willfully fails to file such a certified payroll on or before the date such certified payroll is required by this paragraph to be filed and any person who willfully files a false certified payroll that is false as to any material fact is in violation of this Act and guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. The public body in charge of the project shall keep the records submitted in accordance with this paragraph (2) of subsection (a) before January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-328) the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly for a period of not less than 3 years, and the records submitted in accordance with this paragraph (2) of subsection (a) on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-328) the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly for a period of 5 years, from the date of the last payment for work on a contract or subcontract for public works. The records submitted in accordance with this paragraph (2) of subsection (a) shall be considered public records, except an employee's address, telephone number, and social security number, and made available in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act. The public body shall accept any reasonable submissions by the contractor that meet the requirements of this Section.

A contractor, subcontractor, or public body may retain records required under this Section in paper or electronic format.

(b) Upon 7 business days' notice, the contractor and each subcontractor shall make available for inspection and copying at a location within this State during reasonable hours, the records identified in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section to the public body in charge of the project, its officers and agents, the Director of Labor and his deputies and agents, and to federal, State, or local law enforcement agencies and prosecutors.

(c) A contractor or subcontractor who remits contributions to fringe benefit funds that are jointly maintained and jointly governed by one or more employers and one or more labor organizations in accordance with the federal Labor Management Relations Act shall make and keep certified payroll records that include the information required under items (i) through (viii) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) only. However, the information required under items (ix) through (xiv) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) shall be required for any contractor or subcontractor who remits contributions to a fringe benefit fund that is not jointly maintained and jointly governed by one or more employers and one or more labor organizations in accordance with the federal Labor Management Relations Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-571, eff. 1-1-12; 98-328, eff. 1-1-14; 98-482, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.