HB2994eng 98TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

HB2994 Engrossed LRB098 06184 AMC 36225 b

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2013 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 97-626 through 97-1144 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Illinois Constitutional Amendment Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 20/1) (from Ch. 1, par. 101)

Sec. 1. Amendments to the Constitution of this State may be proposed by joint resolution in either house of the General Assembly, and if the same shall be voted for by 3/5 of all the members elected to each of the 2 houses in the manner provided by Section 2 of Article XIV 14 of the Constitution, the amendment or amendments proposed shall be submitted to the electors of this State for adoption or rejection in the manner hereinafter provided.

(Source: P.A. 77-2790; revised 10-10-12.)

(5 ILCS 20/2) (from Ch. 1, par. 103)

Sec. 2. The General Assembly in submitting an amendment to the Constitution to the electors, or the proponents of an amendment to Article IV of the Constitution submitted by petition, shall prepare a brief explanation of such amendment, a brief argument in favor of the same, and the form in which such amendment will appear on the separate ballot as provided by Section 16-6 of the Election Code "An Act concerning elections", approved May 11, 1943, as amended. The minority of the General Assembly, or if there is no minority, anyone designated by the General Assembly shall prepare a brief argument against such amendment. In the case of an amendment to Article IV of the Constitution initiated pursuant to Section 3 of Article XIV of the Constitution, the proponents shall be those persons so designated at the time of the filing of the petition as provided in Section 10-8 of the Election Code, and the opponents shall be those members of the General Assembly opposing such amendment, or if there are none, anyone designated by the General Assembly and such opponents shall prepare a brief argument against such amendment. The proponent's explanation and argument in favor of and the opponents argument against an amendment to Article IV initiated by petition must be submitted to the Attorney General, who may rewrite them for accuracy and fairness. The explanation, the arguments for and against each constitutional amendment, and the form in which the amendment will appear on the separate ballot, shall be filed in the office of the Secretary of State with the proposed amendment. At least one 1 month before the next election of members of the General Assembly, following the passage of the proposed amendment, the Secretary of State shall publish the amendment, in full in 8 point type, or the equivalent thereto, in at least one secular newspaper of general circulation in every county in this State in which a newspaper is published. In counties in which 2 or more newspapers are published, the Secretary of State shall cause such amendment to be published in 2 newspapers. In counties having a population of 500,000 or more, such amendment shall be published in not less than 6 newspapers of general circulation. After the first publication, the publication of such amendment shall be repeated once each week for 2 consecutive weeks. In selecting newspapers in which to publish such amendment the Secretary of State shall have regard solely to the circulation of such newspapers, selecting secular newspapers in every case having the largest circulation. The proposed amendment shall have a notice prefixed thereto in said publications, that at such election the proposed amendment will be submitted to the electors for adoption or rejection, and at the end of the official publication, he shall also publish the form in which the proposed amendment will appear on the separate ballot. The Secretary of State shall fix the publication fees to be paid newspapers for making such publication, but in no case shall such publication fee exceed the amount charged by such newspapers to private individuals for a like publication. In addition to the notice hereby required to be published, the Secretary of State shall also cause the existing form of the constitutional provision proposed to be amended, the proposed amendment, the explanation of the same, the arguments for and against the same, and the form in which such amendment will appear on the separate ballot, to be published in pamphlet form in 8 point type or the equivalent thereto; and the Secretary of State shall mail such pamphlet to every mailing address in the State, addressed to the attention of the Postal Patron. He shall also maintain a reasonable supply of such pamphlets so as to make them available to any person requesting one.

(Source: P.A. 86-795; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 10. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Section 4.23 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.23)

Sec. 4.23. Act Section repealed on January 1, 2013 and December 31, 2013. (a) The following Section of an Act is repealed on January 1, 2013: (b) The following Act is Acts and Sections are repealed on December 31, 2013:

The Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 96-1499, eff. 1-18-11; 97-706, eff. 6-25-12; 97-778, eff. 7-13-12; 97-804, eff. 1-1-13; 97-979, eff. 8-17-12; 97-1048, eff. 8-22-12; 97-1130, eff. 8-28-12; 97-1139, eff. 12-28-12; 97-1140, eff. 12-28-12; 97-1141, eff. 12-28-12.)

Section 15. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by changing Sections 1-5 and 5-45 as follows:

(5 ILCS 100/1-5) (from Ch. 127, par. 1001-5)

Sec. 1-5. Applicability.

(a) This Act applies to every agency as defined in this Act. Beginning January 1, 1978, in case of conflict between the provisions of this Act and the Act creating or conferring power on an agency, this Act shall control. If, however, an agency (or its predecessor in the case of an agency that has been consolidated or reorganized) has existing procedures on July 1, 1977, specifically for contested cases or licensing, those existing provisions control, except that this exception respecting contested cases and licensing does not apply if the Act creating or conferring power on the agency adopts by express reference the provisions of this Act. Where the Act creating or conferring power on an agency establishes administrative procedures not covered by this Act, those procedures shall remain in effect.

(b) The provisions of this Act do not apply to (i) preliminary hearings, investigations, or practices where no final determinations affecting State funding are made by the State Board of Education, (ii) legal opinions issued under Section 2-3.7 of the School Code, (iii) as to State colleges and universities, their disciplinary and grievance proceedings, academic irregularity and capricious grading proceedings, and admission standards and procedures, and (iv) the class specifications for positions and individual position descriptions prepared and maintained under the Personnel Code. Those class specifications shall, however, be made reasonably available to the public for inspection and copying. The provisions of this Act do not apply to hearings under Section 20 of the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.

(c) Section 5-35 of this Act relating to procedures for rulemaking does not apply to the following:

(1) Rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board that, in accordance with Section 7.2 of the Environmental Protection Act, are identical in substance to federal regulations or amendments to those regulations implementing the following: Sections 3001, 3002, 3003, 3004, 3005, and 9003 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act; Section 105 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980; Sections 307(b), 307(c), 307(d), 402(b)(8), and 402(b)(9) of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act; Sections 1412(b), 1414(c), 1417(a), 1421, and 1445(a) of the Safe Drinking Water Act; and Section 109 of the Clean Air Act.

(2) Rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board that establish or amend standards for the emission of hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide from gasoline powered motor vehicles subject to inspection under the Vehicle Emissions Inspection Law of 2005 or its predecessor laws.

(3) Procedural rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board governing requests for exceptions under Section 14.2 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(4) The Pollution Control Board's grant, pursuant to an adjudicatory determination, of an adjusted standard for persons who can justify an adjustment consistent with subsection (a) of Section 27 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(5) Rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board that are identical in substance to the regulations adopted by the Office of the State Fire Marshal under clause (ii) of paragraph (b) of subsection (3) of Section 2 of the Gasoline Storage Act.

(d) Pay rates established under Section 8a of the Personnel Code shall be amended or repealed pursuant to the process set forth in Section 5-50 within 30 days after it becomes necessary to do so due to a conflict between the rates and the terms of a collective bargaining agreement covering the compensation of an employee subject to that Code.

(e) Section 10-45 of this Act shall not apply to any hearing, proceeding, or investigation conducted under Section 13-515 of the Public Utilities Act.

(f) Article 10 of this Act does not apply to any hearing, proceeding, or investigation conducted by the State Council for the State of Illinois created under Section 3-3-11.05 of the Unified Code of Corrections or by the Interstate Commission for Adult Offender Supervision created under the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision or by the Interstate Commission for Juveniles created under the Interstate Compact for Juveniles.

(g) This Act is subject to the provisions of Article XXI of the Public Utilities Act. To the extent that any provision of this Act conflicts with the provisions of that Article XXI, the provisions of that Article XXI control.

(Source: P.A. 97-95, eff. 7-12-11; 97-945, eff. 8-10-12; 97-1081, eff. 8-24-12; revised 9-20-12.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45) (from Ch. 127, par. 1005-45)

Sec. 5-45. Emergency rulemaking.

(a) "Emergency" means the existence of any situation that any agency finds reasonably constitutes a threat to the public interest, safety, or welfare.

(b) If any agency finds that an emergency exists that requires adoption of a rule upon fewer days than is required by Section 5-40 and states in writing its reasons for that finding, the agency may adopt an emergency rule without prior notice or hearing upon filing a notice of emergency rulemaking with the Secretary of State under Section 5-70. The notice shall include the text of the emergency rule and shall be published in the Illinois Register. Consent orders or other court orders adopting settlements negotiated by an agency may be adopted under this Section. Subject to applicable constitutional or statutory provisions, an emergency rule becomes effective immediately upon filing under Section 5-65 or at a stated date less than 10 days thereafter. The agency's finding and a statement of the specific reasons for the finding shall be filed with the rule. The agency shall take reasonable and appropriate measures to make emergency rules known to the persons who may be affected by them.

(c) An emergency rule may be effective for a period of not longer than 150 days, but the agency's authority to adopt an identical rule under Section 5-40 is not precluded. No emergency rule may be adopted more than once in any 24 month period, except that this limitation on the number of emergency rules that may be adopted in a 24 month period does not apply to (i) emergency rules that make additions to and deletions from the Drug Manual under Section 5-5.16 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or the generic drug formulary under Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, (ii) emergency rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board before July 1, 1997 to implement portions of the Livestock Management Facilities Act, (iii) emergency rules adopted by the Illinois Department of Public Health under subsections (a) through (i) of Section 2 of the Department of Public Health Act when necessary to protect the public's health, (iv) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (n) of this Section, (v) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (o) of this Section, or (vi) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (c-5) of this Section. Two or more emergency rules having substantially the same purpose and effect shall be deemed to be a single rule for purposes of this Section.

(c-5) To facilitate the maintenance of the program of group health benefits provided to annuitants, survivors, and retired employees under the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971, rules to alter the contributions to be paid by the State, annuitants, survivors, retired employees, or any combination of those entities, for that program of group health benefits, shall be adopted as emergency rules. The adoption of those rules shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(d) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 1999 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 90-587 or 90-588 or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 1999 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (d). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (d) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(e) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2000 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2000 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (e). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (e) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(f) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2001 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2001 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (f). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (f) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(g) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2002 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2002 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (g). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (g) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(h) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2003 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2003 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (h). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (h) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(i) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2004 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2004 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (i). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (i) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(j) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2005 budget as provided under the Fiscal Year 2005 Budget Implementation (Human Services) Act, emergency rules to implement any provision of the Fiscal Year 2005 Budget Implementation (Human Services) Act may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (j). The Department of Public Aid may also adopt rules under this subsection (j) necessary to administer the Illinois Public Aid Code and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (j) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(k) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2006 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2006 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (k). The Department of Healthcare and Family Services may also adopt rules under this subsection (k) necessary to administer the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Prescription Drug Discount Program Act (now the Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Act), and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (k) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(l) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2007 budget, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may adopt emergency rules during fiscal year 2007, including rules effective July 1, 2007, in accordance with this subsection to the extent necessary to administer the Department's responsibilities with respect to amendments to the State plans and Illinois waivers approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services necessitated by the requirements of Title XIX and Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (l) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(m) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2008 budget, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may adopt emergency rules during fiscal year 2008, including rules effective July 1, 2008, in accordance with this subsection to the extent necessary to administer the Department's responsibilities with respect to amendments to the State plans and Illinois waivers approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services necessitated by the requirements of Title XIX and Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (m) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(n) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2010 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly or any other budget initiative authorized by the 96th General Assembly for fiscal year 2010 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (n) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (n) shall apply only to rules promulgated during Fiscal Year 2010.

(o) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2011 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly or any other budget initiative authorized by the 96th General Assembly for fiscal year 2011 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (o) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (o) applies only to rules promulgated on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly through June 30, 2011.

(p) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 97-689 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 97-689 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (p) by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The 150-day limitation of the effective period of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (p), and the effective period may continue through June 30, 2013. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (p). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (p) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(Source: P.A. 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; 96-958, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1500, eff. 1-18-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-695, eff. 7-1-12; revised 7-10-12.)

Section 20. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7) (from Ch. 116, par. 207)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) When a request is made to inspect or copy a public record that contains information that is exempt from disclosure under this Section, but also contains information that is not exempt from disclosure, the public body may elect to redact the information that is exempt. The public body shall make the remaining information available for inspection and copying. Subject to this requirement, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations implementing federal or State law.

(b) Private information, unless disclosure is required by another provision of this Act, a State or federal law or a court order.

(b-5) Files, documents, and other data or databases maintained by one or more law enforcement agencies and specifically designed to provide information to one or more law enforcement agencies regarding the physical or mental status of one or more individual subjects.

(c) Personal information contained within public records, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. "Unwarranted invasion of personal privacy" means the disclosure of information that is highly personal or objectionable to a reasonable person and in which the subject's right to privacy outweighs any legitimate public interest in obtaining the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy.

(d) Records in the possession of any public body created in the course of administrative enforcement proceedings, and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency that is the recipient of the request;

(ii) interfere with active administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by the public body that is the recipient of the request;

(iii) create a substantial likelihood that a person will be deprived of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, or persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement, or penal agencies; except that the identities of witnesses to traffic accidents, traffic accident reports, and rescue reports shall be provided by agencies of local government, except when disclosure would interfere with an active criminal investigation conducted by the agency that is the recipient of the request;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct, and disclosure would result in demonstrable harm to the agency or public body that is the recipient of the request;

(vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(vii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation by the agency that is the recipient of the request.

(d-5) A law enforcement record created for law enforcement purposes and contained in a shared electronic record management system if the law enforcement agency that is the recipient of the request did not create the record, did not participate in or have a role in any of the events which are the subject of the record, and only has access to the record through the shared electronic record management system.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(e-5) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections if those materials are available in the library of the correctional facility where the inmate is confined.

(e-6) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections if those materials include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information.

(e-7) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections if those materials are available through an administrative request to the Department of Corrections.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or commercial or financial information are furnished under a claim that they are proprietary, privileged or confidential, and that disclosure of the trade secrets or commercial or financial information would cause competitive harm to the person or business, and only insofar as the claim directly applies to the records requested.

The information included under this exemption includes all trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) The following information pertaining to educational matters:

(i) test questions, scoring keys and other examination data used to administer an academic examination;

(ii) information received by a primary or secondary school, college, or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers;

(iii) information concerning a school or university's adjudication of student disciplinary cases, but only to the extent that disclosure would unavoidably reveal the identity of the student; and

(iv) course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, including but not limited to power generating and distribution stations and other transmission and distribution facilities, water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security.

(l) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(m) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(n) Records relating to a public body's adjudication of employee grievances or disciplinary cases; however, this exemption shall not extend to the final outcome of cases in which discipline is imposed.

(o) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including but not limited to software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(p) Records relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(q) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to determine the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(r) The records, documents, and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(s) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool. Insurance or self insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications.

(t) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions or insurance companies, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(u) Information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic or digital signatures under the Electronic Commerce Security Act.

(v) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, the destruction or contamination of which would constitute a clear and present danger to the health or safety of the community, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, or to tactical operations.

(w) (Blank).

(x) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities owned by a utility, by a power generator, or by the Illinois Power Agency.

(y) Information contained in or related to proposals, bids, or negotiations related to electric power procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(z) Information about students exempted from disclosure under Sections 10-20.38 or 34-18.29 of the School Code, and information about undergraduate students enrolled at an institution of higher education exempted from disclosure under Section 25 of the Illinois Credit Card Marketing Act of 2009.

(aa) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.

(bb) Records and information provided to a mortality review team and records maintained by a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(cc) Information regarding interments, entombments, or inurnments of human remains that are submitted to the Cemetery Oversight Database under the Cemetery Care Act or the Cemetery Oversight Act, whichever is applicable.

(dd) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public Aid Code.

(ee) The names, addresses, or other personal information of persons who are minors and are also participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations.

(ff) The names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations where such programs are targeted primarily to minors.

(gg) Confidential information described in Section 1-100 of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012.

(1.5) Any information exempt from disclosure under the Judicial Privacy Act shall be redacted from public records prior to disclosure under this Act.

(2) A public record that is not in the possession of a public body but is in the possession of a party with whom the agency has contracted to perform a governmental function on behalf of the public body, and that directly relates to the governmental function and is not otherwise exempt under this Act, shall be considered a public record of the public body, for purposes of this Act.

(3) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-261, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; 96-558, eff. 1-1-10; 96-736, eff. 7-1-10; 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 96-1378, eff. 7-29-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-385, eff. 8-15-11; 97-452, eff. 8-19-11; 97-783, eff. 7-13-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-847, eff. 9-22-12; 97-1065, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 25. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 7-43, 10-10.5, and 17-21 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/7-43) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-43)

Sec. 7-43. Every person having resided in this State 6 months and in the precinct 30 days next preceding any primary therein who shall be a citizen of the United States of the age of 18 or more years, shall be entitled to vote at such primary.

The following regulations shall be applicable to primaries:

No person shall be entitled to vote at a primary:

(a) Unless he declares his party affiliations as required by this Article.

(b) (Blank.).

(c) (Blank.).

(c.5) If that person has participated in the town political party caucus, under Section 45-50 of the Township Code, of another political party by signing an affidavit of voters attending the caucus within 45 days before the first day of the calendar month in which the primary is held.

(d) (Blank.).

(e) In cities, villages and incorporated towns having a board of election commissioners only voters registered as provided by Article 6 of this Act shall be entitled to vote at such primary.

(f) No person shall be entitled to vote at a primary unless he is registered under the provisions of Articles 4, 5 or 6 of this Act, when his registration is required by any of said Articles to entitle him to vote at the election with reference to which the primary is held.

A person (i) who filed a statement of candidacy for a partisan office as a qualified primary voter of an established political party or (ii) who voted the ballot of an established political party at a general primary election may not file a statement of candidacy as a candidate of a different established political party or as an independent candidate for a partisan office to be filled at the general election immediately following the general primary for which the person filed the statement or voted the ballot. A person may file a statement of candidacy for a partisan office as a qualified primary voter of an established political party regardless of any prior filing of candidacy for a partisan office or voting the ballot of an established political party at any prior election.

(Source: P.A. 97-681, eff. 3-30-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(10 ILCS 5/10-10.5)

Sec. 10-10.5. Removal of judicial officer's address information from the certificate of nomination or nomination papers.

(a) Upon expiration of the period for filing an objection to a judicial candidate's certificate of nomination or nomination papers, a judicial officer who is a judicial candidate may file a written request with the State Board of Elections for redaction of the judicial officer's home address information from his or her certificate of nomination or nomination papers. After receipt of the judicial officer's written request, the State Board of Elections shall redact or cause redaction of the judicial officer's home address from his or her certificate of nomination or nomination papers within 5 business days.

(b) Prior to expiration of the period for filing an objection to a judicial candidate's certificate of nomination or nomination papers, the home address information from the certificate of nomination or nomination papers of a judicial officer who is a judicial candidate is available for public inspection. After redaction of a judicial officer's home address information under paragraph (a) of this Section, the home address information is only available for an in camera inspection by the court reviewing an objection to the judicial officer's officers's certificate of nomination or nomination papers.

(c) For the purposes of this Section, "home address" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-847, eff. 9-22-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(10 ILCS 5/17-21) (from Ch. 46, par. 17-21)

Sec. 17-21. When the votes shall have been examined and counted, the judges shall set down on a sheet or return form to be supplied to them, the name of every person voted for, written or printed at full length, the office for which such person received such votes, and the number he did receive and such additional information as is necessary to complete, as nearly as circumstances will admit, the following form, to-wit:

TALLY SHEET AND CERTIFICATE OF

RESULTS

We do hereby certify that at the .... election held in the precinct hereinafter (general or special) specified on (insert date) the .... day of ...., in the year of our Lord, one thousand nine hundred and ...., a total of .... voters requested and received ballots and we do further certify:

Number of blank ballots delivered to us ....

Number of absentee ballots delivered to us ....

Total number of ballots delivered to us ....

Number of blank and spoiled ballots returned.

(1) Total number of ballots cast (in box)....

.... Defective and Objected To ballots sealed in envelope

(2) .... Total number of ballots cast (in box)

Line (2) equals line (1)

We further certify that each of the candidates for representative in the General Assembly received the number of votes ascribed to him on the separate tally sheet.

We further certify that each candidate received the number of votes set forth opposite his name or in the box containing his name on the tally sheet contained in the page or pages immediately following our signatures.

The undersigned actually served as judges and counted the ballots at the election on the .... day of .... in the .... precinct of the (1) *township of ...., or (2) *City of ...., or (3) *.... ward in the city of .... and the polls were opened at 6:00 A.M. and closed at 7:00 P.M. Certified by us.

*Fill in either (1), (2) or (3)

A B, ....(Address)

C D, ....(Address)

E F, ....(Address)

G H, ....(Address)

I J, ....(Address)

Each tally sheet shall be in substantially one of the following forms:

-------------------------------------------------------------

(Source: P.A. 89-700, eff. 1-17-97; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 30. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 4, 5, and 11 as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/4) (from Ch. 124, par. 24)

Sec. 4. Identification Card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections by submitting an identification card issued by the Department of Corrections under Section 3-14-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections, together with the prescribed fees. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Disabled Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this determination by his or her supervising physician, a determination of disability from an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make this determination, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a disabled person provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a disabled person or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21, shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Disabled Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 96-146, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1231, eff. 7-23-10; 97-371, eff. 1-1-12; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-5-12.)

(15 ILCS 335/5) (from Ch. 124, par. 25)

Sec. 5. Applications.

(a) Any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, may file an application for an identification card, or for the renewal thereof, in a manner prescribed by the Secretary. Each original application shall be completed by the applicant in full and shall set forth the legal name, residence address and zip code, social security number, birth date, sex and a brief description of the applicant. The applicant shall be photographed, unless the Secretary of State has provided by rule for the issuance of identification cards without photographs and the applicant is deemed eligible for an identification card without a photograph under the terms and conditions imposed by the Secretary of State, and he or she shall also submit any other information as the Secretary may deem necessary or such documentation as the Secretary may require to determine the identity of the applicant. In addition to the residence address, the Secretary may allow the applicant to provide a mailing address. If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address in lieu of the applicant's residence or mailing address. An applicant for an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card must also submit with each original or renewal application, on forms prescribed by the Secretary, such documentation as the Secretary may require, establishing that the applicant is a "person with a disability" as defined in Section 4A of this Act, and setting forth the applicant's type and class of disability as set forth in Section 4A of this Act.

(b) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, for each original or renewal identification card application under this Act, the Secretary shall inquire as to whether the applicant is a veteran for purposes of issuing an identification card with a veteran designation under subsection (c-5) of Section 4 of this Act. The acceptable forms of proof shall include, but are not limited to, Department of Defense form DD-214. The Secretary shall determine by rule what other forms of proof of a person's status as a veteran are acceptable.

The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall confirm the status of the applicant as an honorably discharged veteran before the Secretary may issue the identification card.

For purposes of this subsection (b):

"Active duty" means active duty under an executive order of the President of the United States, an Act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

"Armed forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component or National Guard unit called to active duty.

"Veteran" means a person who has served on active duty in the armed forces and was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(Source: P.A. 96-1231, eff. 7-23-10; 97-371, eff. 1-1-12; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-5-12.)

(15 ILCS 335/11) (from Ch. 124, par. 31)

Sec. 11. The Secretary may make a search of his records and furnish information as to whether a person has a current Standard Illinois Identification Card or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card then on file, upon receipt of a written application therefor accompanied with the prescribed fee. However, the Secretary may not disclose medical information concerning an individual to any person, public agency, private agency, corporation or governmental body unless the individual has submitted a written request for the information or unless the individual has given prior written consent for the release of the information to a specific person or entity. This exception shall not apply to: (1) offices and employees of the Secretary who have a need to know the medical information in performance of their official duties, or (2) orders of a court of competent jurisdiction. When medical information is disclosed by the Secretary in accordance with the provisions of this Section, no liability shall rest with the Office of the Secretary of State as the information is released for informational purposes only.

The Secretary may release personally identifying information or highly restricted personal information only to:

(1) officers and employees of the Secretary who have a need to know that information;

(2) other governmental agencies for use in their official governmental functions;

(3) law enforcement agencies that need the information for a criminal or civil investigation; or

(4) any entity that the Secretary has authorized, by rule, to receive this information.

The Secretary may not disclose an individual's social security number or any associated information obtained from the Social Security Administration without the written request or consent of the individual except: (i) to officers and employees of the Secretary who have a need to know the social security number in the performance of their official duties; (ii) to law enforcement officials for a lawful civil or criminal law enforcement investigation if the head of the law enforcement agency has made a written request to the Secretary specifying the law enforcement investigation for which the social security number is being sought; (iii) under a lawful court order signed by a judge; or (iv) to the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs for the purpose of confirming veteran status.

(Source: P.A. 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-5-12.)

Section 35. The State Comptroller Act is amended by changing Sections 9.03 and 10.05 as follows:

(15 ILCS 405/9.03) (from Ch. 15, par. 209.03)

Sec. 9.03. Direct deposit of State payments.

(a) The Comptroller, with the approval of the State Treasurer, may provide by rule or regulation for the direct deposit of any payment lawfully payable from the State Treasury and in accordance with federal banking regulations including but not limited to payments to (i) persons paid from personal services, (ii) persons receiving benefit payments from the Comptroller under the State pension systems, (iii) individuals who receive assistance under Articles III, IV, and VI of the Illinois Public Aid Code, (iv) providers of services under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act, (v) providers of community-based mental health services, and (vi) providers of services under programs administered by the State Board of Education, in the accounts of those persons or entities maintained at a bank, savings and loan association, or credit union, where authorized by the payee. The Comptroller also may deposit public aid payments for individuals who receive assistance under Articles III, IV, VI, and X of the Illinois Public Aid Code directly into an electronic benefits transfer account in a financial institution approved by the State Treasurer as prescribed by the Illinois Department of Human Services and in accordance with the rules and regulations of that Department and the rules and regulations adopted by the Comptroller and the State Treasurer. The Comptroller, with the approval of the State Treasurer, may provide by rule for the electronic direct deposit of payments to public agencies and any other payee of the State. The electronic direct deposits may be made to the designated account in those financial institutions specified in this Section for the direct deposit of payments. Within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1994, the Comptroller shall establish a pilot program for the electronic direct deposit of payments to local school districts, municipalities, and units of local government. The payments may be made without the use of the voucher-warrant system, provided that documentation of approval by the Treasurer of each group of payments made by direct deposit shall be retained by the Comptroller. The form and method of the Treasurer's approval shall be established by the rules or regulations adopted by the Comptroller under this Section.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (b-5), all State payments for an employee's payroll or an employee's expense reimbursement must be made through direct deposit. It is the responsibility of the paying State agency to ensure compliance with this mandate. If a State agency pays an employee's payroll or an employee's expense reimbursement without using direct deposit, the Comptroller may charge that employee a processing fee of $2.50 per paper warrant. The processing fee may be withheld from the employee's payment or reimbursement. The amount collected from the fee shall be deposited into the Comptroller's Administrative Fund.

(b-5) If an employee wants his or her their payments deposited into a secure check account, the employee must submit a direct deposit form to the paying State agency for his or her their payroll or to the Comptroller for his or her their expense reimbursements. Upon acceptance of the direct deposit form, the Comptroller shall disburse those funds to the secure check account. For the purposes of this Section, "secure check account" means an account established with a financial institution for the employee that allows the dispensing of the funds in the account through a third party who dispenses to the employee a paper check.

(c) All State payments to a vendor that exceed the allowable limit of paper warrants in a fiscal year, by the same agency, must be made through direct deposit. It is the responsibility of the paying State agency to ensure compliance with this mandate. If a State agency pays a vendor more times than the allowable limit in a single fiscal year without using direct deposit, the Comptroller may charge the vendor a processing fee of $2.50 per paper warrant. The processing fee may be withheld from the vendor's payment. The amount collected from the processing fee shall be deposited into the Comptroller's Administrative Fund. The Office of the Comptroller shall define "allowable limit" in the Comptroller's Statewide Accounting Management System (SAMS) manual, except that the allowable limit shall not be less than 30 paper warrants. The Office of the Comptroller shall also provide reasonable notice to all State agencies of the allowable limit of paper warrants.

(d) State employees covered by provisions in collective bargaining agreements that do not require direct deposit of paychecks are exempt from this mandate. No later than 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, all State agencies must provide to the Office of the Comptroller a list of employees that are exempt under this subsection (d) from the direct deposit mandate. In addition, a State employee or vendor may file a hardship petition with the Office of the Comptroller requesting an exemption from the direct deposit mandate under this Section. A hardship petition shall be made available for download on the Comptroller's official Internet website.

(e) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the direct deposit of State payments under this Section for an employee's payroll, an employee's expense reimbursement, or a State vendor's payment does not authorize the State to automatically withdraw funds from those accounts.

(f) For the purposes of this Section, "vendor" means a non-governmental entity with a taxpayer identification number issued by the Social Security Administration or Internal Revenue Service that receives payments through the Comptroller's commercial system. The term does not include State agencies.

(g) The requirements of this Section do not apply to the legislative or judicial branches of State government.

(Source: P.A. 97-348, eff. 8-12-11; 97-993, eff. 9-16-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(15 ILCS 405/10.05) (from Ch. 15, par. 210.05)

Sec. 10.05. Deductions from warrants; statement of reason for deduction. Whenever any person shall be entitled to a warrant or other payment from the treasury or other funds held by the State Treasurer, on any account, against whom there shall be any then due and payable account or claim in favor of the State, the United States upon certification by the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States, or his or her delegate, pursuant to a reciprocal offset agreement under subsection (i-1) of Section 10 of the Illinois State Collection Act of 1986, or a unit of local government, a school district, a public institution of higher education, as defined in Section 1 of the Board of Higher Education Act, or the clerk of a circuit court, upon certification by that entity, the Comptroller, upon notification thereof, shall ascertain the amount due and payable to the State, the United States, the unit of local government, the school district, the public institution of higher education, or the clerk of the circuit court, as aforesaid, and draw a warrant on the treasury or on other funds held by the State Treasurer, stating the amount for which the party was entitled to a warrant or other payment, the amount deducted therefrom, and on what account, and directing the payment of the balance; which warrant or payment as so drawn shall be entered on the books of the Treasurer, and such balance only shall be paid. The Comptroller may deduct any one or more of the following: (i) the entire amount due and payable to the State or a portion of the amount due and payable to the State in accordance with the request of the notifying agency; (ii) the entire amount due and payable to the United States or a portion of the amount due and payable to the United States in accordance with a reciprocal offset agreement under subsection (i-1) of Section 10 of the Illinois State Collection Act of 1986; or (iii) the entire amount due and payable to the unit of local government, school district, public institution of higher education, or clerk of the circuit court, or a portion of the amount due and payable to that entity, in accordance with an intergovernmental agreement authorized under this Section and Section 10.05d. No request from a notifying agency, the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States, a unit of local government, a school district, a public institution of higher education, or the clerk of a circuit court for an amount to be deducted under this Section from a wage or salary payment, or from a contractual payment to an individual for personal services, shall exceed 25% of the net amount of such payment. "Net amount" means that part of the earnings of an individual remaining after deduction of any amounts required by law to be withheld. For purposes of this provision, wage, salary or other payments for personal services shall not include final compensation payments for the value of accrued vacation, overtime or sick leave. Whenever the Comptroller draws a warrant or makes a payment involving a deduction ordered under this Section, the Comptroller shall notify the payee and the State agency that submitted the voucher of the reason for the deduction and he or she shall retain a record of such statement in his or her records. As used in this Section, an "account or claim in favor of the State" includes all amounts owing to "State agencies" as defined in Section 7 of this Act. However, the Comptroller shall not be required to accept accounts or claims owing to funds not held by the State Treasurer, where such accounts or claims do not exceed $50, nor shall the Comptroller deduct from funds held by the State Treasurer under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act or for payments to institutions from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund (unless the Trust Fund moneys are used for child support). The Comptroller shall not deduct from payments to be disbursed from the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund as provided for under Section 12-10.2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, except for payments representing interest on child support obligations under Section 10-16.5 of that Code. The Comptroller and the Department of Revenue shall enter into an interagency agreement to establish responsibilities, duties, and procedures relating to deductions from lottery prizes awarded under Section 20.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law. The Comptroller may enter into an intergovernmental agreement with the Department of Revenue and the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States, or his or her delegate, to establish responsibilities, duties, and procedures relating to reciprocal offset of delinquent State and federal obligations pursuant to subsection (i-1) of Section 10 of the Illinois State Collection Act of 1986. The Comptroller may enter into intergovernmental agreements with any unit of local government, school district, public institution of higher education, or clerk of a circuit court to establish responsibilities, duties, and procedures to provide for the offset, by the Comptroller, of obligations owed to those entities.

For the purposes of this Section, "clerk of a circuit court" means the clerk of a circuit court in any county in the State.

(Source: P.A. 97-269, eff. 12-16-11 (see Section 15 of P.A. 97-632 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 97-269); 97-632, eff. 12-16-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-884, eff. 8-2-12; 97-970, eff. 8-16-12; revised 8-23-12.)

Section 40. The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 5-565 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 5-715 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5/5-565) (was 20 ILCS 5/6.06)

Sec. 5-565. In the Department of Public Health.

(a) The General Assembly declares it to be the public policy of this State that all citizens of Illinois are entitled to lead healthy lives. Governmental public health has a specific responsibility to ensure that a public health system is in place to allow the public health mission to be achieved. The public health system is the collection of public, private, and voluntary entities as well as individuals and informal associations that contribute to the public's health within the State. To develop a public health system requires certain core functions to be performed by government. The State Board of Health is to assume the leadership role in advising the Director in meeting the following functions:

(1) Needs assessment.

(2) Statewide health objectives.

(3) Policy development.

(4) Assurance of access to necessary services.

There shall be a State Board of Health composed of 20 persons, all of whom shall be appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate for those appointed by the Governor on and after June 30, 1998, and one of whom shall be a senior citizen age 60 or over. Five members shall be physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, one representing a medical school faculty, one who is board certified in preventive medicine, and one who is engaged in private practice. One member shall be a chiropractic physician. One member shall be a dentist; one an environmental health practitioner; one a local public health administrator; one a local board of health member; one a registered nurse; one a physical therapist; one an optometrist; one a veterinarian; one a public health academician; one a health care industry representative; one a representative of the business community; one a representative of the non-profit public interest community; and 2 shall be citizens at large.

The terms of Board of Health members shall be 3 years, except that members shall continue to serve on the Board of Health until a replacement is appointed. Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, in the appointment of the Board of Health members appointed to vacancies or positions with terms expiring on or before December 31, 2004, the Governor shall appoint up to 6 members to serve for terms of 3 years; up to 6 members to serve for terms of 2 years; and up to 5 members to serve for a term of one year, so that the term of no more than 6 members expire in the same year. All members shall be legal residents of the State of Illinois. The duties of the Board shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) To advise the Department of ways to encourage public understanding and support of the Department's programs.

(2) To evaluate all boards, councils, committees, authorities, and bodies advisory to, or an adjunct of, the Department of Public Health or its Director for the purpose of recommending to the Director one or more of the following:

(i) The elimination of bodies whose activities are not consistent with goals and objectives of the Department.

(ii) The consolidation of bodies whose activities encompass compatible programmatic subjects.

(iii) The restructuring of the relationship between the various bodies and their integration within the organizational structure of the Department.

(iv) The establishment of new bodies deemed essential to the functioning of the Department.

(3) To serve as an advisory group to the Director for public health emergencies and control of health hazards.

(4) To advise the Director regarding public health policy, and to make health policy recommendations regarding priorities to the Governor through the Director.

(5) To present public health issues to the Director and to make recommendations for the resolution of those issues.

(6) To recommend studies to delineate public health problems.

(7) To make recommendations to the Governor through the Director regarding the coordination of State public health activities with other State and local public health agencies and organizations.

(8) To report on or before February 1 of each year on the health of the residents of Illinois to the Governor, the General Assembly, and the public.

(9) To review the final draft of all proposed administrative rules, other than emergency or preemptory rules and those rules that another advisory body must approve or review within a statutorily defined time period, of the Department after September 19, 1991 (the effective date of Public Act 87-633). The Board shall review the proposed rules within 90 days of submission by the Department. The Department shall take into consideration any comments and recommendations of the Board regarding the proposed rules prior to submission to the Secretary of State for initial publication. If the Department disagrees with the recommendations of the Board, it shall submit a written response outlining the reasons for not accepting the recommendations.

In the case of proposed administrative rules or amendments to administrative rules regarding immunization of children against preventable communicable diseases designated by the Director under the Communicable Disease Prevention Act, after the Immunization Advisory Committee has made its recommendations, the Board shall conduct 3 public hearings, geographically distributed throughout the State. At the conclusion of the hearings, the State Board of Health shall issue a report, including its recommendations, to the Director. The Director shall take into consideration any comments or recommendations made by the Board based on these hearings.

(10) To deliver to the Governor for presentation to the General Assembly a State Health Improvement Plan. The first 3 such plans shall be delivered to the Governor on January 1, 2006, January 1, 2009, and January 1, 2016 and then every 5 years thereafter.

The Plan shall recommend priorities and strategies to improve the public health system and the health status of Illinois residents, taking into consideration national health objectives and system standards as frameworks for assessment.

The Plan shall also take into consideration priorities and strategies developed at the community level through the Illinois Project for Local Assessment of Needs (IPLAN) and any regional health improvement plans that may be developed. The Plan shall focus on prevention as a key strategy for long-term health improvement in Illinois.

The Plan shall examine and make recommendations on the contributions and strategies of the public and private sectors for improving health status and the public health system in the State. In addition to recommendations on health status improvement priorities and strategies for the population of the State as a whole, the Plan shall make recommendations regarding priorities and strategies for reducing and eliminating health disparities in Illinois; including racial, ethnic, gender, age, socio-economic and geographic disparities.

The Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health shall appoint a Planning Team that includes a range of public, private, and voluntary sector stakeholders and participants in the public health system. This Team shall include: the directors of State agencies with public health responsibilities (or their designees), including but not limited to the Illinois Departments of Public Health and Department of Human Services, representatives of local health departments, representatives of local community health partnerships, and individuals with expertise who represent an array of organizations and constituencies engaged in public health improvement and prevention.

The State Board of Health shall hold at least 3 public hearings addressing drafts of the Plan in representative geographic areas of the State. Members of the Planning Team shall receive no compensation for their services, but may be reimbursed for their necessary expenses.

Upon the delivery of each State Health Improvement Plan, the Governor shall appoint a SHIP Implementation Coordination Council that includes a range of public, private, and voluntary sector stakeholders and participants in the public health system. The Council shall include the directors of State agencies and entities with public health system responsibilities (or their designees), including but not limited to the Department of Public Health, Department of Human Services, Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Environmental Protection Agency, Illinois State Board of Education, Department on Aging, Illinois Violence Prevention Authority, Department of Agriculture, Department of Insurance, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, Department of Transportation, and Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and the Chair of the State Board of Health. The Council shall include representatives of local health departments and individuals with expertise who represent an array of organizations and constituencies engaged in public health improvement and prevention, including non-profit public interest groups, health issue groups, faith community groups, health care providers, businesses and employers, academic institutions, and community-based organizations. The Governor shall endeavor to make the membership of the Council representative of the racial, ethnic, gender, socio-economic, and geographic diversity of the State. The Governor shall designate one State agency representative and one other non-governmental member as co-chairs of the Council. The Governor shall designate a member of the Governor's office to serve as liaison to the Council and one or more State agencies to provide or arrange for support to the Council. The members of the SHIP Implementation Coordination Council for each State Health Improvement Plan shall serve until the delivery of the subsequent State Health Improvement Plan, whereupon a new Council shall be appointed. Members of the SHIP Planning Team may serve on the SHIP Implementation Coordination Council if so appointed by the Governor.

The SHIP Implementation Coordination Council shall coordinate the efforts and engagement of the public, private, and voluntary sector stakeholders and participants in the public health system to implement each SHIP. The Council shall serve as a forum for collaborative action; coordinate existing and new initiatives; develop detailed implementation steps, with mechanisms for action; implement specific projects; identify public and private funding sources at the local, State and federal level; promote public awareness of the SHIP; advocate for the implementation of the SHIP; and develop an annual report to the Governor, General Assembly, and public regarding the status of implementation of the SHIP. The Council shall not, however, have the authority to direct any public or private entity to take specific action to implement the SHIP.

(11) Upon the request of the Governor, to recommend to the Governor candidates for Director of Public Health when vacancies occur in the position.

(12) To adopt bylaws for the conduct of its own business, including the authority to establish ad hoc committees to address specific public health programs requiring resolution.

(13) To review and comment upon the Comprehensive Health Plan submitted by the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning as provided under Section 2310-217 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Upon appointment, the Board shall elect a chairperson from among its members.

Members of the Board shall receive compensation for their services at the rate of $150 per day, not to exceed $10,000 per year, as designated by the Director for each day required for transacting the business of the Board and shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties. The Board shall meet from time to time at the call of the Department, at the call of the chairperson, or upon the request of 3 of its members, but shall not meet less than 4 times per year.

(b) (Blank).

(c) An Advisory Board on Necropsy Service to Coroners, which shall counsel and advise with the Director on the administration of the Autopsy Act. The Advisory Board shall consist of 11 members, including a senior citizen age 60 or over, appointed by the Governor, one of whom shall be designated as chairman by a majority of the members of the Board. In the appointment of the first Board the Governor shall appoint 3 members to serve for terms of 1 year, 3 for terms of 2 years, and 3 for terms of 3 years. The members first appointed under Public Act 83-1538 shall serve for a term of 3 years. All members appointed thereafter shall be appointed for terms of 3 years, except that when an appointment is made to fill a vacancy, the appointment shall be for the remaining term of the position vacant. The members of the Board shall be citizens of the State of Illinois. In the appointment of members of the Advisory Board the Governor shall appoint 3 members who shall be persons licensed to practice medicine and surgery in the State of Illinois, at least 2 of whom shall have received post-graduate training in the field of pathology; 3 members who are duly elected coroners in this State; and 5 members who shall have interest and abilities in the field of forensic medicine but who shall be neither persons licensed to practice any branch of medicine in this State nor coroners. In the appointment of medical and coroner members of the Board, the Governor shall invite nominations from recognized medical and coroners organizations in this State respectively. Board members, while serving on business of the Board, shall receive actual necessary travel and subsistence expenses while so serving away from their places of residence.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-455, eff. 8-14-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1153, eff. 7-21-10; 97-734, eff. 1-1-13; 97-810, eff. 1-1-13; revised 7-23-12.)

(20 ILCS 5/5-715)

Sec. 5-715. Expedited licensure for service members and spouses.

(a) In this Section, "service member" means any person who, at the time of application under this Section, is an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or any reserve component of the United States Armed Forces or the National Guard of any state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia or whose active duty service concluded within the preceding 2 years before application.

(b) Each director of a department that issues an occupational or professional license is authorized to and shall issue an expedited temporary occupational or professional license to a service member who meets the requirements under this Section. The temporary occupational or professional license shall be valid for 6 months after the date of issuance or until a license is granted or a notice to deny a license is issued in accordance with rules adopted by the department issuing the license, whichever occurs first. No temporary occupational or professional license shall be renewed. The service member shall apply to the department on forms provided by the department. An application must include proof that:

(1) the applicant is a service member;

(2) the applicant holds a valid license in good standing for the occupation or profession issued by another state, commonwealth, possession, or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any foreign jurisdiction and the requirements for licensure in the other jurisdiction are determined by the department to be substantially equivalent to the standards for licensure of this State;

(3) the applicant is assigned to a duty station in this State or has established legal residence in this State;

(4) a complete set of the applicant's fingerprints has been submitted to the Department of State Police for statewide and national criminal history checks, if applicable to the requirements of the department issuing the license; the applicant shall pay the fee to the Department of State Police or to the fingerprint vendor for electronic fingerprint processing; no temporary occupational or professional license shall be issued to an applicant if the statewide or national criminal history check discloses information that would cause the denial of an application for licensure under any applicable occupational or professional licensing Act;

(5) the applicant is not ineligible for licensure pursuant to Section 2105-165 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois;

(6) the applicant has submitted an application for full licensure; and

(7) the applicant has paid the required fee; fees shall not be refundable.

(c) Each director of a department that issues an occupational or professional license is authorized to and shall issue an expedited temporary occupational or professional license to the spouse of a service member who meets the requirements under this Section. The temporary occupational or professional license shall be valid for 6 months after the date of issuance or until a license is granted or a notice to deny a license is issued in accordance with rules adopted by the department issuing the license, whichever occurs first. No temporary occupational or professional license shall be renewed. The spouse of a service member shall apply to the department on forms provided by the department. An application must include proof that:

(1) the applicant is the spouse of a service member;

(2) the applicant holds a valid license in good standing for the occupation or profession issued by another state, commonwealth, possession, or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any foreign jurisdiction and the requirements for licensure in the other jurisdiction are determined by the department to be substantially equivalent to the standards for licensure of this State;

(3) the applicant's spouse is assigned to a duty station in this State or has established legal residence in this State;

(4) a complete set of the applicant's fingerprints has been submitted to the Department of State Police for statewide and national criminal history checks, if applicable to the requirements of the department issuing the license; the applicant shall pay the fee to the Department of State Police or to the fingerprint vendor for electronic fingerprint processing; no temporary occupational or professional license shall be issued to an applicant if the statewide or national criminal history check discloses information that would cause the denial of an application for licensure under any applicable occupational or professional licensing Act;

(5) the applicant is not ineligible for licensure pursuant to Section 2105-165 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois;

(6) the applicant has submitted an application for full licensure; and

(7) the applicant has paid the required fee; fees shall not be refundable.

(d) All relevant experience of a service member in the discharge of official duties, including full-time and part-time experience, shall be credited in the calculation of any years of practice in an occupation or profession as may be required under any applicable occupational or professional licensing Act. All relevant training provided by the military and completed by a service member shall be credited to that service member as meeting any training or education requirement under any applicable occupational or professional licensing Act, provided that the training or education is determined by the department to be substantially equivalent to that required under any applicable Act and is not otherwise contrary to any other licensure requirement.

(e) A department may adopt any rules necessary for the implementation and administration of this Section and shall by rule provide for fees for the administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-710, eff. 1-1-13.)

(20 ILCS 5/5-716)

Sec. 5-716 5-715. Deadline extensions for service members.

(a) In this Section:

"Military service" means any full-time training or duty, no matter how described under federal or State law, for which a service member is ordered to report by the President, Governor of a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States, or other appropriate military authority.

"Service member" means a resident of Illinois who is a member of any component of the U.S. Armed Forces or the National Guard of any state, the District of Columbia, a commonwealth, or a territory of the United States.

(b) Each director of a department is authorized to extend any deadline established by that director or department for a service member who has entered military service in excess of 29 consecutive days. The director may extend the deadline for a period not more than twice the length of the service member's required military service.

(Source: P.A. 97-913, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-10-12.)

Section 45. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 50-10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/50-10)

Sec. 50-10. Alcoholism Alcohol and Substance Abuse Fund. Monies received from the federal government, except monies received under the Block Grant for the Prevention and Treatment of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, and other gifts or grants made by any person to the fund shall be deposited into the Alcoholism Alcohol and Substance Abuse Fund which is hereby created as a special fund in the State treasury. Monies in this fund shall be appropriated to the Department and expended for the purposes and activities specified by the person, organization or federal agency making the gift or grant.

(Source: P.A. 88-80; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 50. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Section 7.4 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/7.4)

Sec. 7.4. Development and preservation of sibling relationships for children in care; placement of siblings; contact among siblings placed apart.

(a) Purpose and policy. The General Assembly recognizes that sibling relationships are unique and essential for a person, but even more so for children who are removed from the care of their families and placed in the State child welfare system. When family separation occurs through State intervention, every effort must be made to preserve, support and nurture sibling relationships when doing so is in the best interest of each sibling. It is in the interests of foster children who are part of a sibling group to enjoy contact with one another, as long as the contact is in each child's best interest. This is true both while the siblings are in State care and after one or all of the siblings leave State care through adoption, guardianship, or aging out.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

(1) Whenever a best interest determination is required by this Section, the Department shall consider the factors set out in subsection (4.05) 4.05 of Section 1-3 of or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the Department's rules regarding Sibling Placement, 89 111. Admin. Code 301.70 and Sibling Visitation, 89 111. Admin. Code 301.220, and the Department's rules regarding Placement Selection Criteria, . 89 111. Admin. Code 301.60.

(2) "Adopted child" means a child who, immediately preceding the adoption, was in the custody or guardianship of the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(3) "Adoptive parent" means a person who has become a parent through the legal process of adoption.

(4) "Child" means a person in the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department who is under the age of 21.

(5) "Child placed in private guardianship" means a child who, immediately preceding the guardianship, was in the custody or guardianship of the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act.

(6) "Contact" may include, but is not limited to visits, telephone calls, letters, sharing of photographs or information, e-mails, video conferencing, and other form of communication or contact.

(7) "Legal guardian" means a person who has become the legal guardian of a child who, immediately prior to the guardianship, was in the custody or guardianship of the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(8) "Parent" means the child's mother or father who is named as the respondent in proceedings conducted under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(9) "Post Permanency Sibling Contact" means contact between siblings following the entry of a Judgment Order for Adoption under Section 14 of the Adoption Act regarding at least one sibling or an Order for Guardianship appointing a private guardian under Section 2-27 or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, regarding at least one sibling. Post Permanency Sibling Contact may include, but is not limited to, visits, telephone calls, letters, sharing of photographs or information, emails, video conferencing, and other form of communication or connection agreed to by the parties to a Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement.

(10) "Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement" means a written agreement between the adoptive parent or parents, the child, and the child's sibling regarding post permanency contact between the adopted child and the child's sibling, or a written agreement between the legal guardians, the child, and the child's sibling regarding post permanency contact between the child placed in guardianship and the child's sibling. The Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement may specify the nature and frequency of contact between the adopted child or child placed in guardianship and the child's sibling following the entry of the Judgment Order for Adoption or Order for Private Guardianship. The Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement may be supported by services as specified in this Section. The Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement is voluntary on the part of the parties to the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement and is not a requirement for finalization of the child's adoption or guardianship. The Post Permanency Sibling Contract Agreement shall not be enforceable in any court of law or administrative forum and no cause of action shall be brought to enforce the Agreement. When entered into, the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement shall be placed in the child's Post Adoption or Guardianship case record and in the case file of a sibling who is a party to the agreement and who remains in the Department's custody or guardianship.

(11) "Sibling Contact Support Plan" means a written document that sets forth the plan for future contact between siblings who are in the Department's care and custody and residing separately. The goal of the Support Plan is to develop or preserve and nurture the siblings' relationships. The Support Plan shall set forth the role of the foster parents, caregivers, and others in implementing the Support Plan. The Support Plan must meet the minimum standards regarding frequency of in-person visits provided for in Department rule.

(12) "Siblings" means children who share at least one parent in common. This definition of siblings applies solely for purposes of placement and contact under this Section. For purposes of this Section, children who share at least one parent in common continue to be siblings after their parent's parental rights are terminated, if parental rights were terminated while a petition under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 was pending. For purposes of this Section, children who share at least one parent in common continue to be siblings after a sibling is adopted or placed in private guardianship when the adopted child or child placed in private guardianship was in the Department's custody or guardianship under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 immediately prior to the adoption or private guardianship. For children who have been in the guardianship of the Department under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, have been adopted, and are subsequently returned to the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, "siblings" includes a person who would have been considered a sibling prior to the adoption and siblings through adoption.

(c) No later than January 1, 2013, the Department shall promulgate rules addressing the development and preservation of sibling relationships. The rules shall address, at a minimum:

(1) Recruitment, licensing, and support of foster parents willing and capable of either fostering sibling groups or supporting and being actively involved in planning and executing sibling contact for siblings placed apart. The rules shall address training for foster parents, licensing workers, placement workers, and others as deemed necessary.

(2) Placement selection for children who are separated from their siblings and how to best promote placements of children with foster parents or programs that can meet the children's childrens' needs, including the need to develop and maintain contact with siblings.

(3) State-supported guidance to siblings who have aged out of state care regarding positive engagement with siblings.

(4) Implementation of Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreements for children exiting State care, including services offered by the Department to encourage and assist parties in developing agreements, services offered by the Department post permanency post-permanency to support parties in implementing and maintaining agreements, and including services offered by the Department post permanency post-permanency to assist parties in amending agreements as necessary to meet the needs of the children.

(5) Services offered by the Department for children who exited foster care prior to the availability of Post Permanency Post-Permanency Sibling Contact Agreements, to invite willing parties to participate in a facilitated discussion, including, but not limited to, a mediation or joint team decision-making meeting, to explore sibling contact.

(d) The Department shall develop a form to be provided to youth entering care and exiting care explaining their rights and responsibilities related to sibling visitation while in care and post permanency.

(e) Whenever a child enters care or requires a new placement, the Department shall consider the development and preservation of sibling relationships.

(1) This subsection applies when a child entering care or requiring a change of placement has siblings who are in the custody or guardianship of the Department. When a child enters care or requires a new placement, the Department shall examine its files and other available resources and determine whether a sibling of that child is in the custody or guardianship of the Department. If the Department determines that a sibling is in its custody or guardianship, the Department shall then determine whether it is in the best interests of each of the siblings for the child needing placement to be placed with the sibling. If the Department determines that it is in the best interest of each sibling to be placed together, and the sibling's foster parent is able and willing to care for the child needing placement, the Department shall place the child needing placement with the sibling. A determination that it is not in a child's best interest to be placed with a sibling shall be made in accordance with Department rules, and documented in the file of each sibling.

(2) This subsection applies when a child who is entering care has siblings who have been adopted or placed in private guardianship. When a child enters care, the Department shall examine its files and other available resources, including consulting with the child's parents, to determine whether a sibling of the child was adopted or placed in private guardianship from State care. The Department shall determine, in consultation with the child's parents, whether it would be in the child's best interests to explore placement with the adopted sibling or sibling in guardianship. Unless the parent objects, if the Department determines it is in the child's best interest to explore the placement, the Department shall contact the adoptive parents parent or guardians guardian of the sibling, determine whether they are willing to be considered as placement resources for the child, and, if so, determine whether it is in the best interests of the child to be placed in the home with the sibling. If the Department determines that it is in the child's best interests to be placed in the home with the sibling, and the sibling's adoptive parents or guardians are willing and capable, the Department shall make the placement. A determination that it is not in a child's best interest to be placed with a sibling shall be made in accordance with Department rule, and documented in the child's file.

(3) This subsection applies when a child in Department custody or guardianship requires a change of placement, and the child has siblings who have been adopted or placed in private guardianship. When a child in care requires a new placement, the Department may consider placing the child with the adoptive parent or guardian of a sibling under the same procedures and standards set forth in paragraph (2) of this subsection.

(4) When the Department determines it is not in the best interest of one or more siblings to be placed together the Department shall ensure that the child requiring placement is placed in a home or program where the caregiver is willing and able to be actively involved in supporting the sibling relationship to the extent doing so is in the child's best interest.

(f) When siblings in care are placed in separate placements, the Department shall develop a Sibling Contact Support Plan. The Department shall convene a meeting to develop the Support Plan. The meeting shall include, at a minimum, the case managers for the siblings, the foster parents or other care providers if a child is in a non-foster home placement and the child, when developmentally and clinically appropriate. The Department shall make all reasonable efforts to promote the participation of the foster parents. Parents whose parental rights are intact shall be invited to the meeting. Others, such as therapists and mentors, shall be invited as appropriate. The Support Plan shall set forth future contact and visits between the siblings to develop or preserve, and nurture the siblings' relationships. The Support Plan shall set forth the role of the foster parents and caregivers and others in implementing the Support Plan. The Support Plan must meet the minimum standards regarding frequency of in-person visits provided for in Department rule. The Support Plan will be incorporated in the child's service plan and reviewed at each administrative case review. The Support Plan should be modified if one of the children moves to a new placement, or as necessary to meet the needs of the children. The Sibling Contact Support Plan for a child in care may include siblings who are not in the care of the Department, with the consent and participation of that child's parent or guardian.

(g) By January 1, 2013, the Department shall develop a registry so that placement information regarding adopted siblings and siblings in private guardianship is readily available to Department and private agency caseworkers responsible for placing children in the Department's care. When a child is adopted or placed in private guardianship from foster care the Department shall inform the adoptive parents or guardians that they may be contacted in the future regarding placement of or contact with, siblings subsequently requiring placement.

(h) When a child is in need of an adoptive placement, the Department shall examine its files and other available resources and attempt to determine whether a sibling of the child has been adopted or placed in private guardianship after being in the Department's custody or guardianship. If the Department determines that a sibling of the child has been adopted or placed in private guardianship, the Department shall make a good faith effort to locate the adoptive parents or guardians of the sibling and inform them of the availability of the child for adoption. The Department may determine not to inform the adoptive parents or guardians guardian of a sibling of a child that the child is available for adoption only for a reason permitted under criteria adopted by the Department by rule, and documented in the child's case file. If a child available for adoption has a sibling who has been adopted or placed in guardianship, and the adoptive parents or guardians of that sibling apply to adopt the child, the Department shall consider them as adoptive applicants for the adoption of the child. The Department's final decision as to whether it will consent to the adoptive parents or guardians of a sibling being the adoptive parents of the child shall be based upon the welfare and best interest of the child. In arriving at its decision, the Department shall consider all relevant factors, including but not limited to:

(1) the wishes of the child;

(2) the interaction and interrelationship of the child with the applicant to adopt the child;

(3) the child's need for stability and continuity of relationship with parent figures;

(4) the child's adjustment to his or her present home, school, and community;

(5) the mental and physical health of all individuals involved;

(6) the family ties between the child and the child's relatives, including siblings;

(7) the background, age, and living arrangements of the applicant to adopt the child;

(8) a criminal background report of the applicant to adopt the child.

If placement of the child available for adoption with the adopted sibling or sibling in private guardianship is not feasible, but it is in the child's best interest to develop a relationship with his or her sibling, the Department shall invite the adoptive parents, guardian, or guardians for a mediation or joint team decision-making meeting to facilitate a discussion regarding future sibling contact.

(i) Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement. When a child in the Department's care has a permanency goal of adoption or private guardianship, and the Department is preparing to finalize the adoption or guardianship, the Department shall convene a meeting with the pre-adoptive parent or prospective guardian and the case manager for the child being adopted or placed in guardianship and the foster parents and case managers for the child's siblings, and others as applicable. The children should participate as is developmentally appropriate. Others, such as therapists and mentors, may participate as appropriate. At the meeting the Department shall encourage the parties to discuss sibling contact post permanency. The Department may assist the parties in drafting a Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement.

(1) Parties to the Agreement for Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement shall include:

(A) The adoptive parent or parents or guardian.

(B) The child's sibling or siblings, parents or guardians.

(C) The child.

(2) Consent of child 14 and over. The written consent of a child age 14 and over to the terms and conditions of the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement and subsequent modifications is required.

(3) In developing this Agreement, the Department shall encourage the parties to consider the following factors:

(A) the physical and emotional safety and welfare of the child;

(B) the child's wishes;

(C) the interaction and interrelationship of the child with the child's sibling or siblings who would be visiting or communicating with the child, including:

(i) the quality of the relationship between the child and the sibling or siblings, and

(ii) the benefits and potential harms to the child in allowing the relationship or relationships to continue or in ending them;

(D) the child's sense of attachments to the birth sibling or siblings and adoptive family, including:

(i) the child's sense of being valued;

(ii) the child's sense of familiarity; and

(iii) continuity of affection for the child; and

(E) other factors relevant to the best interest of the child.

(4) In considering the factors in paragraph (3) of this subsection, the Department shall encourage the parties to recognize the importance to a child of developing a relationship with siblings including siblings with whom the child does not yet have a relationship; and the value of preserving family ties between the child and the child's siblings, including:

(A) the child's need for stability and continuity of relationships with siblings, and

(B) the importance of sibling contact in the development of the child's identity.

(5) Modification or termination of Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement. The parties to the agreement may modify or terminate the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement. If the parties cannot agree to modification or termination, they may request the assistance of the Department of Children and Family Services or another agency identified and agreed upon by the parties to the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement. Any and all terms may be modified by agreement of the parties. Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreements may also be modified to include contact with siblings whose whereabouts were unknown or who had not yet been born when the Judgment Order for Adoption or Order for Private Guardianship was entered.

(6) Adoptions and private guardianships finalized prior to the effective date of amendatory Act. Nothing in this Section prohibits the parties from entering into a Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement if the adoption or private guardianship was finalized prior to the effective date of this Section. If the Agreement is completed and signed by the parties, the Department shall include the Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement in the child's Post Adoption or Private Guardianship case record and in the case file of siblings who are parties to the agreement who are in the Department's custody or guardianship.

(Source: P.A. 97-1076, eff. 8-24-12; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 55. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 605-332 and 605-1015 as follows:

(20 ILCS 605/605-332)

Sec. 605-332. Financial assistance to energy generation facilities.

(a) As used in this Section:

"New electric generating facility" means a newly-constructed electric generation plant or a newly constructed generation capacity expansion at an existing facility, including the transmission lines and associated equipment that transfers electricity from points of supply to points of delivery, and for which foundation construction commenced not sooner than July 1, 2001, which is designed to provide baseload electric generation operating on a continuous basis throughout the year and:

(1) has an aggregate rated generating capacity of at least 400 megawatts for all new units at one site, uses coal or gases derived from coal as its primary fuel source, and supports the creation of at least 150 new Illinois coal mining jobs; or

(2) is funded through a federal Department of Energy grant before December 31, 2010 and supports the creation of Illinois coal-mining jobs; or

(3) uses coal gasification or integrated gasification-combined cycle units that generate electricity or chemicals, or both, and supports the creation of Illinois coal-mining jobs.

"New gasification facility" means a newly constructed coal gasification facility that generates chemical feedstocks or transportation fuels derived from coal (which may include, but are not limited to, methane, methanol, and nitrogen fertilizer), that supports the creation or retention of Illinois coal-mining jobs, and that qualifies for financial assistance from the Department before December 31, 2010. A new gasification facility does not include a pilot project located within Jefferson County or within a county adjacent to Jefferson County for synthetic natural gas from coal.

"New facility" means a new electric generating facility or a new gasification facility. A new facility does not include a pilot project located within Jefferson County or within a county adjacent to Jefferson County for synthetic natural gas from coal.

"Eligible business" means an entity that proposes to construct a new facility and that has applied to the Department to receive financial assistance pursuant to this Section. With respect to use and occupation taxes, wherever there is a reference to taxes, that reference means only those taxes paid on Illinois-mined coal used in a new facility.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(b) The Department is authorized to provide financial assistance to eligible businesses for new facilities from funds appropriated by the General Assembly as further provided in this Section.

An eligible business seeking qualification for financial assistance for a new facility, for purposes of this Section only, shall apply to the Department in the manner specified by the Department. Any projections provided by an eligible business as part of the application shall be independently verified in a manner as set forth by the Department. An application shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) the projected or actual completion date of the new facility for which financial assistance is sought;

(2) copies of documentation deemed acceptable by the Department establishing either (i) the total State occupation and use taxes paid on Illinois-mined coal used at the new facility for a minimum of 4 preceding calendar quarters or (ii) the projected amount of State occupation and use taxes paid on Illinois-mined coal used at the new facility in 4 calendar year quarters after completion of the new facility. Bond proceeds subject to this Section shall not be allocated to an eligible business until the eligible business has demonstrated the revenue stream sufficient to service the debt on the bonds; and

(3) the actual or projected amount of capital investment by the eligible business in the new facility.

The Department shall determine the maximum amount of financial assistance for eligible businesses in accordance with this paragraph. The Department shall not provide financial assistance from general obligation bond funds to any eligible business unless it receives a written certification from the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget) that 80% of the State occupation and use tax receipts for a minimum of the preceding 4 calendar quarters for all eligible businesses or as included in projections on approved applications by eligible businesses equal or exceed 110% of the maximum annual debt service required with respect to general obligation bonds issued for that purpose. The Department may provide financial assistance not to exceed the amount of State general obligation debt calculated as above, the amount of actual or projected capital investment in the facility, or $100,000,000, whichever is less. Financial assistance received pursuant to this Section may be used for capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment, and land at the new facility. Subject to the provisions of the agreement covering the financial assistance, a portion of the financial assistance may be required to be repaid to the State if certain conditions for the governmental purpose of the assistance were not met.

An eligible business shall file a monthly report with the Illinois Department of Revenue stating the amount of Illinois-mined coal purchased during the previous month for use in the new facility, the purchase price of that coal, the amount of State occupation and use taxes paid on that purchase to the seller of the Illinois-mined coal, and such other information as that Department may reasonably require. In sales of Illinois-mined coal between related parties, the purchase price of the coal must have been determined in an arm's-length arms-length transaction. The report shall be filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue on or before the 20th day of each month on a form provided by that Department. However, no report need be filed by an eligible business in a month when it made no reportable purchases of coal in the previous month. The Illinois Department of Revenue shall provide a summary of such reports to the Governor's Office of Management and Budget.

Upon granting financial assistance to an eligible business, the Department shall certify the name of the eligible business to the Illinois Department of Revenue. Beginning with the receipt of the first report of State occupation and use taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Illinois Department of Revenue shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business.

(Source: P.A. 94-65, eff. 6-21-05; 94-1030, eff. 7-14-06; 95-18, eff. 7-30-07; revised 10-10-12.)

(20 ILCS 605/605-1015)

Sec. 605-1015. Farmers' markets held in convention centers. To encourage convention center boards and other public or private entities that operate convention centers throughout the State to provide convention center space at a reduced rate or without charge to local farmers' markets to use the space to hold the market when inclement weather prevents holding the market at its regular outdoor location. For purposes of this Section, "farmers' market" has the meaning set forth in the Farmers' Market Technology Improvement Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1015, eff. 1-1-13; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 60. The Business Assistance and Regulatory Reform Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 608/10)

Sec. 10. Executive Office. There is created an Office of Business Permits and Regulatory Assistance (hereinafter referred to as "office") within the Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Community Opportunity) which shall consolidate existing programs throughout State government, provide assistance to businesses with fewer than 500 employees in meeting State requirements for doing business and perform other functions specified in this Act. By March 1, 1994, the office shall complete and file with the Governor and the General Assembly a plan for the implementation of this Act. Thereafter, the office shall carry out the provisions of this Act, subject to funding through appropriation.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 65. The Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(20 ILCS 620/7) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 1007)

Sec. 7. Creation of special tax allocation fund. If a municipality has adopted tax increment allocation financing for an economic development project area by ordinance, the county clerk has thereafter certified the "total initial equalized assessed value" of the taxable real property within such economic development project area in the manner provided in Section 6 of this Act, and the Department has approved and certified the economic development project area, each year after the date of the certification by the county clerk of the "total initial equalized assessed value" until economic development project costs and all municipal obligations financing economic development project costs have been paid, the ad valorem taxes, if any, arising from the levies upon the taxable real property in the economic development project area by taxing districts and tax rates determined in the manner provided in subsection (b) of Section 6 of this Act shall be divided as follows:

(1) That portion of the taxes levied upon each taxable lot, block, tract or parcel of real property which is attributable to the lower of the current equalized assessed value or the initial equalized assessed value of each such taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property existing at the time tax increment allocation financing was adopted, shall be allocated to and when collected shall be paid by the county collector to the respective affected taxing districts in the manner required by law in the absence of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing.

(2) That portion, if any, of those taxes which is attributable to the increase in the current equalized assessed valuation of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the economic development project area, over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property existing at the time tax increment allocation financing was adopted, shall be allocated to and when collected shall be paid to the municipal treasurer, who shall deposit those taxes into a special fund called the special tax allocation fund of the municipality for the purpose of paying economic development project costs and obligations incurred in the payment thereof.

The municipality, by an ordinance adopting tax increment allocation financing, may pledge the funds in and to be deposited in the special tax allocation fund for the payment of obligations issued under this Act and for the payment of economic development project costs. No part of the current equalized assessed valuation of each property in the economic development project area attributable to any increase above the total initial equalized assessed value, of such properties shall be used in calculating the general State school aid formula, provided for in Section 18-8 of the School Code, until such time as all economic development projects costs have been paid as provided for in this Section.

When the economic development project costs, including without limitation all municipal obligations financing economic development project costs incurred under this Act, have been paid, all surplus funds then remaining in the special tax allocation fund shall be distributed by being paid by the municipal treasurer to the county collector, who shall immediately thereafter pay those funds to the taxing districts having taxable property in the economic development project area in the same manner and proportion as the most recent distribution by the county collector to those taxing districts of real property taxes from real property in the economic development project area.

Upon the payment of all economic development project costs, retirement of obligations and the distribution of any excess monies pursuant to this Section the municipality shall adopt an ordinance dissolving the special tax allocation fund for the economic development project area, terminating the economic development project area, and terminating the use of tax increment allocation financing for the economic development project area. Thereafter the rates of the taxing districts shall be extended and taxes levied, collected and distributed in the manner applicable in the absence of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed as relieving property in economic development project areas from being assessed as provided in the Property Tax Code, or as relieving owners of that property from paying a uniform rate of taxes, as required by Section 4 of Article IX 9 of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 88-670, eff. 12-2-94; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 70. The Illinois Enterprise Zone Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(20 ILCS 655/3) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 603)

Sec. 3. Definitions Definition. As used in this Act, the following words shall have the meanings ascribed to them, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Department" means the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(b) "Enterprise Zone" means an area of the State certified by the Department as an Enterprise Zone pursuant to this Act.

(c) "Depressed Area" means an area in which pervasive poverty, unemployment and economic distress exist.

(d) "Designated Zone Organization" means an association or entity: (1) the members of which are substantially all residents of the Enterprise Zone; (2) the board of directors of which is elected by the members of the organization; (3) which satisfies the criteria set forth in Section 501(c) (3) or 501(c) (4) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (4) which exists primarily for the purpose of performing within such area or zone for the benefit of the residents and businesses thereof any of the functions set forth in Section 8 of this Act.

(e) "Agency" means each officer, board, commission and agency created by the Constitution, in the executive branch of State government, other than the State Board of Elections; each officer, department, board, commission, agency, institution, authority, university, body politic and corporate of the State; and each administrative unit or corporate outgrowth of the State government which is created by or pursuant to statute, other than units of local government and their officers, school districts and boards of election commissioners; each administrative unit or corporate outgrowth of the above and as may be created by executive order of the Governor. No entity shall be considered an "agency" for the purposes of this Act unless authorized by law to make rules or regulations.

(f) "Rule" means each agency statement of general applicability that implements, applies, interprets or prescribes law or policy, but does not include (i) statements concerning only the internal management of an agency and not affecting private rights or procedures available to persons or entities outside the agency, (ii) intra-agency memoranda, or (iii) the prescription of standardized forms.

(g) "Board" means the Enterprise Zone Board created in Section 5.2.1.

(h) "Local labor market area" means an economically integrated area within which individuals can reside and find employment within a reasonable distance or can readily change jobs without changing their place of residence.

(i) "Full-time equivalent job" means a job in which the new employee works for the recipient or for a corporation under contract to the recipient at a rate of at least 35 hours per week. A recipient who employs labor or services at a specific site or facility under contract with another may declare one full-time, permanent job for every 1,820 man hours worked per year under that contract. Vacations, paid holidays, and sick time are included in this computation. Overtime is not considered a part of regular hours.

(j) "Full-time retained job" means any employee defined as having a full-time or full-time equivalent job preserved at a specific facility or site, the continuance of which is threatened by a specific and demonstrable threat, which shall be specified in the application for development assistance. A recipient who employs labor or services at a specific site or facility under contract with another may declare one retained employee per year for every 1,750 man hours worked per year under that contract, even if different individuals perform on-site labor or services.

(Source: P.A. 97-905, eff. 8-7-12; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 75. The Corporate Accountability for Tax Expenditures Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(20 ILCS 715/25)

Sec. 25. Recapture.

(a) All development assistance agreements shall contain, at a minimum, the following recapture provisions:

(1) The recipient must (i) make the level of capital investment in the economic development project specified in the development assistance agreement; (ii) create or retain, or both, the requisite number of jobs, paying not less than specified wages for the created and retained jobs, within and for the duration of the time period specified in the legislation authorizing, or the administrative rules implementing, the development assistance programs and the development assistance agreement.

(2) If the recipient fails to create or retain the requisite number of jobs within and for the time period specified, in the legislation authorizing, or the administrative rules implementing, the development assistance programs and the development assistance agreement, the recipient shall be deemed to no longer qualify for the State economic assistance and the applicable recapture provisions shall take effect.

(3) If the recipient receives State economic assistance in the form of a High Impact Business designation pursuant to Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act and the business receives the benefit of the exemption authorized under Section 5l of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act (for the sale of building materials incorporated into a High Impact Business location) and the recipient fails to create or retain the requisite number of jobs, as determined by the legislation authorizing the development assistance programs or the administrative rules implementing such legislation, or both, within the requisite period of time, the recipient shall be required to pay to the State the full amount of the State tax exemption that it received as a result of the High Impact Business designation.

(4) If the recipient receives a grant or loan pursuant to the Large Business Development Program, the Business Development Public Infrastructure Program, or the Industrial Training Program and the recipient fails to create or retain the requisite number of jobs for the requisite time period, as provided in the legislation authorizing the development assistance programs or the administrative rules implementing such legislation, or both, or in the development assistance agreement, the recipient shall be required to repay to the State a pro rata amount of the grant; that amount shall reflect the percentage of the deficiency between the requisite number of jobs to be created or retained by the recipient and the actual number of such jobs in existence as of the date the Department determines the recipient is in breach of the job creation or retention covenants contained in the development assistance agreement. If the recipient of development assistance under the Large Business Development Program, the Business Development Public Infrastructure Program, or the Industrial Training Program ceases operations at the specific project site, during the 5-year period commencing on the date of assistance, the recipient shall be required to repay the entire amount of the grant or to accelerate repayment of the loan back to the State.

(5) If the recipient receives a tax credit under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy tax credit program, the development assistance agreement must provide that (i) if the number of new or retained employees falls below the requisite number set forth in the development assistance agreement, the allowance of the credit shall be automatically suspended until the number of new and retained employees equals or exceeds the requisite number in the development assistance agreement; (ii) if the recipient discontinues operations at the specific project site during the 5-year period after the beginning of the first tax year for which the Department issues a tax credit certificate, the recipient shall forfeit all credits taken by the recipient during such 5-year period; and (iii) in the event of a revocation or suspension of the credit, the Department shall contact the Director of Revenue to initiate proceedings against the recipient to recover wrongfully exempted Illinois State income taxes and the recipient shall promptly repay to the Department of Revenue any wrongfully exempted Illinois State income taxes. The forfeited amount of credits shall be deemed assessed on the date the Department contacts the Department of Revenue and the recipient shall promptly repay to the Department of Revenue any wrongfully exempted Illinois State income taxes.

(b) The Director may elect to waive enforcement of any contractual provision arising out of the development assistance agreement required by this Act based on a finding that the waiver is necessary to avert an imminent and demonstrable hardship to the recipient that may result in such recipient's insolvency or discharge of workers. If a waiver is granted, the recipient must agree to a contractual modification, including recapture provisions, to the development assistance agreement. The existence of any waiver granted pursuant to this subsection (b) (c), the date of the granting of such waiver, and a brief summary of the reasons supporting the granting of such waiver shall be disclosed consistent with the provisions of Section 25 of this Act.

(b-5) The Department shall post, on its website, (i) the identity of each recipient from whom amounts were recaptured under this Section on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, (ii) the date of the recapture, (iii) a summary of the reasons supporting the recapture, and (iv) the amount recaptured from those recipients.

(c) Beginning June 1, 2004, the Department shall annually compile a report on the outcomes and effectiveness of recapture provisions by program, including but not limited to: (i) the total number of companies that receive development assistance as defined in this Act; (ii) the total number of recipients in violation of development agreements with the Department; (iii) the total number of completed recapture efforts; (iv) the total number of recapture efforts initiated; and (v) the number of waivers granted. This report shall be disclosed consistent with the provisions of Section 20 of this Act.

(d) For the purposes of this Act, recapture provisions do not include the Illinois Department of Transportation Economic Development Program, any grants under the Industrial Training Program that are not given as an incentive to a recipient business organization, or any successor programs as described in the term "development assistance" in Section 5 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-2, eff. 5-6-11; 97-721, eff. 6-29-12; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 80. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Section 10-8 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/10-8)

Sec. 10-8. The Autism Research Checkoff Fund; grants; scientific review committee. The Autism Research Checkoff Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. From appropriations to the Department from the Fund, the Department must make grants to public or private entities in Illinois for the purpose of funding research concerning the disorder of autism. For purposes of this Section, the term "research" includes, without limitation, expenditures to develop and advance the understanding, techniques, and modalities effective in the detection, prevention, screening, and treatment of autism and may include clinical trials. No more than 20% of the grant funds may be used for institutional overhead costs, indirect costs, other organizational levies, or costs of community-based support services.

Moneys received for the purposes of this Section, including, without limitation, income tax checkoff receipts and gifts, grants, and awards from any public or private entity, must be deposited into the Fund. Any interest earned on moneys in the Fund must be deposited into the Fund.

Each year, grantees of the grants provided under this Section must submit a written report to the Department that sets forth the types of research that is conducted with the grant moneys and the status of that research.

The Department shall promulgate rules for the creation of a scientific review committee to review and assess applications for the grants authorized under this Section. The Committee shall serve without compensation.

(Source: P.A. 94-442, eff. 8-4-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 85. The Department of Labor Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 1505-210 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1505/1505-210)

Sec. 1505-210. Funds. The Department has the authority to apply for, accept, receive, expend, and administer on behalf of the State any grants, gifts, bequests, loans, indirect cost reimbursements, funds, or anything else of value made available to the Department from any source for assistance with outreach activities related to the Department's enforcement efforts and staffing assistance for boards and commissions under the purview preview of the Department. Any federal funds received by the Department pursuant to this Section shall be deposited in a trust fund with the State Treasurer and held and disbursed by him or her in accordance with the Treasurer as Custodian of Funds Act, provided that such moneys shall be used only for the purposes for which they are contributed and any balance remaining shall be returned to the contributor. The Department is authorized to promulgate such rules and enter into such contracts as it may deem necessary in carrying out the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-745, eff. 7-6-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 90. The Illinois Lottery Law is amended by changing Sections 9.1 and 27 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1605/9.1)

Sec. 9.1. Private manager and management agreement.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Offeror" means a person or group of persons that responds to a request for qualifications under this Section.

"Request for qualifications" means all materials and documents prepared by the Department to solicit the following from offerors:

(1) Statements of qualifications.

(2) Proposals to enter into a management agreement, including the identity of any prospective vendor or vendors that the offeror intends to initially engage to assist the offeror in performing its obligations under the management agreement.

"Final offer" means the last proposal submitted by an offeror in response to the request for qualifications, including the identity of any prospective vendor or vendors that the offeror intends to initially engage to assist the offeror in performing its obligations under the management agreement.

"Final offeror" means the offeror ultimately selected by the Governor to be the private manager for the Lottery under subsection (h) of this Section.

(b) By September 15, 2010, the Governor shall select a private manager for the total management of the Lottery with integrated functions, such as lottery game design, supply of goods and services, and advertising and as specified in this Section.

(c) Pursuant to the terms of this subsection, the Department shall endeavor to expeditiously terminate the existing contracts in support of the Lottery in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly in connection with the selection of the private manager. As part of its obligation to terminate these contracts and select the private manager, the Department shall establish a mutually agreeable timetable to transfer the functions of existing contractors to the private manager so that existing Lottery operations are not materially diminished or impaired during the transition. To that end, the Department shall do the following:

(1) where such contracts contain a provision authorizing termination upon notice, the Department shall provide notice of termination to occur upon the mutually agreed timetable for transfer of functions;

(2) upon the expiration of any initial term or renewal term of the current Lottery contracts, the Department shall not renew such contract for a term extending beyond the mutually agreed timetable for transfer of functions; or

(3) in the event any current contract provides for termination of that contract upon the implementation of a contract with the private manager, the Department shall perform all necessary actions to terminate the contract on the date that coincides with the mutually agreed timetable for transfer of functions.

If the contracts to support the current operation of the Lottery in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly are not subject to termination as provided for in this subsection (c), then the Department may include a provision in the contract with the private manager specifying a mutually agreeable methodology for incorporation.

(c-5) The Department shall include provisions in the management agreement whereby the private manager shall, for a fee, and pursuant to a contract negotiated with the Department (the "Employee Use Contract"), utilize the services of current Department employees to assist in the administration and operation of the Lottery. The Department shall be the employer of all such bargaining unit employees assigned to perform such work for the private manager, and such employees shall be State employees, as defined by the Personnel Code. Department employees shall operate under the same employment policies, rules, regulations, and procedures, as other employees of the Department. In addition, neither historical representation rights under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, nor existing collective bargaining agreements, shall be disturbed by the management agreement with the private manager for the management of the Lottery.

(d) The management agreement with the private manager shall include all of the following:

(1) A term not to exceed 10 years, including any renewals.

(2) A provision specifying that the Department:

(A) shall exercise actual control over all significant business decisions;

(A-5) has the authority to direct or countermand operating decisions by the private manager at any time;

(B) has ready access at any time to information regarding Lottery operations;

(C) has the right to demand and receive information from the private manager concerning any aspect of the Lottery operations at any time; and

(D) retains ownership of all trade names, trademarks, and intellectual property associated with the Lottery.

(3) A provision imposing an affirmative duty on the private manager to provide the Department with material information and with any information the private manager reasonably believes the Department would want to know to enable the Department to conduct the Lottery.

(4) A provision requiring the private manager to provide the Department with advance notice of any operating decision that bears significantly on the public interest, including, but not limited to, decisions on the kinds of games to be offered to the public and decisions affecting the relative risk and reward of the games being offered, so the Department has a reasonable opportunity to evaluate and countermand that decision.

(5) A provision providing for compensation of the private manager that may consist of, among other things, a fee for services and a performance based bonus as consideration for managing the Lottery, including terms that may provide the private manager with an increase in compensation if Lottery revenues grow by a specified percentage in a given year.

(6) (Blank).

(7) A provision requiring the deposit of all Lottery proceeds to be deposited into the State Lottery Fund except as otherwise provided in Section 20 of this Act.

(8) A provision requiring the private manager to locate its principal office within the State.

(8-5) A provision encouraging that at least 20% of the cost of contracts entered into for goods and services by the private manager in connection with its management of the Lottery, other than contracts with sales agents or technical advisors, be awarded to businesses that are a minority owned business, a female owned business, or a business owned by a person with disability, as those terms are defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(9) A requirement that so long as the private manager complies with all the conditions of the agreement under the oversight of the Department, the private manager shall have the following duties and obligations with respect to the management of the Lottery:

(A) The right to use equipment and other assets used in the operation of the Lottery.

(B) The rights and obligations under contracts with retailers and vendors.

(C) The implementation of a comprehensive security program by the private manager.

(D) The implementation of a comprehensive system of internal audits.

(E) The implementation of a program by the private manager to curb compulsive gambling by persons playing the Lottery.

(F) A system for determining (i) the type of Lottery games, (ii) the method of selecting winning tickets, (iii) the manner of payment of prizes to holders of winning tickets, (iv) the frequency of drawings of winning tickets, (v) the method to be used in selling tickets, (vi) a system for verifying the validity of tickets claimed to be winning tickets, (vii) the basis upon which retailer commissions are established by the manager, and (viii) minimum payouts.

(10) A requirement that advertising and promotion must be consistent with Section 7.8a of this Act.

(11) A requirement that the private manager market the Lottery to those residents who are new, infrequent, or lapsed players of the Lottery, especially those who are most likely to make regular purchases on the Internet as permitted by law.

(12) A code of ethics for the private manager's officers and employees.

(13) A requirement that the Department monitor and oversee the private manager's practices and take action that the Department considers appropriate to ensure that the private manager is in compliance with the terms of the management agreement, while allowing the manager, unless specifically prohibited by law or the management agreement, to negotiate and sign its own contracts with vendors.

(14) A provision requiring the private manager to periodically file, at least on an annual basis, appropriate financial statements in a form and manner acceptable to the Department.

(15) Cash reserves requirements.

(16) Procedural requirements for obtaining the prior approval of the Department when a management agreement or an interest in a management agreement is sold, assigned, transferred, or pledged as collateral to secure financing.

(17) Grounds for the termination of the management agreement by the Department or the private manager.

(18) Procedures for amendment of the agreement.

(19) A provision requiring the private manager to engage in an open and competitive bidding process for any procurement having a cost in excess of $50,000 that is not a part of the private manager's final offer. The process shall favor the selection of a vendor deemed to have submitted a proposal that provides the Lottery with the best overall value. The process shall not be subject to the provisions of the Illinois Procurement Code, unless specifically required by the management agreement.

(20) The transition of rights and obligations, including any associated equipment or other assets used in the operation of the Lottery, from the manager to any successor manager of the lottery, including the Department, following the termination of or foreclosure upon the management agreement.

(21) Right of use of copyrights, trademarks, and service marks held by the Department in the name of the State. The agreement must provide that any use of them by the manager shall only be for the purpose of fulfilling its obligations under the management agreement during the term of the agreement.

(22) The disclosure of any information requested by the Department to enable it to comply with the reporting requirements and information requests provided for under subsection (p) of this Section.

(e) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Department shall select a private manager through a competitive request for qualifications process consistent with Section 20-35 of the Illinois Procurement Code, which shall take into account:

(1) the offeror's ability to market the Lottery to those residents who are new, infrequent, or lapsed players of the Lottery, especially those who are most likely to make regular purchases on the Internet;

(2) the offeror's ability to address the State's concern with the social effects of gambling on those who can least afford to do so;

(3) the offeror's ability to provide the most successful management of the Lottery for the benefit of the people of the State based on current and past business practices or plans of the offeror; and

(4) the offeror's poor or inadequate past performance in servicing, equipping, operating or managing a lottery on behalf of Illinois, another State or foreign government and attracting persons who are not currently regular players of a lottery.

(f) The Department may retain the services of an advisor or advisors with significant experience in financial services or the management, operation, and procurement of goods, services, and equipment for a government-run lottery to assist in the preparation of the terms of the request for qualifications and selection of the private manager. Any prospective advisor seeking to provide services under this subsection (f) shall disclose any material business or financial relationship during the past 3 years with any potential offeror, or with a contractor or subcontractor presently providing goods, services, or equipment to the Department to support the Lottery. The Department shall evaluate the material business or financial relationship of each prospective advisor. The Department shall not select any prospective advisor with a substantial business or financial relationship that the Department deems to impair the objectivity of the services to be provided by the prospective advisor. During the course of the advisor's engagement by the Department, and for a period of one year thereafter, the advisor shall not enter into any business or financial relationship with any offeror or any vendor identified to assist an offeror in performing its obligations under the management agreement. Any advisor retained by the Department shall be disqualified from being an offeror. The Department shall not include terms in the request for qualifications that provide a material advantage whether directly or indirectly to any potential offeror, or any contractor or subcontractor presently providing goods, services, or equipment to the Department to support the Lottery, including terms contained in previous responses to requests for proposals or qualifications submitted to Illinois, another State or foreign government when those terms are uniquely associated with a particular potential offeror, contractor, or subcontractor. The request for proposals offered by the Department on December 22, 2008 as "LOT08GAMESYS" and reference number "22016176" is declared void.

(g) The Department shall select at least 2 offerors as finalists to potentially serve as the private manager no later than August 9, 2010. Upon making preliminary selections, the Department shall schedule a public hearing on the finalists' proposals and provide public notice of the hearing at least 7 calendar days before the hearing. The notice must include all of the following:

(1) The date, time, and place of the hearing.

(2) The subject matter of the hearing.

(3) A brief description of the management agreement to be awarded.

(4) The identity of the offerors that have been selected as finalists to serve as the private manager.

(5) The address and telephone number of the Department.

(h) At the public hearing, the Department shall (i) provide sufficient time for each finalist to present and explain its proposal to the Department and the Governor or the Governor's designee, including an opportunity to respond to questions posed by the Department, Governor, or designee and (ii) allow the public and non-selected offerors to comment on the presentations. The Governor or a designee shall attend the public hearing. After the public hearing, the Department shall have 14 calendar days to recommend to the Governor whether a management agreement should be entered into with a particular finalist. After reviewing the Department's recommendation, the Governor may accept or reject the Department's recommendation, and shall select a final offeror as the private manager by publication of a notice in the Illinois Procurement Bulletin on or before September 15, 2010. The Governor shall include in the notice a detailed explanation and the reasons why the final offeror is superior to other offerors and will provide management services in a manner that best achieves the objectives of this Section. The Governor shall also sign the management agreement with the private manager.

(i) Any action to contest the private manager selected by the Governor under this Section must be brought within 7 calendar days after the publication of the notice of the designation of the private manager as provided in subsection (h) of this Section.

(j) The Lottery shall remain, for so long as a private manager manages the Lottery in accordance with provisions of this Act, a Lottery conducted by the State, and the State shall not be authorized to sell or transfer the Lottery to a third party.

(k) Any tangible personal property used exclusively in connection with the lottery that is owned by the Department and leased to the private manager shall be owned by the Department in the name of the State and shall be considered to be public property devoted to an essential public and governmental function.

(l) The Department may exercise any of its powers under this Section or any other law as necessary or desirable for the execution of the Department's powers under this Section.

(m) Neither this Section nor any management agreement entered into under this Section prohibits the General Assembly from authorizing forms of gambling that are not in direct competition with the Lottery.

(n) The private manager shall be subject to a complete investigation in the third, seventh, and tenth years of the agreement (if the agreement is for a 10-year term) by the Department in cooperation with the Auditor General to determine whether the private manager has complied with this Section and the management agreement. The private manager shall bear the cost of an investigation or reinvestigation of the private manager under this subsection.

(o) The powers conferred by this Section are in addition and supplemental to the powers conferred by any other law. If any other law or rule is inconsistent with this Section, including, but not limited to, provisions of the Illinois Procurement Code, then this Section controls as to any management agreement entered into under this Section. This Section and any rules adopted under this Section contain full and complete authority for a management agreement between the Department and a private manager. No law, procedure, proceeding, publication, notice, consent, approval, order, or act by the Department or any other officer, Department, agency, or instrumentality of the State or any political subdivision is required for the Department to enter into a management agreement under this Section. This Section contains full and complete authority for the Department to approve any contracts entered into by a private manager with a vendor providing goods, services, or both goods and services to the private manager under the terms of the management agreement, including subcontractors of such vendors.

Upon receipt of a written request from the Chief Procurement Officer, the Department shall provide to the Chief Procurement Officer a complete and un-redacted copy of the management agreement or any contract that is subject to the Department's approval authority under this subsection (o). The Department shall provide a copy of the agreement or contract to the Chief Procurement Officer in the time specified by the Chief Procurement Officer in his or her written request, but no later than 5 business days after the request is received by the Department. The Chief Procurement Officer must retain any portions of the management agreement or of any contract designated by the Department as confidential, proprietary, or trade secret information in complete confidence pursuant to subsection (g) of Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act. The Department shall also provide the Chief Procurement Officer with reasonable advance written notice of any contract that is pending Department approval.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section to the contrary, the Chief Procurement Officer shall adopt administrative rules, including emergency rules, to establish a procurement process to select a successor private manager if a private management agreement has been terminated. The selection process shall at a minimum take into account the criteria set forth in items (1) through (4) of subsection (e) of this Section and may include provisions consistent with subsections (f), (g), (h), and (i) of this Section. The Chief Procurement Officer shall also implement and administer the adopted selection process upon the termination of a private management agreement. The Department, after the Chief Procurement Officer certifies that the procurement process has been followed in accordance with the rules adopted under this subsection (o), shall select a final offeror as the private manager and sign the management agreement with the private manager.

Except as provided in Sections 21.2, 21.5, 21.6, 21.7, and 21.8, the Department shall distribute all proceeds of lottery tickets and shares sold in the following priority and manner:

(1) The payment of prizes and retailer bonuses.

(2) The payment of costs incurred in the operation and administration of the Lottery, including the payment of sums due to the private manager under the management agreement with the Department.

(3) On the last day of each month or as soon thereafter as possible, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the State Lottery Fund to the Common School Fund an amount that is equal to the proceeds transferred in the corresponding month of fiscal year 2009, as adjusted for inflation, to the Common School Fund.

(4) On or before the last day of each fiscal year, deposit any remaining proceeds, subject to payments under items (1), (2), and (3) into the Capital Projects Fund each fiscal year.

(p) The Department shall be subject to the following reporting and information request requirements:

(1) the Department shall submit written quarterly reports to the Governor and the General Assembly on the activities and actions of the private manager selected under this Section;

(2) upon request of the Chief Procurement Officer, the Department shall promptly produce information related to the procurement activities of the Department and the private manager requested by the Chief Procurement Officer; the Chief Procurement Officer must retain confidential, proprietary, or trade secret information designated by the Department in complete confidence pursuant to subsection (g) of Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act; and

(3) at least 30 days prior to the beginning of the Department's fiscal year, the Department shall prepare an annual written report on the activities of the private manager selected under this Section and deliver that report to the Governor and General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-840, eff. 12-23-09; 97-464, eff. 8-19-11; revised 10-17-12.)

(20 ILCS 1605/27) (from Ch. 120, par. 1177)

Sec. 27. (a) The State Treasurer may, with the consent of the Superintendent, contract with any person or corporation, including, without limitation, a bank, banking house, trust company or investment banking firm, to perform such financial functions, activities or services in connection with operation of the lottery as the State Treasurer and the Superintendent may prescribe.

(b) All proceeds from investments made pursuant to contracts executed by the State Treasurer, with the consent of the Superintendent, to perform financial functions, activities or services in connection with operation of the lottery, shall be deposited and held by the State Treasurer as ex-officio custodian thereof, separate and apart from all public money or funds of this State in a special trust fund outside the State treasury. Such trust fund shall be known as the "Deferred Lottery Prize Winners Trust Fund", and shall be administered by the Superintendent.

The Superintendent shall, at such times and in such amounts as shall be necessary, prepare and send to the State Comptroller vouchers requesting payment from the Deferred Lottery Prize Winners Trust Fund to deferred prize winners, in a manner that will insure the timely payment of such amounts owed.

This Act shall constitute an irrevocable appropriation of all amounts necessary for that purpose, and the irrevocable and continuing authority for and direction to the Superintendent and the State Treasurer to make the necessary payments out of such trust fund for that purpose.

(c) Moneys invested pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section may be invested only in bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness, treasury bills, or other securities constituting direct obligations of the United States of America and all securities or obligations the prompt payment of principal and interest of which is guaranteed by a pledge of the full faith and credit of the United States of America. Interest earnings on moneys in the Deferred Lottery Prize Winners Trust Fund shall remain in such fund and be used to pay the winners of lottery prizes deferred as to payment until such obligations are discharged. Proceeds from bonds purchased and interest accumulated as a result of a grand prize multi-state game ticket that goes unclaimed will be transferred after the termination of the relevant claim period directly from the lottery's Deferred Lottery Prize Winners Trust Fund to each respective multi-state partner state according to its contribution ratio.

(c-5) If a deferred lottery prize is not claimed within the claim period established by game rule, then the securities or other instruments purchased to fund the prize shall be liquidated and the liquidated amount shall be transferred to the State Lottery Fund for disposition pursuant to Section 19 of this Act.

(c-10) The Superintendent may use a portion of the moneys in the Deferred Lottery Prize Winners Trust Fund to purchase bonds to pay a lifetime prize if the prize duration exceeds the length of available securities. If the winner of a lifetime prize exceeds his or her life expectancy as determined using actuarial assumptions and the securities or moneys set aside to pay the prize have been exhausted, moneys in the State Lottery Fund shall be used to make payments to the winner for the duration of the winner's life.

(c-15) From time to time, the Superintendent may request that the State Comptroller transfer any excess moneys in the Deferred Lottery Prize Winners Trust Fund to the State Lottery Fund.

(d) This amendatory Act of 1985 shall be construed liberally to effect the purposes of the Illinois Lottery Law.

(Source: P.A. 97-464, eff. 10-15-11; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 100. The Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2605-590 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-590)

Sec. 2605-590. Drug Traffic Prevention Fund. Moneys deposited into the Drug Traffic Prevention Fund pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 5-9-1.1 and subsection (c) of Section 5-9-1.1-5 5-9-1.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections shall be appropriated to and administered by the Department of State Police for funding of drug task forces and Metropolitan Enforcement Groups in accordance with the Intergovernmental Drug Laws Enforcement Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1234, eff. 7-23-10; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 105. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 13 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/13)

Sec. 13. Retention and release of sealed records.

(a) The Department of State Police shall retain records sealed under subsection (c),, or (e-5) of Section 5.2 or impounded under subparagraph (B) of paragraph (9) of subsection (d) of Section 5.2 and shall release them only as authorized by this Act. Felony records sealed under subsection (c),, or (e-5) of Section 5.2 or impounded under subparagraph (B) of paragraph (9) of subsection (d) of Section 5.2 shall be used and disseminated by the Department only as otherwise specifically required or authorized by a federal or State law, rule, or regulation that requires inquiry into and release of criminal records, including, but not limited to, subsection (A) of Section 3 of this Act. However, all requests for records that have been expunged, sealed, and impounded and the use of those records are subject to the provisions of Section 2-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act. Upon conviction for any offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual.

(b) Notwithstanding the foregoing, all sealed or impounded records are subject to inspection and use by the court and inspection and use by law enforcement agencies and State's Attorneys or other prosecutors in carrying out the duties of their offices.

(c) The sealed or impounded records maintained under subsection (a) are exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

(d) The Department of State Police shall commence the sealing of records of felony arrests and felony convictions pursuant to the provisions of subsection (c) of Section 5.2 of this Act no later than one year from the date that funds have been made available for purposes of establishing the technologies necessary to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-409, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1401, eff. 7-29-10; 97-1026, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1120, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 110. The Illinois State Agency Historic Resources Preservation Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3420/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 133c23)

Sec. 3. Definitions.

(a) "Director" means the Director of Historic Preservation who shall serve as the State Historic Preservation Officer.

(b) "Agency" shall have the same meaning as in Section 1-20 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, and shall specifically include all agencies and entities made subject to such Act by any State statute.

(c) "Historic resource" means any property which is either publicly or privately held and which:

(1) is listed in the National Register of Historic Places (hereafter "National Register");

(2) has been formally determined by the Director to be eligible for listing in the National Register as defined in Section 106 of Title 16 of the United States Code;

(3) has been nominated by the Director and the Illinois Historic Sites Advisory Council for listing in the National Register; or

(4) meets one or more criteria for listing in the National Register, as determined by the Director; or .

(5) (blank).

(d) "Adverse effect" means:

(1) destruction or alteration of all or part of an historic resource;

(2) isolation or alteration of the surrounding environment of an historic resource;

(3) introduction of visual, audible, or atmospheric elements which are out of character with an historic resource or which alter its setting;

(4) neglect or improper utilization of an historic resource which results in its deterioration or destruction; or

(5) transfer or sale of an historic resource to any public or private entity without the inclusion of adequate conditions or restrictions regarding preservation, maintenance, or use.

(e) "Comment" means the written finding by the Director of the effect of a State undertaking on an historic resource.

(f) "Undertaking" means any project, activity, or program that can result in changes in the character or use of historic property, if any historic property is located in the area of potential effects. The project, activity or program shall be under the direct or indirect jurisdiction of a State agency or licensed or assisted by a State agency. An undertaking includes, but is not limited to, action which is:

(1) directly undertaken by a State agency;

(2) supported in whole or in part through State contracts, grants, subsidies, loan guarantees, or any other form of direct or indirect funding assistance; or

(3) carried out pursuant to a State lease, permit, license, certificate, approval, or other form of entitlement or permission.

(g) "Committee" means the Historic Preservation Mediation Committee.

(h) "Feasible" means capable of being accomplished in a successful manner within a reasonable period of time, taking into account economic, environmental, social, and technological factors.

(i) "Private undertaking" means any undertaking that does not receive public funding or is not on public lands.

(j) "High probability area" means any occurrence of Cahokia Alluvium, Carmi Member of the Equality Formation, Grayslake Peat, Parkland Sand, Peyton Colluvium, the Batavia Member of the Henry Formation, or the Mackinaw Member, as mapped by Lineback et al. (1979) at a scale of 1-500,000 within permanent stream floodplains and including:

(1) 500 yards of the adjoining bluffline crest of the Fox, Illinois, Kankakee, Kaskaskia, Mississippi, Ohio, Rock and Wabash Rivers and 300 yards of the adjoining bluffline crest of all other rivers or

(2) a 500 yard wide area along the shore of Lake Michigan abutting the high water mark.

(Source: P.A. 97-785, eff. 7-13-12; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 115. The Illinois Finance Authority Act is amended by changing Section 825-80 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3501/825-80)

Sec. 825-80. Fire truck revolving loan program.

(a) This Section is a continuation and re-enactment of the fire truck revolving loan program enacted as Section 3-27 of the Rural Bond Bank Act by Public Act 93-35, effective June 24, 2003, and repealed by Public Act 93-205, effective January 1, 2004. Under the Rural Bond Bank Act, the program was administered by the Rural Bond Bank and the State Fire Marshal.

(a-5) For purposes of this Section, "brush truck" means a pickup chassis with or equipped with a flatbed or a pickup box. The truck must be rated by the manufacturer as between three-fourths of a ton and one ton and outfitted with a fire or rescue apparatus.

(b) The Authority and the State Fire Marshal may jointly administer a fire truck revolving loan program. The program shall, in instances where sufficient loan funds exist to permit applications to be accepted, provide zero-interest and low-interest loans for the purchase of fire trucks by a fire department, a fire protection district, or a township fire department. For the purchase of brush trucks by a fire department, a fire protection district, or a township fire department, the program shall provide loans at a 2% rate of simple interest per year for a brush truck if both the chassis and the apparatus are built outside of Illinois, a 1% rate of simple interest per year for a brush truck if either the chassis or the apparatus is built in Illinois, or a 0% rate of interest for a brush truck if both the chassis and the apparatus are built in Illinois. The Authority shall make loans based on need, as determined by the State Fire Marshal.

(c) The loan funds, subject to appropriation, shall be paid out of the Fire Truck Revolving Loan Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury. The Fund shall consist of any moneys transferred or appropriated into the Fund, as well as all repayments of loans made under the program and any balance existing in the Fund on the effective date of this Section. The Fund shall be used for loans to fire departments and fire protection districts to purchase fire trucks and brush trucks and for no other purpose. All interest earned on moneys in the Fund shall be deposited into the Fund. As soon as practical after January 1, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-901) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, all moneys in the Fire Truck Revolving Loan Fund shall be paid by the State Fire Marshal to the Authority, and, on and after that the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, all future moneys deposited into the Fire Truck Revolving Loan Fund under this Section shall be paid by the State Fire Marshal to the Authority under the continuing appropriation provision of subsection (c-1) of this Section; provided that the Authority and the State Fire Marshal enter into an intergovernmental agreement to use the moneys transferred to the Authority from the Fund solely for the purposes for which the moneys would otherwise be used under this Section and to set forth procedures to otherwise administer the use of the moneys.

(c-1) There is hereby appropriated, on a continuing annual basis in each fiscal year, from the Fire Truck Revolving Loan Fund, the amount, if any, of funds received into the Fire Truck Revolving Loan Fund to the State Fire Marshal for payment to the Authority for the purposes for which the moneys would otherwise be used under this Section.

(d) A loan for the purchase of fire trucks or brush trucks may not exceed $250,000 to any fire department or fire protection district. A loan for the purchase of brush trucks may not exceed $100,000 per truck. The repayment period for the loan may not exceed 20 years. The fire department or fire protection district shall repay each year at least 5% of the principal amount borrowed or the remaining balance of the loan, whichever is less. All repayments of loans shall be deposited into the Fire Truck Revolving Loan Fund.

(e) The Authority and the State Fire Marshal may adopt rules in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act to administer the program.

(f) Notwithstanding the repeal of Section 3-27 of the Rural Bond Bank Act, all otherwise lawful actions taken on or after January 1, 2004 and before the effective date of this Section by any person under the authority originally granted by that Section 3-27, including without limitation the granting, acceptance, and repayment of loans for the purchase of fire trucks, are hereby validated, and the rights and obligations of all parties to any such loan are hereby acknowledged and confirmed.

(Source: P.A. 97-900, eff. 8-6-12; 97-901, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

Section 120. The Illinois Power Agency Act is amended by changing Sections 1-75 and 1-92 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3855/1-75)

Sec. 1-75. Planning and Procurement Bureau. The Planning and Procurement Bureau has the following duties and responsibilities:

(a) The Planning and Procurement Bureau shall each year, beginning in 2008, develop procurement plans and conduct competitive procurement processes in accordance with the requirements of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act for the eligible retail customers of electric utilities that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to at least 100,000 customers in Illinois. The Planning and Procurement Bureau shall also develop procurement plans and conduct competitive procurement processes in accordance with the requirements of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act for the eligible retail customers of small multi-jurisdictional electric utilities that (i) on December 31, 2005 served less than 100,000 customers in Illinois and (ii) request a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load. This Section shall not apply to a small multi-jurisdictional utility until such time as a small multi-jurisdictional utility requests the Agency to prepare a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load. For the purposes of this Section, the term "eligible retail customers" has the same definition as found in Section 16-111.5(a) of the Public Utilities Act.

(1) The Agency shall each year, beginning in 2008, as needed, issue a request for qualifications for experts or expert consulting firms to develop the procurement plans in accordance with Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. In order to qualify an expert or expert consulting firm must have:

(A) direct previous experience assembling large-scale power supply plans or portfolios for end-use customers;

(B) an advanced degree in economics, mathematics, engineering, risk management, or a related area of study;

(C) 10 years of experience in the electricity sector, including managing supply risk;

(D) expertise in wholesale electricity market rules, including those established by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission and regional transmission organizations;

(E) expertise in credit protocols and familiarity with contract protocols;

(F) adequate resources to perform and fulfill the required functions and responsibilities; and

(G) the absence of a conflict of interest and inappropriate bias for or against potential bidders or the affected electric utilities.

(2) The Agency shall each year, as needed, issue a request for qualifications for a procurement administrator to conduct the competitive procurement processes in accordance with Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. In order to qualify an expert or expert consulting firm must have:

(A) direct previous experience administering a large-scale competitive procurement process;

(B) an advanced degree in economics, mathematics, engineering, or a related area of study;

(C) 10 years of experience in the electricity sector, including risk management experience;

(D) expertise in wholesale electricity market rules, including those established by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission and regional transmission organizations;

(E) expertise in credit and contract protocols;

(F) adequate resources to perform and fulfill the required functions and responsibilities; and

(G) the absence of a conflict of interest and inappropriate bias for or against potential bidders or the affected electric utilities.

(3) The Agency shall provide affected utilities and other interested parties with the lists of qualified experts or expert consulting firms identified through the request for qualifications processes that are under consideration to develop the procurement plans and to serve as the procurement administrator. The Agency shall also provide each qualified expert's or expert consulting firm's response to the request for qualifications. All information provided under this subparagraph shall also be provided to the Commission. The Agency may provide by rule for fees associated with supplying the information to utilities and other interested parties. These parties shall, within 5 business days, notify the Agency in writing if they object to any experts or expert consulting firms on the lists. Objections shall be based on:

(A) failure to satisfy qualification criteria;

(B) identification of a conflict of interest; or

(C) evidence of inappropriate bias for or against potential bidders or the affected utilities.

The Agency shall remove experts or expert consulting firms from the lists within 10 days if there is a reasonable basis for an objection and provide the updated lists to the affected utilities and other interested parties. If the Agency fails to remove an expert or expert consulting firm from a list, an objecting party may seek review by the Commission within 5 days thereafter by filing a petition, and the Commission shall render a ruling on the petition within 10 days. There is no right of appeal of the Commission's ruling.

(4) The Agency shall issue requests for proposals to the qualified experts or expert consulting firms to develop a procurement plan for the affected utilities and to serve as procurement administrator.

(5) The Agency shall select an expert or expert consulting firm to develop procurement plans based on the proposals submitted and shall award contracts of up to 5 years to those selected.

(6) The Agency shall select an expert or expert consulting firm, with approval of the Commission, to serve as procurement administrator based on the proposals submitted. If the Commission rejects, within 5 days, the Agency's selection, the Agency shall submit another recommendation within 3 days based on the proposals submitted. The Agency shall award a 5-year contract to the expert or expert consulting firm so selected with Commission approval.

(b) The experts or expert consulting firms retained by the Agency shall, as appropriate, prepare procurement plans, and conduct a competitive procurement process as prescribed in Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act, to ensure adequate, reliable, affordable, efficient, and environmentally sustainable electric service at the lowest total cost over time, taking into account any benefits of price stability, for eligible retail customers of electric utilities that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to at least 100,000 customers in the State of Illinois, and for eligible Illinois retail customers of small multi-jurisdictional electric utilities that (i) on December 31, 2005 served less than 100,000 customers in Illinois and (ii) request a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load.

(c) Renewable portfolio standard.

(1) The procurement plans shall include cost-effective renewable energy resources. A minimum percentage of each utility's total supply to serve the load of eligible retail customers, as defined in Section 16-111.5(a) of the Public Utilities Act, procured for each of the following years shall be generated from cost-effective renewable energy resources: at least 2% by June 1, 2008; at least 4% by June 1, 2009; at least 5% by June 1, 2010; at least 6% by June 1, 2011; at least 7% by June 1, 2012; at least 8% by June 1, 2013; at least 9% by June 1, 2014; at least 10% by June 1, 2015; and increasing by at least 1.5% each year thereafter to at least 25% by June 1, 2025. To the extent that it is available, at least 75% of the renewable energy resources used to meet these standards shall come from wind generation and, beginning on June 1, 2011, at least the following percentages of the renewable energy resources used to meet these standards shall come from photovoltaics on the following schedule: 0.5% by June 1, 2012, 1.5% by June 1, 2013; 3% by June 1, 2014; and 6% by June 1, 2015 and thereafter. Of the renewable energy resources procured pursuant to this Section, at least the following percentages shall come from distributed renewable energy generation devices: 0.5% by June 1, 2013, 0.75% by June 1, 2014, and 1% by June 1, 2015 and thereafter. To the extent available, half of the renewable energy resources procured from distributed renewable energy generation shall come from devices of less than 25 kilowatts in nameplate capacity. Renewable energy resources procured from distributed generation devices may also count towards the required percentages for wind and solar photovoltaics. Procurement of renewable energy resources from distributed renewable energy generation devices shall be done on an annual basis through multi-year contracts of no less than 5 years, and shall consist solely of renewable energy credits.

The Agency shall create credit requirements for suppliers of distributed renewable energy. In order to minimize the administrative burden on contracting entities, the Agency shall solicit the use of third-party organizations to aggregate distributed renewable energy into groups of no less than one megawatt in installed capacity. These third-party organizations shall administer contracts with individual distributed renewable energy generation device owners. An individual distributed renewable energy generation device owner shall have the ability to measure the output of his or her distributed renewable energy generation device.

For purposes of this subsection (c), "cost-effective" means that the costs of procuring renewable energy resources do not cause the limit stated in paragraph (2) of this subsection (c) to be exceeded and do not exceed benchmarks based on market prices for renewable energy resources in the region, which shall be developed by the procurement administrator, in consultation with the Commission staff, Agency staff, and the procurement monitor and shall be subject to Commission review and approval.

(2) For purposes of this subsection (c), the required procurement of cost-effective renewable energy resources for a particular year shall be measured as a percentage of the actual amount of electricity (megawatt-hours) supplied by the electric utility to eligible retail customers in the planning year ending immediately prior to the procurement. For purposes of this subsection (c), the amount paid per kilowatthour means the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis. For purposes of this subsection (c), the total amount paid for electric service includes without limitation amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges, and add-on taxes.

Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (c), the total of renewable energy resources procured pursuant to the procurement plan for any single year shall be reduced by an amount necessary to limit the annual estimated average net increase due to the costs of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to:

(A) in 2008, no more than 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007;

(B) in 2009, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2008 or 1% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007;

(C) in 2010, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009 or 1.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007;

(D) in 2011, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2010 or 2% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007; and

(E) thereafter, the amount of renewable energy resources procured pursuant to the procurement plan for any single year shall be reduced by an amount necessary to limit the estimated average net increase due to the cost of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to no more than the greater of 2.015% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007 or the incremental amount per kilowatthour paid for these resources in 2011.

No later than June 30, 2011, the Commission shall review the limitation on the amount of renewable energy resources procured pursuant to this subsection (c) and report to the General Assembly its findings as to whether that limitation unduly constrains the procurement of cost-effective renewable energy resources.

(3) Through June 1, 2011, renewable energy resources shall be counted for the purpose of meeting the renewable energy standards set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c) only if they are generated from facilities located in the State, provided that cost-effective renewable energy resources are available from those facilities. If those cost-effective resources are not available in Illinois, they shall be procured in states that adjoin Illinois and may be counted towards compliance. If those cost-effective resources are not available in Illinois or in states that adjoin Illinois, they shall be purchased elsewhere and shall be counted towards compliance. After June 1, 2011, cost-effective renewable energy resources located in Illinois and in states that adjoin Illinois may be counted towards compliance with the standards set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c). If those cost-effective resources are not available in Illinois or in states that adjoin Illinois, they shall be purchased elsewhere and shall be counted towards compliance.

(4) The electric utility shall retire all renewable energy credits used to comply with the standard.

(5) Beginning with the year commencing June 1, 2010, an electric utility subject to this subsection (c) shall apply the lesser of the maximum alternative compliance payment rate or the most recent estimated alternative compliance payment rate for its service territory for the corresponding compliance period, established pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 16-115D of the Public Utilities Act to its retail customers that take service pursuant to the electric utility's hourly pricing tariff or tariffs. The electric utility shall retain all amounts collected as a result of the application of the alternative compliance payment rate or rates to such customers, and, beginning in 2011, the utility shall include in the information provided under item (1) of subsection (d) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act the amounts collected under the alternative compliance payment rate or rates for the prior year ending May 31. Notwithstanding any limitation on the procurement of renewable energy resources imposed by item (2) of this subsection (c), the Agency shall increase its spending on the purchase of renewable energy resources to be procured by the electric utility for the next plan year by an amount equal to the amounts collected by the utility under the alternative compliance payment rate or rates in the prior year ending May 31. Beginning April 1, 2012, and each year thereafter, the Agency shall prepare a public report for the General Assembly and Illinois Commerce Commission that shall include, but not necessarily be limited to:

(A) a comparison of the costs associated with the Agency's procurement of renewable energy resources to (1) the Agency's costs associated with electricity generated by other types of generation facilities and (2) the benefits associated with the Agency's procurement of renewable energy resources; and

(B) an analysis of the rate impacts associated with the Illinois Power Agency's procurement of renewable resources, including, but not limited to, any long-term contracts, on the eligible retail customers of electric utilities.

The analysis shall include the Agency's estimate of the total dollar impact that the Agency's procurement of renewable resources has had on the annual electricity bills of the customer classes that comprise each eligible retail customer class taking service from an electric utility. The Agency's report shall also analyze how the operation of the alternative compliance payment mechanism, any long-term contracts, or other aspects of the applicable renewable portfolio standards impacts the rates of customers of alternative retail electric suppliers.

(d) Clean coal portfolio standard.

(1) The procurement plans shall include electricity generated using clean coal. Each utility shall enter into one or more sourcing agreements with the initial clean coal facility, as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), covering electricity generated by the initial clean coal facility representing at least 5% of each utility's total supply to serve the load of eligible retail customers in 2015 and each year thereafter, as described in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), subject to the limits specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d). It is the goal of the State that by January 1, 2025, 25% of the electricity used in the State shall be generated by cost-effective clean coal facilities. For purposes of this subsection (d), "cost-effective" means that the expenditures pursuant to such sourcing agreements do not cause the limit stated in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) to be exceeded and do not exceed cost-based benchmarks, which shall be developed to assess all expenditures pursuant to such sourcing agreements covering electricity generated by clean coal facilities, other than the initial clean coal facility, by the procurement administrator, in consultation with the Commission staff, Agency staff, and the procurement monitor and shall be subject to Commission review and approval.

A utility party to a sourcing agreement shall immediately retire any emission credits that it receives in connection with the electricity covered by such agreement.

Utilities shall maintain adequate records documenting the purchases under the sourcing agreement to comply with this subsection (d) and shall file an accounting with the load forecast that must be filed with the Agency by July 15 of each year, in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

A utility shall be deemed to have complied with the clean coal portfolio standard specified in this subsection (d) if the utility enters into a sourcing agreement as required by this subsection (d).

(2) For purposes of this subsection (d), the required execution of sourcing agreements with the initial clean coal facility for a particular year shall be measured as a percentage of the actual amount of electricity (megawatt-hours) supplied by the electric utility to eligible retail customers in the planning year ending immediately prior to the agreement's execution. For purposes of this subsection (d), the amount paid per kilowatthour means the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis. For purposes of this subsection (d), the total amount paid for electric service includes without limitation amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges and add-on taxes.

Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (d), the total amount paid under sourcing agreements with clean coal facilities pursuant to the procurement plan for any given year shall be reduced by an amount necessary to limit the annual estimated average net increase due to the costs of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to:

(A) in 2010, no more than 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009;

(B) in 2011, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2010 or 1% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009;

(C) in 2012, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2011 or 1.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009;

(D) in 2013, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2012 or 2% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009; and

(E) thereafter, the total amount paid under sourcing agreements with clean coal facilities pursuant to the procurement plan for any single year shall be reduced by an amount necessary to limit the estimated average net increase due to the cost of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to no more than the greater of (i) 2.015% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009 or (ii) the incremental amount per kilowatthour paid for these resources in 2013. These requirements may be altered only as provided by statute.

No later than June 30, 2015, the Commission shall review the limitation on the total amount paid under sourcing agreements, if any, with clean coal facilities pursuant to this subsection (d) and report to the General Assembly its findings as to whether that limitation unduly constrains the amount of electricity generated by cost-effective clean coal facilities that is covered by sourcing agreements.

(3) Initial clean coal facility. In order to promote development of clean coal facilities in Illinois, each electric utility subject to this Section shall execute a sourcing agreement to source electricity from a proposed clean coal facility in Illinois (the "initial clean coal facility") that will have a nameplate capacity of at least 500 MW when commercial operation commences, that has a final Clean Air Act permit on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, and that will meet the definition of clean coal facility in Section 1-10 of this Act when commercial operation commences. The sourcing agreements with this initial clean coal facility shall be subject to both approval of the initial clean coal facility by the General Assembly and satisfaction of the requirements of paragraph (4) of this subsection (d) and shall be executed within 90 days after any such approval by the General Assembly. The Agency and the Commission shall have authority to inspect all books and records associated with the initial clean coal facility during the term of such a sourcing agreement. A utility's sourcing agreement for electricity produced by the initial clean coal facility shall include:

(A) a formula contractual price (the "contract price") approved pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (d), which shall:

(i) be determined using a cost of service methodology employing either a level or deferred capital recovery component, based on a capital structure consisting of 45% equity and 55% debt, and a return on equity as may be approved by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, which in any case may not exceed the lower of 11.5% or the rate of return approved by the General Assembly pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (d); and

(ii) provide that all miscellaneous net revenue, including but not limited to net revenue from the sale of emission allowances, if any, substitute natural gas, if any, grants or other support provided by the State of Illinois or the United States Government, firm transmission rights, if any, by-products produced by the facility, energy or capacity derived from the facility and not covered by a sourcing agreement pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (d) or item (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, whether generated from the synthesis gas derived from coal, from SNG, or from natural gas, shall be credited against the revenue requirement for this initial clean coal facility;

(B) power purchase provisions, which shall:

(i) provide that the utility party to such sourcing agreement shall pay the contract price for electricity delivered under such sourcing agreement;

(ii) require delivery of electricity to the regional transmission organization market of the utility that is party to such sourcing agreement;

(iii) require the utility party to such sourcing agreement to buy from the initial clean coal facility in each hour an amount of energy equal to all clean coal energy made available from the initial clean coal facility during such hour times a fraction, the numerator of which is such utility's retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State during the prior calendar month and the denominator of which is the total retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by utilities during such prior month and the sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by alternative retail electric suppliers during such prior month that are subject to the requirements of this subsection (d) and paragraph (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, provided that the amount purchased by the utility in any year will be limited by paragraph (2) of this subsection (d); and

(iv) be considered pre-existing contracts in such utility's procurement plans for eligible retail customers;

(C) contract for differences provisions, which shall:

(i) require the utility party to such sourcing agreement to contract with the initial clean coal facility in each hour with respect to an amount of energy equal to all clean coal energy made available from the initial clean coal facility during such hour times a fraction, the numerator of which is such utility's retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the utility's service territory in the State during the prior calendar month and the denominator of which is the total retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by utilities during such prior month and the sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by alternative retail electric suppliers during such prior month that are subject to the requirements of this subsection (d) and paragraph (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, provided that the amount paid by the utility in any year will be limited by paragraph (2) of this subsection (d);

(ii) provide that the utility's payment obligation in respect of the quantity of electricity determined pursuant to the preceding clause (i) shall be limited to an amount equal to (1) the difference between the contract price determined pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (d) and the day-ahead price for electricity delivered to the regional transmission organization market of the utility that is party to such sourcing agreement (or any successor delivery point at which such utility's supply obligations are financially settled on an hourly basis) (the "reference price") on the day preceding the day on which the electricity is delivered to the initial clean coal facility busbar, multiplied by (2) the quantity of electricity determined pursuant to the preceding clause (i); and

(iii) not require the utility to take physical delivery of the electricity produced by the facility;

(D) general provisions, which shall:

(i) specify a term of no more than 30 years, commencing on the commercial operation date of the facility;

(ii) provide that utilities shall maintain adequate records documenting purchases under the sourcing agreements entered into to comply with this subsection (d) and shall file an accounting with the load forecast that must be filed with the Agency by July 15 of each year, in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act; .

(iii) provide that all costs associated with the initial clean coal facility will be periodically reported to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission and to purchasers in accordance with applicable laws governing cost-based wholesale power contracts;

(iv) permit the Illinois Power Agency to assume ownership of the initial clean coal facility, without monetary consideration and otherwise on reasonable terms acceptable to the Agency, if the Agency so requests no less than 3 years prior to the end of the stated contract term;

(v) require the owner of the initial clean coal facility to provide documentation to the Commission each year, starting in the facility's first year of commercial operation, accurately reporting the quantity of carbon emissions from the facility that have been captured and sequestered and report any quantities of carbon released from the site or sites at which carbon emissions were sequestered in prior years, based on continuous monitoring of such sites. If, in any year after the first year of commercial operation, the owner of the facility fails to demonstrate that the initial clean coal facility captured and sequestered at least 50% of the total carbon emissions that the facility would otherwise emit or that sequestration of emissions from prior years has failed, resulting in the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, the owner of the facility must offset excess emissions. Any such carbon offsets must be permanent, additional, verifiable, real, located within the State of Illinois, and legally and practicably enforceable. The cost of such offsets for the facility that are not recoverable shall not exceed $15 million in any given year. No costs of any such purchases of carbon offsets may be recovered from a utility or its customers. All carbon offsets purchased for this purpose and any carbon emission credits associated with sequestration of carbon from the facility must be permanently retired. The initial clean coal facility shall not forfeit its designation as a clean coal facility if the facility fails to fully comply with the applicable carbon sequestration requirements in any given year, provided the requisite offsets are purchased. However, the Attorney General, on behalf of the People of the State of Illinois, may specifically enforce the facility's sequestration requirement and the other terms of this contract provision. Compliance with the sequestration requirements and offset purchase requirements specified in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d) shall be reviewed annually by an independent expert retained by the owner of the initial clean coal facility, with the advance written approval of the Attorney General. The Commission may, in the course of the review specified in item (vii), reduce the allowable return on equity for the facility if the facility wilfully fails to comply with the carbon capture and sequestration requirements set forth in this item (v);

(vi) include limits on, and accordingly provide for modification of, the amount the utility is required to source under the sourcing agreement consistent with paragraph (2) of this subsection (d);

(vii) require Commission review: (1) to determine the justness, reasonableness, and prudence of the inputs to the formula referenced in subparagraphs (A)(i) through (A)(iii) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), prior to an adjustment in those inputs including, without limitation, the capital structure and return on equity, fuel costs, and other operations and maintenance costs and (2) to approve the costs to be passed through to customers under the sourcing agreement by which the utility satisfies its statutory obligations. Commission review shall occur no less than every 3 years, regardless of whether any adjustments have been proposed, and shall be completed within 9 months;

(viii) limit the utility's obligation to such amount as the utility is allowed to recover through tariffs filed with the Commission, provided that neither the clean coal facility nor the utility waives any right to assert federal pre-emption or any other argument in response to a purported disallowance of recovery costs;

(ix) limit the utility's or alternative retail electric supplier's obligation to incur any liability until such time as the facility is in commercial operation and generating power and energy and such power and energy is being delivered to the facility busbar;

(x) provide that the owner or owners of the initial clean coal facility, which is the counterparty to such sourcing agreement, shall have the right from time to time to elect whether the obligations of the utility party thereto shall be governed by the power purchase provisions or the contract for differences provisions;

(xi) append documentation showing that the formula rate and contract, insofar as they relate to the power purchase provisions, have been approved by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission pursuant to Section 205 of the Federal Power Act;

(xii) provide that any changes to the terms of the contract, insofar as such changes relate to the power purchase provisions, are subject to review under the public interest standard applied by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission pursuant to Sections 205 and 206 of the Federal Power Act; and

(xiii) conform with customary lender requirements in power purchase agreements used as the basis for financing non-utility generators.

(4) Effective date of sourcing agreements with the initial clean coal facility.

Any proposed sourcing agreement with the initial clean coal facility shall not become effective unless the following reports are prepared and submitted and authorizations and approvals obtained:

(i) Facility cost report. The owner of the initial clean coal facility shall submit to the Commission, the Agency, and the General Assembly a front-end engineering and design study, a facility cost report, method of financing (including but not limited to structure and associated costs), and an operating and maintenance cost quote for the facility (collectively "facility cost report"), which shall be prepared in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section, and shall provide the Commission and the Agency access to the work papers, relied upon documents, and any other backup documentation related to the facility cost report.

(ii) Commission report. Within 6 months following receipt of the facility cost report, the Commission, in consultation with the Agency, shall submit a report to the General Assembly setting forth its analysis of the facility cost report. Such report shall include, but not be limited to, a comparison of the costs associated with electricity generated by the initial clean coal facility to the costs associated with electricity generated by other types of generation facilities, an analysis of the rate impacts on residential and small business customers over the life of the sourcing agreements, and an analysis of the likelihood that the initial clean coal facility will commence commercial operation by and be delivering power to the facility's busbar by 2016. To assist in the preparation of its report, the Commission, in consultation with the Agency, may hire one or more experts or consultants, the costs of which shall be paid for by the owner of the initial clean coal facility. The Commission and Agency may begin the process of selecting such experts or consultants prior to receipt of the facility cost report.

(iii) General Assembly approval. The proposed sourcing agreements shall not take effect unless, based on the facility cost report and the Commission's report, the General Assembly enacts authorizing legislation approving (A) the projected price, stated in cents per kilowatthour, to be charged for electricity generated by the initial clean coal facility, (B) the projected impact on residential and small business customers' bills over the life of the sourcing agreements, and (C) the maximum allowable return on equity for the project; and

(iv) Commission review. If the General Assembly enacts authorizing legislation pursuant to subparagraph (iii) approving a sourcing agreement, the Commission shall, within 90 days of such enactment, complete a review of such sourcing agreement. During such time period, the Commission shall implement any directive of the General Assembly, resolve any disputes between the parties to the sourcing agreement concerning the terms of such agreement, approve the form of such agreement, and issue an order finding that the sourcing agreement is prudent and reasonable.

The facility cost report shall be prepared as follows:

(A) The facility cost report shall be prepared by duly licensed engineering and construction firms detailing the estimated capital costs payable to one or more contractors or suppliers for the engineering, procurement and construction of the components comprising the initial clean coal facility and the estimated costs of operation and maintenance of the facility. The facility cost report shall include:

(i) an estimate of the capital cost of the core plant based on one or more front end engineering and design studies for the gasification island and related facilities. The core plant shall include all civil, structural, mechanical, electrical, control, and safety systems.

(ii) an estimate of the capital cost of the balance of the plant, including any capital costs associated with sequestration of carbon dioxide emissions and all interconnects and interfaces required to operate the facility, such as transmission of electricity, construction or backfeed power supply, pipelines to transport substitute natural gas or carbon dioxide, potable water supply, natural gas supply, water supply, water discharge, landfill, access roads, and coal delivery.

The quoted construction costs shall be expressed in nominal dollars as of the date that the quote is prepared and shall include capitalized financing costs during construction, taxes, insurance, and other owner's costs, and an assumed escalation in materials and labor beyond the date as of which the construction cost quote is expressed.

(B) The front end engineering and design study for the gasification island and the cost study for the balance of plant shall include sufficient design work to permit quantification of major categories of materials, commodities and labor hours, and receipt of quotes from vendors of major equipment required to construct and operate the clean coal facility.

(C) The facility cost report shall also include an operating and maintenance cost quote that will provide the estimated cost of delivered fuel, personnel, maintenance contracts, chemicals, catalysts, consumables, spares, and other fixed and variable operations and maintenance costs. The delivered fuel cost estimate will be provided by a recognized third party expert or experts in the fuel and transportation industries. The balance of the operating and maintenance cost quote, excluding delivered fuel costs, will be developed based on the inputs provided by duly licensed engineering and construction firms performing the construction cost quote, potential vendors under long-term service agreements and plant operating agreements, or recognized third party plant operator or operators.

The operating and maintenance cost quote (including the cost of the front end engineering and design study) shall be expressed in nominal dollars as of the date that the quote is prepared and shall include taxes, insurance, and other owner's costs, and an assumed escalation in materials and labor beyond the date as of which the operating and maintenance cost quote is expressed.

(D) The facility cost report shall also include an analysis of the initial clean coal facility's ability to deliver power and energy into the applicable regional transmission organization markets and an analysis of the expected capacity factor for the initial clean coal facility.

(E) Amounts paid to third parties unrelated to the owner or owners of the initial clean coal facility to prepare the core plant construction cost quote, including the front end engineering and design study, and the operating and maintenance cost quote will be reimbursed through Coal Development Bonds.

(5) Re-powering and retrofitting coal-fired power plants previously owned by Illinois utilities to qualify as clean coal facilities. During the 2009 procurement planning process and thereafter, the Agency and the Commission shall consider sourcing agreements covering electricity generated by power plants that were previously owned by Illinois utilities and that have been or will be converted into clean coal facilities, as defined by Section 1-10 of this Act. Pursuant to such procurement planning process, the owners of such facilities may propose to the Agency sourcing agreements with utilities and alternative retail electric suppliers required to comply with subsection (d) of this Section and item (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, covering electricity generated by such facilities. In the case of sourcing agreements that are power purchase agreements, the contract price for electricity sales shall be established on a cost of service basis. In the case of sourcing agreements that are contracts for differences, the contract price from which the reference price is subtracted shall be established on a cost of service basis. The Agency and the Commission may approve any such utility sourcing agreements that do not exceed cost-based benchmarks developed by the procurement administrator, in consultation with the Commission staff, Agency staff and the procurement monitor, subject to Commission review and approval. The Commission shall have authority to inspect all books and records associated with these clean coal facilities during the term of any such contract.

(6) Costs incurred under this subsection (d) or pursuant to a contract entered into under this subsection (d) shall be deemed prudently incurred and reasonable in amount and the electric utility shall be entitled to full cost recovery pursuant to the tariffs filed with the Commission.

(e) The draft procurement plans are subject to public comment, as required by Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(f) The Agency shall submit the final procurement plan to the Commission. The Agency shall revise a procurement plan if the Commission determines that it does not meet the standards set forth in Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(g) The Agency shall assess fees to each affected utility to recover the costs incurred in preparation of the annual procurement plan for the utility.

(h) The Agency shall assess fees to each bidder to recover the costs incurred in connection with a competitive procurement process.

(Source: P.A. 96-159, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1437, eff. 8-17-10; 97-325, eff. 8-12-11; 97-616, eff. 10-26-11; 97-618, eff. 10-26-11; 97-658, eff. 1-13-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 7-25-12.)

(20 ILCS 3855/1-92)

Sec. 1-92. Aggregation of electrical load by municipalities, townships, and counties.

(a) The corporate authorities of a municipality, township board, or county board of a county may adopt an ordinance under which it may aggregate in accordance with this Section residential and small commercial retail electrical loads located, respectively, within the municipality, the township, or the unincorporated areas of the county and, for that purpose, may solicit bids and enter into service agreements to facilitate for those loads the sale and purchase of electricity and related services and equipment.

The corporate authorities, township board, or county board may also exercise such authority jointly with any other municipality, township, or county. Two or more municipalities, townships, or counties, or a combination of both, may initiate a process jointly to authorize aggregation by a majority vote of each particular municipality, township, or county as required by this Section.

If the corporate authorities, township board, or the county board seek to operate the aggregation program as an opt-out program for residential and small commercial retail customers, then prior to the adoption of an ordinance with respect to aggregation of residential and small commercial retail electric loads, the corporate authorities of a municipality, the township board, or the county board of a county shall submit a referendum to its residents to determine whether or not the aggregation program shall operate as an opt-out program for residential and small commercial retail customers.

In addition to the notice and conduct requirements of the general election law, notice of the referendum shall state briefly the purpose of the referendum. The question of whether the corporate authorities, the township board, or the county board shall adopt an opt-out aggregation program for residential and small commercial retail customers shall be submitted to the electors of the municipality, township board, or county board at a regular election and approved by a majority of the electors voting on the question. The corporate authorities, township board, or county board must certify to the proper election authority, which must submit the question at an election in accordance with the Election Code.

The election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall the (municipality, township, or county in which the question is being voted upon) have the authority to arrange for the supply of electricity for its residential and small commercial retail customers who have not opted out of such program? The election authority must record the votes as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then the corporate authorities, township board, or county board may implement an opt-out aggregation program for residential and small commercial retail customers.

A referendum must pass in each particular municipality, township, or county that is engaged in the aggregation program. If the referendum fails, then the corporate authorities, township board, or county board shall operate the aggregation program as an opt-in program for residential and small commercial retail customers.

An ordinance under this Section shall specify whether the aggregation will occur only with the prior consent of each person owning, occupying, controlling, or using an electric load center proposed to be aggregated. Nothing in this Section, however, authorizes the aggregation of electric loads that are served or authorized to be served by an electric cooperative as defined by and pursuant to the Electric Supplier Act or loads served by a municipality that owns and operates its own electric distribution system. No aggregation shall take effect unless approved by a majority of the members of the corporate authority, township board, or county board voting upon the ordinance.

A governmental aggregator under this Section is not a public utility or an alternative retail electric supplier.

For purposes of this Section, "township" means the portion of a township that is an unincorporated portion of a county that is not otherwise a part of a municipality. In addition to such other limitations as are included in this Section, a township board shall only have authority to aggregate residential and small commercial customer loads in accordance with this Section if the county board of the county in which the township is located (i) is not also submitting a referendum to its residents at the same general election that the township board proposes to submit a referendum under this subsection (a), (ii) has not received authorization through passage of a referendum to operate an opt-out aggregation program for residential and small commercial retail customers under this subsection (a), and (iii) has not otherwise enacted an ordinance under this subsection (a) authorizing the operation of an opt-in aggregation program for residential and small commercial retail customers as described in this Section.

(b) Upon the applicable requisite authority under this Section, the corporate authorities, the township board, or the county board, with assistance from the Illinois Power Agency, shall develop a plan of operation and governance for the aggregation program so authorized. Before adopting a plan under this Section, the corporate authorities, township board, or county board shall hold at least 2 public hearings on the plan. Before the first hearing, the corporate authorities, township board, or county board shall publish notice of the hearings once a week for 2 consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the jurisdiction. The notice shall summarize the plan and state the date, time, and location of each hearing. Any load aggregation plan established pursuant to this Section shall:

(1) provide for universal access to all applicable residential customers and equitable treatment of applicable residential customers;

(2) describe demand management and energy efficiency services to be provided to each class of customers; and

(3) meet any requirements established by law concerning aggregated service offered pursuant to this Section.

(c) The process for soliciting bids for electricity and other related services and awarding proposed agreements for the purchase of electricity and other related services shall be conducted in the following order:

(1) The corporate authorities, township board, or county board may solicit bids for electricity and other related services.

(1.5) A township board shall request from the electric utility those residential and small commercial customers within their aggregate area either by zip code or zip codes or other means as determined by the electric utility. The electric utility shall then provide to the township board the residential and small commercial customers, including the names and addresses of residential and small commercial customers, electronically. The township board shall be responsible for authenticating the residential and small commercial customers contained in this listing and providing edits of the data to affirm, add, or delete the residential and small commercial customers located within its jurisdiction. The township board shall provide the edited list to the electric utility in an electronic format or other means selected by the electric utility and certify that the information is accurate.

(2) Notwithstanding Section 16-122 of the Public Utilities Act and Section 2HH of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act, an electric utility that provides residential and small commercial retail electric service in the aggregate area must, upon request of the corporate authorities, township board, or the county board in the aggregate area, submit to the requesting party, in an electronic format, those account numbers, names, and addresses of residential and small commercial retail customers in the aggregate area that are reflected in the electric utility's records at the time of the request; provided, however, that any township board has first provided an accurate customer list to the electric utility as provided for herein.

Any corporate authority, township board, or county board receiving customer information from an electric utility shall be subject to the limitations on the disclosure of the information described in Section 16-122 of the Public Utilities Act and Section 2HH of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act, and an electric utility shall not be held liable for any claims arising out of the provision of information pursuant to this item (2).

(d) If the corporate authorities, township board, or county board operate under an opt-in program for residential and small commercial retail customers, then the corporate authorities, township board, or county board shall comply with all of the following:

(1) Within 60 days after receiving the bids, the corporate authorities, township board, or county board shall allow residential and small commercial retail customers to commit to the terms and conditions of a bid that has been selected by the corporate authorities, township board, or county board.

(2) If (A) the corporate authorities, township board, or county board award proposed agreements for the purchase of electricity and other related services and (B) an agreement is reached between the corporate authorities, township board, or county board for those services, then customers committed to the terms and conditions according to item (1) of this subsection (d) shall be committed to the agreement.

(e) If the corporate authorities, township board, or county board operate as an opt-out program for residential and small commercial retail customers, then it shall be the duty of the aggregated entity to fully inform residential and small commercial retail customers in advance that they have the right to opt out of the aggregation program. The disclosure shall prominently state all charges to be made and shall include full disclosure of the cost to obtain service pursuant to Section 16-103 of the Public Utilities Act, how to access it, and the fact that it is available to them without penalty, if they are currently receiving service under that Section. The Illinois Power Agency shall furnish, without charge, to any citizen a list of all supply options available to them in a format that allows comparison of prices and products.

(f) Any person or entity retained by a municipality or county, or jointly by more than one such unit of local government, to provide input, guidance, or advice in the selection of an electricity supplier for an aggregation program shall disclose in writing to the involved units of local government the nature of any relationship through which the person or entity may receive, either directly or indirectly, commissions or other remuneration as a result of the selection of any particular electricity supplier. The written disclosure must be made prior to formal approval by the involved units of local government of any professional services agreement with the person or entity, or no later than October 1, 2012 with respect to any such professional services agreement entered into prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. The disclosure shall cover all direct and indirect relationships through which commissions or remuneration may result, including the pooling of commissions or remuneration among multiple persons or entities, and shall identify all involved electricity suppliers. The disclosure requirements in this subsection (f) are to be liberally construed to ensure that the nature of financial interests are fully revealed, and these disclosure requirements shall apply regardless of whether the involved person or entity is licensed under Section 16-115C of the Public Utilities Act. Any person or entity that fails to make the disclosure required under this subsection (f) is liable to the involved units of local government in an amount equal to all compensation paid to such person or entity by the units of local government for the input, guidance, or advice in the selection of an electricity supplier, plus reasonable attorneys fees and court costs incurred by the units of local government in connection with obtaining such amount.

(g) The Illinois Power Agency shall provide assistance to municipalities, townships, counties, or associations working with municipalities to help complete the plan and bidding process.

(h) This Section does not prohibit municipalities or counties from entering into an intergovernmental agreement to aggregate residential and small commercial retail electric loads.

(Source: P.A. 96-176, eff. 1-1-10; 97-338, eff. 8-12-11; 97-823, eff. 7-18-12; 97-1067, eff. 8-24-12; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 125. The Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act is amended by changing Sections 12 and 14.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3960/12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1162)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1045)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 12. Powers and duties of State Board. For purposes of this Act, the State Board shall exercise the following powers and duties:

(1) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, criteria, procedures or reviews which may vary according to the purpose for which a particular review is being conducted or the type of project reviewed and which are required to carry out the provisions and purposes of this Act. Policies and procedures of the State Board shall take into consideration the priorities and needs of medically underserved areas and other health care services identified through the comprehensive health planning process, giving special consideration to the impact of projects on access to safety net services.

(2) Adopt procedures for public notice and hearing on all proposed rules, regulations, standards, criteria, and plans required to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Develop criteria and standards for health care facilities planning, conduct statewide inventories of health care facilities, maintain an updated inventory on the Board's web site reflecting the most recent bed and service changes and updated need determinations when new census data become available or new need formulae are adopted, and develop health care facility plans which shall be utilized in the review of applications for permit under this Act. Such health facility plans shall be coordinated by the Board with pertinent State Plans. Inventories pursuant to this Section of skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or nursing homes licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be conducted on an annual basis no later than July 1 of each year and shall include among the information requested a list of all services provided by a facility to its residents and to the community at large and differentiate between active and inactive beds.

In developing health care facility plans, the State Board shall consider, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) The size, composition and growth of the population of the area to be served;

(b) The number of existing and planned facilities offering similar programs;

(c) The extent of utilization of existing facilities;

(d) The availability of facilities which may serve as alternatives or substitutes;

(e) The availability of personnel necessary to the operation of the facility;

(f) Multi-institutional planning and the establishment of multi-institutional systems where feasible;

(g) The financial and economic feasibility of proposed construction or modification; and

(h) In the case of health care facilities established by a religious body or denomination, the needs of the members of such religious body or denomination may be considered to be public need.

The health care facility plans which are developed and adopted in accordance with this Section shall form the basis for the plan of the State to deal most effectively with statewide health needs in regard to health care facilities.

(5) Coordinate with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning and other state agencies having responsibilities affecting health care facilities, including those of licensure and cost reporting. Beginning no later than January 1, 2013, the Department of Public Health shall produce a written annual report to the Governor and the General Assembly regarding the development of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning. The Chairman of the State Board and the State Board Administrator shall also receive a copy of the annual report.

(6) Solicit, accept, hold and administer on behalf of the State any grants or bequests of money, securities or property for use by the State Board or Center for Comprehensive Health Planning in the administration of this Act; and enter into contracts consistent with the appropriations for purposes enumerated in this Act.

(7) The State Board shall prescribe procedures for review, standards, and criteria which shall be utilized to make periodic reviews and determinations of the appropriateness of any existing health services being rendered by health care facilities subject to the Act. The State Board shall consider recommendations of the Board in making its determinations.

(8) Prescribe, in consultation with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning, rules, regulations, standards, and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review of applications for permits for projects of construction or modification of a health care facility, which projects are classified as emergency, substantive, or non-substantive in nature.

Six months after June 30, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-31), substantive projects shall include no more than the following:

(a) Projects to construct (1) a new or replacement facility located on a new site or (2) a replacement facility located on the same site as the original facility and the cost of the replacement facility exceeds the capital expenditure minimum, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 120 days;

(b) Projects proposing a (1) new service within an existing healthcare facility or (2) discontinuation of a service within an existing healthcare facility, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 60 days; or

(c) Projects proposing a change in the bed capacity of a health care facility by an increase in the total number of beds or by a redistribution of beds among various categories of service or by a relocation of beds from one physical facility or site to another by more than 20 beds or more than 10% of total bed capacity, as defined by the State Board, whichever is less, over a 2-year period.

The Chairman may approve applications for exemption that meet the criteria set forth in rules or refer them to the full Board. The Chairman may approve any unopposed application that meets all of the review criteria or refer them to the full Board.

Such rules shall not abridge the right of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning to make recommendations on the classification and approval of projects, nor shall such rules prevent the conduct of a public hearing upon the timely request of an interested party. Such reviews shall not exceed 60 days from the date the application is declared to be complete.

(9) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and criteria pertaining to the granting of permits for construction and modifications which are emergent in nature and must be undertaken immediately to prevent or correct structural deficiencies or hazardous conditions that may harm or injure persons using the facility, as defined in the rules and regulations of the State Board. This procedure is exempt from public hearing requirements of this Act.

(10) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review, not exceeding 60 days, of applications for permits for projects to construct or modify health care facilities which are needed for the care and treatment of persons who have acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or related conditions.

(11) Issue written decisions upon request of the applicant or an adversely affected party to the Board within 30 days of the meeting in which a final decision has been made. A "final decision" for purposes of this Act is the decision to approve or deny an application, or take other actions permitted under this Act, at the time and date of the meeting that such action is scheduled by the Board. The staff of the State Board shall prepare a written copy of the final decision and the State Board shall approve a final copy for inclusion in the formal record. The written decision shall identify the applicable criteria and factors listed in this Act and the Board's regulations that were taken into consideration by the Board when coming to a final decision. If the State Board denies or fails to approve an application for permit or certificate, the State Board shall include in the final decision a detailed explanation as to why the application was denied and identify what specific criteria or standards the applicant did not fulfill.

(12) Require at least one of its members to participate in any public hearing, after the appointment of a majority of the members to the Board.

(13) Provide a mechanism for the public to comment on, and request changes to, draft rules and standards.

(14) Implement public information campaigns to regularly inform the general public about the opportunity for public hearings and public hearing procedures.

(15) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for long-term care that recognizes that nursing homes are a different business line and service model from other regulated facilities. An open and transparent process shall be developed that considers the following: how skilled nursing fits in the continuum of care with other care providers, modernization of nursing homes, establishment of more private rooms, development of alternative services, and current trends in long-term care services. The Chairman of the Board shall appoint a permanent Health Services Review Board Long-term Care Facility Advisory Subcommittee that shall develop and recommend to the Board the rules to be established by the Board under this paragraph (15). The Subcommittee shall also provide continuous review and commentary on policies and procedures relative to long-term care and the review of related projects. In consultation with other experts from the health field of long-term care, the Board and the Subcommittee shall study new approaches to the current bed need formula and Health Service Area boundaries to encourage flexibility and innovation in design models reflective of the changing long-term care marketplace and consumer preferences. The Board shall file the proposed related administrative rules for the separate rules and guidelines for long-term care required by this paragraph (15) by no later than September 30, 2011. The Subcommittee shall be provided a reasonable and timely opportunity to review and comment on any review, revision, or updating of the criteria, standards, procedures, and rules used to evaluate project applications as provided under Section 12.3 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, 7-13-12; 97-1115, eff. 8-27-12.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1045)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 12. Powers and duties of State Board. For purposes of this Act, the State Board shall exercise the following powers and duties:

(1) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, criteria, procedures or reviews which may vary according to the purpose for which a particular review is being conducted or the type of project reviewed and which are required to carry out the provisions and purposes of this Act. Policies and procedures of the State Board shall take into consideration the priorities and needs of medically underserved areas and other health care services identified through the comprehensive health planning process, giving special consideration to the impact of projects on access to safety net services.

(2) Adopt procedures for public notice and hearing on all proposed rules, regulations, standards, criteria, and plans required to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Develop criteria and standards for health care facilities planning, conduct statewide inventories of health care facilities, maintain an updated inventory on the Board's web site reflecting the most recent bed and service changes and updated need determinations when new census data become available or new need formulae are adopted, and develop health care facility plans which shall be utilized in the review of applications for permit under this Act. Such health facility plans shall be coordinated by the Board with pertinent State Plans. Inventories pursuant to this Section of skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or nursing homes licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be conducted on an annual basis no later than July 1 of each year and shall include among the information requested a list of all services provided by a facility to its residents and to the community at large and differentiate between active and inactive beds.

In developing health care facility plans, the State Board shall consider, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) The size, composition and growth of the population of the area to be served;

(b) The number of existing and planned facilities offering similar programs;

(c) The extent of utilization of existing facilities;

(d) The availability of facilities which may serve as alternatives or substitutes;

(e) The availability of personnel necessary to the operation of the facility;

(f) Multi-institutional planning and the establishment of multi-institutional systems where feasible;

(g) The financial and economic feasibility of proposed construction or modification; and

(h) In the case of health care facilities established by a religious body or denomination, the needs of the members of such religious body or denomination may be considered to be public need.

The health care facility plans which are developed and adopted in accordance with this Section shall form the basis for the plan of the State to deal most effectively with statewide health needs in regard to health care facilities.

(5) Coordinate with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning and other state agencies having responsibilities affecting health care facilities, including those of licensure and cost reporting. Beginning no later than January 1, 2013, the Department of Public Health shall produce a written annual report to the Governor and the General Assembly regarding the development of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning. The Chairman of the State Board and the State Board Administrator shall also receive a copy of the annual report.

(6) Solicit, accept, hold and administer on behalf of the State any grants or bequests of money, securities or property for use by the State Board or Center for Comprehensive Health Planning in the administration of this Act; and enter into contracts consistent with the appropriations for purposes enumerated in this Act.

(7) The State Board shall prescribe procedures for review, standards, and criteria which shall be utilized to make periodic reviews and determinations of the appropriateness of any existing health services being rendered by health care facilities subject to the Act. The State Board shall consider recommendations of the Board in making its determinations.

(8) Prescribe, in consultation with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning, rules, regulations, standards, and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review of applications for permits for projects of construction or modification of a health care facility, which projects are classified as emergency, substantive, or non-substantive in nature.

Six months after June 30, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-31), substantive projects shall include no more than the following:

(a) Projects to construct (1) a new or replacement facility located on a new site or (2) a replacement facility located on the same site as the original facility and the cost of the replacement facility exceeds the capital expenditure minimum, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 120 days;

(b) Projects proposing a (1) new service within an existing healthcare facility or (2) discontinuation of a service within an existing healthcare facility, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 60 days; or

(c) Projects proposing a change in the bed capacity of a health care facility by an increase in the total number of beds or by a redistribution of beds among various categories of service or by a relocation of beds from one physical facility or site to another by more than 20 beds or more than 10% of total bed capacity, as defined by the State Board, whichever is less, over a 2-year period.

The Chairman may approve applications for exemption that meet the criteria set forth in rules or refer them to the full Board. The Chairman may approve any unopposed application that meets all of the review criteria or refer them to the full Board.

Such rules shall not abridge the right of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning to make recommendations on the classification and approval of projects, nor shall such rules prevent the conduct of a public hearing upon the timely request of an interested party. Such reviews shall not exceed 60 days from the date the application is declared to be complete.

(9) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and criteria pertaining to the granting of permits for construction and modifications which are emergent in nature and must be undertaken immediately to prevent or correct structural deficiencies or hazardous conditions that may harm or injure persons using the facility, as defined in the rules and regulations of the State Board. This procedure is exempt from public hearing requirements of this Act.

(10) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review, not exceeding 60 days, of applications for permits for projects to construct or modify health care facilities which are needed for the care and treatment of persons who have acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or related conditions.

(11) Issue written decisions upon request of the applicant or an adversely affected party to the Board within 30 days of the meeting in which a final decision has been made. A "final decision" for purposes of this Act is the decision to approve or deny an application, or take other actions permitted under this Act, at the time and date of the meeting that such action is scheduled by the Board. The staff of the State Board shall prepare a written copy of the final decision and the State Board shall approve a final copy for inclusion in the formal record. The written decision shall identify the applicable criteria and factors listed in this Act and the Board's regulations that were taken into consideration by the Board when coming to a final decision. If the State Board denies or fails to approve an application for permit or certificate, the State Board shall include in the final decision a detailed explanation as to why the application was denied and identify what specific criteria or standards the applicant did not fulfill.

(12) Require at least one of its members to participate in any public hearing, after the appointment of a majority of the members to the Board.

(13) Provide a mechanism for the public to comment on, and request changes to, draft rules and standards.

(14) Implement public information campaigns to regularly inform the general public about the opportunity for public hearings and public hearing procedures.

(15) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for long-term care that recognizes that nursing homes are a different business line and service model from other regulated facilities. An open and transparent process shall be developed that considers the following: how skilled nursing fits in the continuum of care with other care providers, modernization of nursing homes, establishment of more private rooms, development of alternative services, and current trends in long-term care services. The Chairman of the Board shall appoint a permanent Health Services Review Board Long-term Care Facility Advisory Subcommittee that shall develop and recommend to the Board the rules to be established by the Board under this paragraph (15). The Subcommittee shall also provide continuous review and commentary on policies and procedures relative to long-term care and the review of related projects. In consultation with other experts from the health field of long-term care, the Board and the Subcommittee shall study new approaches to the current bed need formula and Health Service Area boundaries to encourage flexibility and innovation in design models reflective of the changing long-term care marketplace and consumer preferences. The Subcommittee shall evaluate, and make recommendations to the State Board regarding, the buying, selling, and exchange of beds between long-term care facilities within a specified geographic area or drive time. The Board shall file the proposed related administrative rules for the separate rules and guidelines for long-term care required by this paragraph (15) by no later than September 30, 2011. The Subcommittee shall be provided a reasonable and timely opportunity to review and comment on any review, revision, or updating of the criteria, standards, procedures, and rules used to evaluate project applications as provided under Section 12.3 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1045, eff. 8-21-13; 97-1115, eff. 8-27-12; revised 10-11-12.)

(20 ILCS 3960/14.1)

Sec. 14.1. Denial of permit; other sanctions.

(a) The State Board may deny an application for a permit or may revoke or take other action as permitted by this Act with regard to a permit as the State Board deems appropriate, including the imposition of fines as set forth in this Section, for any one or a combination of the following:

(1) The acquisition of major medical equipment without a permit or in violation of the terms of a permit.

(2) The establishment, construction, or modification of a health care facility without a permit or in violation of the terms of a permit.

(3) The violation of any provision of this Act or any rule adopted under this Act.

(4) The failure, by any person subject to this Act, to provide information requested by the State Board or Agency within 30 days after a formal written request for the information.

(5) The failure to pay any fine imposed under this Section within 30 days of its imposition.

(a-5) For facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for actions specified under item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the ID/DD Community Care Act. For facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for actions specified under item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act. For facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for: (i) actions specified under item (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of Section 3-117 of the Nursing Home Care Act; (ii) actions specified under item (a)(6) of Section 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care Act; or (iii) actions within the preceding 5 years constituting a substantial and repeated failure to comply with the Nursing Home Care Act or the rules and regulations adopted by the Department under that Act. The State Board shall not deny a permit on account of any action described in this subsection (a-5) without also considering all such actions in the light of all relevant information available to the State Board, including whether the permit is sought to substantially comply with a mandatory or voluntary plan of correction associated with any action described in this subsection (a-5).

(b) Persons shall be subject to fines as follows:

(1) A permit holder who fails to comply with the requirements of maintaining a valid permit shall be fined an amount not to exceed 1% of the approved permit amount plus an additional 1% of the approved permit amount for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(2) A permit holder who alters the scope of an approved project or whose project costs exceed the allowable permit amount without first obtaining approval from the State Board shall be fined an amount not to exceed the sum of (i) the lesser of $25,000 or 2% of the approved permit amount and (ii) in those cases where the approved permit amount is exceeded by more than $1,000,000, an additional $20,000 for each $1,000,000, or fraction thereof, in excess of the approved permit amount.

(2.5) A permit holder who fails to comply with the post-permit and reporting requirements set forth in Section 5 shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues. This fine shall continue to accrue until the date that (i) the post-permit requirements are met and the post-permit reports are received by the State Board or (ii) the matter is referred by the State Board to the State Board's legal counsel. The accrued fine is not waived by the permit holder submitting the required information and reports. Prior to any fine beginning to accrue, the Board shall notify, in writing, a permit holder of the due date for the post-permit and reporting requirements no later than 30 days before the due date for the requirements. This paragraph (2.5) takes effect 6 months after August 27, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1115) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(3) A person who acquires major medical equipment or who establishes a category of service without first obtaining a permit or exemption, as the case may be, shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 for each such acquisition or category of service established plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(4) A person who constructs, modifies, or establishes a health care facility without first obtaining a permit shall be fined an amount not to exceed $25,000 plus an additional $25,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(5) A person who discontinues a health care facility or a category of service without first obtaining a permit shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues. For purposes of this subparagraph (5), facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD Community Care Act, with the exceptions of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes, are exempt from this permit requirement. However, facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD Community Care Act must comply with Section 3-423 of the Nursing Home Care Act or Section 3-423 of the ID/DD Community Care Act and must provide the Board and the Department of Human Services with 30 days' written notice of its intent to close. Facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act also must provide the Board and the Department of Human Services with 30 days' written notice of its intent to reduce the number of beds for a facility.

(6) A person subject to this Act who fails to provide information requested by the State Board or Agency within 30 days of a formal written request shall be fined an amount not to exceed $1,000 plus an additional $1,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the information is not received by the State Board or Agency.

(c) Before imposing any fine authorized under this Section, the State Board shall afford the person or permit holder, as the case may be, an appearance before the State Board and an opportunity for a hearing before a hearing officer appointed by the State Board. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with Section 10.

(d) All fines collected under this Act shall be transmitted to the State Treasurer, who shall deposit them into the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-980, eff. 8-17-12; 97-1115, eff. 8-27-12; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 130. The State Finance Act is amended by changing Sections 5.491, 6z-81, 8.12, and 25 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.811, 5.812, 5.813, and 6z-93 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.491)

Sec. 5.491. The Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Quarterhorse Breeders Fund.

(Source: P.A. 91-40, eff. 6-25-99; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; revised 10-17-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.811)

Sec. 5.811. The Home Services Medicaid Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-732, eff. 6-30-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.812)

Sec. 5.812. The Estate Tax Refund Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-732, eff. 6-30-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.813)

Sec. 5.813. The FY13 Backlog Payment Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-732, eff. 6-30-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.814)

Sec. 5.814 5.811. The Municipal Wireless Service Emergency Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-748, eff. 7-6-12; revised 9-25-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.815)

Sec. 5.815 5.811. The Illinois State Police Federal Projects Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-826, eff. 7-18-12; revised 9-25-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.816)

Sec. 5.816 5.811. The Energy Efficiency Portfolio Standards Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-841, eff. 7-20-12; revised 9-25-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.817)

Sec. 5.817 5.811. The Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-858, eff. 7-27-12; revised 9-25-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.818)

Sec. 5.818 5.811. The Food and Agricultural Research Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-879, eff. 8-2-12; revised 9-25-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.819)

Sec. 5.819 5.811. The Sexual Assault Services and Prevention Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1035, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-25-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.820)

Sec. 5.820 5.811. The State Police Merit Board Public Safety Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1051, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-25-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.821)

Sec. 5.821 5.811. The Childhood Cancer Research Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1117, eff. 8-27-12; revised 9-25-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.822)

Sec. 5.822 5.811. The Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 9-25-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.823)

Sec. 5.823 5.812. The State Police Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-826, eff. 7-18-12; revised 9-25-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.824)

Sec. 5.824 5.812. The Children's Wellness Charities Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1117, eff. 8-27-12; revised 9-25-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.825)

Sec. 5.825 5.813. The Housing for Families Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1117, eff. 8-27-12; revised 9-25-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.827)

Sec. 5.827 5.811. The Illinois State Museum Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13; revised 1-15-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.828)

Sec. 5.828 5.812. The Illinois Fisheries Management Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13; revised 1-15-13.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-81)

Sec. 6z-81. Healthcare Provider Relief Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund to be known as the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund.

(b) The Fund is created for the purpose of receiving and disbursing moneys in accordance with this Section. Disbursements from the Fund shall be made only as follows:

(1) Subject to appropriation, for payment by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services of medical bills and related expenses, including administrative expenses, for which the State is responsible under Titles XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act, the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act.

(2) For repayment of funds borrowed from other State funds or from outside sources, including interest thereon.

(c) The Fund shall consist of the following:

(1) Moneys received by the State from short-term borrowing pursuant to the Short Term Borrowing Act on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(2) All federal matching funds received by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services as a result of expenditures made by the Department that are attributable to moneys deposited in the Fund.

(3) All federal matching funds received by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services as a result of federal approval of Title XIX State plan amendment transmittal number 07-09.

(4) All other moneys received for the Fund from any other source, including interest earned thereon.

(d) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $365,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund into the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund.

(e) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2011, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $160,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund.

(f) Notwithstanding any other State law to the contrary, and in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, the State Comptroller shall order transferred and the State Treasurer shall transfer $500,000,000 to the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund from the General Revenue Fund in equal monthly installments of $100,000,000, with the first transfer to be made on July 1, 2012, or as soon thereafter as practical, and with each of the remaining transfers to be made on August 1, 2012, September 1, 2012, October 1, 2012, and November 1, 2012, or as soon thereafter as practical. This transfer may assist the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in improving Medical Assistance bill processing timeframes or in meeting the possible requirements of Senate Bill 3397, or other similar legislation, of the 97th General Assembly should it become law.

(Source: P.A. 96-820, eff. 11-18-09; 96-1100, eff. 1-1-11; 97-44, eff. 6-28-11; 97-641, eff. 12-19-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; revised 7-10-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-93)

Sec. 6z-93. FY 13 Backlog Payment Fund. The FY 13 Backlog Payment Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Beginning July 1, 2012 and on or before December 31, 2012, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer funds from the FY 13 Backlog Payment Fund to the General Revenue Fund as needed for the payment of vouchers and transfers to other State funds obligated in State fiscal year 2012, other than costs incurred for claims under the Medical Assistance Program.

(Source: P.A. 97-732, eff. 6-30-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-96)

Sec. 6z-96 6z-93. Energy Efficiency Portfolio Standards Fund.

(a) The Energy Efficiency Portfolio Standards Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys received by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under Sections 8-103 and 8-104 of the Public Utilities Act shall be deposited into the Energy Efficiency Portfolio Standards Fund. Subject to appropriation, moneys in the Energy Efficiency Portfolio Standards Fund may be used only for the purposes authorized by Sections 8-103 and 8-104 of the Public Utilities Act.

(b) As soon as possible after June 1, 2012, and in no event later than July 31, 2012, the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall certify the balance in the DCEO Energy Projects Fund, less any federal moneys and less any amounts obligated, and the State Comptroller shall transfer such amount from the DCEO Energy Projects Fund to the Energy Efficiency Portfolio Standards Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-841, eff. 7-20-12; revised 9-26-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-97)

Sec. 6z-97 6z-93. Childhood Cancer Research Fund; creation. The Childhood Cancer Research Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Moneys in the Fund shall be used by the Department of Public Health to make grants to public or private not-for-profit entities for the purpose of conducting childhood cancer research. For the purposes of this Section, "research" includes, but is not limited to, expenditures to develop and advance the understanding, techniques, and modalities effective in early detection, prevention, cure, screening, and treatment of childhood cancer and may include clinical trials. The grant funds may not be used for institutional overhead costs, indirect costs, other organizational levies, or costs of community-based support services.

(Source: P.A. 97-1117, eff. 8-27-12; revised 9-26-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/8.12) (from Ch. 127, par. 144.12)

Sec. 8.12. State Pensions Fund.

(a) The moneys in the State Pensions Fund shall be used exclusively for the administration of the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act and for the expenses incurred by the Auditor General for administering the provisions of Section 2-8.1 of the Illinois State Auditing Act and for the funding of the unfunded liabilities of the designated retirement systems. Beginning in State fiscal year 2014, payments to the designated retirement systems under this Section shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, any State contributions required under the Illinois Pension Code.

"Designated retirement systems" means:

(1) the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois;

(2) the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois;

(3) the State Universities Retirement System;

(4) the Judges Retirement System of Illinois; and

(5) the General Assembly Retirement System.

(b) Each year the General Assembly may make appropriations from the State Pensions Fund for the administration of the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.

Each month, the Commissioner of the Office of Banks and Real Estate shall certify to the State Treasurer the actual expenditures that the Office of Banks and Real Estate incurred conducting unclaimed property examinations under the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act during the immediately preceding month. Within a reasonable time following the acceptance of such certification by the State Treasurer, the State Treasurer shall pay from its appropriation from the State Pensions Fund to the Bank and Trust Company Fund and the Savings and Residential Finance Regulatory Fund an amount equal to the expenditures incurred by each Fund for that month.

Each month, the Director of Financial Institutions shall certify to the State Treasurer the actual expenditures that the Department of Financial Institutions incurred conducting unclaimed property examinations under the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act during the immediately preceding month. Within a reasonable time following the acceptance of such certification by the State Treasurer, the State Treasurer shall pay from its appropriation from the State Pensions Fund to the Financial Institution Institutions Fund and the Credit Union Fund an amount equal to the expenditures incurred by each Fund for that month.

(c) As soon as possible after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the General Assembly shall appropriate from the State Pensions Fund (1) to the State Universities Retirement System the amount certified under Section 15-165 during the prior year, (2) to the Judges Retirement System of Illinois the amount certified under Section 18-140 during the prior year, and (3) to the General Assembly Retirement System the amount certified under Section 2-134 during the prior year as part of the required State contributions to each of those designated retirement systems; except that amounts appropriated under this subsection (c) in State fiscal year 2005 shall not reduce the amount in the State Pensions Fund below $5,000,000. If the amount in the State Pensions Fund does not exceed the sum of the amounts certified in Sections 15-165, 18-140, and 2-134 by at least $5,000,000, the amount paid to each designated retirement system under this subsection shall be reduced in proportion to the amount certified by each of those designated retirement systems.

(c-5) For fiscal years 2006 through 2013, the General Assembly shall appropriate from the State Pensions Fund to the State Universities Retirement System the amount estimated to be available during the fiscal year in the State Pensions Fund; provided, however, that the amounts appropriated under this subsection (c-5) shall not reduce the amount in the State Pensions Fund below $5,000,000.

(c-6) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, as soon as may be practical after any money is deposited into the State Pensions Fund from the Unclaimed Property Trust Fund, the State Treasurer shall apportion the deposited amount among the designated retirement systems as defined in subsection (a) to reduce their actuarial reserve deficiencies. The State Comptroller and State Treasurer shall pay the apportioned amounts to the designated retirement systems to fund the unfunded liabilities of the designated retirement systems. The amount apportioned to each designated retirement system shall constitute a portion of the amount estimated to be available for appropriation from the State Pensions Fund that is the same as that retirement system's portion of the total actual reserve deficiency of the systems, as determined annually by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget at the request of the State Treasurer. The amounts apportioned under this subsection shall not reduce the amount in the State Pensions Fund below $5,000,000.

(d) The Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall determine the individual and total reserve deficiencies of the designated retirement systems. For this purpose, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall utilize the latest available audit and actuarial reports of each of the retirement systems and the relevant reports and statistics of the Public Employee Pension Fund Division of the Department of Insurance.

(d-1) As soon as practicable after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Comptroller shall direct and the Treasurer shall transfer from the State Pensions Fund to the General Revenue Fund, as funds become available, a sum equal to the amounts that would have been paid from the State Pensions Fund to the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, the State Universities Retirement System, the Judges Retirement System of Illinois, the General Assembly Retirement System, and the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois after the effective date of this amendatory Act during the remainder of fiscal year 2004 to the designated retirement systems from the appropriations provided for in this Section if the transfers provided in Section 6z-61 had not occurred. The transfers described in this subsection (d-1) are to partially repay the General Revenue Fund for the costs associated with the bonds used to fund the moneys transferred to the designated retirement systems under Section 6z-61.

(e) The changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act of 1994 shall first apply to distributions from the Fund for State fiscal year 1996.

(Source: P.A. 96-959, eff. 7-1-10; 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; revised 10-17-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/25) (from Ch. 127, par. 161)

Sec. 25. Fiscal year limitations.

(a) All appropriations shall be available for expenditure for the fiscal year or for a lesser period if the Act making that appropriation so specifies. A deficiency or emergency appropriation shall be available for expenditure only through June 30 of the year when the Act making that appropriation is enacted unless that Act otherwise provides.

(b) Outstanding liabilities as of June 30, payable from appropriations which have otherwise expired, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations during the 2-month period ending at the close of business on August 31. Any service involving professional or artistic skills or any personal services by an employee whose compensation is subject to income tax withholding must be performed as of June 30 of the fiscal year in order to be considered an "outstanding liability as of June 30" that is thereby eligible for payment out of the expiring appropriation.

(b-1) However, payment of tuition reimbursement claims under Section 14-7.03 or 18-3 of the School Code may be made by the State Board of Education from its appropriations for those respective purposes for any fiscal year, even though the claims reimbursed by the payment may be claims attributable to a prior fiscal year, and payments may be made at the direction of the State Superintendent of Education from the fund from which the appropriation is made without regard to any fiscal year limitations, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, payment of tuition reimbursement claims under Section 14-7.03 or 18-3 of the School Code as of June 30, payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired, may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-2) All outstanding liabilities as of June 30, 2010, payable from appropriations that would otherwise expire at the conclusion of the lapse period for fiscal year 2010, and interest penalties payable on those liabilities under the State Prompt Payment Act, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations until December 31, 2010, without regard to the fiscal year in which the payment is made, as long as vouchers for the liabilities are received by the Comptroller no later than August 31, 2010.

(b-2.5) All outstanding liabilities as of June 30, 2011, payable from appropriations that would otherwise expire at the conclusion of the lapse period for fiscal year 2011, and interest penalties payable on those liabilities under the State Prompt Payment Act, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations until December 31, 2011, without regard to the fiscal year in which the payment is made, as long as vouchers for the liabilities are received by the Comptroller no later than August 31, 2011.

(b-2.6) All outstanding liabilities as of June 30, 2012, payable from appropriations that would otherwise expire at the conclusion of the lapse period for fiscal year 2012, and interest penalties payable on those liabilities under the State Prompt Payment Act, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations until December 31, 2012, without regard to the fiscal year in which the payment is made, as long as vouchers for the liabilities are received by the Comptroller no later than August 31, 2012.

(b-2.7) (b-2.6) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, interest penalties payable under the State Prompt Payment Act associated with a voucher for which payment is issued after June 30 may be paid out of the next fiscal year's appropriation. The future year appropriation must be for the same purpose and from the same fund as the original payment. An interest penalty voucher submitted against a future year appropriation must be submitted within 60 days after the issuance of the associated voucher, and the Comptroller must issue the interest payment within 60 days after acceptance of the interest voucher.

(b-3) Medical payments may be made by the Department of Veterans' Affairs from its appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the medical services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, medical payments payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-4) Medical payments and child care payments may be made by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid) from appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the medical or child care services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year; and payments may be made at the direction of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (or successor agency) from the Health Insurance Reserve Fund without regard to any fiscal year limitations, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, medical and child care payments made by the Department of Human Services, and payments made at the discretion of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (or successor agency) from the Health Insurance Reserve Fund and payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-5) Medical payments may be made by the Department of Human Services from its appropriations relating to substance abuse treatment services for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the medical services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, provided the payments are made on a fee-for-service basis consistent with requirements established for Medicaid reimbursement by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, medical payments made by the Department of Human Services relating to substance abuse treatment services payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-6) Additionally, payments may be made by the Department of Human Services from its appropriations, or any other State agency from its appropriations with the approval of the Department of Human Services, from the Immigration Reform and Control Fund for purposes authorized pursuant to the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, without regard to any fiscal year limitations, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, payments made by the Department of Human Services from the Immigration Reform and Control Fund for purposes authorized pursuant to the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-7) Payments may be made in accordance with a plan authorized by paragraph (11) or (12) of Section 405-105 of the Department of Central Management Services Law from appropriations for those payments without regard to fiscal year limitations.

(c) Further, payments may be made by the Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Health under the Department of Human Services Act) from their respective appropriations for grants for medical care to or on behalf of premature and high-mortality risk infants and their mothers and for grants for supplemental food supplies provided under the United States Department of Agriculture Women, Infants and Children Nutrition Program, for any fiscal year without regard to the fact that the services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, payments made by the Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services from their respective appropriations for grants for medical care to or on behalf of premature and high-mortality risk infants and their mothers and for grants for supplemental food supplies provided under the United States Department of Agriculture Women, Infants and Children Nutrition Program payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriations during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(d) The Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Health under the Department of Human Services Act) shall each annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House Minority Leader, and the respective Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and the House, on or before December 31, a report of fiscal year funds used to pay for services provided in any prior fiscal year. This report shall document by program or service category those expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used to pay for services provided in prior fiscal years.

(e) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid), and the Department of Human Services making fee-for-service payments relating to substance abuse treatment services provided during a previous fiscal year shall each annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House Minority Leader, the respective Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and the House, on or before November 30, a report that shall document by program or service category those expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used to pay for (i) services provided in prior fiscal years and (ii) services for which claims were received in prior fiscal years.

(f) The Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid) shall annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House Minority Leader, and the respective Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and the House, on or before December 31, a report of fiscal year funds used to pay for services (other than medical care) provided in any prior fiscal year. This report shall document by program or service category those expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used to pay for services provided in prior fiscal years.

(g) In addition, each annual report required to be submitted by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under subsection (e) shall include the following information with respect to the State's Medicaid program:

(1) Explanations of the exact causes of the variance between the previous year's estimated and actual liabilities.

(2) Factors affecting the Department of Healthcare and Family Services' liabilities, including but not limited to numbers of aid recipients, levels of medical service utilization by aid recipients, and inflation in the cost of medical services.

(3) The results of the Department's efforts to combat fraud and abuse.

(h) As provided in Section 4 of the General Assembly Compensation Act, any utility bill for service provided to a General Assembly member's district office for a period including portions of 2 consecutive fiscal years may be paid from funds appropriated for such expenditure in either fiscal year.

(i) An agency which administers a fund classified by the Comptroller as an internal service fund may issue rules for:

(1) billing user agencies in advance for payments or authorized inter-fund transfers based on estimated charges for goods or services;

(2) issuing credits, refunding through inter-fund transfers, or reducing future inter-fund transfers during the subsequent fiscal year for all user agency payments or authorized inter-fund transfers received during the prior fiscal year which were in excess of the final amounts owed by the user agency for that period; and

(3) issuing catch-up billings to user agencies during the subsequent fiscal year for amounts remaining due when payments or authorized inter-fund transfers received from the user agency during the prior fiscal year were less than the total amount owed for that period.

User agencies are authorized to reimburse internal service funds for catch-up billings by vouchers drawn against their respective appropriations for the fiscal year in which the catch-up billing was issued or by increasing an authorized inter-fund transfer during the current fiscal year. For the purposes of this Act, "inter-fund transfers" means transfers without the use of the voucher-warrant process, as authorized by Section 9.01 of the State Comptroller Act.

(i-1) Beginning on July 1, 2021, all outstanding liabilities, not payable during the 4-month lapse period as described in subsections (b-1), (b-3), (b-4), (b-5), (b-6), and (c) of this Section, that are made from appropriations for that purpose for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the services being compensated for by those payments may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, are limited to only those claims that have been incurred but for which a proper bill or invoice as defined by the State Prompt Payment Act has not been received by September 30th following the end of the fiscal year in which the service was rendered.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, the aggregate amount of payments to be made without regard for fiscal year limitations as contained in subsections (b-1), (b-3), (b-4), (b-5), (b-6), and (c) of this Section, and determined by using Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, shall not exceed the following amounts:

(1) $6,000,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2012;

(2) $5,300,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2013;

(3) $4,600,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2014;

(4) $4,000,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2015;

(5) $3,300,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2016;

(6) $2,600,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2017;

(7) $2,000,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2018;

(8) $1,300,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2019;

(9) $600,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2020; and

(10) $0 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2021 and fiscal years thereafter.

(k) Department of Healthcare and Family Services Medical Assistance Payments.

(1) Definition of Medical Assistance.

For purposes of this subsection, the term "Medical Assistance" shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, medical programs and services authorized under Titles XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act, the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act, and medical care to or on behalf of persons suffering from chronic renal disease, persons suffering from hemophilia, and victims of sexual assault.

(2) Limitations on Medical Assistance payments that may be paid from future fiscal year appropriations.

(A) The maximum amounts of annual unpaid Medical Assistance bills received and recorded by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services on or before June 30th of a particular fiscal year attributable in aggregate to the General Revenue Fund, Healthcare Provider Relief Fund, Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, Long-Term Care Provider Fund, and the Drug Rebate Fund that may be paid in total by the Department from future fiscal year Medical Assistance appropriations to those funds are: $700,000,000 for fiscal year 2013 and $100,000,000 for fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter.

(B) Bills for Medical Assistance services rendered in a particular fiscal year, but received and recorded by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services after June 30th of that fiscal year, may be paid from either appropriations for that fiscal year or future fiscal year appropriations for Medical Assistance. Such payments shall not be subject to the requirements of subparagraph (A).

(C) Medical Assistance bills received by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in a particular fiscal year, but subject to payment amount adjustments in a future fiscal year may be paid from a future fiscal year's appropriation for Medical Assistance. Such payments shall not be subject to the requirements of subparagraph (A).

(D) Medical Assistance payments made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services from funds other than those specifically referenced in subparagraph (A) may be made from appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year without regard to the fact that the Medical Assistance services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year. Such payments shall not be subject to the requirements of subparagraph (A).

(3) Extended lapse period for Department of Healthcare and Family Services Medical Assistance payments. Notwithstanding any other State law to the contrary, outstanding Department of Healthcare and Family Services Medical Assistance liabilities, as of June 30th, payable from appropriations which have otherwise expired, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations during the 6-month period ending at the close of business on December 31st.

(l) The changes to this Section made by Public Act 97-691 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall be effective for payment of Medical Assistance bills incurred in fiscal year 2013 and future fiscal years. The changes to this Section made by Public Act 97-691 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall not be applied to Medical Assistance bills incurred in fiscal year 2012 or prior fiscal years.

(m) (k) The Comptroller must issue payments against outstanding liabilities that were received prior to the lapse period deadlines set forth in this Section as soon thereafter as practical, but no payment may be issued after the 4 months following the lapse period deadline without the signed authorization of the Comptroller and the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 96-928, eff. 6-15-10; 96-958, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1501, eff. 1-25-11; 97-75, eff. 6-30-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-691, eff. 7-1-12; 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; 97-932, eff. 8-10-12; revised 8-23-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.604 rep.)

Section 131. The State Finance Act is amended by repealing Section 5.604.

Section 135. The General Obligation Bond Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(30 ILCS 330/2) (from Ch. 127, par. 652)

Sec. 2. Authorization for Bonds. The State of Illinois is authorized to issue, sell and provide for the retirement of General Obligation Bonds of the State of Illinois for the categories and specific purposes expressed in Sections 2 through 8 of this Act, in the total amount of $47,092,925,743 $45,476,125,743.

The bonds authorized in this Section 2 and in Section 16 of this Act are herein called "Bonds".

Of the total amount of Bonds authorized in this Act, up to $2,200,000,000 in aggregate original principal amount may be issued and sold in accordance with the Baccalaureate Savings Act in the form of General Obligation College Savings Bonds.

Of the total amount of Bonds authorized in this Act, up to $300,000,000 in aggregate original principal amount may be issued and sold in accordance with the Retirement Savings Act in the form of General Obligation Retirement Savings Bonds.

Of the total amount of Bonds authorized in this Act, the additional $10,000,000,000 authorized by Public Act 93-2, the $3,466,000,000 authorized by Public Act 96-43, and the $4,096,348,300 authorized by Public Act 96-1497 shall be used solely as provided in Section 7.2.

The issuance and sale of Bonds pursuant to the General Obligation Bond Act is an economical and efficient method of financing the long-term capital needs of the State. This Act will permit the issuance of a multi-purpose General Obligation Bond with uniform terms and features. This will not only lower the cost of registration but also reduce the overall cost of issuing debt by improving the marketability of Illinois General Obligation Bonds.

(Source: P.A. 96-5, eff. 4-3-09; 96-36, eff. 7-13-09; 96-43, eff. 7-15-09; 96-885, eff. 3-11-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1497, eff. 1-14-11; 96-1554, eff. 3-18-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-771, eff. 7-10-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 7-23-12.)

Section 140. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Section 1-10 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Application.

(a) This Code applies only to procurements for which contractors were first solicited on or after July 1, 1998. This Code shall not be construed to affect or impair any contract, or any provision of a contract, entered into based on a solicitation prior to the implementation date of this Code as described in Article 99, including but not limited to any covenant entered into with respect to any revenue bonds or similar instruments. All procurements for which contracts are solicited between the effective date of Articles 50 and 99 and July 1, 1998 shall be substantially in accordance with this Code and its intent.

(b) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of the funds with which the contracts are paid, including federal assistance moneys. This Code shall not apply to:

(1) Contracts between the State and its political subdivisions or other governments, or between State governmental bodies except as specifically provided in this Code.

(2) Grants, except for the filing requirements of Section 20-80.

(3) Purchase of care.

(4) Hiring of an individual as employee and not as an independent contractor, whether pursuant to an employment code or policy or by contract directly with that individual.

(5) Collective bargaining contracts.

(6) Purchase of real estate, except that notice of this type of contract with a value of more than $25,000 must be published in the Procurement Bulletin within 7 days after the deed is recorded in the county of jurisdiction. The notice shall identify the real estate purchased, the names of all parties to the contract, the value of the contract, and the effective date of the contract.

(7) Contracts necessary to prepare for anticipated litigation, enforcement actions, or investigations, provided that the chief legal counsel to the Governor shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring agency is one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor, and provided that the chief legal counsel of any other procuring entity subject to this Code shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring entity is not one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor.

(8) Contracts for services to Northern Illinois University by a person, acting as an independent contractor, who is qualified by education, experience, and technical ability and is selected by negotiation for the purpose of providing non-credit educational service activities or products by means of specialized programs offered by the university.

(9) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois Conservation Foundation when only private funds are used.

(10) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority involving private funds from the Health Information Exchange Fund. "Private funds" means gifts, donations, and private grants.

(11) Public-private agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 20 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act and design-build agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 25 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act.

(c) This Code does not apply to the electric power procurement process provided for under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(d) Except for Section 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code, and as expressly required by Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law, the provisions of this Code do not apply to the procurement process provided for under Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law.

(e) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain a person or entity to assist the Capital Development Board with its duties related to the determination of costs of a clean coal SNG brownfield facility, as defined by Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, as required in subsection (h-3) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act, including calculating the range of capital costs, the range of operating and maintenance costs, or the sequestration costs or monitoring the construction of clean coal SNG brownfield facility for the full duration of construction.

(f) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Illinois Power Agency to retain a mediator to mediate sourcing agreement disputes between gas utilities and the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, as defined in Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, as required under subsection (h-1) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act.

(g) This Code does not apply to the processes used by the Illinois Power Agency to retain a mediator to mediate contract disputes between gas utilities and the clean coal SNG facility and to retain an expert to assist in the review of contracts under subsection (h) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act. This Code does not apply to the process used by the Illinois Commerce Commission to retain an expert to assist in determining the actual incurred costs of the clean coal SNG facility and the reasonableness of those costs as required under subsection (h) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act.

(h) This Code does not apply to the process to procure or contracts entered into in accordance with Sections 11-5.2 and 11-5.3 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(i) (h) Each chief procurement officer may access records necessary to review whether a contract, purchase, or other expenditure is or is not subject to the provisions of this Code, unless such records would be subject to attorney-client privilege.

(Source: P.A. 96-840, eff. 12-23-09; 96-1331, eff. 7-27-10; 97-96, eff. 7-13-11; 97-239, eff. 8-2-11; 97-502, eff. 8-23-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-895, eff. 8-3-12; revised 8-23-12.)

Section 145. The Procurement of Domestic Products Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(30 ILCS 517/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Manufactured in the United States" means, in the case of assembled articles, materials, or supplies, that design, final assembly, processing, packaging, testing, or other process that adds value, quality, or reliability occurs in the United States.

"Procured products" means assembled articles, materials, or supplies purchased by a State agency.

"Purchasing agency" means a State agency.

"State agency" means each agency, department, authority, board, or commission of the executive branch of State government, including each university, whether created by statute or by executive order of the Governor.

"United States" means the United States and any place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.

(Source: P.A. 93-954, eff. 1-1-05; 94-540, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 150. The Downstate Public Transportation Act is amended by changing Section 1-2 as follows:

(30 ILCS 740/1-2) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 661.01)

Sec. 1-2. (1) The General Assembly finds:

(a) that the predominant part of the State's population is located in its rapidly expanding metropolitan and urban areas;

(b) that the welfare and vitality of urban areas and the satisfactory movement of people and goods within such areas are being jeopardized by the deterioration or inadequate provision of urban transportation facilities and services and the intensification of traffic congestion; and

(c) that State financial assistance for the development of efficient and coordinated mass transportation systems is essential to the solution of these urban problems.

(2) The purposes of this Act are:

(a) to assist in the development of improved mass transportation systems; and

(b) to provide assistance to participants in financing such systems as provided in Section 7 of Article XIII 13 of the Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 82-783; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 155. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Section 8.36 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.36)

Sec. 8.36. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 97-716, 97-854, 97-894, 97-912, 97-933, or 97-976 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 97-716, eff. 6-29-12; 97-854, eff. 7-26-12; 97-894, eff. 8-3-12; 97-912, eff. 8-8-12; 97-933, eff. 8-10-12; 97-976, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-11-12.)

Section 160. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 507JJ, 909, 1201, 1202, and 1408 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/507JJ)

Sec. 507JJ. The Autism Research Checkoff Fund checkoff. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2005, the Department must print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Autism Research Checkoff Fund, as authorized by Public Act 94-442, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 94-442, eff. 8-4-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 10-17-12.)

(35 ILCS 5/909) (from Ch. 120, par. 9-909)

Sec. 909. Credits and Refunds.

(a) In general. In the case of any overpayment, the Department, within the applicable period of limitations for a claim for refund, may credit the amount of such overpayment, including any interest allowed thereon, against any liability in respect of the tax imposed by this Act, regardless of whether other collection remedies are closed to the Department on the part of the person who made the overpayment and shall refund any balance to such person.

(b) Credits against estimated tax. The Department may prescribe regulations providing for the crediting against the estimated tax for any taxable year of the amount determined by the taxpayer or the Department to be an overpayment of the tax imposed by this Act for a preceding taxable year.

(c) Interest on overpayment. Interest shall be allowed and paid at the rate and in the manner prescribed in Section 3-2 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act upon any overpayment in respect of the tax imposed by this Act. For purposes of this subsection, no amount of tax, for any taxable year, shall be treated as having been paid before the date on which the tax return for such year was due under Section 505, without regard to any extension of the time for filing such return.

(d) Refund claim. Every claim for refund shall be filed with the Department in writing in such form as the Department may by regulations prescribe, and shall state the specific grounds upon which it is founded.

(e) Notice of denial. As soon as practicable after a claim for refund is filed, the Department shall examine it and either issue a notice of refund, abatement or credit to the claimant or issue a notice of denial. If the Department has failed to approve or deny the claim before the expiration of 6 months from the date the claim was filed, the claimant may nevertheless thereafter file with the Department a written protest in such form as the Department may by regulation prescribe, provided that, on or after July 1, 2013, protests concerning matters that are subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal shall be filed with the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal and not with the Department. If the protest is subject to the jurisdiction of the Department, the Department shall consider the claim and, if the taxpayer has so requested, shall grant the taxpayer or the taxpayer's authorized representative a hearing within 6 months after the date such request is filed.

On and after July 1, 2013, if the protest would otherwise be subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal, the claimant may elect to treat the Department's non-action as a denial of the claim by filing a petition to review the Department's administrative decision with the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal, as provided by Section 910.

(f) Effect of denial. A denial of a claim for refund becomes final 60 days after the date of issuance of the notice of such denial except for such amounts denied as to which the claimant has filed a protest with the Department or a petition with the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal, as provided by Section 910.

(g) An overpayment of tax shown on the face of an unsigned return shall be considered forfeited to the State if after notice and demand for signature by the Department the taxpayer fails to provide a signature and 3 years have passed from the date the return was filed. An overpayment of tax refunded to a taxpayer whose return was filed electronically shall be considered an erroneous refund under Section 912 of this Act if, after proper notice and demand by the Department, the taxpayer fails to provide a required signature document. A notice and demand for signature in the case of a return reflecting an overpayment may be made by first class mail. This subsection (g) shall apply to all returns filed pursuant to this Act since 1969.

(h) This amendatory Act of 1983 applies to returns and claims for refunds filed with the Department on and after July 1, 1983.

(Source: P.A. 97-507, eff. 8-23-11; 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 5/1201) (from Ch. 120, par. 12-1201)

Sec. 1201. Administrative Review Law; Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012. The provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final actions of the Department referred to in Sections 908 (d) and 910 (d). Such final actions shall constitute "administrative decisions" as defined in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, on and after July 1, 2013, the provisions of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Department that are subject to that Act, as defined in Section 1-70 of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 5/1202) (from Ch. 120, par. 12-1202)

Sec. 1202. Venue. Except as otherwise provided in the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012, the Circuit Court of the county wherein the taxpayer has his residence or commercial domicile, or of Cook County in those cases where the taxpayer does not have his residence or commercial domicile in this State, shall have power to review all final administrative decisions of the Department in administering the provisions of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 5/1408) (from Ch. 120, par. 14-1408)

Sec. 1408. Except as otherwise provided in the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012, the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is hereby expressly adopted and shall apply to all administrative rules and procedures of the Department of Revenue under this Act, except that (1) paragraph (b) of Section 5-10 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act does not apply to final orders, decisions and opinions of the Department, (2) subparagraph (a)2 of Section 5-10 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act does not apply to forms established by the Department for use under this Act, and (3) the provisions of Section 10-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act regarding proposals for decision are excluded and not applicable to the Department under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 165. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-8 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/3-8)

Sec. 3-8. Hospital exemption.

(a) Tangible personal property sold to or used by a hospital owner that owns one or more hospitals licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or operated under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, or a hospital affiliate that is not already exempt under another provision of this Act and meets the criteria for an exemption under this Section, is exempt from taxation under this Act.

(b) A hospital owner or hospital affiliate satisfies the conditions for an exemption under this Section if the value of qualified services or activities listed in subsection (c) of this Section for the hospital year equals or exceeds the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability, without regard to any property tax exemption granted under Section 15-86 of the Property Tax Code, for the calendar year in which exemption or renewal of exemption is sought. For purposes of making the calculations required by this subsection (b), if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital owner that owns more than one hospital, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities relating to the hospital that includes the subject property, and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to the properties comprising that hospital. In the case of a multi-state hospital system or hospital affiliate, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities that occur in Illinois and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to its property located in Illinois.

(c) The following services and activities shall be considered for purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b):

(1) Charity care. Free or discounted services provided pursuant to the relevant hospital entity's financial assistance policy, measured at cost, including discounts provided under the Hospital Uninsured Patient Discount Act.

(2) Health services to low-income and underserved individuals. Other unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity for providing without charge, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services for the purpose of addressing the health of low-income or underserved individuals. Those activities or services may include, but are not limited to: financial or in-kind support to affiliated or unaffiliated hospitals, hospital affiliates, community clinics, or programs that treat low-income or underserved individuals; paying for or subsidizing health care professionals who care for low-income or underserved individuals; providing or subsidizing outreach or educational services to low-income or underserved individuals for disease management and prevention; free or subsidized goods, supplies, or services needed by low-income or underserved individuals because of their medical condition; and prenatal or childbirth outreach to low-income or underserved persons.

(3) Subsidy of State or local governments. Direct or indirect financial or in-kind subsidies of State or local governments by the relevant hospital entity that pay for or subsidize activities or programs related to health care for low-income or underserved individuals.

(4) Support for State health care programs for low-income individuals. At the election of the hospital applicant for each applicable year, either (A) 10% of payments to the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) under Medicaid or other means-tested programs, including, but not limited to, General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program or (B) the amount of subsidy provided by the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) to State or local government in treating Medicaid recipients and recipients of means-tested programs, including but not limited to General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program. The amount of subsidy for purpose of this item (4) is calculated in the same manner as unreimbursed costs are calculated for Medicaid and other means-tested government programs in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(5) Dual-eligible subsidy. The amount of subsidy provided to government by treating dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (5) is calculated by multiplying the relevant hospital entity's unreimbursed costs for Medicare, calculated in the same manner as determined in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, by the relevant hospital entity's ratio of dual-eligible patients to total Medicare patients.

(6) Relief of the burden of government related to health care. Except to the extent otherwise taken into account in this subsection, the portion of unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity attributable to providing, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services that relieve the burden of government related to health care for low-income individuals. Such activities or services shall include, but are not limited to, providing emergency, trauma, burn, neonatal, psychiatric, rehabilitation, or other special services; providing medical education; and conducting medical research or training of health care professionals. The portion of those unreimbursed costs attributable to benefiting low-income individuals shall be determined using the ratio calculated by adding the relevant hospital entity's costs attributable to charity care, Medicaid, other means-tested government programs, disabled Medicare patients under age 65, and dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients and dividing that total by the relevant hospital entity's total costs. Such costs for the numerator and denominator shall be determined by multiplying gross charges by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I). In the case of emergency services, the ratio shall be calculated using costs (gross charges multiplied by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I)) of patients treated in the relevant hospital entity's emergency department.

(7) Any other activity by the relevant hospital entity that the Department determines relieves the burden of government or addresses the health of low-income or underserved individuals.

(d) The hospital applicant shall include information in its exemption application establishing that it satisfies the requirements of subsection (b). For purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b), the hospital applicant may for each year elect to use either (1) the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (e) for the hospital year or (2) the average value of those services or activities for the 3 fiscal years ending with the hospital year. If the relevant hospital entity has been in operation for less than 3 completed fiscal years, then the latter calculation, if elected, shall be performed on a pro rata basis.

(e) For purposes of making the calculations required by this Section:

(1) particular services or activities eligible for consideration under any of the paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (c) may not be counted under more than one of those paragraphs; and

(2) the amount of unreimbursed costs and the amount of subsidy shall not be reduced by restricted or unrestricted payments received by the relevant hospital entity as contributions deductible under Section 170(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Estimation of Exempt Property Tax Liability. The estimated property tax liability used for the determination in subsection (b) shall be calculated as follows:

(1) "Estimated property tax liability" means the estimated dollar amount of property tax that would be owed, with respect to the exempt portion of each of the relevant hospital entity's properties that are already fully or partially exempt, or for which an exemption in whole or in part is currently being sought, and then aggregated as applicable, as if the exempt portion of those properties were subject to tax, calculated with respect to each such property by multiplying:

(A) the lesser of (i) the actual assessed value, if any, of the portion of the property for which an exemption is sought or (ii) an estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of such property as determined in item (2) of this subsection (g), by

(B) the applicable State equalization rate (yielding the equalized assessed value), by

(C) the applicable tax rate.

(2) The estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of the property equals the sum of (i) the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this item (2), multiplied by the applicable assessment factor, and (ii) the estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraph (C).

(A) The "estimated fair market value of buildings on the property" means the replacement value of any exempt portion of buildings on the property, minus depreciation, determined utilizing the cost replacement method whereby the exempt square footage of all such buildings is multiplied by the replacement cost per square foot for Class A Average building found in the most recent edition of the Marshall & Swift Valuation Services Manual, adjusted by any appropriate current cost and local multipliers.

(B) Depreciation, for purposes of calculating the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, is applied by utilizing a weighted mean life for the buildings based on original construction and assuming a 40-year life for hospital buildings and the applicable life for other types of buildings as specified in the American Hospital Association publication "Estimated Useful Lives of Depreciable Hospital Assets". In the case of hospital buildings, the remaining life is divided by 40 and this ratio is multiplied by the replacement cost of the buildings to obtain an estimated fair market value of buildings. If a hospital building is older than 35 years, a remaining life of 5 years for residual value is assumed; and if a building is less than 8 years old, a remaining life of 32 years is assumed.

(C) The estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property shall be determined by multiplying (i) the per square foot average of the assessed values of three parcels of land (not including farm land, and excluding the assessed value of the improvements thereon) reasonably comparable to the property, by (ii) the number of square feet comprising the exempt portion of the property's land square footage.

(3) The assessment factor, State equalization rate, and tax rate (including any special factors such as Enterprise Zones) used in calculating the estimated property tax liability shall be for the most recent year that is publicly available from the applicable chief county assessment officer or officers at least 90 days before the end of the hospital year.

(4) The method utilized to calculate estimated property tax liability for purposes of this Section 15-86 shall not be utilized for the actual valuation, assessment, or taxation of property pursuant to the Property Tax Code.

(h) For the purpose of this Section, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

(1) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building, buildings on a campus, or other health care facility located in Illinois that is licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act and has a hospital owner.

(2) "Hospital owner" means a not-for-profit corporation that is the titleholder of a hospital, or the owner of the beneficial interest in an Illinois land trust that is the titleholder of a hospital.

(3) "Hospital affiliate" means any corporation, partnership, limited partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, association or other organization, other than a hospital owner, that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with one or more hospital owners and that supports, is supported by, or acts in furtherance of the exempt health care purposes of at least one of those hospital owners' hospitals.

(4) "Hospital system" means a hospital and one or more other hospitals or hospital affiliates related by common control or ownership.

(5) "Control" relating to hospital owners, hospital affiliates, or hospital systems means possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the entity, whether through ownership of assets, membership interest, other voting or governance rights, by contract or otherwise.

(6) "Hospital applicant" means a hospital owner or hospital affiliate that files an application for an exemption or renewal of exemption under this Section.

(7) "Relevant hospital entity" means (A) the hospital owner, in the case of a hospital applicant that is a hospital owner, and (B) at the election of a hospital applicant that is a hospital affiliate, either (i) the hospital affiliate or (ii) the hospital system to which the hospital applicant belongs, including any hospitals or hospital affiliates that are related by common control or ownership.

(8) "Subject property" means property used for the calculation under subsection (b) of this Section.

(9) "Hospital year" means the fiscal year of the relevant hospital entity, or the fiscal year of one of the hospital owners in the hospital system if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital system with members with different fiscal years, that ends in the year for which the exemption is sought.

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 170. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-8 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-8)

Sec. 3-8. Hospital exemption.

(a) Tangible personal property sold to or used by a hospital owner that owns one or more hospitals licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or operated under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, or a hospital affiliate that is not already exempt under another provision of this Act and meets the criteria for an exemption under this Section, is exempt from taxation under this Act.

(b) A hospital owner or hospital affiliate satisfies the conditions for an exemption under this Section if the value of qualified services or activities listed in subsection (c) of this Section for the hospital year equals or exceeds the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability, without regard to any property tax exemption granted under Section 15-86 of the Property Tax Code, for the calendar year in which exemption or renewal of exemption is sought. For purposes of making the calculations required by this subsection (b), if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital owner that owns more than one hospital, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities relating to the hospital that includes the subject property, and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to the properties comprising that hospital. In the case of a multi-state hospital system or hospital affiliate, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities that occur in Illinois and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to its property located in Illinois.

(c) The following services and activities shall be considered for purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b):

(1) Charity care. Free or discounted services provided pursuant to the relevant hospital entity's financial assistance policy, measured at cost, including discounts provided under the Hospital Uninsured Patient Discount Act.

(2) Health services to low-income and underserved individuals. Other unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity for providing without charge, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services for the purpose of addressing the health of low-income or underserved individuals. Those activities or services may include, but are not limited to: financial or in-kind support to affiliated or unaffiliated hospitals, hospital affiliates, community clinics, or programs that treat low-income or underserved individuals; paying for or subsidizing health care professionals who care for low-income or underserved individuals; providing or subsidizing outreach or educational services to low-income or underserved individuals for disease management and prevention; free or subsidized goods, supplies, or services needed by low-income or underserved individuals because of their medical condition; and prenatal or childbirth outreach to low-income or underserved persons.

(3) Subsidy of State or local governments. Direct or indirect financial or in-kind subsidies of State or local governments by the relevant hospital entity that pay for or subsidize activities or programs related to health care for low-income or underserved individuals.

(4) Support for State health care programs for low-income individuals. At the election of the hospital applicant for each applicable year, either (A) 10% of payments to the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) under Medicaid or other means-tested programs, including, but not limited to, General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program or (B) the amount of subsidy provided by the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) to State or local government in treating Medicaid recipients and recipients of means-tested programs, including but not limited to General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (4) is calculated in the same manner as unreimbursed costs are calculated for Medicaid and other means-tested government programs in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(5) Dual-eligible subsidy. The amount of subsidy provided to government by treating dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (5) is calculated by multiplying the relevant hospital entity's unreimbursed costs for Medicare, calculated in the same manner as determined in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, by the relevant hospital entity's ratio of dual-eligible patients to total Medicare patients.

(6) Relief of the burden of government related to health care. Except to the extent otherwise taken into account in this subsection, the portion of unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity attributable to providing, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services that relieve the burden of government related to health care for low-income individuals. Such activities or services shall include, but are not limited to, providing emergency, trauma, burn, neonatal, psychiatric, rehabilitation, or other special services; providing medical education; and conducting medical research or training of health care professionals. The portion of those unreimbursed costs attributable to benefiting low-income individuals shall be determined using the ratio calculated by adding the relevant hospital entity's costs attributable to charity care, Medicaid, other means-tested government programs, disabled Medicare patients under age 65, and dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients and dividing that total by the relevant hospital entity's total costs. Such costs for the numerator and denominator shall be determined by multiplying gross charges by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I). In the case of emergency services, the ratio shall be calculated using costs (gross charges multiplied by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I)) of patients treated in the relevant hospital entity's emergency department.

(7) Any other activity by the relevant hospital entity that the Department determines relieves the burden of government or addresses the health of low-income or underserved individuals.

(d) The hospital applicant shall include information in its exemption application establishing that it satisfies the requirements of subsection (b). For purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b), the hospital applicant may for each year elect to use either (1) the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (e) for the hospital year or (2) the average value of those services or activities for the 3 fiscal years ending with the hospital year. If the relevant hospital entity has been in operation for less than 3 completed fiscal years, then the latter calculation, if elected, shall be performed on a pro rata basis.

(e) For purposes of making the calculations required by this Section:

(1) particular services or activities eligible for consideration under any of the paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (c) may not be counted under more than one of those paragraphs; and

(2) the amount of unreimbursed costs and the amount of subsidy shall not be reduced by restricted or unrestricted payments received by the relevant hospital entity as contributions deductible under Section 170(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Estimation of Exempt Property Tax Liability. The estimated property tax liability used for the determination in subsection (b) shall be calculated as follows:

(1) "Estimated property tax liability" means the estimated dollar amount of property tax that would be owed, with respect to the exempt portion of each of the relevant hospital entity's properties that are already fully or partially exempt, or for which an exemption in whole or in part is currently being sought, and then aggregated as applicable, as if the exempt portion of those properties were subject to tax, calculated with respect to each such property by multiplying:

(A) the lesser of (i) the actual assessed value, if any, of the portion of the property for which an exemption is sought or (ii) an estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of such property as determined in item (2) of this subsection (g), by

(B) the applicable State equalization rate (yielding the equalized assessed value), by

(C) the applicable tax rate.

(2) The estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of the property equals the sum of (i) the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this item (2), multiplied by the applicable assessment factor, and (ii) the estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraph (C).

(A) The "estimated fair market value of buildings on the property" means the replacement value of any exempt portion of buildings on the property, minus depreciation, determined utilizing the cost replacement method whereby the exempt square footage of all such buildings is multiplied by the replacement cost per square foot for Class A Average building found in the most recent edition of the Marshall & Swift Valuation Services Manual, adjusted by any appropriate current cost and local multipliers.

(B) Depreciation, for purposes of calculating the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, is applied by utilizing a weighted mean life for the buildings based on original construction and assuming a 40-year life for hospital buildings and the applicable life for other types of buildings as specified in the American Hospital Association publication "Estimated Useful Lives of Depreciable Hospital Assets". In the case of hospital buildings, the remaining life is divided by 40 and this ratio is multiplied by the replacement cost of the buildings to obtain an estimated fair market value of buildings. If a hospital building is older than 35 years, a remaining life of 5 years for residual value is assumed; and if a building is less than 8 years old, a remaining life of 32 years is assumed.

(C) The estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property shall be determined by multiplying (i) the per square foot average of the assessed values of three parcels of land (not including farm land, and excluding the assessed value of the improvements thereon) reasonably comparable to the property, by (ii) the number of square feet comprising the exempt portion of the property's land square footage.

(3) The assessment factor, State equalization rate, and tax rate (including any special factors such as Enterprise Zones) used in calculating the estimated property tax liability shall be for the most recent year that is publicly available from the applicable chief county assessment officer or officers at least 90 days before the end of the hospital year.

(4) The method utilized to calculate estimated property tax liability for purposes of this Section 15-86 shall not be utilized for the actual valuation, assessment, or taxation of property pursuant to the Property Tax Code.

(h) For the purpose of this Section, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

(1) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building, buildings on a campus, or other health care facility located in Illinois that is licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act and has a hospital owner.

(2) "Hospital owner" means a not-for-profit corporation that is the titleholder of a hospital, or the owner of the beneficial interest in an Illinois land trust that is the titleholder of a hospital.

(3) "Hospital affiliate" means any corporation, partnership, limited partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, association or other organization, other than a hospital owner, that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with one or more hospital owners and that supports, is supported by, or acts in furtherance of the exempt health care purposes of at least one of those hospital owners' hospitals.

(4) "Hospital system" means a hospital and one or more other hospitals or hospital affiliates related by common control or ownership.

(5) "Control" relating to hospital owners, hospital affiliates, or hospital systems means possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the entity, whether through ownership of assets, membership interest, other voting or governance rights, by contract or otherwise.

(6) "Hospital applicant" means a hospital owner or hospital affiliate that files an application for an exemption or renewal of exemption under this Section.

(7) "Relevant hospital entity" means (A) the hospital owner, in the case of a hospital applicant that is a hospital owner, and (B) at the election of a hospital applicant that is a hospital affiliate, either (i) the hospital affiliate or (ii) the hospital system to which the hospital applicant belongs, including any hospitals or hospital affiliates that are related by common control or ownership.

(8) "Subject property" means property used for the calculation under subsection (b) of this Section.

(9) "Hospital year" means the fiscal year of the relevant hospital entity, or the fiscal year of one of the hospital owners in the hospital system if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital system with members with different fiscal years, that ends in the year for which the exemption is sought.

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 175. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-8 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/3-8)

Sec. 3-8. Hospital exemption.

(a) Tangible personal property sold to or used by a hospital owner that owns one or more hospitals licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or operated under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, or a hospital affiliate that is not already exempt under another provision of this Act and meets the criteria for an exemption under this Section, is exempt from taxation under this Act.

(b) A hospital owner or hospital affiliate satisfies the conditions for an exemption under this Section if the value of qualified services or activities listed in subsection (c) of this Section for the hospital year equals or exceeds the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability, without regard to any property tax exemption granted under Section 15-86 of the Property Tax Code, for the calendar year in which exemption or renewal of exemption is sought. For purposes of making the calculations required by this subsection (b), if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital owner that owns more than one hospital, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities relating to the hospital that includes the subject property, and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to the properties comprising that hospital. In the case of a multi-state hospital system or hospital affiliate, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities that occur in Illinois and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to its property located in Illinois.

(c) The following services and activities shall be considered for purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b):

(1) Charity care. Free or discounted services provided pursuant to the relevant hospital entity's financial assistance policy, measured at cost, including discounts provided under the Hospital Uninsured Patient Discount Act.

(2) Health services to low-income and underserved individuals. Other unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity for providing without charge, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services for the purpose of addressing the health of low-income or underserved individuals. Those activities or services may include, but are not limited to: financial or in-kind support to affiliated or unaffiliated hospitals, hospital affiliates, community clinics, or programs that treat low-income or underserved individuals; paying for or subsidizing health care professionals who care for low-income or underserved individuals; providing or subsidizing outreach or educational services to low-income or underserved individuals for disease management and prevention; free or subsidized goods, supplies, or services needed by low-income or underserved individuals because of their medical condition; and prenatal or childbirth outreach to low-income or underserved persons.

(3) Subsidy of State or local governments. Direct or indirect financial or in-kind subsidies of State or local governments by the relevant hospital entity that pay for or subsidize activities or programs related to health care for low-income or underserved individuals.

(4) Support for State health care programs for low-income individuals. At the election of the hospital applicant for each applicable year, either (A) 10% of payments to the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) under Medicaid or other means-tested programs, including, but not limited to, General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program or (B) the amount of subsidy provided by the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) to State or local government in treating Medicaid recipients and recipients of means-tested programs, including but not limited to General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (4) is calculated in the same manner as unreimbursed costs are calculated for Medicaid and other means-tested government programs in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(5) Dual-eligible subsidy. The amount of subsidy provided to government by treating dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (5) is calculated by multiplying the relevant hospital entity's unreimbursed costs for Medicare, calculated in the same manner as determined in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, by the relevant hospital entity's ratio of dual-eligible patients to total Medicare patients.

(6) Relief of the burden of government related to health care. Except to the extent otherwise taken into account in this subsection, the portion of unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity attributable to providing, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services that relieve the burden of government related to health care for low-income individuals. Such activities or services shall include, but are not limited to, providing emergency, trauma, burn, neonatal, psychiatric, rehabilitation, or other special services; providing medical education; and conducting medical research or training of health care professionals. The portion of those unreimbursed costs attributable to benefiting low-income individuals shall be determined using the ratio calculated by adding the relevant hospital entity's costs attributable to charity care, Medicaid, other means-tested government programs, disabled Medicare patients under age 65, and dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients and dividing that total by the relevant hospital entity's total costs. Such costs for the numerator and denominator shall be determined by multiplying gross charges by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I). In the case of emergency services, the ratio shall be calculated using costs (gross charges multiplied by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I)) of patients treated in the relevant hospital entity's emergency department.

(7) Any other activity by the relevant hospital entity that the Department determines relieves the burden of government or addresses the health of low-income or underserved individuals.

(d) The hospital applicant shall include information in its exemption application establishing that it satisfies the requirements of subsection (b). For purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b), the hospital applicant may for each year elect to use either (1) the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (e) for the hospital year or (2) the average value of those services or activities for the 3 fiscal years ending with the hospital year. If the relevant hospital entity has been in operation for less than 3 completed fiscal years, then the latter calculation, if elected, shall be performed on a pro rata basis.

(e) For purposes of making the calculations required by this Section:

(1) particular services or activities eligible for consideration under any of the paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (c) may not be counted under more than one of those paragraphs; and

(2) the amount of unreimbursed costs and the amount of subsidy shall not be reduced by restricted or unrestricted payments received by the relevant hospital entity as contributions deductible under Section 170(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Estimation of Exempt Property Tax Liability. The estimated property tax liability used for the determination in subsection (b) shall be calculated as follows:

(1) "Estimated property tax liability" means the estimated dollar amount of property tax that would be owed, with respect to the exempt portion of each of the relevant hospital entity's properties that are already fully or partially exempt, or for which an exemption in whole or in part is currently being sought, and then aggregated as applicable, as if the exempt portion of those properties were subject to tax, calculated with respect to each such property by multiplying:

(A) the lesser of (i) the actual assessed value, if any, of the portion of the property for which an exemption is sought or (ii) an estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of such property as determined in item (2) of this subsection (g), by

(B) the applicable State equalization rate (yielding the equalized assessed value), by

(C) the applicable tax rate.

(2) The estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of the property equals the sum of (i) the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this item (2), multiplied by the applicable assessment factor, and (ii) the estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraph (C).

(A) The "estimated fair market value of buildings on the property" means the replacement value of any exempt portion of buildings on the property, minus depreciation, determined utilizing the cost replacement method whereby the exempt square footage of all such buildings is multiplied by the replacement cost per square foot for Class A Average building found in the most recent edition of the Marshall & Swift Valuation Services Manual, adjusted by any appropriate current cost and local multipliers.

(B) Depreciation, for purposes of calculating the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, is applied by utilizing a weighted mean life for the buildings based on original construction and assuming a 40-year life for hospital buildings and the applicable life for other types of buildings as specified in the American Hospital Association publication "Estimated Useful Lives of Depreciable Hospital Assets". In the case of hospital buildings, the remaining life is divided by 40 and this ratio is multiplied by the replacement cost of the buildings to obtain an estimated fair market value of buildings. If a hospital building is older than 35 years, a remaining life of 5 years for residual value is assumed; and if a building is less than 8 years old, a remaining life of 32 years is assumed.

(C) The estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property shall be determined by multiplying (i) the per square foot average of the assessed values of three parcels of land (not including farm land, and excluding the assessed value of the improvements thereon) reasonably comparable to the property, by (ii) the number of square feet comprising the exempt portion of the property's land square footage.

(3) The assessment factor, State equalization rate, and tax rate (including any special factors such as Enterprise Zones) used in calculating the estimated property tax liability shall be for the most recent year that is publicly available from the applicable chief county assessment officer or officers at least 90 days before the end of the hospital year.

(4) The method utilized to calculate estimated property tax liability for purposes of this Section 15-86 shall not be utilized for the actual valuation, assessment, or taxation of property pursuant to the Property Tax Code.

(h) For the purpose of this Section, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

(1) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building, buildings on a campus, or other health care facility located in Illinois that is licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act and has a hospital owner.

(2) "Hospital owner" means a not-for-profit corporation that is the titleholder of a hospital, or the owner of the beneficial interest in an Illinois land trust that is the titleholder of a hospital.

(3) "Hospital affiliate" means any corporation, partnership, limited partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, association or other organization, other than a hospital owner, that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with one or more hospital owners and that supports, is supported by, or acts in furtherance of the exempt health care purposes of at least one of those hospital owners' hospitals.

(4) "Hospital system" means a hospital and one or more other hospitals or hospital affiliates related by common control or ownership.

(5) "Control" relating to hospital owners, hospital affiliates, or hospital systems means possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the entity, whether through ownership of assets, membership interest, other voting or governance rights, by contract or otherwise.

(6) "Hospital applicant" means a hospital owner or hospital affiliate that files an application for an exemption or renewal of exemption under this Section.

(7) "Relevant hospital entity" means (A) the hospital owner, in the case of a hospital applicant that is a hospital owner, and (B) at the election of a hospital applicant that is a hospital affiliate, either (i) the hospital affiliate or (ii) the hospital system to which the hospital applicant belongs, including any hospitals or hospital affiliates that are related by common control or ownership.

(8) "Subject property" means property used for the calculation under subsection (b) of this Section.

(9) "Hospital year" means the fiscal year of the relevant hospital entity, or the fiscal year of one of the hospital owners in the hospital system if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital system with members with different fiscal years, that ends in the year for which the exemption is sought.

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 180. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 1f, 2-9, 5, and 12 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/1f) (from Ch. 120, par. 440f)

Sec. 1f. Except for High Impact Businesses, the exemption stated in Sections 1d and 1e of this Act shall only apply to business enterprises which:

(1) either (i) make investments which cause the creation of a minimum of 200 full-time equivalent jobs in Illinois or (ii) make investments which cause the retention of a minimum of 2000 full-time jobs in Illinois or (iii) make investments of a minimum of $40,000,000 and retain at least 90% of the jobs in place on the date on which the exemption is granted and for the duration of the exemption; and

(2) are located in an Enterprise Zone established pursuant to the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act; and

(3) are certified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity as complying with the requirements specified in clauses (1) and , (2) and (3).

Any business enterprise seeking to avail itself of the exemptions stated in Sections 1d or 1e, or both, shall make application to the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity in such form and providing such information as may be prescribed by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity. However, no business enterprise shall be required, as a condition for certification under clause (4) of this Section, to attest that its decision to invest under clause (1) of this Section and to locate under clause (2) of this Section is predicated upon the availability of the exemptions authorized by Sections 1d or 1e.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall determine whether the business enterprise meets the criteria prescribed in this Section. If the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity determines that such business enterprise meets the criteria, it shall issue a certificate of eligibility for exemption to the business enterprise in such form as is prescribed by the Department of Revenue. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall act upon such certification requests within 60 days after receipt of the application, and shall file with the Department of Revenue a copy of each certificate of eligibility for exemption.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall have the power to promulgate rules and regulations to carry out the provisions of this Section including the power to define the amounts and types of eligible investments not specified in this Section which business enterprises must make in order to receive the exemptions stated in Sections 1d and 1e of this Act; and to require that any business enterprise that is granted a tax exemption repay the exempted tax if the business enterprise fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the certification.

Such certificate of eligibility for exemption shall be presented by the business enterprise to its supplier when making the initial purchase of tangible personal property for which an exemption is granted by Section 1d or Section 1e, or both, together with a certification by the business enterprise that such tangible personal property is exempt from taxation under Section 1d or Section 1e and by indicating the exempt status of each subsequent purchase on the face of the purchase order.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall determine the period during which such exemption from the taxes imposed under this Act is in effect which shall not exceed 20 years.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 120/2-9)

Sec. 2-9. Hospital exemption.

(a) Tangible personal property sold to or used by a hospital owner that owns one or more hospitals licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or operated under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, or a hospital affiliate that is not already exempt under another provision of this Act and meets the criteria for an exemption under this Section, is exempt from taxation under this Act.

(b) A hospital owner or hospital affiliate satisfies the conditions for an exemption under this Section if the value of qualified services or activities listed in subsection (c) of this Section for the hospital year equals or exceeds the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability, without regard to any property tax exemption granted under Section 15-86 of the Property Tax Code, for the calendar year in which exemption or renewal of exemption is sought. For purposes of making the calculations required by this subsection (b), if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital owner that owns more than one hospital, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities relating to the hospital that includes the subject property, and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to the properties comprising that hospital. In the case of a multi-state hospital system or hospital affiliate, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities that occur in Illinois and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to its property located in Illinois.

(c) The following services and activities shall be considered for purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b):

(1) Charity care. Free or discounted services provided pursuant to the relevant hospital entity's financial assistance policy, measured at cost, including discounts provided under the Hospital Uninsured Patient Discount Act.

(2) Health services to low-income and underserved individuals. Other unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity for providing without charge, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services for the purpose of addressing the health of low-income or underserved individuals. Those activities or services may include, but are not limited to: financial or in-kind support to affiliated or unaffiliated hospitals, hospital affiliates, community clinics, or programs that treat low-income or underserved individuals; paying for or subsidizing health care professionals who care for low-income or underserved individuals; providing or subsidizing outreach or educational services to low-income or underserved individuals for disease management and prevention; free or subsidized goods, supplies, or services needed by low-income or underserved individuals because of their medical condition; and prenatal or childbirth outreach to low-income or underserved persons.

(3) Subsidy of State or local governments. Direct or indirect financial or in-kind subsidies of State or local governments by the relevant hospital entity that pay for or subsidize activities or programs related to health care for low-income or underserved individuals.

(4) Support for State health care programs for low-income individuals. At the election of the hospital applicant for each applicable year, either (A) 10% of payments to the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) under Medicaid or other means-tested programs, including, but not limited to, General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program or (B) the amount of subsidy provided by the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) to State or local government in treating Medicaid recipients and recipients of means-tested programs, including but not limited to General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (4) is calculated in the same manner as unreimbursed costs are calculated for Medicaid and other means-tested government programs in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(5) Dual-eligible subsidy. The amount of subsidy provided to government by treating dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (5) is calculated by multiplying the relevant hospital entity's unreimbursed costs for Medicare, calculated in the same manner as determined in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, by the relevant hospital entity's ratio of dual-eligible patients to total Medicare patients.

(6) Relief of the burden of government related to health care. Except to the extent otherwise taken into account in this subsection, the portion of unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity attributable to providing, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services that relieve the burden of government related to health care for low-income individuals. Such activities or services shall include, but are not limited to, providing emergency, trauma, burn, neonatal, psychiatric, rehabilitation, or other special services; providing medical education; and conducting medical research or training of health care professionals. The portion of those unreimbursed costs attributable to benefiting low-income individuals shall be determined using the ratio calculated by adding the relevant hospital entity's costs attributable to charity care, Medicaid, other means-tested government programs, disabled Medicare patients under age 65, and dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients and dividing that total by the relevant hospital entity's total costs. Such costs for the numerator and denominator shall be determined by multiplying gross charges by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I). In the case of emergency services, the ratio shall be calculated using costs (gross charges multiplied by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I)) of patients treated in the relevant hospital entity's emergency department.

(7) Any other activity by the relevant hospital entity that the Department determines relieves the burden of government or addresses the health of low-income or underserved individuals.

(d) The hospital applicant shall include information in its exemption application establishing that it satisfies the requirements of subsection (b). For purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b), the hospital applicant may for each year elect to use either (1) the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (e) for the hospital year or (2) the average value of those services or activities for the 3 fiscal years ending with the hospital year. If the relevant hospital entity has been in operation for less than 3 completed fiscal years, then the latter calculation, if elected, shall be performed on a pro rata basis.

(e) For purposes of making the calculations required by this Section:

(1) particular services or activities eligible for consideration under any of the paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (c) may not be counted under more than one of those paragraphs; and

(2) the amount of unreimbursed costs and the amount of subsidy shall not be reduced by restricted or unrestricted payments received by the relevant hospital entity as contributions deductible under Section 170(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Estimation of Exempt Property Tax Liability. The estimated property tax liability used for the determination in subsection (b) shall be calculated as follows:

(1) "Estimated property tax liability" means the estimated dollar amount of property tax that would be owed, with respect to the exempt portion of each of the relevant hospital entity's properties that are already fully or partially exempt, or for which an exemption in whole or in part is currently being sought, and then aggregated as applicable, as if the exempt portion of those properties were subject to tax, calculated with respect to each such property by multiplying:

(A) the lesser of (i) the actual assessed value, if any, of the portion of the property for which an exemption is sought or (ii) an estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of such property as determined in item (2) of this subsection (g), by

(B) the applicable State equalization rate (yielding the equalized assessed value), by

(C) the applicable tax rate.

(2) The estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of the property equals the sum of (i) the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this item (2), multiplied by the applicable assessment factor, and (ii) the estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraph (C).

(A) The "estimated fair market value of buildings on the property" means the replacement value of any exempt portion of buildings on the property, minus depreciation, determined utilizing the cost replacement method whereby the exempt square footage of all such buildings is multiplied by the replacement cost per square foot for Class A Average building found in the most recent edition of the Marshall & Swift Valuation Services Manual, adjusted by any appropriate current cost and local multipliers.

(B) Depreciation, for purposes of calculating the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, is applied by utilizing a weighted mean life for the buildings based on original construction and assuming a 40-year life for hospital buildings and the applicable life for other types of buildings as specified in the American Hospital Association publication "Estimated Useful Lives of Depreciable Hospital Assets". In the case of hospital buildings, the remaining life is divided by 40 and this ratio is multiplied by the replacement cost of the buildings to obtain an estimated fair market value of buildings. If a hospital building is older than 35 years, a remaining life of 5 years for residual value is assumed; and if a building is less than 8 years old, a remaining life of 32 years is assumed.

(C) The estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property shall be determined by multiplying (i) the per square foot average of the assessed values of three parcels of land (not including farm land, and excluding the assessed value of the improvements thereon) reasonably comparable to the property, by (ii) the number of square feet comprising the exempt portion of the property's land square footage.

(3) The assessment factor, State equalization rate, and tax rate (including any special factors such as Enterprise Zones) used in calculating the estimated property tax liability shall be for the most recent year that is publicly available from the applicable chief county assessment officer or officers at least 90 days before the end of the hospital year.

(4) The method utilized to calculate estimated property tax liability for purposes of this Section 15-86 shall not be utilized for the actual valuation, assessment, or taxation of property pursuant to the Property Tax Code.

(h) For the purpose of this Section, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

(1) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building, buildings on a campus, or other health care facility located in Illinois that is licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act and has a hospital owner.

(2) "Hospital owner" means a not-for-profit corporation that is the titleholder of a hospital, or the owner of the beneficial interest in an Illinois land trust that is the titleholder of a hospital.

(3) "Hospital affiliate" means any corporation, partnership, limited partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, association or other organization, other than a hospital owner, that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with one or more hospital owners and that supports, is supported by, or acts in furtherance of the exempt health care purposes of at least one of those hospital owners' hospitals.

(4) "Hospital system" means a hospital and one or more other hospitals or hospital affiliates related by common control or ownership.

(5) "Control" relating to hospital owners, hospital affiliates, or hospital systems means possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the entity, whether through ownership of assets, membership interest, other voting or governance rights, by contract or otherwise.

(6) "Hospital applicant" means a hospital owner or hospital affiliate that files an application for an exemption or renewal of exemption under this Section.

(7) "Relevant hospital entity" means (A) the hospital owner, in the case of a hospital applicant that is a hospital owner, and (B) at the election of a hospital applicant that is a hospital affiliate, either (i) the hospital affiliate or (ii) the hospital system to which the hospital applicant belongs, including any hospitals or hospital affiliates that are related by common control or ownership.

(8) "Subject property" means property used for the calculation under subsection (b) of this Section.

(9) "Hospital year" means the fiscal year of the relevant hospital entity, or the fiscal year of one of the hospital owners in the hospital system if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital system with members with different fiscal years, that ends in the year for which the exemption is sought.

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(35 ILCS 120/5) (from Ch. 120, par. 444)

Sec. 5. In case any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail fails to file a return when and as herein required, but thereafter, prior to the Department's issuance of a notice of tax liability under this Section, files a return and pays the tax, he shall also pay a penalty in an amount determined in accordance with Section 3-3 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

In case any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail files the return at the time required by this Act but fails to pay the tax, or any part thereof, when due, a penalty in an amount determined in accordance with Section 3-3 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act shall be added thereto.

In case any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail fails to file a return when and as herein required, but thereafter, prior to the Department's issuance of a notice of tax liability under this Section, files a return but fails to pay the entire tax, a penalty in an amount determined in accordance with Section 3-3 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act shall be added thereto.

In case any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail fails to file a return, the Department shall determine the amount of tax due from him according to its best judgment and information, which amount so fixed by the Department shall be prima facie correct and shall be prima facie evidence of the correctness of the amount of tax due, as shown in such determination. In making any such determination of tax due, it shall be permissible for the Department to show a figure that represents the tax due for any given period of 6 months instead of showing the amount of tax due for each month separately. Proof of such determination by the Department may be made at any hearing before the Department or in any legal proceeding by a reproduced copy or computer print-out of the Department's record relating thereto in the name of the Department under the certificate of the Director of Revenue. If reproduced copies of the Department's records are offered as proof of such determination, the Director must certify that those copies are true and exact copies of records on file with the Department. If computer print-outs of the Department's records are offered as proof of such determination, the Director must certify that those computer print-outs are true and exact representations of records properly entered into standard electronic computing equipment, in the regular course of the Department's business, at or reasonably near the time of the occurrence of the facts recorded, from trustworthy and reliable information. Such certified reproduced copy or certified computer print-out shall, without further proof, be admitted into evidence before the Department or in any legal proceeding and shall be prima facie proof of the correctness of the amount of tax due, as shown therein. The Department shall issue the taxpayer a notice of tax liability for the amount of tax claimed by the Department to be due, together with a penalty of 30% thereof.

However, where the failure to file any tax return required under this Act on the date prescribed therefor (including any extensions thereof), is shown to be unintentional and nonfraudulent and has not occurred in the 2 years immediately preceding the failure to file on the prescribed date or is due to other reasonable cause the penalties imposed by this Act shall not apply.

The taxpayer or the taxpayer's legal representative may, within 60 days after such notice, file a protest to such notice of tax liability with the Department and request a hearing thereon. The Department shall give notice to such person or the legal representative of such person of the time and place fixed for such hearing, and shall hold a hearing in conformity with the provisions of this Act, and pursuant thereto shall issue a final assessment to such person or to the legal representative of such person for the amount found to be due as a result of such hearing. On and after July 1, 2013, protests concerning matters that are under the jurisdiction of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal shall be filed with the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal in accordance with the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012, and hearings concerning those matters shall be held before the Tribunal in accordance with that Act. With respect to protests filed with the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal, the Tribunal shall give notice to that person or the legal representative of that person of the time and place fixed for a hearing, and shall hold a hearing in conformity with the provisions of this Act and the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012; and pursuant thereto the Department shall issue a final assessment to such person or to the legal representative of such person for the amount found to be due as a result of the hearing. With respect to protests filed with the Department prior to July 1, 2013 that would otherwise be subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal, the taxpayer may elect to be subject to the provisions of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012 at any time on or after July 1, 2013, but not later than 30 days after the date on which the protest was filed. If made, the election shall be irrevocable.

If a protest to the notice of tax liability and a request for a hearing thereon is not filed within 60 days after such notice, such notice of tax liability shall become final without the necessity of a final assessment being issued and shall be deemed to be a final assessment.

After the issuance of a final assessment, or a notice of tax liability which becomes final without the necessity of actually issuing a final assessment as hereinbefore provided, the Department, at any time before such assessment is reduced to judgment, may (subject to rules of the Department) grant a rehearing (or grant departmental review and hold an original hearing if no previous hearing in the matter has been held) upon the application of the person aggrieved. Pursuant to such hearing or rehearing, the Department shall issue a revised final assessment to such person or his legal representative for the amount found to be due as a result of such hearing or rehearing.

Except in case of failure to file a return, or with the consent of the person to whom the notice of tax liability is to be issued, no notice of tax liability shall be issued on and after each July 1 and January 1 covering gross receipts received during any month or period of time more than 3 years prior to such July 1 and January 1, respectively, except that if a return is not filed at the required time, a notice of tax liability may be issued not later than 3 years after the time the return is filed. The foregoing limitations upon the issuance of a notice of tax liability shall not apply to the issuance of any such notice with respect to any period of time prior thereto in cases where the Department has, within the period of limitation then provided, notified a person of the amount of tax computed even though the Department had not determined the amount of tax due from such person in the manner required herein prior to the issuance of such notice, but in no case shall the amount of any such notice of tax liability for any period otherwise barred by this Act exceed for such period the amount shown in the notice theretofore issued.

If, when a tax or penalty under this Act becomes due and payable, the person alleged to be liable therefor is out of the State, the notice of tax liability may be issued within the times herein limited after his or her coming into or return to the State; and if, after the tax or penalty under this Act becomes due and payable, the person alleged to be liable therefor departs from and remains out of the State, the time of his or her absence is no part of the time limited for the issuance of the notice of tax liability; but the foregoing provisions concerning absence from the State shall not apply to any case in which, at the time when a tax or penalty becomes due under this Act, the person allegedly liable therefor is not a resident of this State.

The time limitation period on the Department's right to issue a notice of tax liability shall not run during any period of time in which the order of any court has the effect of enjoining or restraining the Department from issuing the notice of tax liability.

In case of failure to pay the tax, or any portion thereof, or any penalty provided for in this Act, or interest, when due, the Department may bring suit to recover the amount of such tax, or portion thereof, or penalty or interest; or, if the taxpayer has died or become a person under legal disability, may file a claim therefor against his estate; provided that no such suit with respect to any tax, or portion thereof, or penalty, or interest shall be instituted more than 6 years after the date any proceedings in court for review thereof have terminated or the time for the taking thereof has expired without such proceedings being instituted, except with the consent of the person from whom such tax or penalty or interest is due; nor, except with such consent, shall such suit be instituted more than 6 years after the date any return is filed with the Department in cases where the return constitutes the basis for the suit for unpaid tax, or portion thereof, or penalty provided for in this Act, or interest: Provided that the time limitation period on the Department's right to bring any such suit shall not run during any period of time in which the order of any court has the effect of enjoining or restraining the Department from bringing such suit.

After the expiration of the period within which the person assessed may file an action for judicial review under the Administrative Review Law or the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012, as applicable, without such an action being filed, a certified copy of the final assessment or revised final assessment of the Department may be filed with the Circuit Court of the county in which the taxpayer has his principal place of business, or of Sangamon County in those cases in which the taxpayer does not have his principal place of business in this State. The certified copy of the final assessment or revised final assessment shall be accompanied by a certification which recites facts that are sufficient to show that the Department complied with the jurisdictional requirements of the Act in arriving at its final assessment or its revised final assessment and that the taxpayer had his opportunity for an administrative hearing and for judicial review, whether he availed himself or herself of either or both of these opportunities or not. If the court is satisfied that the Department complied with the jurisdictional requirements of the Act in arriving at its final assessment or its revised final assessment and that the taxpayer had his opportunity for an administrative hearing and for judicial review, whether he availed himself of either or both of these opportunities or not, the court shall render judgment in favor of the Department and against the taxpayer for the amount shown to be due by the final assessment or the revised final assessment, plus any interest which may be due, and such judgment shall be entered in the judgment docket of the court. Such judgment shall bear the rate of interest as set by the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, but otherwise shall have the same effect as other judgments. The judgment may be enforced, and all laws applicable to sales for the enforcement of a judgment shall be applicable to sales made under such judgments. The Department shall file the certified copy of its assessment, as herein provided, with the Circuit Court within 6 years after such assessment becomes final except when the taxpayer consents in writing to an extension of such filing period, and except that the time limitation period on the Department's right to file the certified copy of its assessment with the Circuit Court shall not run during any period of time in which the order of any court has the effect of enjoining or restraining the Department from filing such certified copy of its assessment with the Circuit Court.

If, when the cause of action for a proceeding in court accrues against a person, he or she is out of the State, the action may be commenced within the times herein limited, after his or her coming into or return to the State; and if, after the cause of action accrues, he or she departs from and remains out of the State, the time of his or her absence is no part of the time limited for the commencement of the action; but the foregoing provisions concerning absence from the State shall not apply to any case in which, at the time the cause of action accrues, the party against whom the cause of action accrues is not a resident of this State. The time within which a court action is to be commenced by the Department hereunder shall not run from the date the taxpayer files a petition in bankruptcy under the Federal Bankruptcy Act until 30 days after notice of termination or expiration of the automatic stay imposed by the Federal Bankruptcy Act.

No claim shall be filed against the estate of any deceased person or any person under legal disability for any tax or penalty or part of either, or interest, except in the manner prescribed and within the time limited by the Probate Act of 1975, as amended.

The collection of tax or penalty or interest by any means provided for herein shall not be a bar to any prosecution under this Act.

In addition to any penalty provided for in this Act, any amount of tax which is not paid when due shall bear interest at the rate and in the manner specified in Sections 3-2 and 3-9 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act from the date when such tax becomes past due until such tax is paid or a judgment therefor is obtained by the Department. If the time for making or completing an audit of a taxpayer's books and records is extended with the taxpayer's consent, at the request of and for the convenience of the Department, beyond the date on which the statute of limitations upon the issuance of a notice of tax liability by the Department otherwise would run, no interest shall accrue during the period of such extension or until a Notice of Tax Liability is issued, whichever occurs first.

In addition to any other remedy provided by this Act, and regardless of whether the Department is making or intends to make use of such other remedy, where a corporation or limited liability company registered under this Act violates the provisions of this Act or of any rule or regulation promulgated thereunder, the Department may give notice to the Attorney General of the identity of such a corporation or limited liability company and of the violations committed by such a corporation or limited liability company, for such action as is not already provided for by this Act and as the Attorney General may deem appropriate.

If the Department determines that an amount of tax or penalty or interest was incorrectly assessed, whether as the result of a mistake of fact or an error of law, the Department shall waive the amount of tax or penalty or interest that accrued due to the incorrect assessment.

(Source: P.A. 96-1383, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 120/12) (from Ch. 120, par. 451)

Sec. 12. The Department is authorized to make, promulgate and enforce such reasonable rules and regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of this Act as may be deemed expedient.

Whenever notice is required by this Act, such notice may be given by United States registered or certified mail, addressed to the person concerned at his last known address, and proof of such mailing shall be sufficient for the purposes of this Act. Notice of any hearing provided for by this Act shall be so given not less than 7 days prior to the day fixed for the hearing. Following the initial contact of a person represented by an attorney, the Department shall not contact the person concerned but shall only contact the attorney representing the person concerned.

All hearings provided for in this Act with respect to or concerning a taxpayer having his or her principal place of business in this State other than in Cook County shall be held at the Department's office nearest to the location of the taxpayer's principal place of business: Provided that if the taxpayer has his or her principal place of business in Cook County, such hearing shall be held in Cook County; and provided, further, that if the taxpayer does not have his or her principal place of business in this State, such hearing shall be held in Sangamon County.

The Circuit Court of the County wherein the taxpayer has his or her principal place of business, or of Sangamon County in those cases where the taxpayer does not have his or her principal place of business in this State, shall have power to review all final administrative decisions of the Department in administering the provisions of this Act: Provided that if the administrative proceeding which is to be reviewed judicially is a claim for refund proceeding commenced in accordance with Section 6 of this Act and Section 2a of "An Act in relation to the payment and disposition of moneys received by officers and employees of the State of Illinois by virtue of their office or employment", approved June 9, 1911, as amended, the Circuit Court having jurisdiction of the action for judicial review under this Section and under the Administrative Review Law, as amended, shall be the same court that entered the temporary restraining order or preliminary injunction which is provided for in Section 2a of "An Act in relation to the payment and disposition of moneys received by officers and employees of the State of Illinois by virtue of their office or employment", and which enables such claim proceeding to be processed and disposed of as a claim for refund proceeding rather than as a claim for credit proceeding.

The provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Department hereunder, except with respect to protests and hearings held before the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal. The provisions of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of administrative decisions of the Department that are subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Except with respect to decisions that are subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal, any person filing an action under the Administrative Review Law to review a final assessment or revised final assessment issued by the Department under this Act shall, within 20 days after filing the complaint, file a bond with good and sufficient surety or sureties residing in this State or licensed to do business in this State or, instead of the bond, obtain an order from the court imposing a lien upon the plaintiff's property as hereinafter provided. If the person filing the complaint fails to comply with this bonding requirement within 20 days after filing the complaint, the Department shall file a motion to dismiss and the court shall dismiss the action unless the person filing the action complies with the bonding requirement set out in this provision within 30 days after the filing of the Department's motion to dismiss. Upon dismissal of any complaint for failure to comply with the jurisdictional prerequisites herein set forth, the court is empowered to and shall enter judgment against the taxpayer and in favor of the Department in the amount of the final assessment or revised final assessment, together with any interest which may have accrued since the Department issued the final assessment or revised final assessment, and for costs, which judgment is enforceable as other judgments for the payment of money. The lien provided for in this Section shall not be applicable to the real property of a corporate surety duly licensed to do business in this State. The amount of such bond shall be fixed and approved by the court, but shall not be less than the amount of the tax and penalty claimed to be due by the Department in its final assessment or revised final assessment to the person filing such bond, plus the amount of interest due from such person to the Department at the time when the Department issued its final assessment to such person. Such bond shall be executed to the Department of Revenue and shall be conditioned on the taxpayer's payment within 30 days after termination of the proceedings for judicial review of the amount of tax and penalty and interest found by the court to be due in such proceedings for judicial review. Such bond, when filed and approved, shall, from such time until 2 years after termination of the proceedings for judicial review in which the bond is filed, be a lien against the real estate situated in the county in which the bond is filed, of the person filing such bond, and of the surety or sureties on such bond, until the condition of the bond has been complied with or until the bond has been canceled as hereinafter provided. If the person filing any such bond fails to keep the condition thereof, such bond shall thereupon be forfeited, and the Department may institute an action upon such bond in its own name for the entire amount of the bond and costs. Such action upon the bond shall be in addition to any other remedy provided for herein. If the person filing such bond complies with the condition thereof, or if, in the proceedings for judicial review in which such bond is filed, the court determines that no amount of tax or penalty or interest is due, such bond shall be canceled.

If the court finds in a particular case that the plaintiff cannot procure and furnish a satisfactory surety or sureties for the kind of bond required herein, the court may relieve the plaintiff of the obligation of filing such bond, if, upon the timely application for a lien in lieu thereof and accompanying proof therein submitted, the court is satisfied that any such lien imposed would operate to secure the assessment in the manner and to the degree as would a bond. Upon a finding that such lien applied for would secure the assessment at issue, the court shall enter an order, in lieu of such bond, subjecting the plaintiff's real and personal property (including subsequently acquired property), situated in the county in which such order is entered, to a lien in favor of the Department. Such lien shall be for the amount of the tax and penalty claimed to be due by the Department in its final assessment or revised final assessment, plus the amount of interest due from such person to the Department at the time when the Department issued its final assessment to such person, and shall continue in full force and effect until the termination of the proceedings for judicial review, or until the plaintiff pays, to the Department, the tax and penalty and interest to secure which the lien is given, whichever happens first. In the exercise of its discretion, the court may impose a lien regardless of the ratio of the taxpayer's assets to the final assessment or revised final assessment plus the amount of the interest and penalty. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to give the Department a preference over the rights of any bona fide purchaser, mortgagee, judgment creditor or other lien holder arising prior to the entry of the order creating such lien in favor of the Department: Provided, however, that the word "bona fide", as used in this Section, shall not include any mortgage of real or personal property or any other credit transaction that results in the mortgagee or the holder of the security acting as trustee for unsecured creditors of the taxpayer mentioned in the order for lien who executed such chattel or real property mortgage or the document evidencing such credit transaction. Such lien shall be inferior to the lien of general taxes, special assessments and special taxes heretofore or hereafter levied by any political subdivision of this State. Such lien shall not be effective against any purchaser with respect to any item in a retailer's stock in trade purchased from the retailer in the usual course of such retailer's business, and such lien shall not be enforced against the household effects, wearing apparel, or the books, tools or implements of a trade or profession kept for use by any person. Such lien shall not be effective against real property whose title is registered under the provisions of "An Act concerning land titles", approved May 1, 1897, as amended, until the provisions of Section 85 of that Act are complied with.

Service upon the Director of Revenue or the Assistant Director of Revenue of the Department of Revenue of summons issued in an action to review a final administrative decision of the Department shall be service upon the Department. The Department shall certify the record of its proceedings if the taxpayer pays to it the sum of 75¢ per page of testimony taken before the Department and 25¢ per page of all other matters contained in such record, except that these charges may be waived where the Department is satisfied that the aggrieved party is a poor person who cannot afford to pay such charges. If payment for such record is not made by the taxpayer within 30 days after notice from the Department or the Attorney General of the cost thereof, the court in which the proceeding is pending, on motion of the Department, shall dismiss the complaint and (where the administrative decision as to which the action for judicial review was filed is a final assessment or revised final assessment) shall enter judgment against the taxpayer and in favor of the Department for the amount of tax and penalty shown by the Department's final assessment or revised final assessment to be due, plus interest as provided for in Section 5 of this Act from the date when the liability upon which such interest accrued became delinquent until the entry of the judgment in the action for judicial review under the Administrative Review Law, and also for costs.

Whenever any proceeding provided by this Act is begun before the Department, either by the Department or by a person subject to this Act, and such person thereafter dies or becomes a person under legal disability before such proceeding is concluded, the legal representative of the deceased or person under legal disability shall notify the Department of such death or legal disability. Such legal representative, as such, shall then be substituted by the Department for such person. If the legal representative fails to notify the Department of his or her appointment as such legal representative, the Department may, upon its own motion, substitute such legal representative in the proceeding pending before the Department for the person who died or became a person under legal disability.

The changes made by this amendatory Act of 1995 apply to all actions pending on and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1995 to review a final assessment or revised final assessment issued by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 185. The Cigarette Machine Operators' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 1-100 as follows:

(35 ILCS 128/1-100)

Sec. 1-100. Arrest and seizure. Any duly authorized employee of the Department: may: arrest without warrant any person committing in his presence a violation of any of the provisions of this Act; may without a search warrant inspect all cigarettes and cigarette machines located in any place of business; and may seize any contraband cigarettes and any cigarette machines in which such contraband cigarettes may be found or may be made, and such packages or cigarette machines so seized shall be subject to confiscation and forfeiture as provided in Section 1-105 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 190. The Cigarette Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 9a, and 9b as follows:

(35 ILCS 130/3) (from Ch. 120, par. 453.3)

Sec. 3. Affixing tax stamp; remitting tax to the Department. Payment of the taxes imposed by Section 2 of this Act shall (except as hereinafter provided) be evidenced by revenue tax stamps affixed to each original package of cigarettes. Each distributor of cigarettes, before delivering or causing to be delivered any original package of cigarettes in this State to a purchaser, shall firmly affix a proper stamp or stamps to each such package, or (in case of manufacturers of cigarettes in original packages which are contained inside a sealed transparent wrapper) shall imprint the required language on the original package of cigarettes beneath such outside wrapper, as hereinafter provided.

No stamp or imprint may be affixed to, or made upon, any package of cigarettes unless that package complies with all requirements of the federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act, 15 U.S.C. 1331 and following, for the placement of labels, warnings, or any other information upon a package of cigarettes that is sold within the United States. Under the authority of Section 6, the Department shall revoke the license of any distributor that is determined to have violated this paragraph. A person may not affix a stamp on a package of cigarettes, cigarette papers, wrappers, or tubes if that individual package has been marked for export outside the United States with a label or notice in compliance with Section 290.185 of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations. It is not a defense to a proceeding for violation of this paragraph that the label or notice has been removed, mutilated, obliterated, or altered in any manner.

Only distributors licensed under this Act and transporters, as defined in Section 9c of this Act, may possess unstamped original packages of cigarettes. Prior to shipment to a secondary distributor or an Illinois retailer, a stamp shall be applied to each original package of cigarettes sold to the secondary distributor or retailer. A distributor may apply tax stamps only to original packages of cigarettes purchased or obtained directly from an in-state maker, manufacturer, or fabricator licensed as a distributor under Section 4 of this Act or an out-of-state maker, manufacturer, or fabricator holding a permit under Section 4b of this Act. A licensed distributor may ship or otherwise cause to be delivered unstamped original packages of cigarettes in, into, or from this State. A licensed distributor may transport unstamped original packages of cigarettes to a facility, wherever located, owned or controlled by such distributor; however, a distributor may not transport unstamped original packages of cigarettes to a facility where retail sales of cigarettes take place or to a facility where a secondary distributor makes sales for resale. Any licensed distributor that ships or otherwise causes to be delivered unstamped original packages of cigarettes into, within, or from this State shall ensure that the invoice or equivalent documentation and the bill of lading or freight bill for the shipment identifies the true name and address of the consignor or seller, the true name and address of the consignee or purchaser, and the quantity by brand style of the cigarettes so transported, provided that this Section shall not be construed as to impose any requirement or liability upon any common or contract carrier.

The Department, or any person authorized by the Department, shall sell such stamps only to persons holding valid licenses as distributors under this Act. On and after July 1, 2003, payment for such stamps must be made by means of electronic funds transfer. The Department may refuse to sell stamps to any person who does not comply with the provisions of this Act. Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly and through June 30, 2002, persons holding valid licenses as distributors may purchase cigarette tax stamps up to an amount equal to 115% of the distributor's average monthly cigarette tax stamp purchases over the 12 calendar months prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

Prior to December 1, 1985, the Department shall allow a distributor 21 days in which to make final payment of the amount to be paid for such stamps, by allowing the distributor to make payment for the stamps at the time of purchasing them with a draft which shall be in such form as the Department prescribes, and which shall be payable within 21 days thereafter: Provided that such distributor has filed with the Department, and has received the Department's approval of, a bond, which is in addition to the bond required under Section 4 of this Act, payable to the Department in an amount equal to 80% of such distributor's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act during the preceding calendar year or $500,000, whichever is less. The Bond shall be joint and several and shall be in the form of a surety company bond in such form as the Department prescribes, or it may be in the form of a bank certificate of deposit or bank letter of credit. The bond shall be conditioned upon the distributor's payment of amount of any 21-day draft which the Department accepts from that distributor for the delivery of stamps to that distributor under this Act. The distributor's failure to pay any such draft, when due, shall also make such distributor automatically liable to the Department for a penalty equal to 25% of the amount of such draft.

On and after December 1, 1985 and until July 1, 2003, the Department shall allow a distributor 30 days in which to make final payment of the amount to be paid for such stamps, by allowing the distributor to make payment for the stamps at the time of purchasing them with a draft which shall be in such form as the Department prescribes, and which shall be payable within 30 days thereafter, and beginning on January 1, 2003 and thereafter, the draft shall be payable by means of electronic funds transfer: Provided that such distributor has filed with the Department, and has received the Department's approval of, a bond, which is in addition to the bond required under Section 4 of this Act, payable to the Department in an amount equal to 150% of such distributor's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act during the preceding calendar year or $750,000, whichever is less, except that as to bonds filed on or after January 1, 1987, such additional bond shall be in an amount equal to 100% of such distributor's average monthly tax liability under this Act during the preceding calendar year or $750,000, whichever is less. The bond shall be joint and several and shall be in the form of a surety company bond in such form as the Department prescribes, or it may be in the form of a bank certificate of deposit or bank letter of credit. The bond shall be conditioned upon the distributor's payment of the amount of any 30-day draft which the Department accepts from that distributor for the delivery of stamps to that distributor under this Act. The distributor's failure to pay any such draft, when due, shall also make such distributor automatically liable to the Department for a penalty equal to 25% of the amount of such draft.

Every prior continuous compliance taxpayer shall be exempt from all requirements under this Section concerning the furnishing of such bond, as defined in this Section, as a condition precedent to his being authorized to engage in the business licensed under this Act. This exemption shall continue for each such taxpayer until such time as he may be determined by the Department to be delinquent in the filing of any returns, or is determined by the Department (either through the Department's issuance of a final assessment which has become final under the Act, or by the taxpayer's filing of a return which admits tax to be due that is not paid) to be delinquent or deficient in the paying of any tax under this Act, at which time that taxpayer shall become subject to the bond requirements of this Section and, as a condition of being allowed to continue to engage in the business licensed under this Act, shall be required to furnish bond to the Department in such form as provided in this Section. Such taxpayer shall furnish such bond for a period of 2 years, after which, if the taxpayer has not been delinquent in the filing of any returns, or delinquent or deficient in the paying of any tax under this Act, the Department may reinstate such person as a prior continuance compliance taxpayer. Any taxpayer who fails to pay an admitted or established liability under this Act may also be required to post bond or other acceptable security with the Department guaranteeing the payment of such admitted or established liability.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, any person aggrieved by any decision of the Department under this Section may, within the time allowed by law, protest and request a hearing, whereupon the Department shall give notice and shall hold a hearing in conformity with the provisions of this Act and then issue its final administrative decision in the matter to such person. On and after July 1, 2013, protests concerning matters that are subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal shall be filed with the Tribunal in accordance with the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012, and hearings on those matters shall be held before the Tribunal in accordance with that Act. With respect to protests filed with the Department prior to July 1, 2013 that would otherwise be subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal, the taxpayer may elect to be subject to the provisions of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012 at any time on or after July 1, 2013, but not later than 30 days after the date on which the protest was filed. If made, the election shall be irrevocable. In the absence of such a protest filed within the time allowed by law, the Department's decision shall become final without any further determination being made or notice given.

The Department shall discharge any surety and shall release and return any bond or security deposited, assigned, pledged, or otherwise provided to it by a taxpayer under this Section within 30 days after:

(1) Such taxpayer becomes a prior continuous compliance taxpayer; or

(2) Such taxpayer has ceased to collect receipts on which he is required to remit tax to the Department, has filed a final tax return, and has paid to the Department an amount sufficient to discharge his remaining tax liability as determined by the Department under this Act. The Department shall make a final determination of the taxpayer's outstanding tax liability as expeditiously as possible after his final tax return has been filed. If the Department cannot make such final determination within 45 days after receiving the final tax return, within such period it shall so notify the taxpayer, stating its reasons therefor.

The Department may authorize distributors to affix revenue tax stamps by imprinting tax meter stamps upon original packages of cigarettes. The Department shall adopt rules and regulations relating to the imprinting of such tax meter stamps as will result in payment of the proper taxes as herein imposed. No distributor may affix revenue tax stamps to original packages of cigarettes by imprinting tax meter stamps thereon unless such distributor has first obtained permission from the Department to employ this method of affixation. The Department shall regulate the use of tax meters and may, to assure the proper collection of the taxes imposed by this Act, revoke or suspend the privilege, theretofore granted by the Department to any distributor, to imprint tax meter stamps upon original packages of cigarettes.

Illinois cigarette manufacturers who place their cigarettes in original packages which are contained inside a sealed transparent wrapper, and similar out-of-State cigarette manufacturers who elect to qualify and are accepted by the Department as distributors under Section 4b(a) of this Act, shall pay the taxes imposed by this Act by remitting the amount thereof to the Department by the 5th day of each month covering cigarettes shipped or otherwise delivered in Illinois to purchasers during the preceding calendar month. Such manufacturers of cigarettes in original packages which are contained inside a sealed transparent wrapper, before delivering such cigarettes or causing such cigarettes to be delivered in this State to purchasers, shall evidence their obligation to remit the taxes due with respect to such cigarettes by imprinting language to be prescribed by the Department on each original package of such cigarettes underneath the sealed transparent outside wrapper of such original package, in such place thereon and in such manner as the Department may designate. Such imprinted language shall acknowledge the manufacturer's payment of or liability for the tax imposed by this Act with respect to the distribution of such cigarettes.

A distributor shall not affix, or cause to be affixed, any stamp or imprint to a package of cigarettes, as provided for in this Section, if the tobacco product manufacturer, as defined in Section 10 of the Tobacco Product Manufacturers' Escrow Act, that made or sold the cigarettes has failed to become a participating manufacturer, as defined in subdivision (a)(1) of Section 15 of the Tobacco Product Manufacturers' Escrow Act, or has failed to create a qualified escrow fund for any cigarettes manufactured by the tobacco product manufacturer and sold in this State or otherwise failed to bring itself into compliance with subdivision (a)(2) of Section 15 of the Tobacco Product Manufacturers' Escrow Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-782, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1027, eff. 7-12-10; 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 130/9a) (from Ch. 120, par. 453.9a)

Sec. 9a. Examination and correction of returns.

(1) As soon as practicable after any return is filed, the Department shall examine such return and shall correct such return according to its best judgment and information, which return so corrected by the Department shall be prima facie correct and shall be prima facie evidence of the correctness of the amount of tax due, as shown therein. Instead of requiring the distributor to file an amended return, the Department may simply notify the distributor of the correction or corrections it has made. Proof of such correction by the Department may be made at any hearing before the Department or in any legal proceeding by a reproduced copy of the Department's record relating thereto in the name of the Department under the certificate of the Director of Revenue. Such reproduced copy shall, without further proof, be admitted into evidence before the Department or in any legal proceeding and shall be prima facie proof of the correctness of the amount of tax due, as shown therein. If the Department finds that any amount of tax is due from the distributor, the Department shall issue the distributor a notice of tax liability for the amount of tax claimed by the Department to be due, together with a penalty in an amount determined in accordance with Sections 3-3, 3-5 and 3-6 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act. If, in administering the provisions of this Act, comparison of a return or returns of a distributor with the books, records and inventories of such distributor discloses a deficiency which cannot be allocated by the Department to a particular month or months, the Department shall issue the distributor a notice of tax liability for the amount of tax claimed by the Department to be due for a given period, but without any obligation upon the Department to allocate such deficiency to any particular month or months, together with a penalty in an amount determined in accordance with Sections 3-3, 3-5 and 3-6 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, under which circumstances the aforesaid notice of tax liability shall be prima facie correct and shall be prima facie evidence of the correctness of the amount of tax due, as shown therein; and proof of such correctness may be made in accordance with, and the admissibility of a reproduced copy of such notice of tax liability shall be governed by, all the provisions of this Act applicable to corrected returns. If any distributor filing any return dies or becomes a person under legal disability at any time before the Department issues its notice of tax liability, such notice shall be issued to the administrator, executor or other legal representative, as such, of such distributor.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, if, within 60 days after such notice of tax liability, the distributor or his or her legal representative files a protest to such notice of tax liability and requests a hearing thereon, the Department shall give notice to such distributor or legal representative of the time and place fixed for such hearing, and shall hold a hearing in conformity with the provisions of this Act, and pursuant thereto shall issue a final assessment to such distributor or legal representative for the amount found to be due as a result of such hearing. On or after July 1, 2013, protests concerning matters that are subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal shall be filed in accordance with the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012, and hearings concerning those matters shall be held before the Tribunal in accordance with that Act. With respect to protests filed with the Department prior to July 1, 2013 that would otherwise be subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal, the taxpayer may elect to be subject to the provisions of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012 at any time on or after July 1, 2013, but not later than 30 days after the date on which the protest was filed. If made, the election shall be irrevocable. If a protest to the notice of tax liability and a request for a hearing thereon is not filed within the time allowed by law, such notice of tax liability shall become final without the necessity of a final assessment being issued and shall be deemed to be a final assessment.

(3) In case of failure to pay the tax, or any portion thereof, or any penalty provided for in this Act, when due, the Department may bring suit to recover the amount of such tax, or portion thereof, or penalty; or, if the taxpayer dies or becomes incompetent, by filing claim therefor against his estate; provided that no such action with respect to any tax, or portion thereof, or penalty, shall be instituted more than 2 years after the cause of action accrues, except with the consent of the person from whom such tax or penalty is due.

After the expiration of the period within which the person assessed may file an action for judicial review under the Administrative Review Law without such an action being filed, a certified copy of the final assessment or revised final assessment of the Department may be filed with the Circuit Court of the county in which the taxpayer has his or her principal place of business, or of Sangamon County in those cases in which the taxpayer does not have his principal place of business in this State. The certified copy of the final assessment or revised final assessment shall be accompanied by a certification which recites facts that are sufficient to show that the Department complied with the jurisdictional requirements of the Law in arriving at its final assessment or its revised final assessment and that the taxpayer had his or her opportunity for an administrative hearing and for judicial review, whether he availed himself or herself of either or both of these opportunities or not. If the court is satisfied that the Department complied with the jurisdictional requirements of the Law in arriving at its final assessment or its revised final assessment and that the taxpayer had his or her opportunity for an administrative hearing and for judicial review, whether he or she availed himself or herself of either or both of these opportunities or not, the court shall enter judgment in favor of the Department and against the taxpayer for the amount shown to be due by the final assessment or the revised final assessment, and such judgment shall be filed of record in the court. Such judgment shall bear the rate of interest set in the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, but otherwise shall have the same effect as other judgments. The judgment may be enforced, and all laws applicable to sales for the enforcement of a judgment shall be applicable to sales made under such judgments. The Department shall file the certified copy of its assessment, as herein provided, with the Circuit Court within 2 years after such assessment becomes final except when the taxpayer consents in writing to an extension of such filing period.

If, when the cause of action for a proceeding in court accrues against a person, he or she is out of the State, the action may be commenced within the times herein limited, after his or her coming into or return to the State; and if, after the cause of action accrues, he or she departs from and remains out of the State, the time of his or her absence is no part of the time limited for the commencement of the action; but the foregoing provisions concerning absence from the State shall not apply to any case in which, at the time the cause of action accrues, the party against whom the cause of action accrues is not a resident of this State. The time within which a court action is to be commenced by the Department hereunder shall not run while the taxpayer is a debtor in any proceeding under the Federal Bankruptcy Act nor thereafter until 90 days after the Department is notified by such debtor of being discharged in bankruptcy.

No claim shall be filed against the estate of any deceased person or a person under legal disability for any tax or penalty or part of either except in the manner prescribed and within the time limited by the Probate Act of 1975, as amended.

The remedies provided for herein shall not be exclusive, but all remedies available to creditors for the collection of debts shall be available for the collection of any tax or penalty due hereunder.

The collection of tax or penalty by any means provided for herein shall not be a bar to any prosecution under this Act.

The certificate of the Director of the Department to the effect that a tax or amount required to be paid by this Act has not been paid, that a return has not been filed, or that information has not been supplied pursuant to the provisions of this Act, shall be prima facie evidence thereof.

All of the provisions of Sections 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5i and 5j of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, which are not inconsistent with this Act, and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act shall apply, as far as practicable, to the subject matter of this Act to the same extent as if such provisions were included herein. References in such incorporated Sections of the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" to retailers, to sellers or to persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property shall mean distributors when used in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 130/9b) (from Ch. 120, par. 453.9b)

Sec. 9b. Failure to file return; penalty; protest. In case any person who is required to file a return under this Act fails to file such return, the Department shall determine the amount of tax due from him according to its best judgment and information, which amount so fixed by the Department shall be prima facie correct and shall be prima facie evidence of the correctness of the amount of tax due, as shown in such determination. Proof of such determination by the Department may be made at any hearing before the Department or in any legal proceeding by a reproduced copy of the Department's record relating thereto in the name of the Department under the certificate of the Director of Revenue. Such reproduced copy shall, without further proof, be admitted into evidence before the Department or in any legal proceeding and shall be prima facie proof of the correctness of the amount of tax due, as shown therein. The Department shall issue such person a notice of tax liability for the amount of tax claimed by the Department to be due, together with a penalty in an amount determined in accordance with Sections 3-3, 3-5 and 3-6 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act. If such person or the legal representative of such person, within 60 days after such notice, files a protest to such notice of tax liability and requests a hearing thereon, the Department shall give notice to such person or the legal representative of such person of the time and place fixed for such hearing and shall hold a hearing in conformity with the provisions of this Act, and pursuant thereto shall issue a final assessment to such person or to the legal representative of such person for the amount found to be due as a result of such hearing. Hearings to protest a notice of tax liability issued pursuant to this Section that are conducted as a result of a protest filed with the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal on or after July 1, 2013 shall be conducted pursuant to the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012. If a protest to the notice of tax liability and a request for a hearing thereon is not filed within 60 days after such notice of tax liability, such notice of tax liability shall become final without the necessity of a final assessment being issued and shall be deemed to be a final assessment.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 195. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 10-380 and 15-175 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/10-380)

Sec. 10-380. For the taxable years 2006 and thereafter, the chief county assessment officer in the county in which property subject to a PPV Lease is located shall apply the provisions of Sections 10-370(b)(i) and 10-375(c)(i) of this Division 14 in assessing and determining the value of any PPV Lease for purposes of the property tax laws of this State.

(Source: P.A. 97-942, eff. 8-10-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-175)

Sec. 15-175. General homestead exemption.

(a) Except as provided in Sections 15-176 and 15-177, homestead property is entitled to an annual homestead exemption limited, except as described here with relation to cooperatives, to a reduction in the equalized assessed value of homestead property equal to the increase in equalized assessed value for the current assessment year above the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977, up to the maximum reduction set forth below. If however, the 1977 equalized assessed value upon which taxes were paid is subsequently determined by local assessing officials, the Property Tax Appeal Board, or a court to have been excessive, the equalized assessed value which should have been placed on the property for 1977 shall be used to determine the amount of the exemption.

(b) Except as provided in Section 15-176, the maximum reduction before taxable year 2004 shall be $4,500 in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $3,500 in all other counties. Except as provided in Sections 15-176 and 15-177, for taxable years 2004 through 2007, the maximum reduction shall be $5,000, for taxable year 2008, the maximum reduction is $5,500, and, for taxable years 2009 and thereafter, the maximum reduction is $6,000 in all counties. If a county has elected to subject itself to the provisions of Section 15-176 as provided in subsection (k) of that Section, then, for the first taxable year only after the provisions of Section 15-176 no longer apply, for owners who, for the taxable year, have not been granted a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption under Section 15-172 or a long-time occupant homestead exemption under Section 15-177, there shall be an additional exemption of $5,000 for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less.

(c) In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if, based on the most recent assessment, the equalized assessed value of the homestead property for the current assessment year is greater than the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977, the owner of the property shall automatically receive the exemption granted under this Section in an amount equal to the increase over the 1977 assessment up to the maximum reduction set forth in this Section.

(d) If in any assessment year beginning with the 2000 assessment year, homestead property has a pro-rata valuation under Section 9-180 resulting in an increase in the assessed valuation, a reduction in equalized assessed valuation equal to the increase in equalized assessed value of the property for the year of the pro-rata valuation above the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977 shall be applied to the property on a proportionate basis for the period the property qualified as homestead property during the assessment year. The maximum proportionate homestead exemption shall not exceed the maximum homestead exemption allowed in the county under this Section divided by 365 and multiplied by the number of days the property qualified as homestead property.

(e) The chief county assessment officer may, when considering whether to grant a leasehold exemption under this Section, require the following conditions to be met:

(1) that a notarized application for the exemption, signed by both the owner and the lessee of the property, must be submitted each year during the application period in effect for the county in which the property is located;

(2) that a copy of the lease must be filed with the chief county assessment officer by the owner of the property at the time the notarized application is submitted;

(3) that the lease must expressly state that the lessee is liable for the payment of property taxes; and

(4) that the lease must include the following language in substantially the following form:

"Lessee shall be liable for the payment of real estate taxes with respect to the residence in accordance with the terms and conditions of Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code (35 ILCS 200/15-175). The permanent real estate index number for the premises is (insert number), and, according to the most recent property tax bill, the current amount of real estate taxes associated with the premises is (insert amount) per year. The parties agree that the monthly rent set forth above shall be increased or decreased pro rata (effective January 1 of each calendar year) to reflect any increase or decrease in real estate taxes. Lessee shall be deemed to be satisfying Lessee's liability for the above mentioned real estate taxes with the monthly rent payments as set forth above (or increased or decreased as set forth herein).".

In addition, if there is a change in lessee, or if the lessee vacates the property, then the chief county assessment officer may require the owner of the property to notify the chief county assessment officer of that change.

This subsection (e) does not apply to leasehold interests in property owned by a municipality.

(f) "Homestead property" under this Section includes residential property that is occupied by its owner or owners as his or their principal dwelling place, or that is a leasehold interest on which a single family residence is situated, which is occupied as a residence by a person who has an ownership interest therein, legal or equitable or as a lessee, and on which the person is liable for the payment of property taxes. For land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building which is a life care facility as defined in Section 15-170 and considered to be a cooperative under Section 15-170, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value shall be limited to the increase in the value above the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977, up to the maximum reduction set forth above, multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person or persons who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying property taxes on the property and is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. For purposes of this Section, the term "life care facility" has the meaning stated in Section 15-170.

"Household", as used in this Section, means the owner, the spouse of the owner, and all persons using the residence of the owner as their principal place of residence.

"Household income", as used in this Section, means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income", as used in this Section, has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, except that "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

(g) In a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to so credit the savings shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(h) Where married persons maintain and reside in separate residences qualifying as homestead property, each residence shall receive 50% of the total reduction in equalized assessed valuation provided by this Section.

(i) In all counties, the assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of residential property to receive the homestead exemption and the amount of the exemption by application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods. The determination shall be made in accordance with guidelines established by the Department, provided that the taxpayer applying for an additional general exemption under this Section shall submit to the chief county assessment officer an application with an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and, if married, the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall issue guidelines establishing a method for verifying the accuracy of the affidavits filed by applicants under this paragraph. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Additional General Homestead Exemption.

(j) In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, in the event of a sale of homestead property the homestead exemption shall remain in effect for the remainder of the assessment year of the sale. The assessor or chief county assessment officer may require the new owner of the property to apply for the homestead exemption for the following assessment year.

(k) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-1125, eff. 8-28-12; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 200. The Mobile Home Local Services Tax Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(35 ILCS 515/7) (from Ch. 120, par. 1207)

Sec. 7. The local services tax for owners of mobile homes who (a) are actually residing in such mobile homes, (b) hold title to such mobile home as provided in the Illinois Vehicle Code, and (c) are 65 years of age or older or are disabled persons within the meaning of Section 3.14 of the "Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act" on the annual billing date shall be reduced to 80 percent of the tax provided for in Section 3 of this Act. Proof that a claimant has been issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability, as provided in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, shall constitute proof that the person thereon named is a disabled person within the meaning of this Act. An application for reduction of the tax shall be filed with the county clerk by the individuals who are entitled to the reduction. If the application is filed after May 1, the reduction in tax shall begin with the next annual bill. Application for the reduction in tax shall be done by submitting proof that the applicant has been issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card designating the applicant's disability as a Class 2 disability, or by affidavit in substantially the following form:

APPLICATION FOR REDUCTION OF MOBILE HOME LOCAL SERVICES TAX

I hereby make application for a reduction to 80% of the total tax imposed under "An Act to provide for a local services tax on mobile homes".

(1) Senior Citizens

(a) I actually reside in the mobile home ....

(b) I hold title to the mobile home as provided in the Illinois Vehicle Code ....

(c) I reached the age of 65 on or before either January 1 (or July 1) of the year in which this statement is filed. My date of birth is: ...

(2) Disabled Persons

(a) I actually reside in the mobile home...

(b) I hold title to the mobile home as provided in the Illinois Vehicle Code ....

(c) I was totally disabled on ... and have remained disabled until the date of this application. My Social Security, Veterans, Railroad or Civil Service Total Disability Claim Number is ... The undersigned declares under the penalty of perjury that the above statements are true and correct.

Dated (insert date).

...........................

Signature of owner

...........................

(Address)

...........................

(City) (State) (Zip)

Approved by: ............................. (Assessor)

This application shall be accompanied by a copy of the applicant's most recent application filed with the Illinois Department on Aging under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-804, eff. 1-1-10; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 205. The Telecommunications Infrastructure Maintenance Fee Act is amended by changing Sections 27.30 and 27.40 as follows:

(35 ILCS 635/27.30)

Sec. 27.30. Review under Administrative Review Law. The Circuit Court of the county wherein a hearing is held shall have power to review all final administrative decisions of the Department in administering the provisions of this Act: Provided that if the administrative proceeding that is to be reviewed judicially is a claim for refund proceeding commenced in accordance with this Act and Section 2a of the State Officers and Employees Money Disposition Act, the Circuit Court having jurisdiction of the action for judicial review under this Section and under the Administrative Review Law shall be the same court that entered the temporary restraining order or preliminary injunction that is provided for in Section 2a of the State Officers and Employees Money Disposition Act and that enables such claim proceeding to be processed and disposed of as a claim for refund proceeding rather than as a claim for credit proceeding.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section with respect to the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal, the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Department hereunder. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

The provisions of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Department that are subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal.

Service upon the Director or Assistant Director of the Department of Revenue of summons issued in any action to review a final administrative decision shall be service upon the Department. The Department shall certify the record of its proceedings if the telecommunications retailer shall pay to it the sum of 75¢ per page of testimony taken before the Department and 25¢ per page of all other matters contained in such record, except that these charges may be waived where the Department is satisfied that the aggrieved party is a poor person who cannot afford to pay such charges.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 635/27.40)

Sec. 27.40. Application of Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is hereby expressly adopted and shall apply to all administrative rules and procedures of the Department of Revenue under this Act, except that (i) paragraph (b) of Section 5-10 of the Administrative Procedure Act does not apply to final orders, decisions, and opinions of the Department, (ii) subparagraph (a)(ii) of Section 5-10 of the Administrative Procedure Act does not apply to forms established by the Department for use under this Act, and (iii) the provisions of Section 10-45 of the Administrative Procedure Act regarding proposals for decision are excluded and not applicable to the Department under this Act to the extent Section 10-45 applies to hearings not otherwise subject to the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 210. The Electricity Excise Tax Law is amended by changing Section 2-14 as follows:

(35 ILCS 640/2-14)

Sec. 2-14. Rules and regulations; hearing; review under Administrative Review Law; death or incompetency of party. The Department may make, promulgate and enforce such reasonable rules and regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of this Law as may be deemed expedient.

Whenever notice to a purchaser or to a delivering supplier is required by this Law, such notice may be personally served or given by United States certified or registered mail, addressed to the purchaser or delivering supplier concerned at his or her last known address, and proof of such mailing shall be sufficient for the purposes of this Law. In the case of a notice of hearing, the notice shall be mailed not less than 21 days prior to the date fixed for the hearing.

All hearings provided for in this Law with respect to a purchaser or to a delivering supplier having its principal address or principal place of business in any of the several counties of this State shall be held in the county wherein the purchaser or delivering supplier has its principal address or principal place of business. If the purchaser or delivering supplier does not have its principal address or principal place of business in this State, such hearings shall be held in Sangamon County. Except as otherwise provided in this Section with respect to the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal, the Circuit Court of any county wherein a hearing is held shall have power to review all final administrative decisions of the Department in administering the provisions of this Law. If, however, the administrative proceeding which is to be reviewed judicially is a claim for refund proceeding commenced in accordance with this Law and Section 2a of the State Officers and Employees Money Disposition Act, the Circuit Court having jurisdiction of the action for judicial review under this Section and under the Administrative Review Law shall be the same court that entered the temporary restraining order or preliminary injunction which is provided for in Section 2a of the State Officers and Employees Money Disposition Act and which enables such claim proceeding to be processed and disposed of as a claim for refund proceeding rather than as a claim for credit proceeding.

Except as otherwise provided with respect to the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal, the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Department hereunder. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

The provisions of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Department that are subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal.

Service upon the Director or Assistant Director of the Department of Revenue of summons issued in any action to review a final administrative decision is service upon the Department. The Department shall certify the record of its proceedings if the person commencing such action shall pay to it the sum of 75 cents per page of testimony taken before the Department and 25 cents per page of all other matters contained in such record, except that these charges may be waived where the Department is satisfied that the aggrieved party is a poor person who cannot afford to pay such charges.

Whenever any proceeding provided by this Law has been begun by the Department or by a person subject thereto and such person thereafter dies or becomes a person under legal disability before the proceeding has been concluded, the legal representative of the deceased person or a person under legal disability shall notify the Department of such death or legal disability. The legal representative, as such, shall then be substituted by the Department in place of and for the person.

Within 20 days after notice to the legal representative of the time fixed for that purpose, the proceeding may proceed in all respects and with like effect as though the person had not died or become a person under legal disability.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 215. The Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012 is amended by changing the heading of Article 1 and Sections 1-15, 1-45, 1-55, 1-75, and 1-85 as follows:

(35 ILCS 1010/Art. 1 heading)

ARTICLE 1. ILLINOIS INDEPENDENT TAX TRIBUNAL ACT OF 2012

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 1010/1-15)

Sec. 1-15. Independent Tax Tribunal; establishment.

(a) For the purpose of effectuating the policy declared in Section 1-5 of this Act, a State agency known as the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal is created. The Tax Tribunal shall have the powers and duties enumerated in this Act, together with such others conferred upon it by law. The Tax Tribunal shall operate as an independent agency, and shall be separate from the authority of the Director of Revenue and the Department of Revenue.

(b) Except as otherwise limited by this Act, the Tax Tribunal has all of the powers necessary or convenient to carry out the purposes and provisions of this Act, including, without limitation, each of the following:

(1) To have a seal, and to alter that seal at pleasure, and to use it by causing it or a facsimile to be affixed or impressed or reproduced in any other manner.

(2) To accept and expend appropriations.

(3) To obtain and employ personnel as required in this Act, including any additional personnel necessary to fulfill the Tax Tribunal's purposes, and to make expenditures for personnel within the appropriations for that purpose.

(4) To maintain offices at such places as required under this Act, and elsewhere as the Tax Tribunal may determine.

(5) To engage in any activity or operation that is incidental to and in furtherance of efficient operation to accomplish the Tax Tribunal's purposes.

(c) Unless otherwise stated, the Tax Tribunal is subject to the provisions of all applicable laws, including, but not limited to, each of the following:

(1) The State Records Act.

(2) The Illinois Procurement Code, except that the Illinois Procurement Code does not apply to the hiring of the chief administrative law judge or other administrative law judges pursuant to Section 1-25 of this Act.

(3) The Freedom of Information Act, except as otherwise provided in Section 7 of that Act.

(4) The State Property Control Act.

(5) The State Officials and Employees Ethics Act.

(6) The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, to the extent not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act.

(7) The Illinois State Auditing Act. For purposes of the Illinois State Auditing Act, the Tax Tribunal is a "State agency" within the meaning of the Act and is subject to the jurisdiction of the Auditor General.

(d) The Tax Tribunal shall exercise its jurisdiction on and after July 1, 2013, but the administrative law judges of the Tax Tribunal may be appointed prior to that date and may take any action prior to that date that is necessary to enable the Tax Tribunal to properly exercise its jurisdiction on or after that date. Any administrative proceeding commenced prior to July 1, 2013, that would otherwise be subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal may be conducted according to the procedures set forth in this Act if the taxpayer so elects. Such an election shall be irrevocable and may be made on or after July 1, 2013, but no later than 30 days after the date on which the taxpayer's protest was filed.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 1010/1-45)

Sec. 1-45. Jurisdiction of the Tax Tribunal.

(a) Except as provided by the Constitution of the United States, the Constitution of the State of Illinois, or any statutes of this State, including, but not limited to, the State Officers and Employees Money Disposition Act, the Tax Tribunal shall have original jurisdiction over all determinations of the Department reflected on a Notice of Deficiency, Notice of Tax Liability, Notice of Claim Denial, or Notice of Penalty Liability issued under the Illinois Income Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Cigarette Tax Act, the Cigarette Use Tax Act, the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995, the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act, the Motor Fuel Tax Law, the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act, the Coin-Operated Amusement Device and Redemption Machine Tax Act, the Gas Revenue Tax Act, the Water Company Invested Capital Tax Act, the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act, the Telecommunications Infrastructure Maintenance Fee Act, the Public Utilities Revenue Act, the Electricity Excise Tax Law, the Aircraft Use Tax Law, the Watercraft Use Tax Law, the Gas Use Tax Law, or the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act. Jurisdiction of the Tax Tribunal is limited to Notices of Tax Liability, Notices of Deficiency, Notices of Claim Denial, and Notices of Penalty Liability where the amount at issue in a notice, or the aggregate amount at issue in multiple notices issued for the same tax year or audit period, exceeds $15,000, exclusive of penalties and interest. In notices solely asserting either an interest or penalty assessment, or both, the Tax Tribunal shall have jurisdiction over cases where the combined total of all penalties or interest assessed exceeds $15,000.

(b) Except as otherwise permitted by this Act and by the Constitution of the State of Illinois or otherwise by State law, including, but not limited to, the State Officers and Employees Money Disposition Act, no person shall contest any matter within the jurisdiction of the Tax Tribunal in any action, suit, or proceeding in the circuit court or any other court of the State. If a person attempts to do so, then such action, suit, or proceeding shall be dismissed without prejudice. The improper commencement of any action, suit, or proceeding does not extend the time period for commencing a proceeding in the Tax Tribunal.

(c) The Tax Tribunal may require the taxpayer to post a bond equal to 25% of the liability at issue (1) upon motion of the Department and a showing that (A) the taxpayer's action is frivolous or legally insufficient or (B) the taxpayer is acting primarily for the purpose of delaying the collection of tax or prejudicing the ability ultimately to collect the tax, or (2) if, at any time during the proceedings, it is determined by the Tax Tribunal that the taxpayer is not pursuing the resolution of the case with due diligence. If the Tax Tribunal finds in a particular case that the taxpayer cannot procure and furnish a satisfactory surety or sureties for the kind of bond required herein, the Tax Tribunal may relieve the taxpayer of the obligation of filing such bond, if, upon the timely application for a lien in lieu thereof and accompanying proof therein submitted, the Tax Tribunal is satisfied that any such lien imposed would operate to secure the assessment in the manner and to the degree as would a bond. The Tax Tribunal shall adopt rules for the procedures to be used in securing a bond or lien under this Section.

(d) If, with or after the filing of a timely petition, the taxpayer pays all or part of the tax or other amount in issue before the Tax Tribunal has rendered a decision, the Tax Tribunal shall treat the taxpayer's petition as a protest of a denial of claim for refund of the amount so paid upon a written motion filed by the taxpayer.

(e) The Tax Tribunal shall not have jurisdiction to review:

(1) any assessment made under the Property Tax Code;

(2) any decisions relating to the issuance or denial of an exemption ruling for any entity claiming exemption from any tax imposed under the Property Tax Code or any State tax administered by the Department;

(3) a notice of proposed tax liability, notice of proposed deficiency, or any other notice of proposed assessment or notice of intent to take some action;

(4) any action or determination of the Department regarding tax liabilities that have become finalized by law, including but not limited to the issuance of liens, levies, and revocations, suspensions, or denials of licenses or certificates of registration or any other collection activities;

(5) any proceedings of the Department's informal administrative appeals function; and

(6) any challenge to an administrative subpoena issued by the Department.

(f) The Tax Tribunal shall decide questions regarding the constitutionality of statutes and rules adopted by the Department as applied to the taxpayer, but shall not have the power to declare a statute or rule unconstitutional or otherwise invalid on its face. A taxpayer challenging the constitutionality of a statute or rule on its face may present such challenge to the Tax Tribunal for the sole purpose of making a record for review by the Illinois Appellate Court. Failure to raise a constitutional issue regarding the application of a statute or regulations to the taxpayer shall not preclude the taxpayer or the Department from raising those issues at the appellate court level.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 1010/1-55)

Sec. 1-55. Fees.

(a) The Tax Tribunal shall impose a fee of $500 for the filing of petitions.

(b) The Tax Tribunal may fix a fee, not in excess of the fees charged and collected by the clerk of the circuit courts, for comparing, or for preparing and comparing, a transcript of the record, or for copying any record, entry, or other paper and the comparison and certification thereof.

(c) Fees collected under this Section shall be deposited into the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Fund, a special fund created in the State treasury. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall be appropriated to the Tax Tribunal to reimburse the Tax Tribunal for costs associated with administering and enforcing the provisions of this Act.

(d) The Tax Tribunal shall not assign any costs or attorney's fees incurred by one party against another party. Claims for expenses and attorney's fees under Section 10-55 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act shall first be made to the Department of Revenue. If the claimant is dissatisfied because of the Department's failure to make any award or because of the insufficiency of the award, the claimant may petition the Court of Claims for the amount deemed owed.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 1010/1-75)

Sec. 1-75. Appeals.

(a) The taxpayer and the Department are entitled to judicial review of a final decision of the Tax Tribunal in the Illinois Appellate Court, in accordance with Section 3-113 of the Administrative Review Law.

(b) The record on judicial review shall include the decision of the Tax Tribunal, the stenographic transcript of the hearing before the Tax Tribunal, the pleadings and all exhibits and documents admitted into evidence.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

(35 ILCS 1010/1-85)

Sec. 1-85. Publication of decisions and electronic submission of documents.

(a) The Tax Tribunal shall, within 180 days of the issuance of a decision, index and publish its final decision in such print or electronic form as it deems best adapted for public convenience. Such publications shall be made permanently available and constitute the official reports of the Tax Tribunal.

(b) All published decisions shall be edited by the Tax Tribunal so that the identification number of the taxpayer and any related entities or employees, and any trade secrets or other intellectual property, are not disclosed or identified.

(c) Within 30 days following the issuance of any hearing decision, the taxpayer affected by the decision may also request that the Tax Tribunal omit specifically identified trade secrets or other confidential or proprietary information prior to publication of the decision. The Tax Tribunal shall approve those requests if it determines that the requests are reasonable and that the disclosure of such information would potentially cause economic or other injury to the taxpayer.

(d) The Tax Tribunal shall provide, by rule, reasonable requirements for the electronic submission of documents and records and the method and type of symbol or security procedure it will accept to authenticate electronic submissions or as a legal signature.

(e) Each year, no later than October 1, the Tax Tribunal shall report to the General Assembly regarding the Tax Tribunal's operations during the prior fiscal year. Such report shall include the number of cases opened and closed, the size of its docket, the average age of cases, the dollar amount of cases by tax type, the number of cases decided in favor of the Department, the number of cases decided in favor of the taxpayer, the number of cases resolved through mediation or settlement, and such other statistics so as to apprise the General Assembly of whether the Tax Tribunal has successfully accomplished its mission to fairly and efficiently adjudicate tax disputes.

(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-10-12.)

Section 220. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 15-155, 16-106, and 16-133.4 and the heading of Article 22A as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/15-155) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 15-155)

Sec. 15-155. Employer contributions.

(a) The State of Illinois shall make contributions by appropriations of amounts which, together with the other employer contributions from trust, federal, and other funds, employee contributions, income from investments, and other income of this System, will be sufficient to meet the cost of maintaining and administering the System on a 90% funded basis in accordance with actuarial recommendations.

The Board shall determine the amount of State contributions required for each fiscal year on the basis of the actuarial tables and other assumptions adopted by the Board and the recommendations of the actuary, using the formula in subsection (a-1).

(a-1) For State fiscal years 2012 through 2045, the minimum contribution to the System to be made by the State for each fiscal year shall be an amount determined by the System to be sufficient to bring the total assets of the System up to 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System by the end of State fiscal year 2045. In making these determinations, the required State contribution shall be calculated each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining to and including fiscal year 2045 and shall be determined under the projected unit credit actuarial cost method.

For State fiscal years 1996 through 2005, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2006 is $166,641,900.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 is $252,064,100.

For each of State fiscal years 2008 through 2009, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments from the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007, so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2010 is $702,514,000 and shall be made from the State Pensions Fund and proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the General Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2010, (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2011 is the amount recertified by the System on or before April 1, 2011 pursuant to Section 15-165 and shall be made from the State Pensions Fund and proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the General Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2011, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Beginning in State fiscal year 2046, the minimum State contribution for each fiscal year shall be the amount needed to maintain the total assets of the System at 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System.

Amounts received by the System pursuant to Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act or Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act in any fiscal year do not reduce and do not constitute payment of any portion of the minimum State contribution required under this Article in that fiscal year. Such amounts shall not reduce, and shall not be included in the calculation of, the required State contributions under this Article in any future year until the System has reached a funding ratio of at least 90%. A reference in this Article to the "required State contribution" or any substantially similar term does not include or apply to any amounts payable to the System under Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2005 and for fiscal year 2008 and each fiscal year thereafter, as calculated under this Section and certified under Section 15-165, shall not exceed an amount equal to (i) the amount of the required State contribution that would have been calculated under this Section for that fiscal year if the System had not received any payments under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, minus (ii) the portion of the State's total debt service payments for that fiscal year on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of that Section 7.2, as determined and certified by the Comptroller, that is the same as the System's portion of the total moneys distributed under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act. In determining this maximum for State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, however, the amount referred to in item (i) shall be increased, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, in equal increments calculated from the sum of the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 plus the applicable portion of the State's total debt service payments for fiscal year 2007 on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, so that, by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

(b) If an employee is paid from trust or federal funds, the employer shall pay to the Board contributions from those funds which are sufficient to cover the accruing normal costs on behalf of the employee. However, universities having employees who are compensated out of local auxiliary funds, income funds, or service enterprise funds are not required to pay such contributions on behalf of those employees. The local auxiliary funds, income funds, and service enterprise funds of universities shall not be considered trust funds for the purpose of this Article, but funds of alumni associations, foundations, and athletic associations which are affiliated with the universities included as employers under this Article and other employers which do not receive State appropriations are considered to be trust funds for the purpose of this Article.

(b-1) The City of Urbana and the City of Champaign shall each make employer contributions to this System for their respective firefighter employees who participate in this System pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 15-107. The rate of contributions to be made by those municipalities shall be determined annually by the Board on the basis of the actuarial assumptions adopted by the Board and the recommendations of the actuary, and shall be expressed as a percentage of salary for each such employee. The Board shall certify the rate to the affected municipalities as soon as may be practical. The employer contributions required under this subsection shall be remitted by the municipality to the System at the same time and in the same manner as employee contributions.

(c) Through State fiscal year 1995: The total employer contribution shall be apportioned among the various funds of the State and other employers, whether trust, federal, or other funds, in accordance with actuarial procedures approved by the Board. State of Illinois contributions for employers receiving State appropriations for personal services shall be payable from appropriations made to the employers or to the System. The contributions for Class I community colleges covering earnings other than those paid from trust and federal funds, shall be payable solely from appropriations to the Illinois Community College Board or the System for employer contributions.

(d) Beginning in State fiscal year 1996, the required State contributions to the System shall be appropriated directly to the System and shall be payable through vouchers issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 15-165, except as provided in subsection (g).

(e) The State Comptroller shall draw warrants payable to the System upon proper certification by the System or by the employer in accordance with the appropriation laws and this Code.

(f) Normal costs under this Section means liability for pensions and other benefits which accrues to the System because of the credits earned for service rendered by the participants during the fiscal year and expenses of administering the System, but shall not include the principal of or any redemption premium or interest on any bonds issued by the Board or any expenses incurred or deposits required in connection therewith.

(g) If the amount of a participant's earnings for any academic year used to determine the final rate of earnings, determined on a full-time equivalent basis, exceeds the amount of his or her earnings with the same employer for the previous academic year, determined on a full-time equivalent basis, by more than 6%, the participant's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, the present value of the increase in benefits resulting from the portion of the increase in earnings that is in excess of 6%. This present value shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection (g), the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute and, if the employer asserts that the calculation is subject to subsection (h) or (i) of this Section, must include an affidavit setting forth and attesting to all facts within the employer's knowledge that are pertinent to the applicability of subsection (h) or (i). Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection (g) (f) may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

(h) This subsection (h) applies only to payments made or salary increases given on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. The changes made by Public Act 94-1057 shall not require the System to refund any payments received before July 31, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-1057).

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude earnings increases paid to participants under contracts or collective bargaining agreements entered into, amended, or renewed before June 1, 2005.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude earnings increases paid to a participant at a time when the participant is 10 or more years from retirement eligibility under Section 15-135.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude earnings increases resulting from overload work, including a contract for summer teaching, or overtime when the employer has certified to the System, and the System has approved the certification, that: (i) in the case of overloads (A) the overload work is for the sole purpose of academic instruction in excess of the standard number of instruction hours for a full-time employee occurring during the academic year that the overload is paid and (B) the earnings increases are equal to or less than the rate of pay for academic instruction computed using the participant's current salary rate and work schedule; and (ii) in the case of overtime, the overtime was necessary for the educational mission.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude any earnings increase resulting from (i) a promotion for which the employee moves from one classification to a higher classification under the State Universities Civil Service System, (ii) a promotion in academic rank for a tenured or tenure-track faculty position, or (iii) a promotion that the Illinois Community College Board has recommended in accordance with subsection (k) of this Section. These earnings increases shall be excluded only if the promotion is to a position that has existed and been filled by a member for no less than one complete academic year and the earnings increase as a result of the promotion is an increase that results in an amount no greater than the average salary paid for other similar positions.

(i) When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude any salary increase described in subsection (h) of this Section given on or after July 1, 2011 but before July 1, 2014 under a contract or collective bargaining agreement entered into, amended, or renewed on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any payments made or salary increases given after June 30, 2014 shall be used in assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g) of this Section.

(j) The System shall prepare a report and file copies of the report with the Governor and the General Assembly by January 1, 2007 that contains all of the following information:

(1) The number of recalculations required by the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057 for each employer.

(2) The dollar amount by which each employer's contribution to the System was changed due to recalculations required by Public Act 94-1057.

(3) The total amount the System received from each employer as a result of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-4.

(4) The increase in the required State contribution resulting from the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057.

(k) The Illinois Community College Board shall adopt rules for recommending lists of promotional positions submitted to the Board by community colleges and for reviewing the promotional lists on an annual basis. When recommending promotional lists, the Board shall consider the similarity of the positions submitted to those positions recognized for State universities by the State Universities Civil Service System. The Illinois Community College Board shall file a copy of its findings with the System. The System shall consider the findings of the Illinois Community College Board when making determinations under this Section. The System shall not exclude any earnings increases resulting from a promotion when the promotion was not submitted by a community college. Nothing in this subsection (k) shall require any community college to submit any information to the Community College Board.

(l) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the System, the value of the System's assets shall be equal to the actuarial value of the System's assets, which shall be calculated as follows:

As of June 30, 2008, the actuarial value of the System's assets shall be equal to the market value of the assets as of that date. In determining the actuarial value of the System's assets for fiscal years after June 30, 2008, any actuarial gains or losses from investment return incurred in a fiscal year shall be recognized in equal annual amounts over the 5-year period following that fiscal year.

(m) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the system for a particular year, the actuarial value of assets shall be assumed to earn a rate of return equal to the system's actuarially assumed rate of return.

(Source: P.A. 96-43, eff. 7-15-09; 96-1497, eff. 1-14-11; 96-1511, eff. 1-27-11; 96-1554, eff. 3-18-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 10-17-12.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-106) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-106)

Sec. 16-106. Teacher. "Teacher": The following individuals, provided that, for employment prior to July 1, 1990, they are employed on a full-time basis, or if not full-time, on a permanent and continuous basis in a position in which services are expected to be rendered for at least one school term:

(1) Any educational, administrative, professional or other staff employed in the public common schools included within this system in a position requiring certification under the law governing the certification of teachers;

(2) Any educational, administrative, professional or other staff employed in any facility of the Department of Children and Family Services or the Department of Human Services, in a position requiring certification under the law governing the certification of teachers, and any person who (i) works in such a position for the Department of Corrections, (ii) was a member of this System on May 31, 1987, and (iii) did not elect to become a member of the State Employees' Retirement System pursuant to Section 14-108.2 of this Code; except that "teacher" does not include any person who (A) becomes a security employee of the Department of Human Services, as defined in Section 14-110, after June 28, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-14), or (B) becomes a member of the State Employees' Retirement System pursuant to Section 14-108.2c of this Code;

(3) Any regional superintendent of schools, assistant regional superintendent of schools, State Superintendent of Education; any person employed by the State Board of Education as an executive; any executive of the boards engaged in the service of public common school education in school districts covered under this system of which the State Superintendent of Education is an ex-officio member;

(4) Any employee of a school board association operating in compliance with Article 23 of the School Code who is certificated under the law governing the certification of teachers;

(5) Any person employed by the retirement system who:

(i) was an employee of and a participant in the system on August 17, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-416), or

(ii) becomes an employee of the system on or after August 17, 2001;

(6) Any educational, administrative, professional or other staff employed by and under the supervision and control of a regional superintendent of schools, provided such employment position requires the person to be certificated under the law governing the certification of teachers and is in an educational program serving 2 or more districts in accordance with a joint agreement authorized by the School Code or by federal legislation;

(7) Any educational, administrative, professional or other staff employed in an educational program serving 2 or more school districts in accordance with a joint agreement authorized by the School Code or by federal legislation and in a position requiring certification under the laws governing the certification of teachers;

(8) Any officer or employee of a statewide teacher organization or officer of a national teacher organization who is certified under the law governing certification of teachers, provided: (i) the individual had previously established creditable service under this Article, (ii) the individual files with the system an irrevocable election to become a member before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, (iii) the individual does not receive credit for such service under any other Article of this Code, and (iv) the individual first became an officer or employee of the teacher organization and becomes a member before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly;

(9) Any educational, administrative, professional, or other staff employed in a charter school operating in compliance with the Charter Schools Law who is certificated under the law governing the certification of teachers; .

(10) Any person employed, on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, by the Macon-Piatt Regional Office of Education in a birth-through-age-three pilot program receiving funds under Section 2-389 of the School Code who is required by the Macon-Piatt Regional Office of Education to hold a teaching certificate, provided that the Macon-Piatt Regional Office of Education makes an election, within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, to have the person participate in the system. Any service established prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly for service as an employee of the Macon-Piatt Regional Office of Education in a birth-through-age-three pilot program receiving funds under Section 2-389 of the School Code shall be considered service as a teacher if employee and employer contributions have been received by the system and the system has not refunded those contributions.

An annuitant receiving a retirement annuity under this Article or under Article 17 of this Code who is employed by a board of education or other employer as permitted under Section 16-118 or 16-150.1 is not a "teacher" for purposes of this Article. A person who has received a single-sum retirement benefit under Section 16-136.4 of this Article is not a "teacher" for purposes of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 97-651, eff. 1-5-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-133.4) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-133.4)

Sec. 16-133.4. Early retirement incentives for teachers.

(a) To be eligible for the benefits provided in this Section, a member must:

(1) be a member of this System who, on or after May 1, 1993, is (i) in active payroll status as a full-time teacher employed by an employer under this Article, or (ii) on layoff status from such a position with a right of re-employment or recall to service, or (iii) on disability or a leave of absence from such a position, but only if the member has not been receiving benefits under Section 16-149 or 16-149.1 for a continuous period of 2 years or more as of the date of application;

(2) have never previously received a retirement annuity under this Article, except that receipt of a disability retirement annuity does not disqualify a member if the annuity has been terminated and the member has returned to full-time employment under this Article before the effective date of this Section;

(3) file with the Board before March 1, 1993, an application requesting the benefits provided in this Section;

(4) in the case of an employee of an employer that is not a not State agency, be eligible to receive a retirement annuity under this Article (for which purpose any age enhancement or creditable service received under this Section may be used), and elect to receive the retirement annuity beginning not earlier than June 1, 1993 and not later than September 1, 1993 (September 1, 1994 if retirement is delayed under subsection (e) of this Section);

(5) in the case of an employee of an employer that is a State agency, be eligible to receive a retirement annuity under this Article (for which purpose any age enhancement or creditable service received under this Section may be used), and elect to receive the retirement annuity beginning not earlier than July 1, 1993 and not later than March 1, 1994 (March 1, 1995 if retirement is delayed under subsection (e) of this Section);

(6) have attained age 50 (without the use of any age enhancement received under this Section) by the effective date of the retirement annuity;

(7) have at least 5 years of creditable service under this System or any of the participating systems under the Retirement Systems Reciprocal Act (without the use of any creditable service received under this Section) by the effective date of the retirement annuity.

(b) An eligible person may establish up to 5 years of creditable service under this Section. In addition, for each period of creditable service established under this Section, a person shall have his or her age at retirement deemed enhanced by an equivalent period.

The creditable service established under this Section may be used for all purposes under this Article and the Retirement Systems Reciprocal Act, except for the computation of final average salary, the determination of salary or compensation under this or any other Article of the Code, or the determination of eligibility for and the computation of benefits under Section 16-133.2 of this Article.

The age enhancement established under this Section may be used for all purposes under this Article (including calculation of a proportionate annuity payable by this System under the Retirement Systems Reciprocal Act), except for purposes of a reversionary annuity under Section 16-136, the retirement annuity under Section 16-133(a)(A), the required distributions under Section 16-142.3, and the determination of eligibility for and the computation of benefits under Section 16-133.2 of this Article. However, age enhancement established under this Section shall not be used in determining benefits payable under other Articles of this Code under the Retirement Systems Reciprocal Act.

(c) For all creditable service established under this Section by an employee of an employer that is not a State agency, the employer must pay to the System an employer contribution consisting of 20% of the member's highest annual salary rate used in the determination of the average salary for retirement annuity purposes for each year of creditable service granted under this Section. No employer contribution is required under this Section from any employer that is a State agency.

The employer contribution shall be paid to the System in one of the following ways: (i) in a single sum at the time of the member's retirement, (ii) in equal quarterly installments over a period of 5 years from the date of retirement, or (iii) subject to the approval of the Board of the System, in unequal installments over a period of no more than 5 years from the date of retirement, as provided in a payment plan designed by the System to accommodate the needs of the employer. The employer's failure to make the required contributions in a timely manner shall not affect the payment of the retirement annuity.

For all creditable service established under this Section, the employee must pay to the System an employee contribution consisting of 4% of the member's highest annual salary rate used in the determination of the retirement annuity for each year of creditable service granted under this Section. The employee may elect either to pay the employee contribution in full before the retirement annuity commences, or to have it deducted from the retirement annuity in 24 monthly installments.

(d) An annuitant who has received any age enhancement or creditable service under this Section and who re-enters contributing service under this Article shall thereby forfeit the age enhancement and creditable service, and upon re-retirement the annuity shall be recomputed. The forfeiture of creditable service under this subsection shall not entitle the employer to a refund of the employer contribution paid under this Section, nor to forgiveness of any part of that contribution that remains unpaid. The forfeiture of creditable service under this subsection shall not entitle the employee to a refund of the employee contribution paid under this Section.

(e) If the number of employees of an employer that actually apply for early retirement under this Section exceeds 30% of those eligible, the employer may require that, for the number of applicants in excess of that 30%, the starting date of the retirement annuity enhanced under this Section may not be earlier than June 1, 1994. The right to have the retirement annuity begin before that date shall be allocated among the applicants on the basis of seniority in the service of that employer.

This delay applies only to persons who are applying for early retirement incentives under this Section, and does not prevent a person whose application for early retirement incentives has been withdrawn from receiving a retirement annuity on the earliest date upon which the person is otherwise eligible under this Article.

(f) For a member who is notified after February 15, 1993, but before September 15, 1993, that he or she will be laid off in the 1993-1994 school year: (1) the March 1 application deadline in subdivision (a)(3) of this Section is extended to a date 15 days after the date of issuance of the layoff notice, and (2) the member shall not be included in the calculation of the 30% under subsection (e) and is not subject to delay in retirement under that subsection.

(g) A member who receives any early retirement incentive under Section 16-133.5 may not receive any early retirement incentive under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 87-1265; revised 8-3-12.)

(40 ILCS 5/Art. 22A heading)

ARTICLE 22A . INVESTMENT BOARD

(Source: P.A. 76-1829; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 225. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/7) (from Ch. 85, par. 507)

Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such schools which shall include but not be limited to the following:

a. The curriculum for probationary police officers which shall be offered by all certified schools shall include but not be limited to courses of arrest, search and seizure, civil rights, human relations, cultural diversity, including racial and ethnic sensitivity, criminal law, law of criminal procedure, vehicle and traffic law including uniform and non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code, traffic control and accident investigation, techniques of obtaining physical evidence, court testimonies, statements, reports, firearms training, first-aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), handling of juvenile offenders, recognition of mental conditions which require immediate assistance and methods to safeguard and provide assistance to a person in need of mental treatment, recognition of elder abuse and neglect, as defined in Section 2 of the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, crimes against the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of high-speed police vehicle chases with an emphasis on alternatives to the high-speed chase, and physical training. The curriculum shall include specific training in techniques for immediate response to and investigation of cases of domestic violence and of sexual assault of adults and children. The curriculum shall include training in techniques designed to promote effective communication at the initial contact with crime victims and ways to comprehensively explain to victims and witnesses their rights under the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and the Crime Victims Compensation Act. The curriculum shall also include a block of instruction aimed at identifying and interacting with persons with autism and other developmental disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting crimes against persons with autism, and addressing the unique challenges presented by cases involving victims or witnesses with autism and other developmental disabilities. The curriculum for permanent police officers shall include but not be limited to (1) refresher and in-service training in any of the courses listed above in this subparagraph, (2) advanced courses in any of the subjects listed above in this subparagraph, (3) training for supervisory personnel, and (4) specialized training in subjects and fields to be selected by the board.

b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and equipment requirements.

c. Minimum requirements for instructors.

d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary police officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a local law enforcement officer for a participating local governmental agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).

e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary county corrections officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a county corrections officer for a participating local governmental agency.

f. Minimum basic training requirements which a probationary court security officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a court security officer for a participating local governmental agency. The Board shall establish those training requirements which it considers appropriate for court security officers and shall certify schools to conduct that training.

A person hired to serve as a court security officer must obtain from the Board a certificate (i) attesting to his or her successful completion of the training course; (ii) attesting to his or her satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours that has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or (iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior law enforcement experience.

Individuals who currently serve as court security officers shall be deemed qualified to continue to serve in that capacity so long as they are certified as provided by this Act within 24 months of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996. Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the Board, shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.

All individuals hired as court security officers on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996 shall be certified within 12 months of the date of their hire, unless a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they shall forfeit their positions.

The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the Sheriff's Office if there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission, shall maintain a list of all individuals who have filed applications to become court security officers and who meet the eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no Sheriff's Merit Commission exists, shall establish a schedule of reasonable intervals for verification of the applicants' qualifications under this Act and as established by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 97-815, eff. 1-1-13; 97-862, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 230. The Counties Code is amended by changing Section 5-1014.3 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/5-1014.3)

Sec. 5-1014.3. Agreements to share or rebate occupation taxes.

(a) On and after June 1, 2004, a county board shall not enter into any agreement to share or rebate any portion of retailers' occupation taxes generated by retail sales of tangible personal property if: (1) the tax on those retail sales, absent the agreement, would have been paid to another unit of local government; and (2) the retailer maintains, within that other unit of local government, a retail location from which the tangible personal property is delivered to purchasers, or a warehouse from which the tangible personal property is delivered to purchasers. Any unit of local government denied retailers' occupation tax revenue because of an agreement that violates this Section may file an action in circuit court against only the county. Any agreement entered into prior to June 1, 2004 is not affected by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. Any unit of local government that prevails in the circuit court action is entitled to damages in the amount of the tax revenue it was denied as a result of the agreement, statutory interest, costs, reasonable attorney's fees, and an amount equal to 50% of the tax.

(b) On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, a home rule unit shall not enter into any agreement prohibited by this Section. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (g) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(c) Any county that enters into an agreement to share or rebate any portion of retailers' occupation taxes generated by retail sales of tangible personal property must complete and submit a report by electronic filing to the Department of Revenue within 30 days after the execution of the agreement. Any county that has entered into such an agreement before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that has not been terminated or expired as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall submit a report with respect to the agreements within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(d) The report described in this Section shall be made on a form to be supplied by the Department of Revenue and shall contain the following:

(1) the names of the county and the business entering into the agreement;

(2) the location or locations of the business within the county;

(3) the form shall also contain a statement, to be answered in the affirmative or negative, as to whether or not the company maintains additional places of business in the State other than those described pursuant to paragraph (2);

(4) the terms of the agreement, including (i) the manner in which the amount of any retailers' occupation tax to be shared, rebated, or refunded is to be determined each year for the duration of the agreement, (ii) the duration of the agreement, and (iii) the name of any business who is not a party to the agreement but who directly or indirectly receives a share, refund, or rebate of the retailers' occupation tax; and

(5) a copy of the agreement to share or rebate any portion of retailers' occupation taxes generated by retail sales of tangible personal property.

An updated report must be filed by the county within 30 days after the execution of any amendment made to an agreement.

Reports filed with the Department pursuant to this Section shall not constitute tax returns.

(e) The Department and the county shall redact the sales figures, the amount of sales tax collected, and the amount of sales tax rebated prior to disclosure of information contained in a report required by this Section or the Freedom of Information Act. The information redacted shall be exempt from the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act.

(f) All reports, except the copy of the agreement, required to be filed with the Department of Revenue pursuant to this Section shall be posted on the Department's website within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. The website shall be updated on a monthly basis to include newly received reports.

(Source: P.A. 97-976, eff. 1-1-13; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 235. The County Economic Development Project Area Property Tax Allocation Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(55 ILCS 85/7) (from Ch. 34, par. 7007)

Sec. 7. Creation of special tax allocation fund. If a county has adopted property tax allocation financing by ordinance for an economic development project area, the Department has approved and certified the economic development project area, and the county clerk has thereafter certified the "total initial equalized value" of the taxable real property within such economic development project area in the manner provided in subsection (b) of Section 6 of this Act, each year after the date of the certification by the county clerk of the "initial equalized assessed value" until economic development project costs and all county obligations financing economic development project costs have been paid, the ad valorem taxes, if any, arising from the levies upon the taxable real property in the economic development project area by taxing districts and tax rates determined in the manner provided in subsection (b) of Section 6 of this Act shall be divided as follows:

(1) That portion of the taxes levied upon each taxable lot, block, tract or parcel of real property which is attributable to the lower of the current equalized assessed value or the initial equalized assessed value of each such taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property existing at the time property tax allocation financing was adopted shall be allocated and when collected shall be paid by the county collector to the respective affected taxing districts in the manner required by the law in the absence of the adoption of property tax allocation financing.

(2) That portion, if any, of those taxes which is attributable to the increase in the current equalized assessed valuation of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the economic development project are, over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property existing at the time property tax allocation financing was adopted shall be allocated to and when collected shall be paid to the county treasurer, who shall deposit those taxes into a special fund called the special tax allocation fund of the county for the purpose of paying economic development project costs and obligations incurred in the payment thereof.

The county, by an ordinance adopting property tax allocation financing, may pledge the funds in and to be deposited in the special tax allocation fund for the payment of obligations issued under this Act and for the payment of economic development project costs. No part of the current equalized assessed valuation of each property in the economic development project area attributable to any increase above the total initial equalized assessed value of such properties shall be used in calculating the general State school aid formula, provided for in Section 18-8 of the School Code, until such time as all economic development projects costs have been paid as provided for in this Section.

Whenever a county issues bonds for the purpose of financing economic development project costs, the county may provide by ordinance for the appointment of a trustee, which may be any trust company within the State, and for the establishment of the funds or accounts to be maintained by such trustee as the county shall deem necessary to provide for the security and payment of the bonds. If the county provides for the appointment of a trustee, the trustee shall be considered the assignee of any payments assigned by the county pursuant to the ordinance and this Section. Any amounts paid to the trustee as assignee shall be deposited in the funds or accounts established pursuant to the trust agreement, and shall be held by the trustee in trust for the benefit of the holders of the bonds, and the holders shall have a lien on and a security interest in those bonds or accounts so long as the bonds remain outstanding and unpaid. Upon retirement of the bonds, the trustee shall pay over any excess amounts held to the county for deposit in the special tax allocation fund.

When the economic development project costs, including without limitation all county obligations financing economic development project costs incurred under this Act, have been paid, all surplus funds then remaining in the special tax allocation funds shall be distributed by being paid by the county treasurer to the county collector, who shall immediately thereafter pay those funds to the taxing districts having taxable property in the economic development project area in the same manner and proportion as the most recent distribution by the county collector to those taxing districts of real property taxes from real property in the economic development project area.

Upon the payment of all economic development project costs, retirement of obligations and the distribution of any excess monies pursuant to this Section and not later than 23 years from the date of adoption of the ordinance adopting property tax allocation financing, the county shall adopt an ordinance dissolving the special tax allocation fund for the economic development project area and terminating the designation of the economic development project area as an economic development project area. Thereafter the rates of the taxing districts shall be extended and taxes levied, collected and distributed in the manner applicable in the absence of the adoption of property tax allocation financing.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed as relieving property in economic development project areas from being assessed as provided in the Property Tax Code or as relieving owners of that property from paying a uniform rate of taxes, as required by Section 4 of Article IX 9 of the Illinois Constitution of 1970.

(Source: P.A. 88-670, eff. 12-2-94; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 240. The County Economic Development Project Area Tax Increment Allocation Act of 1991 is amended by changing Section 50 as follows:

(55 ILCS 90/50) (from Ch. 34, par. 8050)

Sec. 50. Special tax allocation fund.

(a) If a county clerk has certified the "total initial equalized assessed value" of the taxable real property within an economic development project area in the manner provided in Section 45, each year after the date of the certification by the county clerk of the "total initial equalized assessed value", until economic development project costs and all county obligations financing economic development project costs have been paid, the ad valorem taxes, if any, arising from the levies upon the taxable real property in the economic development project area by taxing districts and tax rates determined in the manner provided in subsection (b) of Section 45 shall be divided as follows:

(1) That portion of the taxes levied upon each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property that is attributable to the lower of the current equalized assessed value or the initial equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property existing at the time tax increment financing was adopted shall be allocated to (and when collected shall be paid by the county collector to) the respective affected taxing districts in the manner required by law in the absence of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing.

(2) That portion, if any, of the taxes that is attributable to the increase in the current equalized assessed valuation of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the economic development project area, over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property existing at the time tax increment financing was adopted, shall be allocated to (and when collected shall be paid to) the county treasurer, who shall deposit the taxes into a special fund (called the special tax allocation fund of the county) for the purpose of paying economic development project costs and obligations incurred in the payment of those costs.

(b) The county, by an ordinance adopting tax increment allocation financing, may pledge the monies in and to be deposited into the special tax allocation fund for the payment of obligations issued under this Act and for the payment of economic development project costs. No part of the current equalized assessed valuation of each property in the economic development project area attributable to any increase above the total initial equalized assessed value of those properties shall be used in calculating the general State school aid formula under Section 18-8 of the School Code until all economic development projects costs have been paid as provided for in this Section.

(c) When the economic development projects costs, including without limitation all county obligations financing economic development project costs incurred under this Act, have been paid, all surplus monies then remaining in the special tax allocation fund shall be distributed by being paid by the county treasurer to the county collector, who shall immediately pay the monies to the taxing districts having taxable property in the economic development project area in the same manner and proportion as the most recent distribution by the county collector to those taxing districts of real property taxes from real property in the economic development project area.

(d) Upon the payment of all economic development project costs, retirement of obligations, and distribution of any excess monies under this Section, the county shall adopt an ordinance dissolving the special tax allocation fund for the economic development project area and terminating the designation of the economic development project area as an economic development project area. Thereafter, the rates of the taxing districts shall be extended and taxes shall be levied, collected, and distributed in the manner applicable in the absence of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed as relieving property in the economic development project areas from being assessed as provided in the Property Tax Code or as relieving owners of that property from paying a uniform rate of taxes as required by Section 4 of Article IX 9 of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 87-1; 88-670, eff. 12-2-94; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 245. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 8-11-21, 11-74.4-3.5, and 11-74.4-8 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-21)

Sec. 8-11-21. Agreements to share or rebate occupation taxes.

(a) On and after June 1, 2004, the corporate authorities of a municipality shall not enter into any agreement to share or rebate any portion of retailers' occupation taxes generated by retail sales of tangible personal property if: (1) the tax on those retail sales, absent the agreement, would have been paid to another unit of local government; and (2) the retailer maintains, within that other unit of local government, a retail location from which the tangible personal property is delivered to purchasers, or a warehouse from which the tangible personal property is delivered to purchasers. Any unit of local government denied retailers' occupation tax revenue because of an agreement that violates this Section may file an action in circuit court against only the municipality. Any agreement entered into prior to June 1, 2004 is not affected by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. Any unit of local government that prevails in the circuit court action is entitled to damages in the amount of the tax revenue it was denied as a result of the agreement, statutory interest, costs, reasonable attorney's fees, and an amount equal to 50% of the tax.

(b) On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, a home rule unit shall not enter into any agreement prohibited by this Section. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (g) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(c) Any municipality that enters into an agreement to share or rebate any portion of retailers' occupation taxes generated by retail sales of tangible personal property must complete and submit a report by electronic filing to the Department of Revenue within 30 days after the execution of the agreement. Any municipality that has entered into such an agreement before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that has not been terminated or expired as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall submit a report with respect to the agreements within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(d) The report described in this Section shall be made on a form to be supplied by the Department of Revenue and shall contain the following:

(1) the names of the municipality and the business entering into the agreement;

(2) the location or locations of the business within the municipality;

(3) the form shall also contain a statement, to be answered in the affirmative or negative, as to whether or not the company maintains additional places of business in the State other than those described pursuant to paragraph (2);

(4) the terms of the agreement, including (i) the manner in which the amount of any retailers' occupation tax to be shared, rebated, or refunded is to be determined each year for the duration of the agreement, (ii) the duration of the agreement, and (iii) the name of any business who is not a party to the agreement but who directly or indirectly receives a share, refund, or rebate of the retailers' occupation tax; and

(5) a copy of the agreement to share or rebate any portion of retailers' occupation taxes generated by retail sales of tangible personal property.

An updated report must be filed by the municipality within 30 days after the execution of any amendment made to an agreement.

Reports filed with the Department pursuant to this Section shall not constitute tax returns.

(e) The Department and the municipality shall redact the sales figures, the amount of sales tax collected, and the amount of sales tax rebated prior to disclosure of information contained in a report required by this Section or the Freedom of Information Act. The information redacted shall be exempt from the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act.

(f) All reports, except the copy of the agreement, required to be filed with the Department of Revenue pursuant to this Section shall be posted on the Department's website within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. The website shall be updated on a monthly basis to include newly received reports.

(Source: P.A. 97-976, eff. 1-1-13; revised 10-17-12.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-3.5)

Sec. 11-74.4-3.5. Completion dates for redevelopment projects.

(a) Unless otherwise stated in this Section, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer, as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act, is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 23rd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on or after January 15, 1981.

(b) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 32nd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted, if the ordinance was adopted on September 9, 1999 by the Village of Downs.

The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 33rd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted, if the ordinance was adopted on May 20, 1985 by the Village of Wheeling.

The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 28th calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted, if the ordinance was adopted on October 12, 1989 by the City of Lawrenceville.

(c) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 35th calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted:

(1) if the ordinance was adopted before January 15, 1981;

(2) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1983, April 1984, July 1985, or December 1989;

(3) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1987 and the redevelopment project is located within one mile of Midway Airport;

(4) if the ordinance was adopted before January 1, 1987 by a municipality in Mason County;

(5) if the municipality is subject to the Local Government Financial Planning and Supervision Act or the Financially Distressed City Law;

(6) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1984 by the Village of Rosemont;

(7) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality located in Clinton County for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality with a population in 1990 of less than 3,600 that is located in a county with a population in 1990 of less than 34,000 and for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997;

(8) if the ordinance was adopted on October 5, 1982 by the City of Kankakee, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by East St. Louis;

(9) if the ordinance was adopted on November 12, 1991 by the Village of Sauget;

(10) if the ordinance was adopted on February 11, 1985 by the City of Rock Island;

(11) if the ordinance was adopted before December 18, 1986 by the City of Moline;

(12) if the ordinance was adopted in September 1988 by Sauk Village;

(13) if the ordinance was adopted in October 1993 by Sauk Village;

(14) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galva;

(15) if the ordinance was adopted in March 1991 by the City of Centreville;

(16) if the ordinance was adopted on January 23, 1991 by the City of East St. Louis;

(17) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Aledo;

(18) if the ordinance was adopted on February 5, 1990 by the City of Clinton;

(19) if the ordinance was adopted on September 6, 1994 by the City of Freeport;

(20) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Tuscola;

(21) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Sparta;

(22) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Beardstown;

(23) if the ordinance was adopted on April 27, 1981, October 21, 1985, or December 30, 1986 by the City of Belleville;

(24) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Collinsville;

(25) if the ordinance was adopted on September 14, 1994 by the City of Alton;

(26) if the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1996 by the City of Lexington;

(27) if the ordinance was adopted on November 5, 1984 by the City of LeRoy;

(28) if the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1991 or June 3, 1992 by the City of Markham;

(29) if the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1986 by the City of Pekin;

(30) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1981 by the City of Champaign;

(31) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the City of Urbana;

(32) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the Village of Heyworth;

(33) if the ordinance was adopted on February 24, 1992 by the Village of Heyworth;

(34) if the ordinance was adopted on March 16, 1995 by the Village of Heyworth;

(35) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Town of Cicero;

(36) if the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the City of Effingham;

(37) if the ordinance was adopted on May 9, 1991 by the Village of Tilton;

(38) if the ordinance was adopted on October 20, 1986 by the City of Elmhurst;

(39) if the ordinance was adopted on January 19, 1988 by the City of Waukegan;

(40) if the ordinance was adopted on September 21, 1998 by the City of Waukegan;

(41) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Sullivan;

(42) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1991 by the City of Sullivan;

(43) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Oglesby;

(44) if the ordinance was adopted on July 28, 1987 by the City of Marion;

(45) if the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 1990 by the City of Marion;

(46) if the ordinance was adopted on August 20, 1985 by the Village of Mount Prospect;

(47) if the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1998 by the Village of Woodhull;

(48) if the ordinance was adopted on April 20, 1993 by the Village of Princeville;

(49) if the ordinance was adopted on July 1, 1986 by the City of Granite City;

(50) if the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1989 by the Village of Lombard;

(51) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the Village of Gardner;

(52) if the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1999 by the Village of Paw Paw;

(53) if the ordinance was adopted on November 17, 1986 by the Village of Franklin Park;

(54) if the ordinance was adopted on November 20, 1989 by the Village of South Holland;

(55) if the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1992 by the Village of Riverdale;

(56) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galesburg;

(57) if the ordinance was adopted on April 1, 1985 by the City of Galesburg;

(58) if the ordinance was adopted on May 21, 1990 by the City of West Chicago;

(59) if the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Oak Forest;

(60) if the ordinance was adopted in 1999 by the City of Villa Grove;

(61) if the ordinance was adopted on January 13, 1987 by the Village of Mt. Zion;

(62) if the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the Village of Manteno;

(63) if the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1989 by the City of Chicago Heights;

(64) if the ordinance was adopted on January 6, 1999 by the Village of Rosemont;

(65) if the ordinance was adopted on December 19, 2000 by the Village of Stone Park;

(66) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of DeKalb;

(67) if the ordinance was adopted on December 2, 1986 by the City of Aurora;

(68) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the Village of Milan;

(69) if the ordinance was adopted on September 8, 1994 by the City of West Frankfort;

(70) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Village of Libertyville;

(71) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the Village of Hoffman Estates;

(72) if the ordinance was adopted on September 17, 1986 by the Village of Sherman;

(73) if the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Macomb;

(74) if the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of East Peoria to create the West Washington Street TIF;

(75) if the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of East Peoria to create the Camp Street TIF;

(76) if the ordinance was adopted on August 7, 2000 by the City of Des Plaines;

(77) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Washington to create the Washington Square TIF #2;

(78) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Morris;

(79) if the ordinance was adopted on July 6, 1998 by the Village of Steeleville;

(80) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Pontiac to create TIF I (the Main St TIF);

(81) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Pontiac to create TIF II (the Interstate TIF);

(82) if the ordinance was adopted on November 6, 2002 by the City of Chicago to create the Madden/Wells TIF District;

(83) if the ordinance was adopted on November 4, 1998 by the City of Chicago to create the Roosevelt/Racine TIF District;

(84) if the ordinance was adopted on June 10, 1998 by the City of Chicago to create the Stony Island Commercial/Burnside Industrial Corridors TIF District;

(85) if the ordinance was adopted on November 29, 1989 by the City of Chicago to create the Englewood Mall TIF District;

(86) if the ordinance was adopted on December 27, 1986 by the City of Mendota;

(87) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the Village of Cahokia;

(88) if the ordinance was adopted on September 20, 1999 by the City of Belleville;

(89) if the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the Village of Bellevue to create the Bellevue TIF District 1;

(90) if the ordinance was adopted on December 13, 1993 by the Village of Crete;

(91) if the ordinance was adopted on February 12, 2001 by the Village of Crete;

(92) if the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 2001 by the Village of Crete;

(93) if the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Champaign;

(94) if the ordinance was adopted on December 20, 1986 by the City of Charleston;

(95) if the ordinance was adopted on June 6, 1989 by the Village of Romeoville;

(96) if the ordinance was adopted on October 14, 1993 and amended on August 2, 2010 by the City of Venice;

(97) if the ordinance was adopted on June 1, 1994 by the City of Markham;

(98) if the ordinance was adopted on May 19, 1998 by the Village of Bensenville;

(99) if the ordinance was adopted on November 12, 1987 by the City of Dixon;

(100) if the ordinance was adopted on December 20, 1988 by the Village of Lansing;

(101) if the ordinance was adopted on October 27, 1998 by the City of Moline; or

(102) if the ordinance was adopted on May 21, 1991 by the Village of Glenwood; .

(103) (102) if the ordinance was adopted on January 28, 1992 by the City of East Peoria; or

(104) (103) if the ordinance was adopted on December 14, 1998 by the City of Carlyle.

(d) For redevelopment project areas for which bonds were issued before July 29, 1991, or for which contracts were entered into before June 1, 1988, in connection with a redevelopment project in the area within the State Sales Tax Boundary, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may be extended by municipal ordinance to December 31, 2013. The termination procedures of subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 are not required for these redevelopment project areas in 2009 but are required in 2013. The extension allowed by Public Act 87-1272 shall not apply to real property tax increment allocation financing under Section 11-74.4-8.

(e) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were adopted on or after December 16, 1986 and for which at least $8 million worth of municipal bonds were authorized on or after December 19, 1989 but before January 1, 1990; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

(f) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were established on or after December 1, 1981 but before January 1, 1982 and for which at least $1,500,000 worth of tax increment revenue bonds were authorized on or after September 30, 1990 but before July 1, 1991; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

(g) In consolidating the material relating to completion dates from Sections 11-74.4-3 and 11-74.4-7 into this Section, it is not the intent of the General Assembly to make any substantive change in the law, except for the extension of the completion dates for the City of Aurora, the Village of Milan, the City of West Frankfort, the Village of Libertyville, and the Village of Hoffman Estates set forth under items (67), (68), (69), (70), and (71) of subsection (c) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-127, eff. 8-4-09; 96-182, eff. 8-10-09; 96-208, eff. 8-10-09; 96-209, eff. 1-1-10; 96-213, eff. 8-10-09; 96-264, eff. 8-11-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-439, eff. 8-14-09; 96-454, eff. 8-14-09; 96-722, eff. 8-25-09; 96-773, eff. 8-28-09; 96-830, eff. 12-4-09; 96-837, eff. 12-16-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1359, eff. 7-28-10; 96-1494, eff. 12-30-10; 96-1514, eff. 2-4-11; 96-1552, eff. 3-10-11; 97-93, eff. 1-1-12; 97-372, eff. 8-15-11; 97-600, eff. 8-26-11; 97-633, eff. 12-16-11; 97-635, eff. 12-16-11; 97-807, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1114, eff. 8-27-12; revised 9-20-12.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-8) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-74.4-8)

Sec. 11-74.4-8. Tax increment allocation financing. A municipality may not adopt tax increment financing in a redevelopment project area after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 that will encompass an area that is currently included in an enterprise zone created under the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act unless that municipality, pursuant to Section 5.4 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, amends the enterprise zone designating ordinance to limit the eligibility for tax abatements as provided in Section 5.4.1 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act. A municipality, at the time a redevelopment project area is designated, may adopt tax increment allocation financing by passing an ordinance providing that the ad valorem taxes, if any, arising from the levies upon taxable real property in such redevelopment project area by taxing districts and tax rates determined in the manner provided in paragraph (c) of Section 11-74.4-9 each year after the effective date of the ordinance until redevelopment project costs and all municipal obligations financing redevelopment project costs incurred under this Division have been paid shall be divided as follows:

(a) That portion of taxes levied upon each taxable lot, block, tract or parcel of real property which is attributable to the lower of the current equalized assessed value or the initial equalized assessed value of each such taxable lot, block, tract or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area shall be allocated to and when collected shall be paid by the county collector to the respective affected taxing districts in the manner required by law in the absence of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing.

(b) Except from a tax levied by a township to retire bonds issued to satisfy court-ordered damages, that portion, if any, of such taxes which is attributable to the increase in the current equalized assessed valuation of each taxable lot, block, tract or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the project area shall be allocated to and when collected shall be paid to the municipal treasurer who shall deposit said taxes into a special fund called the special tax allocation fund of the municipality for the purpose of paying redevelopment project costs and obligations incurred in the payment thereof. In any county with a population of 3,000,000 or more that has adopted a procedure for collecting taxes that provides for one or more of the installments of the taxes to be billed and collected on an estimated basis, the municipal treasurer shall be paid for deposit in the special tax allocation fund of the municipality, from the taxes collected from estimated bills issued for property in the redevelopment project area, the difference between the amount actually collected from each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property within the redevelopment project area and an amount determined by multiplying the rate at which taxes were last extended against the taxable lot, block, track, or parcel of real property in the manner provided in subsection (c) of Section 11-74.4-9 by the initial equalized assessed value of the property divided by the number of installments in which real estate taxes are billed and collected within the county; provided that the payments on or before December 31, 1999 to a municipal treasurer shall be made only if each of the following conditions are met:

(1) The total equalized assessed value of the redevelopment project area as last determined was not less than 175% of the total initial equalized assessed value.

(2) Not more than 50% of the total equalized assessed value of the redevelopment project area as last determined is attributable to a piece of property assigned a single real estate index number.

(3) The municipal clerk has certified to the county clerk that the municipality has issued its obligations to which there has been pledged the incremental property taxes of the redevelopment project area or taxes levied and collected on any or all property in the municipality or the full faith and credit of the municipality to pay or secure payment for all or a portion of the redevelopment project costs. The certification shall be filed annually no later than September 1 for the estimated taxes to be distributed in the following year; however, for the year 1992 the certification shall be made at any time on or before March 31, 1992.

(4) The municipality has not requested that the total initial equalized assessed value of real property be adjusted as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-9.

The conditions of paragraphs (1) through (4) do not apply after December 31, 1999 to payments to a municipal treasurer made by a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants that has adopted an estimated billing procedure for collecting taxes. If a county that has adopted the estimated billing procedure makes an erroneous overpayment of tax revenue to the municipal treasurer, then the county may seek a refund of that overpayment. The county shall send the municipal treasurer a notice of liability for the overpayment on or before the mailing date of the next real estate tax bill within the county. The refund shall be limited to the amount of the overpayment.

It is the intent of this Division that after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1988 a municipality's own ad valorem tax arising from levies on taxable real property be included in the determination of incremental revenue in the manner provided in paragraph (c) of Section 11-74.4-9. If the municipality does not extend such a tax, it shall annually deposit in the municipality's Special Tax Increment Fund an amount equal to 10% of the total contributions to the fund from all other taxing districts in that year. The annual 10% deposit required by this paragraph shall be limited to the actual amount of municipally produced incremental tax revenues available to the municipality from taxpayers located in the redevelopment project area in that year if: (a) the plan for the area restricts the use of the property primarily to industrial purposes, (b) the municipality establishing the redevelopment project area is a home-rule community with a 1990 population of between 25,000 and 50,000, (c) the municipality is wholly located within a county with a 1990 population of over 750,000 and (d) the redevelopment project area was established by the municipality prior to June 1, 1990. This payment shall be in lieu of a contribution of ad valorem taxes on real property. If no such payment is made, any redevelopment project area of the municipality shall be dissolved.

If a municipality has adopted tax increment allocation financing by ordinance and the County Clerk thereafter certifies the "total initial equalized assessed value as adjusted" of the taxable real property within such redevelopment project area in the manner provided in paragraph (b) of Section 11-74.4-9, each year after the date of the certification of the total initial equalized assessed value as adjusted until redevelopment project costs and all municipal obligations financing redevelopment project costs have been paid the ad valorem taxes, if any, arising from the levies upon the taxable real property in such redevelopment project area by taxing districts and tax rates determined in the manner provided in paragraph (c) of Section 11-74.4-9 shall be divided as follows:

(1) That portion of the taxes levied upon each taxable lot, block, tract or parcel of real property which is attributable to the lower of the current equalized assessed value or "current equalized assessed value as adjusted" or the initial equalized assessed value of each such taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property existing at the time tax increment financing was adopted, minus the total current homestead exemptions under Article 15 of the Property Tax Code in the redevelopment project area shall be allocated to and when collected shall be paid by the county collector to the respective affected taxing districts in the manner required by law in the absence of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing.

(2) That portion, if any, of such taxes which is attributable to the increase in the current equalized assessed valuation of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area, over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property existing at the time tax increment financing was adopted, minus the total current homestead exemptions pertaining to each piece of property provided by Article 15 of the Property Tax Code in the redevelopment project area, shall be allocated to and when collected shall be paid to the municipal Treasurer, who shall deposit said taxes into a special fund called the special tax allocation fund of the municipality for the purpose of paying redevelopment project costs and obligations incurred in the payment thereof.

The municipality may pledge in the ordinance the funds in and to be deposited in the special tax allocation fund for the payment of such costs and obligations. No part of the current equalized assessed valuation of each property in the redevelopment project area attributable to any increase above the total initial equalized assessed value, or the total initial equalized assessed value as adjusted, of such properties shall be used in calculating the general State school aid formula, provided for in Section 18-8 of the School Code, until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid as provided for in this Section.

Whenever a municipality issues bonds for the purpose of financing redevelopment project costs, such municipality may provide by ordinance for the appointment of a trustee, which may be any trust company within the State, and for the establishment of such funds or accounts to be maintained by such trustee as the municipality shall deem necessary to provide for the security and payment of the bonds. If such municipality provides for the appointment of a trustee, such trustee shall be considered the assignee of any payments assigned by the municipality pursuant to such ordinance and this Section. Any amounts paid to such trustee as assignee shall be deposited in the funds or accounts established pursuant to such trust agreement, and shall be held by such trustee in trust for the benefit of the holders of the bonds, and such holders shall have a lien on and a security interest in such funds or accounts so long as the bonds remain outstanding and unpaid. Upon retirement of the bonds, the trustee shall pay over any excess amounts held to the municipality for deposit in the special tax allocation fund.

When such redevelopment projects costs, including without limitation all municipal obligations financing redevelopment project costs incurred under this Division, have been paid, all surplus funds then remaining in the special tax allocation fund shall be distributed by being paid by the municipal treasurer to the Department of Revenue, the municipality and the county collector; first to the Department of Revenue and the municipality in direct proportion to the tax incremental revenue received from the State and the municipality, but not to exceed the total incremental revenue received from the State or the municipality less any annual surplus distribution of incremental revenue previously made; with any remaining funds to be paid to the County Collector who shall immediately thereafter pay said funds to the taxing districts in the redevelopment project area in the same manner and proportion as the most recent distribution by the county collector to the affected districts of real property taxes from real property in the redevelopment project area.

Upon the payment of all redevelopment project costs, the retirement of obligations, the distribution of any excess monies pursuant to this Section, and final closing of the books and records of the redevelopment project area, the municipality shall adopt an ordinance dissolving the special tax allocation fund for the redevelopment project area and terminating the designation of the redevelopment project area as a redevelopment project area. Title to real or personal property and public improvements acquired by or for the municipality as a result of the redevelopment project and plan shall vest in the municipality when acquired and shall continue to be held by the municipality after the redevelopment project area has been terminated. Municipalities shall notify affected taxing districts prior to November 1 if the redevelopment project area is to be terminated by December 31 of that same year. If a municipality extends estimated dates of completion of a redevelopment project and retirement of obligations to finance a redevelopment project, as allowed by this amendatory Act of 1993, that extension shall not extend the property tax increment allocation financing authorized by this Section. Thereafter the rates of the taxing districts shall be extended and taxes levied, collected and distributed in the manner applicable in the absence of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed as relieving property in such redevelopment project areas from being assessed as provided in the Property Tax Code or as relieving owners of such property from paying a uniform rate of taxes, as required by Section 4 of Article IX 9 of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 95-644, eff. 10-12-07; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 250. The Economic Development Project Area Tax Increment Allocation Act of 1995 is amended by changing Section 50 as follows:

(65 ILCS 110/50)

Sec. 50. Special tax allocation fund.

(a) If a county clerk has certified the "total initial equalized assessed value" of the taxable real property within an economic development project area in the manner provided in Section 45, each year after the date of the certification by the county clerk of the "total initial equalized assessed value", until economic development project costs and all municipal obligations financing economic development project costs have been paid, the ad valorem taxes, if any, arising from the levies upon the taxable real property in the economic development project area by taxing districts and tax rates determined in the manner provided in subsection (b) of Section 45 shall be divided as follows:

(1) That portion of the taxes levied upon each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property that is attributable to the lower of the current equalized assessed value or the initial equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property existing at the time tax increment financing was adopted shall be allocated to (and when collected shall be paid by the county collector to) the respective affected taxing districts in the manner required by law in the absence of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing.

(2) That portion, if any, of the taxes that is attributable to the increase in the current equalized assessed valuation of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the economic development project area, over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property existing at the time tax increment financing was adopted, shall be allocated to (and when collected shall be paid to) the municipal treasurer, who shall deposit the taxes into a special fund (called the special tax allocation fund of the municipality) for the purpose of paying economic development project costs and obligations incurred in the payment of those costs.

(b) The municipality, by an ordinance adopting tax increment allocation financing, may pledge the monies in and to be deposited into the special tax allocation fund for the payment of obligations issued under this Act and for the payment of economic development project costs. No part of the current equalized assessed valuation of each property in the economic development project area attributable to any increase above the total initial equalized assessed value of those properties shall be used in calculating the general State school aid formula under Section 18-8 of the School Code until all economic development projects costs have been paid as provided for in this Section.

(c) When the economic development projects costs, including without limitation all municipal obligations financing economic development project costs incurred under this Act, have been paid, all surplus monies then remaining in the special tax allocation fund shall be distributed by being paid by the municipal treasurer to the county collector, who shall immediately pay the monies to the taxing districts having taxable property in the economic development project area in the same manner and proportion as the most recent distribution by the county collector to those taxing districts of real property taxes from real property in the economic development project area.

(d) Upon the payment of all economic development project costs, retirement of obligations, and distribution of any excess monies under this Section and not later than 23 years from the date of the adoption of the ordinance establishing the economic development project area, the municipality shall adopt an ordinance dissolving the special tax allocation fund for the economic development project area and terminating the designation of the economic development project area as an economic development project area. Thereafter, the rates of the taxing districts shall be extended and taxes shall be levied, collected, and distributed in the manner applicable in the absence of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed as relieving property in the economic development project areas from being assessed as provided in the Property Tax Code or as relieving owners or lessees of that property from paying a uniform rate of taxes as required by Section 4 of Article IX 9 of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 89-176, eff. 1-1-96; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 255. The Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act is amended by changing Section 13 as follows:

(70 ILCS 210/13) (from Ch. 85, par. 1233)

Sec. 13. (a) The Authority shall not have power to levy taxes for any purpose, except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f).

(b) By ordinance the Authority shall, as soon as practicable after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991, impose a Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail within the territory described in this subsection at the rate of 1.0% of the gross receipts (i) from the sale of food, alcoholic beverages, and soft drinks sold for consumption on the premises where sold and (ii) from the sale of food, alcoholic beverages, and soft drinks sold for consumption off the premises where sold by a retailer whose principal source of gross receipts is from the sale of food, alcoholic beverages, and soft drinks prepared for immediate consumption.

The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident to that tax shall be collected and enforced by the Illinois Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this subsection. In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, shall be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms, and shall employ the same modes of procedure applicable to this Retailers' Occupation Tax as are prescribed in Sections 1, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions of those Sections other than the State rate of taxes), 2c, 2h, 2i, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5i, 5j, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, and, and until January 1, 1994, 13.5 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and, on and after January 1, 1994, all applicable provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act that are not inconsistent with this Act, as fully as if provisions contained in those Sections of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act were set forth in this subsection.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability under this subsection by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe. The retailer filing the return shall, at the time of filing the return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed under this subsection, less a discount of 1.75%, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax, and supplying data to the Department on request.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause a warrant to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority trust fund held by the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority.

Nothing in this subsection authorizes the Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee for the Authority, all taxes and penalties collected under this subsection for deposit into a trust fund held outside of the State Treasury.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the amounts to be paid under subsection (g) of this Section, which shall be the amounts, not including credit memoranda, collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less any amounts determined by the Department to be necessary for the payment of refunds, less 2% of such balance, which sum shall be deposited by the State Treasurer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund in the State Treasury from which it shall be appropriated to the Department to cover the costs of the Department in administering and enforcing the provisions of this subsection, and less any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the certification, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the remaining amounts, and the Treasurer shall administer those amounts as required in subsection (g).

A certificate of registration issued by the Illinois Department of Revenue to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxed under the tax imposed under this subsection, and no additional registration shall be required under the ordinance imposing the tax or under this subsection.

A certified copy of any ordinance imposing or discontinuing any tax under this subsection or effecting a change in the rate of that tax shall be filed with the Department, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this subsection on behalf of the Authority as of the first day of the third calendar month following the date of filing.

The tax authorized to be levied under this subsection may be levied within all or any part of the following described portions of the metropolitan area:

(1) that portion of the City of Chicago located within the following area: Beginning at the point of intersection of the Cook County - DuPage County line and York Road, then North along York Road to its intersection with Touhy Avenue, then east along Touhy Avenue to its intersection with the Northwest Tollway, then southeast along the Northwest Tollway to its intersection with Lee Street, then south along Lee Street to Higgins Road, then south and east along Higgins Road to its intersection with Mannheim Road, then south along Mannheim Road to its intersection with Irving Park Road, then west along Irving Park Road to its intersection with the Cook County - DuPage County line, then north and west along the county line to the point of beginning; and

(2) that portion of the City of Chicago located within the following area: Beginning at the intersection of West 55th Street with Central Avenue, then east along West 55th Street to its intersection with South Cicero Avenue, then south along South Cicero Avenue to its intersection with West 63rd Street, then west along West 63rd Street to its intersection with South Central Avenue, then north along South Central Avenue to the point of beginning; and

(3) that portion of the City of Chicago located within the following area: Beginning at the point 150 feet west of the intersection of the west line of North Ashland Avenue and the north line of West Diversey Avenue, then north 150 feet, then east along a line 150 feet north of the north line of West Diversey Avenue extended to the shoreline of Lake Michigan, then following the shoreline of Lake Michigan (including Navy Pier and all other improvements fixed to land, docks, or piers) to the point where the shoreline of Lake Michigan and the Adlai E. Stevenson Expressway extended east to that shoreline intersect, then west along the Adlai E. Stevenson Expressway to a point 150 feet west of the west line of South Ashland Avenue, then north along a line 150 feet west of the west line of South and North Ashland Avenue to the point of beginning.

The tax authorized to be levied under this subsection may also be levied on food, alcoholic beverages, and soft drinks sold on boats and other watercraft departing from and returning to the shoreline of Lake Michigan (including Navy Pier and all other improvements fixed to land, docks, or piers) described in item (3).

(c) By ordinance the Authority shall, as soon as practicable after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991, impose an occupation tax upon all persons engaged in the corporate limits of the City of Chicago in the business of renting, leasing, or letting rooms in a hotel, as defined in the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act, at a rate of 2.5% of the gross rental receipts from the renting, leasing, or letting of hotel rooms within the City of Chicago, excluding, however, from gross rental receipts the proceeds of renting, leasing, or letting to permanent residents of a hotel, as defined in that Act. Gross rental receipts shall not include charges that are added on account of the liability arising from any tax imposed by the State or any governmental agency on the occupation of renting, leasing, or letting rooms in a hotel.

The tax imposed by the Authority under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident to that tax shall be collected and enforced by the Illinois Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a lessor under the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act shall permit that registrant to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance enacted under this subsection without registering separately with the Department under that ordinance or under this subsection. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this subsection. In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, shall be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and shall employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act (except where that Act is inconsistent with this subsection), as fully as if the provisions contained in the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act were set out in this subsection.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause a warrant to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority trust fund held by the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their tax liability for that tax by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State taxes imposed under the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act, the municipal tax imposed under Section 8-3-13 of the Illinois Municipal Code, and the tax imposed under Section 19 of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act.

The person filing the return shall, at the time of filing the return, pay to the Department the amount of tax, less a discount of 2.1% or $25 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the operator for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax, and supplying data to the Department on request.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee for the Authority, all taxes and penalties collected under this subsection for deposit into a trust fund held outside the State Treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall certify to the Comptroller the amounts to be paid under subsection (g) of this Section, which shall be the amounts (not including credit memoranda) collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less any amounts determined by the Department to be necessary for payment of refunds. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the Department's certification, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for such amounts, and the Treasurer shall administer those amounts as required in subsection (g).

A certified copy of any ordinance imposing or discontinuing a tax under this subsection or effecting a change in the rate of that tax shall be filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this subsection on behalf of the Authority as of the first day of the third calendar month following the date of filing.

(d) By ordinance the Authority shall, as soon as practicable after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991, impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of renting automobiles in the metropolitan area at the rate of 6% of the gross receipts from that business, except that no tax shall be imposed on the business of renting automobiles for use as taxicabs or in livery service. The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident to that tax shall be collected and enforced by the Illinois Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act shall permit that person to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance enacted under this subsection without registering separately with the Department under that ordinance or under this subsection. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this subsection. In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 2 and 3 (in respect to all provisions of those Sections other than the State rate of tax; and in respect to the provisions of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act referred to in those Sections, except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, except for the provision allowing retailers a deduction from the tax to cover certain costs, and except that credit memoranda issued under this subsection may not be used to discharge any State tax liability) of the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act, as fully as if provisions contained in those Sections of that Act were set forth in this subsection.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their tax liability under this subsection by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that sellers are required to collect under the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act, pursuant to bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause a warrant to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority trust fund held by the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected under this subsection for deposit into a trust fund held outside the State Treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall certify to the Comptroller the amounts to be paid under subsection (g) of this Section (not including credit memoranda) collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less any amount determined by the Department to be necessary for payment of refunds. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the Department's certification, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for such amounts, and the Treasurer shall administer those amounts as required in subsection (g).

Nothing in this subsection authorizes the Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

A certified copy of any ordinance imposing or discontinuing a tax under this subsection or effecting a change in the rate of that tax shall be filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this subsection on behalf of the Authority as of the first day of the third calendar month following the date of filing.

(e) By ordinance the Authority shall, as soon as practicable after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991, impose a tax upon the privilege of using in the metropolitan area an automobile that is rented from a rentor outside Illinois and is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government at a rate of 6% of the rental price of that automobile, except that no tax shall be imposed on the privilege of using automobiles rented for use as taxicabs or in livery service. The tax shall be collected from persons whose Illinois address for titling or registration purposes is given as being in the metropolitan area. The tax shall be collected by the Department of Revenue for the Authority. The tax must be paid to the State or an exemption determination must be obtained from the Department of Revenue before the title or certificate of registration for the property may be issued. The tax or proof of exemption may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which or State officer with whom the tangible personal property must be titled or registered if the Department and that agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes, penalties, and interest due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes, penalties, and interest so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda or refunds arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax, penalty, or interest under this subsection. In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 2 and 4 (except provisions pertaining to the State rate of tax; and in respect to the provisions of the Use Tax Act referred to in that Section, except provisions concerning collection or refunding of the tax by retailers, except the provisions of Section 19 pertaining to claims by retailers, except the last paragraph concerning refunds, and except that credit memoranda issued under this subsection may not be used to discharge any State tax liability) of the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act, as fully as if provisions contained in those Sections of that Act were set forth in this subsection.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause a warrant to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority trust fund held by the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes, penalties, and interest collected under this subsection for deposit into a trust fund held outside the State Treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall certify to the State Comptroller the amounts to be paid under subsection (g) of this Section, which shall be the amounts (not including credit memoranda) collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less any amounts determined by the Department to be necessary for payment of refunds. Within 10 days after receipt by the State Comptroller of the Department's certification, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for such amounts, and the Treasurer shall administer those amounts as required in subsection (g).

A certified copy of any ordinance imposing or discontinuing a tax or effecting a change in the rate of that tax shall be filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this subsection on behalf of the Authority as of the first day of the third calendar month following the date of filing.

(f) By ordinance the Authority shall, as soon as practicable after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991, impose an occupation tax on all persons, other than a governmental agency, engaged in the business of providing ground transportation for hire to passengers in the metropolitan area at a rate of (i) $4 per taxi or livery vehicle departure with passengers for hire from commercial service airports in the metropolitan area, (ii) for each departure with passengers for hire from a commercial service airport in the metropolitan area in a bus or van operated by a person other than a person described in item (iii): $18 per bus or van with a capacity of 1-12 passengers, $36 per bus or van with a capacity of 13-24 passengers, and $54 per bus or van with a capacity of over 24 passengers, and (iii) for each departure with passengers for hire from a commercial service airport in the metropolitan area in a bus or van operated by a person regulated by the Interstate Commerce Commission or Illinois Commerce Commission, operating scheduled service from the airport, and charging fares on a per passenger basis: $2 per passenger for hire in each bus or van. The term "commercial service airports" means those airports receiving scheduled passenger service and enplaning more than 100,000 passengers per year.

In the ordinance imposing the tax, the Authority may provide for the administration and enforcement of the tax and the collection of the tax from persons subject to the tax as the Authority determines to be necessary or practicable for the effective administration of the tax. The Authority may enter into agreements as it deems appropriate with any governmental agency providing for that agency to act as the Authority's agent to collect the tax.

In the ordinance imposing the tax, the Authority may designate a method or methods for persons subject to the tax to reimburse themselves for the tax liability arising under the ordinance (i) by separately stating the full amount of the tax liability as an additional charge to passengers departing the airports, (ii) by separately stating one-half of the tax liability as an additional charge to both passengers departing from and to passengers arriving at the airports, or (iii) by some other method determined by the Authority.

All taxes, penalties, and interest collected under any ordinance adopted under this subsection, less any amounts determined to be necessary for the payment of refunds and less the taxes, penalties, and interest attributable to any increase in the rate of tax authorized by Public Act 96-898, shall be paid forthwith to the State Treasurer, ex officio, for deposit into a trust fund held outside the State Treasury and shall be administered by the State Treasurer as provided in subsection (g) of this Section. All taxes, penalties, and interest attributable to any increase in the rate of tax authorized by Public Act 96-898 shall be paid by the State Treasurer as follows: 25% for deposit into the Convention Center Support Fund, to be used by the Village of Rosemont for the repair, maintenance, and improvement of the Donald E. Stephens Convention Center and for debt service on debt instruments issued for those purposes by the village and 75% to the Authority to be used for grants to an organization meeting the qualifications set out in Section 5.6 of this Act, provided the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority has entered into a marketing agreement with such an organization.

(g) Amounts deposited from the proceeds of taxes imposed by the Authority under subsections (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of this Section and amounts deposited under Section 19 of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act shall be held in a trust fund outside the State Treasury and shall be administered by the Treasurer as follows:

(1) An amount necessary for the payment of refunds with respect to those taxes shall be retained in the trust fund and used for those payments.

(2) On July 20 and on the 20th of each month thereafter, provided that the amount requested in the annual certificate of the Chairman of the Authority filed under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act has been appropriated for payment to the Authority, 1/8 of the local tax transfer amount, together with any cumulative deficiencies in the amounts transferred into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund under this subparagraph (2) during the fiscal year for which the certificate has been filed, shall be transferred from the trust fund into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the State treasury until 100% of the local tax transfer amount has been so transferred. "Local tax transfer amount" shall mean the amount requested in the annual certificate, minus the reduction amount. "Reduction amount" shall mean $41.7 million in fiscal year 2011, $36.7 million in fiscal year 2012, $36.7 million in fiscal year 2013, $36.7 million in fiscal year 2014, and $31.7 million in each fiscal year thereafter until 2032, provided that the reduction amount shall be reduced by (i) the amount certified by the Authority to the State Comptroller and State Treasurer under Section 8.25 of the State Finance Act, as amended, with respect to that fiscal year and (ii) in any fiscal year in which the amounts deposited in the trust fund under this Section exceed $318.3 million, exclusive of amounts set aside for refunds and for the reserve account, one dollar for each dollar of the deposits in the trust fund above $318.3 million with respect to that year, exclusive of amounts set aside for refunds and for the reserve account.

(3) On July 20, 2010, the Comptroller shall certify to the Governor, the Treasurer, and the Chairman of the Authority the 2010 deficiency amount, which means the cumulative amount of transfers that were due from the trust fund to the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in fiscal years 2008, 2009, and 2010 under Section 13(g) of this Act, as it existed prior to May 27, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-898), but not made. On July 20, 2011 and on July 20 of each year through July 20, 2014, the Treasurer shall calculate for the previous fiscal year the surplus revenues in the trust fund and pay that amount to the Authority. On July 20, 2015 and on July 20 of each year thereafter, as long as bonds and notes issued under Section 13.2 or bonds and notes issued to refund those bonds and notes are outstanding, the Treasurer shall calculate for the previous fiscal year the surplus revenues in the trust fund and pay one-half of that amount to the State Treasurer for deposit into the General Revenue Fund until the 2010 deficiency amount has been paid and shall pay the balance of the surplus revenues to the Authority. "Surplus revenues" means the amounts remaining in the trust fund on June 30 of the previous fiscal year (A) after the State Treasurer has set aside in the trust fund (i) amounts retained for refunds under subparagraph (1) and (ii) any amounts necessary to meet the reserve account amount and (B) after the State Treasurer has transferred from the trust fund to the General Revenue Fund 100% of any post-2010 deficiency amount. "Reserve account amount" means $15 million in fiscal year 2011 and $30 million in each fiscal year thereafter. The reserve account amount shall be set aside in the trust fund and used as a reserve to be transferred to the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the event the proceeds of taxes imposed under this Section 13 are not sufficient to fund the transfer required in subparagraph (2). "Post-2010 deficiency amount" means any deficiency in transfers from the trust fund to the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund with respect to fiscal years 2011 and thereafter. It is the intention of this subparagraph (3) that no surplus revenues shall be paid to the Authority with respect to any year in which a post-2010 deficiency amount has not been satisfied by the Authority.

Moneys received by the Authority as surplus revenues may be used (i) for the purposes of paying debt service on the bonds and notes issued by the Authority, including early redemption of those bonds or notes, (ii) for the purposes of repair, replacement, and improvement of the grounds, buildings, and facilities of the Authority, and (iii) for the corporate purposes of the Authority in fiscal years 2011 through 2015 in an amount not to exceed $20,000,000 annually or $80,000,000 total, which amount shall be reduced $0.75 for each dollar of the receipts of the Authority in that year from any contract entered into with respect to naming rights at McCormick Place under Section 5(m) of this Act. When bonds and notes issued under Section 13.2, or bonds or notes issued to refund those bonds and notes, are no longer outstanding, the balance in the trust fund shall be paid to the Authority.

(h) The ordinances imposing the taxes authorized by this Section shall be repealed when bonds and notes issued under Section 13.2 or bonds and notes issued to refund those bonds and notes are no longer outstanding.

(Source: P.A. 96-898, eff. 5-27-10; 96-939, eff. 6-24-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 260. The Quad Cities Regional Economic Development Authority Act, approved September 22, 1987 is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(70 ILCS 510/4) (from Ch. 85, par. 6204)

Sec. 4. (a) There is hereby created a political subdivision, body politic and municipal corporation named the Quad Cities Regional Economic Development Authority. The territorial jurisdiction of the Authority is that geographic area within the boundaries of Jo Daviess JoDaviess, Carroll, Whiteside, Stephenson, Lee, Rock Island, Henry, Knox, and Mercer counties in the State of Illinois and any navigable waters and air space located therein.

(b) The governing and administrative powers of the Authority shall be vested in a body consisting of 16 members including, as an ex officio member, the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, or his or her designee. The other members of the Authority shall be designated "public members", 6 of whom shall be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. Of the 6 members appointed by the Governor, one shall be from a city within the Authority's territory with a population of 25,000 or more and the remainder shall be appointed at large. Of the 6 members appointed by the Governor, 2 members shall have business or finance experience. One member shall be appointed by each of the county board chairmen of Rock Island, Henry, Knox, and Mercer Counties with the advice and consent of the respective county board. Within 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, one additional public member shall be appointed by each of the county board chairpersons of Jo Daviess JoDaviess, Carroll, Whiteside, Stephenson, and Lee counties with the advice and consent of the respective county board. Of the public members added by this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, one shall serve for a one-year term, 2 shall serve for 2-year terms, and 2 shall serve for 3-year terms, to be determined by lot. Their successors shall serve for 3-year terms. All public members shall reside within the territorial jurisdiction of this Act. Nine members shall constitute a quorum. The public members shall be persons of recognized ability and experience in one or more of the following areas: economic development, finance, banking, industrial development, small business management, real estate development, community development, venture finance, organized labor or civic, community or neighborhood organization. The Chairman of the Authority shall be a public member elected by the affirmative vote of not fewer than 6 members of the Authority, except that any chairperson elected on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall be elected by the affirmative vote of not fewer than 9 members. The term of the Chairman shall be one year.

(c) The terms of the initial members of the Authority shall begin 30 days after the effective date of this Act, except (i) the terms of those members added by this amendatory Act of 1989 shall begin 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1989 and (ii) the terms of those members added by this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly shall begin 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly. Of the 10 public members appointed pursuant to this Act, 2 (one of whom shall be appointed by the Governor) shall serve until the third Monday in January, 1989, 2 (one of whom shall be appointed by the Governor) shall serve until the third Monday in January, 1990, 2 (one of whom shall be appointed by the Governor) shall serve until the third Monday in January, 1991, 2 (both of whom shall be appointed by the Governor) shall serve until the third Monday in January, 1992, and 2 (one of whom shall be appointed by the Governor and one of whom shall be appointed by the county board chairman of Knox County) shall serve until the third Monday in January, 2004. The initial terms of the members appointed by the county board chairmen (other than the county board chairman of Knox County) shall be determined by lot. All successors shall be appointed by the original appointing authority and hold office for a term of 3 years commencing the third Monday in January of the year in which their term commences, except in case of an appointment to fill a vacancy. Vacancies occurring among the public members shall be filled for the remainder of the term. In case of vacancy in a Governor-appointed membership when the Senate is not in session, the Governor may make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate when a person shall be nominated to fill such office, and any person so nominated who is confirmed by the Senate shall hold office during the remainder of the term and until a successor shall be appointed and qualified. Members of the Authority shall not be entitled to compensation for their services as members but shall be entitled to reimbursement for all necessary expenses incurred in connection with the performance of their duties as members.

(d) The Governor may remove any public member of the Authority appointed by the Governor in case of incompetency, neglect of duty, or malfeasance in office. The Chairman of a county board may remove any public member of the Authority appointed by such Chairman in the case of incompetency, neglect of duty, or malfeasance in office.

(e) The Board shall appoint an Executive Director who shall have a background in finance, including familiarity with the legal and procedural requirements of issuing bonds, real estate or economic development and administration. The Executive Director shall hold office at the discretion of the Board. The Executive Director shall be the chief administrative and operational officer of the Authority, shall direct and supervise its administrative affairs and general management, shall perform such other duties as may be prescribed from time to time by the members and shall receive compensation fixed by the Authority. The Authority may engage the services of such other agents and employees, including attorneys, appraisers, engineers, accountants, credit analysts and other consultants, as it may deem advisable and may prescribe their duties and fix their compensation.

(f) The Board shall create a task force to study and make recommendations to the Board on the economic development of the territory within the jurisdiction of this Act. The number of members constituting the task force shall be set by the Board and may vary from time to time. The Board may set a specific date by which the task force is to submit its final report and recommendations to the Board.

(Source: P.A. 97-278, eff. 8-8-11; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 265. The Downstate Forest Preserve District Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(70 ILCS 805/8) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 6315)

Sec. 8. Powers and duties of corporate authority and officers; contracts; salaries.

(a) The board shall be the corporate authority of such forest preserve district and shall have power to pass and enforce all necessary ordinances, rules and regulations for the management of the property and conduct of the business of such district. The president of such board shall have power to appoint such employees as may be necessary. In counties with population of less than 3,000,000, within 60 days after their selection the commissioners appointed under the provisions of Section 3a of this Act shall organize by selecting from their members a president, secretary, treasurer and such other officers as are deemed necessary who shall hold office for the fiscal year in which elected and until their successors are selected and qualify. In the one district in existence on July 1, 1977, that is managed by an appointed board of commissioners, the incumbent president and the other officers appointed in the manner as originally prescribed in this Act shall hold such offices until the completion of their respective terms or in the case of the officers other than president until their successors are appointed by said president, but in all cases not to extend beyond January 1, 1980 and until their successors are selected and qualify. Thereafter, the officers shall be selected in the manner as prescribed in this Section except that their first term of office shall not expire until June 30, 1981 and until their successors are selected and qualify.

(b) In any county, city, village, incorporated town or sanitary district where the corporate authorities act as the governing body of a forest preserve district, the person exercising the powers of the president of the board shall have power to appoint a secretary and an assistant secretary and treasurer and an assistant treasurer and such other officers and such employees as may be necessary. The assistant secretary and assistant treasurer shall perform the duties of the secretary and treasurer, respectively in case of death of such officers or when such officers are unable to perform the duties of their respective offices. All contracts for supplies, material or work involving an expenditure in excess of $20,000 shall be let to the lowest responsible bidder, after advertising at least once in one or more newspapers of general circulation within the district, excepting work requiring personal confidence or necessary supplies under the control of monopolies, where competitive bidding is impossible. Contracts for supplies, material or work involving an expenditure of $20,000 or less may be let without advertising for bids, but whenever practicable, at least 3 competitive bids shall be obtained before letting such contract. All contracts for supplies, material or work shall be signed by the president of the board of commissioners or by any such other officer as the board in its discretion may designate.

(c) The president of any board of commissioners appointed under the provisions of Section 3a of this Act shall receive a salary not to exceed the sum of $2500 per annum and the salary of other members of the board so appointed shall not exceed $1500 per annum. Salaries of the commissioners, officers and employees shall be fixed by ordinance.

(d) Whenever a forest preserve district owns any personal property that, in the opinion of three-fifths of the members of the board of commissioners, is no longer necessary, useful to, or for the best interests of the forest preserve district, then three-fifths of the members of the board, at any regular meeting or any special meeting called for that purpose by an ordinance or resolution that includes a general description of the personal property, may authorize the conveyance or sale of that personal property in any manner that they may designate, with or without advertising the sale.

(Source: P.A. 97-851, eff. 7-26-12; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 270. The Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2605/4) (from Ch. 42, par. 323)

Sec. 4. The commissioners elected under this Act constitute a board of commissioners for the district by which they are elected, which board of commissioners is the corporate authority of the sanitary district, and, in addition to all other powers specified in this Act, shall establish the policies and goals of the sanitary district. The executive director, in addition to all other powers specified in this Act, shall manage and control all the affairs and property of the sanitary district and shall regularly report to the Board of Commissioners on the activities of the sanitary district in executing the policies and goals established by the board. At the regularly scheduled meeting of odd numbered years following the induction of new commissioners the board of commissioners shall elect from its own number a president and a vice-president to serve in the absence of the president, and the chairman of the committee on finance. The board shall provide by rule when a vacancy occurs in the office of the president, vice-president, or the chairman of the committee on finance and the manner of filling such vacancy.

The board shall appoint from outside its own number the executive director and treasurer for the district.

The executive director must be a resident of the sanitary district and a citizen of the United States. He must be selected solely upon his administrative and technical qualifications and without regard to his political affiliations.

In the event of illness or other prolonged absence, death or resignation creating a vacancy in the office of the executive director, or treasurer, the board of commissioners may appoint an acting officer from outside its own number, to perform the duties and responsibilities of the office during the term of the absence or vacancy.

The executive director, with the advice and consent of the board of commissioners, shall appoint the director of engineering, director of maintenance and operations, director of human resources, director of procurement and materials management, clerk, general counsel, director of monitoring and research, and director of information technology. These constitute the heads of the Department of Engineering, Maintenance and Operations, Human Resources, Procurement and Materials Management, Finance, Law, Monitoring and Research, and Information Technology, respectively. No other departments or heads of departments may be created without subsequent amendment to this Act. All such department heads are under the direct supervision of the executive director.

The executive director, with the advice and consent of the board of commissioners, shall appoint a public and intergovernmental affairs officer. The public and intergovernmental affairs officer shall serve under the direct supervision of the executive director.

The director of human resources must be qualified under Section 4.2a of this Act.

The director of procurement and materials management must be selected in accordance with Section 11.16 of this Act.

In the event of illness or other prolonged absence, death or resignation creating a vacancy in the office of director of engineering, director of maintenance and operations, director of human resources, director of procurement and materials management, clerk, general counsel, director of monitoring and research, public and intergovernmental affairs officer, or director of information technology, the executive director shall appoint an acting officer to perform the duties and responsibilities of the office during the term of the absence or vacancy. Any such officers appointed in an acting capacity are under the direct supervision of the executive director.

All appointive officers and acting officers shall give bond as may be required by the board.

The executive director, treasurer, acting executive director, and acting treasurer hold their offices at the pleasure of the board of commissioners.

The acting director of engineering, acting director of maintenance and operations, acting director of human resources, acting director of procurement and materials management, acting clerk, acting general counsel, acting director of monitoring and research, acting public and intergovernmental affairs officer, and acting director of information technology hold their offices at the pleasure of the executive director.

The director of engineering, director of maintenance and operations, director of human resources, director of procurement and materials management, clerk, general counsel, director of monitoring and research, public and intergovernmental affairs officer, and director of information technology may be removed from office for cause by the executive director. Prior to removal, such officers are entitled to a public hearing before the executive director at which hearing they may be represented by counsel. Before the hearing, the executive director shall notify the board of commissioners of the date, time, place and nature of the hearing.

In addition to the general counsel appointed by the executive director, the board of commissioners may appoint from outside its own number an attorney, or retain counsel, to advise the board of commissioners with respect to its powers and duties and with respect to legal questions and matters of policy for which the board of commissioners is responsible.

The executive director is the chief administrative officer of the district, has supervision over and is responsible for all administrative and operational matters of the sanitary district including the duties of all employees which are not otherwise designated by law, and is the appointing authority as specified in Section 4.11 of this Act.

The board, through the budget process, shall set the compensation of all the officers and employees of the sanitary district. Any incumbent of the office of president may appoint an administrative aide which appointment remains in force during his incumbency unless revoked by the president.

Effective upon the election in January, 1985 of the president and vice-president of the board of commissioners and the chairman of the committee on finance, the annual salary of the president shall be $37,500 and shall be increased to $39,500 in January, 1987, $41,500 in January, 1989, $50,000 in January, 1991, and $60,000 in January, 2001; the annual salary of the vice-president shall be $35,000 and shall be increased to $37,000 in January, 1987, $39,000 in January, 1989, $45,000 in January, 1991, and $55,000 in January, 2001; the annual salary of the chairman of the committee on finance shall be $32,500 and shall be increased to $34,500 in January, 1987, $36,500 in January, 1989, $45,000 in January, 1991, and $55,000 in January, 2001.

The annual salaries of the other members of the Board shall be as follows:

For the three members elected in November, 1980, $26,500 per annum for the first two years of the term; $28,000 per annum for the next two years of the term and $30,000 per annum for the last two years.

For the three members elected in November, 1982, $28,000 per annum for the first two years of the term and $30,000 per annum thereafter.

For members elected in November, 1984, $30,000 per annum.

For the three members elected in November, 1986, $32,000 for each of the first two years of the term, $34,000 for each of the next two years and $36,000 for the last two years;

For three members elected in November, 1988, $34,000 for each of the first two years of the term and $36,000 for each year thereafter.

For members elected in November, 1990, 1992, 1994, 1996, or 1998, $40,000.

For members elected in November, 2000 and thereafter, $50,000.

Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Section, the board, prior to January 1, 2007 and with a two-thirds vote, may increase the annual rate of compensation at a separate flat amount for each of the following: the president, the vice-president, the chairman of the committee on finance, and the other members; the increased annual rate of compensation shall apply to all such officers and members whose terms as members of the board commence after the increase in compensation is adopted by the board.

The board of commissioners has full power to pass all necessary ordinances, orders, rules, resolutions and regulations for the proper management and conduct of the business of the board of commissioners and the corporation and for carrying into effect the object for which the sanitary district is formed. All ordinances, orders, rules, resolutions and regulations passed by the board of commissioners must, before they take effect, be approved by the president of the board of commissioners. If he approves thereof, he shall sign them, and such as he does not approve he shall return to the board of commissioners with his objections in writing at the next regular meeting of the board of commissioners occurring after the passage thereof. Such veto may extend to any one or more items or appropriations contained in any ordinance making an appropriation, or to the entire ordinance. If the veto extends to a part of such ordinance, the residue takes effect. If the president of such board of commissioners fails to return any ordinance, order, rule, resolution or regulation with his objections thereto in the time required, he is deemed to have approved it, and it takes effect accordingly. Upon the return of any ordinance, order, rule, resolution, or regulation by the president, the vote by which it was passed must be reconsidered by the board of commissioners, and if upon such reconsideration two-thirds of all the members agree by yeas and nays to pass it, it takes effect notwithstanding the president's refusal to approve thereof.

It is the policy of this State that all powers granted, either expressly or by necessary implication, by this Act or any other Illinois statute to the District may be exercised by the District notwithstanding effects on competition. It is the intention of the General Assembly that the "State action exemption" to the application of federal antitrust statutes be fully available to the District to the extent its activities are authorized by law as stated herein.

(Source: P.A. 97-893, eff. 8-3-12; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 275. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 1H-115, 10-17a, and 22-45 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 22-75 and 34-18.45 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/1H-115)

Sec. 1H-115. Abolition of Panel.

(a) Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), and (d) of this Section, the Panel shall be abolished 10 years after its creation.

(b) The State Board, upon recommendation of the Panel or petition of the school board, may abolish the Panel at any time after the Panel has been in existence for 3 years if no obligations of the Panel are outstanding or remain undefeased and upon investigation and finding that:

(1) none of the factors specified in Section 1A-8 of this Code remain applicable to the district; and

(2) there has been substantial achievement of the goals and objectives established pursuant to the financial plan and required under Section 1H-15 of this Code.

(c) The Panel of a district that otherwise meets all of the requirements for abolition of a Panel under subsection (b) of this Section, except for the fact that there are outstanding financial obligations of the Panel, may petition the State Board for reinstatement of all of the school board's boards powers and duties assumed by the Panel; and if approved by the State Board, then:

(1) the Panel shall continue in operation, but its powers and duties shall be limited to those necessary to manage and administer its outstanding obligations;

(2) the school board shall once again begin exercising all of the powers and duties otherwise allowed by statute; and

(3) the Panel shall be abolished as provided in subsection (a) of this Section.

(d) If the Panel of a district that otherwise meets all of the requirements for abolition of a Panel under subsection (b) of this Section, except for outstanding obligations of the Panel, then the district may petition the State Board for abolition of the Panel if the district:

(1) establishes an irrevocable trust fund, the purpose of which is to provide moneys to defease the outstanding obligations of the Panel; and

(2) issues funding bonds pursuant to the provisions of Sections Section 19-8 and 19-9 of this Code.

A district with a Panel that falls under this subsection (d) these provisions shall be abolished as provided in subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-429, eff. 8-16-11; revised 8-3-12.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-17a) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-17a)

Sec. 10-17a. State, school district, and school report cards.

(1) By October 31, 2013 and October 31 of each subsequent school year, the State Board of Education, through the State Superintendent of Education, shall prepare a State report card, school district report cards, and school report cards, and shall by the most economic means provide to each school district in this State, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, the report cards for the school district and each of its schools.

(2) In addition to any information required by federal law, the State Superintendent shall determine the indicators and presentation of the school report card, which must include, at a minimum, the most current data possessed by the State Board of Education related to the following:

(A) school characteristics and student demographics, including average class size, average teaching experience, student racial/ethnic breakdown, and the percentage of students classified as low-income; the percentage of students classified as limited English proficiency; the percentage of students who have individualized education plans or 504 plans that provide for special education services; the percentage of students who annually transferred in or out of the school district; the per-pupil operating expenditure of the school district; and the per-pupil State average operating expenditure for the district type (elementary, high school, or unit);

(B) curriculum information, including, where applicable, Advanced Placement, International Baccalaureate or equivalent courses, dual enrollment courses, foreign language classes, school personnel resources (including Career Technical Education teachers), before and after school programs, extracurricular activities, subjects in which elective classes are offered, health and wellness initiatives (including the average number of days of Physical Education per week per student), approved programs of study, awards received, community partnerships, and special programs such as programming for the gifted and talented, students with disabilities, and work-study students;

(C) student outcomes, including, where applicable, the percentage of students meeting as well as exceeding State standards on assessments, the percentage of students in the eighth grade who pass Algebra, the percentage of students enrolled in post-secondary institutions (including colleges, universities, community colleges, trade/vocational schools, and training programs leading to career certification within 2 semesters of high school graduation), the percentage of students graduating from high school who are college ready, the percentage of students graduating from high school who are career ready, and the percentage of graduates enrolled in community colleges, colleges, and universities who are in one or more courses that the community college, college, or university identifies as a remedial course;

(D) student progress, including, where applicable, the percentage of students in the ninth grade who have earned 5 credits or more without failing more than one core class, a measure of students entering kindergarten ready to learn, a measure of growth, and the percentage of students who enter high school on track for college and career readiness; and

(E) the school environment, including, where applicable, the percentage of students with less than 10 absences in a school year, the percentage of teachers with less than 10 absences in a school year for reasons other than professional development, leaves taken pursuant to the federal Family Medical Leave Act of 1993, long-term disability, or parental leaves, the 3-year average of the percentage of teachers returning to the school from the previous year, the number of different principals at the school in the last 6 years, 2 or more indicators from any school climate survey developed by the State and administered pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, and the combined percentage of teachers rated as proficient or excellent in their most recent evaluation.

The school report card shall also provide information that allows for comparing the current outcome, progress, and environment data to the State average, to the school data from the past 5 years, and to the outcomes, progress, and environment of similar schools based on the type of school and enrollment of low-income, special education, and limited English proficiency students.

(3) At the discretion of the State Superintendent, the school district report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section, as well as information relating to the operating expense per pupil and other finances of the school district, and the State report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection subsections (2) of this Section.

(4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, in consultation with key education stakeholders, the State Superintendent shall at any time have the discretion to amend or update any and all metrics on the school, district, or State report card.

(5) Annually, no more than 30 calendar days after receipt of the school district and school report cards from the State Superintendent of Education, each school district, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, shall present such report cards at a regular school board meeting subject to applicable notice requirements, post the report cards on the school district's Internet web site, if the district maintains an Internet web site, make the report cards available to a newspaper of general circulation serving the district, and, upon request, send the report cards home to a parent (unless the district does not maintain an Internet web site, in which case the report card shall be sent home to parents without request). If the district posts the report card on its Internet web site, the district shall send a written notice home to parents stating (i) that the report card is available on the web site, (ii) the address of the web site, (iii) that a printed copy of the report card will be sent to parents upon request, and (iv) the telephone number that parents may call to request a printed copy of the report card.

(Source: P.A. 97-671, eff. 1-24-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-45)

Sec. 22-45. Illinois P-20 Council.

(a) The General Assembly finds that preparing Illinoisans for success in school and the workplace requires a continuum of quality education from preschool through graduate school. This State needs a framework to guide education policy and integrate education at every level. A statewide coordinating council to study and make recommendations concerning education at all levels can avoid fragmentation of policies, promote improved teaching and learning, and continue to cultivate and demonstrate strong accountability and efficiency. Establishing an Illinois P-20 Council will develop a statewide agenda that will move the State towards the common goals of improving academic achievement, increasing college access and success, improving use of existing data and measurements, developing improved accountability, fostering innovative approaches to education, promoting lifelong learning, easing the transition to college, and reducing remediation. A pre-kindergarten through grade 20 agenda will strengthen this State's economic competitiveness by producing a highly-skilled workforce. In addition, lifelong learning plans will enhance this State's ability to leverage funding.

(b) There is created the Illinois P-20 Council. The Illinois P-20 Council shall include all of the following members:

(1) The Governor or his or her designee, to serve as chairperson.

(2) Four members of the General Assembly, one appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, one appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, one appointed by the President of the Senate, and one appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(3) Six at-large members appointed by the Governor as follows, with 2 members being from the City of Chicago, 2 members being from Lake County, McHenry County, Kane County, DuPage County, Will County, or that part of Cook County outside of the City of Chicago, and 2 members being from the remainder of the State:

(A) one representative of civic leaders;

(B) one representative of local government;

(C) one representative of trade unions;

(D) one representative of nonprofit organizations or foundations;

(E) one representative of parents' organizations; and

(F) one education research expert.

(4) Five members appointed by statewide business organizations and business trade associations.

(5) Six members appointed by statewide professional organizations and associations representing pre-kindergarten through grade 20 teachers, community college faculty, and public university faculty.

(6) Two members appointed by associations representing local school administrators and school board members. One of these members must be a special education administrator.

(7) One member representing community colleges, appointed by the Illinois Council of Community College Presidents.

(8) One member representing 4-year independent colleges and universities, appointed by a statewide organization representing private institutions of higher learning.

(9) One member representing public 4-year universities, appointed jointly by the university presidents and chancellors.

(10) Ex-officio members as follows:

(A) The State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee.

(B) The Executive Director of the Board of Higher Education or his or her designee.

(C) The President and Chief Executive Officer of the Illinois Community College Board or his or her designee.

(D) The Executive Director of the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or his or her designee.

(E) The Co-chairpersons of the Illinois Workforce Investment Board or their designee.

(F) The Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity or his or her designee.

(G) The Chairperson of the Illinois Early Learning Council or his or her designee.

(H) The President of the Illinois Mathematics and Science Academy or his or her designee.

(I) The president of an association representing educators of adult learners or his or her designee. Ex-officio members shall have no vote on the Illinois P-20 Council.

Appointed members shall serve for staggered terms expiring on July 1 of the first, second, or third calendar year following their appointments or until their successors are appointed and have qualified. Staggered terms shall be determined by lot at the organizing meeting of the Illinois P-20 Council.

Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as original appointments, and any member so appointed shall serve during the remainder of the term for which the vacancy occurred.

(c) The Illinois P-20 Council shall be funded through State appropriations to support staff activities, research, data-collection, and dissemination. The Illinois P-20 Council shall be staffed by the Office of the Governor, in coordination with relevant State agencies, boards, and commissions. The Illinois Education Research Council shall provide research and coordinate research collection activities for the Illinois P-20 Council.

(d) The Illinois P-20 Council shall have all of the following duties:

(1) To make recommendations to do all of the following:

(A) Coordinate pre-kindergarten through grade 20 (graduate school) education in this State through working at the intersections of educational systems to promote collaborative infrastructure.

(B) Coordinate and leverage strategies, actions, legislation, policies, and resources of all stakeholders to support fundamental and lasting improvement in this State's public schools, community colleges, and universities.

(C) Better align the high school curriculum with postsecondary expectations.

(D) Better align assessments across all levels of education.

(E) Reduce the need for students entering institutions of higher education to take remedial courses.

(F) Smooth the transition from high school to college.

(G) Improve high school and college graduation rates.

(H) Improve the rigor and relevance of academic standards for college and workforce readiness.

(I) Better align college and university teaching programs with the needs of Illinois schools.

(2) To advise the Governor, the General Assembly, the State's education and higher education agencies, and the State's workforce and economic development boards and agencies on policies related to lifelong learning for Illinois students and families.

(3) To articulate a framework for systemic educational improvement and innovation that will enable every student to meet or exceed Illinois learning standards and be well-prepared to succeed in the workforce and community.

(4) To provide an estimated fiscal impact for implementation of all Council recommendations.

(e) The chairperson of the Illinois P-20 Council may authorize the creation of working groups focusing on areas of interest to Illinois educational and workforce development, including without limitation the following areas:

(1) Preparation, recruitment, and certification of highly qualified teachers.

(2) Mentoring and induction of highly qualified teachers.

(3) The diversity of highly qualified teachers.

(4) Funding for highly qualified teachers, including developing a strategic and collaborative plan to seek federal and private grants to support initiatives targeting teacher preparation and its impact on student achievement.

(5) Highly effective administrators.

(6) Illinois birth through age 3 education, pre-kindergarten, and early childhood education.

(7) The assessment, alignment, outreach, and network of college and workforce readiness efforts.

(8) Alternative routes to college access.

(9) Research data and accountability.

(10) Community schools, community participation, and other innovative approaches to education that foster community partnerships.

The chairperson of the Illinois P-20 Council may designate Council members to serve as working group chairpersons. Working groups may invite organizations and individuals representing pre-kindergarten through grade 20 interests to participate in discussions, data collection, and dissemination.

(Source: P.A. 95-626, eff. 6-1-08; 95-996, eff. 10-3-08; 96-746, eff. 8-25-09; revised 8-3-12.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-75)

Sec. 22-75. The Eradicate Domestic Violence Task Force.

(a) There is hereby created the Eradicate Domestic Violence Task Force. The Eradicate Domestic Violence Task Force shall develop a statewide effective and feasible prevention course for high school students designed to prevent interpersonal, adolescent violence based on the Step Back Program for boys and girls. The Clerk of the Circuit Court in the First Judicial District shall provide administrative staff and support to the task force.

(b) The Eradicate Domestic Violence Task Force shall do the following:

(1) Conduct meetings to evaluate the effectiveness and feasibility of statewide implementation of the curricula of the Step Back Program at Oak Park and River Forest High School, located in Cook County, Illinois, for the prevention of domestic violence.

(2) Invite the testimony of and confer with experts on relevant topics as needed.

(3) Propose content for integration into school curricula aimed at preventing domestic violence.

(4) Propose a method of training facilitators on the school curricula aimed at preventing domestic violence.

(5) Propose partnerships with anti-violence agencies to assist with the facilitator roles and the nature of the partnerships.

(6) Evaluate the approximate cost per school or school district to implement and maintain school curricula aimed at preventing domestic violence.

(7) Propose a funding source or sources to support school curricula aimed at preventing domestic violence and agencies that provide training to the facilitators, such as a fee to be charged in domestic violence, sexual assault, and related cases to be collected by the clerk of the court for deposit into a special fund in the State treasury and to be used to fund a proposed eradicate domestic violence program in the schools of this State.

(8) Propose an evaluation structure to ensure that the school curricula aimed at preventing domestic violence is effectively taught by trained facilitators.

(9) Propose a method of evaluation for the purpose of modifying the content of the curriculum over time, including whether studies of the program should be conducted by the University of Illinois' Interpersonal Violence Prevention Information Center.

(10) Recommend legislation developed by the task force, such as amending Sections 27-5 through 27-13.3 and 27-23.4 of this Code, and legislation to create a fee to be charged in domestic violence, sexual assault, and related cases to be collected by the clerk of court for deposit into a special fund in the State treasury and to be used to fund a proposed eradicate domestic violence program in the schools of this State.

(11) Produce a report of the task force's findings on best practices and policies, which shall include a plan with a phased and prioritized implementation timetable for implementation of school curricula aimed at preventing domestic violence in schools. The task force shall submit a report to the General Assembly on or before April 1, 2013 on its findings, recommendations, and implementation plan. Any task force reports must be published on the State Board of Education's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(c) The President of the Senate and the Speaker of the House of Representatives shall each appoint one co-chairperson of the Eradicate Domestic Violence Task Force. The Minority Leader of the Senate and the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives shall each appoint one member to the task force. In addition, the task force shall be comprised of the following members appointed by the State Board of Education and shall be representative of the geographic, racial, and ethnic diversity of this State:

(1) Four representatives involved with a program for high school students at a high school that is located in a municipality with a population of 2,000,000 or more and the program is a daily, 6-week to 9-week, 45-session, gender-specific, primary prevention course designed to raise awareness of topics such as dating and domestic violence, any systematic conduct that causes measurable physical harm or emotional distress, sexual assault, digital abuse, self-defense, and suicide.

(2) A representative of an interpersonal violence prevention program within a State university.

(3) A representative of a statewide nonprofit, nongovernmental, domestic violence organization.

(4) A representative of a different nonprofit, nongovernmental domestic violence organization that is located in a municipality with a population of 2,000,000 or more.

(5) A representative of a statewide nonprofit, nongovernmental, sexual assault organization.

(6) A representative of a different nonprofit, nongovernmental, sexual assault organization based in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more.

(7) The State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee.

(8) The Chief Executive Officer of City of Chicago School District 299 or his or her designee or the President of the Chicago Board of Education or his or her designee.

(9) A representative of the Department of Human Services.

(10) A representative of a statewide, nonprofit professional organization representing law enforcement executives.

(11) A representative of the Chicago Police Department, Youth Services Division.

(12) The Clerk of the Circuit Court in the First Judicial District or his or her designee.

(13) A representative of a statewide professional teachers organization.

(14) A representative of a different statewide professional teachers organization.

(15) A representative of a professional teachers organization in a city having a population exceeding 500,000.

(16) A representative of an organization representing principals.

(17) A representative of an organization representing school administrators.

(18) A representative of an organization representing school boards.

(19) A representative of an organization representing school business officials.

(20) A representative of an organization representing large unit school districts.

(d) The following underlying purposes should be liberally construed by the task force convened under this Section:

(1) Recognize that, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, National Intimate Partner and Sexual Violence Survey, December 2010 Summary Report, on average 24 people per minute are victims of rape, physical violence, or stalking by an intimate partner in the United States, equaling more than 12 million women and men.

(2) Recognize that abused children and children exposed to domestic violence in their homes may have short and long-term physical, emotional, and learning problems, including increased aggression, decreased responsiveness to adults, failure to thrive, posttraumatic stress disorder, depression, anxiety, hypervigilance and hyperactivity, eating and sleeping problems, and developmental delays, according to the Journal of Interpersonal Violence and the Futures Without Violence organization.

(3) Recognize that the Illinois Violence Prevention Authority has found that children exposed to violence in the media may become numb to the horror of violence, may gradually accept violence as a way to solve problems, may imitate the violence they see, and may identify with certain characters, victims, or victimizers.

(4) Recognize that crimes and the incarceration of youth are often associated with a history of child abuse and exposure to domestic violence, according to Futures Without Violence.

(5) Recognize that the cost of prosecuting crime in this State is unnecessarily high due to a lack of prevention programs designed to eradicate domestic violence.

(6) Recognize that sexual violence, stalking, and intimate partner violence are serious and widespread public health problems for children and adults in this State.

(7) Recognize that intervention programs aimed at preventing domestic violence may yield better results than programs aimed at treating the victims of domestic violence, because treatment programs may reduce the likelihood that a particular woman will be re-victimized, but might not otherwise reduce the overall amount of domestic violence.

(8) Recognize that uniform, effective, feasible, and widespread prevention of sexual violence and intimate partner violence is a high priority in this State.

(9) Recognize that the Step Back Program at Oak Park and River Forest High School in Cook County, Illinois, is a daily, 6 to 9 week, 45-session, gender-specific, primary prevention course for high school students designed to raise awareness of topics, including dating and domestic violence, bullying and harassment, sexual assault, digital abuse, self-defense, and suicide. The Step Back Program is co-facilitated by the high school and a nonprofit, nongovernmental domestic violence prevention specialist and service provider.

(10) Develop a statewide effective prevention course for high school students based on the Step Back Program for boys and girls designed to prevent interpersonal, adolescent violence.

(e) Members of the Eradicate Domestic Violence Task Force shall receive no compensation for their participation, but may be reimbursed by the State Board of Education for expenses in connection with their participation, including travel, if funds are available.

(f) Nothing in this Section or in the prevention course is intended to infringe upon any right to exercise free expression or the free exercise of religion or religiously based views protected under the First Amendment to the United States Constitution or under Section 3 or 4 of Article 1 of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 97-1037, eff. 8-20-12.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-76)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on September 1, 2013)

Sec. 22-76 22-75. Enhance Physical Education Task Force.

(a) The Enhance Physical Education Task Force is established. The task force shall consist of the following voting members:

(1) a member of the General Assembly, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(2) a member of the General Assembly, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives;

(3) a member of the General Assembly, appointed by the President of the Senate;

(4) a member of the General Assembly, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate;

(5) the Lieutenant Governor or his or her designee;

(6) the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee, who shall serve as a co-chairperson of the task force;

(7) the Director of Public Health or his or her designee, who shall serve as a co-chairperson of the task force;

(8) the chief executive officer of City of Chicago School District 299 or his or her designee;

(9) 2 representatives from a statewide organization representing health, physical education, recreation, and dance, appointed by the head of that organization;

(10) a representative of City of Chicago School District 299, appointed by the Chicago Board of Education;

(11) 2 representatives of a statewide professional teachers' organization, appointed by the head of that organization;

(12) 2 representatives of a different statewide professional teachers' organization, appointed by the head of that organization;

(13) a representative of an organization representing professional teachers in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, appointed by the head of that organization;

(14) a representative of a statewide organization representing principals, appointed by the head of that organization;

(15) a representative of a statewide organization representing school administrators, appointed by the head of that organization;

(16) a representative of a statewide organization representing school boards, appointed by the head of that organization;

(17) a representative of a statewide organization representing school business officials, appointed by the head of that organization;

(18) a representative of a statewide organization representing parents, appointed by the head of that organization;

(19) a representative of a national research and advocacy organization focused on cardiovascular health and wellness, appointed by the head of that organization;

(20) a representative of an organization that advocates for healthy school environments, appointed by the head of that organization;

(21) a representative of a not-for-profit organization serving children and youth, appointed by the head of that organization; and

(22) a representative of a not-for-profit organization that partners to promote prevention and improve public health systems that maximize the health and quality of life of the people of this State, appointed by the head of that organization. Additional members may be appointed to the task force with the approval of the task force's co-chairpersons.

(b) The task force shall meet at the call of the co-chairpersons, with the initial meeting of the task force being held as soon as possible after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(c) The State Board of Education and the Department of Public Health shall provide assistance and necessary staff support services to the task force.

(d) The purpose of the task force is to promote and recommend enhanced physical education programs that can be integrated with a broader wellness strategy and health curriculum in elementary and secondary schools in this State, including educating and promoting leadership on enhanced physical education among school district and school officials; developing and utilizing metrics to assess the impact of enhanced physical education; promoting training and professional development in enhanced physical education for teachers and other school and community stakeholders; identifying and seeking local, State, and national resources to support enhanced physical education; and such other strategies as may be identified by the task force.

(e) The task force shall make recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly on Goals 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, and 24 of the Illinois Learning Standards for Physical Development and Health. The task force shall focus on updating the standards based on research in neuroscience that impacts the relationship between physical activity and learning.

(f) On or before August 31, 2013, the task force must make recommendations and file a report with the Governor and the General Assembly.

(g) This Section is repealed on September 1, 2013.

(Source: P.A. 97-1102, eff. 8-27-12; revised 10-4-12.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.45)

Sec. 34-18.45. Minimum reading instruction. The board shall promote 60 minutes of minimum reading opportunities daily for students in kindergarten through 3rd grade whose reading level is one grade level or lower than their current grade level according to current learning standards and the school district.

(Source: P.A. 97-88, eff. 7-8-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.47)

Sec. 34-18.47 34-18.45. Youth program. The board may develop a plan for implementing a program that seeks to establish common bonds between youth of various backgrounds and ethnicities, which may be similar to that of the Challenge Day organization.

(Source: P.A. 97-909, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-10-12.)

Section 280. The Currency Exchange Act is amended by changing Section 14.1 as follows:

(205 ILCS 405/14.1)

Sec. 14.1. All moneys received by the Department under this Act shall be deposited in the Financial Institution Institutions Fund created under Section 6z-26 of the State Finance Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-315, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 285. The Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 3-2 as follows:

(205 ILCS 635/3-2) (from Ch. 17, par. 2323-2)

Sec. 3-2. Annual audit.

(a) At the licensee's fiscal year-end, but in no case more than 12 months after the last audit conducted pursuant to this Section, except as otherwise provided in this Section, it shall be mandatory for each residential mortgage licensee to cause its books and accounts to be audited by a certified public accountant not connected with such licensee. The books and records of all licensees under this Act shall be maintained on an accrual basis. The audit must be sufficiently comprehensive in scope to permit the expression of an opinion on the financial statements, which must be prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, and must be performed in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards. Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection, a licensee that is a first tier subsidiary may submit audited consolidated financial statements of its parent as long as the consolidated statements are supported by consolidating statements. The licensee's chief financial officer shall attest to the licensee's financial statements disclosed in the consolidating statements.

(b) As used herein, the term "expression of opinion" includes either (1) an unqualified opinion, (2) a qualified opinion, (3) a disclaimer of opinion, or (4) an adverse opinion.

(c) If a qualified or adverse opinion is expressed or if an opinion is disclaimed, the reasons therefore must be fully explained. An opinion, qualified as to a scope limitation, shall not be acceptable.

(d) The most recent audit report shall be filed with the Commissioner within 90 days after the end of the licensee's fiscal year, or with the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry, if applicable, pursuant to Mortgage Call Report requirements. The report filed with the Commissioner shall be certified by the certified public accountant conducting the audit. The Commissioner may promulgate rules regarding late audit reports.

(e) If any licensee required to make an audit shall fail to cause an audit to be made, the Commissioner shall cause the same to be made by a certified public accountant at the licensee's expense. The Commissioner shall select such certified public accountant by advertising for bids or by such other fair and impartial means as he or she establishes by regulation.

(f) In lieu of the audit or compilation financial statement required by this Section, a licensee shall submit and the Commissioner may accept any audit made in conformance with the audit requirements of the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development.

(g) With respect to licensees who solely broker residential mortgage loans as defined in subsection (o) of Section 1-4, instead of the audit required by this Section, the Commissioner may accept compilation financial statements prepared at least every 12 months, and the compilation financial statement must be principles submitted within 90 days after the end of the licensee's fiscal year, or with the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry, if applicable, pursuant to Mortgage Call Report requirements. If a licensee under this Section fails to file a compilation as required, the Commissioner shall cause an audit of the licensee's books and accounts to be made by a certified public accountant at the licensee's expense. The Commissioner shall select the certified public accountant by advertising for bids or by such other fair and impartial means as he or she establishes by rule. A licensee who files false or misleading compilation financial statements is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined not less than $5,000.

(h) The workpapers of the certified public accountants employed by each licensee for purposes of this Section are to be made available to the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee upon request and may be reproduced by the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee to enable to the Commissioner to carry out the purposes of this Act.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, if a licensee relying on subsection (g) of this Section causes its books to be audited at any other time or causes its financial statements to be reviewed, a complete copy of the audited or reviewed financial statements shall be delivered to the Commissioner at the time of the annual license renewal payment following receipt by the licensee of the audited or reviewed financial statements. All workpapers shall be made available to the Commissioner upon request. The financial statements and workpapers may be reproduced by the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee to carry out the purposes of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-112, eff. 7-31-09; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-891, eff. 8-3-12; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 290. The Transmitters of Money Act is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(205 ILCS 657/45)

Sec. 45. Fees.

(a) The Director shall charge and collect fees, which shall be nonrefundable unless otherwise indicated, in accordance with the provisions of this Act as follows:

(1) For applying for a license, an application fee of $100 and a license fee, which shall be refunded if the application is denied or withdrawn, of $100 plus $10 for each location at which the applicant and its authorized sellers are conducting business or propose to conduct business excepting the applicant's principal place of business.

(2) For renewal of a license, a fee of $100 plus $10 for each location at which the licensee and its authorized sellers are conducting business, except the licensee's principal place of business.

(3) For an application to add an authorized seller location, $10 for each authorized seller location.

(4) For service of process or other notice upon the Director as provided by Section 100, a fee of $10.

(5) For an application for renewal of a license received by the Department after December 1, a penalty fee of $10 per day for each day after December 1 in addition to any other fees required under this Act unless an extension of time has been granted by the Director.

(6) For failure to submit financial statements as required by Section 40, a penalty fee of $10 per day for each day the statement is late unless an extension of time has been granted by the Director.

(b) Beginning one year after the effective date of this Act, the Director may, by rule, amend the fees set forth in this Section.

(c) All moneys received by the Department under this Act shall be deposited into the Financial Institution Institutions Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-400, eff. 1-1-02; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 295. The Sales Finance Agency Act is amended by changing Section 6.1 as follows:

(205 ILCS 660/6.1)

Sec. 6.1. All moneys received by the Department of Financial Institutions under this Act shall be deposited in the Financial Institution Institutions Fund created under Section 6z-26 of the State Finance Act.

(Source: P.A. 88-13; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 300. The Debt Management Service Act is amended by changing Section 12.1 as follows:

(205 ILCS 665/12.1)

Sec. 12.1. All moneys received by the Department of Financial Institutions under this Act, except moneys received for the Debt Management Service Consumer Protection Fund, shall be deposited in the Financial Institution Institutions Fund created under Section 6z-26 of the State Finance Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1420, eff. 8-3-10; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 305. The Consumer Installment Loan Act is amended by changing Section 8.1 as follows:

(205 ILCS 670/8.1)

Sec. 8.1. All moneys received by the Department of Financial Institutions under this Act shall be deposited in the Financial Institution Institutions Fund created under Section 6z-26 of the State Finance Act.

(Source: P.A. 88-13; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 310. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Section 2-204 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/2-204) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4152-204)

Sec. 2-204. The Director shall appoint a Long-Term Care Facility Advisory Board to consult with the Department and the residents' advisory councils created under Section 2-203.

(a) The Board shall be comprised of the following persons:

(1) The Director who shall serve as chairman, ex officio and nonvoting; and

(2) One representative each of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, the Department on Aging, and the Office of the State Fire Marshal, all nonvoting members;

(3) One member who shall be a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches;

(4) One member who shall be a registered nurse selected from the recommendations of professional nursing associations;

(5) Four members who shall be selected from the recommendations by organizations whose membership consists of facilities;

(6) Two members who shall represent the general public who are not members of a residents' advisory council established under Section 2-203 and who have no responsibility for management or formation of policy or financial interest in a facility;

(7) One member who is a member of a residents' advisory council established under Section 2-203 and is capable of actively participating on the Board; and

(8) One member who shall be selected from the recommendations of consumer organizations which engage solely in advocacy or legal representation on behalf of residents and their immediate families.

(b) The terms of those members of the Board appointed prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1988 shall expire on December 31, 1988. Members of the Board created by this amendatory Act of 1988 shall be appointed to serve for terms as follows: 3 for 2 years, 3 for 3 years and 3 for 4 years. The member of the Board added by this amendatory Act of 1989 shall be appointed to serve for a term of 4 years. Each successor member shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of such term. The Board shall meet as frequently as the chairman deems necessary, but not less than 4 times each year. Upon request by 4 or more members the chairman shall call a meeting of the Board. The affirmative vote of 6 members of the Board shall be necessary for Board action. A member of the Board can designate a replacement to serve at the Board meeting and vote in place of the member by submitting a letter of designation to the chairman prior to or at the Board meeting. The Board members shall be reimbursed for their actual expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

(c) The Advisory Board shall advise the Department of Public Health on all aspects of its responsibilities under this Act and the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Facilities Act, including the format and content of any rules promulgated by the Department of Public Health. Any such rules, except emergency rules promulgated pursuant to Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, promulgated without obtaining the advice of the Advisory Board are null and void. In the event that the Department fails to follow the advice of the Board, the Department shall, prior to the promulgation of such rules, transmit a written explanation of the reason thereof to the Board. During its review of rules, the Board shall analyze the economic and regulatory impact of those rules. If the Advisory Board, having been asked for its advice, fails to advise the Department within 90 days, the rules shall be considered acted upon.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 315. The ID/DD Community Care Act is amended by changing Section 3-310 as follows:

(210 ILCS 47/3-310)

Sec. 3-310. Collection of penalties. All penalties shall be paid to the Department within 10 days of receipt of notice of assessment or, if the penalty is contested under Section 3-309, within 10 days of receipt of the final decision, unless the decision is appealed and the order is stayed by court order under Section 3-713. A facility choosing to waive the right to a hearing under Section 3-309 shall submit a payment totaling 65% of the original fine amount along with the written waiver. A penalty assessed under this Act shall be collected by the Department and shall be deposited with the State Treasurer into the Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Fund. If the person or facility against whom a penalty has been assessed does not comply with a written demand for payment within 30 days, the Director shall issue an order to do any of the following:

(1) Direct the State Treasurer or Comptroller to deduct the amount of the fine from amounts otherwise due from the State for the penalty, including any payments to be made from the Developmentally Disabled Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability established under Section 5C-7 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and remit that amount to the Department;

(2) Add the amount of the penalty to the facility's licensing fee; if the licensee refuses to make the payment at the time of application for renewal of its license, the license shall not be renewed; or

(3) Bring an action in circuit court to recover the amount of the penalty.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 10-18-12.)

Section 320. The Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act is amended by changing Sections 1-101.01, 3-207, and 4-101 as follows:

(210 ILCS 48/1-101.01)

Sec. 1-101.01. Legislative findings. Illinois is committed to providing behavioral health services in the most community-integrated settings possible, based on the needs of residents who qualify for State support. This goal is consistent with federal law and regulations and recent court decrees. A variety of services and settings are necessary to ensure that people with serious mental illness receive high quality care that is oriented towards their safety, rehabilitation, and recovery.

Residential settings are an important component of the system of behavioral health care that Illinois is developing. When residential treatment is necessary these facilities must offer high quality rehabilitation and recover care, help residents achieve and maintain their highest level of independent functioning, and prepare them to live in permanent supportive housing and other community-integrated settings. Facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act will be models of such residential residental care, demonstrating the elements essential to help people with serious mental illness transition to more independent living and return to healthy, productive lives.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; revised 8-3-12.)

(210 ILCS 48/3-207)

Sec. 3-207. Statement of ownership.

(a) As a condition of the issuance or renewal of the license of any facility, the applicant shall file a statement of ownership. The applicant shall update the information required in the statement of ownership within 10 days of any change.

(b) The statement of ownership shall include the following:

(1) The name, address, telephone number, occupation or business activity, business address and business telephone number of the person who is the owner of the facility and every person who owns the building in which the facility is located, if other than the owner of the facility, which is the subject of the application or license; and if the owner is a partnership or corporation, the name of every partner and stockholder of the owner;

(2) The name and address of any facility, wherever whereever located, any financial interest in which is owned by the applicant, if the facility were required to be licensed if it were located in this State;

(3) Other information necessary to determine the identity and qualifications of an applicant or licensee to operate a facility in accordance with this Act as required by the Department in regulations.

(c) The information in the statement of ownership shall be public information and shall be available from the Department.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; revised 8-3-12.)

(210 ILCS 48/4-101)

Sec. 4-101. Payments. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under this the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Facilities Act, the payment methodology in effect on June 30, 2011, shall be $1 less than the rate that would have been paid pursuant to Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code for that same facility, had the facility been licensed under a different Act and been participating in the Demonstration Program pursuant to Department rules. Any adjustment in the support component or the capital component for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act shall apply equally to facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under this the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Facilities Act. Any change in rate methodology shall be made in statute.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 325. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Sections 3.50 and 3.190 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.50)

Sec. 3.50. Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Licensure.

(a) "Emergency Medical Technician-Basic" or "EMT-B" means a person who has successfully completed a course of instruction in basic life support as prescribed by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an EMS System.

(b) "Emergency Medical Technician-Intermediate" or "EMT-I" means a person who has successfully completed a course of instruction in intermediate life support as prescribed by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System.

(c) "Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic" or "EMT-P" means a person who has successfully completed a course of instruction in advanced life support care as prescribed by the Department, is licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Advanced Life Support EMS System.

(d) The Department shall have the authority and responsibility to:

(1) Prescribe education and training requirements, which includes training in the use of epinephrine, for all levels of EMT, based on the respective national curricula of the United States Department of Transportation and any modifications to such curricula specified by the Department through rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(2) Prescribe licensure testing requirements for all levels of EMT, which shall include a requirement that all phases of instruction, training, and field experience be completed before taking the EMT licensure examination. Candidates may elect to take the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians examination in lieu of the Department's examination, but are responsible for making their own arrangements for taking the National Registry examination.

(2.5) Review applications for EMT licensure from honorably discharged members of the armed forces of the United States with military emergency medical training. Applications shall be filed with the Department within one year after military discharge and shall contain: (i) proof of successful completion of military emergency medical training; (ii) a detailed description of the emergency medical curriculum completed; and (iii) a detailed description of the applicant's clinical experience. The Department may request additional and clarifying information. The Department shall evaluate the application, including the applicant's training and experience, consistent with the standards set forth under subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 3.10. If the application clearly demonstrates that the training and experience meets such standards, the Department shall offer the applicant the opportunity to successfully complete a Department-approved EMT examination for which the applicant is qualified. Upon passage of an examination, the Department shall issue a license, which shall be subject to all provisions of this Act that are otherwise applicable to the class of EMT license issued.

(3) License individuals as an EMT-B, EMT-I, or EMT-P who have met the Department's education, training and examination requirements.

(4) Prescribe annual continuing education and relicensure requirements for all levels of EMT.

(5) Relicense individuals as an EMT-B, EMT-I, or EMT-P every 4 years, based on their compliance with continuing education and relicensure requirements. An Illinois licensed Emergency Medical Technician whose license has been expired for less than 36 months may apply for reinstatement by the Department. Reinstatement shall require that the applicant (i) submit satisfactory proof of completion of continuing medical education and clinical requirements to be prescribed by the Department in an administrative rule; (ii) submit a positive recommendation from an Illinois EMS Medical Director attesting to the applicant's qualifications for retesting; and (iii) pass a Department approved test for the level of EMT license sought to be reinstated.

(6) Grant inactive status to any EMT who qualifies, based on standards and procedures established by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(7) Charge a fee for EMT examination, licensure, and license renewal.

(8) Suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew the license of any licensee, after an opportunity for an impartial hearing before a neutral administrative law judge appointed by the Director, where the preponderance of the evidence shows one or more of the following:

(A) The licensee has not met continuing education or relicensure requirements as prescribed by the Department;

(B) The licensee has failed to maintain proficiency in the level of skills for which he or she is licensed;

(C) The licensee, during the provision of medical services, engaged in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(D) The licensee has failed to maintain or has violated standards of performance and conduct as prescribed by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act or his or her EMS System's Program Plan;

(E) The licensee is physically impaired to the extent that he or she cannot physically perform the skills and functions for which he or she is licensed, as verified by a physician, unless the person is on inactive status pursuant to Department regulations;

(F) The licensee is mentally impaired to the extent that he or she cannot exercise the appropriate judgment, skill and safety for performing the functions for which he or she is licensed, as verified by a physician, unless the person is on inactive status pursuant to Department regulations;

(G) The licensee has violated this Act or any rule adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act; or

(H) The licensee has been convicted (or entered a plea of guilty or nolo-contendere) by a court of competent jurisdiction of a Class X, Class 1, or Class 2 felony in this State or an out-of-state equivalent offense.

(9) An EMT who is a member of the Illinois National Guard or an Illinois State Trooper or who exclusively serves as a volunteer for units of local government with a population base of less than 5,000 or as a volunteer for a not-for-profit organization that serves a service area with a population base of less than 5,000 may submit an application to the Department for a waiver of the these fees described under paragraph (7) on a form prescribed by the Department.

The education requirements prescribed by the Department under this subsection must allow for the suspension of those requirements in the case of a member of the armed services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is on active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor at the time that the member would otherwise be required to fulfill a particular education requirement. Such a person must fulfill the education requirement within 6 months after his or her release from active duty.

(e) In the event that any rule of the Department or an EMS Medical Director that requires testing for drug use as a condition for EMT licensure conflicts with or duplicates a provision of a collective bargaining agreement that requires testing for drug use, that rule shall not apply to any person covered by the collective bargaining agreement.

(Source: P.A. 96-540, eff. 8-17-09; 96-1149, eff. 7-21-10; 96-1469, eff. 1-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-509, eff. 8-23-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1014, eff. 1-1-13; revised 10-17-12.)

(210 ILCS 50/3.190)

Sec. 3.190. Emergency Department Classifications. The Department shall have the authority and responsibility to:

(a) Establish criteria for classifying the emergency departments of all hospitals within the State as Comprehensive, Basic, or Standby. In establishing such criteria, the Department may consult with the Illinois Hospital Licensing Board and incorporate by reference all or part of existing standards adopted as rules pursuant to the Hospital Licensing Act or Emergency Medical Treatment Act;

(b) Classify the emergency departments of all hospitals within the State in accordance with this Section;

(c) Annually publish, and distribute to all EMS Systems, a list reflecting the classification of all emergency departments.

(d) For the purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this Section, long-term acute care hospitals, as defined under the Hospital Emergency Service Act, are not required to provide hospital emergency services and shall be classified as not available.

(Source: P.A. 97-667, eff. 1-13-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 330. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 6.14a as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/6.14a)

Sec. 6.14a. Public disclosure of information. The following information is subject to disclosure to the public from the Department:

(1) Information submitted under Section 5 of this Act;

(2) Final records of license and certification inspections, surveys, and evaluations of hospitals; and

(3) Investigated complaints filed against a hospital and complaint investigation reports, except that a complaint or complaint investigation report shall not be disclosed to a person other than the complainant or complainant's representative before it is disclosed to a hospital, and except that a complainant or patient's name shall not be disclosed.

The Department shall disclose information under this Section in accordance with provisions for inspection and copying of public records required by the Freedom of Information Act.

However, the disclosure of information described in subsection (1) shall not be restricted by any provision of the Freedom of Information Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, under no circumstances shall the Department disclose information obtained from a hospital that is confidential under Part 21 of Article VIII 8 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Any records or reports of inspections, surveys, or evaluations of hospitals may be disclosed only after the acceptance of a plan of correction by the Health Care Financing Administration of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services or the Department, as appropriate, or at the conclusion of any administrative review of the Department's decision, or at the conclusion of any judicial review of such administrative decision. Whenever any record or report is subject to disclosure under this Section, the Department shall permit the hospital to provide a written statement pertaining to such report which shall be included as part of the information to be disclosed. The Department shall not divulge or disclose any record or report in a manner that identifies or would permit the identification of any natural person.

(Source: P.A. 91-242, eff. 1-1-00; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 335. The Hospital Report Card Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(210 ILCS 86/25)

Sec. 25. Hospital reports.

(a) Individual hospitals shall prepare a quarterly report including all of the following:

(1) Nursing hours per patient day, average daily census, and average daily hours worked for each clinical service area.

(2) Infection-related measures for the facility for the specific clinical procedures and devices determined by the Department by rule under 2 or more of the following categories:

(A) Surgical procedure outcome measures.

(B) Surgical procedure infection control process measures.

(C) Outcome or process measures related to ventilator-associated pneumonia.

(D) Central vascular catheter-related bloodstream infection rates in designated critical care units.

(3) Information required under paragraph (4) of Section 2310-312 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

The infection-related measures developed by the Department shall be based upon measures and methods developed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, or the National Quality Forum.

The Department shall include interpretive guidelines for infection-related indicators and, when available, shall include relevant benchmark information published by national organizations.

(b) Individual hospitals shall prepare annual reports including vacancy and turnover rates for licensed nurses per clinical service area.

(c) None of the information the Department discloses to the public may be made available in any form or fashion unless the information has been reviewed, adjusted, and validated according to the following process:

(1) The Department shall organize an advisory committee, including representatives from the Department, public and private hospitals, direct care nursing staff, physicians, academic researchers, consumers, health insurance companies, organized labor, and organizations representing hospitals and physicians. The advisory committee must be meaningfully involved in the development of all aspects of the Department's methodology for collecting, analyzing, and disclosing the information collected under this Act, including collection methods, formatting, and methods and means for release and dissemination.

(2) The entire methodology for collecting and analyzing the data shall be disclosed to all relevant organizations and to all hospitals that are the subject of any information to be made available to the public before any public disclosure of such information.

(3) Data collection and analytical methodologies shall be used that meet accepted standards of validity and reliability before any information is made available to the public.

(4) The limitations of the data sources and analytic methodologies used to develop comparative hospital information shall be clearly identified and acknowledged, including but not limited to the appropriate and inappropriate uses of the data.

(5) To the greatest extent possible, comparative hospital information initiatives shall use standard-based norms derived from widely accepted provider-developed practice guidelines.

(6) Comparative hospital information and other information that the Department has compiled regarding hospitals shall be shared with the hospitals under review prior to public dissemination of such information and these hospitals have 30 days to make corrections and to add helpful explanatory comments about the information before the publication.

(7) Comparisons among hospitals shall adjust for patient case mix and other relevant risk factors and control for provider peer groups, when appropriate.

(8) Effective safeguards to protect against the unauthorized use or disclosure of hospital information shall be developed and implemented.

(9) Effective safeguards to protect against the dissemination of inconsistent, incomplete, invalid, inaccurate, or subjective hospital data shall be developed and implemented.

(10) The quality and accuracy of hospital information reported under this Act and its data collection, analysis, and dissemination methodologies shall be evaluated regularly.

(11) Only the most basic identifying information from mandatory reports shall be used, and information identifying a patient, employee, or licensed professional shall not be released. None of the information the Department discloses to the public under this Act may be used to establish a standard of care in a private civil action.

(d) Quarterly reports shall be submitted, in a format set forth in rules adopted by the Department, to the Department by April 30, July 31, October 31, and January 31 each year for the previous quarter. Data in quarterly reports must cover a period ending not earlier than one month prior to submission of the report. Annual reports shall be submitted by December 31 in a format set forth in rules adopted by the Department to the Department. All reports shall be made available to the public on-site and through the Department.

(e) If the hospital is a division or subsidiary of another entity that owns or operates other hospitals or related organizations, the annual public disclosure report shall be for the specific division or subsidiary and not for the other entity.

(f) The Department shall disclose information under this Section in accordance with provisions for inspection and copying of public records required by the Freedom of Information Act provided that such information satisfies the provisions of subsection (c) of this Section.

(g) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, under no circumstances shall the Department disclose information obtained from a hospital that is confidential under Part 21 of Article VIII 8 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(h) No hospital report or Department disclosure may contain information identifying a patient, employee, or licensed professional.

(Source: P.A. 94-275, eff. 7-19-05; 95-282, eff. 8-20-07; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 340. The Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(210 ILCS 135/10) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1710)

Sec. 10. State plan.

(a) Community-integrated Community integrated living arrangements shall be located so as to enable residents to participate in and be integrated into their community or neighborhood. The location of such arrangements shall promote community integration of persons with mental disabilities. The Department shall adopt a plan ("State plan") for the distribution of community living arrangements throughout the State, considering the need for such arrangements in the various locations in which they are to be used. Each agency licensed under this Act must define the process of obtaining community acceptance of community living arrangements. The State plan shall include guidelines regarding the location of community-integrated community integrated living arrangements within the geographic areas to be served by the agencies, and the availability of support services within those areas for residents under such arrangements. The Department shall promulgate such guidelines as rules pursuant to the The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

The Department shall require any agency licensed under this Act to establish procedures for assuring compliance with such criteria, including annual review and comment by representatives of local governmental authorities, community mental health and developmental disabilities planning and service agencies, and other interested civil organizations, regarding the impact on their community areas of any living arrangements, programs or services to be certified by such agency. The Department shall give consideration to the comments of such community representatives in determinations of compliance with the State plan under this Section, and the Department may modify, suspend or withhold funding of such programs and services subject to this Act until such times as assurance is achieved.

(b) Beginning January 1, 1990, no Department of State government, as defined in the The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, shall place any person in or utilize any services of a community-integrated living arrangement which is not certified by an agency under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 86-922; revised 10-17-12.)

Section 345. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 408, 511.111, and 513a5 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/408) (from Ch. 73, par. 1020)

Sec. 408. Fees and charges.

(1) The Director shall charge, collect and give proper acquittances for the payment of the following fees and charges:

(a) For filing all documents submitted for the incorporation or organization or certification of a domestic company, except for a fraternal benefit society, $2,000.

(b) For filing all documents submitted for the incorporation or organization of a fraternal benefit society, $500.

(c) For filing amendments to articles of incorporation and amendments to declaration of organization, except for a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association, a burial society or a farm mutual, $200.

(d) For filing amendments to articles of incorporation of a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association or a burial society, $100.

(e) For filing amendments to articles of incorporation of a farm mutual, $50.

(f) For filing bylaws or amendments thereto, $50.

(g) For filing agreement of merger or consolidation:

(i) for a domestic company, except for a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association, a burial society, or a farm mutual, $2,000.

(ii) for a foreign or alien company, except for a fraternal benefit society, $600.

(iii) for a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association, a burial society, or a farm mutual, $200.

(h) For filing agreements of reinsurance by a domestic company, $200.

(i) For filing all documents submitted by a foreign or alien company to be admitted to transact business or accredited as a reinsurer in this State, except for a fraternal benefit society, $5,000.

(j) For filing all documents submitted by a foreign or alien fraternal benefit society to be admitted to transact business in this State, $500.

(k) For filing declaration of withdrawal of a foreign or alien company, $50.

(l) For filing annual statement by a domestic company, except a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association, a burial society, or a farm mutual, $200.

(m) For filing annual statement by a domestic fraternal benefit society, $100.

(n) For filing annual statement by a farm mutual, a mutual benefit association, or a burial society, $50.

(o) For issuing a certificate of authority or renewal thereof except to a foreign fraternal benefit society, $400.

(p) For issuing a certificate of authority or renewal thereof to a foreign fraternal benefit society, $200.

(q) For issuing an amended certificate of authority, $50.

(r) For each certified copy of certificate of authority, $20.

(s) For each certificate of deposit, or valuation, or compliance or surety certificate, $20.

(t) For copies of papers or records per page, $1.

(u) For each certification to copies of papers or records, $10.

(v) For multiple copies of documents or certificates listed in subparagraphs (r), (s), and (u) of paragraph (1) of this Section, $10 for the first copy of a certificate of any type and $5 for each additional copy of the same certificate requested at the same time, unless, pursuant to paragraph (2) of this Section, the Director finds these additional fees excessive.

(w) For issuing a permit to sell shares or increase paid-up capital:

(i) in connection with a public stock offering, $300;

(ii) in any other case, $100.

(x) For issuing any other certificate required or permissible under the law, $50.

(y) For filing a plan of exchange of the stock of a domestic stock insurance company, a plan of demutualization of a domestic mutual company, or a plan of reorganization under Article XII, $2,000.

(z) For filing a statement of acquisition of a domestic company as defined in Section 131.4 of this Code, $2,000.

(aa) For filing an agreement to purchase the business of an organization authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act or of a health maintenance organization or a limited health service organization, $2,000.

(bb) For filing a statement of acquisition of a foreign or alien insurance company as defined in Section 131.12a of this Code, $1,000.

(cc) For filing a registration statement as required in Sections 131.13 and 131.14, the notification as required by Sections 131.16, 131.20a, or 141.4, or an agreement or transaction required by Sections 124.2(2), 141, 141a, or 141.1, $200.

(dd) For filing an application for licensing of:

(i) a religious or charitable risk pooling trust or a workers' compensation pool, $1,000;

(ii) a workers' compensation service company, $500;

(iii) a self-insured automobile fleet, $200; or

(iv) a renewal of or amendment of any license issued pursuant to (i), (ii), or (iii) above, $100.

(ee) For filing articles of incorporation for a syndicate to engage in the business of insurance through the Illinois Insurance Exchange, $2,000.

(ff) For filing amended articles of incorporation for a syndicate engaged in the business of insurance through the Illinois Insurance Exchange, $100.

(gg) For filing articles of incorporation for a limited syndicate to join with other subscribers or limited syndicates to do business through the Illinois Insurance Exchange, $1,000.

(hh) For filing amended articles of incorporation for a limited syndicate to do business through the Illinois Insurance Exchange, $100.

(ii) For a permit to solicit subscriptions to a syndicate or limited syndicate, $100.

(jj) For the filing of each form as required in Section 143 of this Code, $50 per form. The fee for advisory and rating organizations shall be $200 per form.

(i) For the purposes of the form filing fee, filings made on insert page basis will be considered one form at the time of its original submission. Changes made to a form subsequent to its approval shall be considered a new filing.

(ii) Only one fee shall be charged for a form, regardless of the number of other forms or policies with which it will be used.

(iii) Fees charged for a policy filed as it will be issued regardless of the number of forms comprising that policy shall not exceed $1,500. For advisory or rating organizations, fees charged for a policy filed as it will be issued regardless of the number of forms comprising that policy shall not exceed $2,500.

(iv) The Director may by rule exempt forms from such fees.

(kk) For filing an application for licensing of a reinsurance intermediary, $500.

(ll) For filing an application for renewal of a license of a reinsurance intermediary, $200.

(2) When printed copies or numerous copies of the same paper or records are furnished or certified, the Director may reduce such fees for copies if he finds them excessive. He may, when he considers it in the public interest, furnish without charge to state insurance departments and persons other than companies, copies or certified copies of reports of examinations and of other papers and records.

(3) The expenses incurred in any performance examination authorized by law shall be paid by the company or person being examined. The charge shall be reasonably related to the cost of the examination including but not limited to compensation of examiners, electronic data processing costs, supervision and preparation of an examination report and lodging and travel expenses. All lodging and travel expenses shall be in accord with the applicable travel regulations as published by the Department of Central Management Services and approved by the Governor's Travel Control Board, except that out-of-state lodging and travel expenses related to examinations authorized under Section 132 shall be in accordance with travel rates prescribed under paragraph 301-7.2 of the Federal Travel Regulations, 41 C.F.R. 301-7.2, for reimbursement of subsistence expenses incurred during official travel. All lodging and travel expenses may be reimbursed directly upon authorization of the Director. With the exception of the direct reimbursements authorized by the Director, all performance examination charges collected by the Department shall be paid to the Insurance Producer Producers Administration Fund, however, the electronic data processing costs incurred by the Department in the performance of any examination shall be billed directly to the company being examined for payment to the Statistical Services Revolving Fund.

(4) At the time of any service of process on the Director as attorney for such service, the Director shall charge and collect the sum of $20, which may be recovered as taxable costs by the party to the suit or action causing such service to be made if he prevails in such suit or action.

(5) (a) The costs incurred by the Department of Insurance in conducting any hearing authorized by law shall be assessed against the parties to the hearing in such proportion as the Director of Insurance may determine upon consideration of all relevant circumstances including: (1) the nature of the hearing; (2) whether the hearing was instigated by, or for the benefit of a particular party or parties; (3) whether there is a successful party on the merits of the proceeding; and (4) the relative levels of participation by the parties.

(b) For purposes of this subsection (5) costs incurred shall mean the hearing officer fees, court reporter fees, and travel expenses of Department of Insurance officers and employees; provided however, that costs incurred shall not include hearing officer fees or court reporter fees unless the Department has retained the services of independent contractors or outside experts to perform such functions.

(c) The Director shall make the assessment of costs incurred as part of the final order or decision arising out of the proceeding; provided, however, that such order or decision shall include findings and conclusions in support of the assessment of costs. This subsection (5) shall not be construed as permitting the payment of travel expenses unless calculated in accordance with the applicable travel regulations of the Department of Central Management Services, as approved by the Governor's Travel Control Board. The Director as part of such order or decision shall require all assessments for hearing officer fees and court reporter fees, if any, to be paid directly to the hearing officer or court reporter by the party(s) assessed for such costs. The assessments for travel expenses of Department officers and employees shall be reimbursable to the Director of Insurance for deposit to the fund out of which those expenses had been paid.

(d) The provisions of this subsection (5) shall apply in the case of any hearing conducted by the Director of Insurance not otherwise specifically provided for by law.

(6) The Director shall charge and collect an annual financial regulation fee from every domestic company for examination and analysis of its financial condition and to fund the internal costs and expenses of the Interstate Insurance Receivership Commission as may be allocated to the State of Illinois and companies doing an insurance business in this State pursuant to Article X of the Interstate Insurance Receivership Compact. The fee shall be the greater fixed amount based upon the combination of nationwide direct premium income and nationwide reinsurance assumed premium income or upon admitted assets calculated under this subsection as follows:

(a) Combination of nationwide direct premium income and nationwide reinsurance assumed premium.

(i) $150, if the premium is less than $500,000 and there is no reinsurance assumed premium;

(ii) $750, if the premium is $500,000 or more, but less than $5,000,000 and there is no reinsurance assumed premium; or if the premium is less than $5,000,000 and the reinsurance assumed premium is less than $10,000,000;

(iii) $3,750, if the premium is less than $5,000,000 and the reinsurance assumed premium is $10,000,000 or more;

(iv) $7,500, if the premium is $5,000,000 or more, but less than $10,000,000;

(v) $18,000, if the premium is $10,000,000 or more, but less than $25,000,000;

(vi) $22,500, if the premium is $25,000,000 or more, but less than $50,000,000;

(vii) $30,000, if the premium is $50,000,000 or more, but less than $100,000,000;

(viii) $37,500, if the premium is $100,000,000 or more.

(b) Admitted assets.

(i) $150, if admitted assets are less than $1,000,000;

(ii) $750, if admitted assets are $1,000,000 or more, but less than $5,000,000;

(iii) $3,750, if admitted assets are $5,000,000 or more, but less than $25,000,000;

(iv) $7,500, if admitted assets are $25,000,000 or more, but less than $50,000,000;

(v) $18,000, if admitted assets are $50,000,000 or more, but less than $100,000,000;

(vi) $22,500, if admitted assets are $100,000,000 or more, but less than $500,000,000;

(vii) $30,000, if admitted assets are $500,000,000 or more, but less than $1,000,000,000;

(viii) $37,500, if admitted assets are $1,000,000,000 or more.

(c) The sum of financial regulation fees charged to the domestic companies of the same affiliated group shall not exceed $250,000 in the aggregate in any single year and shall be billed by the Director to the member company designated by the group.

(7) The Director shall charge and collect an annual financial regulation fee from every foreign or alien company, except fraternal benefit societies, for the examination and analysis of its financial condition and to fund the internal costs and expenses of the Interstate Insurance Receivership Commission as may be allocated to the State of Illinois and companies doing an insurance business in this State pursuant to Article X of the Interstate Insurance Receivership Compact. The fee shall be a fixed amount based upon Illinois direct premium income and nationwide reinsurance assumed premium income in accordance with the following schedule:

(a) $150, if the premium is less than $500,000 and there is no reinsurance assumed premium;

(b) $750, if the premium is $500,000 or more, but less than $5,000,000 and there is no reinsurance assumed premium; or if the premium is less than $5,000,000 and the reinsurance assumed premium is less than $10,000,000;

(c) $3,750, if the premium is less than $5,000,000 and the reinsurance assumed premium is $10,000,000 or more;

(d) $7,500, if the premium is $5,000,000 or more, but less than $10,000,000;

(e) $18,000, if the premium is $10,000,000 or more, but less than $25,000,000;

(f) $22,500, if the premium is $25,000,000 or more, but less than $50,000,000;

(g) $30,000, if the premium is $50,000,000 or more, but less than $100,000,000;

(h) $37,500, if the premium is $100,000,000 or more.

The sum of financial regulation fees under this subsection (7) charged to the foreign or alien companies within the same affiliated group shall not exceed $250,000 in the aggregate in any single year and shall be billed by the Director to the member company designated by the group.

(8) Beginning January 1, 1992, the financial regulation fees imposed under subsections (6) and (7) of this Section shall be paid by each company or domestic affiliated group annually. After January 1, 1994, the fee shall be billed by Department invoice based upon the company's premium income or admitted assets as shown in its annual statement for the preceding calendar year. The invoice is due upon receipt and must be paid no later than June 30 of each calendar year. All financial regulation fees collected by the Department shall be paid to the Insurance Financial Regulation Fund. The Department may not collect financial examiner per diem charges from companies subject to subsections (6) and (7) of this Section undergoing financial examination after June 30, 1992.

(9) In addition to the financial regulation fee required by this Section, a company undergoing any financial examination authorized by law shall pay the following costs and expenses incurred by the Department: electronic data processing costs, the expenses authorized under Section 131.21 and subsection (d) of Section 132.4 of this Code, and lodging and travel expenses.

Electronic data processing costs incurred by the Department in the performance of any examination shall be billed directly to the company undergoing examination for payment to the Statistical Services Revolving Fund. Except for direct reimbursements authorized by the Director or direct payments made under Section 131.21 or subsection (d) of Section 132.4 of this Code, all financial regulation fees and all financial examination charges collected by the Department shall be paid to the Insurance Financial Regulation Fund.

All lodging and travel expenses shall be in accordance with applicable travel regulations published by the Department of Central Management Services and approved by the Governor's Travel Control Board, except that out-of-state lodging and travel expenses related to examinations authorized under Sections 132.1 through 132.7 shall be in accordance with travel rates prescribed under paragraph 301-7.2 of the Federal Travel Regulations, 41 C.F.R. 301-7.2, for reimbursement of subsistence expenses incurred during official travel. All lodging and travel expenses may be reimbursed directly upon the authorization of the Director.

In the case of an organization or person not subject to the financial regulation fee, the expenses incurred in any financial examination authorized by law shall be paid by the organization or person being examined. The charge shall be reasonably related to the cost of the examination including, but not limited to, compensation of examiners and other costs described in this subsection.

(10) Any company, person, or entity failing to make any payment of $150 or more as required under this Section shall be subject to the penalty and interest provisions provided for in subsections (4) and (7) of Section 412.

(11) Unless otherwise specified, all of the fees collected under this Section shall be paid into the Insurance Financial Regulation Fund.

(12) For purposes of this Section:

(a) "Domestic company" means a company as defined in Section 2 of this Code which is incorporated or organized under the laws of this State, and in addition includes a not-for-profit corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act, a health maintenance organization, and a limited health service organization.

(b) "Foreign company" means a company as defined in Section 2 of this Code which is incorporated or organized under the laws of any state of the United States other than this State and in addition includes a health maintenance organization and a limited health service organization which is incorporated or organized under the laws of any state of the United States other than this State.

(c) "Alien company" means a company as defined in Section 2 of this Code which is incorporated or organized under the laws of any country other than the United States.

(d) "Fraternal benefit society" means a corporation, society, order, lodge or voluntary association as defined in Section 282.1 of this Code.

(e) "Mutual benefit association" means a company, association or corporation authorized by the Director to do business in this State under the provisions of Article XVIII of this Code.

(f) "Burial society" means a person, firm, corporation, society or association of individuals authorized by the Director to do business in this State under the provisions of Article XIX of this Code.

(g) "Farm mutual" means a district, county and township mutual insurance company authorized by the Director to do business in this State under the provisions of the Farm Mutual Insurance Company Act of 1986.

(Source: P.A. 97-486, eff. 1-1-12; 97-603, eff. 8-26-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 10-18-12.)

(215 ILCS 5/511.111) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.58-111)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)

Sec. 511.111. Insurance Producer Administration Fund. All fees and fines paid to and collected by the Director under this Article shall be paid promptly after receipt thereof, together with a detailed statement of such fees, into a special fund in the State Treasury to be known as the Insurance Producer Administration Fund. The monies deposited into the Insurance Producer Administration Fund shall be used only for payment of the expenses of the Department and shall be appropriated as otherwise provided by law for the payment of such expenses. Moneys in the Insurance Producer Producers Administration Fund may be transferred to the Professions Indirect Cost Fund, as authorized under Section 2105-300 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; revised 10-18-12.)

(215 ILCS 5/513a5) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.60a5)

Sec. 513a5. Insurance Producer Administration Fund. All fees and penalties paid to and collected by the Director under this Article shall be paid promptly after receipt, together with a detailed statement of the fees, into the Insurance Producer Producers Administration Fund.

(Source: P.A. 87-811; revised 10-18-12.)

Section 350. The Title Insurance Act is amended by changing Section 14.1 as follows:

(215 ILCS 155/14.1)

Sec. 14.1. Financial Institution Institutions Fund. All moneys received by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation under this Act shall be deposited in the Financial Institution Institutions Fund created under Section 6z-26 of the State Finance Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-893, eff. 6-20-06; revised 10-18-12.)

Section 355. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Section 9-220 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/9-220) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 9-220)

Sec. 9-220. Rate changes based on changes in fuel costs.

(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 9-201, the Commission may authorize the increase or decrease of rates and charges based upon changes in the cost of fuel used in the generation or production of electric power, changes in the cost of purchased power, or changes in the cost of purchased gas through the application of fuel adjustment clauses or purchased gas adjustment clauses. The Commission may also authorize the increase or decrease of rates and charges based upon expenditures or revenues resulting from the purchase or sale of emission allowances created under the federal Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990, through such fuel adjustment clauses, as a cost of fuel. For the purposes of this paragraph, cost of fuel used in the generation or production of electric power shall include the amount of any fees paid by the utility for the implementation and operation of a process for the desulfurization of the flue gas when burning high sulfur coal at any location within the State of Illinois irrespective of the attainment status designation of such location; but shall not include transportation costs of coal (i) except to the extent that for contracts entered into on and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, the cost of the coal, including transportation costs, constitutes the lowest cost for adequate and reliable fuel supply reasonably available to the public utility in comparison to the cost, including transportation costs, of other adequate and reliable sources of fuel supply reasonably available to the public utility, or (ii) except as otherwise provided in the next 3 sentences of this paragraph. Such costs of fuel shall, when requested by a utility or at the conclusion of the utility's next general electric rate proceeding, whichever shall first occur, include transportation costs of coal purchased under existing coal purchase contracts. For purposes of this paragraph "existing coal purchase contracts" means contracts for the purchase of coal in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991, as such contracts may thereafter be amended, but only to the extent that any such amendment does not increase the aggregate quantity of coal to be purchased under such contract. Nothing herein shall authorize an electric utility to recover through its fuel adjustment clause any amounts of transportation costs of coal that were included in the revenue requirement used to set base rates in its most recent general rate proceeding. Cost shall be based upon uniformly applied accounting principles. Annually, the Commission shall initiate public hearings to determine whether the clauses reflect actual costs of fuel, gas, power, or coal transportation purchased to determine whether such purchases were prudent, and to reconcile any amounts collected with the actual costs of fuel, power, gas, or coal transportation prudently purchased. In each such proceeding, the burden of proof shall be upon the utility to establish the prudence of its cost of fuel, power, gas, or coal transportation purchases and costs. The Commission shall issue its final order in each such annual proceeding for an electric utility by December 31 of the year immediately following the year to which the proceeding pertains, provided, that the Commission shall issue its final order with respect to such annual proceeding for the years 1996 and earlier by December 31, 1998.

(b) A public utility providing electric service, other than a public utility described in subsections (e) or (f) of this Section, may at any time during the mandatory transition period file with the Commission proposed tariff sheets that eliminate the public utility's fuel adjustment clause and adjust the public utility's base rate tariffs by the amount necessary for the base fuel component of the base rates to recover the public utility's average fuel and power supply costs per kilowatt-hour for the 2 most recent years for which the Commission has issued final orders in annual proceedings pursuant to subsection (a), where the average fuel and power supply costs per kilowatt-hour shall be calculated as the sum of the public utility's prudent and allowable fuel and power supply costs as found by the Commission in the 2 proceedings divided by the public utility's actual jurisdictional kilowatt-hour sales for those 2 years. Notwithstanding any contrary or inconsistent provisions in Section 9-201 of this Act, in subsection (a) of this Section or in any rules or regulations promulgated by the Commission pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section, the Commission shall review and shall by order approve, or approve as modified, the proposed tariff sheets within 60 days after the date of the public utility's filing. The Commission may modify the public utility's proposed tariff sheets only to the extent the Commission finds necessary to achieve conformance to the requirements of this subsection (b). During the 5 years following the date of the Commission's order, but in any event no earlier than January 1, 2007, a public utility whose fuel adjustment clause has been eliminated pursuant to this subsection shall not file proposed tariff sheets seeking, or otherwise petition the Commission for, reinstatement of a fuel adjustment clause.

(c) Notwithstanding any contrary or inconsistent provisions in Section 9-201 of this Act, in subsection (a) of this Section or in any rules or regulations promulgated by the Commission pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section, a public utility providing electric service, other than a public utility described in subsection (e) or (f) of this Section, may at any time during the mandatory transition period file with the Commission proposed tariff sheets that establish the rate per kilowatt-hour to be applied pursuant to the public utility's fuel adjustment clause at the average value for such rate during the preceding 24 months, provided that such average rate results in a credit to customers' bills, without making any revisions to the public utility's base rate tariffs. The proposed tariff sheets shall establish the fuel adjustment rate for a specific time period of at least 3 years but not more than 5 years, provided that the terms and conditions for any reinstatement earlier than 5 years shall be set forth in the proposed tariff sheets and subject to modification or approval by the Commission. The Commission shall review and shall by order approve the proposed tariff sheets if it finds that the requirements of this subsection are met. The Commission shall not conduct the annual hearings specified in the last 3 sentences of subsection (a) of this Section for the utility for the period that the factor established pursuant to this subsection is in effect.

(d) A public utility providing electric service, or a public utility providing gas service may file with the Commission proposed tariff sheets that eliminate the public utility's fuel or purchased gas adjustment clause and adjust the public utility's base rate tariffs to provide for recovery of power supply costs or gas supply costs that would have been recovered through such clause; provided, that the provisions of this subsection (d) shall not be available to a public utility described in subsections (e) or (f) of this Section to eliminate its fuel adjustment clause. Notwithstanding any contrary or inconsistent provisions in Section 9-201 of this Act, in subsection (a) of this Section, or in any rules or regulations promulgated by the Commission pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section, the Commission shall review and shall by order approve, or approve as modified in the Commission's order, the proposed tariff sheets within 240 days after the date of the public utility's filing. The Commission's order shall approve rates and charges that the Commission, based on information in the public utility's filing or on the record if a hearing is held by the Commission, finds will recover the reasonable, prudent and necessary jurisdictional power supply costs or gas supply costs incurred or to be incurred by the public utility during a 12 month period found by the Commission to be appropriate for these purposes, provided, that such period shall be either (i) a 12 month historical period occurring during the 15 months ending on the date of the public utility's filing, or (ii) a 12 month future period ending no later than 15 months following the date of the public utility's filing. The public utility shall include with its tariff filing information showing both (1) its actual jurisdictional power supply costs or gas supply costs for a 12 month historical period conforming to (i) above and (2) its projected jurisdictional power supply costs or gas supply costs for a future 12 month period conforming to (ii) above. If the Commission's order requires modifications in the tariff sheets filed by the public utility, the public utility shall have 7 days following the date of the order to notify the Commission whether the public utility will implement the modified tariffs or elect to continue its fuel or purchased gas adjustment clause in force as though no order had been entered. The Commission's order shall provide for any reconciliation of power supply costs or gas supply costs, as the case may be, and associated revenues through the date that the public utility's fuel or purchased gas adjustment clause is eliminated. During the 5 years following the date of the Commission's order, a public utility whose fuel or purchased gas adjustment clause has been eliminated pursuant to this subsection shall not file proposed tariff sheets seeking, or otherwise petition the Commission for, reinstatement or adoption of a fuel or purchased gas adjustment clause. Nothing in this subsection (d) shall be construed as limiting the Commission's authority to eliminate a public utility's fuel adjustment clause or purchased gas adjustment clause in accordance with any other applicable provisions of this Act.

(e) Notwithstanding any contrary or inconsistent provisions in Section 9-201 of this Act, in subsection (a) of this Section, or in any rules promulgated by the Commission pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section, a public utility providing electric service to more than 1,000,000 customers in this State may, within the first 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, file with the Commission proposed tariff sheets that eliminate, effective January 1, 1997, the public utility's fuel adjustment clause without adjusting its base rates, and such tariff sheets shall be effective upon filing. To the extent the application of the fuel adjustment clause had resulted in net charges to customers after January 1, 1997, the utility shall also file a tariff sheet that provides for a refund stated on a per kilowatt-hour basis of such charges over a period not to exceed 6 months; provided however, that such refund shall not include the proportional amounts of taxes paid under the Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, Service Occupation Tax Act, and Retailers' Occupation Tax Act on fuel used in generation. The Commission shall issue an order within 45 days after the date of the public utility's filing approving or approving as modified such tariff sheet. If the fuel adjustment clause is eliminated pursuant to this subsection, the Commission shall not conduct the annual hearings specified in the last 3 sentences of subsection (a) of this Section for the utility for any period after December 31, 1996 and prior to any reinstatement of such clause. A public utility whose fuel adjustment clause has been eliminated pursuant to this subsection shall not file a proposed tariff sheet seeking, or otherwise petition the Commission for, reinstatement of the fuel adjustment clause prior to January 1, 2007.

(f) Notwithstanding any contrary or inconsistent provisions in Section 9-201 of this Act, in subsection (a) of this Section, or in any rules or regulations promulgated by the Commission pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section, a public utility providing electric service to more than 500,000 customers but fewer than 1,000,000 customers in this State may, within the first 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, file with the Commission proposed tariff sheets that eliminate, effective January 1, 1997, the public utility's fuel adjustment clause and adjust its base rates by the amount necessary for the base fuel component of the base rates to recover 91% of the public utility's average fuel and power supply costs for the 2 most recent years for which the Commission, as of January 1, 1997, has issued final orders in annual proceedings pursuant to subsection (a), where the average fuel and power supply costs per kilowatt-hour shall be calculated as the sum of the public utility's prudent and allowable fuel and power supply costs as found by the Commission in the 2 proceedings divided by the public utility's actual jurisdictional kilowatt-hour sales for those 2 years, provided, that such tariff sheets shall be effective upon filing. To the extent the application of the fuel adjustment clause had resulted in net charges to customers after January 1, 1997, the utility shall also file a tariff sheet that provides for a refund stated on a per kilowatt-hour basis of such charges over a period not to exceed 6 months. Provided however, that such refund shall not include the proportional amounts of taxes paid under the Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, Service Occupation Tax Act, and Retailers' Occupation Tax Act on fuel used in generation. The Commission shall issue an order within 45 days after the date of the public utility's filing approving or approving as modified such tariff sheet. If the fuel adjustment clause is eliminated pursuant to this subsection, the Commission shall not conduct the annual hearings specified in the last 3 sentences of subsection (a) of this Section for the utility for any period after December 31, 1996 and prior to any reinstatement of such clause. A public utility whose fuel adjustment clause has been eliminated pursuant to this subsection shall not file a proposed tariff sheet seeking, or otherwise petition the Commission for, reinstatement of the fuel adjustment clause prior to January 1, 2007.

(g) The Commission shall have authority to promulgate rules and regulations to carry out the provisions of this Section.

(h) Any Illinois gas utility may enter into a contract on or before September 30, 2011 for up to 10 years of supply with any company for the purchase of substitute natural gas (SNG) produced from coal through the gasification process if the company has commenced construction of a clean coal SNG facility by July 1, 2012 and commencement of construction shall mean that material physical site work has occurred, such as site clearing and excavation, water runoff prevention, water retention reservoir preparation, or foundation development. The contract shall contain the following provisions: (i) at least 90% of feedstock to be used in the gasification process shall be coal with a high volatile bituminous rank and greater than 1.7 pounds of sulfur per million Btu content; (ii) at the time the contract term commences, the price per million Btu may not exceed $7.95 in 2008 dollars, adjusted annually based on the change in the Annual Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for the Midwest Region as published in April by the United States Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics (or a suitable Consumer Price Index calculation if this Consumer Price Index is not available) for the previous calendar year; provided that the price per million Btu shall not exceed $9.95 at any time during the contract; (iii) the utility's supply contract for the purchase of SNG does not exceed 15% of the annual system supply requirements of the utility as of 2008; and (iv) the contract costs pursuant to subsection (h-10) of this Section shall not include any lobbying expenses, charitable contributions, advertising, organizational memberships, carbon dioxide pipeline or sequestration expenses, or marketing expenses.

Any gas utility that is providing service to more than 150,000 customers on August 2, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-239) shall either elect to enter into a contract on or before September 30, 2011 for 10 years of SNG supply with the owner of a clean coal SNG facility or to file biennial rate proceedings before the Commission in the years 2012, 2014, and 2016, with such filings made after August 2, 2011 and no later than September 30 of the years 2012, 2014, and 2016 consistent with all requirements of 83 Ill. Adm. Code 255 and 285 as though the gas utility were filing for an increase in its rates, without regard to whether such filing would produce an increase, a decrease, or no change in the gas utility's rates, and the Commission shall review the gas utility's filing and shall issue its order in accordance with the provisions of Section 9-201 of this Act.

Within 7 days after August 2, 2011, the owner of the clean coal SNG facility shall submit to the Illinois Power Agency and each gas utility that is providing service to more than 150,000 customers on August 2, 2011 a copy of a draft contract. Within 30 days after the receipt of the draft contract, each such gas utility shall provide the Illinois Power Agency and the owner of the clean coal SNG facility with its comments and recommended revisions to the draft contract. Within 7 days after the receipt of the gas utility's comments and recommended revisions, the owner of the facility shall submit its responsive comments and a further revised draft of the contract to the Illinois Power Agency. The Illinois Power Agency shall review the draft contract and comments.

During its review of the draft contract, the Illinois Power Agency shall:

(1) review and confirm in writing that the terms stated in this subsection (h) are incorporated in the SNG contract;

(2) review the SNG pricing formula included in the contract and approve that formula if the Illinois Power Agency determines that the formula, at the time the contract term commences: (A) starts with a price of $6.50 per MMBtu adjusted by the adjusted final capitalized plant cost; (B) takes into account budgeted miscellaneous net revenue after cost allowance, including sale of SNG produced by the clean coal SNG facility above the nameplate capacity of the facility and other by-products produced by the facility, as approved by the Illinois Power Agency; (C) does not include carbon dioxide transportation or sequestration expenses; and (D) includes all provisions required under this subsection (h); if the Illinois Power Agency does not approve of the SNG pricing formula, then the Illinois Power Agency shall modify the formula to ensure that it meets the requirements of this subsection (h);

(3) review and approve the amount of budgeted miscellaneous net revenue after cost allowance, including sale of SNG produced by the clean coal SNG facility above the nameplate capacity of the facility and other by-products produced by the facility, to be included in the pricing formula; the Illinois Power Agency shall approve the amount of budgeted miscellaneous net revenue to be included in the pricing formula if it determines the budgeted amount to be reasonable and accurate;

(4) review and confirm in writing that using the EIA Annual Energy Outlook-2011 Henry Hub Spot Price, the contract terms set out in subsection (h), the reconciliation account terms as set out in subsection (h-15), and an estimated inflation rate of 2.5% for each corresponding year, that there will be no cumulative estimated increase for residential customers; and

(5) allocate the nameplate capacity of the clean coal SNG by total therms sold to ultimate customers by each gas utility in 2008; provided, however, no utility shall be required to purchase more than 42% of the projected annual output of the facility; additionally, the Illinois Power Agency shall further adjust the allocation only as required to take into account (A) adverse consolidation, derivative, or lease impacts to the balance sheet or income statement of any gas utility or (B) the physical capacity of the gas utility to accept SNG.

If the parties to the contract do not agree on the terms therein, then the Illinois Power Agency shall retain an independent mediator to mediate the dispute between the parties. If the parties are in agreement on the terms of the contract, then the Illinois Power Agency shall approve the contract. If after mediation the parties have failed to come to agreement, then the Illinois Power Agency shall revise the draft contract as necessary to confirm that the contract contains only terms that are reasonable and equitable. The Illinois Power Agency may, in its discretion, retain an independent, qualified, and experienced expert to assist in its obligations under this subsection (h). The Illinois Power Agency shall adopt and make public policies detailing the processes for retaining a mediator and an expert under this subsection (h). Any mediator or expert retained under this subsection (h) shall be retained no later than 60 days after August 2, 2011.

The Illinois Power Agency shall complete all of its responsibilities under this subsection (h) within 60 days after August 2, 2011. The clean coal SNG facility shall pay a reasonable fee as required by the Illinois Power Agency for its services under this subsection (h) and shall pay the mediator's and expert's reasonable fees, if any. A gas utility and its customers shall have no obligation to reimburse the clean coal SNG facility or the Illinois Power Agency of any such costs.

Within 30 days after commercial production of SNG has begun, the Commission shall initiate a review to determine whether the final capitalized plant cost of the clean coal SNG facility reflects actual incurred costs and whether the incurred costs were reasonable. In determining the actual incurred costs included in the final capitalized plant cost and the reasonableness of those costs, the Commission may in its discretion retain independent, qualified, and experienced experts to assist in its determination. The expert shall not own or control any direct or indirect interest in the clean coal SNG facility and shall have no contractual relationship with the clean coal SNG facility. If an expert is retained by the Commission, then the clean coal SNG facility shall pay the expert's reasonable fees. The fees shall not be passed on to a utility or its customers. The Commission shall adopt and make public a policy detailing the process for retaining experts under this subsection (h).

Within 30 days after completion of its review, the Commission shall initiate a formal proceeding on the final capitalized plant cost of the clean coal SNG facility at which comments and testimony may be submitted by any interested parties and the public. If the Commission finds that the final capitalized plant cost includes costs that were not actually incurred or costs that were unreasonably incurred, then the Commission shall disallow the amount of non-incurred or unreasonable costs from the SNG price under contracts entered into under this subsection (h). If the Commission disallows any costs, then the Commission shall adjust the SNG price using the price formula in the contract approved by the Illinois Power Agency under this subsection (h) to reflect the disallowed costs and shall enter an order specifying the revised price. In addition, the Commission's order shall direct the clean coal SNG facility to issue refunds of such sums as shall represent the difference between actual gross revenues and the gross revenue that would have been obtained based upon the same volume, from the price revised by the Commission. Any refund shall include interest calculated at a rate determined by the Commission and shall be returned according to procedures prescribed by the Commission.

Nothing in this subsection (h) shall preclude any party affected by a decision of the Commission under this subsection (h) from seeking judicial review of the Commission's decision.

(h-1) Any Illinois gas utility may enter into a sourcing agreement for up to 30 years of supply with the clean coal SNG brownfield facility if the clean coal SNG brownfield facility has commenced construction. Any gas utility that is providing service to more than 150,000 customers on July 13, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-096) shall either elect to file biennial rate proceedings before the Commission in the years 2012, 2014, and 2016 or enter into a sourcing agreement or sourcing agreements with a clean coal SNG brownfield facility with an initial term of 30 years for either (i) a percentage of 43,500,000,000 cubic feet per year, such that the utilities entering into sourcing agreements with the clean coal SNG brownfield facility purchase 100%, allocated by total therms sold to ultimate customers by each gas utility in 2008 or (ii) such lesser amount as may be available from the clean coal SNG brownfield facility; provided that no utility shall be required to purchase more than 42% of the projected annual output of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, with the remainder of such utility's obligation to be divided proportionately between the other utilities, and provided that the Illinois Power Agency shall further adjust the allocation only as required to take into account adverse consolidation, derivative, or lease impacts to the balance sheet or income statement of any gas utility.

A gas utility electing to file biennial rate proceedings before the Commission must file a notice of its election with the Commission within 60 days after July 13, 2011 or its right to make the election is irrevocably waived. A gas utility electing to file biennial rate proceedings shall make such filings no later than August 1 of the years 2012, 2014, and 2016, consistent with all requirements of 83 Ill. Adm. Code 255 and 285 as though the gas utility were filing for an increase in its rates, without regard to whether such filing would produce an increase, a decrease, or no change in the gas utility's rates, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, the Commission shall fully review the gas utility's filing and shall issue its order in accordance with the provisions of Section 9-201 of this Act, regardless of whether the Commission has approved a formula rate for the gas utility.

Within 15 days after July 13, 2011, the owner of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall submit to the Illinois Power Agency and each gas utility that is providing service to more than 150,000 customers on July 13, 2011 a copy of a draft sourcing agreement. Within 45 days after receipt of the draft sourcing agreement, each such gas utility shall provide the Illinois Power Agency and the owner of a clean coal SNG brownfield facility with its comments and recommended revisions to the draft sourcing agreement. Within 15 days after the receipt of the gas utility's comments and recommended revisions, the owner of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall submit its responsive comments and a further revised draft of the sourcing agreement to the Illinois Power Agency. The Illinois Power Agency shall review the draft sourcing agreement and comments.

If the parties to the sourcing agreement do not agree on the terms therein, then the Illinois Power Agency shall retain an independent mediator to mediate the dispute between the parties. If the parties are in agreement on the terms of the sourcing agreement, the Illinois Power Agency shall approve the final draft sourcing agreement. If after mediation the parties have failed to come to agreement, then the Illinois Power Agency shall revise the draft sourcing agreement as necessary to confirm that the final draft sourcing agreement contains only terms that are reasonable and equitable. The Illinois Power Agency shall adopt and make public a policy detailing the process for retaining a mediator under this subsection (h-1). Any mediator retained to assist with mediating disputes between the parties regarding the sourcing agreement shall be retained no later than 60 days after July 13, 2011.

Upon approval of a final draft agreement, the Illinois Power Agency shall submit the final draft agreement to the Capital Development Board and the Commission no later than 90 days after July 13, 2011. The gas utility and the clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall pay a reasonable fee as required by the Illinois Power Agency for its services under this subsection (h-1) and shall pay the mediator's reasonable fees, if any. The Illinois Power Agency shall adopt and make public a policy detailing the process for retaining a mediator under this Section.

The sourcing agreement between a gas utility and the clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall contain the following provisions:

(1) Any and all coal used in the gasification process must be coal that has high volatile bituminous rank and greater than 1.7 pounds of sulfur per million Btu content.

(2) Coal and petroleum coke are feedstocks for the gasification process, with coal comprising at least 50% of the total feedstock over the term of the sourcing agreement unless the facility reasonably determines that it is necessary to use additional petroleum coke to deliver net consumer savings, in which case the facility shall use coal for at least 35% of the total feedstock over the term of any sourcing agreement and with the feedstocks to be procured in accordance with requirements of Section 1-78 of the Illinois Power Agency Act.

(3) The sourcing agreement has an initial term that once entered into terminates no more than 30 years after the commencement of the commercial production of SNG at the clean coal SNG brownfield facility.

(4) The clean coal SNG brownfield facility guarantees a minimum of $100,000,000 in consumer savings to customers of the utilities that have entered into sourcing agreements with the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, calculated in real 2010 dollars at the conclusion of the term of the sourcing agreement by comparing the delivered SNG price to the Chicago City-gate price on a weighted daily basis for each day over the entire term of the sourcing agreement, to be provided in accordance with subsection (h-2) of this Section.

(5) Prior to the clean coal SNG brownfield facility issuing a notice to proceed to construction, the clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall establish a consumer protection reserve account for the benefit of the customers of the utilities that have entered into sourcing agreements with the clean coal SNG brownfield facility pursuant to this subsection (h-1), with cash principal in the amount of $150,000,000. This cash principal shall only be recoverable through the consumer protection reserve account and not as a cost to be recovered in the delivered SNG price pursuant to subsection (h-3) of this Section. The consumer protection reserve account shall be maintained and administered by an independent trustee that is mutually agreed upon by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, the utilities, and the Commission in an interest-bearing account in accordance with subsection (h-2) of this Section.

"Consumer protection reserve account principal maximum amount" shall mean the maximum amount of principal to be maintained in the consumer protection reserve account. During the first 2 years of operation of the facility, there shall be no consumer protection reserve account maximum amount. After the first 2 years of operation of the facility, the consumer protection reserve account maximum amount shall be $150,000,000. After 5 years of operation, and every 5 years thereafter, the trustee shall calculate the 5-year average balance of the consumer protection reserve account. If the trustee determines that during the prior 5 years the consumer protection reserve account has had an average account balance of less than $75,000,000, then the consumer protection reserve account principal maximum amount shall be increased by $5,000,000. If the trustee determines that during the prior 5 years the consumer protection reserve account has had an average account balance of more than $75,000,000, then the consumer protection reserve account principal maximum amount shall be decreased by $5,000,000.

(6) The clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall identify and sell economically viable by-products produced by the facility.

(7) Fifty percent of all additional net revenue, defined as miscellaneous net revenue from products produced by the facility and delivered during the month after cost allowance for costs associated with additional net revenue that are not otherwise recoverable pursuant to subsection (h-3) of this Section, including net revenue from sales of substitute natural gas derived from the facility above the nameplate capacity of the facility and other by-products produced by the facility, shall be credited to the consumer protection reserve account pursuant to subsection (h-2) of this Section.

(8) The delivered SNG price per million btu to be paid monthly by the utility to the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, which shall be based only upon the following: (A) a capital recovery charge, operations and maintenance costs, and sequestration costs, only to the extent approved by the Commission pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of subsection (h-3) of this Section; (B) the actual delivered and processed fuel costs pursuant to paragraph (4) of subsection (h-3) of this Section; (C) actual costs of SNG transportation pursuant to paragraph (6) of subsection (h-3) of this Section; (D) certain taxes and fees imposed by the federal government, the State, or any unit of local government as provided in paragraph (6) of subsection (h-3) of this Section; and (E) the credit, if any, from the consumer protection reserve account pursuant to subsection (h-2) of this Section. The delivered SNG price per million Btu shall proportionately reflect these elements over the term of the sourcing agreement.

(9) A formula to translate the recoverable costs and charges under subsection (h-3) of this Section into the delivered SNG price per million btu.

(10) Title to the SNG shall pass at a mutually agreeable point in Illinois, and may provide that, rather than the utility taking title to the SNG, a mutually agreed upon third-party gas marketer pursuant to a contract approved by the Illinois Power Agency or its designee may take title to the SNG pursuant to an agreement between the utility, the owner of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, and the third-party gas marketer.

(11) A utility may exit the sourcing agreement without penalty if the clean coal SNG brownfield facility does not commence construction by July 1, 2015.

(12) A utility is responsible to pay only the Commission determined unit price cost of SNG that is purchased by the utility. Nothing in the sourcing agreement will obligate a utility to invest capital in a clean coal SNG brownfield facility.

(13) The quality of SNG must, at a minimum, be equivalent to the quality required for interstate pipeline gas before a utility is required to accept and pay for SNG gas.

(14) Nothing in the sourcing agreement will require a utility to construct any facilities to accept delivery of SNG. Provided, however, if a utility is required by law or otherwise elects to connect the clean coal SNG brownfield facility to an interstate pipeline, then the utility shall be entitled to recover pursuant to its tariffs all just and reasonable costs that are prudently incurred. Any costs incurred by the utility to receive, deliver, manage, or otherwise accommodate purchases under the SNG sourcing agreement will be fully recoverable through a utility's purchased gas adjustment clause rider mechanism in conjunction with a SNG brownfield facility rider mechanism. The SNG brownfield facility rider mechanism (A) shall be applicable to all customers who receive transportation service from the utility, (B) shall be designed to have an equal percent impact on the transportation services rates of each class of the utility's customers, and (C) shall accurately reflect the net consumer savings, if any, and above-market costs, if any, associated with the utility receiving, delivering, managing, or otherwise accommodating purchases under the SNG sourcing agreement.

(15) Remedies for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility's failure to deliver a designated amount for a designated period.

(16) The clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall make a good faith effort to ensure that an amount equal to not less than 15% of the value of its prime construction contract for the facility shall be established as a goal to be awarded to minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by a person with a disability; provided that at least 75% of the amount of such total goal shall be for minority owned businesses. "Minority owned business", "female owned business", and "business owned by a person with a disability" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(17) Prior to the clean coal SNG brownfield facility issuing a notice to proceed to construction, the clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall file with the Commission a certificate from an independent engineer that the clean coal SNG brownfield facility has (A) obtained all applicable State and federal environmental permits required for construction; (B) obtained approval from the Commission of a carbon capture and sequestration plan; and (C) obtained all necessary permits required for construction for the transportation and sequestration of carbon dioxide as set forth in the Commission-approved carbon capture and sequestration plan.

(h-2) Consumer protection reserve account. The clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall guarantee a minimum of $100,000,000 in consumer savings to customers of the utilities that have entered into sourcing agreements with the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, calculated in real 2010 dollars at the conclusion of the term of the sourcing agreement by comparing the delivered SNG price to the Chicago City-gate price on a weighted daily basis for each day over the entire term of the sourcing agreement. Prior to the clean coal SNG brownfield facility issuing a notice to proceed to construction, the clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall establish a consumer protection reserve account for the benefit of the retail customers of the utilities that have entered into sourcing agreements with the clean coal SNG brownfield facility pursuant to subsection (h-1), with cash principal in the amount of $150,000,000. Such cash principal shall only be recovered through the consumer protection reserve account and not as a cost to be recovered in the delivered SNG price pursuant to subsection (h-3) of this Section. The consumer protection reserve account shall be maintained and administered by an independent trustee that is mutually agreed upon by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, the utilities, and the Commission in an interest-bearing account in accordance with the following:

(1) The clean coal SNG brownfield facility monthly shall calculate (A) the difference between the monthly delivered SNG price and the Chicago City-gate price, by comparing the delivered SNG price, which shall include the cost of transportation to the delivery point, if any, to the Chicago City-gate price on a weighted daily basis for each day of the prior month based upon a mutually agreed upon published index and (B) the overage amount, if any, by calculating the annualized incremental additional cost, if any, of the delivered SNG in excess of 2.015% of the average annual inflation-adjusted amounts paid by all gas distribution customers in connection with natural gas service during the 5 years ending May 31, 2010.

(2) During the first 2 years of operation of the facility:

(A) to the extent there is an overage amount, the consumer protection reserve account shall be used to provide a credit to reduce the SNG price by an amount equal to the overage amount; and

(B) to the extent the monthly delivered SNG price is less than or equal to the Chicago City-gate price, the utility shall credit the difference between the monthly delivered SNG price and the monthly Chicago City-gate price, if any, to the consumer protection reserve account. Such credit issued pursuant to this paragraph (B) shall be deemed prudent and reasonable and not subject to a Commission prudence review;

(3) After 2 years of operation of the facility, and monthly, on an on-going basis, thereafter:

(A) to the extent that the monthly delivered SNG price is less than or equal to the Chicago City-gate price, calculated using the weighted average of the daily Chicago City-gate price on a daily basis over the entire month, the utility shall credit the difference, if any, to the consumer protection reserve account. Such credit issued pursuant to this subparagraph (A) shall be deemed prudent and reasonable and not subject to a Commission prudence review;

(B) any amounts in the consumer protection reserve account in excess of the consumer protection reserve account principal maximum amount shall be distributed as follows: (i) if retail customers have not realized net consumer savings, calculated by comparing the delivered SNG price to the weighted average of the daily Chicago City-gate price on a daily basis over the entire term of the sourcing agreement to date, then 50% of any amounts in the consumer protection reserve account in excess of the consumer protection reserve account principal maximum shall be distributed to the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, with the remaining 50% of any such additional amounts being credited to retail customers, and (ii) if retail customers have realized net consumer savings, then 100% of any amounts in the consumer protection reserve account in excess of the consumer protection reserve account principal maximum shall be distributed to the clean coal SNG brownfield facility; provided, however, that under no circumstances shall the total cumulative amount distributed to the clean coal SNG brownfield facility under this subparagraph (B) exceed $150,000,000;

(C) to the extent there is an overage amount, after distributing the amounts pursuant to subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (3), if any, the consumer protection reserve account shall be used to provide a credit to reduce the SNG price by an amount equal to the overage amount;

(D) if retail customers have realized net consumer savings, calculated by comparing the delivered SNG price to the weighted average of the daily Chicago City-gate price on a daily basis over the entire term of the sourcing agreement to date, then after distributing the amounts pursuant to subparagraphs (B) and (C) of this paragraph (3), 50% of any additional amounts in the consumer protection reserve account in excess of the consumer protection reserve account principal maximum shall be distributed to the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, with the remaining 50% of any such additional amounts being credited to retail customers; provided, however, that if retail customers have not realized such net consumer savings, no such distribution shall be made to the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, and 100% of such additional amounts shall be credited to the retail customers to the extent the consumer protection reserve account exceeds the consumer protection reserve account principal maximum amount.

(4) Fifty percent of all additional net revenue, defined as miscellaneous net revenue after cost allowance for costs associated with additional net revenue that are not otherwise recoverable pursuant to subsection (h-3) of this Section, including net revenue from sales of substitute natural gas derived from the facility above the nameplate capacity of the facility and other by-products produced by the facility, shall be credited to the consumer protection reserve account.

(5) At the conclusion of the term of the sourcing agreement, to the extent retail customers have not saved the minimum of $100,000,000 in consumer savings as guaranteed in this subsection (h-2), amounts in the consumer protection reserve account shall be credited to retail customers to the extent the retail customers have saved the minimum of $100,000,000; 50% of any additional amounts in the consumer protection reserve account shall be distributed to the company, and the remaining 50% shall be distributed to retail customers.

(6) If, at the conclusion of the term of the sourcing agreement, the customers have not saved the minimum $100,000,000 in savings as guaranteed in this subsection (h-2) and the consumer protection reserve account has been depleted, then the clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall be liable for any remaining amount owed to the retail customers to the extent that the customers are provided with the $100,000,000 in savings as guaranteed in this subsection (h-2). The retail customers shall have first priority in recovering that debt above any creditors, except the original senior secured lender to the extent that the original senior secured lender has any senior secured debt outstanding, including any clean coal SNG brownfield facility parent companies or affiliates.

(7) The clean coal SNG brownfield facility, the utilities, and the trustee shall work together to take commercially reasonable steps to minimize the tax impact of these transactions, while preserving the consumer benefits.

(8) The clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall each month, starting in the facility's first year of commercial operation, file with the Commission, in such form as the Commission shall require, a report as to the consumer protection reserve account. The monthly report must contain the following information:

(A) the extent the monthly delivered SNG price is greater than, less than, or equal to the Chicago City-gate price;

(B) the amount credited or debited to the consumer protection reserve account during the month;

(C) the amounts credited to consumers and distributed to the clean coal SNG brownfield facility during the month;

(D) the total amount of the consumer protection reserve account at the beginning and end of the month;

(E) the total amount of consumer savings to date;

(F) a confidential summary of the inputs used to calculate the additional net revenue; and

(G) any other additional information the Commission shall require.

When any report is erroneous or defective or appears to the Commission to be erroneous or defective, the Commission may notify the clean coal SNG brownfield facility to amend the report within 30 days, and, before or after the termination of the 30-day period, the Commission may examine the trustee of the consumer protection reserve account or the officers, agents, employees, books, records, or accounts of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility and correct such items in the report as upon such examination the Commission may find defective or erroneous. All reports shall be under oath.

All reports made to the Commission by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility and the contents of the reports shall be open to public inspection and shall be deemed a public record under the Freedom of Information Act. Such reports shall be preserved in the office of the Commission. The Commission shall publish an annual summary of the reports prior to February 1 of the following year. The annual summary shall be made available to the public on the Commission's website and shall be submitted to the General Assembly.

Any facility that fails to file a report required under this paragraph (8) to the Commission within the time specified or to make specific answer to any question propounded by the Commission within 30 days from the time it is lawfully required to do so, or within such further time not to exceed 90 days as may in its discretion be allowed by the Commission, shall pay a penalty of $500 to the Commission for each day it is in default.

Any person who willfully makes any false report to the Commission or to any member, officer, or employee thereof, any person who willfully in a report withholds or fails to provide material information to which the Commission is entitled under this paragraph (8) and which information is either required to be filed by statute, rule, regulation, order, or decision of the Commission or has been requested by the Commission, and any person who willfully aids or abets such person shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(h-3) Recoverable costs and revenue by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility.

(1) A capital recovery charge approved by the Commission shall be recoverable by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility under a sourcing agreement. The capital recovery charge shall be comprised of capital costs and a reasonable rate of return. "Capital costs" means costs to be incurred in connection with the construction and development of a facility, as defined in Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, and such other costs as the Capital Development Board deems appropriate to be recovered in the capital recovery charge.

(A) Capital costs. The Capital Development Board shall calculate a range of capital costs that it believes would be reasonable for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility to recover under the sourcing agreement. In making this determination, the Capital Development Board shall review the facility cost report, if any, of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, adjusting the results based on the change in the Annual Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for the Midwest Region as published in April by the United States Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics, the final draft of the sourcing agreement, and the rate of return approved by the Commission. In addition, the Capital Development Board may consult as much as it deems necessary with the clean coal SNG brownfield facility and conduct whatever research and investigation it deems necessary.

The Capital Development Board shall retain an engineering expert to assist in determining both the range of capital costs and the range of operations and maintenance costs that it believes would be reasonable for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility to recover under the sourcing agreement. Provided, however, that such expert shall: (i) not have been involved in the clean coal SNG brownfield facility's facility cost report, if any, (ii) not own or control any direct or indirect interest in the initial clean coal facility, and (iii) have no contractual relationship with the clean coal SNG brownfield facility. In order to qualify as an independent expert, a person or company must have:

(i) direct previous experience conducting front-end engineering and design studies for large-scale energy facilities and administering large-scale energy operations and maintenance contracts, which may be particularized to the specific type of financing associated with the clean coal SNG brownfield facility;

(ii) an advanced degree in economics, mathematics, engineering, or a related area of study;

(iii) ten years of experience in the energy sector, including construction and risk management experience;

(iv) expertise in assisting companies with obtaining financing for large-scale energy projects, which may be particularized to the specific type of financing associated with the clean coal SNG brownfield facility;

(v) expertise in operations and maintenance which may be particularized to the specific type of operations and maintenance associated with the clean coal SNG brownfield facility;

(vi) expertise in credit and contract protocols;

(vii) adequate resources to perform and fulfill the required functions and responsibilities; and

(viii) the absence of a conflict of interest and inappropriate bias for or against an affected gas utility or the clean coal SNG brownfield facility.

The clean coal SNG brownfield facility and the Illinois Power Agency shall cooperate with the Capital Development Board in any investigation it deems necessary. The Capital Development Board shall make its final determination of the range of capital costs confidentially and shall submit that range to the Commission in a confidential filing within 120 days after July 13, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-096). The clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall submit to the Commission its estimate of the capital costs to be recovered under the sourcing agreement. Only after the clean coal SNG brownfield facility has submitted this estimate shall the Commission publicly announce the range of capital costs submitted by the Capital Development Board.

In the event that the estimate submitted by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility is within or below the range submitted by the Capital Development Board, the clean coal SNG brownfield facility's estimate shall be approved by the Commission as the amount of capital costs to be recovered under the sourcing agreement. In the event that the estimate submitted by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility is above the range submitted by the Capital Development Board, the amount of capital costs at the lowest end of the range submitted by the Capital Development Board shall be approved by the Commission as the amount of capital costs to be recovered under the sourcing agreement. Within 15 days after the Capital Development Board has submitted its range and the clean coal SNG brownfield facility has submitted its estimate, the Commission shall approve the capital costs for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility.

The Capital Development Board shall monitor the construction of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility for the full duration of construction to assess potential cost overruns. The Capital Development Board, in its discretion, may retain an expert to facilitate such monitoring. The clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall pay a reasonable fee as required by the Capital Development Board for the Capital Development Board's services under this subsection (h-3) to be deposited into the Capital Development Board Revolving Fund, and such fee shall not be passed through to a utility or its customers. If an expert is retained by the Capital Development Board for monitoring of construction, then the clean coal SNG brownfield facility must pay for the expert's reasonable fees and such costs shall not be passed through to a utility or its customers.

(B) Rate of Return. No later than 30 days after the date on which the Illinois Power Agency submits a final draft sourcing agreement, the Commission shall hold a public hearing to determine the rate of return to be recovered under the sourcing agreement. Rate of return shall be comprised of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility's actual cost of debt, including mortgage-style amortization, and a reasonable return on equity. The Commission shall post notice of the hearing on its website no later than 10 days prior to the date of the hearing. The Commission shall provide the public and all interested parties, including the gas utilities, the Attorney General, and the Illinois Power Agency, an opportunity to be heard.

In determining the return on equity, the Commission shall select a commercially reasonable return on equity taking into account the return on equity being received by developers of similar facilities in or outside of Illinois, the need to balance an incentive for clean-coal technology with the need to protect ratepayers from high gas prices, the risks being borne by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility in the final draft sourcing agreement, and any other information that the Commission may deem relevant. The Commission may establish a return on equity that varies with the amount of savings, if any, to customers during the term of the sourcing agreement, comparing the delivered SNG price to a daily weighted average price of natural gas, based upon an index. The Illinois Power Agency shall recommend a return on equity to the Commission using the same criteria. Within 60 days after receiving the final draft sourcing agreement from the Illinois Power Agency, the Commission shall approve the rate of return for the clean coal brownfield facility. Within 30 days after obtaining debt financing for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, the clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall file a notice with the Commission identifying the actual cost of debt.

(2) Operations and maintenance costs approved by the Commission shall be recoverable by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility under the sourcing agreement. The operations and maintenance costs mean costs that have been incurred for the administration, supervision, operation, maintenance, preservation, and protection of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility's physical plant.

The Capital Development Board shall calculate a range of operations and maintenance costs that it believes would be reasonable for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility to recover under the sourcing agreement, incorporating an inflation index or combination of inflation indices to most accurately reflect the actual costs of operating the clean coal SNG brownfield facility. In making this determination, the Capital Development Board shall review the facility cost report, if any, of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, adjusting the results for inflation based on the change in the Annual Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for the Midwest Region as published in April by the United States Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics, the final draft of the sourcing agreement, and the rate of return approved by the Commission. In addition, the Capital Development Board may consult as much as it deems necessary with the clean coal SNG brownfield facility and conduct whatever research and investigation it deems necessary. As set forth in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (h-3), the Capital Development Board shall retain an independent engineering expert to assist in determining both the range of operations and maintenance costs that it believes would be reasonable for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility to recover under the sourcing agreement. The clean coal SNG brownfield facility and the Illinois Power Agency shall cooperate with the Capital Development Board in any investigation it deems necessary. The Capital Development Board shall make its final determination of the range of operations and maintenance costs confidentially and shall submit that range to the Commission in a confidential filing within 120 days after July 13, 2011.

The clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall submit to the Commission its estimate of the operations and maintenance costs to be recovered under the sourcing agreement. Only after the clean coal SNG brownfield facility has submitted this estimate shall the Commission publicly announce the range of operations and maintenance costs submitted by the Capital Development Board. In the event that the estimate submitted by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility is within or below the range submitted by the Capital Development Board, the clean coal SNG brownfield facility's estimate shall be approved by the Commission as the amount of operations and maintenance costs to be recovered under the sourcing agreement. In the event that the estimate submitted by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility is above the range submitted by the Capital Development Board, the amount of operations and maintenance costs at the lowest end of the range submitted by the Capital Development Board shall be approved by the Commission as the amount of operations and maintenance costs to be recovered under the sourcing agreement. Within 15 days after the Capital Development Board has submitted its range and the clean coal SNG brownfield facility has submitted its estimate, the Commission shall approve the operations and maintenance costs for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility.

The clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall pay for the independent engineering expert's reasonable fees and such costs shall not be passed through to a utility or its customers. The clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall pay a reasonable fee as required by the Capital Development Board for the Capital Development Board's services under this subsection (h-3) to be deposited into the Capital Development Board Revolving Fund, and such fee shall not be passed through to a utility or its customers.

(3) Sequestration costs approved by the Commission shall be recoverable by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility. "Sequestration costs" means costs to be incurred by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility in accordance with its Commission-approved carbon capture and sequestration plan to:

(A) capture carbon dioxide;

(B) build, operate, and maintain a sequestration site in which carbon dioxide may be injected;

(C) build, operate, and maintain a carbon dioxide pipeline; and

(D) transport the carbon dioxide to the sequestration site or a pipeline.

The Commission shall assess the prudency of the sequestration costs for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility before construction commences at the sequestration site or pipeline. Any revenues the clean coal SNG brownfield facility receives as a result of the capture, transportation, or sequestration of carbon dioxide shall be first credited against all sequestration costs, with the positive balance, if any, treated as additional net revenue.

The Commission may, in its discretion, retain an expert to assist in its review of sequestration costs. The clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall pay for the expert's reasonable fees if an expert is retained by the Commission, and such costs shall not be passed through to a utility or its customers. Once made, the Commission's determination of the amount of recoverable sequestration costs shall not be increased unless the clean coal SNG brownfield facility can show by clear and convincing evidence that (i) the costs were not reasonably foreseeable; (ii) the costs were due to circumstances beyond the clean coal SNG brownfield facility's control; and (iii) the clean coal SNG brownfield facility took all reasonable steps to mitigate the costs. If the Commission determines that sequestration costs may be increased, the Commission shall provide for notice and a public hearing for approval of the increased sequestration costs.

(4) Actual delivered and processed fuel costs shall be set by the Illinois Power Agency through a SNG feedstock procurement, pursuant to Sections 1-20, 1-77, and 1-78 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, to be performed at least every 5 years and purchased by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility pursuant to feedstock procurement contracts developed by the Illinois Power Agency, with coal comprising at least 50% of the total feedstock over the term of the sourcing agreement and petroleum coke comprising the remainder of the SNG feedstock. If the Commission fails to approve a feedstock procurement plan or fails to approve the results of a feedstock procurement event, then the fuel shall be purchased by the company month-by-month on the spot market and those actual delivered and processed fuel costs shall be recoverable under the sourcing agreement. If a supplier defaults under the terms of a procurement contract, then the Illinois Power Agency shall immediately initiate a feedstock procurement process to obtain a replacement supply, and, prior to the conclusion of that process, fuel shall be purchased by the company month-by-month on the spot market and those actual delivered and processed fuel costs shall be recoverable under the sourcing agreement.

(5) Taxes and fees imposed by the federal government, the State, or any unit of local government applicable to the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, excluding income tax, shall be recoverable by the clean coal SNG brownfield facility under the sourcing agreement to the extent such taxes and fees were not applicable to the facility on July 13, 2011.

(6) The actual transportation costs, in accordance with the applicable utility's tariffs, and third-party marketer costs incurred by the company, if any, associated with transporting the SNG from the clean coal SNG brownfield facility to the Chicago City-gate to sell such SNG into the natural gas markets shall be recoverable under the sourcing agreement.

(7) Unless otherwise provided, within 30 days after a decision of the Commission on recoverable costs under this Section, any interested party to the Commission's decision may apply for a rehearing with respect to the decision. The Commission shall receive and consider the application for rehearing and shall grant or deny the application in whole or in part within 20 days after the date of the receipt of the application by the Commission. If no rehearing is applied for within the required 30 days or an application for rehearing is denied, then the Commission decision shall be final. If an application for rehearing is granted, then the Commission shall hold a rehearing within 30 days after granting the application. The decision of the Commission upon rehearing shall be final.

Any person affected by a decision of the Commission under this subsection (h-3) may have the decision reviewed only under and in accordance with the Administrative Review Law. Unless otherwise provided, the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, all amendments and modifications to that Law, and the rules adopted pursuant to that Law shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Commission under this subsection (h-3). The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(8) The Capital Development Board shall adopt and make public a policy detailing the process for retaining experts under this Section. Any experts retained to assist with calculating the range of capital costs or operations and maintenance costs shall be retained no later than 45 days after July 13, 2011.

(h-4) No later than 90 days after the Illinois Power Agency submits the final draft sourcing agreement pursuant to subsection (h-1), the Commission shall approve a sourcing agreement containing (i) the capital costs, rate of return, and operations and maintenance costs established pursuant to subsection (h-3) and (ii) all other terms and conditions, rights, provisions, exceptions, and limitations contained in the final draft sourcing agreement; provided, however, the Commission shall correct typographical and scrivener's errors and modify the contract only as necessary to provide that the gas utility does not have the right to terminate the sourcing agreement due to any future events that may occur other than the clean coal SNG brownfield facility's failure to timely meet milestones, uncured default, extended force majeure, or abandonment. Once the sourcing agreement is approved, then the gas utility subject to that sourcing agreement shall have 45 days after the date of the Commission's approval to enter into the sourcing agreement.

(h-5) Sequestration enforcement.

(A) All contracts entered into under subsection (h) of this Section and all sourcing agreements under subsection (h-1) of this Section, regardless of duration, shall require the owner of any facility supplying SNG under the contract or sourcing agreement to provide certified documentation to the Commission each year, starting in the facility's first year of commercial operation, accurately reporting the quantity of carbon dioxide emissions from the facility that have been captured and sequestered and reporting any quantities of carbon dioxide released from the site or sites at which carbon dioxide emissions were sequestered in prior years, based on continuous monitoring of those sites.

(B) If, in any year, the owner of the clean coal SNG facility fails to demonstrate that the SNG facility captured and sequestered at least 90% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit or that sequestration of emissions from prior years has failed, resulting in the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, then the owner of the clean coal SNG facility must pay a penalty of $20 per ton of excess carbon dioxide emissions not to exceed $40,000,000, in any given year which shall be deposited into the Energy Efficiency Trust Fund and distributed pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 6-6 of the Renewable Energy, Energy Efficiency, and Coal Resources Development Law of 1997. On or before the 5-year anniversary of the execution of the contract and every 5 years thereafter, an expert hired by the owner of the facility with the approval of the Attorney General shall conduct an analysis to determine the cost of sequestration of at least 90% of the total carbon dioxide emissions the plant would otherwise emit. If the analysis shows that the actual annual cost is greater than the penalty, then the penalty shall be increased to equal the actual cost. Provided, however, to the extent that the owner of the facility described in subsection (h) of this Section can demonstrate that the failure was as a result of acts of God (including fire, flood, earthquake, tornado, lightning, hurricane, or other natural disaster); any amendment, modification, or abrogation of any applicable law or regulation that would prevent performance; war; invasion; act of foreign enemies; hostilities (regardless of whether war is declared); civil war; rebellion; revolution; insurrection; military or usurped power or confiscation; terrorist activities; civil disturbance; riots; nationalization; sabotage; blockage; or embargo, the owner of the facility described in subsection (h) of this Section shall not be subject to a penalty if and only if (i) it promptly provides notice of its failure to the Commission; (ii) as soon as practicable and consistent with any order or direction from the Commission, it submits to the Commission proposed modifications to its carbon capture and sequestration plan; and (iii) it carries out its proposed modifications in the manner and time directed by the Commission.

If the Commission finds that the facility has not satisfied each of these requirements, then the facility shall be subject to the penalty. If the owner of the clean coal SNG facility captured and sequestered more than 90% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit, then the owner of the facility may credit such additional amounts to reduce the amount of any future penalty to be paid. The penalty resulting from the failure to capture and sequester at least the minimum amount of carbon dioxide shall not be passed on to a utility or its customers.

If the clean coal SNG facility fails to meet the requirements specified in this subsection (h-5), then the Attorney General, on behalf of the People of the State of Illinois, shall bring an action to enforce the obligations related to the facility set forth in this subsection (h-5), including any penalty payments owed, but not including the physical obligation to capture and sequester at least 90% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit. Such action may be filed in any circuit court in Illinois. By entering into a contract pursuant to subsection (h) of this Section, the clean coal SNG facility agrees to waive any objections to venue or to the jurisdiction of the court with regard to the Attorney General's action under this subsection (h-5).

Compliance with the sequestration requirements and any penalty requirements specified in this subsection (h-5) for the clean coal SNG facility shall be assessed annually by the Commission, which may in its discretion retain an expert to facilitate its assessment. If any expert is retained by the Commission, then the clean coal SNG facility shall pay for the expert's reasonable fees, and such costs shall not be passed through to the utility or its customers.

In addition, carbon dioxide emission credits received by the clean coal SNG facility in connection with sequestration of carbon dioxide from the facility must be sold in a timely fashion with any revenue, less applicable fees and expenses and any expenses required to be paid by facility for carbon dioxide transportation or sequestration, deposited into the reconciliation account within 30 days after receipt of such funds by the owner of the clean coal SNG facility.

The clean coal SNG facility is prohibited from transporting or sequestering carbon dioxide unless the owner of the carbon dioxide pipeline that transfers the carbon dioxide from the facility and the owner of the sequestration site where the carbon dioxide captured by the facility is stored has acquired all applicable permits under applicable State and federal laws, statutes, rules, or regulations prior to the transfer or sequestration of carbon dioxide. The responsibility for compliance with the sequestration requirements specified in this subsection (h-5) for the clean coal SNG facility shall reside solely with the clean coal SNG facility, regardless of whether the facility has contracted with another party to capture, transport, or sequester carbon dioxide.

(C) If, in any year, the owner of a clean coal SNG brownfield facility fails to demonstrate that the clean coal SNG brownfield facility captured and sequestered at least 85% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit, then the owner of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility must pay a penalty of $20 per ton of excess carbon emissions up to $20,000,000, which shall be deposited into the Energy Efficiency Trust Fund and distributed pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 6-6 of the Renewable Energy, Energy Efficiency, and Coal Resources Development Law of 1997. Provided, however, to the extent that the owner of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility can demonstrate that the failure was as a result of acts of God (including fire, flood, earthquake, tornado, lightning, hurricane, or other natural disaster); any amendment, modification, or abrogation of any applicable law or regulation that would prevent performance; war; invasion; act of foreign enemies; hostilities (regardless of whether war is declared); civil war; rebellion; revolution; insurrection; military or usurped power or confiscation; terrorist activities; civil disturbances; riots; nationalization; sabotage; blockage; or embargo, the owner of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall not be subject to a penalty if and only if (i) it promptly provides notice of its failure to the Commission; (ii) as soon as practicable and consistent with any order or direction from the Commission, it submits to the Commission proposed modifications to its carbon capture and sequestration plan; and (iii) it carries out its proposed modifications in the manner and time directed by the Commission. If the Commission finds that the facility has not satisfied each of these requirements, then the facility shall be subject to the penalty. If the owner of a clean coal SNG brownfield facility demonstrates that the clean coal SNG brownfield facility captured and sequestered more than 85% of the total carbon emissions that the facility would otherwise emit, the owner of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility may credit such additional amounts to reduce the amount of any future penalty to be paid. The penalty resulting from the failure to capture and sequester at least the minimum amount of carbon dioxide shall not be passed on to a utility or its customers.

In addition to any penalty for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility's failure to capture and sequester at least its minimum sequestration requirement, the Attorney General, on behalf of the People of the State of Illinois, shall bring an action for specific performance of this subsection (h-5). Such action may be filed in any circuit court in Illinois. By entering into a sourcing agreement pursuant to subsection (h-1) of this Section, the clean coal SNG brownfield facility agrees to waive any objections to venue or to the jurisdiction of the court with regard to the Attorney General's action for specific performance under this subsection (h-5).

Compliance with the sequestration requirements and penalty requirements specified in this subsection (h-5) for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall be assessed annually by the Commission, which may in its discretion retain an expert to facilitate its assessment. If an expert is retained by the Commission, then the clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall pay for the expert's reasonable fees, and such costs shall not be passed through to a utility or its customers. A SNG facility operating pursuant to this subsection (h-5) shall not forfeit its designation as a clean coal SNG facility or a clean coal SNG brownfield facility if the facility fails to fully comply with the applicable carbon sequestration sequestrian requirements in any given year, provided the requisite offsets are purchased or requisite penalties are paid.

Responsibility for compliance with the sequestration requirements specified in this subsection (h-5) for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall reside solely with the clean coal SNG brownfield facility regardless of whether the facility has contracted with another party to capture, transport, or sequester carbon dioxide.

(h-7) Sequestration permitting, oversight, and investigations.

(1) No clean coal facility or clean coal SNG brownfield facility may transport or sequester carbon dioxide unless the Commission approves the method of carbon dioxide transportation or sequestration. Such approval shall be required regardless of whether the facility has contracted with another to transport or sequester the carbon dioxide. Nothing in this subsection (h-7) shall release the owner or operator of a carbon dioxide sequestration site or carbon dioxide pipeline from any other permitting requirements under applicable State and federal laws, statutes, rules, or regulations.

(2) The Commission shall review carbon dioxide transportation and sequestration methods proposed by a clean coal facility or a clean coal SNG brownfield facility and shall approve those methods it deems reasonable and cost-effective. For purposes of this review, "cost-effective" means a commercially reasonable price for similar carbon dioxide transportation or sequestration techniques. In determining whether sequestration is reasonable and cost-effective, the Commission may consult with the Illinois State Geological Survey and retain third parties to assist in its determination, provided that such third parties shall not own or control any direct or indirect interest in the facility that is proposing the carbon dioxide transportation or the carbon dioxide sequestration method and shall have no contractual relationship with that facility. If a third party is retained by the Commission, then the facility proposing the carbon dioxide transportation or sequestration method shall pay for the expert's reasonable fees, and these costs shall not be passed through to a utility or its customers.

No later than 6 months prior to the date upon which the owner intends to commence construction of a clean coal facility or the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, the owner of the facility shall file with the Commission a carbon dioxide transportation or sequestration plan. The Commission shall hold a public hearing within 30 days after receipt of the facility's carbon dioxide transportation or sequestration plan. The Commission shall post notice of the review on its website upon submission of a carbon dioxide transportation or sequestration method and shall accept written public comments. The Commission shall take the comments into account when making its decision.

The Commission may not approve a carbon dioxide sequestration method if the owner or operator of the sequestration site has not received (i) an Underground Injection Control permit from the United States Environmental Protection Agency, or from the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency pursuant to the Environmental Protection Act; (ii) an Underground Injection Control permit from the Illinois Department of Natural Resources pursuant to the Illinois Oil and Gas Act; or (iii) an Underground Injection Control permit from the United States Environmental Protection Agency or a permit similar to items (i) or (ii) from the state in which the sequestration site is located if the sequestration will take place outside of Illinois. The Commission shall approve or deny the carbon dioxide transportation or sequestration method within 90 days after the receipt of all required information.

(3) At least annually, the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency shall inspect all carbon dioxide sequestration sites in Illinois. The Illinois Environmental Protection Agency may, as often as deemed necessary, monitor and conduct investigations of those sites. The owner or operator of the sequestration site must cooperate with the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency investigations of carbon dioxide sequestration sites.

If the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency determines at any time a site creates conditions that warrant the issuance of a seal order under Section 34 of the Environmental Protection Act, then the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency shall seal the site pursuant to the Environmental Protection Act. If the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency determines at any time a carbon dioxide sequestration site creates conditions that warrant the institution of a civil action for an injunction under Section 43 of the Environmental Protection Act, then the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency shall request the State's Attorney or the Attorney General institute such action. The Illinois Environmental Protection Agency shall provide notice of any such actions as soon as possible on its website. The SNG facility shall incur all reasonable costs associated with any such inspection or monitoring of the sequestration sites, and these costs shall not be recoverable from utilities or their customers.

(4) (Blank).

(h-9) The clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall have the right to recover prudently incurred increased costs or reduced revenue resulting from any new or amendatory legislation or other action. The State of Illinois pledges that the State will not enact any law or take any action to:

(1) break, or repeal the authority for, sourcing agreements approved by the Commission and entered into between public utilities and the clean coal SNG brownfield facility;

(2) deny public utilities full cost recovery for their costs incurred under those sourcing agreements; or

(3) deny the clean coal SNG brownfield facility full cost and revenue recovery as provided under those sourcing agreements that are recoverable pursuant to subsection (h-3) of this Section.

These pledges are for the benefit of the parties to those sourcing agreements and the issuers and holders of bonds or other obligations issued or incurred to finance or refinance the clean coal SNG brownfield facility. The clean coal SNG brownfield facility is authorized to include and refer to these pledges in any financing agreement into which it may enter in regard to those sourcing agreements.

The State of Illinois retains and reserves all other rights to enact new or amendatory legislation or take any other action, without impairment of the right of the clean coal SNG brownfield facility to recover prudently incurred increased costs or reduced revenue resulting from the new or amendatory legislation or other action, including, but not limited to, such legislation or other action that would (i) directly or indirectly raise the costs the clean coal SNG brownfield facility must incur; (ii) directly or indirectly place additional restrictions, regulations, or requirements on the clean coal SNG brownfield facility; (iii) prohibit sequestration in general or prohibit a specific sequestration method or project; or (iv) increase minimum sequestration requirements for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility to the extent technically feasible. The clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall have the right to recover prudently incurred increased costs or reduced revenue resulting from the new or amendatory legislation or other action as described in this subsection (h-9).

(h-10) Contract costs for SNG incurred by an Illinois gas utility are reasonable and prudent and recoverable through the purchased gas adjustment clause and are not subject to review or disallowance by the Commission. Contract costs are costs incurred by the utility under the terms of a contract that incorporates the terms stated in subsection (h) of this Section as confirmed in writing by the Illinois Power Agency as set forth in subsection (h) of this Section, which confirmation shall be deemed conclusive, or as a consequence of or condition to its performance under the contract, including (i) amounts paid for SNG under the SNG contract and (ii) costs of transportation and storage services of SNG purchased from interstate pipelines under federally approved tariffs. The Illinois gas utility shall initiate a clean coal SNG facility rider mechanism that (A) shall be applicable to all customers who receive transportation service from the utility, (B) shall be designed to have an equal percentage impact on the transportation services rates of each class of the utility's total customers, and (C) shall accurately reflect the net customer savings, if any, and above market costs, if any, under the SNG contract. Any contract, the terms of which have been confirmed in writing by the Illinois Power Agency as set forth in subsection (h) of this Section and the performance of the parties under such contract cannot be grounds for challenging prudence or cost recovery by the utility through the purchased gas adjustment clause, and in such cases, the Commission is directed not to consider, and has no authority to consider, any attempted challenges.

The contracts entered into by Illinois gas utilities pursuant to subsection (h) of this Section shall provide that the utility retains the right to terminate the contract without further obligation or liability to any party if the contract has been impaired as a result of any legislative, administrative, judicial, or other governmental action that is taken that eliminates all or part of the prudence protection of this subsection (h-10) or denies the recoverability of all or part of the contract costs through the purchased gas adjustment clause. Should any Illinois gas utility exercise its right under this subsection (h-10) to terminate the contract, all contract costs incurred prior to termination are and will be deemed reasonable, prudent, and recoverable as and when incurred and not subject to review or disallowance by the Commission. Any order, issued by the State requiring or authorizing the discontinuation of the merchant function, defined as the purchase and sale of natural gas by an Illinois gas utility for the ultimate consumer in its service territory shall include provisions necessary to prevent the impairment of the value of any contract hereunder over its full term.

(h-11) All costs incurred by an Illinois gas utility in procuring SNG from a clean coal SNG brownfield facility pursuant to subsection (h-1) or a third-party marketer pursuant to subsection (h-1) are reasonable and prudent and recoverable through the purchased gas adjustment clause in conjunction with a SNG brownfield facility rider mechanism and are not subject to review or disallowance by the Commission; provided that if a utility is required by law or otherwise elects to connect the clean coal SNG brownfield facility to an interstate pipeline, then the utility shall be entitled to recover pursuant to its tariffs all just and reasonable costs that are prudently incurred. Sourcing agreement costs are costs incurred by the utility under the terms of a sourcing agreement that incorporates the terms stated in subsection (h-1) of this Section as approved by the Commission as set forth in subsection (h-4) of this Section, which approval shall be deemed conclusive, or as a consequence of or condition to its performance under the contract, including (i) amounts paid for SNG under the SNG contract and (ii) costs of transportation and storage services of SNG purchased from interstate pipelines under federally approved tariffs. Any sourcing agreement, the terms of which have been approved by the Commission as set forth in subsection (h-4) of this Section, and the performance of the parties under the sourcing agreement cannot be grounds for challenging prudence or cost recovery by the utility, and in these cases, the Commission is directed not to consider, and has no authority to consider, any attempted challenges.

(h-15) Reconciliation account. The clean coal SNG facility shall establish a reconciliation account for the benefit of the retail customers of the utilities that have entered into contracts with the clean coal SNG facility pursuant to subsection (h). The reconciliation account shall be maintained and administered by an independent trustee that is mutually agreed upon by the owners of the clean coal SNG facility, the utilities, and the Commission in an interest-bearing account in accordance with the following:

(1) The clean coal SNG facility shall conduct an analysis annually within 60 days after receiving the necessary cost information, which shall be provided by the gas utility within 6 months after the end of the preceding calendar year, to determine (i) the average annual contract SNG cost, which shall be calculated as the total amount paid for SNG purchased from the clean coal SNG facility over the preceding 12 months, plus the cost to the utility of the required transportation and storage services of SNG, divided by the total number of MMBtus of SNG actually purchased from the clean coal SNG facility in the preceding 12 months under the utility contract; (ii) the average annual natural gas purchase cost, which shall be calculated as the total annual supply costs paid for baseload natural gas (excluding any SNG) purchased by such utility over the preceding 12 months plus the costs of transportation and storage services of such natural gas (excluding such costs for SNG), divided by the total number of MMbtus of baseload natural gas (excluding SNG) actually purchased by the utility during the year; (iii) the cost differential, which shall be the difference between the average annual contract SNG cost and the average annual natural gas purchase cost; and (iv) the revenue share target which shall be the cost differential multiplied by the total amount of SNG purchased over the preceding 12 months under such utility contract.

(A) To the extent the annual average contract SNG cost is less than the annual average natural gas purchase cost, the utility shall credit an amount equal to the revenue share target to the reconciliation account. Such credit payment shall be made monthly starting within 30 days after the completed analysis in this subsection (h-15) and based on collections from all customers via a line item charge in all customer bills designed to have an equal percentage impact on the transportation services of each class of customers. Credit payments made pursuant to this subparagraph (A) shall be deemed prudent and reasonable and not subject to Commission prudence review.

(B) To the extent the annual average contract SNG cost is greater than the annual average natural gas purchase cost, the reconciliation account shall be used to provide a credit equal to the revenue share target to the utilities to be used to reduce the utility's natural gas costs through the purchased gas adjustment clause. Such payment shall be made within 30 days after the completed analysis pursuant to this subsection (h-15), but only to the extent that the reconciliation account has a positive balance.

(2) At the conclusion of the term of the SNG contracts pursuant to subsection (h) and the completion of the final annual analysis pursuant to this subsection (h-15), to the extent the facility owes any amount to retail customers, amounts in the account shall be credited to retail customers to the extent the owed amount is repaid; 50% of any additional amount in the reconciliation account shall be distributed to the utilities to be used to reduce the utilities' natural gas costs through the purchase gas adjustment clause with the remaining amount distributed to the clean coal SNG facility. Such payment shall be made within 30 days after the last completed analysis pursuant to this subsection (h-15). If the facility has repaid all owed amounts, if any, to retail customers and has distributed 50% of any additional amount in the account to the utilities, then the owners of the clean coal SNG facility shall have no further obligation to the utility or the retail customers.

If, at the conclusion of the term of the contracts pursuant to subsection (h) and the completion of the final annual analysis pursuant to this subsection (h-15), the facility owes any amount to retail customers and the account has been depleted, then the clean coal SNG facility shall be liable for any remaining amount owed to the retail customers. The clean coal SNG facility shall market the daily production of SNG and distribute on a monthly basis 5% of the amounts collected with respect to such future sales to the utilities in proportion to each utility's SNG contract to be used to reduce the utility's natural gas costs through the purchase gas adjustment clause; such payments to the utility shall continue until either 15 years after the conclusion of the contract or such time as the sum of such payments equals the remaining amount owed to the retail customers at the end of the contract, whichever is earlier. If the debt to the retail customers is not repaid within 15 years after the conclusion of the contract, then the owner of the clean coal SNG facility must sell the facility, and all proceeds from that sale must be used to repay any amount owed to the retail customers under this subsection (h-15).

The retail customers shall have first priority in recovering that debt above any creditors, except the secured lenders to the extent that the secured lenders have any secured debt outstanding, including any parent companies or affiliates of the clean coal SNG facility.

(3) 50% of all additional net revenue, defined as miscellaneous net revenue after cost allowance and above the budgeted estimate established for revenue pursuant to subsection (h), including sale of substitute natural gas derived from the clean coal SNG facility above the nameplate capacity of the facility and other by-products produced by the facility, shall be credited to the reconciliation account on an annual basis with such payment made within 30 days after the end of each calendar year during the term of the contract.

(4) The clean coal SNG facility shall each year, starting in the facility's first year of commercial operation, file with the Commission, in such form as the Commission shall require, a report as to the reconciliation account. The annual report must contain the following information:

(A) the revenue share target amount;

(B) the amount credited or debited to the reconciliation account during the year;

(C) the amount credited to the utilities to be used to reduce the utilities natural gas costs though the purchase gas adjustment clause;

(D) the total amount of reconciliation account at the beginning and end of the year;

(E) the total amount of consumer savings to date; and

(F) any additional information the Commission may require.

When any report is erroneous or defective or appears to the Commission to be erroneous or defective, the Commission may notify the clean coal SNG facility to amend the report within 30 days; before or after the termination of the 30-day period, the Commission may examine the trustee of the reconciliation account or the officers, agents, employees, books, records, or accounts of the clean coal SNG facility and correct such items in the report as upon such examination the Commission may find defective or erroneous. All reports shall be under oath.

All reports made to the Commission by the clean coal SNG facility and the contents of the reports shall be open to public inspection and shall be deemed a public record under the Freedom of Information Act. Such reports shall be preserved in the office of the Commission. The Commission shall publish an annual summary of the reports prior to February 1 of the following year. The annual summary shall be made available to the public on the Commission's website and shall be submitted to the General Assembly.

Any facility that fails to file the report required under this paragraph (4) to the Commission within the time specified or to make specific answer to any question propounded by the Commission within 30 days after the time it is lawfully required to do so, or within such further time not to exceed 90 days as may be allowed by the Commission in its discretion, shall pay a penalty of $500 to the Commission for each day it is in default.

Any person who willfully makes any false report to the Commission or to any member, officer, or employee thereof, any person who willfully in a report withholds or fails to provide material information to which the Commission is entitled under this paragraph (4) and which information is either required to be filed by statute, rule, regulation, order, or decision of the Commission or has been requested by the Commission, and any person who willfully aids or abets such person shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(h-20) The General Assembly authorizes the Illinois Finance Authority to issue bonds to the maximum extent permitted to finance coal gasification facilities described in this Section, which constitute both "industrial projects" under Article 801 of the Illinois Finance Authority Act and "clean coal and energy projects" under Sections 825-65 through 825-75 of the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

Administrative costs incurred by the Illinois Finance Authority in performance of this subsection (h-20) shall be subject to reimbursement by the clean coal SNG facility on terms as the Illinois Finance Authority and the clean coal SNG facility may agree. The utility and its customers shall have no obligation to reimburse the clean coal SNG facility or the Illinois Finance Authority for any such costs.

(h-25) The State of Illinois pledges that the State may not enact any law or take any action to (1) break or repeal the authority for SNG purchase contracts entered into between public gas utilities and the clean coal SNG facility pursuant to subsection (h) of this Section or (2) deny public gas utilities their full cost recovery for contract costs, as defined in subsection (h-10), that are incurred under such SNG purchase contracts. These pledges are for the benefit of the parties to such SNG purchase contracts and the issuers and holders of bonds or other obligations issued or incurred to finance or refinance the clean coal SNG facility. The beneficiaries are authorized to include and refer to these pledges in any finance agreement into which they may enter in regard to such contracts.

(h-30) The State of Illinois retains and reserves all other rights to enact new or amendatory legislation or take any other action, including, but not limited to, such legislation or other action that would (1) directly or indirectly raise the costs that the clean coal SNG facility must incur; (2) directly or indirectly place additional restrictions, regulations, or requirements on the clean coal SNG facility; (3) prohibit sequestration in general or prohibit a specific sequestration method or project; or (4) increase minimum sequestration requirements.

(i) If a gas utility or an affiliate of a gas utility has an ownership interest in any entity that produces or sells synthetic natural gas, Article VII of this Act shall apply.

(Source: P.A. 96-1364, eff. 7-28-10; 97-96, eff. 7-13-11; 97-239, eff. 8-2-11; 97-630, eff. 12-8-11; 97-906, eff. 8-7-12; 97-1081, eff. 8-24-12; revised 1-24-13.)

Section 360. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Section 3.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/3.5)

Sec. 3.5. Group homes for adolescents diagnosed with autism.

(a) Subject to appropriation, the Department of Human Services, Developmental Disabilities Division, shall provide for the establishment of 3 children's group homes for adolescents who have been diagnosed with autism and who are at least 15 years of age and not more than 18 years of age. The homes shall be located in 3 separate geographical areas of the State. The homes shall operate 7 days per week and shall be staffed 24 hours per day. The homes shall feature maximum family involvement based on a service and support agreement signed by the adolescent's family and the provider. An eligible service provider: (i) must have a minimum of 5 years experience serving individuals with autism residentially and have successfully supported individuals with challenging behaviors; (ii) must demonstrate that staff have equal experience in this regard; and (iii) must have a full-time Board-Certified Behavior Analyst on staff.

(b) The provider shall ensure that the staff at each home receives appropriate training in matters that include, but need not be limited to, the following: behavior analysis, skill training, and other methodologies of teaching such as discrete discreet trial and picture exchange communication system.

(c) The homes shall provide therapeutic and other support services to the adolescents being served there. The therapeutic curriculum shall be based on the principles of applied behavior analysis.

(d) An agreeable rate shall be established by the Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Human Services, Developmental Disabilities Division.

(Source: P.A. 95-411, eff. 8-24-07; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 365. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 2317)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 17. Acts Constituting the Practice of Dentistry. A person practices dentistry, within the meaning of this Act:

(1) Who represents himself or herself as being able to diagnose or diagnoses, treats, prescribes, or operates for any disease, pain, deformity, deficiency, injury, or physical condition of the human tooth, teeth, alveolar process, gums or jaw; or

(2) Who is a manager, proprietor, operator or conductor of a business where dental operations are performed; or

(3) Who performs dental operations of any kind; or

(4) Who uses an X-Ray machine or X-Ray films for dental diagnostic purposes; or

(5) Who extracts a human tooth or teeth, or corrects or attempts to correct malpositions of the human teeth or jaws; or

(6) Who offers or undertakes, by any means or method, to diagnose, treat or remove stains, calculus, and bonding materials from human teeth or jaws; or

(7) Who uses or administers local or general anesthetics in the treatment of dental or oral diseases or in any preparation incident to a dental operation of any kind or character; or

(8) Who takes impressions of the human tooth, teeth, or jaws or performs any phase of any operation incident to the replacement of a part of a tooth, a tooth, teeth or associated tissues by means of a filling, crown, a bridge, a denture or other appliance; or

(9) Who offers to furnish, supply, construct, reproduce or repair, or who furnishes, supplies, constructs, reproduces or repairs, prosthetic dentures, bridges or other substitutes for natural teeth, to the user or prospective user thereof; or

(10) Who instructs students on clinical matters or performs any clinical operation included in the curricula of recognized dental schools and colleges; or

(11) Who takes impressions of human teeth or places his or her hands in the mouth of any person for the purpose of applying teeth whitening materials, or who takes impressions of human teeth or places his or her hands in the mouth of any person for the purpose of assisting in the application of teeth whitening materials. A person does not practice dentistry when he or she discloses to the consumer that he or she is not licensed as a dentist under this Act and (i) discusses the use of teeth whitening materials with a consumer purchasing these materials; (ii) provides instruction on the use of teeth whitening materials with a consumer purchasing these materials; or (iii) provides appropriate equipment on-site to the consumer for the consumer to self-apply teeth whitening materials.

The fact that any person engages in or performs, or offers to engage in or perform, any of the practices, acts, or operations set forth in this Section, shall be prima facie evidence that such person is engaged in the practice of dentistry.

The following practices, acts, and operations, however, are exempt from the operation of this Act:

(a) The rendering of dental relief in emergency cases in the practice of his or her profession by a physician or surgeon, licensed as such under the laws of this State, unless he or she undertakes to reproduce or reproduces lost parts of the human teeth in the mouth or to restore or replace lost or missing teeth in the mouth; or

(b) The practice of dentistry in the discharge of their official duties by dentists in any branch of the Armed Services of the United States, the United States Public Health Service, or the United States Veterans Administration; or

(c) The practice of dentistry by students in their course of study in dental schools or colleges approved by the Department, when acting under the direction and supervision of dentists acting as instructors; or

(d) The practice of dentistry by clinical instructors in the course of their teaching duties in dental schools or colleges approved by the Department:

(i) when acting under the direction and supervision of dentists, provided that such clinical instructors have instructed continuously in this State since January 1, 1986; or

(ii) when holding the rank of full professor at such approved dental school or college and possessing a current valid license or authorization to practice dentistry in another country; or

(e) The practice of dentistry by licensed dentists of other states or countries at meetings of the Illinois State Dental Society or component parts thereof, alumni meetings of dental colleges, or any other like dental organizations, while appearing as clinicians; or

(f) The use of X-Ray machines for exposing X-Ray films of dental or oral tissues by dental hygienists or dental assistants; or

(g) The performance of any dental service by a dental assistant, if such service is performed under the supervision and full responsibility of a dentist.

For purposes of this paragraph (g), "dental service" is defined to mean any intraoral procedure or act which shall be prescribed by rule or regulation of the Department. Dental service, however, shall not include:

(1) Any and all diagnosis of or prescription for treatment of disease, pain, deformity, deficiency, injury or physical condition of the human teeth or jaws, or adjacent structures.

(2) Removal of, or restoration of, or addition to the hard or soft tissues of the oral cavity, except for the placing, carving, and finishing of amalgam restorations by dental assistants who have had additional formal education and certification as determined by the Department. A dentist utilizing dental assistants shall not supervise more than 4 dental assistants at any one time for placing, carving, and finishing of amalgam restorations.

(3) Any and all correction of malformation of teeth or of the jaws.

(4) Administration of anesthetics, except for application of topical anesthetics and monitoring of nitrous oxide. Monitoring of nitrous oxide may be performed after successful completion of a training program approved by the Department. A dentist utilizing dental assistants shall not supervise more than 4 dental assistants at any one time for the monitoring of nitrous oxide.

(5) Removal of calculus from human teeth.

(6) Taking of impressions for the fabrication of prosthetic appliances, crowns, bridges, inlays, onlays, or other restorative or replacement dentistry.

(7) The operative procedure of dental hygiene consisting of oral prophylactic procedures, except for coronal polishing and pit and fissure sealants, which may be performed by a dental assistant who has successfully completed a training program approved by the Department. Dental assistants may perform coronal polishing under the following circumstances: (i) the coronal polishing shall be limited to polishing the clinical crown of the tooth and existing restorations, supragingivally; (ii) the dental assistant performing the coronal polishing shall be limited to the use of rotary instruments using a rubber cup or brush polishing method (air polishing is not permitted); and (iii) the supervising dentist shall not supervise more than 4 dental assistants at any one time for the task of coronal polishing or pit and fissure sealants.

(h) The practice of dentistry by an individual who:

(i) has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a general dental license and has complied with all provisions of Section 9 of this Act, except for the passage of the examination specified in subsection (e), of Section 9, of this Act; or

(ii) has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a temporary dental license and has complied with all provisions of subsection (c), of Section 11, of this Act; and

(iii) has been accepted or appointed for specialty or residency training by a hospital situated in this State; or

(iv) has been accepted or appointed for specialty training in an approved dental program situated in this State; or

(v) has been accepted or appointed for specialty training in a dental public health agency situated in this State.

The applicant shall be permitted to practice dentistry for a period of 3 months from the starting date of the program, unless authorized in writing by the Department to continue such practice for a period specified in writing by the Department.

The applicant shall only be entitled to perform such acts as may be prescribed by and incidental to his or her program of residency or specialty training and shall not otherwise engage in the practice of dentistry in this State.

The authority to practice shall terminate immediately upon:

(1) the decision of the Department that the applicant has failed the examination; or

(2) denial of licensure by the Department; or

(3) withdrawal of the application.

(Source: P.A. 96-617, eff. 8-24-09; 97-526, eff. 1-1-12; 97-886, eff. 8-2-12; 97-1013, eff. 8-17-12; revised 8-23-12.)

Section 370. The Naprapathic Practice Act is amended by changing Section 110 as follows:

(225 ILCS 63/110)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 110. Grounds for disciplinary action; refusal, revocation, suspension.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any licensee or license for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Violations of this Act or of rules adopted under this Act.

(2) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment, or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(5) Professional incompetence or gross negligence.

(6) Malpractice.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(10) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(11) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act.

(12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered. This shall not be deemed to include rent or other remunerations paid to an individual, partnership, or corporation by a naprapath for the lease, rental, or use of space, owned or controlled by the individual, partnership, corporation, or association. Nothing in this paragraph (12) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (12) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(13) Using the title "Doctor" or its abbreviation without further clarifying that title or abbreviation with the word "naprapath" or "naprapathy" or the designation "D.N.".

(14) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(15) Abandonment of a patient without cause.

(16) Willfully making or filing false records or reports relating to a licensee's practice, including but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(17) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(18) Physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(19) Solicitation of professional services by means other than permitted advertising.

(20) Failure to provide a patient with a copy of his or her record upon the written request of the patient.

(21) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Act.

(22) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

(23) (Blank).

(24) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or a neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(25) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(26) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice.

(27) Maintaining a professional relationship with any person, firm, or corporation when the naprapath knows, or should know, that the person, firm, or corporation is violating this Act.

(28) Promotion of the sale of food supplements, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a client or patient in such manner as to exploit the patient or client for financial gain of the licensee.

(29) Having treated ailments of human beings other than by the practice of naprapathy as defined in this Act, or having treated ailments of human beings as a licensed naprapath independent of a documented referral or documented current and relevant diagnosis from a physician, dentist, or podiatrist, or having failed to notify the physician, dentist, or podiatrist who established a documented current and relevant diagnosis that the patient is receiving naprapathic treatment pursuant to that diagnosis.

(30) Use by a registered naprapath of the word "infirmary", "hospital", "school", "university", in English or any other language, in connection with the place where naprapathy may be practiced or demonstrated.

(31) Continuance of a naprapath in the employ of any person, firm, or corporation, or as an assistant to any naprapath or naprapaths, directly or indirectly, after his or her employer or superior has been found guilty of violating or has been enjoined from violating the laws of the State of Illinois relating to the practice of naprapathy when the employer or superior persists in that violation.

(32) The performance of naprapathic service in conjunction with a scheme or plan with another person, firm, or corporation known to be advertising in a manner contrary to this Act or otherwise violating the laws of the State of Illinois concerning the practice of naprapathy.

(33) Failure to provide satisfactory proof of having participated in approved continuing education programs as determined by and approved by the Secretary. Exceptions for extreme hardships are to be defined by the rules of the Department.

(34) (Blank).

(35) Gross or willful overcharging for professional services.

(36) (Blank).

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing, as provided for in the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code, the license of any person who fails to file a return, or pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Development Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension shall end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient.

(f) In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records including business records that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning the examination and evaluation of the licensee or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination.

A person holding a license under this Act or who has applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10; 97-778, eff. 7-13-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 375. The Wholesale Drug Distribution Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 55 as follows:

(225 ILCS 120/55) (from Ch. 111, par. 8301-55)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 55. Discipline; grounds.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, restore, or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any applicant or licensee or any officer, director, manager, or shareholder who owns 5% or more interest in the business that holds the license for any one or a combination of the following reasons:

(1) Violation of this Act or of the rules adopted under this Act.

(2) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or the rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written requirement made by the Department.

(4) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public. This includes violations of "good faith" as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and applies to all prescription drugs.

(5) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act.

(6) Selling or engaging in the sale of drug samples provided at no cost by drug manufacturers.

(7) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States (i) that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty or that is directly related to the practice of this profession.

(8) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug by the designated representative, as provided for in item (7) of subsection (b) of Section 25 of this Act, any officer, or director that results in the inability to function with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety. proper

(9) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(10) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(11) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(12) Willfully making or filing false records or reports.

(13) A finding of a substantial discrepancy in a Department audit of a prescription drug, including a controlled substance as that term is defined in this Act or in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(14) Falsifying a pedigree or selling, distributing, transferring, manufacturing, repackaging, handling, or holding a counterfeit prescription drug intended for human use.

(15) Interfering with a Department investigation.

(16) Failing to adequately secure controlled substances or other prescription drugs from diversion.

(17) Acquiring or distributing prescription drugs not obtained from a source licensed by the Department.

(18) Failing to properly store drugs.

(19) Failing to maintain the licensed premises with proper storage and security controls.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license or registration of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until the time the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied.

(c) The Department shall revoke the license or certificate of registration issued under this Act or any prior Act of this State of any person who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license or certificate of registration issued under this Act or any prior Act of this State is revoked under this subsection (c) (b) shall be prohibited from engaging in the practice of pharmacy in this State.

(Source: P.A. 97-804, eff. 1-1-13; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 7-25-12.)

Section 380. The Detection of Deception Examiners Act is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(225 ILCS 430/14) (from Ch. 111, par. 2415)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 14. (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or a combination of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violations of this Act, or of the rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licensure or violating any provision of this Act or the rules adopted under this Act pertaining to advertising.

(5) Professional incompetence.

(6) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating this Act or any rule adopted under this Act.

(8) Where the license holder has been adjudged mentally ill, mentally deficient or subject to involuntary admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(9) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(10) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(11) Inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug.

(12) Discipline by another state, District of Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(13) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(14) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(15) Inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of a physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, or a mental illness or disability.

(16) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(17) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(18) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(19) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Act.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a return, or pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (g) of Section 1205-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Development Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient.

(f) In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

A person holding a license under this Act or who has applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 97-168, eff. 7-22-11; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 385. The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002 is amended by changing Section 30-10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 458/30-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 30-10. Appraisal Administration Fund.

(a) The Appraisal Administration Administrative Fund, created under the Real Estate License Act of 1983 and continued under Section 40 of the Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act, is continued under this Act. All fees collected under this Act shall be deposited into the Appraisal Administration Fund, created in the State Treasury under the Real Estate License Act of 1983.

(b) Appropriations to the Department from the Appraisal Administration Fund for the purpose of administering the Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act may be used by the Department for the purpose of administering and enforcing the provisions of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-844, eff. 12-23-09; revised 10-18-12.)

Section 390. The Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 is amended by changing Section 30.5 as follows:

(230 ILCS 5/30.5)

Sec. 30.5. Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund.

(a) The General Assembly declares that it is the policy of this State to encourage the breeding of racing quarter horses in this State and the ownership of such horses by residents of this State in order to provide for sufficient numbers of high quality racing quarter horses in this State and to establish and preserve the agricultural and commercial benefits of such breeding and racing industries to the State of Illinois. It is the intent of the General Assembly to further this policy by the provisions of this Act.

(b) There is hereby created a special fund in the State Treasury to be known as the Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund. Except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, 8.5% of all the moneys received by the State as pari-mutuel taxes on quarter horse racing shall be paid into the Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund.

(c) The Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund shall be administered by the Department of Agriculture with the advice and assistance of the Advisory Board created in subsection (d) of this Section.

(d) The Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund Advisory Board shall consist of the Director of the Department of Agriculture, who shall serve as Chairman; a member of the Illinois Racing Board, designated by it; one representative of the organization licensees conducting pari-mutuel quarter horse racing meetings, recommended by them; 2 representatives of the Illinois Running Quarter Horse Association, recommended by it; and the Superintendent of Fairs and Promotions from the Department of Agriculture. Advisory Board members shall serve for 2 years commencing January 1 of each odd numbered year. If representatives have not been recommended by January 1 of each odd numbered year, the Director of the Department of Agriculture may make an appointment for the organization failing to so recommend a member of the Advisory Board. Advisory Board members shall receive no compensation for their services as members but may be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses and disbursements incurred in the execution of their official duties.

(e) No moneys shall be expended from the Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund except as appropriated by the General Assembly. Moneys appropriated from the Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund shall be expended by the Department of Agriculture, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund Advisory Board, for the following purposes only:

(1) To provide stakes and awards to be paid to the owners of the winning horses in certain races. This provision is limited to Illinois conceived and foaled horses.

(2) To provide an award to the owner or owners of an Illinois conceived and foaled horse that wins a race when pari-mutuel wagering is conducted; providing the race is not restricted to Illinois conceived and foaled horses.

(3) To provide purse money for an Illinois stallion stakes program.

(4) To provide for purses to be distributed for the running of races during the Illinois State Fair and the DuQuoin State Fair exclusively for quarter horses conceived and foaled in Illinois.

(5) To provide for purses to be distributed for the running of races at Illinois county fairs exclusively for quarter horses conceived and foaled in Illinois.

(6) To provide for purses to be distributed for running races exclusively for quarter horses conceived and foaled in Illinois at locations in Illinois determined by the Department of Agriculture with advice and consent of the Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund Advisory Board.

(7) No less than 90% of all moneys appropriated from the Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund shall be expended for the purposes in items (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) of this subsection (e).

(8) To provide for research programs concerning the health, development, and care of racing quarter horses.

(9) To provide for dissemination of public information designed to promote the breeding of racing quarter horses in Illinois.

(10) To provide for expenses incurred in the administration of the Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund.

(f) The Department of Agriculture shall, by rule, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund Advisory Board:

(1) Qualify stallions for Illinois breeding; such stallions to stand for service within the State of Illinois, at the time of a foal's conception. Such stallion must not stand for service at any place outside the State of Illinois during the calendar year in which the foal is conceived. The Department of Agriculture may assess and collect application fees for the registration of Illinois-eligible stallions. All fees collected are to be paid into the Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund.

(2) Provide for the registration of Illinois conceived and foaled horses. No such horse shall compete in the races limited to Illinois conceived and foaled horses unless it is registered with the Department of Agriculture. The Department of Agriculture may prescribe such forms as are necessary to determine the eligibility of such horses. The Department of Agriculture may assess and collect application fees for the registration of Illinois-eligible foals. All fees collected are to be paid into the Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund. No person shall knowingly prepare or cause preparation of an application for registration of such foals that contains false information.

(g) The Department of Agriculture, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund Advisory Board, shall provide that certain races limited to Illinois conceived and foaled be stakes races and determine the total amount of stakes and awards to be paid to the owners of the winning horses in such races.

(Source: P.A. 91-40, eff. 6-25-99; revised 10-18-12.)

Section 395. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Section 6-11 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/6-11)

Sec. 6-11. Sale near churches, schools, and hospitals.

(a) No license shall be issued for the sale at retail of any alcoholic liquor within 100 feet of any church, school other than an institution of higher learning, hospital, home for aged or indigent persons or for veterans, their spouses or children or any military or naval station, provided, that this prohibition shall not apply to hotels offering restaurant service, regularly organized clubs, or to restaurants, food shops or other places where sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on if the place of business so exempted is not located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, unless required by local ordinance; nor to the renewal of a license for the sale at retail of alcoholic liquor on premises within 100 feet of any church or school where the church or school has been established within such 100 feet since the issuance of the original license. In the case of a church, the distance of 100 feet shall be measured to the nearest part of any building used for worship services or educational programs and not to property boundaries.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor to a restaurant, the primary business of which is the sale of goods baked on the premises if (i) the restaurant is newly constructed and located on a lot of not less than 10,000 square feet, (ii) the restaurant costs at least $1,000,000 to construct, (iii) the licensee is the titleholder to the premises and resides on the premises, and (iv) the construction of the restaurant is completed within 18 months of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to a restaurant if (1) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food and the applicant is a completely new owner of the restaurant, (2) the immediately prior owner or operator of the premises where the restaurant is located operated the premises as a restaurant and held a valid retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at the restaurant for at least part of the 24 months before the change of ownership, and (3) the restaurant is located 75 or more feet from a school.

(d) In the interest of further developing Illinois' economy in the area of commerce, tourism, convention, and banquet business, nothing in this Section shall prohibit issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic beverages to a restaurant, banquet facility, grocery store, or hotel having not fewer than 150 guest room accommodations located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, notwithstanding the proximity of such hotel, restaurant, banquet facility, or grocery store to any church or school, if the licensed premises described on the license are located within an enclosed mall or building of a height of at least 6 stories, or 60 feet in the case of a building that has been registered as a national landmark, or in a grocery store having a minimum of 56,010 square feet of floor space in a single story building in an open mall of at least 3.96 acres that is adjacent to a public school that opened as a boys technical high school in 1934, or in a grocery store having a minimum of 31,000 square feet of floor space in a single story building located a distance of more than 90 feet but less than 100 feet from a high school that opened in 1928 as a junior high school and became a senior high school in 1933, and in each of these cases if the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on by the licensee.

For purposes of this Section, a "banquet facility" is any part of a building that caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a license to a church or private school to sell at retail alcoholic liquor if any such sales are limited to periods when groups are assembled on the premises solely for the promotion of some common object other than the sale or consumption of alcoholic liquors.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a church or church affiliated school located in a home rule municipality or in a municipality with 75,000 or more inhabitants from locating within 100 feet of a property for which there is a preexisting license to sell alcoholic liquor at retail. In these instances, the local zoning authority may, by ordinance adopted simultaneously with the granting of an initial special use zoning permit for the church or church affiliated school, provide that the 100-foot restriction in this Section shall not apply to that church or church affiliated school and future retail liquor licenses.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises within 100 feet, but not less than 90 feet, of a public school if (1) the premises have been continuously licensed to sell alcoholic liquor for a period of at least 50 years, (2) the premises are located in a municipality having a population of over 500,000 inhabitants, (3) the licensee is an individual who is a member of a family that has held the previous 3 licenses for that location for more than 25 years, (4) the principal of the school and the alderman of the ward in which the school is located have delivered a written statement to the local liquor control commissioner stating that they do not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (g), and (5) the local liquor control commissioner has received the written consent of a majority of the registered voters who live within 200 feet of the premises.

(h) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within premises and at an outdoor patio area attached to premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 300,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food,

(2) the sale of liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises,

(3) the premises are less than 1,000 square feet,

(4) the premises are owned by the University of Illinois,

(5) the premises are immediately adjacent to property owned by a church and are not less than 20 nor more than 40 feet from the church space used for worship services, and

(6) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(i) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 300,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church, synagogue, or other place of worship if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church, synagogue, or other place of worship are at least 100 feet apart, on parallel streets, and separated by an alley; and

(2) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(j) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a theater that is within 100 feet of a church if (1) the church owns the theater, (2) the church leases the theater to one or more entities, and (3) the theater is used by at least 5 different not-for-profit theater groups.

(k) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the school are parallel, on different streets, and separated by an alley;

(2) the southeast corner of the premises are at least 350 feet from the southwest corner of the school;

(3) the school was built in 1978;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the applicant is the owner of the restaurant and has held a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor for the business to be conducted on the premises at a different location for more than 7 years; and

(7) the premises is at least 2,300 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 6,100 and 6,150 square feet.

(l) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the closest entrance of the church or school is at least 90 feet apart and no greater than 95 feet apart;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises and the church or school is at least 80 feet apart and no greater than 85 feet apart;

(3) the applicant is the owner of the restaurant and on November 15, 2006 held a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor for the business to be conducted on the premises for at least 14 different locations;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the premises is at least 3,200 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 7,150 and 7,200 square feet; and

(7) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(m) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises and the church are perpendicular, and the primary entrance of the premises faces South while the primary entrance of the church faces West and the distance between the two entrances is more than 100 feet;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises lot line and the exterior wall of the church is at least 80 feet;

(3) the church was established at the current location in 1916 and the present structure was erected in 1925;

(4) the premises is a single story, single use building with at least 1,750 square feet and no more than 2,000 square feet;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(6) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises; and

(7) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(n) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(2) the school is located within subarea E of City of Chicago Residential Business Planned Development Number 70;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food; and

(5) the administration of City of Chicago School District 299 has expressed, in writing, its support for the issuance of the license.

(o) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises is located on a street that runs perpendicular to the street on which the church is located;

(4) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 100 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(5) the shortest distance between any part of the premises and any part of the church is at least 60 feet;

(6) the premises is between 3,600 and 4,000 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 3,600 and 4,000 square feet; and

(7) the premises was built in the year 1909.

For purposes of this subsection (o), "premises" means a place of business together with a privately owned outdoor location that is adjacent to the place of business.

(p) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the shortest distance between the backdoor of the premises, which is used as an emergency exit, and the church is at least 80 feet;

(2) the church was established at the current location in 1889; and

(3) liquor has been sold on the premises since at least 1985.

(q) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church-owned property if:

(1) the premises is located within a larger building operated as a grocery store;

(2) the area of the premises does not exceed 720 square feet and the area of the larger building exceeds 18,000 square feet;

(3) the larger building containing the premises is within 100 feet of the nearest property line of a church-owned property on which a church-affiliated school is located;

(4) the sale of liquor is not the principal business carried on within the larger building;

(5) the primary entrance of the larger building and the premises and the primary entrance of the church-affiliated school are on different, parallel streets, and the distance between the 2 primary entrances is more than 100 feet;

(6) the larger building is separated from the church-owned property and church-affiliated school by an alley;

(7) the larger building containing the premises and the church building front are on perpendicular streets and are separated by a street; and

(8) (Blank).

(r) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance, renewal, or maintenance of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the primary entrance of the church and the primary entrance of the restaurant are at least 100 feet apart;

(2) the restaurant has operated on the ground floor and lower level of a multi-story, multi-use building for more than 40 years;

(3) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is conducted primarily in the below-grade level of the restaurant to which the only public access is by a staircase located inside the restaurant; and

(5) the restaurant has held a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor on the premises for more than 40 years.

(s) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population more than 5,000 and less than 10,000 and is within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the church was established at the location within 100 feet of the premises after a license for the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was first issued;

(2) a license for sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was first issued before January 1, 2007; and

(3) a license for the sale of alcoholic liquor on the premises has been continuously in effect since January 1, 2007, except for interruptions between licenses of no more than 90 days.

(t) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant that is established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school and a church if:

(1) the restaurant is located inside a five-story building with over 16,800 square feet of commercial space;

(2) the area of the premises does not exceed 31,050 square feet;

(3) the area of the restaurant does not exceed 5,800 square feet;

(4) the building has no less than 78 condominium units;

(5) the construction of the building in which the restaurant is located was completed in 2006;

(6) the building has 10 storefront properties, 3 of which are used for the restaurant;

(7) the restaurant will open for business in 2010;

(8) the building is north of the school and separated by an alley; and

(9) the principal religious leader of the church and either the alderman of the ward in which the school is located or the principal of the school have delivered a written statement to the local liquor control commissioner stating that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (t).

(u) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises operates as a restaurant and has been in operation since February 2008;

(2) the applicant is the owner of the premises;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(5) the premises occupy the first floor of a 3-story building that is at least 90 years old;

(6) the rear lot of the school and the rear corner of the building that the premises occupy are separated by an alley;

(7) the distance from the southwest corner of the property line of the school and the northeast corner of the building that the premises occupy is at least 16 feet, 5 inches;

(8) the distance from the rear door of the premises to the southwest corner of the property line of the school is at least 93 feet;

(9) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(10) the school's main structure was erected in 1902 and an addition was built to the main structure in 1959; and

(11) the principal of the school and the alderman in whose district the premises are located have expressed, in writing, their support for the issuance of the license.

(v) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the total land area of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is more than 600,000 square feet;

(2) the premises for which the license or renewal is sought has more than 600 parking stalls;

(3) the total area of all buildings on the premises for which the license or renewal is sought exceeds 140,000 square feet;

(4) the property line of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is separated from the property line of the school by a street;

(5) the distance from the school's property line to the property line of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is at least 60 feet;

(6) as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is located in the Illinois Medical District.

(w) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises occupy the first floor and basement of a 2-story building that is 106 years old;

(4) the premises is at least 7,000 square feet and located on a lot that is at least 11,000 square feet;

(5) the premises is located directly west of the church, on perpendicular streets, and separated by an alley;

(6) the distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the church is at least 20 feet;

(7) the distance between the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church is at least 130 feet; and

(8) the church has been at its location for at least 40 years.

(x) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the church has been operating in its current location since 1973;

(3) the premises has been operating in its current location since 1988;

(4) the church and the premises are owned by the same parish;

(5) the premises is used for cultural and educational purposes;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(7) the principal religious leader of the church has indicated his support of the issuance of the license;

(8) the premises is a 2-story building of approximately 23,000 square feet; and

(9) the premises houses a ballroom on its ground floor of approximately 5,000 square feet.

(y) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) according to the municipality, the distance between the east property line of the premises and the west property line of the school is 97.8 feet;

(4) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(5) the school has been operating since 1959;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the school are located on the same street;

(7) the street on which the entrances of the premises and the school are located is a major diagonal thoroughfare;

(8) the premises is a single-story building of approximately 2,900 square feet; and

(9) the premises is used for commercial purposes only.

(z) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a mosque if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain having over 100 locations within the municipality;

(4) the licensee has over 8,000 locations nationwide;

(5) the licensee has locations in all 50 states;

(6) the premises is located in the North-East quadrant of the municipality;

(7) the premises is a free-standing building that has "drive-through" pharmacy service;

(8) the premises has approximately 14,490 square feet of retail space;

(9) the premises has approximately 799 square feet of pharmacy space;

(10) the premises is located on a major arterial street that runs east-west and accepts truck traffic; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(aa) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain having over 100 locations within the municipality;

(4) the licensee has over 8,000 locations nationwide;

(5) the licensee has locations in all 50 states;

(6) the premises is located in the North-East quadrant of the municipality;

(7) the premises is located across the street from a national grocery chain outlet;

(8) the premises has approximately 16,148 square feet of retail space;

(9) the premises has approximately 992 square feet of pharmacy space;

(10) the premises is located on a major arterial street that runs north-south and accepts truck traffic; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(bb) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(4) the premises is across the street from the church;

(5) the street on which the premises and the church are located is a major arterial street that runs east-west;

(6) the church is an elder-led and Bible-based Assyrian church;

(7) the premises and the church are both single-story buildings;

(8) the storefront directly west of the church is being used as a restaurant; and

(9) the distance between the northern-most property line of the premises and the southern-most property line of the church is 65 feet.

(cc) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain;

(4) as of October 25, 2011, the licensee has 1,767 stores operating nationwide, 87 stores operating in the State, and 10 stores operating within the municipality;

(5) the licensee shall occupy approximately 124,000 square feet of space in the basement and first and second floors of a building located across the street from a school;

(6) the school opened in August of 2009 and occupies approximately 67,000 square feet of space; and

(7) the building in which the premises shall be located has been listed on the National Register of Historic Places since April 17, 1970.

(dd) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises is constructed on land that was purchased from the municipality at a fair market price;

(2) the premises is constructed on land that was previously used as a parking facility for public safety employees;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(4) the main entrance to the store is more than 100 feet from the main entrance to the school;

(5) the premises is to be new construction;

(6) the school is a private school;

(7) the principal of the school has given written approval for the license;

(8) the alderman of the ward where the premises is located has given written approval of the issuance of the license;

(9) the grocery store level of the premises is between 60,000 and 70,000 square feet; and

(10) the owner and operator of the grocery store operates 2 other grocery stores that have alcoholic liquor licenses within the same municipality.

(ee) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 hundred feet of a school if:

(1) the premises is constructed on land that once contained an industrial steel facility;

(2) the premises is located on land that has undergone environmental remediation;

(3) the premises is located within a retail complex containing retail stores where some of the stores sell alcoholic beverages;

(4) the principal activity of any restaurant in the retail complex is the sale of food, and the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the grocery store;

(6) the entrance to any business that sells alcoholic liquor is more than 100 feet from the entrance to the school;

(7) the alderman of the ward where the premises is located has given written approval of the issuance of the license; and

(8) the principal of the school has given written consent to the issuance of the license.

(ff) (dd) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a theater;

(3) the premises is a one and one-half-story building of approximately 10,000 square feet;

(4) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the school are at least 300 feet apart and no more than 400 feet apart;

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his support for the issuance of the license; and

(7) the principal of the school has expressed, in writing, that there is no objection to the issuance of a license under this subsection (ff) (dd).

(Source: P.A. 96-283, eff. 8-11-09; 96-744, eff. 8-25-09; 96-851, eff. 12-23-09; 96-871, eff. 1-21-10; 96-1051, eff. 7-14-10; 97-9, eff. 6-14-11; 97-12, eff. 6-14-11; 97-634, eff. 12-16-11; 97-774, eff. 7-13-12; 97-780, eff. 7-13-12; 97-806, eff. 7-13-12; revised 7-23-12.)

Section 400. The Safety Deposit License Act is amended by changing Section 22.1 as follows:

(240 ILCS 5/22.1)

Sec. 22.1. All moneys received by the Department of Financial Institutions under this Act shall be deposited in the Financial Institution Institutions Fund created under Section 6z-26 of the State Finance Act.

(Source: P.A. 88-13; revised 10-18-12.)

Section 405. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 5-2, 5-4.2, 5-5, 5-5.12, 5A-5, 5A-8, 5A-10, 5A-12.4, 5C-1, 5C-5, 5C-7, 11-26, 12-5, and 14-8 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-2)

Sec. 5-2. Classes of Persons Eligible. Medical assistance under this Article shall be available to any of the following classes of persons in respect to whom a plan for coverage has been submitted to the Governor by the Illinois Department and approved by him:

1. Recipients of basic maintenance grants under Articles III and IV.

2. Persons otherwise eligible for basic maintenance under Articles III and IV, excluding any eligibility requirements that are inconsistent with any federal law or federal regulation, as interpreted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, but who fail to qualify thereunder on the basis of need or who qualify but are not receiving basic maintenance under Article IV, and who have insufficient income and resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care, including but not limited to the following:

(a) All persons otherwise eligible for basic maintenance under Article III but who fail to qualify under that Article on the basis of need and who meet either of the following requirements:

(i) their income, as determined by the Illinois Department in accordance with any federal requirements, is equal to or less than 70% in fiscal year 2001, equal to or less than 85% in fiscal year 2002 and until a date to be determined by the Department by rule, and equal to or less than 100% beginning on the date determined by the Department by rule, of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget and revised annually in accordance with Section 673(2) of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, applicable to families of the same size; or

(ii) their income, after the deduction of costs incurred for medical care and for other types of remedial care, is equal to or less than 70% in fiscal year 2001, equal to or less than 85% in fiscal year 2002 and until a date to be determined by the Department by rule, and equal to or less than 100% beginning on the date determined by the Department by rule, of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined in item (i) of this subparagraph (a).

(b) All persons who, excluding any eligibility requirements that are inconsistent with any federal law or federal regulation, as interpreted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, would be determined eligible for such basic maintenance under Article IV by disregarding the maximum earned income permitted by federal law.

3. Persons who would otherwise qualify for Aid to the Medically Indigent under Article VII.

4. Persons not eligible under any of the preceding paragraphs who fall sick, are injured, or die, not having sufficient money, property or other resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care or funeral and burial expenses.

5.(a) Women during pregnancy, after the fact of pregnancy has been determined by medical diagnosis, and during the 60-day period beginning on the last day of the pregnancy, together with their infants and children born after September 30, 1983, whose income and resources are insufficient to meet the costs of necessary medical care to the maximum extent possible under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

(b) The Illinois Department and the Governor shall provide a plan for coverage of the persons eligible under paragraph 5(a) by April 1, 1990. Such plan shall provide ambulatory prenatal care to pregnant women during a presumptive eligibility period and establish an income eligibility standard that is equal to 133% of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget and revised annually in accordance with Section 673(2) of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, applicable to families of the same size, provided that costs incurred for medical care are not taken into account in determining such income eligibility.

(c) The Illinois Department may conduct a demonstration in at least one county that will provide medical assistance to pregnant women, together with their infants and children up to one year of age, where the income eligibility standard is set up to 185% of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget. The Illinois Department shall seek and obtain necessary authorization provided under federal law to implement such a demonstration. Such demonstration may establish resource standards that are not more restrictive than those established under Article IV of this Code.

6. Persons under the age of 18 who fail to qualify as dependent under Article IV and who have insufficient income and resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care to the maximum extent permitted under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

7. (Blank).

8. Persons who become ineligible for basic maintenance assistance under Article IV of this Code in programs administered by the Illinois Department due to employment earnings and persons in assistance units comprised of adults and children who become ineligible for basic maintenance assistance under Article VI of this Code due to employment earnings. The plan for coverage for this class of persons shall:

(a) extend the medical assistance coverage for up to 12 months following termination of basic maintenance assistance; and

(b) offer persons who have initially received 6 months of the coverage provided in paragraph (a) above, the option of receiving an additional 6 months of coverage, subject to the following:

(i) such coverage shall be pursuant to provisions of the federal Social Security Act;

(ii) such coverage shall include all services covered while the person was eligible for basic maintenance assistance;

(iii) no premium shall be charged for such coverage; and

(iv) such coverage shall be suspended in the event of a person's failure without good cause to file in a timely fashion reports required for this coverage under the Social Security Act and coverage shall be reinstated upon the filing of such reports if the person remains otherwise eligible.

9. Persons with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or with AIDS-related conditions with respect to whom there has been a determination that but for home or community-based services such individuals would require the level of care provided in an inpatient hospital, skilled nursing facility or intermediate care facility the cost of which is reimbursed under this Article. Assistance shall be provided to such persons to the maximum extent permitted under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

10. Participants in the long-term care insurance partnership program established under the Illinois Long-Term Care Partnership Program Act who meet the qualifications for protection of resources described in Section 15 of that Act.

11. Persons with disabilities who are employed and eligible for Medicaid, pursuant to Section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(xv) of the Social Security Act, and, subject to federal approval, persons with a medically improved disability who are employed and eligible for Medicaid pursuant to Section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(xvi) of the Social Security Act, as provided by the Illinois Department by rule. In establishing eligibility standards under this paragraph 11, the Department shall, subject to federal approval:

(a) set the income eligibility standard at not lower than 350% of the federal poverty level;

(b) exempt retirement accounts that the person cannot access without penalty before the age of 59 1/2, and medical savings accounts established pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 220;

(c) allow non-exempt assets up to $25,000 as to those assets accumulated during periods of eligibility under this paragraph 11; and

(d) continue to apply subparagraphs (b) and (c) in determining the eligibility of the person under this Article even if the person loses eligibility under this paragraph 11.

12. Subject to federal approval, persons who are eligible for medical assistance coverage under applicable provisions of the federal Social Security Act and the federal Breast and Cervical Cancer Prevention and Treatment Act of 2000. Those eligible persons are defined to include, but not be limited to, the following persons:

(1) persons who have been screened for breast or cervical cancer under the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Breast and Cervical Cancer Program established under Title XV of the federal Public Health Services Act in accordance with the requirements of Section 1504 of that Act as administered by the Illinois Department of Public Health; and

(2) persons whose screenings under the above program were funded in whole or in part by funds appropriated to the Illinois Department of Public Health for breast or cervical cancer screening.

"Medical assistance" under this paragraph 12 shall be identical to the benefits provided under the State's approved plan under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. The Department must request federal approval of the coverage under this paragraph 12 within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

In addition to the persons who are eligible for medical assistance pursuant to subparagraphs (1) and (2) of this paragraph 12, and to be paid from funds appropriated to the Department for its medical programs, any uninsured person as defined by the Department in rules residing in Illinois who is younger than 65 years of age, who has been screened for breast and cervical cancer in accordance with standards and procedures adopted by the Department of Public Health for screening, and who is referred to the Department by the Department of Public Health as being in need of treatment for breast or cervical cancer is eligible for medical assistance benefits that are consistent with the benefits provided to those persons described in subparagraphs (1) and (2). Medical assistance coverage for the persons who are eligible under the preceding sentence is not dependent on federal approval, but federal moneys may be used to pay for services provided under that coverage upon federal approval.

13. Subject to appropriation and to federal approval, persons living with HIV/AIDS who are not otherwise eligible under this Article and who qualify for services covered under Section 5-5.04 as provided by the Illinois Department by rule.

14. Subject to the availability of funds for this purpose, the Department may provide coverage under this Article to persons who reside in Illinois who are not eligible under any of the preceding paragraphs and who meet the income guidelines of paragraph 2(a) of this Section and (i) have an application for asylum pending before the federal Department of Homeland Security or on appeal before a court of competent jurisdiction and are represented either by counsel or by an advocate accredited by the federal Department of Homeland Security and employed by a not-for-profit organization in regard to that application or appeal, or (ii) are receiving services through a federally funded torture treatment center. Medical coverage under this paragraph 14 may be provided for up to 24 continuous months from the initial eligibility date so long as an individual continues to satisfy the criteria of this paragraph 14. If an individual has an appeal pending regarding an application for asylum before the Department of Homeland Security, eligibility under this paragraph 14 may be extended until a final decision is rendered on the appeal. The Department may adopt rules governing the implementation of this paragraph 14.

15. Family Care Eligibility.

(a) On and after July 1, 2012, a caretaker relative who is 19 years of age or older when countable income is at or below 133% of the Federal Poverty Level Guidelines, as published annually in the Federal Register, for the appropriate family size. A person may not spend down to become eligible under this paragraph 15.

(b) Eligibility shall be reviewed annually.

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(i) Following termination of an individual's coverage under this paragraph 15, the individual must be determined eligible before the person can be re-enrolled.

16. Subject to appropriation, uninsured persons who are not otherwise eligible under this Section who have been certified and referred by the Department of Public Health as having been screened and found to need diagnostic evaluation or treatment, or both diagnostic evaluation and treatment, for prostate or testicular cancer. For the purposes of this paragraph 16, uninsured persons are those who do not have creditable coverage, as defined under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, or have otherwise exhausted any insurance benefits they may have had, for prostate or testicular cancer diagnostic evaluation or treatment, or both diagnostic evaluation and treatment. To be eligible, a person must furnish a Social Security number. A person's assets are exempt from consideration in determining eligibility under this paragraph 16. Such persons shall be eligible for medical assistance under this paragraph 16 for so long as they need treatment for the cancer. A person shall be considered to need treatment if, in the opinion of the person's treating physician, the person requires therapy directed toward cure or palliation of prostate or testicular cancer, including recurrent metastatic cancer that is a known or presumed complication of prostate or testicular cancer and complications resulting from the treatment modalities themselves. Persons who require only routine monitoring services are not considered to need treatment. "Medical assistance" under this paragraph 16 shall be identical to the benefits provided under the State's approved plan under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Department (i) does not have a claim against the estate of a deceased recipient of services under this paragraph 16 and (ii) does not have a lien against any homestead property or other legal or equitable real property interest owned by a recipient of services under this paragraph 16.

17. Persons who, pursuant to a waiver approved by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, are eligible for medical assistance under Title XIX or XXI of the federal Social Security Act. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and consistent with the terms of the approved waiver, the Illinois Department, may by rule:

(a) Limit the geographic areas in which the waiver program operates.

(b) Determine the scope, quantity, duration, and quality, and the rate and method of reimbursement, of the medical services to be provided, which may differ from those for other classes of persons eligible for assistance under this Article.

(c) Restrict the persons' freedom in choice of providers.

In implementing the provisions of Public Act 96-20, the Department is authorized to adopt only those rules necessary, including emergency rules. Nothing in Public Act 96-20 permits the Department to adopt rules or issue a decision that expands eligibility for the FamilyCare Program to a person whose income exceeds 185% of the Federal Poverty Level as determined from time to time by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, unless the Department is provided with express statutory authority.

The Illinois Department and the Governor shall provide a plan for coverage of the persons eligible under paragraph 7 as soon as possible after July 1, 1984.

The eligibility of any such person for medical assistance under this Article is not affected by the payment of any grant under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act or any distributions or items of income described under subparagraph (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The Department shall by rule establish the amounts of assets to be disregarded in determining eligibility for medical assistance, which shall at a minimum equal the amounts to be disregarded under the Federal Supplemental Security Income Program. The amount of assets of a single person to be disregarded shall not be less than $2,000, and the amount of assets of a married couple to be disregarded shall not be less than $3,000.

To the extent permitted under federal law, any person found guilty of a second violation of Article VIIIA shall be ineligible for medical assistance under this Article, as provided in Section 8A-8.

The eligibility of any person for medical assistance under this Article shall not be affected by the receipt by the person of donations or benefits from fundraisers held for the person in cases of serious illness, as long as neither the person nor members of the person's family have actual control over the donations or benefits or the disbursement of the donations or benefits.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, if the United States Supreme Court holds Title II, Subtitle A, Section 2001(a) of Public Law 111-148 to be unconstitutional, or if a holding of Public Law 111-148 makes Medicaid eligibility allowed under Section 2001(a) inoperable, the State or a unit of local government shall be prohibited from enrolling individuals in the Medical Assistance Program as the result of federal approval of a State Medicaid waiver on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, and any individuals enrolled in the Medical Assistance Program pursuant to eligibility permitted as a result of such a State Medicaid waiver shall become immediately ineligible.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, if an Act of Congress that becomes a Public Law eliminates Section 2001(a) of Public Law 111-148, the State or a unit of local government shall be prohibited from enrolling individuals in the Medical Assistance Program as the result of federal approval of a State Medicaid waiver on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, and any individuals enrolled in the Medical Assistance Program pursuant to eligibility permitted as a result of such a State Medicaid waiver shall become immediately ineligible.

(Source: P.A. 96-20, eff. 6-30-09; 96-181, eff. 8-10-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-567, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1123, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1270, eff. 7-26-10; 97-48, eff. 6-28-11; 97-74, eff. 6-30-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-687, eff. 6-14-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 7-23-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-4.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-4.2)

Sec. 5-4.2. Ambulance services payments.

(a) For ambulance services provided to a recipient of aid under this Article on or after January 1, 1993, the Illinois Department shall reimburse ambulance service providers at rates calculated in accordance with this Section. It is the intent of the General Assembly to provide adequate reimbursement for ambulance services so as to ensure adequate access to services for recipients of aid under this Article and to provide appropriate incentives to ambulance service providers to provide services in an efficient and cost-effective manner. Thus, it is the intent of the General Assembly that the Illinois Department implement a reimbursement system for ambulance services that, to the extent practicable and subject to the availability of funds appropriated by the General Assembly for this purpose, is consistent with the payment principles of Medicare. To ensure uniformity between the payment principles of Medicare and Medicaid, the Illinois Department shall follow, to the extent necessary and practicable and subject to the availability of funds appropriated by the General Assembly for this purpose, the statutes, laws, regulations, policies, procedures, principles, definitions, guidelines, and manuals used to determine the amounts paid to ambulance service providers under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act (Medicare).

(b) For ambulance services provided to a recipient of aid under this Article on or after January 1, 1996, the Illinois Department shall reimburse ambulance service providers based upon the actual distance traveled if a natural disaster, weather conditions, road repairs, or traffic congestion necessitates the use of a route other than the most direct route.

(c) For purposes of this Section, "ambulance services" includes medical transportation services provided by means of an ambulance, medi-car, service car, or taxi.

(c-1) For purposes of this Section, "ground ambulance service" means medical transportation services that are described as ground ambulance services by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and provided in a vehicle that is licensed as an ambulance by the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(c-2) For purposes of this Section, "ground ambulance service provider" means a vehicle service provider as described in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act that operates licensed ambulances for the purpose of providing emergency ambulance services, or non-emergency ambulance services, or both. For purposes of this Section, this includes both ambulance providers and ambulance suppliers as described by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

(d) This Section does not prohibit separate billing by ambulance service providers for oxygen furnished while providing advanced life support services.

(e) Beginning with services rendered on or after July 1, 2008, all providers of non-emergency medi-car and service car transportation must certify that the driver and employee attendant, as applicable, have completed a safety program approved by the Department to protect both the patient and the driver, prior to transporting a patient. The provider must maintain this certification in its records. The provider shall produce such documentation upon demand by the Department or its representative. Failure to produce documentation of such training shall result in recovery of any payments made by the Department for services rendered by a non-certified driver or employee attendant. Medi-car and service car providers must maintain legible documentation in their records of the driver and, as applicable, employee attendant that actually transported the patient. Providers must recertify all drivers and employee attendants every 3 years.

Notwithstanding the requirements above, any public transportation provider of medi-car and service car transportation that receives federal funding under 49 U.S.C. 5307 and 5311 need not certify its drivers and employee attendants under this Section, since safety training is already federally mandated.

(f) With respect to any policy or program administered by the Department or its agent regarding approval of non-emergency medical transportation by ground ambulance service providers, including, but not limited to, the Non-Emergency Transportation Services Prior Approval Program (NETSPAP), the Department shall establish by rule a process by which ground ambulance service providers of non-emergency medical transportation may appeal any decision by the Department or its agent for which no denial was received prior to the time of transport that either (i) denies a request for approval for payment of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service or (ii) grants a request for approval of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service at a level of service that entitles the ground ambulance service provider to a lower level of compensation from the Department than the ground ambulance service provider would have received as compensation for the level of service requested. The rule shall be filed by December 15, 2012 and shall provide that, for any decision rendered by the Department or its agent on or after the date the rule takes effect, the ground ambulance service provider shall have 60 days from the date the decision is received to file an appeal. The rule established by the Department shall be, insofar as is practical, consistent with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The Director's decision on an appeal under this Section shall be a final administrative decision subject to review under the Administrative Review Law.

(f-5) (g) Beginning 90 days after July 20, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-842) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, (i) no denial of a request for approval for payment of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service, and (ii) no approval of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service at a level of service that entitles the ground ambulance service provider to a lower level of compensation from the Department than would have been received at the level of service submitted by the ground ambulance service provider, may be issued by the Department or its agent unless the Department has submitted the criteria for determining the appropriateness of the transport for first notice publication in the Illinois Register pursuant to Section 5-40 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(g) Whenever a patient covered by a medical assistance program under this Code or by another medical program administered by the Department is being discharged from a facility, a physician discharge order as described in this Section shall be required for each patient whose discharge requires medically supervised ground ambulance services. Facilities shall develop procedures for a physician with medical staff privileges to provide a written and signed physician discharge order. The physician discharge order shall specify the level of ground ambulance services needed and complete a medical certification establishing the criteria for approval of non-emergency ambulance transportation, as published by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, that is met by the patient. This order and the medical certification shall be completed prior to ordering an ambulance service and prior to patient discharge.

Pursuant to subsection (E) of Section 12-4.25 of this Code, the Department is entitled to recover overpayments paid to a provider or vendor, including, but not limited to, from the discharging physician, the discharging facility, and the ground ambulance service provider, in instances where a non-emergency ground ambulance service is rendered as the result of improper or false certification.

(h) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(Source: P.A. 97-584, eff. 8-26-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-842, eff. 7-20-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a physician, such procedures are necessary for the preservation of the life of the woman seeking such treatment, or except an induced premature birth intended to produce a live viable child and such procedure is necessary for the health of the mother or her unborn child. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance to anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician has been found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at the time such abortion procedure was performed. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no cost to render dental services through an enrolled not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through which dental services covered under this Section are performed. The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under this provision.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for women 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of drug abuse or is addicted as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant women under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under the Drug Free Families with a Future or any comparable program providing case management services for addicted women, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of her substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that if an audit is initiated within the required retention period then the records must be retained until the audit is completed and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1984, the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall require that a written statement including the required opinion of a physician shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births. This statement shall indicate what procedures were used in providing such medical services.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause. Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without penalty.

The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional enrollment period for vendors based upon category of risk of the vendor.

Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review, which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and financial background checks; fingerprinting; license, certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other screening as required by federal or State law.

The Department shall define or specify the following: (i) by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice, the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during the conditional enrollment period.

To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which medical goods or services were provided, with the following exceptions:

(1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period shall not begin until the date on the written notice from the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is complete.

(2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries which result in an inability to receive, process, or adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin until the provider has been notified of the error.

(3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois Department initiates the monthly billing process.

For claims for services rendered during a period for which a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be filed within 180 days after the Department determines the applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final adjudication by the primary payer.

In the case of long term care facilities, admission documents shall be submitted within 30 days of an admission to the facility through the Medical Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient Eligibility Verification (REV) System, or shall be submitted directly to the Department of Human Services using required admission forms. Confirmation numbers assigned to an accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the admission transaction has been completed.

Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for payment under the medical assistance program, and the State shall have no liability for payment of those claims.

To the extent consistent with applicable information and privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department access to confidential and other information and data necessary to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not limited to: information pertaining to licensure; certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income; employment; supplemental security income; social security numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency; corporate information; and death records.

The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight. The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, including but not limited to: the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services; and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department shall set forth a request for information to identify the benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii) clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre- or post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case management system with link analysis. Such a request for information shall not be considered as a request for proposal or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to take any action or acquire any products or services.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants for institutional and home and community-based long term care; if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care eligibility criteria for institutional and home and community-based long term care. In order to select the minimum level of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and stakeholders representing the institutional and home and community-based long term care interests. This Section shall not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of care eligibility criteria for community-based services in circumstances where federal approval has been granted.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The filing of one copy of the report with the Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the President, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Secretary of the Senate, one copy with the Legislative Research Unit, and such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(Source: P.A. 96-156, eff. 1-1-10; 96-806, eff. 7-1-10; 96-926, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-48, eff. 6-28-11; 97-638, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-1061, eff. 8-24-12; revised 9-20-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.12) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.12)

Sec. 5-5.12. Pharmacy payments.

(a) Every request submitted by a pharmacy for reimbursement under this Article for prescription drugs provided to a recipient of aid under this Article shall include the name of the prescriber or an acceptable identification number as established by the Department.

(b) Pharmacies providing prescription drugs under this Article shall be reimbursed at a rate which shall include a professional dispensing fee as determined by the Illinois Department, plus the current acquisition cost of the prescription drug dispensed. The Illinois Department shall update its information on the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs no less frequently than every 30 days. However, the Illinois Department may set the rate of reimbursement for the acquisition cost, by rule, at a percentage of the current average wholesale acquisition cost.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The Department shall review utilization of narcotic medications in the medical assistance program and impose utilization controls that protect against abuse.

(e) When making determinations as to which drugs shall be on a prior approval list, the Department shall include as part of the analysis for this determination, the degree to which a drug may affect individuals in different ways based on factors including the gender of the person taking the medication.

(f) The Department shall cooperate with the Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health in identifying psychotropic medications that, when given in a particular form, manner, duration, or frequency (including "as needed") in a dosage, or in conjunction with other psychotropic medications to a nursing home resident or to a resident of a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, may constitute a chemical restraint or an "unnecessary drug" as defined by the Nursing Home Care Act or Titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act and the implementing rules and regulations. The Department shall require prior approval for any such medication prescribed for a nursing home resident or to a resident of a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, that appears to be a chemical restraint or an unnecessary drug. The Department shall consult with the Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health in developing a protocol and criteria for deciding whether to grant such prior approval.

(g) The Department may by rule provide for reimbursement of the dispensing of a 90-day supply of a generic or brand name, non-narcotic maintenance medication in circumstances where it is cost effective.

(g-5) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department may require the dispensing of drugs to nursing home residents be in a 7-day supply or other amount less than a 31-day supply. The Department shall pay only one dispensing fee per 31-day supply.

(h) Effective July 1, 2011, the Department shall discontinue coverage of select over-the-counter drugs, including analgesics and cough and cold and allergy medications.

(h-5) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall impose utilization controls, including, but not limited to, prior approval on specialty drugs, oncolytic drugs, drugs for the treatment of HIV or AIDS, immunosuppressant drugs, and biological products in order to maximize savings on these drugs. The Department may adjust payment methodologies for non-pharmacy billed drugs in order to incentivize the selection of lower-cost drugs. For drugs for the treatment of AIDS, the Department shall take into consideration the potential for non-adherence by certain populations, and shall develop protocols with organizations or providers primarily serving those with HIV/AIDS, as long as such measures intend to maintain cost neutrality with other utilization management controls such as prior approval. For hemophilia, the Department shall develop a program of utilization review and control which may include, in the discretion of the Department, prior approvals. The Department may impose special standards on providers that dispense blood factors which shall include, in the discretion of the Department, staff training and education; patient outreach and education; case management; in-home patient assessments; assay management; maintenance of stock; emergency dispensing timeframes; data collection and reporting; dispensing of supplies related to blood factor infusions; cold chain management and packaging practices; care coordination; product recalls; and emergency clinical consultation. The Department may require patients to receive a comprehensive examination annually at an appropriate provider in order to be eligible to continue to receive blood factor.

(i) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(i) (Blank).

(j) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall impose limitations on prescription drugs such that the Department shall not provide reimbursement for more than 4 prescriptions, including 3 brand name prescriptions, for distinct drugs in a 30-day period, unless prior approval is received for all prescriptions in excess of the 4-prescription limit. Drugs in the following therapeutic classes shall not be subject to prior approval as a result of the 4-prescription limit: immunosuppressant drugs, oncolytic drugs, and anti-retroviral drugs.

(k) No medication therapy management program implemented by the Department shall be contrary to the provisions of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(l) Any provider enrolled with the Department that bills the Department for outpatient drugs and is eligible to enroll in the federal Drug Pricing Program under Section 340B of the federal Public Health Services Act shall enroll in that program. No entity participating in the federal Drug Pricing Program under Section 340B of the federal Public Health Services Act may exclude Medicaid from their participation in that program, although the Department may exclude entities defined in Section 1905(l)(2)(B) of the Social Security Act from this requirement.

(Source: P.A. 96-1269, eff. 7-26-10; 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; 96-1501, eff. 1-25-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-74, eff. 6-30-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-426, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-5)

Sec. 5A-5. Notice; penalty; maintenance of records.

(a) The Illinois Department shall send a notice of assessment to every hospital provider subject to assessment under this Article. The notice of assessment shall notify the hospital of its assessment and shall be sent after receipt by the Department of notification from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services that the payment methodologies required under this Article and, if necessary, the waiver granted under 42 CFR 433.68 have been approved. The notice shall be on a form prepared by the Illinois Department and shall state the following:

(1) The name of the hospital provider.

(2) The address of the hospital provider's principal place of business from which the provider engages in the occupation of hospital provider in this State, and the name and address of each hospital operated, conducted, or maintained by the provider in this State.

(3) The occupied bed days, occupied bed days less Medicare days, adjusted gross hospital revenue, or outpatient gross revenue of the hospital provider (whichever is applicable), the amount of assessment imposed under Section 5A-2 for the State fiscal year for which the notice is sent, and the amount of each installment to be paid during the State fiscal year.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Other reasonable information as determined by the Illinois Department.

(b) If a hospital provider conducts, operates, or maintains more than one hospital licensed by the Illinois Department of Public Health, the provider shall pay the assessment for each hospital separately.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, in the case of a person who ceases to conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital in respect of which the person is subject to assessment under this Article as a hospital provider, the assessment for the State fiscal year in which the cessation occurs shall be adjusted by multiplying the assessment computed under Section 5A-2 by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of days in the year during which the provider conducts, operates, or maintains the hospital and the denominator of which is 365. Immediately upon ceasing to conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital, the person shall pay the assessment for the year as so adjusted (to the extent not previously paid).

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, a provider who commences conducting, operating, or maintaining a hospital, upon notice by the Illinois Department, shall pay the assessment computed under Section 5A-2 and subsection (e) in installments on the due dates stated in the notice and on the regular installment due dates for the State fiscal year occurring after the due dates of the initial notice.

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, for State fiscal years 2009 through 2014 2015, in the case of a hospital provider that did not conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital in 2005, the assessment for that State fiscal year shall be computed on the basis of hypothetical occupied bed days for the full calendar year as determined by the Illinois Department. Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, for State fiscal years 2013 through 2014, and for July 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014, in the case of a hospital provider that did not conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital in 2009, the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 for that State fiscal year shall be computed on the basis of hypothetical gross outpatient revenue for the full calendar year as determined by the Illinois Department.

(f) Every hospital provider subject to assessment under this Article shall keep sufficient records to permit the determination of adjusted gross hospital revenue for the hospital's fiscal year. All such records shall be kept in the English language and shall, at all times during regular business hours of the day, be subject to inspection by the Illinois Department or its duly authorized agents and employees.

(g) The Illinois Department may, by rule, provide a hospital provider a reasonable opportunity to request a clarification or correction of any clerical or computational errors contained in the calculation of its assessment, but such corrections shall not extend to updating the cost report information used to calculate the assessment.

(h) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11; 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; revised 10-17-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-8)

Sec. 5A-8. Hospital Provider Fund.

(a) There is created in the State Treasury the Hospital Provider Fund. Interest earned by the Fund shall be credited to the Fund. The Fund shall not be used to replace any moneys appropriated to the Medicaid program by the General Assembly.

(b) The Fund is created for the purpose of receiving moneys in accordance with Section 5A-6 and disbursing moneys only for the following purposes, notwithstanding any other provision of law:

(1) For making payments to hospitals as required under this Code, under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, under the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and under the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act.

(2) For the reimbursement of moneys collected by the Illinois Department from hospitals or hospital providers through error or mistake in performing the activities authorized under this Code.

(3) For payment of administrative expenses incurred by the Illinois Department or its agent in performing activities under this Code, under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, under the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and under the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act.

(4) For payments of any amounts which are reimbursable to the federal government for payments from this Fund which are required to be paid by State warrant.

(5) For making transfers, as those transfers are authorized in the proceedings authorizing debt under the Short Term Borrowing Act, but transfers made under this paragraph (5) shall not exceed the principal amount of debt issued in anticipation of the receipt by the State of moneys to be deposited into the Fund.

(6) For making transfers to any other fund in the State treasury, but transfers made under this paragraph (6) shall not exceed the amount transferred previously from that other fund into the Hospital Provider Fund plus any interest that would have been earned by that fund on the monies that had been transferred.

(6.5) For making transfers to the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund, except that transfers made under this paragraph (6.5) shall not exceed $60,000,000 in the aggregate.

(7) For making transfers not exceeding the following amounts, in State fiscal years 2013 and 2014 in each State fiscal year during which an assessment is imposed pursuant to Section 5A-2, to the following designated funds:

Health and Human Services Medicaid Trust

Fund..............................$20,000,000

Long-Term Care Provider Fund..........$30,000,000

General Revenue Fund.................$80,000,000.

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

(7.1) For making transfers not exceeding the following amounts, in State fiscal year 2015, to the following designated funds:

Health and Human Services Medicaid Trust

Fund..............................$10,000,000

Long-Term Care Provider Fund..........$15,000,000

General Revenue Fund.................$40,000,000.

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

(7.5) (Blank).

(7.8) (Blank).

(7.9) (Blank).

(7.10) For State fiscal years 2013 and 2014, for making transfers of the moneys resulting from the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 and transferred into the Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts in that State fiscal year:

Health Care Provider Relief Fund......$50,000,000

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

(7.11) For State fiscal year 2015, for making transfers of the moneys resulting from the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 and transferred into the Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts in that State fiscal year:

Health Care Provider Relief Fund.....$25,000,000

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

(8) For making refunds to hospital providers pursuant to Section 5A-10.

Disbursements from the Fund, other than transfers authorized under paragraphs (5) and (6) of this subsection, shall be by warrants drawn by the State Comptroller upon receipt of vouchers duly executed and certified by the Illinois Department.

(c) The Fund shall consist of the following:

(1) All moneys collected or received by the Illinois Department from the hospital provider assessment imposed by this Article.

(2) All federal matching funds received by the Illinois Department as a result of expenditures made by the Illinois Department that are attributable to moneys deposited in the Fund.

(3) Any interest or penalty levied in conjunction with the administration of this Article.

(4) Moneys transferred from another fund in the State treasury.

(5) All other moneys received for the Fund from any other source, including interest earned thereon.

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-3, eff. 2-27-09; 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; 96-821, eff. 11-20-09; 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11; 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; revised 10-17-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-10) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-10)

Sec. 5A-10. Applicability.

(a) The assessment imposed by subsection (a) of Section 5A-2 shall cease to be imposed and the Department's obligation to make payments shall immediately cease, and any moneys remaining in the Fund shall be refunded to hospital providers in proportion to the amounts paid by them, if:

(1) The payments to hospitals required under this Article are not eligible for federal matching funds under Title XIX or XXI of the Social Security Act;

(2) For State fiscal years 2009 through 2014, and July 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services adopts any administrative rule change to reduce payment rates or alters any payment methodology that reduces any payment rates made to operating hospitals under the approved Title XIX or Title XXI State plan in effect January 1, 2008 except for:

(A) any changes for hospitals described in subsection (b) of Section 5A-3;

(B) any rates for payments made under this Article V-A;

(C) any changes proposed in State plan amendment transmittal numbers 08-01, 08-02, 08-04, 08-06, and 08-07;

(D) in relation to any admissions on or after January 1, 2011, a modification in the methodology for calculating outlier payments to hospitals for exceptionally costly stays, for hospitals reimbursed under the diagnosis-related grouping methodology in effect on July 1, 2011 January 1, 2011; provided that the Department shall be limited to one such modification during the 36-month period after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly; or

(E) any changes affecting hospitals authorized by Public Act 97-689 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(b) The assessment imposed by Section 5A-2 shall not take effect or shall cease to be imposed, and the Department's obligation to make payments shall immediately cease, if the assessment is determined to be an impermissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. Moneys in the Hospital Provider Fund derived from assessments imposed prior thereto shall be disbursed in accordance with Section 5A-8 to the extent federal financial participation is not reduced due to the impermissibility of the assessments, and any remaining moneys shall be refunded to hospital providers in proportion to the amounts paid by them.

(c) The assessments imposed by subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 shall not take effect or shall cease to be imposed, the Department's obligation to make payments shall immediately cease, and any moneys remaining in the Fund shall be refunded to hospital providers in proportion to the amounts paid by them, if the payments to hospitals required under Section 5A-12.4 are not eligible for federal matching funds under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

(d) The assessments imposed by Section 5A-2 shall not take effect or shall cease to be imposed, the Department's obligation to make payments shall immediately cease, and any moneys remaining in the Fund shall be refunded to hospital providers in proportion to the amounts paid by them, if:

(1) for State fiscal years 2013 through 2014, and July 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014, the Department reduces any payment rates to hospitals as in effect on May 1, 2012, or alters any payment methodology as in effect on May 1, 2012, that has the effect of reducing payment rates to hospitals, except for any changes affecting hospitals authorized in Public Act 97-689 Senate Bill 2840 of the 97th General Assembly in the form in which it becomes law, and except for any changes authorized under Section 5A-15; or

(2) for State fiscal years 2013 through 2014, and July 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014, the Department reduces any supplemental payments made to hospitals below the amounts paid for services provided in State fiscal year 2011 as implemented by administrative rules adopted and in effect on or prior to June 30, 2011, except for any changes affecting hospitals authorized in Public Act 97-689 Senate Bill 2840 of the 97th General Assembly in the form in which it becomes law, and except for any changes authorized under Section 5A-15.

(Source: P.A. 96-8, eff. 4-28-09; 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11; 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; 97-74, eff. 6-30-11; 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; revised 10-17-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-12.4)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2015)

Sec. 5A-12.4. Hospital access improvement payments on or after July 1, 2012.

(a) Hospital access improvement payments. To preserve and improve access to hospital services, for hospital and physician services rendered on or after July 1, 2012, the Illinois Department shall, except for hospitals described in subsection (b) of Section 5A-3, make payments to hospitals as set forth in this Section. These payments shall be paid in 12 equal installments on or before the 7th State business day of each month, except that no payment shall be due within 100 days after the later of the date of notification of federal approval of the payment methodologies required under this Section or any waiver required under 42 CFR 433.68, at which time the sum of amounts required under this Section prior to the date of notification is due and payable. Payments under this Section are not due and payable, however, until (i) the methodologies described in this Section are approved by the federal government in an appropriate State Plan amendment and (ii) the assessment imposed under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 of this Article is determined to be a permissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. The Illinois Department shall take all actions necessary to implement the payments under this Section effective July 1, 2012, including but not limited to providing public notice pursuant to federal requirements, the filing of a State Plan amendment, and the adoption of administrative rules.

(a-5) Accelerated schedule. The Illinois Department may, when practicable, accelerate the schedule upon which payments authorized under this Section are made.

(b) Magnet and perinatal hospital adjustment. In addition to rates paid for inpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay to each Illinois general acute care hospital that, as of August 25, 2011, was recognized as a Magnet hospital by the American Nurses Credentialing Center and that, as of September 14, 2011, was designated as a level III perinatal center amounts as follows:

(1) For hospitals with a case mix index equal to or greater than the 80th percentile of case mix indices for all Illinois hospitals, $470 for each Medicaid general acute care inpatient day of care provided by the hospital during State fiscal year 2009.

(2) For all other hospitals, $170 for each Medicaid general acute care inpatient day of care provided by the hospital during State fiscal year 2009.

(c) Trauma level II adjustment. In addition to rates paid for inpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay to each Illinois general acute care hospital that, as of July 1, 2011, was designated as a level II trauma center amounts as follows:

(1) For hospitals with a case mix index equal to or greater than the 50th percentile of case mix indices for all Illinois hospitals, $470 for each Medicaid general acute care inpatient day of care provided by the hospital during State fiscal year 2009.

(2) For all other hospitals, $170 for each Medicaid general acute care inpatient day of care provided by the hospital during State fiscal year 2009.

(3) For the purposes of this adjustment, hospitals located in the same city that alternate their trauma center designation as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.295(a)(2) shall have the adjustment provided under this Section divided between the 2 hospitals.

(d) Dual-eligible adjustment. In addition to rates paid for inpatient services, the Department shall pay each Illinois general acute care hospital that had a ratio of crossover days to total inpatient days for programs under Title XIX of the Social Security Act administered by the Department (utilizing information from 2009 paid claims) greater than 50%, and a case mix index equal to or greater than the 75th percentile of case mix indices for all Illinois hospitals, a rate of $400 for each Medicaid inpatient day during State fiscal year 2009 including crossover days.

(e) Medicaid volume adjustment. In addition to rates paid for inpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay to each Illinois general acute care hospital that provided more than 10,000 Medicaid inpatient days of care in State fiscal year 2009, has a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate of at least 29.05% as calculated by the Department for the Rate Year 2011 Disproportionate Share determination, and is not eligible for Medicaid Percentage Adjustment payments in rate year 2011 an amount equal to $135 for each Medicaid inpatient day of care provided during State fiscal year 2009.

(f) Outpatient service adjustment. In addition to the rates paid for outpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay each Illinois hospital an amount at least equal to $100 multiplied by the hospital's outpatient ambulatory procedure listing services (excluding categories 3B and 3C) and by the hospital's end stage renal disease treatment services provided for State fiscal year 2009.

(g) Ambulatory service adjustment.

(1) In addition to the rates paid for outpatient hospital services provided in the emergency department, the Department shall pay each Illinois hospital an amount equal to $105 multiplied by the hospital's outpatient ambulatory procedure listing services for categories 3A, 3B, and 3C for State fiscal year 2009.

(2) In addition to the rates paid for outpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay each Illinois freestanding psychiatric hospital an amount equal to $200 multiplied by the hospital's ambulatory procedure listing services for category 5A for State fiscal year 2009.

(h) Specialty hospital adjustment. In addition to the rates paid for outpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay each Illinois long term acute care hospital and each Illinois hospital devoted exclusively to the treatment of cancer, an amount equal to $700 multiplied by the hospital's outpatient ambulatory procedure listing services and by the hospital's end stage renal disease treatment services (including services provided to individuals eligible for both Medicaid and Medicare) provided for State fiscal year 2009.

(h-1) ER Safety Net Payments. In addition to rates paid for outpatient services, the Department shall pay to each Illinois general acute care hospital with an emergency room ratio equal to or greater than 55%, that is not eligible for Medicaid percentage adjustments payments in rate year 2011, with a case mix index equal to or greater than the 20th percentile, and that is not designated as a trauma center by the Illinois Department of Public Health on July 1, 2011, as follows:

(1) Each hospital with an emergency room ratio equal to or greater than 74% shall receive a rate of $225 for each outpatient ambulatory procedure listing and end-stage renal disease treatment service provided for State fiscal year 2009.

(2) For all other hospitals, $65 shall be paid for each outpatient ambulatory procedure listing and end-stage renal disease treatment service provided for State fiscal year 2009.

(i) Physician supplemental adjustment. In addition to the rates paid for physician services, the Department shall make an adjustment payment for services provided by physicians as follows:

(1) Physician services eligible for the adjustment payment are those provided by physicians employed by or who have a contract to provide services to patients of the following hospitals: (i) Illinois general acute care hospitals that provided at least 17,000 Medicaid inpatient days of care in State fiscal year 2009 and are eligible for Medicaid Percentage Adjustment Payments in rate year 2011; and (ii) Illinois freestanding children's hospitals, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 149.50(c)(3)(A).

(2) The amount of the adjustment for each eligible hospital under this subsection (i) shall be determined by rule by the Department to spend a total pool of at least $6,960,000 annually. This pool shall be allocated among the eligible hospitals based on the difference between the upper payment limit for what could have been paid under Medicaid for physician services provided during State fiscal year 2009 by physicians employed by or who had a contract with the hospital and the amount that was paid under Medicaid for such services, provided however, that in no event shall physicians at any individual hospital collectively receive an annual, aggregate adjustment in excess of $435,000, except that any amount that is not distributed to a hospital because of the upper payment limit shall be reallocated among the remaining eligible hospitals that are below the upper payment limitation, on a proportionate basis.

(i-5) For any children's hospital which did not charge for its services during the base period, the Department shall use data supplied by the hospital to determine payments using similar methodologies for freestanding children's hospitals under this Section or Section 5A-12.2 12.2.

(j) For purposes of this Section, a hospital that is enrolled to provide Medicaid services during State fiscal year 2009 shall have its utilization and associated reimbursements annualized prior to the payment calculations being performed under this Section.

(k) For purposes of this Section, the terms "Medicaid days", "ambulatory procedure listing services", and "ambulatory procedure listing payments" do not include any days, charges, or services for which Medicare or a managed care organization reimbursed on a capitated basis was liable for payment, except where explicitly stated otherwise in this Section.

(l) Definitions. Unless the context requires otherwise or unless provided otherwise in this Section, the terms used in this Section for qualifying criteria and payment calculations shall have the same meanings as those terms have been given in the Illinois Department's administrative rules as in effect on October 1, 2011. Other terms shall be defined by the Illinois Department by rule.

As used in this Section, unless the context requires otherwise:

"Case mix index" means, for a given hospital, the sum of the per admission (DRG) relative weighting factors in effect on January 1, 2005, for all general acute care admissions for State fiscal year 2009, excluding Medicare crossover admissions and transplant admissions reimbursed under 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.82, divided by the total number of general acute care admissions for State fiscal year 2009, excluding Medicare crossover admissions and transplant admissions reimbursed under 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.82.

"Emergency room ratio" means, for a given hospital, a fraction, the denominator of which is the number of the hospital's outpatient ambulatory procedure listing and end-stage renal disease treatment services provided for State fiscal year 2009 and the numerator of which is the hospital's outpatient ambulatory procedure listing services for categories 3A, 3B, and 3C for State fiscal year 2009.

"Medicaid inpatient day" means, for a given hospital, the sum of days of inpatient hospital days provided to recipients of medical assistance under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, excluding days for individuals eligible for Medicare under Title XVIII of that Act (Medicaid/Medicare crossover days), as tabulated from the Department's paid claims data for admissions occurring during State fiscal year 2009 that was adjudicated by the Department through June 30, 2010.

"Outpatient ambulatory procedure listing services" means, for a given hospital, ambulatory procedure listing services, as described in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.140(b), provided to recipients of medical assistance under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, excluding services for individuals eligible for Medicare under Title XVIII of the Act (Medicaid/Medicare crossover days), as tabulated from the Department's paid claims data for services occurring in State fiscal year 2009 that were adjudicated by the Department through September 2, 2010.

"Outpatient end-stage renal disease treatment services" means, for a given hospital, the services, as described in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.140(c), provided to recipients of medical assistance under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, excluding payments for individuals eligible for Medicare under Title XVIII of the Act (Medicaid/Medicare crossover days), as tabulated from the Department's paid claims data for services occurring in State fiscal year 2009 that were adjudicated by the Department through September 2, 2010.

(m) The Department may adjust payments made under this Section 5A-12.4 to comply with federal law or regulations regarding hospital-specific payment limitations on government-owned or government-operated hospitals.

(n) Notwithstanding any of the other provisions of this Section, the Department is authorized to adopt rules that change the hospital access improvement payments specified in this Section, but only to the extent necessary to conform to any federally approved amendment to the Title XIX State plan. Any such rules shall be adopted by the Department as authorized by Section 5-50 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any changes implemented as a result of this subsection (n) shall be given retroactive effect so that they shall be deemed to have taken effect as of the effective date of this Section.

(o) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must submit a State Medicaid Plan Amendment to the Centers of Medicare and Medicaid Services to implement the payments under this Section within 30 days of June 14, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-688) this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5C-1) (from Ch. 23, par. 5C-1)

Sec. 5C-1. Definitions. As used in this Article, unless the context requires otherwise:

"Fund" means the Developmentally Disabled Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability.

"Developmentally disabled care facility" means an intermediate care facility for the intellectually disabled within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act, whether public or private and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit, but shall not include any facility operated by the State.

"Developmentally disabled care provider" means a person conducting, operating, or maintaining a developmentally disabled care facility. For this purpose, "person" means any political subdivision of the State, municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, limited liability company, association, joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Adjusted gross developmentally disabled care revenue" shall be computed separately for each developmentally disabled care facility conducted, operated, or maintained by a developmentally disabled care provider, and means the developmentally disabled care provider's total revenue for inpatient residential services less contractual allowances and discounts on patients' accounts, but does not include non-patient revenue from sources such as contributions, donations or bequests, investments, day training services, television and telephone service, and rental of facility space.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-18-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5C-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5C-5)

Sec. 5C-5. Disposition of proceeds. The Illinois Department shall pay all moneys received from developmentally disabled care providers under this Article into the Developmentally Disabled Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability. Upon certification by the Illinois Department to the State Comptroller of its intent to withhold from a provider under Section 5C-6(b), the State Comptroller shall draw a warrant on the treasury or other fund held by the State Treasurer, as appropriate. The warrant shall state the amount for which the provider is entitled to a warrant, the amount of the deduction, and the reason therefor and shall direct the State Treasurer to pay the balance to the provider, all in accordance with Section 10.05 of the State Comptroller Act. The warrant also shall direct the State Treasurer to transfer the amount of the deduction so ordered from the treasury or other fund into the Developmentally Disabled Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability.

(Source: P.A. 87-861; revised 10-18-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5C-7) (from Ch. 23, par. 5C-7)

Sec. 5C-7. Developmentally Disabled Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability.

(a) There is created in the State Treasury the Developmentally Disabled Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability. Interest earned by the Fund shall be credited to the Fund. The Fund shall not be used to replace any moneys appropriated to the Medicaid program by the General Assembly.

(b) The Fund is created for the purpose of receiving and disbursing assessment moneys in accordance with this Article. Disbursements from the Fund shall be made only as follows:

(1) For payments to intermediate care facilities for the developmentally disabled under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code.

(2) For the reimbursement of moneys collected by the Illinois Department through error or mistake, and to make required payments under Section 5-4.28(a)(1) of this Code if there are no moneys available for such payments in the Medicaid Developmentally Disabled Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund.

(3) For payment of administrative expenses incurred by the Department of Human Services or its agent or the Illinois Department or its agent in performing the activities authorized by this Article.

(4) For payments of any amounts which are reimbursable to the federal government for payments from this Fund which are required to be paid by State warrant.

(5) For making transfers to the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund as those transfers are authorized in the proceedings authorizing debt under the Short Term Borrowing Act, but transfers made under this paragraph (5) shall not exceed the principal amount of debt issued in anticipation of the receipt by the State of moneys to be deposited into the Fund.

Disbursements from the Fund, other than transfers to the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund, shall be by warrants drawn by the State Comptroller upon receipt of vouchers duly executed and certified by the Illinois Department.

(c) The Fund shall consist of the following:

(1) All moneys collected or received by the Illinois Department from the developmentally disabled care provider assessment imposed by this Article.

(2) All federal matching funds received by the Illinois Department as a result of expenditures made by the Illinois Department that are attributable to moneys deposited in the Fund.

(3) Any interest or penalty levied in conjunction with the administration of this Article.

(4) Any balance in the Medicaid Developmentally Disabled Care Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund in the State Treasury. The balance shall be transferred to the Fund upon certification by the Illinois Department to the State Comptroller that all of the disbursements required by Section 5-4.21(b) of this Code have been made.

(5) All other moneys received for the Fund from any other source, including interest earned thereon.

(Source: P.A. 89-21, eff. 7-1-95; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 10-18-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/11-26) (from Ch. 23, par. 11-26)

Sec. 11-26. Recipient's abuse of medical care; restrictions on access to medical care.

(a) When the Department determines, on the basis of statistical norms and medical judgment, that a medical care recipient has received medical services in excess of need and with such frequency or in such a manner as to constitute an abuse of the recipient's medical care privileges, the recipient's access to medical care may be restricted.

(b) When the Department has determined that a recipient is abusing his or her medical care privileges as described in this Section, it may require that the recipient designate a primary provider type of the recipient's own choosing to assume responsibility for the recipient's care. For the purposes of this subsection, "primary provider type" means a provider type as determined by the Department. Instead of requiring a recipient to make a designation as provided in this subsection, the Department, pursuant to rules adopted by the Department and without regard to any choice of an entity that the recipient might otherwise make, may initially designate a primary provider type provided that the primary provider type is willing to provide that care.

(c) When the Department has requested that a recipient designate a primary provider type and the recipient fails or refuses to do so, the Department may, after a reasonable period of time, assign the recipient to a primary provider type of its own choice and determination, provided such primary provider type is willing to provide such care.

(d) When a recipient has been restricted to a designated primary provider type, the recipient may change the primary provider type:

(1) when the designated source becomes unavailable, as the Department shall determine by rule; or

(2) when the designated primary provider type notifies the Department that it wishes to withdraw from any obligation as primary provider type; or

(3) in other situations, as the Department shall provide by rule.

The Department shall, by rule, establish procedures for providing medical or pharmaceutical services when the designated source becomes unavailable or wishes to withdraw from any obligation as primary provider type, shall, by rule, take into consideration the need for emergency or temporary medical assistance and shall ensure that the recipient has continuous and unrestricted access to medical care from the date on which such unavailability or withdrawal becomes effective until such time as the recipient designates a primary provider type or a primary provider type willing to provide such care is designated by the Department consistent with subsections (b) and (c) and such restriction becomes effective.

(e) Prior to initiating any action to restrict a recipient's access to medical or pharmaceutical care, the Department shall notify the recipient of its intended action. Such notification shall be in writing and shall set forth the reasons for and nature of the proposed action. In addition, the notification shall:

(1) inform the recipient that (i) the recipient has a right to designate a primary provider type of the recipient's own choosing willing to accept such designation and that the recipient's failure to do so within a reasonable time may result in such designation being made by the Department or (ii) the Department has designated a primary provider type to assume responsibility for the recipient's care; and

(2) inform the recipient that the recipient has a right to appeal the Department's determination to restrict the recipient's access to medical care and provide the recipient with an explanation of how such appeal is to be made. The notification shall also inform the recipient of the circumstances under which unrestricted medical eligibility shall continue until a decision is made on appeal and that if the recipient chooses to appeal, the recipient will be able to review the medical payment data that was utilized by the Department to decide that the recipient's access to medical care should be restricted.

(f) The Department shall, by rule or regulation, establish procedures for appealing a determination to restrict a recipient's access to medical care, which procedures shall, at a minimum, provide for a reasonable opportunity to be heard and, where the appeal is denied, for a written statement of the reason or reasons for such denial.

(g) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, when a recipient has had his or her medical card restricted for 4 full quarters (without regard to any period of ineligibility for medical assistance under this Code, or any period for which the recipient voluntarily terminates his or her receipt of medical assistance, that may occur before the expiration of those 4 full quarters), the Department shall reevaluate the recipient's medical usage to determine whether it is still in excess of need and with such frequency or in such a manner as to constitute an abuse of the receipt of medical assistance. If it is still in excess of need, the restriction shall be continued for another 4 full quarters. If it is no longer in excess of need, the restriction shall be discontinued. If a recipient's access to medical care has been restricted under this Section and the Department then determines, either at reevaluation or after the restriction has been discontinued, to restrict the recipient's access to medical care a second or subsequent time, the second or subsequent restriction may be imposed for a period of more than 4 full quarters. If the Department restricts a recipient's access to medical care for a period of more than 4 full quarters, as determined by rule, the Department shall reevaluate the recipient's medical usage after the end of the restriction period rather than after the end of 4 full quarters. The Department shall notify the recipient, in writing, of any decision to continue the restriction and the reason or reasons therefor. A "quarter", for purposes of this Section, shall be defined as one of the following 3-month periods of time: January-March, April-June, July-September or October-December.

(h) In addition to any other recipient whose acquisition of medical care is determined to be in excess of need, the Department may restrict the medical care privileges of the following persons:

(1) recipients found to have loaned or altered their cards or misused or falsely represented medical coverage;

(2) recipients found in possession of blank or forged prescription pads;

(3) recipients who knowingly assist providers in rendering excessive services or defrauding the medical assistance program.

The procedural safeguards in this Section shall apply to the above individuals.

(i) Restrictions under this Section shall be in addition to and shall not in any way be limited by or limit any actions taken under Article VIIIA VIII-A of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-1501, eff. 1-25-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 12-5)

Sec. 12-5. Appropriations; uses; federal grants; report to General Assembly. From the sums appropriated by the General Assembly, the Illinois Department shall order for payment by warrant from the State Treasury grants for public aid under Articles III, IV, and V, including grants for funeral and burial expenses, and all costs of administration of the Illinois Department and the County Departments relating thereto. Moneys appropriated to the Illinois Department for public aid under Article VI may be used, with the consent of the Governor, to co-operate with federal, State, and local agencies in the development of work projects designed to provide suitable employment for persons receiving public aid under Article VI. The Illinois Department, with the consent of the Governor, may be the agent of the State for the receipt and disbursement of federal funds or commodities for public aid purposes under Article VI and for related purposes in which the co-operation of the Illinois Department is sought by the federal government, and, in connection therewith, may make necessary expenditures from moneys appropriated for public aid under any Article of this Code and for administration. The Illinois Department, with the consent of the Governor, may be the agent of the State for the receipt and disbursement of federal funds pursuant to the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 and may make necessary expenditures from monies appropriated to it for operations, administration, and grants, including payment to the Health Insurance Reserve Fund for group insurance costs at the rate certified by the Department of Central Management Services. All amounts received by the Illinois Department pursuant to the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 shall be deposited in the Immigration Reform and Control Fund. All amounts received into the Immigration Reform and Control Fund as reimbursement for expenditures from the General Revenue Fund shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund.

All grants received by the Illinois Department for programs funded by the Federal Social Services Block Grant shall be deposited in the Social Services Block Grant Fund. All funds received into the Social Services Block Grant Fund as reimbursement for expenditures from the General Revenue Fund shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund. All funds received into the Social Services Block Grant fund for reimbursement for expenditure out of the Local Initiative Fund shall be transferred into the Local Initiative Fund. Any other federal funds received into the Social Services Block Grant Fund shall be transferred to the Special Purposes Trust Fund. All federal funds received by the Illinois Department as reimbursement for Employment and Training Programs for expenditures made by the Illinois Department from grants, gifts, or legacies as provided in Section 12-4.18 or made by an entity other than the Illinois Department shall be deposited into the Employment and Training Fund, except that federal funds received as reimbursement as a result of the appropriation made for the costs of providing adult education to public assistance recipients under the "Adult Education, Public Assistance Fund" shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund; provided, however, that all funds, except those that are specified in an interagency agreement between the Illinois Community College Board and the Illinois Department, that are received by the Illinois Department as reimbursement under Title IV-A of the Social Security Act for expenditures that are made by the Illinois Community College Board or any public community college of this State shall be credited to a special account that the State Treasurer shall establish and maintain within the Employment and Training Fund for the purpose of segregating the reimbursements received for expenditures made by those entities. As reimbursements are deposited into the Employment and Training Fund, the Illinois Department shall certify to the State Comptroller and State Treasurer the amount that is to be credited to the special account established within that Fund as a reimbursement for expenditures under Title IV-A of the Social Security Act made by the Illinois Community College Board or any of the public community colleges. All amounts credited to the special account established and maintained within the Employment and Training Fund as provided in this Section shall be held for transfer to the TANF Opportunities Fund as provided in subsection (d) of Section 12-10.3, and shall not be transferred to any other fund or used for any other purpose.

Eighty percent of the federal financial participation funds received by the Illinois Department under the Title IV-A Emergency Assistance program as reimbursement for expenditures made from the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services appropriations for the costs of providing services in behalf of Department of Children and Family Services clients shall be deposited into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

All federal funds, except those covered by the foregoing 3 paragraphs, received as reimbursement for expenditures from the General Revenue Fund shall be deposited in the General Revenue Fund for administrative and distributive expenditures properly chargeable by federal law or regulation to aid programs established under Articles III through XII and Titles IV, XVI, XIX and XX of the Federal Social Security Act. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department under Sections 12-4.6, 12-4.18 and 12-4.19 that are required by Section 12-10 of this Code to be paid into the Special Purposes Trust Fund shall be deposited into the Special Purposes Trust Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department pursuant to the Child Support Enforcement Program established by Title IV-D of the Social Security Act shall be deposited in the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund as required under Section 12-10.2 or in the Child Support Administrative Fund as required under Section 12-10.2a of this Code. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for medical assistance program expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 5-4.21 of this Code to be paid into the Medicaid Developmentally Disabled Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund shall be deposited into the Medicaid Developmentally Disabled Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for medical assistance program expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 5-4.31 of this Code to be paid into the Medicaid Long Term Care Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund shall be deposited into the Medicaid Long Term Care Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for hospital inpatient, hospital ambulatory care, and disproportionate share hospital expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 14-2 of this Code to be paid into the Hospital Services Trust Fund shall be deposited into the Hospital Services Trust Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Articles V and VI of this Code that are required by Section 15-2 of this Code to be paid into the County Provider Trust Fund shall be deposited into the County Provider Trust Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for hospital inpatient, hospital ambulatory care, and disproportionate share hospital expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 5A-8 of this Code to be paid into the Hospital Provider Fund shall be deposited into the Hospital Provider Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for medical assistance program expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 5B-8 of this Code to be paid into the Long-Term Care Provider Fund shall be deposited into the Long-Term Care Provider Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for medical assistance program expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 5C-7 of this Code to be paid into the Developmentally Disabled Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability shall be deposited into the Developmentally Disabled Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for trauma center adjustment payments that are required by Section 5-5.03 of this Code and made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code shall be deposited into the Trauma Center Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department as reimbursement for expenses for early intervention services paid from the Early Intervention Services Revolving Fund shall be deposited into that Fund.

The Illinois Department shall report to the General Assembly at the end of each fiscal quarter the amount of all funds received and paid into the Social Service Block Grant Fund and the Local Initiative Fund and the expenditures and transfers of such funds for services, programs and other purposes authorized by law. Such report shall be filed with the Speaker, Minority Leader and Clerk of the House, with the President, Minority Leader and Secretary of the Senate, with the Chairmen of the House and Senate Appropriations Committees, the House Human Resources Committee and the Senate Public Health, Welfare and Corrections Committee, or the successor standing Committees of each as provided by the rules of the House and Senate, respectively, with the Legislative Research Unit and with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1100, eff. 1-1-11; revised 10-18-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/14-8) (from Ch. 23, par. 14-8)

Sec. 14-8. Disbursements to Hospitals.

(a) For inpatient hospital services rendered on and after September 1, 1991, the Illinois Department shall reimburse hospitals for inpatient services at an inpatient payment rate calculated for each hospital based upon the Medicare Prospective Payment System as set forth in Sections 1886(b), (d), (g), and (h) of the federal Social Security Act, and the regulations, policies, and procedures promulgated thereunder, except as modified by this Section. Payment rates for inpatient hospital services rendered on or after September 1, 1991 and on or before September 30, 1992 shall be calculated using the Medicare Prospective Payment rates in effect on September 1, 1991. Payment rates for inpatient hospital services rendered on or after October 1, 1992 and on or before March 31, 1994 shall be calculated using the Medicare Prospective Payment rates in effect on September 1, 1992. Payment rates for inpatient hospital services rendered on or after April 1, 1994 shall be calculated using the Medicare Prospective Payment rates (including the Medicare grouping methodology and weighting factors as adjusted pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection) in effect 90 days prior to the date of admission. For services rendered on or after July 1, 1995, the reimbursement methodology implemented under this subsection shall not include those costs referred to in Sections 1886(d)(5)(B) and 1886(h) of the Social Security Act. The additional payment amounts required under Section 1886(d)(5)(F) of the Social Security Act, for hospitals serving a disproportionate share of low-income or indigent patients, are not required under this Section. For hospital inpatient services rendered on or after July 1, 1995, the Illinois Department shall reimburse hospitals using the relative weighting factors and the base payment rates calculated for each hospital that were in effect on June 30, 1995, less the portion of such rates attributed by the Illinois Department to the cost of medical education.

(1) The weighting factors established under Section 1886(d)(4) of the Social Security Act shall not be used in the reimbursement system established under this Section. Rather, the Illinois Department shall establish by rule Medicaid weighting factors to be used in the reimbursement system established under this Section.

(2) The Illinois Department shall define by rule those hospitals or distinct parts of hospitals that shall be exempt from the reimbursement system established under this Section. In defining such hospitals, the Illinois Department shall take into consideration those hospitals exempt from the Medicare Prospective Payment System as of September 1, 1991. For hospitals defined as exempt under this subsection, the Illinois Department shall by rule establish a reimbursement system for payment of inpatient hospital services rendered on and after September 1, 1991. For all hospitals that are children's hospitals as defined in Section 5-5.02 of this Code, the reimbursement methodology shall, through June 30, 1992, net of all applicable fees, at least equal each children's hospital 1990 ICARE payment rates, indexed to the current year by application of the DRI hospital cost index from 1989 to the year in which payments are made. Excepting county providers as defined in Article XV of this Code, hospitals licensed under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, and facilities operated by the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities (or its successor, the Department of Human Services) for hospital inpatient services rendered on or after July 1, 1995, the Illinois Department shall reimburse children's hospitals, as defined in 89 Illinois Administrative Code Section 149.50(c)(3), at the rates in effect on June 30, 1995, and shall reimburse all other hospitals at the rates in effect on June 30, 1995, less the portion of such rates attributed by the Illinois Department to the cost of medical education. For inpatient hospital services provided on or after August 1, 1998, the Illinois Department may establish by rule a means of adjusting the rates of children's hospitals, as defined in 89 Illinois Administrative Code Section 149.50(c)(3), that did not meet that definition on June 30, 1995, in order for the inpatient hospital rates of such hospitals to take into account the average inpatient hospital rates of those children's hospitals that did meet the definition of children's hospitals on June 30, 1995.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, hospitals that on August 31, 1991, have a contract with the Illinois Department under Section 3-4 of the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act may elect to continue to be reimbursed at rates stated in such contracts for general and specialty care.

(5) In addition to any payments made under this subsection (a), the Illinois Department shall make the adjustment payments required by Section 5-5.02 of this Code; provided, that in the case of any hospital reimbursed under a per case methodology, the Illinois Department shall add an amount equal to the product of the hospital's average length of stay, less one day, multiplied by 20, for inpatient hospital services rendered on or after September 1, 1991 and on or before September 30, 1992.

(b) (Blank).

(b-5) Excepting county providers as defined in Article XV of this Code, hospitals licensed under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, and facilities operated by the Illinois Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities (or its successor, the Department of Human Services), for outpatient services rendered on or after July 1, 1995 and before July 1, 1998 the Illinois Department shall reimburse children's hospitals, as defined in the Illinois Administrative Code Section 149.50(c)(3), at the rates in effect on June 30, 1995, less that portion of such rates attributed by the Illinois Department to the outpatient indigent volume adjustment and shall reimburse all other hospitals at the rates in effect on June 30, 1995, less the portions of such rates attributed by the Illinois Department to the cost of medical education and attributed by the Illinois Department to the outpatient indigent volume adjustment. For outpatient services provided on or after July 1, 1998, reimbursement rates shall be established by rule.

(c) In addition to any other payments under this Code, the Illinois Department shall develop a hospital disproportionate share reimbursement methodology that, effective July 1, 1991, through September 30, 1992, shall reimburse hospitals sufficiently to expend the fee monies described in subsection (b) of Section 14-3 of this Code and the federal matching funds received by the Illinois Department as a result of expenditures made by the Illinois Department as required by this subsection (c) and Section 14-2 that are attributable to fee monies deposited in the Fund, less amounts applied to adjustment payments under Section 5-5.02.

(d) Critical Care Access Payments.

(1) In addition to any other payments made under this Code, the Illinois Department shall develop a reimbursement methodology that shall reimburse Critical Care Access Hospitals for the specialized services that qualify them as Critical Care Access Hospitals. No adjustment payments shall be made under this subsection on or after July 1, 1995.

(2) "Critical Care Access Hospitals" includes, but is not limited to, hospitals that meet at least one of the following criteria:

(A) Hospitals located outside of a metropolitan statistical area that are designated as Level II Perinatal Centers and that provide a disproportionate share of perinatal services to recipients; or

(B) Hospitals that are designated as Level I Trauma Centers (adult or pediatric) and certain Level II Trauma Centers as determined by the Illinois Department; or

(C) Hospitals located outside of a metropolitan statistical area and that provide a disproportionate share of obstetrical services to recipients.

(e) Inpatient high volume adjustment. For hospital inpatient services, effective with rate periods beginning on or after October 1, 1993, in addition to rates paid for inpatient services by the Illinois Department, the Illinois Department shall make adjustment payments for inpatient services furnished by Medicaid high volume hospitals. The Illinois Department shall establish by rule criteria for qualifying as a Medicaid high volume hospital and shall establish by rule a reimbursement methodology for calculating these adjustment payments to Medicaid high volume hospitals. No adjustment payment shall be made under this subsection for services rendered on or after July 1, 1995.

(f) The Illinois Department shall modify its current rules governing adjustment payments for targeted access, critical care access, and uncompensated care to classify those adjustment payments as not being payments to disproportionate share hospitals under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act. Rules adopted under this subsection shall not be effective with respect to services rendered on or after July 1, 1995. The Illinois Department has no obligation to adopt or implement any rules or make any payments under this subsection for services rendered on or after July 1, 1995.

(f-5) The State recognizes that adjustment payments to hospitals providing certain services or incurring certain costs may be necessary to assure that recipients of medical assistance have adequate access to necessary medical services. These adjustments include payments for teaching costs and uncompensated care, trauma center payments, rehabilitation hospital payments, perinatal center payments, obstetrical care payments, targeted access payments, Medicaid high volume payments, and outpatient indigent volume payments. On or before April 1, 1995, the Illinois Department shall issue recommendations regarding (i) reimbursement mechanisms or adjustment payments to reflect these costs and services, including methods by which the payments may be calculated and the method by which the payments may be financed, and (ii) reimbursement mechanisms or adjustment payments to reflect costs and services of federally qualified health centers with respect to recipients of medical assistance.

(g) If one or more hospitals file suit in any court challenging any part of this Article XIV, payments to hospitals under this Article XIV shall be made only to the extent that sufficient monies are available in the Fund and only to the extent that any monies in the Fund are not prohibited from disbursement under any order of the court.

(h) Payments under the disbursement methodology described in this Section are subject to approval by the federal government in an appropriate State plan amendment.

(i) The Illinois Department may by rule establish criteria for and develop methodologies for adjustment payments to hospitals participating under this Article.

(j) Hospital Residing Long Term Care Services. In addition to any other payments made under this Code, the Illinois Department may by rule establish criteria and develop methodologies for payments to hospitals for Hospital Residing Long Term Care Services.

(k) Critical Access Hospital outpatient payments. In addition to any other payments authorized under this Code, the Illinois Department shall reimburse critical access hospitals, as designated by the Illinois Department of Public Health in accordance with 42 CFR 485, Subpart F, for outpatient services at an amount that is no less than the cost of providing such services, based on Medicare cost principles. Payments under this subsection shall be subject to appropriation.

(l) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(Source: P.A. 96-1382, eff. 1-1-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 410. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code is amended by changing Section 4-701 as follows:

(405 ILCS 5/4-701) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 4-701)

Sec. 4-701. (a) Any client admitted to a developmental disabilities facility under this Chapter may be discharged whenever the facility director determines that he is suitable for discharge.

(b) Any client admitted to a facility or program of nonresidential services upon court order under Article V of this Chapter or admitted upon court order as intellectually disabled or mentally deficient under any prior statute shall be discharged whenever the facility director determines that he no longer meets the standard for judicial admission. When the facility director believes that continued residence is advisable for such a client, he shall inform the client and his guardian, if any, that the client may remain at the facility on administrative admission status. When a facility director discharges or changes the status of such client, he shall promptly notify the clerk of the court who shall note the action in the court record.

(c) When the facility director discharges a client pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section, he shall promptly notify the State's Attorney of the county in which the client resided immediately prior to his admission to a developmental development disabilities facility. Upon receipt of such notice, the State's Attorney may notify such peace officers that he deems appropriate.

(d) The facility director may grant a temporary release to any client when such release is appropriate and consistent with the habilitation needs of the client.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 415. The Crematory Regulation Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 88 as follows:

(410 ILCS 18/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 10. Establishment of crematory and licensing of crematory authority.

(a) Any person doing business in this State, or any cemetery, funeral establishment, corporation, partnership, joint venture, voluntary organization or any other entity, may erect, maintain, and operate a crematory in this State and provide the necessary appliances and facilities for the cremation of human remains in accordance with this Act.

(b) A crematory shall be subject to all local, State, and federal health and environmental protection requirements and shall obtain all necessary licenses and permits from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Public Health, the federal Department of Health and Human Services, and the Illinois and federal Environmental Protection Agencies, or such other appropriate local, State, or federal agencies.

(c) A crematory may be constructed on or adjacent to any cemetery, on or adjacent to any funeral establishment, or at any other location consistent with local zoning regulations.

(d) An application for licensure as a crematory authority shall be in writing on forms furnished by the Comptroller. Applications shall be accompanied by a fee of $50 and shall contain all of the following:

(1) The full name and address, both residence and business, of the applicant if the applicant is an individual; the full name and address of every member if the applicant is a partnership; the full name and address of every member of the board of directors if the applicant is an association; and the name and address of every officer, director, and shareholder holding more than 25% of the corporate stock if the applicant is a corporation.

(2) The address and location of the crematory.

(3) A description of the type of structure and equipment to be used in the operation of the crematory, including the operating permit number issued to the cremation device by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency.

(4) Any further information that the Comptroller reasonably may require.

(e) Each crematory authority shall file an annual report with the Comptroller, accompanied with a $25 fee, providing (i) an affidavit signed by the owner of the crematory authority that at the time of the report the cremation device was in proper operating condition, (ii) the total number of all cremations performed at the crematory during the past year, (iii) attestation by the licensee that all applicable permits and certifications are valid, (iv) either (A) any changes required in the information provided under subsection (d) or (B) an indication that no changes have occurred, and (v) any other information that the Comptroller Department may require. The annual report shall be filed by a crematory authority on or before March 15 of each calendar year. If the fiscal year of a crematory authority is other than on a calendar year basis, then the crematory authority shall file the report required by this Section within 75 days after the end of its fiscal year. If a crematory authority fails to submit an annual report to the Comptroller within the time specified in this Section, the Comptroller shall impose upon the crematory authority a penalty of $5 for each and every day the crematory authority remains delinquent in submitting the annual report. The Comptroller may abate all or part of the $5 daily penalty for good cause shown.

(f) All records required to be maintained under this Act, including but not limited to those relating to the license and annual report of the crematory authority required to be filed under this Section, shall be subject to inspection by the Comptroller upon reasonable notice.

(g) The Comptroller may inspect crematory records at the crematory authority's place of business to review the licensee's compliance with this Act. The inspection must include verification that:

(1) the crematory authority has complied with record-keeping requirements of this Act;

(2) a crematory device operator's certification of training is conspicuously displayed at the crematory;

(3) the cremation device has a current operating permit issued by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency and the permit is conspicuously displayed in the crematory;

(4) the crematory authority is in compliance with local zoning requirements;

(5) the crematory authority license issued by the Comptroller is conspicuously displayed at the crematory; and

(6) other details as determined by rule.

(h) The Comptroller shall issue licenses under this Act to the crematories that are registered with the Comptroller as of on March 1, 2012 without requiring the previously registered crematories to complete license applications.

(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-12; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 7-25-12.)

(410 ILCS 18/88)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 88. Rehearing. At the conclusion of the hearing, a copy of the hearing officer's report shall be served upon the applicant or licensee by the Comptroller, either personally or as provided in this Act. Within 20 days after service, the applicant or licensee may present to the Comptroller Department a motion in writing for a rehearing, which shall specify the particular grounds for rehearing. The Comptroller may respond to the motion for rehearing within 20 days after its service on the Comptroller. If no motion for rehearing is filed, then upon the expiration of the time specified for filing such a motion, or if a motion for rehearing is denied, then upon denial, the Comptroller may enter an order in accordance with recommendations of the hearing officer except as provided in Section 89 of this Act.

If the applicant or licensee orders from the reporting service and pays for a transcript of the record within the time for filing a motion for rehearing, the 20-day period within which a motion may be filed shall commence upon the delivery of the transcript to the applicant or licensee.

(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-12; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12; revised 7-27-12.)

Section 420. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(410 ILCS 70/7) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-7)

Sec. 7. Reimbursement.

(a) When any ambulance provider furnishes transportation, hospital provides hospital emergency services and forensic services, hospital or health care professional or laboratory provides follow-up healthcare, or pharmacy dispenses prescribed medications to any sexual assault survivor, as defined by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, who is neither eligible to receive such services under the Illinois Public Aid Code nor covered as to such services by a policy of insurance, the ambulance provider, hospital, health care professional, pharmacy, or laboratory shall furnish such services to that person without charge and shall be entitled to be reimbursed for providing such services by the Illinois Sexual Assault Emergency Treatment Program under the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and at the Department of Healthcare and Family Services' allowable rates under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(b) The hospital is responsible for submitting the request for reimbursement for ambulance services, hospital emergency services, and forensic services to the Illinois Sexual Assault Emergency Treatment Program. Nothing in this Section precludes hospitals from providing follow-up healthcare and receiving reimbursement under this Section.

(c) The health care professional who provides follow-up healthcare and the pharmacy that dispenses prescribed medications to a sexual assault survivor are responsible for submitting the request for reimbursement for follow-up healthcare or pharmacy services to the Illinois Sexual Assault Emergency Treatment Program.

(d) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Act or the Illinois Public Aid Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(e) (d) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall establish standards, rules, and regulations to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 425. The Illinois Solid Waste Management Act is amended by renumbering Section 10 as follows:

(415 ILCS 20/7.4)

Sec. 7.4 10. The Task Force on the Advancement of Materials Recycling.

(a) The Task Force on the Advancement of Materials Recycling is hereby created to review the status of recycling and solid waste management planning in Illinois. The goal of the Task Force is to investigate and provide recommendations for expanding waste reduction, recycling, reuse, and composting in Illinois in a manner that protects the environment, as well as public health and safety, and promotes economic development.

The Task Force's review shall include, but not be limited to, the following topics: county recycling and waste management planning; current and potential policies and initiatives in Illinois for waste reduction, recycling, composting, and reuse; funding for State and local oversight and regulation of solid waste activities; funding for State and local support of projects that advance solid waste reduction, recycling, reuse, and composting efforts; and the proper management of household hazardous waste. The review shall also evaluate the extent to which materials with economic value are lost to landfilling, and it shall also recommend ways to maximize the productive use of waste materials through efforts such as materials recycling and composting.

(b) The Task Force on the Advancement of Materials Recycling shall consist of the following 21 members appointed as follows:

(1) four legislators, appointed one each by the President of the Senate, the Minority Leader of the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives;

(2) the Director of the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, or his or her representative;

(3) the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, or his or her representative;

(4) two persons appointed by the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity to represent local governments;

(5) two persons appointed by the Director of the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency to represent a local solid waste management agency;

(6) two persons appointed by the Director of the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency to represent the solid waste management industry;

(7) one person appointed by the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity to represent non-profit organizations that provide recycling services;

(8) one person appointed by the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity to represent recycling collection and processing services;

(9) one person appointed by the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity to represent construction and demolition debris recycling services;

(10) one person appointed by the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity to represent organic composting services;

(11) one person appointed by the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity to represent general recycling interests;

(12) one person appointed by the Director of the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency to represent environmental interest groups;

(13) one person appointed by the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity to represent environmental interest groups;

(14) one person appointed by the Director of the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency to represent a statewide manufacturing trade association; and

(15) one person appointed by the Director of the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency to represent a statewide business association.

(c) The Directors of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, or their representatives, shall co-chair and facilitate the Task Force.

(d) The members of the Task Force shall be appointed no later than 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. The members of the Task Force shall not receive compensation for serving as members of the Task Force.

(e) The Task Force shall seek assistance from the Illinois Department of Central Management Services, the Illinois Green Economy Network, and the Illinois Green Governments Coordinating Council to help facilitate the Task Force, using technology, such as video conferencing and meeting space, with the goal of reducing costs and greenhouse gas emissions associated with travel.

(f) The Task Force shall prepare a report that summarizes its work and makes recommendations resulting from its study, and it shall submit a report of its findings and recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than 2 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(g) The Task Force, upon issuing the report described in subsection (f) of this Section, is dissolved and this Section is repealed.

(Source: P.A. 97-853, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-11-12.)

Section 430. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Section 2.30 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.30) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.30)

Sec. 2.30. It shall be unlawful for any person to trap or to hunt with gun, dog, dog and gun, or bow and arrow, gray fox, red fox, raccoon, weasel, mink, muskrat, badger, and opossum except during the open season which will be set annually by the Director between 12:01 a.m., November 1 to 12:00 midnight, February 15, both inclusive.

It is unlawful for any person to take bobcat in this State at any time.

It is unlawful to pursue any fur-bearing mammal with a dog or dogs between the hours of sunset and sunrise during the 10 day period preceding the opening date of the raccoon hunting season and the 10 day period following the closing date of the raccoon hunting season except that the Department may issue field trial permits in accordance with Section 2.34 of this Act. A non-resident from a state with more restrictive fur-bearer pursuit regulations for any particular species than provided for that species in this Act may not pursue that species in Illinois except during the period of time that Illinois residents are allowed to pursue that species in the non-resident's state of residence. Hound running areas approved by the Department shall be exempt from the provisions of this Section.

It shall be unlawful to take beaver, river otter, weasel, mink or muskrat except during the open season set annually by the Director, and then, only with traps.

It shall be unlawful for any person to trap beaver or river otter with traps except during the open season which will be set annually by the Director between 12:01 a.m., November 1st and 12:00 midnight, March 31, both inclusive.

Coyote may be taken by trapping methods only during the period from September 1 to March 1, both inclusive, and by hunting methods at any time.

Striped skunk may be taken by trapping methods only during the period from September 1 to March 1, both inclusive, and by hunting methods at any time.

Muskrat may be taken by trapping methods during an open season set annually by the Director.

For the purpose of taking fur-bearing mammals, the State may be divided into management zones by administrative rule.

The provisions of this Section are subject to modification by administrative rule.

It shall be unlawful to take or possess more than the season limit or possession limit of fur-bearing mammals that shall be set annually by the Director. The season limit for river otter shall not exceed 5 river otters per person per season. Possession limits shall not apply to fur buyers, tanners, manufacturers, and taxidermists, as defined by this Act, who possess fur-bearing mammals in accordance with laws governing such activities.

Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the taking or possessing of fur-bearing mammals found dead or unintentionally killed by a vehicle along a roadway during the open season provided the person who possesses such fur-bearing mammals has all appropriate licenses, stamps, or permits; the season for which the species possessed is open; and that such possession and disposal of such fur-bearing mammals is otherwise subject to the provisions of this Section.

The provisions of this Section are subject to modification by administrative rule.

(Source: P.A. 97-19, eff. 6-28-11; 97-31, eff. 6-28-11; 97-628, eff. 11-10-11; revised 12-16-11.)

Section 435. The Illinois Veteran, Youth, and Young Adult Conservation Jobs Act is amended by changing the title of the Act and Sections 4, 5, and 9 as follows:

(525 ILCS 50/Act title)

An Act in relation to conservation and recreation children.

(525 ILCS 50/4) (from Ch. 48, par. 2554)

Sec. 4. Definition of Terms. For the purposes of this Act:

(a) "Department" means the Department of Natural Resources.

(b) "Director" means the Director of Natural Resources.

(c) "Local sponsor" means any unit of local government or not-for-profit entity that can make available for a summer conservation or recreation program park lands, conservation or recreational lands or facilities, equipment, materials, administration, supervisory personnel, etc.

(d) "Managing supervisor" means an enrollee in the Illinois Veteran Veterans Recreation Corps or the Illinois Youth Recreation Corps who is selected by the local sponsor to supervise the activities of the veterans or youth employee enrollees working on the conservation or recreation project. A managing supervisor in the Illinois Youth Recreation Corps may be 19 years of age or older.

(e) "Veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served or is currently serving as a member of the United States Armed Forces, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of a Reserve Component of the United States Armed Forces.

(Source: P.A. 97-738, eff. 7-5-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(525 ILCS 50/5) (from Ch. 48, par. 2555)

Sec. 5. Cooperation. The Department of Natural Resources shall have the full cooperation of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Illinois State Job Coordinating Council created by the Federal Job Training Partnership Act (Public Law 97-300), and the Department of Employment Security to carry out the purposes of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-738, eff. 7-5-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(525 ILCS 50/9)

Sec. 9. Illinois Veteran Recreation Corps. With respect to the Illinois Veteran Recreation Corps:

(a) Purpose. The Illinois Veteran Recreation Corps is established for the purpose of making grants to local sponsors to provide wages to veterans of any age operating and instructing in conservation or recreational programs. Such programs shall provide conservation or recreational opportunities and shall include, but are not limited to, the coordination and teaching of natural resource conservation and management, physical activities, or learning activities directly related to natural resource conservation management or recreation. Such programs may charge user fees, but such fees shall be designed to promote as much community involvement as possible, as determined by the Department.

(b) Application. Local sponsors who can provide necessary facilities, materials, and management for summer conservation or recreational activities within the community and who desire a grant under this Act for the purpose of hiring managing supervisors as necessary and eligible veterans for such conservation or recreational programs may make application to the Department. Applications shall be evaluated on the basis of program content, location, need, local commitment of resources, and consistency with the purposes of this Act.

(c) Enrollment. The Illinois Veteran Veterans' Recreation Corps shall be limited to citizens of this State who at the time of enrollment are veterans of any age and are unemployed and who have skills that can be utilized in the summer conservation or recreational program. Preference may be given to veterans with a disability.

The ratio of veterans employee enrollees to a managing supervisor must not be less than 10 to 1 for any local sponsor with a total number of veterans employee enrollees of 10 or more. Any local sponsor program with a total number of veteran employee enrollees of less than 10 must be limited to one managing supervisor. Veterans who are unemployed shall be given preference for employment as managing supervisors.

The local sponsors shall make public notification of the availability of jobs for eligible veterans in the Illinois Veteran Veterans Recreation Corps by the means of newspapers, electronic media, educational facilities, units of local government, and Department of Employment Security offices. Application for employment shall be made directly to the local sponsor.

The Department shall adopt reasonable rules pertaining to the administration of the Illinois Veteran Recreation Corps.

(d) Terms of employment. The enrollment period for any successful applicant of the program shall not be longer than 6 total months. Once enrolled in the program, each enrollee shall receive a reasonable wage as set by the Department and shall work hours as required by the conservation or recreation program but not in excess of a maximum number of hours as determined by the Department, except that an enrollee working as a managing supervisor shall receive a higher wage than an enrollee working in any other capacity on the conservation or recreation program. Enrollees shall be employees of the local sponsor and not contractual hires for the purpose of employment taxes, except that enrollees shall not be classified as employees of the State or the local sponsor for purposes of contributions to the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois or any other public employee retirement system.

(Source: P.A. 97-738, eff. 7-5-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 440. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 2-123, 3-400, 3-609, 3-658, 3-806, 3-815, 3-902, 6-106, 6-110, 6-500, 11-208.6, 11-208.8, 11-501.01, 11-1301.1, 11-1301.2, 11-1301.3, 11-1301.5, 11-1302, and 12-610.1 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/2-123) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 2-123)

Sec. 2-123. Sale and Distribution of Information.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the Secretary may make the driver's license, vehicle and title registration lists, in part or in whole, and any statistical information derived from these lists available to local governments, elected state officials, state educational institutions, and all other governmental units of the State and Federal Government requesting them for governmental purposes. The Secretary shall require any such applicant for services to pay for the costs of furnishing such services and the use of the equipment involved, and in addition is empowered to establish prices and charges for the services so furnished and for the use of the electronic equipment utilized.

(b) The Secretary is further empowered to and he may, in his discretion, furnish to any applicant, other than listed in subsection (a) of this Section, vehicle or driver data on a computer tape, disk, other electronic format or computer processable medium, or printout at a fixed fee of $250 for orders received before October 1, 2003 and $500 for orders received on or after October 1, 2003, in advance, and require in addition a further sufficient deposit based upon the Secretary of State's estimate of the total cost of the information requested and a charge of $25 for orders received before October 1, 2003 and $50 for orders received on or after October 1, 2003, per 1,000 units or part thereof identified or the actual cost, whichever is greater. The Secretary is authorized to refund any difference between the additional deposit and the actual cost of the request. This service shall not be in lieu of an abstract of a driver's record nor of a title or registration search. This service may be limited to entities purchasing a minimum number of records as required by administrative rule. The information sold pursuant to this subsection shall be the entire vehicle or driver data list, or part thereof. The information sold pursuant to this subsection shall not contain personally identifying information unless the information is to be used for one of the purposes identified in subsection (f-5) of this Section. Commercial purchasers of driver and vehicle record databases shall enter into a written agreement with the Secretary of State that includes disclosure of the commercial use of the information to be purchased.

(b-1) The Secretary is further empowered to and may, in his or her discretion, furnish vehicle or driver data on a computer tape, disk, or other electronic format or computer processible medium, at no fee, to any State or local governmental agency that uses the information provided by the Secretary to transmit data back to the Secretary that enables the Secretary to maintain accurate driving records, including dispositions of traffic cases. This information may be provided without fee not more often than once every 6 months.

(c) Secretary of State may issue registration lists. The Secretary of State may compile a list of all registered vehicles. Each list of registered vehicles shall be arranged serially according to the registration numbers assigned to registered vehicles and may contain in addition the names and addresses of registered owners and a brief description of each vehicle including the serial or other identifying number thereof. Such compilation may be in such form as in the discretion of the Secretary of State may seem best for the purposes intended.

(d) The Secretary of State shall furnish no more than 2 current available lists of such registrations to the sheriffs of all counties and to the chiefs of police of all cities and villages and towns of 2,000 population and over in this State at no cost. Additional copies may be purchased by the sheriffs or chiefs of police at the fee of $500 each or at the cost of producing the list as determined by the Secretary of State. Such lists are to be used for governmental purposes only.

(e) (Blank).

(e-1) (Blank).

(f) The Secretary of State shall make a title or registration search of the records of his office and a written report on the same for any person, upon written application of such person, accompanied by a fee of $5 for each registration or title search. The written application shall set forth the intended use of the requested information. No fee shall be charged for a title or registration search, or for the certification thereof requested by a government agency. The report of the title or registration search shall not contain personally identifying information unless the request for a search was made for one of the purposes identified in subsection (f-5) of this Section. The report of the title or registration search shall not contain highly restricted personal information unless specifically authorized by this Code.

The Secretary of State shall certify a title or registration record upon written request. The fee for certification shall be $5 in addition to the fee required for a title or registration search. Certification shall be made under the signature of the Secretary of State and shall be authenticated by Seal of the Secretary of State.

The Secretary of State may notify the vehicle owner or registrant of the request for purchase of his title or registration information as the Secretary deems appropriate.

No information shall be released to the requestor until expiration of a 10 day period. This 10 day period shall not apply to requests for information made by law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, who are employed by or are acting on behalf of law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, and other business entities for purposes consistent with the Illinois Vehicle Code, the vehicle owner or registrant or other entities as the Secretary may exempt by rule and regulation.

Any misrepresentation made by a requestor of title or vehicle information shall be punishable as a petty offense, except in the case of persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency which shall be subject to disciplinary sanctions under Section 40-10 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

(f-5) The Secretary of State shall not disclose or otherwise make available to any person or entity any personally identifying information obtained by the Secretary of State in connection with a driver's license, vehicle, or title registration record unless the information is disclosed for one of the following purposes:

(1) For use by any government agency, including any court or law enforcement agency, in carrying out its functions, or any private person or entity acting on behalf of a federal, State, or local agency in carrying out its functions.

(2) For use in connection with matters of motor vehicle or driver safety and theft; motor vehicle emissions; motor vehicle product alterations, recalls, or advisories; performance monitoring of motor vehicles, motor vehicle parts, and dealers; and removal of non-owner records from the original owner records of motor vehicle manufacturers.

(3) For use in the normal course of business by a legitimate business or its agents, employees, or contractors, but only:

(A) to verify the accuracy of personal information submitted by an individual to the business or its agents, employees, or contractors; and

(B) if such information as so submitted is not correct or is no longer correct, to obtain the correct information, but only for the purposes of preventing fraud by, pursuing legal remedies against, or recovering on a debt or security interest against, the individual.

(4) For use in research activities and for use in producing statistical reports, if the personally identifying information is not published, redisclosed, or used to contact individuals.

(5) For use in connection with any civil, criminal, administrative, or arbitral proceeding in any federal, State, or local court or agency or before any self-regulatory body, including the service of process, investigation in anticipation of litigation, and the execution or enforcement of judgments and orders, or pursuant to an order of a federal, State, or local court.

(6) For use by any insurer or insurance support organization or by a self-insured entity or its agents, employees, or contractors in connection with claims investigation activities, antifraud activities, rating, or underwriting.

(7) For use in providing notice to the owners of towed or impounded vehicles.

(8) For use by any person licensed as a private detective or firm licensed as a private detective agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, private investigative agency or security service licensed in Illinois for any purpose permitted under this subsection.

(9) For use by an employer or its agent or insurer to obtain or verify information relating to a holder of a commercial driver's license that is required under chapter 313 of title 49 of the United States Code.

(10) For use in connection with the operation of private toll transportation facilities.

(11) For use by any requester, if the requester demonstrates it has obtained the written consent of the individual to whom the information pertains.

(12) For use by members of the news media, as defined in Section 1-148.5, for the purpose of newsgathering when the request relates to the operation of a motor vehicle or public safety.

(13) For any other use specifically authorized by law, if that use is related to the operation of a motor vehicle or public safety.

(f-6) The Secretary of State shall not disclose or otherwise make available to any person or entity any highly restricted personal information obtained by the Secretary of State in connection with a driver's license, vehicle, or title registration record unless specifically authorized by this Code.

(g) 1. The Secretary of State may, upon receipt of a written request and a fee of $6 before October 1, 2003 and a fee of $12 on and after October 1, 2003, furnish to the person or agency so requesting a driver's record. Such document may include a record of: current driver's license issuance information, except that the information on judicial driving permits shall be available only as otherwise provided by this Code; convictions; orders entered revoking, suspending or cancelling a driver's license or privilege; and notations of accident involvement. All other information, unless otherwise permitted by this Code, shall remain confidential. Information released pursuant to a request for a driver's record shall not contain personally identifying information, unless the request for the driver's record was made for one of the purposes set forth in subsection (f-5) of this Section. The Secretary of State may, without fee, allow a parent or guardian of a person under the age of 18 years, who holds an instruction permit or graduated driver's license, to view that person's driving record online, through a computer connection. The parent or guardian's online access to the driving record will terminate when the instruction permit or graduated driver's license holder reaches the age of 18.

2. The Secretary of State shall not disclose or otherwise make available to any person or entity any highly restricted personal information obtained by the Secretary of State in connection with a driver's license, vehicle, or title registration record unless specifically authorized by this Code. The Secretary of State may certify an abstract of a driver's record upon written request therefor. Such certification shall be made under the signature of the Secretary of State and shall be authenticated by the Seal of his office.

3. All requests for driving record information shall be made in a manner prescribed by the Secretary and shall set forth the intended use of the requested information.

The Secretary of State may notify the affected driver of the request for purchase of his driver's record as the Secretary deems appropriate.

No information shall be released to the requester until expiration of a 10 day period. This 10 day period shall not apply to requests for information made by law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, who are employed by or are acting on behalf of law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, and other business entities for purposes consistent with the Illinois Vehicle Code, the affected driver or other entities as the Secretary may exempt by rule and regulation.

Any misrepresentation made by a requestor of driver information shall be punishable as a petty offense, except in the case of persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency which shall be subject to disciplinary sanctions under Section 40-10 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

4. The Secretary of State may furnish without fee, upon the written request of a law enforcement agency, any information from a driver's record on file with the Secretary of State when such information is required in the enforcement of this Code or any other law relating to the operation of motor vehicles, including records of dispositions; documented information involving the use of a motor vehicle; whether such individual has, or previously had, a driver's license; and the address and personal description as reflected on said driver's record.

5. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the Secretary of State may furnish, without fee, information from an individual driver's record on file, if a written request therefor is submitted by any public transit system or authority, public defender, law enforcement agency, a state or federal agency, or an Illinois local intergovernmental association, if the request is for the purpose of a background check of applicants for employment with the requesting agency, or for the purpose of an official investigation conducted by the agency, or to determine a current address for the driver so public funds can be recovered or paid to the driver, or for any other purpose set forth in subsection (f-5) of this Section.

The Secretary may also furnish the courts a copy of an abstract of a driver's record, without fee, subsequent to an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance. Such abstract may include records of dispositions; documented information involving the use of a motor vehicle as contained in the current file; whether such individual has, or previously had, a driver's license; and the address and personal description as reflected on said driver's record.

6. Any certified abstract issued by the Secretary of State or transmitted electronically by the Secretary of State pursuant to this Section, to a court or on request of a law enforcement agency, for the record of a named person as to the status of the person's driver's license shall be prima facie evidence of the facts therein stated and if the name appearing in such abstract is the same as that of a person named in an information or warrant, such abstract shall be prima facie evidence that the person named in such information or warrant is the same person as the person named in such abstract and shall be admissible for any prosecution under this Code and be admitted as proof of any prior conviction or proof of records, notices, or orders recorded on individual driving records maintained by the Secretary of State.

7. Subject to any restrictions contained in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and upon receipt of a proper request and a fee of $6 before October 1, 2003 and a fee of $12 on or after October 1, 2003, the Secretary of State shall provide a driver's record to the affected driver, or the affected driver's attorney, upon verification. Such record shall contain all the information referred to in paragraph 1 of this subsection (g) plus: any recorded accident involvement as a driver; information recorded pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 6-117 and paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 6-204 of this Code. All other information, unless otherwise permitted by this Code, shall remain confidential.

(h) The Secretary shall not disclose social security numbers or any associated information obtained from the Social Security Administration except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of, the individual except: (1) to officers and employees of the Secretary who have a need to know the social security numbers in performance of their official duties, (2) to law enforcement officials for a lawful, civil or criminal law enforcement investigation, and if the head of the law enforcement agency has made a written request to the Secretary specifying the law enforcement investigation for which the social security numbers are being sought, (3) to the United States Department of Transportation, or any other State, pursuant to the administration and enforcement of the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986, (4) pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction, (5) to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) for utilization in the child support enforcement duties assigned to that Department under provisions of the Illinois Public Aid Code after the individual has received advanced meaningful notification of what redisclosure is sought by the Secretary in accordance with the federal Privacy Act, (5.5) to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services solely for the purpose of verifying Illinois residency where such residency is an eligibility requirement for benefits under the Illinois Public Aid Code or any other health benefit program administered by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or the Department of Human Services, or (6) to the Illinois Department of Revenue solely for use by the Department in the collection of any tax or debt that the Department of Revenue is authorized or required by law to collect, provided that the Department shall not disclose the social security number to any person or entity outside of the Department, or (7) to the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs for the purpose of confirming veteran status.

(i) (Blank).

(j) Medical statements or medical reports received in the Secretary of State's Office shall be confidential. Except as provided in this Section, no confidential information may be open to public inspection or the contents disclosed to anyone, except officers and employees of the Secretary who have a need to know the information contained in the medical reports and the Driver License Medical Advisory Board, unless so directed by an order of a court of competent jurisdiction. If the Secretary receives a medical report regarding a driver that does not address a medical condition contained in a previous medical report, the Secretary may disclose the unaddressed medical condition to the driver or his or her physician, or both, solely for the purpose of submission of a medical report that addresses the condition.

(k) All fees collected under this Section shall be paid into the Road Fund of the State Treasury, except that (i) for fees collected before October 1, 2003, $3 of the $6 fee for a driver's record shall be paid into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund, (ii) for fees collected on and after October 1, 2003, of the $12 fee for a driver's record, $3 shall be paid into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund and $6 shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund, and (iii) for fees collected on and after October 1, 2003, 50% of the amounts collected pursuant to subsection (b) shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund.

(l) (Blank).

(m) Notations of accident involvement that may be disclosed under this Section shall not include notations relating to damage to a vehicle or other property being transported by a tow truck. This information shall remain confidential, provided that nothing in this subsection (m) shall limit disclosure of any notification of accident involvement to any law enforcement agency or official.

(n) Requests made by the news media for driver's license, vehicle, or title registration information may be furnished without charge or at a reduced charge, as determined by the Secretary, when the specific purpose for requesting the documents is deemed to be in the public interest. Waiver or reduction of the fee is in the public interest if the principal purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, and welfare or the legal rights of the general public and is not for the principal purpose of gaining a personal or commercial benefit. The information provided pursuant to this subsection shall not contain personally identifying information unless the information is to be used for one of the purposes identified in subsection (f-5) of this Section.

(o) The redisclosure of personally identifying information obtained pursuant to this Section is prohibited, except to the extent necessary to effectuate the purpose for which the original disclosure of the information was permitted.

(p) The Secretary of State is empowered to adopt rules to effectuate this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1383, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1501, eff. 1-25-11; 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-3-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-400) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-400)

Sec. 3-400. Definitions Definition. Notwithstanding the definition set forth in Chapter 1 of this Act, for the purposes of this Article, the following words shall have the meaning ascribed to them as follows:

"Apportionable Fee" means any periodic recurring fee required for licensing or registering vehicles, such as, but not limited to, registration fees, license or weight fees.

"Apportionable Vehicle" means any vehicle, except recreational vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pickup and delivery vehicles, buses used in transportation of chartered parties, and government owned vehicles that are used or intended for use in 2 or more member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register vehicles, in a fleet which is used for the transportation of persons for hire or the transportation of property and which has a gross vehicle weight in excess of 26,000 pounds; or has three or more axles regardless of weight; or is used in combination when the weight of such combination exceeds 26,000 pounds gross vehicle weight. Vehicles, or combinations having a gross vehicle weight of 26,000 pounds or less and two-axle vehicles may be proportionally registered at the option of such owner.

"Base Jurisdiction" means, for purposes of fleet registration, the jurisdiction where the registrant has an established place of business, where operational records of the fleet are maintained and where mileage is accrued by the fleet. In case a registrant operates more than one fleet, and maintains records for each fleet in different places, the "base jurisdiction" for a fleet shall be the jurisdiction where an established place of business is maintained, where records of the operation of that fleet are maintained and where mileage is accrued by that fleet.

"Operational Records" means documents supporting miles traveled in each jurisdiction and total miles traveled, such as fuel reports, trip leases, and logs.

Owner. A person who holds legal title of a motor vehicle, or in the event a motor vehicle is the subject of an agreement for the conditional sale or lease thereof with the right of purchase upon performance of the conditions stated in the agreement and with an immediate right of possession vested in the conditional vendee or lessee with right of purchase, or in the event a mortgagor of such motor vehicle is entitled to possession, or in the event a lessee of such motor vehicle is entitled to possession or control, then such conditional vendee or lessee with right of purchase or mortgagor or lessee is considered to be the owner for the purpose of this Act.

"Registration plate cover" means any tinted, colored, painted, marked, clear, or illuminated object that is designed to (i) cover any of the characters of a motor vehicle's registration plate; or (ii) distort a recorded image of any of the characters of a motor vehicle's registration plate recorded by an automated enforcement system as defined in Section 11-208.6, 11-208.8, or 11-1201.1 of this Code or recorded by an automated traffic control system as defined in Section 15 of the Automated Traffic Control Systems in Highway Construction or Maintenance Zones Act.

"Rental Owner" means an owner principally engaged, with respect to one or more rental fleets, in renting to others or offering for rental the vehicles of such fleets, without drivers.

"Restricted Plates" shall include but are not limited to dealer, manufacturer, transporter, farm, repossessor, and permanently mounted type plates. Vehicles displaying any of these type plates from a foreign jurisdiction that is a member of the International Registration Plan shall be granted reciprocity but shall be subject to the same limitations as similar plated Illinois registered vehicles.

(Source: P.A. 97-743, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-3-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-609) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-609)

Sec. 3-609. Disabled Veterans' Plates.

(a) Any veteran who holds proof of a service-connected disability from the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, and who has obtained certification from a licensed physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse that the service-connected disability qualifies the veteran for issuance of registration plates or decals to a person with disabilities in accordance with Section 3-616, may, without the payment of any registration fee, make application to the Secretary of State for disabled veterans license plates displaying the international symbol of access, for the registration of one motor vehicle of the first division or one motor vehicle of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

(b) Any veteran who holds proof of a service-connected disability from the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, and whose degree of disability has been declared to be 50% or more, but whose disability does not qualify the veteran for a plate or decal for persons with disabilities under Section 3-616, may, without the payment of any registration fee, make application to the Secretary for a special registration plate without the international symbol of access for the registration of one motor vehicle of the first division or one motor vehicle of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

(c) Renewal of such registration must be accompanied with documentation for eligibility of registration without fee unless the applicant has a permanent qualifying disability, and such registration plates may not be issued to any person not eligible therefor. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs may assist in providing the documentation of disability.

(d) The design and color of the plates shall be within the discretion of the Secretary, except that the plates issued under subsection (b) of this Section shall not contain the international symbol of access. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. Registration shall be for a multi-year period and may be issued staggered registration.

(e) Any person eligible to receive license plates under this Section who has been approved for benefits under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, or who has claimed and received a grant under that Act, shall pay a fee of $24 instead of the fee otherwise provided in this Code for passenger cars displaying standard multi-year registration plates issued under Section 3-414.1, for motor vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(a), or for recreational vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(b), for a second set of plates under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-79, eff. 1-1-10; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-918, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-658)

Sec. 3-658. Professional Sports Teams license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Professional Sports Teams license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary, except that the plates shall, subject to the permission of the applicable team owner, display the logo of the Chicago Bears, the Chicago Bulls, the Chicago Blackhawks, the Chicago Cubs, the Chicago White Sox, the St. Louis Rams, or the St. Louis Cardinals, at the applicant's option. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Professional Sports Teams Education Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Professional Sports Teams Education Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Professional Sports Teams Education Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer all moneys in the Professional Sports Teams Team Education Fund to the Common School Fund every 6 months.

(Source: P.A. 97-409, eff. 1-1-12; 97-914, eff. 1-1-13; revised 10-18-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-806) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-806)

Sec. 3-806. Registration Fees; Motor Vehicles of the First Division. Every owner of any other motor vehicle of the first division, except as provided in Sections 3-804, 3-804.01, 3-804.3, 3-805, 3-806.3, 3-806.7, and 3-808, and every second division vehicle weighing 8,000 pounds or less, shall pay the Secretary of State an annual registration fee at the following rates:

Beginning with the 2010 registration year a $1 surcharge shall be collected in addition to the above fees for motor vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, motor driven cycles, and pedalcycles to be deposited into the State Police Vehicle Fund.

All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by Public Act 96-34 shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

Beginning with the 2014 registration year, a $2 surcharge shall be collected in addition to the above fees for motor vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, motor driven cycles, and pedalcycles to be deposited into the Park and Conservation Fund for the Department of Natural Resources to use for conservation efforts. The monies deposited into the Park and Conservation Fund under this Section shall not be subject to administrative charges or chargebacks unless otherwise authorized by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-747, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-412, eff. 1-1-12; 97-811, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13; revised 1-2-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-815) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-815)

Sec. 3-815. Flat weight tax; vehicles of the second division.

(a) Except as provided in Section 3-806.3 and 3-804.3, every owner of a vehicle of the second division registered under Section 3-813, and not registered under the mileage weight tax under Section 3-818, shall pay to the Secretary of State, for each registration year, for the use of the public highways, a flat weight tax at the rates set forth in the following table, the rates including the $10 registration fee:

SCHEDULE OF FLAT WEIGHT TAX

REQUIRED BY LAW

Beginning with the 2010 registration year a $1 surcharge shall be collected for vehicles registered in the 8,000 lbs. and less flat weight plate category above to be deposited into the State Police Vehicle Fund.

Beginning with the 2014 registration year, a $2 surcharge shall be collected in addition to the above fees for vehicles registered in the 8,000 lb. and less flat weight plate category as described in this subsection (a) to be deposited into the Park and Conservation Fund for the Department of Natural Resources to use for conservation efforts. The monies deposited into the Park and Conservation Fund under this Section shall not be subject to administrative charges or chargebacks unless otherwise authorized by this Act.

All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

(a-1) A Special Hauling Vehicle is a vehicle or combination of vehicles of the second division registered under Section 3-813 transporting asphalt or concrete in the plastic state or a vehicle or combination of vehicles that are subject to the gross weight limitations in subsection (a) of Section 15-111 for which the owner of the vehicle or combination of vehicles has elected to pay, in addition to the registration fee in subsection (a), $125 to the Secretary of State for each registration year. The Secretary shall designate this class of vehicle as a Special Hauling Vehicle.

(b) Except as provided in Section 3-806.3, every camping trailer, motor home, mini motor home, travel trailer, truck camper or van camper used primarily for recreational purposes, and not used commercially, nor for hire, nor owned by a commercial business, may be registered for each registration year upon the filing of a proper application and the payment of a registration fee and highway use tax, according to the following table of fees:

MOTOR HOME, MINI MOTOR HOME, TRUCK CAMPER OR VAN CAMPER

CAMPING TRAILER OR TRAVEL TRAILER

Every house trailer must be registered under Section 3-819.

(c) Farm Truck. Any truck used exclusively for the owner's own agricultural, horticultural or livestock raising operations and not-for-hire only, or any truck used only in the transportation for-hire of seasonal, fresh, perishable fruit or vegetables from farm to the point of first processing, may be registered by the owner under this paragraph in lieu of registration under paragraph (a), upon filing of a proper application and the payment of the $10 registration fee and the highway use tax herein specified as follows:

SCHEDULE OF FEES AND TAXES

In the event the Secretary of State revokes a farm truck registration as authorized by law, the owner shall pay the flat weight tax due hereunder before operating such truck.

Any combination of vehicles having 5 axles, with a distance of 42 feet or less between extreme axles, that are subject to the weight limitations in subsection (a) of Section 15-111 for which the owner of the combination of vehicles has elected to pay, in addition to the registration fee in subsection (c), $125 to the Secretary of State for each registration year shall be designated by the Secretary as a Special Hauling Vehicle.

(d) The number of axles necessary to carry the maximum load provided shall be determined from Chapter 15 of this Code.

(e) An owner may only apply for and receive 5 farm truck registrations, and only 2 of those 5 vehicles shall exceed 59,500 gross weight in pounds per vehicle.

(f) Every person convicted of violating this Section by failure to pay the appropriate flat weight tax to the Secretary of State as set forth in the above tables shall be punished as provided for in Section 3-401.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 97-201, eff. 1-1-12; 97-811, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13; revised 1-2-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-902) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-902)

Sec. 3-902. Application of Article. This Article shall not apply to (any person who, in connection with the issuance of a license to him to conduct a business in this State other than a remitter's license, shall have filed, pursuant to a statutory requirement, a surety bond covering the proper discharge of any liability incurred by him in connection with the acceptance for remittance of money for the purposes designated in the Article pursuant to which he or she is licensed.

(Source: P.A. 97-832, eff. 7-20-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-106)

Sec. 6-106. Application for license or instruction permit.

(a) Every application for any permit or license authorized to be issued under this Act shall be made upon a form furnished by the Secretary of State. Every application shall be accompanied by the proper fee and payment of such fee shall entitle the applicant to not more than 3 attempts to pass the examination within a period of 1 year after the date of application.

(b) Every application shall state the legal name, social security number, zip code, date of birth, sex, and residence address of the applicant; briefly describe the applicant; state whether the applicant has theretofore been licensed as a driver, and, if so, when and by what state or country, and whether any such license has ever been cancelled, suspended, revoked or refused, and, if so, the date and reason for such cancellation, suspension, revocation or refusal; shall include an affirmation by the applicant that all information set forth is true and correct; and shall bear the applicant's signature. In addition to the residence address, the Secretary may allow the applicant to provide a mailing address. In the case of an applicant who is a judicial officer, the Secretary may allow the applicant to provide an office or work address in lieu of a residence or mailing address. The application form may also require the statement of such additional relevant information as the Secretary of State shall deem necessary to determine the applicant's competency and eligibility. The Secretary of State may, in his discretion, by rule or regulation, provide that an application for a drivers license or permit may include a suitable photograph of the applicant in the form prescribed by the Secretary, and he may further provide that each drivers license shall include a photograph of the driver. The Secretary of State may utilize a photograph process or system most suitable to deter alteration or improper reproduction of a drivers license and to prevent substitution of another photo thereon.

(c) The application form shall include a notice to the applicant of the registration obligations of sex offenders under the Sex Offender Registration Act. The notice shall be provided in a form and manner prescribed by the Secretary of State. For purposes of this subsection (c), "sex offender" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(d) Any male United States citizen or immigrant who applies for any permit or license authorized to be issued under this Act or for a renewal of any permit or license, and who is at least 18 years of age but less than 26 years of age, must be registered in compliance with the requirements of the federal Military Selective Service Act. The Secretary of State must forward in an electronic format the necessary personal information regarding the applicants identified in this subsection (d) to the Selective Service System. The applicant's signature on the application serves as an indication that the applicant either has already registered with the Selective Service System or that he is authorizing the Secretary to forward to the Selective Service System the necessary information for registration. The Secretary must notify the applicant at the time of application that his signature constitutes consent to registration with the Selective Service System, if he is not already registered.

(e) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, for each original or renewal driver's license application under this Act, the Secretary shall inquire as to whether the applicant is a veteran for purposes of issuing a driver's license with a veteran designation under subsection (e-5) of Section 6-110 of this Chapter. The acceptable forms of proof shall include, but are not limited to, Department of Defense form DD-214. The Secretary shall determine by rule what other forms of proof of a person's status as a veteran are acceptable.

The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall confirm the status of the applicant as an honorably discharged veteran before the Secretary may issue the driver's license.

For purposes of this subsection (e):

"Active duty" means active duty under an executive order of the President of the United States, an Act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

"Armed forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component or National Guard unit called to active duty.

"Veteran" means a person who has served on active duty in the armed forces and was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(Source: P.A. 96-1231, eff. 7-23-10; 97-263, eff. 8-5-11; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-3-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-110) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-110)

Sec. 6-110. Licenses issued to drivers.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue to every qualifying applicant a driver's license as applied for, which license shall bear a distinguishing number assigned to the licensee, the legal name, signature, zip code, date of birth, residence address, and a brief description of the licensee.

Licenses issued shall also indicate the classification and the restrictions under Section 6-104 of this Code. The Secretary may adopt rules to establish informational restrictions that can be placed on the driver's license regarding specific conditions of the licensee.

A driver's license issued may, in the discretion of the Secretary, include a suitable photograph of a type prescribed by the Secretary.

(a-1) If the licensee is less than 18 years of age, unless one of the exceptions in subsection (a-2) apply, the license shall, as a matter of law, be invalid for the operation of any motor vehicle during the following times:

(A) Between 11:00 p.m. Friday and 6:00 a.m. Saturday;

(B) Between 11:00 p.m. Saturday and 6:00 a.m. on Sunday; and

(C) Between 10:00 p.m. on Sunday to Thursday, inclusive, and 6:00 a.m. on the following day.

(a-2) The driver's license of a person under the age of 18 shall not be invalid as described in subsection (a-1) of this Section if the licensee under the age of 18 was:

(1) accompanied by the licensee's parent or guardian or other person in custody or control of the minor;

(2) on an errand at the direction of the minor's parent or guardian, without any detour or stop;

(3) in a motor vehicle involved in interstate travel;

(4) going to or returning home from an employment activity, without any detour or stop;

(5) involved in an emergency;

(6) going to or returning home from, without any detour or stop, an official school, religious, or other recreational activity supervised by adults and sponsored by a government or governmental agency, a civic organization, or another similar entity that takes responsibility for the licensee, without any detour or stop;

(7) exercising First Amendment rights protected by the United States Constitution, such as the free exercise of religion, freedom of speech, and the right of assembly; or

(8) married or had been married or is an emancipated minor under the Emancipation of Minors Act.

(a-2.5) The driver's license of a person who is 17 years of age and has been licensed for at least 12 months is not invalid as described in subsection (a-1) of this Section while the licensee is participating as an assigned driver in a Safe Rides program that meets the following criteria:

(1) the program is sponsored by the Boy Scouts of America or another national public service organization; and

(2) the sponsoring organization carries liability insurance covering the program.

(a-3) If a graduated driver's license holder over the age of 18 committed an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of this Code in the 6 months prior to the graduated driver's license holder's 18th birthday, and was subsequently convicted of the offense, the provisions of subsection (a-1) shall continue to apply until such time as a period of 6 consecutive months has elapsed without an additional violation and subsequent conviction of an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of this Code.

(a-4) If an applicant for a driver's license or instruction permit has a current identification card issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-5) If an applicant for a driver's license is a judicial officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the license instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary of State shall adopt rules to implement this subsection (a-5).

(b) Until the Secretary of State establishes a First Person Consent organ and tissue donor registry under Section 6-117 of this Code, the Secretary of State shall provide a format on the reverse of each driver's license issued which the licensee may use to execute a document of gift conforming to the provisions of the Illinois Anatomical Gift Act. The format shall allow the licensee to indicate the gift intended, whether specific organs, any organ, or the entire body, and shall accommodate the signatures of the donor and 2 witnesses. The Secretary shall also inform each applicant or licensee of this format, describe the procedure for its execution, and may offer the necessary witnesses; provided that in so doing, the Secretary shall advise the applicant or licensee that he or she is under no compulsion to execute a document of gift. A brochure explaining this method of executing an anatomical gift document shall be given to each applicant or licensee. The brochure shall advise the applicant or licensee that he or she is under no compulsion to execute a document of gift, and that he or she may wish to consult with family, friends or clergy before doing so. The Secretary of State may undertake additional efforts, including education and awareness activities, to promote organ and tissue donation.

(c) The Secretary of State shall designate on each driver's license issued a space where the licensee may place a sticker or decal of the uniform size as the Secretary may specify, which sticker or decal may indicate in appropriate language that the owner of the license carries an Emergency Medical Information Card.

The sticker may be provided by any person, hospital, school, medical group, or association interested in assisting in implementing the Emergency Medical Information Card, but shall meet the specifications as the Secretary may by rule or regulation require.

(d) The Secretary of State shall designate on each driver's license issued a space where the licensee may indicate his blood type and RH factor.

(e) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal driver's license issued to a licensee under 21 years of age shall be of a distinct nature from those driver's licenses issued to individuals 21 years of age and older. The color designated for driver's licenses for licensees under 21 years of age shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(e-1) The Secretary shall provide that each driver's license issued to a person under the age of 21 displays the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(e-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue drivers' licenses with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the licenses. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other driver's license which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the license holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the driver's license.

(e-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal driver's license where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (e) of Section paragraph 6-106 of this Code Chapter who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(f) The Secretary of State shall inform all Illinois licensed commercial motor vehicle operators of the requirements of the Uniform Commercial Driver License Act, Article V of this Chapter, and shall make provisions to insure that all drivers, seeking to obtain a commercial driver's license, be afforded an opportunity prior to April 1, 1992, to obtain the license. The Secretary is authorized to extend driver's license expiration dates, and assign specific times, dates and locations where these commercial driver's tests shall be conducted. Any applicant, regardless of the current expiration date of the applicant's driver's license, may be subject to any assignment by the Secretary. Failure to comply with the Secretary's assignment may result in the applicant's forfeiture of an opportunity to receive a commercial driver's license prior to April 1, 1992.

(g) The Secretary of State shall designate on a driver's license issued, a space where the licensee may indicate that he or she has drafted a living will in accordance with the Illinois Living Will Act or a durable power of attorney for health care in accordance with the Illinois Power of Attorney Act.

(g-1) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each driver's license issued a space where the licensee may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the owner of the license has renewed his or her driver's license.

(h) A person who acts in good faith in accordance with the terms of this Section is not liable for damages in any civil action or subject to prosecution in any criminal proceeding for his or her act.

(Source: P.A. 96-607, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1231, eff. 7-23-10; 97-263, eff. 8-5-11; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1127, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-3-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-500) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-500)

Sec. 6-500. Definitions of words and phrases. Notwithstanding the definitions set forth elsewhere in this Code, for purposes of the Uniform Commercial Driver's License Act (UCDLA), the words and phrases listed below have the meanings ascribed to them as follows:

(1) Alcohol. "Alcohol" means any substance containing any form of alcohol, including but not limited to ethanol, methanol, propanol, and isopropanol.

(2) Alcohol concentration. "Alcohol concentration" means:

(A) the number of grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath; or

(B) the number of grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood; or

(C) the number of grams of alcohol per 67 milliliters of urine.

Alcohol tests administered within 2 hours of the driver being "stopped or detained" shall be considered that driver's "alcohol concentration" for the purposes of enforcing this UCDLA.

(3) (Blank).

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(5.3) CDLIS driver record. "CDLIS driver record" means the electronic record of the individual CDL driver's status and history stored by the State-of-Record as part of the Commercial Driver's License Information System, or CDLIS, established under 49 U.S.C. 31309.

(5.5) CDLIS motor vehicle record. "CDLIS motor vehicle record" or "CDLIS MVR" means a report generated from the CDLIS driver record meeting the requirements for access to CDLIS information and provided by states to users authorized in 49 C.F.R. 384.225(e)(3) and (4), subject to the provisions of the Driver Privacy Protection Act, 18 U.S.C. 2721–2725.

(5.7) Commercial driver's license downgrade. "Commercial driver's license downgrade" or "CDL downgrade" means either:

(A) a state allows the driver to change his or her self-certification to interstate, but operating exclusively in transportation or operation excepted from 49 C.F.R. Part 391, as provided in 49 C.F.R. 390.3(f), 391.2, 391.68, or 398.3;

(B) a state allows the driver to change his or her self-certification to intrastate only, if the driver qualifies under that state's physical qualification requirements for intrastate only;

(C) a state allows the driver to change his or her certification to intrastate, but operating exclusively in transportation or operations excepted from all or part of the state driver qualification requirements; or

(D) a state removes the CDL privilege from the driver license.

(6) Commercial Motor Vehicle.

(A) "Commercial motor vehicle" or "CMV" means a motor vehicle used in commerce, except those referred to in subdivision (B), designed to transport passengers or property if:

(i) the vehicle has a GVWR of 26,001 pounds or more or such a lesser GVWR as subsequently determined by federal regulations or the Secretary of State; or any combination of vehicles with a GCWR of 26,001 pounds or more, provided the GVWR of any vehicle or vehicles being towed is 10,001 pounds or more; or

(ii) the vehicle is designed to transport 16 or more persons; or

(iii) the vehicle is transporting hazardous materials and is required to be placarded in accordance with 49 C.F.R. Part 172, subpart F.

(B) Pursuant to the interpretation of the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 by the Federal Highway Administration, the definition of "commercial motor vehicle" does not include:

(i) recreational vehicles, when operated primarily for personal use;

(ii) vehicles owned by or operated under the direction of the United States Department of Defense or the United States Coast Guard only when operated by non-civilian personnel. This includes any operator on active military duty; members of the Reserves; National Guard; personnel on part-time training; and National Guard military technicians (civilians who are required to wear military uniforms and are subject to the Code of Military Justice); or

(iii) firefighting, police, and other emergency equipment (including, without limitation, equipment owned or operated by a HazMat or technical rescue team authorized by a county board under Section 5-1127 of the Counties Code), with audible and visual signals, owned or operated by or for a governmental entity, which is necessary to the preservation of life or property or the execution of emergency governmental functions which are normally not subject to general traffic rules and regulations.

(7) Controlled Substance. "Controlled substance" shall have the same meaning as defined in Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and shall also include cannabis as defined in Section 3 of the Cannabis Control Act and methamphetamine as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(8) Conviction. "Conviction" means an unvacated adjudication of guilt or a determination that a person has violated or failed to comply with the law in a court of original jurisdiction or by an authorized administrative tribunal; an unvacated forfeiture of bail or collateral deposited to secure the person's appearance in court; a plea of guilty or nolo contendere accepted by the court; the payment of a fine or court cost regardless of whether the imposition of sentence is deferred and ultimately a judgment dismissing the underlying charge is entered; or a violation of a condition of release without bail, regardless of whether or not the penalty is rebated, suspended or probated.

(8.5) Day. "Day" means calendar day.

(9) (Blank).

(10) (Blank).

(11) (Blank).

(12) (Blank).

(13) Driver. "Driver" means any person who drives, operates, or is in physical control of a commercial motor vehicle, any person who is required to hold a CDL, or any person who is a holder of a CDL while operating a non-commercial motor vehicle.

(13.5) Driver applicant. "Driver applicant" means an individual who applies to a state to obtain, transfer, upgrade, or renew a CDL.

(13.8) Electronic device. "Electronic device" includes, but is not limited to, a cellular telephone, personal digital assistant, pager, computer, or any other device used to input, write, send, receive, or read text.

(14) Employee. "Employee" means a person who is employed as a commercial motor vehicle driver. A person who is self-employed as a commercial motor vehicle driver must comply with the requirements of this UCDLA pertaining to employees. An owner-operator on a long-term lease shall be considered an employee.

(15) Employer. "Employer" means a person (including the United States, a State or a local authority) who owns or leases a commercial motor vehicle or assigns employees to operate such a vehicle. A person who is self-employed as a commercial motor vehicle driver must comply with the requirements of this UCDLA.

(15.3) Excepted interstate. "Excepted interstate" means a person who operates or expects to operate in interstate commerce, but engages exclusively in transportation or operations excepted under 49 C.F.R. 390.3(f), 391.2, 391.68, or 398.3 from all or part of the qualification requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 391 and is not required to obtain a medical examiner's certificate by 49 C.F.R. 391.45.

(15.5) Excepted intrastate. "Excepted intrastate" means a person who operates in intrastate commerce but engages exclusively in transportation or operations excepted from all or parts of the state driver qualification requirements.

(16) (Blank).

(16.5) Fatality. "Fatality" means the death of a person as a result of a motor vehicle accident.

(17) Foreign jurisdiction. "Foreign jurisdiction" means a sovereign jurisdiction that does not fall within the definition of "State".

(18) (Blank).

(19) (Blank).

(20) Hazardous materials. "Hazardous Material" means any material that has been designated under 49 U.S.C. 5103 and is required to be placarded under subpart F of 49 C.F.R. part 172 or any quantity of a material listed as a select agent or toxin in 42 C.F.R. part 73.

(20.5) Imminent Hazard. "Imminent hazard" means the existence of a condition that presents a substantial likelihood that death, serious illness, severe personal injury, or a substantial endangerment to health, property, or the environment may occur before the reasonably foreseeable completion date of a formal proceeding begun to lessen the risk of that death, illness, injury or endangerment.

(21) Long-term lease. "Long-term lease" means a lease of a commercial motor vehicle by the owner-lessor to a lessee, for a period of more than 29 days.

(21.1) Medical examiner. "Medical examiner" means a person who is licensed, certified, or registered in accordance with applicable state laws and regulations to perform physical examinations. The term includes but is not limited to doctors of medicine, doctors of osteopathy, physician assistants, advanced practice nurses, and doctors of chiropractic.

(21.2) Medical examiner's certificate. "Medical examiner's certificate" means a document prescribed or approved by the Secretary of State that is issued by a medical examiner to a driver to medically qualify him or her to drive.

(21.5) Medical variance. "Medical variance" means a driver has received one of the following from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration which allows the driver to be issued a medical certificate: (1) an exemption letter permitting operation of a commercial motor vehicle pursuant to 49 C.F.R. Part 381, Subpart C or 49 C.F.R. 391.64; or (2) a skill performance evaluation (SPE) certificate permitting operation of a commercial motor vehicle pursuant to 49 C.F.R. 391.49.

(21.7) Mobile telephone. "Mobile telephone" means a mobile communication device that falls under or uses any commercial mobile radio service, as defined in regulations of the Federal Communications Commission, 47 CFR 20.3. It does not include two-way or citizens band radio services.

(22) Motor Vehicle. "Motor vehicle" means every vehicle which is self-propelled, and every vehicle which is propelled by electric power obtained from over head trolley wires but not operated upon rails, except vehicles moved solely by human power and motorized wheel chairs.

(22.2) Motor vehicle record. "Motor vehicle record" means a report of the driving status and history of a driver generated from the driver record provided to users, such as drivers or employers, and is subject to the provisions of the Driver Privacy Protection Act, 18 U.S.C. 2721-2725.

(22.5) Non-CMV. "Non-CMV" means a motor vehicle or combination of motor vehicles not defined by the term "commercial motor vehicle" or "CMV" in this Section.

(22.7) Non-excepted interstate. "Non-excepted interstate" means a person who operates or expects to operate in interstate commerce, is subject to and meets the qualification requirements under 49 C.F.R. Part 391, and is required to obtain a medical examiner's certificate by 49 C.F.R. 391.45.

(22.8) Non-excepted intrastate. "Non-excepted intrastate" means a person who operates only in intrastate commerce and is subject to State driver qualification requirements.

(23) Non-resident CDL. "Non-resident CDL" means a commercial driver's license issued by a state under either of the following two conditions:

(i) to an individual domiciled in a foreign country meeting the requirements of Part 383.23(b)(1) of 49 C.F.R. of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration.

(ii) to an individual domiciled in another state meeting the requirements of Part 383.23(b)(2) of 49 C.F.R. of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration.

(24) (Blank).

(25) (Blank).

(25.5) Railroad-Highway Grade Crossing Violation. "Railroad-highway grade crossing violation" means a violation, while operating a commercial motor vehicle, of any of the following:

(A) Section 11-1201, 11-1202, or 11-1425 of this Code.

(B) Any other similar law or local ordinance of any state relating to railroad-highway grade crossing.

(25.7) School Bus. "School bus" means a commercial motor vehicle used to transport pre-primary, primary, or secondary school students from home to school, from school to home, or to and from school-sponsored events. "School bus" does not include a bus used as a common carrier.

(26) Serious Traffic Violation. "Serious traffic violation" means:

(A) a conviction when operating a commercial motor vehicle, or when operating a non-CMV while holding a CDL, of:

(i) a violation relating to excessive speeding, involving a single speeding charge of 15 miles per hour or more above the legal speed limit; or

(ii) a violation relating to reckless driving; or

(iii) a violation of any State law or local ordinance relating to motor vehicle traffic control (other than parking violations) arising in connection with a fatal traffic accident; or

(iv) a violation of Section 6-501, relating to having multiple driver's licenses; or

(v) a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 6-507, relating to the requirement to have a valid CDL; or

(vi) a violation relating to improper or erratic traffic lane changes; or

(vii) a violation relating to following another vehicle too closely; or

(viii) a violation relating to texting while driving; or

(ix) a violation relating to the use of a hand-held mobile telephone while driving; or

(B) any other similar violation of a law or local ordinance of any state relating to motor vehicle traffic control, other than a parking violation, which the Secretary of State determines by administrative rule to be serious.

(27) State. "State" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia and any province or territory of Canada.

(28) (Blank).

(29) (Blank).

(30) (Blank).

(31) (Blank).

(32) Texting. "Texting" means manually entering alphanumeric text into, or reading text from, an electronic device.

(1) Texting includes, but is not limited to, short message service, emailing, instant messaging, a command or request to access a World Wide Web page, pressing more than a single button to initiate or terminate a voice communication using a mobile telephone, or engaging in any other form of electronic text retrieval or entry for present or future communication.

(2) Texting does not include:

(i) inputting, selecting, or reading information on a global positioning system or navigation system; or

(ii) pressing a single button to initiate or terminate a voice communication using a mobile telephone; or

(iii) using a device capable of performing multiple functions (for example, a fleet management system, dispatching device, smart phone, citizens band radio, or music player) for a purpose that is not otherwise prohibited by Part 392 of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations.

(33) Use a hand-held mobile telephone. "Use a hand-held mobile telephone" means:

(1) using at least one hand to hold a mobile telephone to conduct a voice communication;

(2) dialing or answering a mobile telephone by pressing more than a single button; or

(3) reaching for a mobile telephone in a manner that requires a driver to maneuver so that he or she is no longer in a seated driving position, restrained by a seat belt that is installed in accordance with 49 CFR 393.93 and adjusted in accordance with the vehicle manufacturer's instructions.

(Source: P.A. 97-208, eff. 1-1-12; 97-750, eff. 7-6-12; 97-829, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-3-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-208.6)

Sec. 11-208.6. Automated traffic law enforcement system.

(a) As used in this Section, "automated traffic law enforcement system" means a device with one or more motor vehicle sensors working in conjunction with a red light signal to produce recorded images of motor vehicles entering an intersection against a red signal indication in violation of Section 11-306 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

An automated traffic law enforcement system is a system, in a municipality or county operated by a governmental agency, that produces a recorded image of a motor vehicle's violation of a provision of this Code or a local ordinance and is designed to obtain a clear recorded image of the vehicle and the vehicle's license plate. The recorded image must also display the time, date, and location of the violation.

(b) As used in this Section, "recorded images" means images recorded by an automated traffic law enforcement system on:

(1) 2 or more photographs;

(2) 2 or more microphotographs;

(3) 2 or more electronic images; or

(4) a video recording showing the motor vehicle and, on at least one image or portion of the recording, clearly identifying the registration plate number of the motor vehicle.

(b-5) A municipality or county that produces a recorded image of a motor vehicle's violation of a provision of this Code or a local ordinance must make the recorded images of a violation accessible to the alleged violator by providing the alleged violator with a website address, accessible through the Internet.

(c) Except as provided under Section 11-208.8 of this Code, a county or municipality, including a home rule county or municipality, may not use an automated traffic law enforcement system to provide recorded images of a motor vehicle for the purpose of recording its speed. Except as provided under Section 11-208.8 of this Code, the regulation of the use of automated traffic law enforcement systems to record vehicle speeds is an exclusive power and function of the State. This subsection (c) is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(c-5) A county or municipality, including a home rule county or municipality, may not use an automated traffic law enforcement system to issue violations in instances where the motor vehicle comes to a complete stop and does not enter the intersection, as defined by Section 1-132 of this Code, during the cycle of the red signal indication unless one or more pedestrians or bicyclists are present, even if the motor vehicle stops at a point past a stop line or crosswalk where a driver is required to stop, as specified in subsection (c) of Section 11-306 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(c-6) A county, or a municipality with less than 2,000,000 inhabitants, including a home rule county or municipality, may not use an automated traffic law enforcement system to issue violations in instances where a motorcyclist enters an intersection against a red signal indication when the red signal fails to change to a green signal within a reasonable period of time not less than 120 seconds because of a signal malfunction or because the signal has failed to detect the arrival of the motorcycle due to the motorcycle's size or weight.

(d) For each violation of a provision of this Code or a local ordinance recorded by an automatic traffic law enforcement system, the county or municipality having jurisdiction shall issue a written notice of the violation to the registered owner of the vehicle as the alleged violator. The notice shall be delivered to the registered owner of the vehicle, by mail, within 30 days after the Secretary of State notifies the municipality or county of the identity of the owner of the vehicle, but in no event later than 90 days after the violation.

The notice shall include:

(1) the name and address of the registered owner of the vehicle;

(2) the registration number of the motor vehicle involved in the violation;

(3) the violation charged;

(4) the location where the violation occurred;

(5) the date and time of the violation;

(6) a copy of the recorded images;

(7) the amount of the civil penalty imposed and the requirements of any traffic education program imposed and the date by which the civil penalty should be paid and the traffic education program should be completed;

(8) a statement that recorded images are evidence of a violation of a red light signal;

(9) a warning that failure to pay the civil penalty, to complete a required traffic education program, or to contest liability in a timely manner is an admission of liability and may result in a suspension of the driving privileges of the registered owner of the vehicle;

(10) a statement that the person may elect to proceed by:

(A) paying the fine, completing a required traffic education program, or both; or

(B) challenging the charge in court, by mail, or by administrative hearing; and

(11) a website address, accessible through the Internet, where the person may view the recorded images of the violation.

(e) If a person charged with a traffic violation, as a result of an automated traffic law enforcement system, does not pay the fine or complete a required traffic education program, or both, or successfully contest the civil penalty resulting from that violation, the Secretary of State shall suspend the driving privileges of the registered owner of the vehicle under Section 6-306.5 of this Code for failing to complete a required traffic education program or to pay any fine or penalty due and owing, or both, as a result of a combination of 5 violations of the automated traffic law enforcement system or the automated speed enforcement system under Section 11-208.8 of this Code.

(f) Based on inspection of recorded images produced by an automated traffic law enforcement system, a notice alleging that the violation occurred shall be evidence of the facts contained in the notice and admissible in any proceeding alleging a violation under this Section.

(g) Recorded images made by an automatic traffic law enforcement system are confidential and shall be made available only to the alleged violator and governmental and law enforcement agencies for purposes of adjudicating a violation of this Section, for statistical purposes, or for other governmental purposes. Any recorded image evidencing a violation of this Section, however, may be admissible in any proceeding resulting from the issuance of the citation.

(h) The court or hearing officer may consider in defense of a violation:

(1) that the motor vehicle or registration plates of the motor vehicle were stolen before the violation occurred and not under the control of or in the possession of the owner at the time of the violation;

(2) that the driver of the vehicle passed through the intersection when the light was red either (i) in order to yield the right-of-way to an emergency vehicle or (ii) as part of a funeral procession; and

(3) any other evidence or issues provided by municipal or county ordinance.

(i) To demonstrate that the motor vehicle or the registration plates were stolen before the violation occurred and were not under the control or possession of the owner at the time of the violation, the owner must submit proof that a report concerning the stolen motor vehicle or registration plates was filed with a law enforcement agency in a timely manner.

(j) Unless the driver of the motor vehicle received a Uniform Traffic Citation from a police officer at the time of the violation, the motor vehicle owner is subject to a civil penalty not exceeding $100 or the completion of a traffic education program, or both, plus an additional penalty of not more than $100 for failure to pay the original penalty or to complete a required traffic education program, or both, in a timely manner, if the motor vehicle is recorded by an automated traffic law enforcement system. A violation for which a civil penalty is imposed under this Section is not a violation of a traffic regulation governing the movement of vehicles and may not be recorded on the driving record of the owner of the vehicle.

(j-3) A registered owner who is a holder of a valid commercial driver's license is not required to complete a traffic education program.

(j-5) For purposes of the required traffic education program only, a registered owner may submit an affidavit to the court or hearing officer swearing that at the time of the alleged violation, the vehicle was in the custody and control of another person. The affidavit must identify the person in custody and control of the vehicle, including the person's name and current address. The person in custody and control of the vehicle at the time of the violation is required to complete the required traffic education program. If the person in custody and control of the vehicle at the time of the violation completes the required traffic education program, the registered owner of the vehicle is not required to complete a traffic education program.

(k) An intersection equipped with an automated traffic law enforcement system must be posted with a sign visible to approaching traffic indicating that the intersection is being monitored by an automated traffic law enforcement system.

(k-3) A municipality or county that has one or more intersections equipped with an automated traffic law enforcement system must provide notice to drivers by posting the locations of automated traffic law systems on the municipality or county website.

(k-5) An intersection equipped with an automated traffic law enforcement system must have a yellow change interval that conforms with the Illinois Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices (IMUTCD) published by the Illinois Department of Transportation.

(k-7) A municipality or county operating an automated traffic law enforcement system shall conduct a statistical analysis to assess the safety impact of each automated traffic law enforcement system at an intersection following installation of the system. The statistical analysis shall be based upon the best available crash, traffic, and other data, and shall cover a period of time before and after installation of the system sufficient to provide a statistically valid comparison of safety impact. The statistical analysis shall be consistent with professional judgment and acceptable industry practice. The statistical analysis also shall be consistent with the data required for valid comparisons of before and after conditions and shall be conducted within a reasonable period following the installation of the automated traffic law enforcement system. The statistical analysis required by this subsection (k-7) shall be made available to the public and shall be published on the website of the municipality or county. If the statistical analysis for the 36 month period following installation of the system indicates that there has been an increase in the rate of accidents at the approach to the intersection monitored by the system, the municipality or county shall undertake additional studies to determine the cause and severity of the accidents, and may take any action that it determines is necessary or appropriate to reduce the number or severity of the accidents at that intersection.

(l) The compensation paid for an automated traffic law enforcement system must be based on the value of the equipment or the services provided and may not be based on the number of traffic citations issued or the revenue generated by the system.

(m) This Section applies only to the counties of Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, Madison, McHenry, St. Clair, and Will and to municipalities located within those counties.

(n) The fee for participating in a traffic education program under this Section shall not exceed $25.

A low-income individual required to complete a traffic education program under this Section who provides proof of eligibility for the federal earned income tax credit under Section 32 of the Internal Revenue Code or the Illinois earned income tax credit under Section 212 of the Illinois Income Tax Act shall not be required to pay any fee for participating in a required traffic education program.

(o) A municipality or county shall make a certified report to the Secretary of State pursuant to Section 6-306.5 of this Code whenever a registered owner of a vehicle has failed to pay any fine or penalty due and owing as a result of a combination of 5 offenses for automated traffic law or speed enforcement system violations.

(p) No person who is the lessor of a motor vehicle pursuant to a written lease agreement shall be liable for an automated speed or traffic law enforcement system violation involving such motor vehicle during the period of the lease; provided that upon the request of the appropriate authority received within 120 days after the violation occurred, the lessor provides within 60 days after such receipt the name and address of the lessee. The drivers license number of a lessee may be subsequently individually requested by the appropriate authority if needed for enforcement of this Section.

Upon the provision of information by the lessor pursuant to this subsection, the county or municipality may issue the violation to the lessee of the vehicle in the same manner as it would issue a violation to a registered owner of a vehicle pursuant to this Section, and the lessee may be held liable for the violation.

(Source: P.A. 96-288, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1016, eff. 1-1-11; 97-29, eff. 1-1-12; 97-627, eff. 1-1-12; 97-672, eff. 7-1-12; 97-762, eff. 7-6-12; revised 7-16-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-208.8)

Sec. 11-208.8. Automated speed enforcement systems in safety zones.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Automated speed enforcement system" means a photographic device, radar device, laser device, or other electrical or mechanical device or devices installed or utilized in a safety zone and designed to record the speed of a vehicle and obtain a clear photograph or other recorded image of the vehicle and the vehicle's registration plate while the driver is violating Article VI of Chapter 11 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

An automated speed enforcement system is a system, located in a safety zone which is under the jurisdiction of a municipality, that produces a recorded image of a motor vehicle's violation of a provision of this Code or a local ordinance and is designed to obtain a clear recorded image of the vehicle and the vehicle's license plate. The recorded image must also display the time, date, and location of the violation.

"Owner" means the person or entity to whom the vehicle is registered.

"Recorded image" means images recorded by an automated speed enforcement system on:

(1) 2 or more photographs;

(2) 2 or more microphotographs;

(3) 2 or more electronic images; or

(4) a video recording showing the motor vehicle and, on at least one image or portion of the recording, clearly identifying the registration plate number of the motor vehicle.

"Safety zone" means an area that is within one-eighth of a mile from the nearest property line of any public or private elementary or secondary school, or from the nearest property line of any facility, area, or land owned by a school district that is used for educational purposes approved by the Illinois State Board of Education, not including school district headquarters or administrative buildings. A safety zone also includes an area that is within one-eighth of a mile from the nearest property line of any facility, area, or land owned by a park district used for recreational purposes. However, if any portion of a roadway is within either one-eighth mile radius, the safety zone also shall include the roadway extended to the furthest portion of the next furthest intersection. The term "safety zone" does not include any portion of the roadway known as Lake Shore Drive or any controlled access highway with 8 or more lanes of traffic.

(a-5) The automated speed enforcement system shall be operational and violations shall be recorded only at the following times:

(i) if the safety zone is based upon the property line of any facility, area, or land owned by a school district, only on school days and no earlier than 6 a.m. and no later than 8:30 p.m. if the school day is during the period of Monday through Thursday, or 9 p.m. if the school day is a Friday; and

(ii) if the safety zone is based upon the property line of any facility, area, or land owned by a park district, no earlier than one hour prior to the time that the facility, area, or land is open to the public or other patrons, and no later than one hour after the facility, area, or land is closed to the public or other patrons.

(b) A municipality that produces a recorded image of a motor vehicle's violation of a provision of this Code or a local ordinance must make the recorded images of a violation accessible to the alleged violator by providing the alleged violator with a website address, accessible through the Internet.

(c) Notwithstanding any penalties for any other violations of this Code, the owner of a motor vehicle used in a traffic violation recorded by an automated speed enforcement system shall be subject to the following penalties:

(1) if the recorded speed is no less than 6 miles per hour and no more than 10 miles per hour over the legal speed limit, a civil penalty not exceeding $50, plus an additional penalty of not more than $50 for failure to pay the original penalty in a timely manner; or

(2) if the recorded speed is more than 10 miles per hour over the legal speed limit, a civil penalty not exceeding $100, plus an additional penalty of not more than $100 for failure to pay the original penalty in a timely manner.

A penalty may not be imposed under this Section if the driver of the motor vehicle received a Uniform Traffic Citation from a police officer for a speeding violation occurring within one-eighth of a mile and 15 minutes of the violation that was recorded by the system. A violation for which a civil penalty is imposed under this Section is not a violation of a traffic regulation governing the movement of vehicles and may not be recorded on the driving record of the owner of the vehicle. A law enforcement officer is not required to be present or to witness the violation. No penalty may be imposed under this Section if the recorded speed of a vehicle is 5 miles per hour or less over the legal speed limit. The municipality may send, in the same manner that notices are sent under this Section, a speed violation warning notice where the violation involves a speed of 5 miles per hour or less above the legal speed limit.

(d) The net proceeds that a municipality receives from civil penalties imposed under an automated speed enforcement system, after deducting all non-personnel and personnel costs associated with the operation and maintenance of such system, shall be expended or obligated by the municipality for the following purposes:

(i) public safety initiatives to ensure safe passage around schools, and to provide police protection and surveillance around schools and parks, including but not limited to: (1) personnel costs; and (2) non-personnel costs such as construction and maintenance of public safety infrastructure and equipment;

(ii) initiatives to improve pedestrian and traffic safety; and

(iii) construction and maintenance of infrastructure within the municipality, including but not limited to roads and bridges; and

(iv) after school programs.

(e) For each violation of a provision of this Code or a local ordinance recorded by an automated speed enforcement system, the municipality having jurisdiction shall issue a written notice of the violation to the registered owner of the vehicle as the alleged violator. The notice shall be delivered to the registered owner of the vehicle, by mail, within 30 days after the Secretary of State notifies the municipality of the identity of the owner of the vehicle, but in no event later than 90 days after the violation.

(f) The notice required under subsection (e) of this Section shall include:

(1) the name and address of the registered owner of the vehicle;

(2) the registration number of the motor vehicle involved in the violation;

(3) the violation charged;

(4) the date, time, and location where the violation occurred;

(5) a copy of the recorded image or images;

(6) the amount of the civil penalty imposed and the date by which the civil penalty should be paid;

(7) a statement that recorded images are evidence of a violation of a speed restriction;

(8) a warning that failure to pay the civil penalty or to contest liability in a timely manner is an admission of liability and may result in a suspension of the driving privileges of the registered owner of the vehicle;

(9) a statement that the person may elect to proceed by:

(A) paying the fine; or

(B) challenging the charge in court, by mail, or by administrative hearing; and

(10) a website address, accessible through the Internet, where the person may view the recorded images of the violation.

(g) If a person charged with a traffic violation, as a result of an automated speed enforcement system, does not pay the fine or successfully contest the civil penalty resulting from that violation, the Secretary of State shall suspend the driving privileges of the registered owner of the vehicle under Section 6-306.5 of this Code for failing to pay any fine or penalty due and owing, or both, as a result of a combination of 5 violations of the automated speed enforcement system or the automated traffic law under Section 11-208.6 of this Code.

(h) Based on inspection of recorded images produced by an automated speed enforcement system, a notice alleging that the violation occurred shall be evidence of the facts contained in the notice and admissible in any proceeding alleging a violation under this Section.

(i) Recorded images made by an automated speed enforcement system are confidential and shall be made available only to the alleged violator and governmental and law enforcement agencies for purposes of adjudicating a violation of this Section, for statistical purposes, or for other governmental purposes. Any recorded image evidencing a violation of this Section, however, may be admissible in any proceeding resulting from the issuance of the citation.

(j) The court or hearing officer may consider in defense of a violation:

(1) that the motor vehicle or registration plates of the motor vehicle were stolen before the violation occurred and not under the control or in the possession of the owner at the time of the violation;

(2) that the driver of the motor vehicle received a Uniform Traffic Citation from a police officer for a speeding violation occurring within one-eighth of a mile and 15 minutes of the violation that was recorded by the system; and

(3) any other evidence or issues provided by municipal ordinance.

(k) To demonstrate that the motor vehicle or the registration plates were stolen before the violation occurred and were not under the control or possession of the owner at the time of the violation, the owner must submit proof that a report concerning the stolen motor vehicle or registration plates was filed with a law enforcement agency in a timely manner.

(l) A roadway equipped with an automated speed enforcement system shall be posted with a sign conforming to the national Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices that is visible to approaching traffic stating that vehicle speeds are being photo-enforced and indicating the speed limit. The municipality shall install such additional signage as it determines is necessary to give reasonable notice to drivers as to where automated speed enforcement systems are installed.

(m) A roadway where a new automated speed enforcement system is installed shall be posted with signs providing 30 days notice of the use of a new automated speed enforcement system prior to the issuance of any citations through the automated speed enforcement system.

(n) The compensation paid for an automated speed enforcement system must be based on the value of the equipment or the services provided and may not be based on the number of traffic citations issued or the revenue generated by the system.

(o) A municipality shall make a certified report to the Secretary of State pursuant to Section 6-306.5 of this Code whenever a registered owner of a vehicle has failed to pay any fine or penalty due and owing as a result of a combination of 5 offenses for automated speed or traffic law enforcement system violations.

(p) No person who is the lessor of a motor vehicle pursuant to a written lease agreement shall be liable for an automated speed or traffic law enforcement system violation involving such motor vehicle during the period of the lease; provided that upon the request of the appropriate authority received within 120 days after the violation occurred, the lessor provides within 60 days after such receipt the name and address of the lessee. The drivers license number of a lessee may be subsequently individually requested by the appropriate authority if needed for enforcement of this Section.

Upon the provision of information by the lessor pursuant to this subsection, the municipality may issue the violation to the lessee of the vehicle in the same manner as it would issue a violation to a registered owner of a vehicle pursuant to this Section, and the lessee may be held liable for the violation.

(q) A municipality using an automated speed enforcement system must provide notice to drivers by publishing the locations of all safety zones where system equipment is installed on the website of the municipality.

(r) A municipality operating an automated speed enforcement system shall conduct a statistical analysis to assess the safety impact of the system. The statistical analysis shall be based upon the best available crash, traffic, and other data, and shall cover a period of time before and after installation of the system sufficient to provide a statistically valid comparison of safety impact. The statistical analysis shall be consistent with professional judgment and acceptable industry practice. The statistical analysis also shall be consistent with the data required for valid comparisons of before and after conditions and shall be conducted within a reasonable period following the installation of the automated traffic law enforcement system. The statistical analysis required by this subsection shall be made available to the public and shall be published on the website of the municipality.

(s) This Section applies only to municipalities with a population of 1,000,000 or more inhabitants.

(Source: P.A. 97-672, eff. 7-1-12; 97-674, eff. 7-1-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.01)

Sec. 11-501.01. Additional administrative sanctions.

(a) After a finding of guilt and prior to any final sentencing or an order for supervision, for an offense based upon an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, individuals shall be required to undergo a professional evaluation to determine if an alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound abuse problem exists and the extent of the problem, and undergo the imposition of treatment as appropriate. Programs conducting these evaluations shall be licensed by the Department of Human Services. The cost of any professional evaluation shall be paid for by the individual required to undergo the professional evaluation.

(b) Any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating Section 11-501, including any person receiving a disposition of court supervision for violating that Section, may be required by the Court to attend a victim impact panel offered by, or under contract with, a county State's Attorney's office, a probation and court services department, Mothers Against Drunk Driving, or the Alliance Against Intoxicated Motorists. All costs generated by the victim impact panel shall be paid from fees collected from the offender or as may be determined by the court.

(c) Every person found guilty of violating Section 11-501, whose operation of a motor vehicle while in violation of that Section proximately caused any incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be liable for the expense of an emergency response as provided in subsection (i) of this Section.

(d) The Secretary of State shall revoke the driving privileges of any person convicted under Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(e) The Secretary of State shall require the use of ignition interlock devices on all vehicles owned by a person who has been convicted of a second or subsequent offense of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The person must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 for each month that he or she uses the device. The Secretary shall establish by rule and regulation the procedures for certification and use of the interlock system, the amount of the fee, and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(f) In addition to any other penalties and liabilities, a person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating Section 11-501, including any person placed on court supervision for violating Section 11-501, shall be assessed $750, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the money as follows: $350 to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest, and $400 shall be forwarded to the State Treasurer for deposit into the General Revenue Fund. If the person has been previously convicted of violating Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the fine shall be $1,000, and the circuit clerk shall distribute $200 to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest and $800 to the State Treasurer for deposit into the General Revenue Fund. In the event that more than one agency is responsible for the arrest, the amount payable to law enforcement agencies shall be shared equally. Any moneys received by a law enforcement agency under this subsection (f) shall be used for enforcement and prevention of driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, as defined by Section 11-501 of this Code, including but not limited to the purchase of law enforcement equipment and commodities that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State; police officer training and education in areas related to alcohol related crime, including but not limited to DUI training; and police officer salaries, including but not limited to salaries for hire back funding for safety checkpoints, saturation patrols, and liquor store sting operations. Any moneys received by the Department of State Police under this subsection (f) shall be deposited into the State Police DUI Fund and shall be used to purchase law enforcement equipment that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State.

(g) The Secretary of State Police DUI Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys received by the Secretary of State Police under subsection (f) of this Section shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Police DUI Fund and, subject to appropriation, shall be used for enforcement and prevention of driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, as defined by Section 11-501 of this Code, including but not limited to the purchase of law enforcement equipment and commodities to assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State; police officer training and education in areas related to alcohol related crime, including but not limited to DUI training; and police officer salaries, including but not limited to salaries for hire back funding for safety checkpoints, saturation patrols, and liquor store sting operations.

(h) Whenever an individual is sentenced for an offense based upon an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and the professional evaluation recommends remedial or rehabilitative treatment or education, neither the treatment nor the education shall be the sole disposition and either or both may be imposed only in conjunction with another disposition. The court shall monitor compliance with any remedial education or treatment recommendations contained in the professional evaluation. Programs conducting alcohol or other drug evaluation or remedial education must be licensed by the Department of Human Services. If the individual is not a resident of Illinois, however, the court may accept an alcohol or other drug evaluation or remedial education program in the individual's state of residence. Programs providing treatment must be licensed under existing applicable alcoholism and drug treatment licensure standards.

(i) In addition to any other fine or penalty required by law, an individual convicted of a violation of Section 11-501, Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a similar provision, whose operation of a motor vehicle, snowmobile, or watercraft while in violation of Section 11-501, Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a similar provision proximately caused an incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be required to make restitution to a public agency for the costs of that emergency response. The restitution may not exceed $1,000 per public agency for each emergency response. As used in this subsection (i), "emergency response" means any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter carried on the rolls of a regularly constituted fire department, or an ambulance. With respect to funds designated for the Department of State Police, the moneys shall be remitted by the circuit court clerk to the State Police within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police DUI Fund. With respect to funds designated for the Department of Natural Resources, the Department of Natural Resources shall deposit the moneys into the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-1342, eff. 1-1-11; 97-931, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1050, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1301.1)

Sec. 11-1301.1. Persons with disabilities - Parking privileges - Exemptions.

(a) A motor vehicle bearing registration plates issued to a person with disabilities, as defined by Section 1-159.1, pursuant to Section 3-616 or to a disabled veteran pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 3-609 or a special decal or device issued pursuant to Section 3-616 or pursuant to Section 11-1301.2 of this Code or a motor vehicle registered in another jurisdiction, state, district, territory or foreign country upon which is displayed a registration plate, special decal or device issued by the other jurisdiction designating the vehicle is operated by or for a person with disabilities shall be exempt from the payment of parking meter fees until January 1, 2014, and exempt from any statute or ordinance imposing time limitations on parking, except limitations of one-half hour or less, on any street or highway zone, a parking area subject to regulation under subsection (a) of Section 11-209 of this Code, or any parking lot or parking place which are owned, leased or owned and leased by a municipality or a municipal parking utility; and shall be recognized by state and local authorities as a valid license plate or parking device and shall receive the same parking privileges as residents of this State; but, such vehicle shall be subject to the laws which prohibit parking in "no stopping" and "no standing" zones in front of or near fire hydrants, driveways, public building entrances and exits, bus stops and loading areas, and is prohibited from parking where the motor vehicle constitutes a traffic hazard, whereby such motor vehicle shall be moved at the instruction and request of a law enforcement officer to a location designated by the officer.

(b) Any motor vehicle bearing registration plates or a special decal or device specified in this Section or in Section 3-616 of this Code or such parking device as specifically authorized in Section 11-1301.2 as evidence that the vehicle is operated by or for a person with disabilities or bearing registration plates issued to a disabled veteran under subsection (a) of Section 3-609 may park, in addition to any other lawful place, in any parking place specifically reserved for such vehicles by the posting of an official sign as provided under Section 11-301. Parking privileges granted by this Section are strictly limited to the person to whom the special registration plates, special decal or device were issued and to qualified operators acting under his or her express direction while the person with disabilities is present. A person to whom privileges were granted shall, at the request of a police officer or any other person invested by law with authority to direct, control, or regulate traffic, present an identification card with a picture as verification that the person is the person to whom the special registration plates, special decal or device was issued.

(c) Such parking privileges granted by this Section are also extended to motor vehicles of not-for-profit organizations used for the transportation of persons with disabilities when such motor vehicles display the decal or device issued pursuant to Section 11-1301.2 of this Code.

(d) No person shall use any area for the parking of any motor vehicle pursuant to Section 11-1303 of this Code or where an official sign controlling such area expressly prohibits parking at any time or during certain hours.

(e) Beginning January 1, 2014, a vehicle displaying a decal or device issued under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-1301.2 of this Code shall be exempt from the payment of fees generated by parking in a metered space or in a publicly owned parking structure or area.

(Source: P.A. 96-79, eff. 1-1-10; 97-845, eff. 1-1-13; 97-918, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.2) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1301.2)

Sec. 11-1301.2. Special decals for parking; persons with disabilities.

(a) The Secretary of State shall provide for, by administrative rules, the design, size, color, and placement of a person with disabilities motorist decal or device and shall provide for, by administrative rules, the content and form of an application for a person with disabilities motorist decal or device, which shall be used by local authorities in the issuance thereof to a person with temporary disabilities, provided that the decal or device is valid for no more than 90 days, subject to renewal for like periods based upon continued disability, and further provided that the decal or device clearly sets forth the date that the decal or device expires. The application shall include the requirement of an Illinois Identification Card number or a State of Illinois driver's license number. This decal or device may be used by the authorized holder to designate and identify a vehicle not owned or displaying a registration plate as provided in Sections 3-609 and 3-616 of this Act to designate when the vehicle is being used to transport said person or persons with disabilities, and thus is entitled to enjoy all the privileges that would be afforded a person with disabilities licensed vehicle. Person with disabilities decals or devices issued and displayed pursuant to this Section shall be recognized and honored by all local authorities regardless of which local authority issued such decal or device.

The decal or device shall be issued only upon a showing by adequate documentation that the person for whose benefit the decal or device is to be used has a temporary disability as defined in Section 1-159.1 of this Code.

(b) The local governing authorities shall be responsible for the provision of such decal or device, its issuance and designated placement within the vehicle. The cost of such decal or device shall be at the discretion of such local governing authority.

(c) The Secretary of State may, pursuant to Section 3-616(c), issue a person with disabilities parking decal or device to a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1. Any person with disabilities parking decal or device issued by the Secretary of State shall be registered to that person with disabilities in the form to be prescribed by the Secretary of State. The person with disabilities parking decal or device shall not display that person's address. One additional decal or device may be issued to an applicant upon his or her written request and with the approval of the Secretary of State. The written request must include a justification of the need for the additional decal or device.

(c-5) Beginning January 1, 2014, the Secretary shall provide by administrative rule for the issuance of a separate and distinct parking decal or device for persons with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code. The authorized holder of a decal or device issued under this subsection (c-5) shall be exempt from the payment of fees generated by parking in a metered space, a parking area subject to paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 11-209 of this Code, or a publicly owned parking structure or area.

The Secretary shall issue a meter-exempt decal or device to a person with disabilities who: (i) has been issued registration plates under Section 3-609 or 3-616 of this Code or a special decal or device under this Section, (ii) holds a valid Illinois driver's license, ; and (iii) is unable to do one or more of the following:

(1) manage, manipulate, or insert coins, or obtain tickets or tokens in parking meters or ticket machines in parking lots or parking structures, due to the lack of fine motor control of both hands;

(2) reach above his or her head to a height of 42 inches from the ground, due to a lack of finger, hand, or upper extremity strength or mobility;

(3) approach a parking meter due to his or her use of a wheelchair or other device for mobility; or

(4) walk more than 20 feet due to an orthopedic, neurological, cardiovascular, or lung condition in which the degree of debilitation is so severe that it almost completely impedes the ability to walk.

The application for a meter-exempt parking decal or device shall contain a statement certified by a licensed physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse attesting to the nature and estimated duration of the applicant's condition and verifying that the applicant meets the physical qualifications specified in this subsection (c-5).

Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (c-5), the Secretary shall issue a meter-exempt decal or device to a person who has been issued registration plates under Section 3-616 of this Code or a special decal or device under this Section, if the applicant is the parent or guardian of a person with disabilities who is under 18 years of age and incapable of driving.

(d) Replacement decals or devices may be issued for lost, stolen, or destroyed decals upon application and payment of a $10 fee. The replacement fee may be waived for individuals that have claimed and received a grant under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-72, eff. 1-1-10; 96-79, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-845, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-3-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.3) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1301.3)

Sec. 11-1301.3. Unauthorized use of parking places reserved for persons with disabilities.

(a) It shall be prohibited to park any motor vehicle which is not properly displaying registration plates or decals issued to a person with disabilities, as defined by Section 1-159.1, pursuant to Sections 3-616, 11-1301.1 or 11-1301.2, or to a disabled veteran pursuant to Section 3-609 of this Act, as evidence that the vehicle is operated by or for a person with disabilities or disabled veteran, in any parking place, including any private or public offstreet parking facility, specifically reserved, by the posting of an official sign as designated under Section 11-301, for motor vehicles displaying such registration plates. It shall be prohibited to park any motor vehicle in a designated access aisle adjacent to any parking place specifically reserved for persons with disabilities, by the posting of an official sign as designated under Section 11-301, for motor vehicles displaying such registration plates. When using the parking privileges for persons with disabilities, the parking decal or device must be displayed properly in the vehicle where it is clearly visible to law enforcement personnel, either hanging from the rearview mirror or placed on the dashboard of the vehicle in clear view. Disability license plates and parking decals and devices are not transferable from person to person. Proper usage of the disability license plate or parking decal or device requires the authorized holder to be present and enter or exit the vehicle at the time the parking privileges are being used. It is a violation of this Section to park in a space reserved for a person with disabilities if the authorized holder of the disability license plate or parking decal or device does not enter or exit the vehicle at the time the parking privileges are being used. Any motor vehicle properly displaying a disability license plate or a parking decal or device containing the International symbol of access issued to persons with disabilities by any local authority, state, district, territory or foreign country shall be recognized by State and local authorities as a valid license plate or device and receive the same parking privileges as residents of this State.

(a-1) An individual with a vehicle displaying disability license plates or a parking decal or device issued to a qualified person with a disability under Sections 3-616, 11-1301.1, or 11-1301.2 or to a disabled veteran under Section 3-609 is in violation of this Section if (i) the person using the disability license plate or parking decal or device is not the authorized holder of the disability license plate or parking decal or device or is not transporting the authorized holder of the disability license plate or parking decal or device to or from the parking location and (ii) the person uses the disability license plate or parking decal or device to exercise any privileges granted through the disability license plate or parking decals or devices under this Code.

(a-2) A driver of a vehicle displaying disability license plates or a parking decal or device issued to a qualified person with a disability under Section 3-616, 11-1301.1, or 11-1301.2 or to a disabled veteran under Section 3-609 is in violation of this Section if (i) the person to whom the disability license plate or parking decal or device was issued is deceased and (ii) the driver uses the disability license plate or parking decal or device to exercise any privileges granted through a disability license plate or parking decal or device under this Code.

(b) Any person or local authority owning or operating any public or private offstreet parking facility may, after notifying the police or sheriff's department, remove or cause to be removed to the nearest garage or other place of safety any vehicle parked within a stall or space reserved for use by a person with disabilities which does not display person with disabilities registration plates or a special decal or device as required under this Section.

(c) Any person found guilty of violating the provisions of subsection (a) shall be fined $250 in addition to any costs or charges connected with the removal or storage of any motor vehicle authorized under this Section; but municipalities by ordinance may impose a fine up to $350 and shall display signs indicating the fine imposed. If the amount of the fine is subsequently changed, the municipality shall change the sign to indicate the current amount of the fine. It shall not be a defense to a charge under this Section that either the sign posted pursuant to this Section or the intended accessible parking place does not comply with the technical requirements of Section 11-301, Department regulations, or local ordinance if a reasonable person would be made aware by the sign or notice on or near the parking place that the place is reserved for a person with disabilities.

(c-1) Any person found guilty of violating the provisions of subsection (a-1) a first time shall be fined $600. Any person found guilty of violating subsection (a-1) a second or subsequent time shall be fined $1,000. Any person who violates subsection (a-2) is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and shall be fined $2,500. The circuit clerk shall distribute 50% of the fine imposed on any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating this Section, including any person placed on court supervision for violating this Section, to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation or made the arrest. If more than one law enforcement agency is responsible for issuing the citation or making the arrest, the 50% of the fine imposed shall be shared equally. If an officer of the Secretary of State Department of Police arrested a person for a violation of this Section, 50% of the fine imposed shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Police Services Fund.

(d) Local authorities shall impose fines as established in subsections (c) and (c-1) for violations of this Section.

(e) As used in this Section, "authorized holder" means an individual issued a disability license plate under Section 3-616 of this Code, an individual issued a parking decal or device under Section 11-1301.2 of this Code, or an individual issued a disabled veteran's license plate under Section 3-609 of this Code.

(f) Any person who commits a violation of subsection (a-1) or a similar provision of a local ordinance may have his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked by the Secretary of State for a period of time determined by the Secretary of State. Any person who commits a violation of subsection (a-2) or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall have his or her driving privileges revoked by the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may also suspend or revoke the disability license plates or parking decal or device for a period of time determined by the Secretary of State.

(g) Any police officer may seize the parking decal or device from any person who commits a violation of this Section. Any police officer may seize the disability license plate upon authorization from the Secretary of State. Any police officer may request that the Secretary of State revoke the parking decal or device or the disability license plate of any person who commits a violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-72, eff. 1-1-10; 96-79, eff. 1-1-10; 96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-844, eff. 1-1-13; 97-845, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-3-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.5)

Sec. 11-1301.5. Fictitious or unlawfully altered disability license plate or parking decal or device.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Fictitious disability license plate or parking decal or device" means any issued disability license plate or parking decal or device, or any license plate issued to a disabled veteran under Section 3-609 of this Code, that has been issued by the Secretary of State or an authorized unit of local government that was issued based upon false information contained on the required application.

"False information" means any incorrect or inaccurate information concerning the name, date of birth, social security number, driver's license number, physician certification, or any other information required on the Persons with Disabilities Certification for Plate or Parking Placard, on the Application for Replacement Disability Parking Placard, or on the application for license plates issued to disabled veterans under Section 3-609 of this Code, that falsifies the content of the application.

"Unlawfully altered disability license plate or parking permit or device" means any disability license plate or parking permit or device, or any license plate issued to a disabled veteran under Section 3-609 of this Code, issued by the Secretary of State or an authorized unit of local government that has been physically altered or changed in such manner that false information appears on the license plate or parking decal or device.

"Authorized holder" means an individual issued a disability license plate under Section 3-616 of this Code or an individual issued a parking decal or device under Section 11-1301.2 of this Code, or an individual issued a disabled veteran's license plate under Section 3-609 of this Code.

(b) It is a violation of this Section for any person:

(1) to knowingly possess any fictitious or unlawfully altered disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(2) to knowingly issue or assist in the issuance of, by the Secretary of State or unit of local government, any fictitious disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(3) to knowingly alter any disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(4) to knowingly manufacture, possess, transfer, or provide any documentation used in the application process whether real or fictitious, for the purpose of obtaining a fictitious disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(5) to knowingly provide any false information to the Secretary of State or a unit of local government in order to obtain a disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(6) to knowingly transfer a disability license plate or parking decal or device for the purpose of exercising the privileges granted to an authorized holder of a disability license plate or parking decal or device under this Code in the absence of the authorized holder; or

(7) who is for a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse to knowingly falsify a certification that a person is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code.

(c) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of a violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (b) of this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and fined not less than $1,000 for a first offense and shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and fined not less than $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense. Any person convicted of a violation of subdivision (b)(6) of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $1,000 for a first offense and not less than $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense. The circuit clerk shall distribute one-half of any fine imposed on any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating this Section, including any person placed on court supervision for violating this Section, to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation or made the arrest. If more than one law enforcement agency is responsible for issuing the citation or making the arrest, one-half of the fine imposed shall be shared equally.

(2) Any person who commits a violation of this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance may have his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked by the Secretary of State for a period of time determined by the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may suspend or revoke the parking decal or device or the disability license plate of any person who commits a violation of this Section.

(3) Any police officer may seize the parking decal or device from any person who commits a violation of this Section. Any police officer may seize the disability license plate upon authorization from the Secretary of State. Any police officer may request that the Secretary of State revoke the parking decal or device or the disability license plate of any person who commits a violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-79, eff. 1-1-10; 97-844, eff. 1-1-13; 97-845, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-3-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1302) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1302)

Sec. 11-1302. Officers authorized to remove vehicles.

(a) Whenever any police officer finds a vehicle in violation of any of the provisions of Section 11-1301 such officer is hereby authorized to move such vehicle, or require the driver or other person in charge of the vehicle to move the same, to a position off the roadway.

(b) Any police officer is hereby authorized to remove or cause to be removed to a place of safety any unattended vehicle illegally left standing upon any highway, bridge, causeway, or in a tunnel, in such a position or under such circumstances as to obstruct the normal movement of traffic.

Whenever the Department finds an abandoned or disabled vehicle standing upon the paved or main-traveled part of a highway, which vehicle is or may be expected to interrupt the free flow of traffic on the highway or interfere with the maintenance of the highway, the Department is authorized to move the vehicle to a position off the paved or improved or main-traveled part of the highway.

(c) Any police officer is hereby authorized to remove or cause to be removed to the nearest garage or other place of safety any vehicle found upon a highway when:

1. report has been made that such vehicle has been stolen or taken without the consent of its owner, or

2. the person or persons in charge of such vehicle are unable to provide for its custody or removal, or

3. When the person driving or in control of such vehicle is arrested for an alleged offense for which the officer is required by law to take the person arrested before a proper magistrate without unnecessary delay, or

4. When the registration of the vehicle has been suspended, cancelled, or revoked.

(Source: P.A. 97-743, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-3-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-610.1)

Sec. 12-610.1. Wireless telephones.

(a) As used in this Section, "wireless telephone" means a device that is capable of transmitting or receiving telephonic communications without a wire connecting the device to the telephone network.

(b) A person under the age of 19 years who holds an instruction permit issued under Section 6-105 or 6-107.1, or a person under the age of 19 years who holds a graduated license issued under Section 6-107, may not drive a vehicle on a roadway while using a wireless phone.

(c) This Section does not apply to a person under the age of 19 years using a wireless telephone for emergency purposes, including, but not limited to, an emergency call to a law enforcement agency, health care provider, fire department, or other emergency services agency or entity.

(d) If a graduated driver's license holder over the age of 18 committed an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of this Code in the 6 months prior to the graduated driver's license holder's 18th birthday, and was subsequently convicted of the violation, the provisions of paragraph (b) shall continue to apply until such time as a period of 6 consecutive months has elapsed without an additional violation and subsequent conviction of an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of this Code.

(e) A person, regardless of age, may not use a wireless telephone at any time while operating a motor vehicle on a roadway in a school speed zone established under Section 11-605, on a highway in a construction or maintenance speed zone established under Section 11-605.1, or within 500 feet of an emergency scene. As used in this Section, "emergency scene" means a location where an authorized emergency vehicle as defined by Section 1-105 of this Code is present and has activated its oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights. This subsection (e) does not apply to (i) a person engaged in a highway construction or maintenance project for which a construction or maintenance speed zone has been established under Section 11-605.1, (ii) a person using a wireless telephone for emergency purposes, including, but not limited to, law enforcement agency, health care provider, fire department, or other emergency services agency or entity, (iii) a law enforcement officer or operator of an emergency vehicle when performing the officer's or operator's official duties, (iv) a person using a wireless telephone in voice-operated mode, which may include the use of a headset, or (v) to a person using a wireless telephone by pressing a single button to initiate or terminate a voice communication., or (vi) (v) a person using an electronic communication device for the sole purpose of reporting an emergency situation and continued communication with emergency personnel during the emergency situation.

(Source: P.A. 96-131, eff. 1-1-10; 97-828, eff. 7-20-12; 97-830, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 445. The Judicial Privacy Act is amended by changing Section 4-99 as follows:

(705 ILCS 90/4-99)

Sec. 4-99. Effective date. This Act and this Section take takes effect 60 days after becoming law, except that Sections 4-18 and 4-20 take effect January 1, 2013.

(Source: P.A. 97-847, eff. 9-22-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 450. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 4-8, 14-3, 24-2, 33G-4, 33G-5, 33G-7, and 36.5-5 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/4-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 4-8)

Sec. 4-8. Ignorance or mistake.

(a) A person's ignorance or mistake as to a matter of either fact or law, except as provided in Section 4-3(c) above, is a defense if it negatives the existence of the mental state which the statute prescribes with respect to an element of the offense.

(b) A person's reasonable belief that his conduct does not constitute an offense is a defense if:

(1) the The offense is defined by an administrative regulation or order which is not known to him and has not been published or otherwise made reasonably available to him, and he could not have acquired such knowledge by the exercise of due diligence pursuant to facts known to him; or

(2) he He acts in reliance upon a statute which later is determined to be invalid; or

(3) he He acts in reliance upon an order or opinion of an Illinois Appellate or Supreme Court, or a United States appellate court later overruled or reversed; or

(4) he He acts in reliance upon an official interpretation of the statute, regulation or order defining the offense, made by a public officer or agency legally authorized to interpret such statute.

(c) Although a person's ignorance or mistake of fact or law, or reasonable belief, described in this Section 4-8 is a defense to the offense charged, he may be convicted of an included offense of which he would be guilty if the fact or law were as he believed it to be.

(d) A defense based upon this Section 4-8 is an affirmative defense.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983; revised 8-3-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/14-3)

Sec. 14-3. Exemptions. The following activities shall be exempt from the provisions of this Article:

(a) Listening to radio, wireless and television communications of any sort where the same are publicly made;

(b) Hearing conversation when heard by employees of any common carrier by wire incidental to the normal course of their employment in the operation, maintenance or repair of the equipment of such common carrier by wire so long as no information obtained thereby is used or divulged by the hearer;

(c) Any broadcast by radio, television or otherwise whether it be a broadcast or recorded for the purpose of later broadcasts of any function where the public is in attendance and the conversations are overheard incidental to the main purpose for which such broadcasts are then being made;

(d) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to any emergency communication made in the normal course of operations by any federal, state or local law enforcement agency or institutions dealing in emergency services, including, but not limited to, hospitals, clinics, ambulance services, fire fighting agencies, any public utility, emergency repair facility, civilian defense establishment or military installation;

(e) Recording the proceedings of any meeting required to be open by the Open Meetings Act, as amended;

(f) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to incoming telephone calls of phone lines publicly listed or advertised as consumer "hotlines" by manufacturers or retailers of food and drug products. Such recordings must be destroyed, erased or turned over to local law enforcement authorities within 24 hours from the time of such recording and shall not be otherwise disseminated. Failure on the part of the individual or business operating any such recording or listening device to comply with the requirements of this subsection shall eliminate any civil or criminal immunity conferred upon that individual or business by the operation of this Section;

(g) With prior notification to the State's Attorney of the county in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the aid of any device to any conversation where a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, is a party to the conversation and has consented to it being intercepted or recorded under circumstances where the use of the device is necessary for the protection of the law enforcement officer or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, in the course of an investigation of a forcible felony, a felony offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons under Section 10-9 of this Code, an offense involving prostitution, solicitation of a sexual act, or pandering, a felony violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, a felony violation of the Cannabis Control Act, a felony violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, any "streetgang related" or "gang-related" felony as those terms are defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act, or any felony offense involving any weapon listed in paragraphs (1) through (11) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of this Code. Any recording or evidence derived as the result of this exemption shall be inadmissible in any proceeding, criminal, civil or administrative, except (i) where a party to the conversation suffers great bodily injury or is killed during such conversation, or (ii) when used as direct impeachment of a witness concerning matters contained in the interception or recording. The Director of the Department of State Police shall issue regulations as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of tape recordings, and reports regarding their use;

(g-5) With approval of the State's Attorney of the county in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the aid of any device to any conversation where a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, is a party to the conversation and has consented to it being intercepted or recorded in the course of an investigation of any offense defined in Article 29D of this Code. In all such cases, an application for an order approving the previous or continuing use of an eavesdropping device must be made within 48 hours of the commencement of such use. In the absence of such an order, or upon its denial, any continuing use shall immediately terminate. The Director of State Police shall issue rules as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of tape recordings, and reports regarding their use.

Any recording or evidence obtained or derived in the course of an investigation of any offense defined in Article 29D of this Code shall, upon motion of the State's Attorney or Attorney General prosecuting any violation of Article 29D, be reviewed in camera with notice to all parties present by the court presiding over the criminal case, and, if ruled by the court to be relevant and otherwise admissible, it shall be admissible at the trial of the criminal case.

This subsection (g-5) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2005. No conversations recorded or monitored pursuant to this subsection (g-5) shall be inadmissible in a court of law by virtue of the repeal of this subsection (g-5) on January 1, 2005;

(g-6) With approval of the State's Attorney of the county in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the aid of any device to any conversation where a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, is a party to the conversation and has consented to it being intercepted or recorded in the course of an investigation of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, trafficking in persons, child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, child abduction, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation of a child, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, criminal sexual abuse by force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, or aggravated criminal sexual assault in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age. In all such cases, an application for an order approving the previous or continuing use of an eavesdropping device must be made within 48 hours of the commencement of such use. In the absence of such an order, or upon its denial, any continuing use shall immediately terminate. The Director of State Police shall issue rules as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of recordings, and reports regarding their use. Any recording or evidence obtained or derived in the course of an investigation of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, trafficking in persons, child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, child abduction, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation of a child, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, criminal sexual abuse by force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, or aggravated criminal sexual assault in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age shall, upon motion of the State's Attorney or Attorney General prosecuting any case involving involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, trafficking in persons, child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, child abduction, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation of a child, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, criminal sexual abuse by force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, or aggravated criminal sexual assault in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, be reviewed in camera with notice to all parties present by the court presiding over the criminal case, and, if ruled by the court to be relevant and otherwise admissible, it shall be admissible at the trial of the criminal case. Absent such a ruling, any such recording or evidence shall not be admissible at the trial of the criminal case;

(h) Recordings made simultaneously with the use of an in-car video camera recording of an oral conversation between a uniformed peace officer, who has identified his or her office, and a person in the presence of the peace officer whenever (i) an officer assigned a patrol vehicle is conducting an enforcement stop; or (ii) patrol vehicle emergency lights are activated or would otherwise be activated if not for the need to conceal the presence of law enforcement.

For the purposes of this subsection (h), "enforcement stop" means an action by a law enforcement officer in relation to enforcement and investigation duties, including but not limited to, traffic stops, pedestrian stops, abandoned vehicle contacts, motorist assists, commercial motor vehicle stops, roadside safety checks, requests for identification, or responses to requests for emergency assistance;

(h-5) Recordings of utterances made by a person while in the presence of a uniformed peace officer and while an occupant of a police vehicle including, but not limited to, (i) recordings made simultaneously with the use of an in-car video camera and (ii) recordings made in the presence of the peace officer utilizing video or audio systems, or both, authorized by the law enforcement agency;

(h-10) Recordings made simultaneously with a video camera recording during the use of a taser or similar weapon or device by a peace officer if the weapon or device is equipped with such camera;

(h-15) Recordings made under subsection (h), (h-5), or (h-10) shall be retained by the law enforcement agency that employs the peace officer who made the recordings for a storage period of 90 days, unless the recordings are made as a part of an arrest or the recordings are deemed evidence in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding and then the recordings must only be destroyed upon a final disposition and an order from the court. Under no circumstances shall any recording be altered or erased prior to the expiration of the designated storage period. Upon completion of the storage period, the recording medium may be erased and reissued for operational use;

(i) Recording of a conversation made by or at the request of a person, not a law enforcement officer or agent of a law enforcement officer, who is a party to the conversation, under reasonable suspicion that another party to the conversation is committing, is about to commit, or has committed a criminal offense against the person or a member of his or her immediate household, and there is reason to believe that evidence of the criminal offense may be obtained by the recording;

(j) The use of a telephone monitoring device by either (1) a corporation or other business entity engaged in marketing or opinion research or (2) a corporation or other business entity engaged in telephone solicitation, as defined in this subsection, to record or listen to oral telephone solicitation conversations or marketing or opinion research conversations by an employee of the corporation or other business entity when:

(i) the monitoring is used for the purpose of service quality control of marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, the education or training of employees or contractors engaged in marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, or internal research related to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation; and

(ii) the monitoring is used with the consent of at least one person who is an active party to the marketing or opinion research conversation or telephone solicitation conversation being monitored.

No communication or conversation or any part, portion, or aspect of the communication or conversation made, acquired, or obtained, directly or indirectly, under this exemption (j), may be, directly or indirectly, furnished to any law enforcement officer, agency, or official for any purpose or used in any inquiry or investigation, or used, directly or indirectly, in any administrative, judicial, or other proceeding, or divulged to any third party.

When recording or listening authorized by this subsection (j) on telephone lines used for marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation purposes results in recording or listening to a conversation that does not relate to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation; the person recording or listening shall, immediately upon determining that the conversation does not relate to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, terminate the recording or listening and destroy any such recording as soon as is practicable.

Business entities that use a telephone monitoring or telephone recording system pursuant to this exemption (j) shall provide current and prospective employees with notice that the monitoring or recordings may occur during the course of their employment. The notice shall include prominent signage notification within the workplace.

Business entities that use a telephone monitoring or telephone recording system pursuant to this exemption (j) shall provide their employees or agents with access to personal-only telephone lines which may be pay telephones, that are not subject to telephone monitoring or telephone recording.

For the purposes of this subsection (j), "telephone solicitation" means a communication through the use of a telephone by live operators:

(i) soliciting the sale of goods or services;

(ii) receiving orders for the sale of goods or services;

(iii) assisting in the use of goods or services; or

(iv) engaging in the solicitation, administration, or collection of bank or retail credit accounts.

For the purposes of this subsection (j), "marketing or opinion research" means a marketing or opinion research interview conducted by a live telephone interviewer engaged by a corporation or other business entity whose principal business is the design, conduct, and analysis of polls and surveys measuring the opinions, attitudes, and responses of respondents toward products and services, or social or political issues, or both;

(k) Electronic recordings, including but not limited to, a motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio recording, made of a custodial interrogation of an individual at a police station or other place of detention by a law enforcement officer under Section 5-401.5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or Section 103-2.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(l) Recording the interview or statement of any person when the person knows that the interview is being conducted by a law enforcement officer or prosecutor and the interview takes place at a police station that is currently participating in the Custodial Interview Pilot Program established under the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act;

(m) An electronic recording, including but not limited to, a motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio recording, made of the interior of a school bus while the school bus is being used in the transportation of students to and from school and school-sponsored activities, when the school board has adopted a policy authorizing such recording, notice of such recording policy is included in student handbooks and other documents including the policies of the school, notice of the policy regarding recording is provided to parents of students, and notice of such recording is clearly posted on the door of and inside the school bus.

Recordings made pursuant to this subsection (m) shall be confidential records and may only be used by school officials (or their designees) and law enforcement personnel for investigations, school disciplinary actions and hearings, proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and criminal prosecutions, related to incidents occurring in or around the school bus;

(n) Recording or listening to an audio transmission from a microphone placed by a person under the authority of a law enforcement agency inside a bait car surveillance vehicle while simultaneously capturing a photographic or video image;

(o) The use of an eavesdropping camera or audio device during an ongoing hostage or barricade situation by a law enforcement officer or individual acting on behalf of a law enforcement officer when the use of such device is necessary to protect the safety of the general public, hostages, or law enforcement officers or anyone acting on their behalf;

(p) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to incoming telephone calls of phone lines publicly listed or advertised as the "CPS Violence Prevention Hotline", but only where the notice of recording is given at the beginning of each call as required by Section 34-21.8 of the School Code. The recordings may be retained only by the Chicago Police Department or other law enforcement authorities, and shall not be otherwise retained or disseminated; and

(q)(1) With prior request to and verbal approval of the State's Attorney of the county in which the conversation is anticipated to occur, recording or listening with the aid of an eavesdropping device to a conversation in which a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of a law enforcement officer, is a party to the conversation and has consented to the conversation being intercepted or recorded in the course of an investigation of a drug offense. The State's Attorney may grant this verbal approval only after determining that reasonable cause exists to believe that a drug offense will be committed by a specified individual or individuals within a designated period of time.

(2) Request for approval. To invoke the exception contained in this subsection (q), a law enforcement officer shall make a written or verbal request for approval to the appropriate State's Attorney. This request for approval shall include whatever information is deemed necessary by the State's Attorney but shall include, at a minimum, the following information about each specified individual whom the law enforcement officer believes will commit a drug offense:

(A) his or her full or partial name, nickname or alias;

(B) a physical description; or

(C) failing either (A) or (B) of this paragraph (2), any other supporting information known to the law enforcement officer at the time of the request that gives rise to reasonable cause to believe the individual will commit a drug offense.

(3) Limitations on verbal approval. Each verbal approval by the State's Attorney under this subsection (q) shall be limited to:

(A) a recording or interception conducted by a specified law enforcement officer or person acting at the direction of a law enforcement officer;

(B) recording or intercepting conversations with the individuals specified in the request for approval, provided that the verbal approval shall be deemed to include the recording or intercepting of conversations with other individuals, unknown to the law enforcement officer at the time of the request for approval, who are acting in conjunction with or as co-conspirators with the individuals specified in the request for approval in the commission of a drug offense;

(C) a reasonable period of time but in no event longer than 24 consecutive hours.

(4) Admissibility of evidence. No part of the contents of any wire, electronic, or oral communication that has been recorded or intercepted as a result of this exception may be received in evidence in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding in or before any court, grand jury, department, officer, agency, regulatory body, legislative committee, or other authority of this State, or a political subdivision of the State, other than in a prosecution of:

(A) a drug offense;

(B) a forcible felony committed directly in the course of the investigation of a drug offense for which verbal approval was given to record or intercept a conversation under this subsection (q); or

(C) any other forcible felony committed while the recording or interception was approved in accordance with this Section (q), but for this specific category of prosecutions, only if the law enforcement officer or person acting at the direction of a law enforcement officer who has consented to the conversation being intercepted or recorded suffers great bodily injury or is killed during the commission of the charged forcible felony.

(5) Compliance with the provisions of this subsection is a prerequisite to the admissibility in evidence of any part of the contents of any wire, electronic or oral communication that has been intercepted as a result of this exception, but nothing in this subsection shall be deemed to prevent a court from otherwise excluding the evidence on any other ground, nor shall anything in this subsection be deemed to prevent a court from independently reviewing the admissibility of the evidence for compliance with the Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution or with Article I, Section 6 of the Illinois Constitution.

(6) Use of recordings or intercepts unrelated to drug offenses. Whenever any wire, electronic, or oral communication has been recorded or intercepted as a result of this exception that is not related to a drug offense or a forcible felony committed in the course of a drug offense, no part of the contents of the communication and evidence derived from the communication may be received in evidence in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding in or before any court, grand jury, department, officer, agency, regulatory body, legislative committee, or other authority of this State, or a political subdivision of the State, nor may it be publicly disclosed in any way.

(7) Definitions. For the purposes of this subsection (q) only:

"Drug offense" includes and is limited to a felony violation of one of the following: (A) the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, (B) the Cannabis Control Act, and (C) the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

"Forcible felony" includes and is limited to those offenses contained in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, and only as those offenses have been defined by law or judicial interpretation as of that date.

"State's Attorney" includes and is limited to the State's Attorney or an assistant State's Attorney designated by the State's Attorney to provide verbal approval to record or intercept conversations under this subsection (q).

(8) Sunset. This subsection (q) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2015. No conversations intercepted pursuant to this subsection (q), while operative, shall be inadmissible in a court of law by virtue of the inoperability of this subsection (q) on January 1, 2015.

(Source: P.A. 96-425, eff. 8-13-09; 96-547, eff. 1-1-10; 96-643, eff. 1-1-10; 96-670, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1425, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-846, eff. 1-1-13; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.

(a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and 24-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense, while in the performance of their official duty, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment.

(5) Persons licensed as private security contractors, private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or employed by an agency certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment, provided that such commuting is accomplished within one hour from departure from home or place of employment, as the case may be. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of a licensed agency and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of the licensed agency at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon.

(6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or industrial operation as a security guard for the protection of persons employed and private property related to such commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force of at least 5 persons registered with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation; provided that such security guard has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training that includes the theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon.

(7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of any investigation for the Commission.

(8) Persons employed by a financial institution for the protection of other employees and property related to such financial institution, while actually engaged in the performance of their duties, commuting between their homes and places of employment, or traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by such financial institution, provided that any person so employed has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training which includes theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. Such firearm control card shall be carried by the person so trained at all times when such person is in possession of a concealable weapon. For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution" means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union or company providing armored car services.

(9) Any person employed by an armored car company to drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the performance of his duties.

(10) Persons who have been classified as peace officers pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.

(11) Investigators of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(12) Special investigators appointed by a State's Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.

(12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of their duties, or while commuting between their homes, places of employment or specific locations that are part of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge of the circuit for which they are employed.

(13) Court Security Officers while in the performance of their official duties, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment, with the consent of the Sheriff.

(13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

(14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.

(b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, and patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are using their firearms on those target ranges.

(2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations while parading, with the special permission of the Governor.

(3) Hunters, trappers or fishermen with a license or permit while engaged in hunting, trapping or fishing.

(4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission.

(c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers while in performance of their official duties.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, or ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this paragraph.

During transportation, such weapons shall be broken down in a non-functioning state or not immediately accessible.

(6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery, transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when such activities are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6) shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the scope of his employment, where such activities involving such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

During transportation, any such weapon shall be broken down in a non-functioning state, or not immediately accessible.

(7) A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or barrels less than 16 inches in length if: (A) the person has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or (B) the person is an active member of a bona fide, nationally recognized military re-enacting group and the modification is required and necessary to accurately portray the weapon for historical re-enactment purposes; the re-enactor is in possession of a valid and current re-enacting group membership credential; and the overall length of the weapon as modified is not less than 26 inches.

During transportation, any such weapon shall be broken down in a non-functioning state, or not immediately accessible.

(d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase, possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace officer.

(e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner, manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.

(f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.

(g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply to:

(1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military ordinance.

(3) Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics, or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordinance.

(4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed by the federal government, in connection with the supply of those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons outside this State, or the transportation of explosive bullets to any organization or person exempted in this Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased by an exempted manufacturer.

(g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices, firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this subsection (g-5). During transportation, these devices shall be detached from any weapon or not immediately accessible.

(g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(g-7) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose duties include the investigation of criminal acts.

(g-10) Subsections 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), and 24-1(a)(10), and Sections 24-1.6 and 24-3.1 do not apply to an athlete's possession, transport on official Olympic and Paralympic transit systems established for athletes, or use of competition firearms sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in connection with such athlete's training for and participation in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games.

(h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.

(i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned to a common carrier operating under license of the State of Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-230, eff. 1-1-10; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-465, eff. 8-22-11; 97-676, eff. 6-1-12; 97-936, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1010, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-4)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 11, 2017)

Sec. 33G-4. Prohibited activities.

(a) It is unlawful for any person, who intentionally participates in the operation or management of an enterprise, directly or indirectly, to:

(1) knowingly do so, directly or indirectly, through a pattern of predicate activity;

(2) knowingly cause another to violate this Article; or

(3) knowingly conspire to violate this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in any prosecution for a conspiracy to violate this Article, no person may be convicted of that conspiracy unless an overt act in furtherance of the agreement is alleged and proved to have been committed by him, her, or by a coconspirator, but the commission of the overt act need not itself constitute predicate activity underlying the specific violation of this Article.

(b) It is unlawful for any person knowingly to acquire or maintain, directly or indirectly, through a pattern of predicate activity any interest in, or control of, to any degree, of any enterprise, real property, or personal property of any character, including money.

(c) Nothing in this Article shall be construed as to make unlawful any activity which is arguably protected or prohibited by the National Labor Relations Act, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, or the Railway Labor Act.

(d) The following organizations, and any officer or agent of those organizations acting in his or her official capacity as an officer or agent, may not be sued in civil actions under this Article:

(1) a labor organization; or

(2) any business defined in Division D, E, F, G, H, or I of the Standard Industrial Classification as established by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor.

(e) Any person prosecuted under this Article may be convicted and sentenced either:

(1) for the offense of conspiring to violate this Article, and for any other particular offense or offenses that may be one of the objects of a conspiracy to violate this Article; or

(2) for the offense of violating this Article, and for any other particular offense or offenses that may constitute predicate activity underlying a violation of this Article.

(f) The State's Attorney, or a person designated by law to act for him or her and to perform his or her duties during his or her absence or disability, may authorize a criminal prosecution under this Article. Prior to any State's Attorney authorizing a criminal prosecution under this Article, the State's Attorney shall adopt rules and procedures governing the investigation and prosecution of any offense enumerated in this Article. These rules and procedures shall set forth guidelines which require that any potential prosecution under this Article be subject to an internal approval process in which it is determined, in a written prosecution memorandum prepared by the State's Attorney's Office, that (1) a prosecution under this Article is necessary to ensure that the indictment adequately reflects the nature and extent of the criminal conduct involved in a way that prosecution only on the underlying predicate activity would not, and (2) a prosecution under this Article would provide the basis for an appropriate sentence under all the circumstances of the case in a way that a prosecution only on the underlying predicate activity would not. No State's Attorney, or person designated by law to act for him or her and to perform his or her duties during his or her absence or disability, may authorize a criminal prosecution under this Article prior to reviewing the prepared written prosecution memorandum. However, any internal memorandum shall remain protected from disclosure under the attorney-client privilege, and this provision does not create any enforceable right on behalf of any defendant or party, nor does it subject the exercise of prosecutorial discretion to judicial review.

(g) A labor organization and any officer or agent of that organization acting in his or her capacity as an officer or agent of the labor organization are exempt from prosecution under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 11, 2017)

Sec. 33G-5. Penalties. Under this Article, notwithstanding any other provision of law:

(a) Any violation of subsection (a) of Section 33G-4 of this Article shall be sentenced as a Class X felony with a term of imprisonment of not less than 7 years and not more than 30 years, or the sentence applicable to the underlying predicate activity, whichever is higher, and the sentence imposed shall also include restitution, and/or and or a criminal fine, jointly and severally, up to $250,000 or twice the gross amount of any intended proceeds of the violation, if any, whichever is higher.

(b) Any violation of subsection (b) of Section 33G-4 of this Article shall be sentenced as a Class X felony, and the sentence imposed shall also include restitution, and/or and or a criminal fine, jointly and severally, up to $250,000 or twice the gross amount of any intended proceeds of the violation, if any, whichever is higher.

(c) Wherever the unlawful death of any person or persons results as a necessary or natural consequence of any violation of this Article, the sentence imposed on the defendant shall include an enhanced term of imprisonment of at least 25 years up to natural life, in addition to any other penalty imposed by the court, provided:

(1) the death or deaths were reasonably foreseeable to the defendant to be sentenced; and

(2) the death or deaths occurred when the defendant was otherwise engaged in the violation of this Article as a whole.

(d) A sentence of probation, periodic imprisonment, conditional discharge, impact incarceration or county impact incarceration, court supervision, withheld adjudication, or any pretrial diversionary sentence or suspended sentence, is not authorized for a violation of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-7)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 11, 2017)

Sec. 33G-7. Construction. In interpreting the provisions of this Article, the court shall construe them in light of the applicable model jury instructions set forth in the Federal Criminal Jury Instructions for the Seventh Circuit (1999) for Title IX of Public Law, 91-452, 84 Stat. 922 (as amended in Title 18, United States Code, Sections 1961 through 1968), except to the extent that they are it is inconsistent with the plain language of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/36.5-5)

Sec. 36.5-5. Vehicle impoundment.

(a) In addition to any other penalty provided by law, a peace officer who arrests a person for a violation of Section 10-9, 11-14 10-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-18, or 11-18.1 of this Code, may tow and impound any vehicle used by the person in the commission of the offense. The person arrested for one or more such violations shall be charged a $1,000 fee, to be paid to the unit of government that made the arrest. The person may recover the vehicle from the impound after a minimum of 2 hours after arrest upon payment of the fee.

(b) $500 of the fee shall be distributed to the unit of government whose peace officers made the arrest, for the costs incurred by the unit of government to tow and impound the vehicle. Upon the defendant's conviction of one or more of the offenses in connection with which the vehicle was impounded and the fee imposed under this Section, the remaining $500 of the fee shall be deposited into the DHS State Projects Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund and shall be used by the Department of Human Services to make grants to non-governmental organizations to provide services for persons encountered during the course of an investigation into any violation of Section 10-9, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, or 11-19.2 of this Code, provided such persons constitute prostituted persons or other victims of human trafficking.

(c) Upon the presentation by the defendant of a signed court order showing that the defendant has been acquitted of all of the offenses in connection with which a vehicle was impounded and a fee imposed under this Section, or that the charges against the defendant for those offenses have been dismissed, the unit of government shall refund the $1,000 fee to the defendant.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 96-1503, eff. 1-27-11, and 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-14-11.)

Section 455. The Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act is amended by changing Sections 55, 60, and 65 as follows:

(725 ILCS 207/55)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1098)

Sec. 55. Periodic reexamination; report.

(a) If a person has been committed under Section 40 of this Act and has not been discharged under Section 65 of this Act, the Department shall submit a written report to the court on his or her mental condition at least once every 12 months after an initial commitment under Section 40 for the purpose of determining whether: (1) the person has made sufficient progress in treatment to be conditionally released and (2) whether the person's condition has so changed since the most recent periodic reexamination (or initial commitment, if there has not yet been a periodic reexamination) that he or she is no longer a sexually violent person. At the time of a reexamination under this Section, the person who has been committed may retain or, if he or she is indigent and so requests, the court may appoint a qualified expert or a professional person to examine him or her.

(b) Any examiner conducting an examination under this Section shall prepare a written report of the examination no later than 30 days after the date of the examination. The examiner shall place a copy of the report in the person's health care records and shall provide a copy of the report to the court that committed the person under Section 40. The examination shall be conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and by an evaluator approved by the Board.

(c) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section, the court that committed a person under Section 40 may order a reexamination of the person at any time during the period in which the person is subject to the commitment order. Any examiner conducting an examination under this Section shall prepare a written report of the examination no later than 30 days after the date of the examination.

(d) Petitions for discharge after reexamination must follow the procedure outlined in Section 65 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1075, eff. 8-24-12.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1098)

Sec. 55. Periodic reexamination; report.

(a) If a person has been committed under Section 40 of this Act and has not been discharged under Section 65 of this Act, the Department shall submit a written report to the court on his or her mental condition at least once every 12 months after an initial commitment under Section 40 for the purpose of determining whether: (1) the person has made sufficient progress in treatment to be conditionally released and (2) whether the person's condition has so changed since the most recent periodic reexamination (or initial commitment, if there has not yet been a periodic reexamination) that he or she is no longer a sexually violent person. At the time of a reexamination under this Section, the person who has been committed may retain or, if he or she is indigent and so requests, the court may appoint a qualified expert or a professional person to examine him or her.

(b) Any examiner conducting an examination under this Section shall prepare a written report of the examination no later than 30 days after the date of the examination. The examiner shall place a copy of the report in the person's health care records and shall provide a copy of the report to the court that committed the person under Section 40. The examination shall be conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and by an evaluator licensed under the Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Act.

(c) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section, the court that committed a person under Section 40 may order a reexamination of the person at any time during the period in which the person is subject to the commitment order. Any examiner conducting an examination under this Section shall prepare a written report of the examination no later than 30 days after the date of the examination.

(d) Petitions for discharge after reexamination must follow the procedure outlined in Section 65 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1075, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1098, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-28-12.)

(725 ILCS 207/60)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1098)

Sec. 60. Petition for conditional release.

(a) Any person who is committed for institutional care in a secure facility or other facility under Section 40 of this Act may petition the committing court to modify its order by authorizing conditional release if at least 12 months have elapsed since the initial commitment order was entered, an order continuing commitment was entered pursuant to Section 65, the most recent release petition was denied or the most recent order for conditional release was revoked. The director of the facility at which the person is placed may file a petition under this Section on the person's behalf at any time. If the evaluator on behalf of the Department recommends that the committed person is appropriate for conditional release, then the director or designee shall, within 30 days of receipt of the evaluator's report, file with the committing court notice of his or her intention whether or not to petition for conditional release on the committed person's behalf.

(b) If the person files a timely petition without counsel, the court shall serve a copy of the petition on the Attorney General or State's Attorney, whichever is applicable and, subject to paragraph (c)(1) of Section 25 of this Act, appoint counsel. If the person petitions through counsel, his or her attorney shall serve the Attorney General or State's Attorney, whichever is applicable.

(c) Within 20 days after receipt of the petition, upon the request of the committed person or on the court's own motion, the court may appoint an examiner having the specialized knowledge determined by the court to be appropriate, who shall examine the mental condition of the person and furnish a written report of the examination to the court within 30 days after appointment. The examiners shall have reasonable access to the person for purposes of examination and to the person's past and present treatment records and patient health care records. If any such examiner believes that the person is appropriate for conditional release, the examiner shall report on the type of treatment and services that the person may need while in the community on conditional release. The State has the right to have the person evaluated by experts chosen by the State. Any examination or evaluation conducted under this Section shall be in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and conducted by an evaluator approved by the Board. The court shall set a probable cause hearing as soon as practical after the examiners' reports are filed. The probable cause hearing shall consist of a review of the examining evaluators' reports and arguments on behalf of the parties. If the court finds probable cause to believe the person has made sufficient progress in treatment to the point where he or she is no longer substantially probable to engage in acts of sexual violence if on conditional release, the court shall set a hearing on the issue.

(d) The court, without a jury, shall hear the petition as soon as practical after the reports of all examiners are filed with the court. The court shall grant the petition unless the State proves by clear and convincing evidence that the person has not made sufficient progress in treatment to the point where he or she is no longer substantially probable to engage in acts of sexual violence if on conditional release. In making a decision under this subsection, the court must consider the nature and circumstances of the behavior that was the basis of the allegation in the petition under paragraph (b)(1) of Section 15 of this Act, the person's mental history and present mental condition, and what arrangements are available to ensure that the person has access to and will participate in necessary treatment.

(e) Before the court may enter an order directing conditional release to a less restrictive alternative it must find the following: (1) the person will be treated by a Department approved treatment provider, (2) the treatment provider has presented a specific course of treatment and has agreed to assume responsibility for the treatment and will report progress to the Department on a regular basis, and will report violations immediately to the Department, consistent with treatment and supervision needs of the respondent, (3) housing exists that is sufficiently secure to protect the community, and the person or agency providing housing to the conditionally released person has agreed in writing to accept the person, to provide the level of security required by the court, and immediately to report to the Department if the person leaves the housing to which he or she has been assigned without authorization, (4) the person is willing to or has agreed to comply with the treatment provider, the Department, and the court, and (5) the person has agreed or is willing to agree to comply with the behavioral monitoring requirements imposed by the court and the Department.

(f) If the court finds that the person is appropriate for conditional release, the court shall notify the Department. The Department shall prepare a plan that identifies the treatment and services, if any, that the person will receive in the community. The plan shall address the person's need, if any, for supervision, counseling, medication, community support services, residential services, vocational services, and alcohol or other drug abuse treatment. The Department may contract with a county health department, with another public agency or with a private agency to provide the treatment and services identified in the plan. The plan shall specify who will be responsible for providing the treatment and services identified in the plan. The plan shall be presented to the court for its approval within 60 days after the court finding that the person is appropriate for conditional release, unless the Department and the person to be released request additional time to develop the plan.

(g) The provisions of paragraphs (b)(4), (b)(5), and (b)(6) of Section 40 of this Act apply to an order for conditional release issued under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1128, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1075, eff. 8-24-12.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1098)

Sec. 60. Petition for conditional release.

(a) Any person who is committed for institutional care in a secure facility or other facility under Section 40 of this Act may petition the committing court to modify its order by authorizing conditional release if at least 12 months have elapsed since the initial commitment order was entered, an order continuing commitment was entered pursuant to Section 65, the most recent release petition was denied or the most recent order for conditional release was revoked. The director of the facility at which the person is placed may file a petition under this Section on the person's behalf at any time. If the evaluator on behalf of the Department recommends that the committed person is appropriate for conditional release, then the director or designee shall, within 30 days of receipt of the evaluator's report, file with the committing court notice of his or her intention whether or not to petition for conditional release on the committed person's behalf.

(b) If the person files a timely petition without counsel, the court shall serve a copy of the petition on the Attorney General or State's Attorney, whichever is applicable and, subject to paragraph (c)(1) of Section 25 of this Act, appoint counsel. If the person petitions through counsel, his or her attorney shall serve the Attorney General or State's Attorney, whichever is applicable.

(c) Within 20 days after receipt of the petition, upon the request of the committed person or on the court's own motion, the court may appoint an examiner having the specialized knowledge determined by the court to be appropriate, who shall examine the mental condition of the person and furnish a written report of the examination to the court within 30 days after appointment. The examiners shall have reasonable access to the person for purposes of examination and to the person's past and present treatment records and patient health care records. If any such examiner believes that the person is appropriate for conditional release, the examiner shall report on the type of treatment and services that the person may need while in the community on conditional release. The State has the right to have the person evaluated by experts chosen by the State. Any examination or evaluation conducted under this Section shall be in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and conducted by an evaluator licensed under the Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Act. The court shall set a probable cause hearing as soon as practical after the examiners' reports are filed. The probable cause hearing shall consist of a review of the examining evaluators' reports and arguments on behalf of the parties. If the court finds probable cause to believe the person has made sufficient progress in treatment to the point where he or she is no longer substantially probable to engage in acts of sexual violence if on conditional release, the court shall set a hearing on the issue.

(d) The court, without a jury, shall hear the petition as soon as practical after the reports of all examiners are filed with the court. The court shall grant the petition unless the State proves by clear and convincing evidence that the person has not made sufficient progress in treatment to the point where he or she is no longer substantially probable to engage in acts of sexual violence if on conditional release. In making a decision under this subsection, the court must consider the nature and circumstances of the behavior that was the basis of the allegation in the petition under paragraph (b)(1) of Section 15 of this Act, the person's mental history and present mental condition, and what arrangements are available to ensure that the person has access to and will participate in necessary treatment.

(e) Before the court may enter an order directing conditional release to a less restrictive alternative it must find the following: (1) the person will be treated by a Department approved treatment provider, (2) the treatment provider has presented a specific course of treatment and has agreed to assume responsibility for the treatment and will report progress to the Department on a regular basis, and will report violations immediately to the Department, consistent with treatment and supervision needs of the respondent, (3) housing exists that is sufficiently secure to protect the community, and the person or agency providing housing to the conditionally released person has agreed in writing to accept the person, to provide the level of security required by the court, and immediately to report to the Department if the person leaves the housing to which he or she has been assigned without authorization, (4) the person is willing to or has agreed to comply with the treatment provider, the Department, and the court, and (5) the person has agreed or is willing to agree to comply with the behavioral monitoring requirements imposed by the court and the Department.

(f) If the court finds that the person is appropriate for conditional release, the court shall notify the Department. The Department shall prepare a plan that identifies the treatment and services, if any, that the person will receive in the community. The plan shall address the person's need, if any, for supervision, counseling, medication, community support services, residential services, vocational services, and alcohol or other drug abuse treatment. The Department may contract with a county health department, with another public agency or with a private agency to provide the treatment and services identified in the plan. The plan shall specify who will be responsible for providing the treatment and services identified in the plan. The plan shall be presented to the court for its approval within 60 days after the court finding that the person is appropriate for conditional release, unless the Department and the person to be released request additional time to develop the plan.

(g) The provisions of paragraphs (b)(4), (b)(5), and (b)(6) of Section 40 of this Act apply to an order for conditional release issued under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1128, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1075, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1098, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-28-12.)

(725 ILCS 207/65)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1098)

Sec. 65. Petition for discharge; procedure.

(a)(1) If the Secretary determines at any time that a person committed under this Act is no longer a sexually violent person, the Secretary shall authorize the person to petition the committing court for discharge. If the evaluator on behalf of the Department recommends that the committed person is no longer a sexually violent person, then the Secretary or designee shall, within 30 days of receipt of the evaluator's report, file with the committing court notice of his or her determination whether or not to authorize the committed person to petition the committing court for discharge. The person shall file the petition with the court and serve a copy upon the Attorney General or the State's Attorney's office that filed the petition under subsection (a) of Section 15 of this Act, whichever is applicable. The court, upon receipt of the petition for discharge, shall order a hearing to be held as soon as practical after the date of receipt of the petition.

(2) At a hearing under this subsection, the Attorney General or State's Attorney, whichever filed the original petition, shall represent the State. The State has the right to have the person evaluated by experts chosen by the State. The examination shall be conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and by an evaluator approved by the Board. The committed person or the State may elect to have the hearing before a jury. The State has the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner is still a sexually violent person.

(3) If the court or jury is satisfied that the State has not met its burden of proof under paragraph (a)(2) of this Section, the petitioner shall be discharged from the custody or supervision of the Department. If the court is satisfied that the State has met its burden of proof under paragraph (a)(2), the court may proceed under Section 40 of this Act to determine whether to modify the petitioner's existing commitment order.

(b)(1) A person may petition the committing court for discharge from custody or supervision without the Secretary's approval. At the time of an examination under subsection (a) of Section 55 of this Act, the Secretary shall provide the committed person with a written notice of the person's right to petition the court for discharge over the Secretary's objection. The notice shall contain a waiver of rights. The Secretary shall forward the notice and waiver form to the court with the report of the Department's examination under Section 55 of this Act. If the person does not affirmatively waive the right to petition, the court shall set a probable cause hearing to determine whether facts exist to believe that since the most recent periodic reexamination (or initial commitment, if there has not yet been a periodic reexamination), the condition of the committed person has so changed that he or she is no longer a sexually violent person. However, if a person has previously filed a petition for discharge without the Secretary's approval and the court determined, either upon review of the petition or following a hearing, that the person's petition was frivolous or that the person was still a sexually violent person, then the court shall deny any subsequent petition under this Section without a hearing unless the petition contains facts upon which a court could reasonably find that the condition of the person had so changed that a hearing was warranted. If a person does not file a petition for discharge, yet fails to waive the right to petition under this Section, then the probable cause hearing consists only of a review of the reexamination reports and arguments on behalf of the parties. The committed person has a right to have an attorney represent him or her at the probable cause hearing, but the person is not entitled to be present at the probable cause hearing. The probable cause hearing under this Section must be held as soon as practical after the filing of the reexamination report under Section 55 of this Act.

(2) If the court determines at the probable cause hearing under paragraph (b)(1) of this Section that probable cause exists to believe that since the most recent periodic reexamination (or initial commitment, if there has not yet been a periodic reexamination), the condition of the committed person has so changed that he or she is no longer a sexually violent person, then the court shall set a hearing on the issue. At a hearing under this Section, the committed person is entitled to be present and to the benefit of the protections afforded to the person under Section 25 of this Act. The committed person or the State may elect to have a hearing under this Section before a jury. A verdict of a jury under this Section is not valid unless it is unanimous. The Attorney General or State's Attorney, whichever filed the original petition, shall represent the State at a hearing under this Section. The State has the right to have the committed person evaluated by experts chosen by the State. The examination shall be conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and by an evaluator approved by the Board. At the hearing, the State has the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that the committed person is still a sexually violent person.

(3) If the court or jury is satisfied that the State has not met its burden of proof under paragraph (b)(2) of this Section, the person shall be discharged from the custody or supervision of the Department. If the court or jury is satisfied that the State has met its burden of proof under paragraph (b)(2) of this Section, the court may proceed under Section 40 of this Act to determine whether to modify the person's existing commitment order.

(c) This Section applies to petitions pending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and to petitions filed on or after that date. This provision is severable from the other provisions of this Section under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 96-1128, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1075, eff. 8-24-12.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1098)

Sec. 65. Petition for discharge; procedure.

(a)(1) If the Secretary determines at any time that a person committed under this Act is no longer a sexually violent person, the Secretary shall authorize the person to petition the committing court for discharge. If the evaluator on behalf of the Department recommends that the committed person is no longer a sexually violent person, then the Secretary or designee shall, within 30 days of receipt of the evaluator's report, file with the committing court notice of his or her determination whether or not to authorize the committed person to petition the committing court for discharge. The person shall file the petition with the court and serve a copy upon the Attorney General or the State's Attorney's office that filed the petition under subsection (a) of Section 15 of this Act, whichever is applicable. The court, upon receipt of the petition for discharge, shall order a hearing to be held as soon as practical after the date of receipt of the petition.

(2) At a hearing under this subsection, the Attorney General or State's Attorney, whichever filed the original petition, shall represent the State. The State has the right to have the person evaluated by experts chosen by the State. The examination shall be conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and by an evaluator licensed under the Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Act. The committed person or the State may elect to have the hearing before a jury. The State has the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner is still a sexually violent person.

(3) If the court or jury is satisfied that the State has not met its burden of proof under paragraph (a)(2) of this Section, the petitioner shall be discharged from the custody or supervision of the Department. If the court is satisfied that the State has met its burden of proof under paragraph (a)(2), the court may proceed under Section 40 of this Act to determine whether to modify the petitioner's existing commitment order.

(b)(1) A person may petition the committing court for discharge from custody or supervision without the Secretary's approval. At the time of an examination under subsection (a) of Section 55 of this Act, the Secretary shall provide the committed person with a written notice of the person's right to petition the court for discharge over the Secretary's objection. The notice shall contain a waiver of rights. The Secretary shall forward the notice and waiver form to the court with the report of the Department's examination under Section 55 of this Act. If the person does not affirmatively waive the right to petition, the court shall set a probable cause hearing to determine whether facts exist to believe that since the most recent periodic reexamination (or initial commitment, if there has not yet been a periodic reexamination), the condition of the committed person has so changed that he or she is no longer a sexually violent person. However, if a person has previously filed a petition for discharge without the Secretary's approval and the court determined, either upon review of the petition or following a hearing, that the person's petition was frivolous or that the person was still a sexually violent person, then the court shall deny any subsequent petition under this Section without a hearing unless the petition contains facts upon which a court could reasonably find that the condition of the person had so changed that a hearing was warranted. If a person does not file a petition for discharge, yet fails to waive the right to petition under this Section, then the probable cause hearing consists only of a review of the reexamination reports and arguments on behalf of the parties. The committed person has a right to have an attorney represent him or her at the probable cause hearing, but the person is not entitled to be present at the probable cause hearing. The probable cause hearing under this Section must be held as soon as practical after the filing of the reexamination report under Section 55 of this Act.

(2) If the court determines at the probable cause hearing under paragraph (b)(1) of this Section that probable cause exists to believe that since the most recent periodic reexamination (or initial commitment, if there has not yet been a periodic reexamination), the condition of the committed person has so changed that he or she is no longer a sexually violent person, then the court shall set a hearing on the issue. At a hearing under this Section, the committed person is entitled to be present and to the benefit of the protections afforded to the person under Section 25 of this Act. The committed person or the State may elect to have a hearing under this Section before a jury. A verdict of a jury under this Section is not valid unless it is unanimous. The Attorney General or State's Attorney, whichever filed the original petition, shall represent the State at a hearing under this Section. The State has the right to have the committed person evaluated by experts chosen by the State. The examination shall be conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and by an evaluator licensed under the Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Act. At the hearing, the State has the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that the committed person is still a sexually violent person.

(3) If the court or jury is satisfied that the State has not met its burden of proof under paragraph (b)(2) of this Section, the person shall be discharged from the custody or supervision of the Department. If the court or jury is satisfied that the State has met its burden of proof under paragraph (b)(2) of this Section, the court may proceed under Section 40 of this Act to determine whether to modify the person's existing commitment order.

(c) This Section applies to petitions pending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and to petitions filed on or after that date. This provision is severable from the other provisions of this Section under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 96-1128, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1075, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1098, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-28-12.)

Section 460. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-2-2, 3-2-5, 3-3-4, 3-3-9, and 5-5-3.1 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-2-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-2-2)

Sec. 3-2-2. Powers and Duties of the Department.

(1) In addition to the powers, duties and responsibilities which are otherwise provided by law, the Department shall have the following powers:

(a) To accept persons committed to it by the courts of this State for care, custody, treatment and rehabilitation, and to accept federal prisoners and aliens over whom the Office of the Federal Detention Trustee is authorized to exercise the federal detention function for limited purposes and periods of time.

(b) To develop and maintain reception and evaluation units for purposes of analyzing the custody and rehabilitation needs of persons committed to it and to assign such persons to institutions and programs under its control or transfer them to other appropriate agencies. In consultation with the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse (now the Department of Human Services), the Department of Corrections shall develop a master plan for the screening and evaluation of persons committed to its custody who have alcohol or drug abuse problems, and for making appropriate treatment available to such persons; the Department shall report to the General Assembly on such plan not later than April 1, 1987. The maintenance and implementation of such plan shall be contingent upon the availability of funds.

(b-1) To create and implement, on January 1, 2002, a pilot program to establish the effectiveness of pupillometer technology (the measurement of the pupil's reaction to light) as an alternative to a urine test for purposes of screening and evaluating persons committed to its custody who have alcohol or drug problems. The pilot program shall require the pupillometer technology to be used in at least one Department of Corrections facility. The Director may expand the pilot program to include an additional facility or facilities as he or she deems appropriate. A minimum of 4,000 tests shall be included in the pilot program. The Department must report to the General Assembly on the effectiveness of the program by January 1, 2003.

(b-5) To develop, in consultation with the Department of State Police, a program for tracking and evaluating each inmate from commitment through release for recording his or her gang affiliations, activities, or ranks.

(c) To maintain and administer all State correctional institutions and facilities under its control and to establish new ones as needed. Pursuant to its power to establish new institutions and facilities, the Department may, with the written approval of the Governor, authorize the Department of Central Management Services to enter into an agreement of the type described in subsection (d) of Section 405-300 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-300). The Department shall designate those institutions which shall constitute the State Penitentiary System.

Pursuant to its power to establish new institutions and facilities, the Department may authorize the Department of Central Management Services to accept bids from counties and municipalities for the construction, remodeling or conversion of a structure to be leased to the Department of Corrections for the purposes of its serving as a correctional institution or facility. Such construction, remodeling or conversion may be financed with revenue bonds issued pursuant to the Industrial Building Revenue Bond Act by the municipality or county. The lease specified in a bid shall be for a term of not less than the time needed to retire any revenue bonds used to finance the project, but not to exceed 40 years. The lease may grant to the State the option to purchase the structure outright.

Upon receipt of the bids, the Department may certify one or more of the bids and shall submit any such bids to the General Assembly for approval. Upon approval of a bid by a constitutional majority of both houses of the General Assembly, pursuant to joint resolution, the Department of Central Management Services may enter into an agreement with the county or municipality pursuant to such bid.

(c-5) To build and maintain regional juvenile detention centers and to charge a per diem to the counties as established by the Department to defray the costs of housing each minor in a center. In this subsection (c-5), "juvenile detention center" means a facility to house minors during pendency of trial who have been transferred from proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 to prosecutions under the criminal laws of this State in accordance with Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether the transfer was by operation of law or permissive under that Section. The Department shall designate the counties to be served by each regional juvenile detention center.

(d) To develop and maintain programs of control, rehabilitation and employment of committed persons within its institutions.

(d-5) To provide a pre-release job preparation program for inmates at Illinois adult correctional centers.

(e) To establish a system of supervision and guidance of committed persons in the community.

(f) To establish in cooperation with the Department of Transportation to supply a sufficient number of prisoners for use by the Department of Transportation to clean up the trash and garbage along State, county, township, or municipal highways as designated by the Department of Transportation. The Department of Corrections, at the request of the Department of Transportation, shall furnish such prisoners at least annually for a period to be agreed upon between the Director of Corrections and the Director of Transportation. The prisoners used on this program shall be selected by the Director of Corrections on whatever basis he deems proper in consideration of their term, behavior and earned eligibility to participate in such program - where they will be outside of the prison facility but still in the custody of the Department of Corrections. Prisoners convicted of first degree murder, or a Class X felony, or armed violence, or aggravated kidnapping, or criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or a subsequent conviction for criminal sexual abuse, or forcible detention, or arson, or a prisoner adjudged a Habitual Criminal shall not be eligible for selection to participate in such program. The prisoners shall remain as prisoners in the custody of the Department of Corrections and such Department shall furnish whatever security is necessary. The Department of Transportation shall furnish trucks and equipment for the highway cleanup program and personnel to supervise and direct the program. Neither the Department of Corrections nor the Department of Transportation shall replace any regular employee with a prisoner.

(g) To maintain records of persons committed to it and to establish programs of research, statistics and planning.

(h) To investigate the grievances of any person committed to the Department, to inquire into any alleged misconduct by employees or committed persons, and to investigate the assets of committed persons to implement Section 3-7-6 of this Code; and for these purposes it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of writings and papers, and may examine under oath any witnesses who may appear before it; to also investigate alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole or release; and for this purpose it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents only if there is reason to believe that such procedures would provide evidence that such violations have occurred.

If any person fails to obey a subpoena issued under this subsection, the Director may apply to any circuit court to secure compliance with the subpoena. The failure to comply with the order of the court issued in response thereto shall be punishable as contempt of court.

(i) To appoint and remove the chief administrative officers, and administer programs of training and development of personnel of the Department. Personnel assigned by the Department to be responsible for the custody and control of committed persons or to investigate the alleged misconduct of committed persons or employees or alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole shall be conservators of the peace for those purposes, and shall have the full power of peace officers outside of the facilities of the Department in the protection, arrest, retaking and reconfining of committed persons or where the exercise of such power is necessary to the investigation of such misconduct or violations.

(j) To cooperate with other departments and agencies and with local communities for the development of standards and programs for better correctional services in this State.

(k) To administer all moneys and properties of the Department.

(l) To report annually to the Governor on the committed persons, institutions and programs of the Department.

(l-5) (Blank).

(m) To make all rules and regulations and exercise all powers and duties vested by law in the Department.

(n) To establish rules and regulations for administering a system of sentence credits, established in accordance with Section 3-6-3, subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board.

(o) To administer the distribution of funds from the State Treasury to reimburse counties where State penal institutions are located for the payment of assistant state's attorneys' salaries under Section 4-2001 of the Counties Code.

(p) To exchange information with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services for the purpose of verifying living arrangements and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Code and the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(q) To establish a diversion program.

The program shall provide a structured environment for selected technical parole or mandatory supervised release violators and committed persons who have violated the rules governing their conduct while in work release. This program shall not apply to those persons who have committed a new offense while serving on parole or mandatory supervised release or while committed to work release.

Elements of the program shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(1) The staff of a diversion facility shall provide supervision in accordance with required objectives set by the facility.

(2) Participants shall be required to maintain employment.

(3) Each participant shall pay for room and board at the facility on a sliding-scale basis according to the participant's income.

(4) Each participant shall:

(A) provide restitution to victims in accordance with any court order;

(B) provide financial support to his dependents; and

(C) make appropriate payments toward any other court-ordered obligations.

(5) Each participant shall complete community service in addition to employment.

(6) Participants shall take part in such counseling, educational and other programs as the Department may deem appropriate.

(7) Participants shall submit to drug and alcohol screening.

(8) The Department shall promulgate rules governing the administration of the program.

(r) To enter into intergovernmental cooperation agreements under which persons in the custody of the Department may participate in a county impact incarceration program established under Section 3-6038 or 3-15003.5 of the Counties Code.

(r-5) (Blank).

(r-10) To systematically and routinely identify with respect to each streetgang active within the correctional system: (1) each active gang; (2) every existing inter-gang affiliation or alliance; and (3) the current leaders in each gang. The Department shall promptly segregate leaders from inmates who belong to their gangs and allied gangs. "Segregate" means no physical contact and, to the extent possible under the conditions and space available at the correctional facility, prohibition of visual and sound communication. For the purposes of this paragraph (r-10), "leaders" means persons who:

(i) are members of a criminal streetgang;

(ii) with respect to other individuals within the streetgang, occupy a position of organizer, supervisor, or other position of management or leadership; and

(iii) are actively and personally engaged in directing, ordering, authorizing, or requesting commission of criminal acts by others, which are punishable as a felony, in furtherance of streetgang related activity both within and outside of the Department of Corrections.

"Streetgang", "gang", and "streetgang related" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(s) To operate a super-maximum security institution, in order to manage and supervise inmates who are disruptive or dangerous and provide for the safety and security of the staff and the other inmates.

(t) To monitor any unprivileged conversation or any unprivileged communication, whether in person or by mail, telephone, or other means, between an inmate who, before commitment to the Department, was a member of an organized gang and any other person without the need to show cause or satisfy any other requirement of law before beginning the monitoring, except as constitutionally required. The monitoring may be by video, voice, or other method of recording or by any other means. As used in this subdivision (1)(t), "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

As used in this subdivision (1)(t), "unprivileged conversation" or "unprivileged communication" means a conversation or communication that is not protected by any privilege recognized by law or by decision, rule, or order of the Illinois Supreme Court.

(u) To establish a Women's and Children's Pre-release Community Supervision Program for the purpose of providing housing and services to eligible female inmates, as determined by the Department, and their newborn and young children.

(u-5) To issue an order, whenever a person committed to the Department absconds or absents himself or herself, without authority to do so, from any facility or program to which he or she is assigned. The order shall be certified by the Director, the Supervisor of the Apprehension Unit, or any person duly designated by the Director, with the seal of the Department affixed. The order shall be directed to all sheriffs, coroners, and police officers, or to any particular person named in the order. Any order issued pursuant to this subdivision (1) (u-5) shall be sufficient warrant for the officer or person named in the order to arrest and deliver the committed person to the proper correctional officials and shall be executed the same as criminal process.

(v) To do all other acts necessary to carry out the provisions of this Chapter.

(2) The Department of Corrections shall by January 1, 1998, consider building and operating a correctional facility within 100 miles of a county of over 2,000,000 inhabitants, especially a facility designed to house juvenile participants in the impact incarceration program.

(3) When the Department lets bids for contracts for medical services to be provided to persons committed to Department facilities by a health maintenance organization, medical service corporation, or other health care provider, the bid may only be let to a health care provider that has obtained an irrevocable letter of credit or performance bond issued by a company whose bonds have an investment grade or higher rating by a bond rating organization.

(4) When the Department lets bids for contracts for food or commissary services to be provided to Department facilities, the bid may only be let to a food or commissary services provider that has obtained an irrevocable letter of credit or performance bond issued by a company whose bonds have an investment grade or higher rating by a bond rating organization.

(Source: P.A. 96-1265, eff. 7-26-10; 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-800, eff. 7-13-12; 97-802, eff. 7-13-12; revised 7-23-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-2-5)

Sec. 3-2-5. Organization of the Department of Corrections and the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(a) There shall be a Department of Corrections which shall be administered by a Director and an Assistant Director appointed by the Governor under the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. The Assistant Director shall be under the direction of the Director. The Department of Corrections shall be responsible for all persons committed or transferred to the Department under Sections 3-10-7 or 5-8-6 of this Code.

(b) There shall be a Department of Juvenile Justice which shall be administered by a Director appointed by the Governor under the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. The Department of Juvenile Justice shall be responsible for all persons under 17 years of age when sentenced to imprisonment and committed to the Department under subsection (c) of Section 5-8-6 of this Code, Section 5-10 of the Juvenile Court Act, or Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Persons under 17 years of age committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice pursuant to this Code shall be sight and sound separate from adult offenders committed to the Department of Corrections.

(c) The Department shall create a gang intelligence unit under the supervision of the Director. The unit shall be specifically designed to gather information regarding the inmate gang population, monitor the activities of gangs, and prevent the furtherance of gang activities through the development and implementation of policies aimed at deterring gang activity. The Director shall appoint a Corrections Intelligence Coordinator.

All information collected and maintained by the unit shall be highly confidential, and access to that information shall be restricted by the Department. The information shall be used to control and limit the activities of gangs within correctional institutions under the jurisdiction of the Illinois Department of Corrections and may be shared with other law enforcement agencies in order to curb gang activities outside of correctional institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department and to assist in the investigations and prosecutions of gang activity. The Department shall establish and promulgate rules governing the release of information to outside law enforcement agencies. Due to the highly sensitive nature of the information, the information is exempt from requests for disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act as the information contained is highly confidential and may be harmful if disclosed.

(Source: P.A. 97-800, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1083, eff. 8-24-12; revised 9-20-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-4)

Sec. 3-3-4. Preparation for Parole Hearing.

(a) The Prisoner Review Board shall consider the parole of each eligible person committed to the Department of Corrections at least 30 days prior to the date he shall first become eligible for parole, and shall consider the parole of each person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice as a delinquent at least 30 days prior to the expiration of the first year of confinement.

(b) A person eligible for parole shall, no less than 15 days in advance of his parole interview, prepare a parole plan in accordance with the rules of the Prisoner Review Board. The person shall be assisted in preparing his parole plan by personnel of the Department of Corrections, or the Department of Juvenile Justice in the case of a person committed to that Department, and may, for this purpose, be released on furlough under Article 11 or on authorized absence under Section 3-9-4. The appropriate Department shall also provide assistance in obtaining information and records helpful to the individual for his parole hearing. If the person eligible for parole has a petition or any written submissions prepared on his or her behalf by an attorney or other representative, the attorney or representative for the person eligible for parole must serve by certified mail the State's Attorney of the county where he or she was prosecuted with the petition or any written submissions 15 days after his or her parole interview. The State's Attorney shall provide the attorney for the person eligible for parole with a copy of his or her letter in opposition to parole via certified mail within 5 business days of the en banc hearing.

(c) Any member of the Board shall have access at all reasonable times to any committed person and to his master record file within the Department, and the Department shall furnish such a report to the Board concerning the conduct and character of any such person prior to his or her parole interview.

(d) In making its determination of parole, the Board shall consider:

(1) material transmitted to the Department of Juvenile Justice by the clerk of the committing court under Section 5-4-1 or Section 5-10 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 5-750 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(2) the report under Section 3-8-2 or 3-10-2;

(3) a report by the Department and any report by the chief administrative officer of the institution or facility;

(4) a parole progress report;

(5) a medical and psychological report, if requested by the Board;

(6) material in writing, or on film, video tape or other electronic means in the form of a recording submitted by the person whose parole is being considered;

(7) material in writing, or on film, video tape or other electronic means in the form of a recording or testimony submitted by the State's Attorney and the victim or a concerned citizen pursuant to the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act; and

(8) the person's eligibility for commitment under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(e) The prosecuting State's Attorney's office shall receive from the Board reasonable written notice not less than 30 days prior to the parole interview and may submit relevant information by oral argument or testimony of victims and concerned citizens, or both, in writing, or on film, video tape or other electronic means or in the form of a recording to the Board for its consideration. Upon written request of the State's Attorney's office, the Prisoner Review Board shall hear protests to parole, except in counties of 1,500,000 or more inhabitants where there shall be standing objections to all such petitions. If a State's Attorney who represents a county of less than 1,500,000 inhabitants requests a protest hearing, the inmate's counsel or other representative shall also receive notice of such request. This hearing shall take place the month following the inmate's parole interview. If the inmate's parole interview is rescheduled then the Prisoner Review Board shall promptly notify the State's Attorney of the new date. The person eligible for parole shall be heard at the next scheduled en banc hearing date. If the case is to be continued, the State's Attorney's office and the attorney or representative for the person eligible for parole will be notified of any continuance within 5 business days. The State's Attorney may waive the written notice.

(f) The victim of the violent crime for which the prisoner has been sentenced shall receive notice of a parole hearing as provided in paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of Section 4.5 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(g) Any recording considered under the provisions of subsection (d)(6), (d)(7) or (e) of this Section shall be in the form designated by the Board. Such recording shall be both visual and aural. Every voice on the recording and person present shall be identified and the recording shall contain either a visual or aural statement of the person submitting such recording, the date of the recording and the name of the person whose parole eligibility is being considered. Such recordings shall be retained by the Board and shall be deemed to be submitted at any subsequent parole hearing if the victim or State's Attorney submits in writing a declaration clearly identifying such recording as representing the present position of the victim or State's Attorney regarding the issues to be considered at the parole hearing.

(h) The Board shall not release any material to the inmate, the inmate's attorney, any third party, or any other person containing any information from the victim or from a person related to the victim by blood, adoption, or marriage who has written objections, testified at any hearing, or submitted audio or visual objections to the inmate's parole, unless provided with a waiver from that objecting party.

(Source: P.A. 96-875, eff. 1-22-10; 97-523, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1075, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1083, eff. 8-24-12; revised 9-20-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-9) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-9)

Sec. 3-3-9. Violations; changes of conditions; preliminary hearing; revocation of parole or mandatory supervised release; revocation hearing.

(a) If prior to expiration or termination of the term of parole or mandatory supervised release, a person violates a condition set by the Prisoner Review Board or a condition of parole or mandatory supervised release under Section 3-3-7 of this Code to govern that term, the Board may:

(1) continue the existing term, with or without modifying or enlarging the conditions; or

(2) parole or release the person to a half-way house; or

(3) revoke the parole or mandatory supervised release and reconfine the person for a term computed in the following manner:

(i) (A) For those sentenced under the law in effect prior to this amendatory Act of 1977, the recommitment shall be for any portion of the imposed maximum term of imprisonment or confinement which had not been served at the time of parole and the parole term, less the time elapsed between the parole of the person and the commission of the violation for which parole was revoked;

(B) Except as set forth in paragraph (C), for those subject to mandatory supervised release under paragraph (d) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code, the recommitment shall be for the total mandatory supervised release term, less the time elapsed between the release of the person and the commission of the violation for which mandatory supervised release is revoked. The Board may also order that a prisoner serve up to one year of the sentence imposed by the court which was not served due to the accumulation of sentence credit;

(C) For those subject to sex offender supervision under clause (d)(4) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code, the reconfinement period for violations of clauses (a)(3) through (b-1)(15) of Section 3-3-7 shall not exceed 2 years from the date of reconfinement; .

(ii) the person shall be given credit against the term of reimprisonment or reconfinement for time spent in custody since he was paroled or released which has not been credited against another sentence or period of confinement;

(iii) persons committed under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may be continued under the existing term of parole with or without modifying the conditions of parole, paroled or released to a group home or other residential facility, or recommitted until the age of 21 unless sooner terminated;

(iv) this Section is subject to the release under supervision and the reparole and rerelease provisions of Section 3-3-10.

(b) The Board may revoke parole or mandatory supervised release for violation of a condition for the duration of the term and for any further period which is reasonably necessary for the adjudication of matters arising before its expiration. The issuance of a warrant of arrest for an alleged violation of the conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release shall toll the running of the term until the final determination of the charge. When parole or mandatory supervised release is not revoked that period shall be credited to the term, unless a community-based sanction is imposed as an alternative to revocation and reincarceration, including a diversion established by the Illinois Department of Corrections Parole Services Unit prior to the holding of a preliminary parole revocation hearing. Parolees who are diverted to a community-based sanction shall serve the entire term of parole or mandatory supervised release, if otherwise appropriate.

(b-5) The Board shall revoke parole or mandatory supervised release for violation of the conditions prescribed in paragraph (7.6) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7.

(c) A person charged with violating a condition of parole or mandatory supervised release shall have a preliminary hearing before a hearing officer designated by the Board to determine if there is cause to hold the person for a revocation hearing. However, no preliminary hearing need be held when revocation is based upon new criminal charges and a court finds probable cause on the new criminal charges or when the revocation is based upon a new criminal conviction and a certified copy of that conviction is available.

(d) Parole or mandatory supervised release shall not be revoked without written notice to the offender setting forth the violation of parole or mandatory supervised release charged against him.

(e) A hearing on revocation shall be conducted before at least one member of the Prisoner Review Board. The Board may meet and order its actions in panels of 3 or more members. The action of a majority of the panel shall be the action of the Board. In consideration of persons committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the member hearing the matter and at least a majority of the panel shall be experienced in juvenile matters. A record of the hearing shall be made. At the hearing the offender shall be permitted to:

(1) appear and answer the charge; and

(2) bring witnesses on his behalf.

(f) The Board shall either revoke parole or mandatory supervised release or order the person's term continued with or without modification or enlargement of the conditions.

(g) Parole or mandatory supervised release shall not be revoked for failure to make payments under the conditions of parole or release unless the Board determines that such failure is due to the offender's willful refusal to pay.

(Source: P.A. 96-1271, eff. 1-1-11; 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3.1)

Sec. 5-5-3.1. Factors in Mitigation.

(a) The following grounds shall be accorded weight in favor of withholding or minimizing a sentence of imprisonment:

(1) The defendant's criminal conduct neither caused nor threatened serious physical harm to another.

(2) The defendant did not contemplate that his criminal conduct would cause or threaten serious physical harm to another.

(3) The defendant acted under a strong provocation.

(4) There were substantial grounds tending to excuse or justify the defendant's criminal conduct, though failing to establish a defense.

(5) The defendant's criminal conduct was induced or facilitated by someone other than the defendant.

(6) The defendant has compensated or will compensate the victim of his criminal conduct for the damage or injury that he sustained.

(7) The defendant has no history of prior delinquency or criminal activity or has led a law-abiding life for a substantial period of time before the commission of the present crime.

(8) The defendant's criminal conduct was the result of circumstances unlikely to recur.

(9) The character and attitudes of the defendant indicate that he is unlikely to commit another crime.

(10) The defendant is particularly likely to comply with the terms of a period of probation.

(11) The imprisonment of the defendant would entail excessive hardship to his dependents.

(12) The imprisonment of the defendant would endanger his or her medical condition.

(13) The defendant was intellectually disabled as defined in Section 5-1-13 of this Code.

(14) The defendant sought or obtained emergency medical assistance for an overdose and was convicted of a Class 3 felony or higher possession, manufacture, or delivery of a controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substance or a controlled substance analog under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or a Class 2 felony or higher possession, manufacture or delivery of methamphetamine under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(b) If the court, having due regard for the character of the offender, the nature and circumstances of the offense and the public interest finds that a sentence of imprisonment is the most appropriate disposition of the offender, or where other provisions of this Code mandate the imprisonment of the offender, the grounds listed in paragraph (a) of this subsection shall be considered as factors in mitigation of the term imposed.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-678, eff. 6-1-12; revised 10-16-12.)

Section 470. The Stalking No Contact Order Act is amended by changing Section 115 as follows:

(740 ILCS 21/115)

Sec. 115. Notice of orders.

(a) Upon issuance of any stalking no contact order, the clerk shall immediately, or on the next court day if an emergency order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 95:

(1) enter the order on the record and file it in accordance with the circuit court procedures; and

(2) provide a file stamped copy of the order to the respondent, if present, and to the petitioner.

(b) The clerk of the issuing judge shall, or the petitioner may, on the same day that a stalking no contact order is issued, file a certified copy of that order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records or charged with serving the order upon the respondent. If the order was issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 95, the clerk shall, on the next court day, file a certified copy of the order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records. If the respondent, at the time of the issuance of the order, is committed to the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections or is on parole or mandatory supervised release, the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records shall notify the Department of Corrections within 48 hours of receipt of a copy of the stalking no contact order from the clerk of the issuing judge or the petitioner. Such notice shall include the name of the respondent, the respondent's IDOC inmate number, the respondent's date of birth, and the LEADS Record Index Number.

(c) Unless the respondent was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon the respondent and file proof of such service in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. Instead of serving the order upon the respondent, however, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or other persons defined in Section 117 may serve the respondent with a short form notification as provided in Section 117. If process has not yet been served upon the respondent, it shall be served with the order or short form notification if such service is made by the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server.

(d) If the person against whom the stalking no contact order is issued is arrested and the written order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 95 and received by the custodial law enforcement agency before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody, the custodial law enforcement agent shall promptly serve the order upon the respondent or arrestee before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody. In no event shall detention of the respondent or arrestee be extended for hearing on the petition for stalking no contact order or receipt of the order issued under Section 95 of this Act.

(e) Any order extending, modifying, or revoking any stalking no contact order shall be promptly recorded, issued, and served as provided in this Section.

(f) Upon the request of the petitioner, within 24 hours of the issuance of a stalking no contact order, the clerk of the issuing judge shall send written notice of the order along with a certified copy of the order to any school, daycare, college, or university at which the petitioner is enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10; 97-904, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1017, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

Section 475. The Civil No Contact Order Act is amended by changing Section 218 as follows:

(740 ILCS 22/218)

Sec. 218. Notice of orders.

(a) Upon issuance of any civil no contact order, the clerk shall immediately, or on the next court day if an emergency order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 214:

(1) enter the order on the record and file it in accordance with the circuit court procedures; and

(2) provide a file stamped copy of the order to the respondent, if present, and to the petitioner.

(b) The clerk of the issuing judge shall, or the petitioner may, on the same day that a civil no contact order is issued, file a certified copy of that order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records or charged with serving the order upon the respondent. If the order was issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 214, the clerk shall, on the next court day, file a certified copy of the order with the Sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records. If the respondent, at the time of the issuance of the order, is committed to the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections or is on parole or mandatory supervised release, the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records shall notify the Department of Corrections within 48 hours of receipt of a copy of the civil no contact order from the clerk of the issuing judge or the petitioner. Such notice shall include the name of the respondent, the respondent's IDOC inmate number, the respondent's date of birth, and the LEADS Record Index Number.

(c) Unless the respondent was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon the respondent and file proof of such service in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. Instead of serving the order upon the respondent, however, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or other persons defined in Section 218.1 may serve the respondent with a short form notification as provided in Section 218.1. If process has not yet been served upon the respondent, it shall be served with the order or short form notification if such service is made by the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server.

(d) If the person against whom the civil no contact order is issued is arrested and the written order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 214 and received by the custodial law enforcement agency before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody, the custodial law enforcement agent shall promptly serve the order upon the respondent or arrestee before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody. In no event shall detention of the respondent or arrestee be extended for hearing on the petition for civil no contact order or receipt of the order issued under Section 214 of this Act.

(e) Any order extending, modifying, or revoking any civil no contact order shall be promptly recorded, issued, and served as provided in this Section.

(f) Upon the request of the petitioner, within 24 hours of the issuance of a civil no contact order, the clerk of the issuing judge shall send written notice of the order along with a certified copy of the order to any school, college, or university at which the petitioner is enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 97-904, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1017, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

Section 480. The Crime Victims Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 7.1 as follows:

(740 ILCS 45/7.1) (from Ch. 70, par. 77.1)

Sec. 7.1. (a) The application shall set out:

(1) the name and address of the victim;

(2) if the victim is deceased, the name and address of the applicant and his relationship to the victim, the names and addresses of other persons dependent on the victim for their support and the extent to which each is so dependent, and other persons who may be entitled to compensation for a pecuniary loss;

(3) the date and nature of the crime on which the application for compensation is based;

(4) the date and place where and the law enforcement officials to whom notification of the crime was given;

(5) the nature and extent of the injuries sustained by the victim, and the names and addresses of those giving medical and hospitalization treatment to the victim;

(6) the pecuniary loss to the applicant and to such other persons as are specified under item (2) resulting from the injury or death;

(7) the amount of benefits, payments, or awards, if any, payable under:

(a) the Workers' Compensation Act,

(b) the Dram Shop Act,

(c) any claim, demand, or cause of action based upon the crime-related injury or death,

(d) the Federal Medicare program,

(e) the State Public Aid program,

(f) Social Security Administration burial benefits,

(g) Veterans administration burial benefits,

(h) life, health, accident or liability insurance,

(i) the Criminal Victims' Escrow Account Act,

(j) the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act,

(k) restitution, or

(l) from any other source; .

(8) releases authorizing the surrender to the Court of Claims or Attorney General of reports, documents and other information relating to the matters specified under this Act and rules promulgated in accordance with the Act; .

(9) such other information as the Court of Claims or the Attorney General reasonably requires.

(b) The Attorney General may require that materials substantiating the facts stated in the application be submitted with that application.

(c) An applicant, on his own motion, may file an amended application or additional substantiating materials to correct inadvertent errors or omissions at any time before the original application has been disposed of by the Court of Claims. In either case, the filing of additional information or of an amended application shall be considered for the purpose of this Act to have been filed at the same time as the original application.

(Source: P.A. 97-817, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 490. The Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act is amended by changing Section 505 as follows:

(750 ILCS 5/505) (from Ch. 40, par. 505)

Sec. 505. Child support; contempt; penalties.

(a) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage, legal separation, declaration of invalidity of marriage, a proceeding for child support following dissolution of the marriage by a court that lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse, a proceeding for modification of a previous order for child support under Section 510 of this Act, or any proceeding authorized under Section 501 or 601 of this Act, the court may order either or both parents owing a duty of support to a child of the marriage to pay an amount reasonable and necessary for the support of the child, without regard to marital misconduct. The duty of support owed to a child includes the obligation to provide for the reasonable and necessary educational, physical, mental and emotional health needs of the child. For purposes of this Section, the term "child" shall include any child under age 18 and any child under age 19 who is still attending high school.

(1) The Court shall determine the minimum amount of support by using the following guidelines:

(2) The above guidelines shall be applied in each case unless the court finds that a deviation from the guidelines is appropriate after considering the best interest of the child in light of the evidence, including, but not limited to, one or more of the following relevant factors:

(a) the financial resources and needs of the child;

(b) the financial resources and needs of the custodial parent;

(c) the standard of living the child would have enjoyed had the marriage not been dissolved;

(d) the physical, mental, and emotional needs of the child;

(d-5) the educational needs of the child; and

(e) the financial resources and needs of the non-custodial parent.

If the court deviates from the guidelines, the court's finding shall state the amount of support that would have been required under the guidelines, if determinable. The court shall include the reason or reasons for the variance from the guidelines.

(2.5) The court, in its discretion, in addition to setting child support pursuant to the guidelines and factors, may order either or both parents owing a duty of support to a child of the marriage to contribute to the following expenses, if determined by the court to be reasonable:

(a) health needs not covered by insurance;

(b) child care;

(c) education; and

(d) extracurricular activities.

(3) "Net income" is defined as the total of all income from all sources, minus the following deductions:

(a) Federal income tax (properly calculated withholding or estimated payments);

(b) State income tax (properly calculated withholding or estimated payments);

(c) Social Security (FICA payments);

(d) Mandatory retirement contributions required by law or as a condition of employment;

(e) Union dues;

(f) Dependent and individual health/hospitalization insurance premiums and premiums for life insurance ordered by the court to reasonably secure payment of ordered child support;

(g) Prior obligations of support or maintenance actually paid pursuant to a court order;

(h) Expenditures for repayment of debts that represent reasonable and necessary expenses for the production of income, medical expenditures necessary to preserve life or health, reasonable expenditures for the benefit of the child and the other parent, exclusive of gifts. The court shall reduce net income in determining the minimum amount of support to be ordered only for the period that such payments are due and shall enter an order containing provisions for its self-executing modification upon termination of such payment period;

(i) Foster care payments paid by the Department of Children and Family Services for providing licensed foster care to a foster child.

(4) In cases where the court order provides for health/hospitalization insurance coverage pursuant to Section 505.2 of this Act, the premiums for that insurance, or that portion of the premiums for which the supporting party is responsible in the case of insurance provided through an employer's health insurance plan where the employer pays a portion of the premiums, shall be subtracted from net income in determining the minimum amount of support to be ordered.

(4.5) In a proceeding for child support following dissolution of the marriage by a court that lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse, and in which the court is requiring payment of support for the period before the date an order for current support is entered, there is a rebuttable presumption that the supporting party's net income for the prior period was the same as his or her net income at the time the order for current support is entered.

(5) If the net income cannot be determined because of default or any other reason, the court shall order support in an amount considered reasonable in the particular case. The final order in all cases shall state the support level in dollar amounts. However, if the court finds that the child support amount cannot be expressed exclusively as a dollar amount because all or a portion of the payor's net income is uncertain as to source, time of payment, or amount, the court may order a percentage amount of support in addition to a specific dollar amount and enter such other orders as may be necessary to determine and enforce, on a timely basis, the applicable support ordered.

(6) If (i) the non-custodial parent was properly served with a request for discovery of financial information relating to the non-custodial parent's ability to provide child support, (ii) the non-custodial parent failed to comply with the request, despite having been ordered to do so by the court, and (iii) the non-custodial parent is not present at the hearing to determine support despite having received proper notice, then any relevant financial information concerning the non-custodial parent's ability to provide child support that was obtained pursuant to subpoena and proper notice shall be admitted into evidence without the need to establish any further foundation for its admission.

(a-5) In an action to enforce an order for support based on the respondent's failure to make support payments as required by the order, notice of proceedings to hold the respondent in contempt for that failure may be served on the respondent by personal service or by regular mail addressed to the respondent's last known address. The respondent's last known address may be determined from records of the clerk of the court, from the Federal Case Registry of Child Support Orders, or by any other reasonable means.

(b) Failure of either parent to comply with an order to pay support shall be punishable as in other cases of contempt. In addition to other penalties provided by law the Court may, after finding the parent guilty of contempt, order that the parent be:

(1) placed on probation with such conditions of probation as the Court deems advisable;

(2) sentenced to periodic imprisonment for a period not to exceed 6 months; provided, however, that the Court may permit the parent to be released for periods of time during the day or night to:

(A) work; or

(B) conduct a business or other self-employed occupation.

The Court may further order any part or all of the earnings of a parent during a sentence of periodic imprisonment paid to the Clerk of the Circuit Court or to the parent having custody or to the guardian having custody of the children of the sentenced parent for the support of said children until further order of the Court.

If a parent who is found guilty of contempt for failure to comply with an order to pay support is a person who conducts a business or who is self-employed, the court in addition to other penalties provided by law may order that the parent do one or more of the following: (i) provide to the court monthly financial statements showing income and expenses from the business or the self-employment; (ii) seek employment and report periodically to the court with a diary, listing, or other memorandum of his or her employment search efforts; or (iii) report to the Department of Employment Security for job search services to find employment that will be subject to withholding for child support.

If there is a unity of interest and ownership sufficient to render no financial separation between a non-custodial parent and another person or persons or business entity, the court may pierce the ownership veil of the person, persons, or business entity to discover assets of the non-custodial parent held in the name of that person, those persons, or that business entity. The following circumstances are sufficient to authorize a court to order discovery of the assets of a person, persons, or business entity and to compel the application of any discovered assets toward payment on the judgment for support:

(1) the non-custodial parent and the person, persons, or business entity maintain records together.

(2) the non-custodial parent and the person, persons, or business entity fail to maintain an arm's length relationship between themselves with regard to any assets.

(3) the non-custodial parent transfers assets to the person, persons, or business entity with the intent to perpetrate a fraud on the custodial parent.

With respect to assets which are real property, no order entered under this paragraph shall affect the rights of bona fide purchasers, mortgagees, judgment creditors, or other lien holders who acquire their interests in the property prior to the time a notice of lis pendens pursuant to the Code of Civil Procedure or a copy of the order is placed of record in the office of the recorder of deeds for the county in which the real property is located.

The court may also order in cases where the parent is 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support or has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days obligation or more, that the parent's Illinois driving privileges be suspended until the court determines that the parent is in compliance with the order of support. The court may also order that the parent be issued a family financial responsibility driving permit that would allow limited driving privileges for employment and medical purposes in accordance with Section 7-702.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The clerk of the circuit court shall certify the order suspending the driving privileges of the parent or granting the issuance of a family financial responsibility driving permit to the Secretary of State on forms prescribed by the Secretary. Upon receipt of the authenticated documents, the Secretary of State shall suspend the parent's driving privileges until further order of the court and shall, if ordered by the court, subject to the provisions of Section 7-702.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, issue a family financial responsibility driving permit to the parent.

In addition to the penalties or punishment that may be imposed under this Section, any person whose conduct constitutes a violation of Section 15 of the Non-Support Punishment Act may be prosecuted under that Act, and a person convicted under that Act may be sentenced in accordance with that Act. The sentence may include but need not be limited to a requirement that the person perform community service under Section 50 of that Act or participate in a work alternative program under Section 50 of that Act. A person may not be required to participate in a work alternative program under Section 50 of that Act if the person is currently participating in a work program pursuant to Section 505.1 of this Act.

A support obligation, or any portion of a support obligation, which becomes due and remains unpaid as of the end of each month, excluding the child support that was due for that month to the extent that it was not paid in that month, shall accrue simple interest as set forth in Section 12-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure. An order for support entered or modified on or after January 1, 2006 shall contain a statement that a support obligation required under the order, or any portion of a support obligation required under the order, that becomes due and remains unpaid as of the end of each month, excluding the child support that was due for that month to the extent that it was not paid in that month, shall accrue simple interest as set forth in Section 12-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the accrual of interest as provided in this Section.

(c) A one-time charge of 20% is imposable upon the amount of past-due child support owed on July 1, 1988 which has accrued under a support order entered by the court. The charge shall be imposed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10-21 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and shall be enforced by the court upon petition.

(d) Any new or existing support order entered by the court under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support thereunder, each such judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each such judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order. Each such judgment shall have the full force, effect and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. Notwithstanding any other State or local law to the contrary, a lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the noncustodial parent for each installment of overdue support owed by the noncustodial parent.

(e) When child support is to be paid through the clerk of the court in a county of 1,000,000 inhabitants or less, the order shall direct the obligor to pay to the clerk, in addition to the child support payments, all fees imposed by the county board under paragraph (3) of subsection (u) of Section 27.1 of the Clerks of Courts Act. Unless paid in cash or pursuant to an order for withholding, the payment of the fee shall be by a separate instrument from the support payment and shall be made to the order of the Clerk.

(f) All orders for support, when entered or modified, shall include a provision requiring the obligor to notify the court and, in cases in which a party is receiving child and spouse services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, within 7 days, (i) of the name and address of any new employer of the obligor, (ii) whether the obligor has access to health insurance coverage through the employer or other group coverage and, if so, the policy name and number and the names of persons covered under the policy, and (iii) of any new residential or mailing address or telephone number of the non-custodial parent. In any subsequent action to enforce a support order, upon a sufficient showing that a diligent effort has been made to ascertain the location of the non-custodial parent, service of process or provision of notice necessary in the case may be made at the last known address of the non-custodial parent in any manner expressly provided by the Code of Civil Procedure or this Act, which service shall be sufficient for purposes of due process.

(g) An order for support shall include a date on which the current support obligation terminates. The termination date shall be no earlier than the date on which the child covered by the order will attain the age of 18. However, if the child will not graduate from high school until after attaining the age of 18, then the termination date shall be no earlier than the earlier of the date on which the child's high school graduation will occur or the date on which the child will attain the age of 19. The order for support shall state that the termination date does not apply to any arrearage that may remain unpaid on that date. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prevent the court from modifying the order or terminating the order in the event the child is otherwise emancipated.

(g-5) If there is an unpaid arrearage or delinquency (as those terms are defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act) equal to at least one month's support obligation on the termination date stated in the order for support or, if there is no termination date stated in the order, on the date the child attains the age of majority or is otherwise emancipated, the periodic amount required to be paid for current support of that child immediately prior to that date shall automatically continue to be an obligation, not as current support but as periodic payment toward satisfaction of the unpaid arrearage or delinquency. That periodic payment shall be in addition to any periodic payment previously required for satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency. The total periodic amount to be paid toward satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency may be enforced and collected by any method provided by law for enforcement and collection of child support, including but not limited to income withholding under the Income Withholding for Support Act. Each order for support entered or modified on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly must contain a statement notifying the parties of the requirements of this subsection. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the operation of the provisions of this subsection with regard to the order. This subsection shall not be construed to prevent or affect the establishment or modification of an order for support of a minor child or the establishment or modification of an order for support of a non-minor child or educational expenses under Section 513 of this Act.

(h) An order entered under this Section shall include a provision requiring the obligor to report to the obligee and to the clerk of court within 10 days each time the obligor obtains new employment, and each time the obligor's employment is terminated for any reason. The report shall be in writing and shall, in the case of new employment, include the name and address of the new employer. Failure to report new employment or the termination of current employment, if coupled with nonpayment of support for a period in excess of 60 days, is indirect criminal contempt. For any obligor arrested for failure to report new employment bond shall be set in the amount of the child support that should have been paid during the period of unreported employment. An order entered under this Section shall also include a provision requiring the obligor and obligee parents to advise each other of a change in residence within 5 days of the change except when the court finds that the physical, mental, or emotional health of a party or that of a child, or both, would be seriously endangered by disclosure of the party's address.

(i) The court does not lose the powers of contempt, driver's license suspension, or other child support enforcement mechanisms, including, but not limited to, criminal prosecution as set forth in this Act, upon the emancipation of the minor child or children.

(Source: P.A. 96-1134, eff. 7-21-10; 97-186, eff. 7-22-11; 97-608, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-878, eff. 8-2-12; 97-941, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1029, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

Section 495. The Adoption Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(750 ILCS 50/10) (from Ch. 40, par. 1512)

Sec. 10. Forms of consent and surrender; execution and acknowledgment thereof.

A. The form of consent required for the adoption of a born child shall be substantially as follows:

FINAL AND IRREVOCABLE CONSENT TO ADOPTION

I, ...., (relationship, e.g., mother, father, relative, guardian) of ...., a ..male child, state:

That such child was born on .... at ....

That I reside at ...., County of .... and State of ....

That I am of the age of .... years.

That I hereby enter my appearance in this proceeding and waive service of summons on me.

That I hereby acknowledge that I have been provided with a copy of the Birth Parent Rights and Responsibilities-Private Form before signing this Consent and that I have had time to read, or have had read to me, this Form. I understand that if I do not receive any of the rights as described in this Form, it shall not constitute a basis to revoke this Final and Irrevocable Consent.

That I do hereby consent and agree to the adoption of such child.

That I wish to and understand that by signing this consent I do irrevocably and permanently give up all custody and other parental rights I have to such child.

That I understand such child will be placed for adoption and that I cannot under any circumstances, after signing this document, change my mind and revoke or cancel this consent or obtain or recover custody or any other rights over such child. That I have read and understand the above and I am signing it as my free and voluntary act.

Dated (insert date). .........................

If under Section 8 the consent of more than one person is required, then each such person shall execute a separate consent.

A-1. (1) The form of the Final and Irrevocable Consent to Adoption by a Specified Person or Persons: Non-DCFS Case set forth in this subsection A-1 is to be used by legal parents only. This form is not to be used in cases in which there is a pending petition under Section 2-13 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(2) The form of the Final and Irrevocable Consent to Adoption by a Specified Person or Persons in a non-DCFS case shall have the caption of the proceeding in which it is to be filed and shall be substantially as follows:

FINAL AND IRREVOCABLE CONSENT TO ADOPTION BY

A SPECIFIED PERSON OR PERSONS; NON-DCFS CASE

I, ...., (relationship, e.g., mother, father) of ...., a ..male child, state:

1. That such child was born on ...., at ....., City of ... and State of ....

2. That I reside at ...., County of .... and State of ....

3. That I am of the age of .... years.

4. That I hereby enter my appearance in this proceeding and waive service of summons on me.

5. That I hereby acknowledge that I have been provided a copy of the Birth Parent Rights and Responsibilities-Private Form before signing this Consent and that I have had time to read, or have had read to me, this Form and that I understand the Rights and Responsibilities described in this Form. I understand that if I do not receive any of my rights as described in said Form, it shall not constitute a basis to revoke this Final and Irrevocable Consent to Adoption by a Specified Person.

6. That I do hereby consent and agree to the adoption of such child by .... (specified persons) only.

7. That I wish to and understand that upon signing this consent I do irrevocably and permanently give up all custody and other parental rights I have to such child if such child is adopted by .... (specified person or persons). I hereby transfer all of my rights to the custody, care and control of such child to ............................. (specified person or persons).

8. That I understand such child will be adopted by ....................... (specified person or persons) and that I cannot under any circumstances, after signing this document, change my mind and revoke or cancel this consent or obtain or recover custody or any other rights over such child if ............................ (specified person or persons) adopt(s) such child; PROVIDED that each specified person has filed or shall file, within 60 days from the date hereof, a petition for the adoption of such child.

9. That if the specified person or persons designated herein do not file a petition for adoption within the time-frame specified above, or, if said petition for adoption is filed within the time-frame specified above but the adoption petition is dismissed with prejudice or the adoption proceeding is otherwise concluded without an order declaring the child to be the adopted child of the specified person or persons, then I understand that I will receive written notice of such circumstances within 10 business days of their occurrence. I understand that the notice will be directed to me using the contact information I have provided in this consent. I understand that I will have 10 business days from the date that the written notice is sent to me to respond, within which time I may request the Court to declare this consent voidable and return the child to me. I further understand that the Court will make the final decision of whether or not the child will be returned to me. If I do not make such request within 10 business days of the date of the notice, then I expressly waive any other notice or service of process in any legal proceeding for the adoption of the child.

10. That I expressly acknowledge that nothing in this Consent impairs the validity and absolute finality of this Consent under any circumstance other than those described in paragraph 9 of this Consent.

11. That I understand that I have a remaining duty and obligation to keep .............. (insert name and address of the attorney for the specified person or persons) informed of my current address or other preferred contact information until this adoption has been finalized. My failure to do so may result in the termination of my parental rights and the child being placed for adoption in another home.

12. That I do expressly waive any other notice or service of process in any of the legal proceedings for the adoption of the child as long as the adoption proceeding by the specified person or persons is pending.

13. That I have read and understand the above and I am signing it as my free and voluntary act.

14. That I acknowledge that this consent is valid even if the specified person or persons separate or divorce or one of the specified persons dies prior to the entry of the final judgment for adoption.

Dated (insert date).

.............................................

Signature of parent.

.............................................

Address of parent.

.............................................

Phone number(s) of parent.

.............................................

Personal email(s) of parent.

.............................................

(3) The form of the certificate of acknowledgement for a Final and Irrevocable Consent for Adoption by a Specified Person or Persons: Non-DCFS Case shall be substantially as follows:

STATE OF ..............) ) SS. COUNTY OF .............)

I, .................... (Name of Judge or other person), ..................... (official title, name, and address), certify that ............., personally known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed to the foregoing Final and Irrevocable Consent for Adoption by a Specified Person or Persons; non-DCFS case, appeared before me this day in person and acknowledged that (she)(he) signed and delivered the consent as (her)(his) free and voluntary act, for the specified purpose. I am further satisfied that, before signing this Consent, ........ has read, or has had read to him or her, the Birth Parent Rights and Responsibilities-Private Form.

A-2. Birth Parent Rights and Responsibilities-Private Form. The Birth Parent Rights and Responsibilities-Private Form must be read by, or have been read to, any person executing a Final and Irrevocable Consent to Adoption under subsection A, a Final and Irrevocable Consent to Adoption by a Specified Person or Persons: Non-DCFS Case under subsection A-1, or a Consent to Adoption of Unborn Child under subsection B prior to the execution of said Consent. The form of the Birth Parent Rights and Responsibilities-Private Form shall be substantially as follows:

Birth Parent Rights and Responsibilities-Private Form

As a birth parent in the State of Illinois, you have the right:

1. To have your own attorney represent you. The prospective adoptive parents may agree to pay for the cost of your attorney in a manner consistent with Illinois law, but they are not required to do so.

2. To be treated with dignity and respect at all times and to make decisions free from coercion and pressure.

3. To receive counseling before and after signing a Final and Irrevocable Consent to Adoption ("Consent"), a Final and Irrevocable Consent to Adoption by a Specified Person or Persons: Non-DCFS Case ("Specified Consent"), or a Consent to Adoption of Unborn Child ("Unborn Consent"). The prospective adoptive parents may agree to pay for the cost of counseling in a manner consistent with Illinois law, but they are not required to do so.

4. To ask to be involved in choosing your child's prospective adoptive parents and to ask to meet them.

5. To ask your child's prospective adoptive parents any questions that pertain to your decision to place your child with them.

6. To see your child before signing a Consent or Specified Consent.

7. To request contact with your child and/or the child's prospective adoptive parents, with the understanding that any promises regarding contact with your child or receipt of information about the child after signing a Consent, Specified Consent, or Unborn Consent cannot be enforced under Illinois law.

8. To receive copies of all documents that you sign and have those documents provided to you in your preferred language.

9. To request that your identifying information remain confidential, unless required otherwise by Illinois law or court order, and to register with the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange.

10. To work with an adoption agency or attorney of your choice, or change said agency or attorney, provided you promptly inform all of the parties currently involved.

11. To receive, upon request, a written list of any promised support, financial or otherwise, from your attorney or the attorney for your child's prospective adoptive parents.

12. To delay signing a Consent, Specified Consent, or Unborn Consent if you are not ready to do so.

13. To decline to sign a Consent, Specified Consent, or Unborn Consent even if you have received financial support from the prospective adoptive parents.

If you do not receive any of the rights described in this Form, it shall not be a basis to revoke a Consent, Specified Consent, or Unborn Consent.

As a Birth Parent in the State of Illinois, you have the responsibility:

1. To carefully consider your reasons for choosing adoption.

2. To voluntarily provide all known medical, background, and family information about yourself and your immediate family to your child's prospective adoptive parents or their attorney. For the health of your child, you are strongly encouraged, but not required, to provide all known medical, background, and family history information about yourself and your family to your child's prospective adoptive parents or their attorney.

3. (Birth mothers only) To accurately complete an Affidavit of Identification, which identifies the father of the child when known, with the understanding that a birth mother has a right to decline to identify the birth father.

4. To not accept financial support or reimbursement of pregnancy related expenses simultaneously from more than one source.

B. The form of consent required for the adoption of an unborn child shall be substantially as follows:

CONSENT TO ADOPTION OF UNBORN CHILD

I, ...., state:

That I am the father of a child expected to be born on or about .... to .... (name of mother).

That I reside at .... County of ...., and State of .....

That I am of the age of .... years.

That I hereby enter my appearance in such adoption proceeding and waive service of summons on me.

That I hereby acknowledge that I have been provided with a copy of the Birth Parent Rights and Responsibilities-Private Form before signing this Consent, and that I have had time to read, or have had read to me, this Form. I understand that if I do not receive any of the rights as described in this Form, it shall not constitute a basis to revoke this Consent to Adoption of Unborn Child.

That I do hereby consent and agree to the adoption of such child, and that I have not previously executed a consent or surrender with respect to such child.

That I wish to and do understand that by signing this consent I do irrevocably and permanently give up all custody and other parental rights I have to such child, except that I have the right to revoke this consent by giving written notice of my revocation not later than 72 hours after the birth of the child.

That I understand such child will be placed for adoption and that, except as hereinabove provided, I cannot under any circumstances, after signing this document, change my mind and revoke or cancel this consent or obtain or recover custody or any other rights over such child.

That I have read and understand the above and I am signing it as my free and voluntary act.

Dated (insert date).

........................

B-5. (1) The parent of a child may execute a consent to standby adoption by a specified person or persons. A consent under this subsection B-5 shall be acknowledged by a parent pursuant to subsection H and subsection K of this Section. The form of consent required for the standby adoption of a born child effective at a future date when the consenting parent of the child dies or requests that a final judgment of adoption be entered shall be substantially as follows:

FINAL AND IRREVOCABLE CONSENT

TO STANDBY ADOPTION

I, ..., (relationship, e.g. mother or father) of ...., a ..male child, state:

That the child was born on .... at .....

That I reside at ...., County of ...., and State of .....

That I am of the age of .... years.

That I hereby enter my appearance in this proceeding and waive service of summons on me in this action only.

That I do hereby consent and agree to the standby adoption of the child, and that I have not previously executed a consent or surrender with respect to the child.

That I wish to and understand that by signing this consent I do irrevocably and permanently give up all custody and other parental rights I have to the child, effective upon (my death) (the child's other parent's death) or upon (my) (the other parent's) request for the entry of a final judgment for adoption if ..... (specified person or persons) adopt my child.

That I understand that until (I die) (the child's other parent dies), I retain all legal rights and obligations concerning the child, but at that time, I irrevocably give all custody and other parental rights to .... (specified person or persons).

I understand my child will be adopted by ....... (specified person or persons) only and that I cannot, under any circumstances, after signing this document, change my mind and revoke or cancel this consent or obtain or recover custody or any other rights over my child if ..... (specified person or persons) adopt my child.

I understand that this consent to standby adoption is valid only if the petition for standby adoption is filed and that if ....... (specified person or persons), for any reason, cannot or will not file a petition for standby adoption or if his, her, or their petition for standby adoption is denied, then this consent is void. I have the right to notice of any other proceeding that could affect my parental rights.

That I have read and understand the above and I am signing it as my free and voluntary act.

Dated (insert date).

....................

If under Section 8 the consent of more than one person is required, then each such person shall execute a separate consent. A separate consent shall be executed for each child.

(2) If the parent consents to a standby adoption by 2 specified persons, then the form shall contain 2 additional paragraphs in substantially the following form:

If .... (specified persons) obtain a judgment of dissolution of marriage before the judgment for adoption is entered, then ..... (specified person) shall adopt my child. I understand that I cannot change my mind and revoke this consent or obtain or recover custody of my child if ..... (specified persons) obtain a judgment of dissolution of marriage and ..... (specified person) adopts my child. I understand that I cannot change my mind and revoke this consent if ...... (specified persons) obtain a judgment of dissolution of marriage before the adoption is final. I understand that this consent to adoption has no effect on who will get custody of my child if ..... (specified persons) obtain a judgment of dissolution of marriage after the adoption is final. I understand that if either ..... (specified persons) dies before the petition to adopt my child is granted, then the surviving person may adopt my child. I understand that I cannot change my mind and revoke this consent or obtain or recover custody of my child if the surviving person adopts my child.

A consent to standby adoption by specified persons on this form shall have no effect on a court's determination of custody or visitation under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act if the marriage of the specified persons is dissolved before the adoption is final.

(3) The form of the certificate of acknowledgement for a Final and Irrevocable Consent for Standby Adoption shall be substantially as follows:

STATE OF .....) ) SS. COUNTY OF ....)

I, ....... (name of Judge or other person) ..... (official title, name, and address), certify that ......., personally known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed to the foregoing Final and Irrevocable Consent to Standby Adoption, appeared before me this day in person and acknowledged that (she) (he) signed and delivered the consent as (her) (his) free and voluntary act, for the specified purpose.

I have fully explained that this consent to adoption is valid only if the petition to adopt is filed, and that if the specified person or persons, for any reason, cannot or will not adopt the child or if the adoption petition is denied, then this consent will be void. I have fully explained that if the specified person or persons adopt the child, by signing this consent (she) (he) is irrevocably and permanently relinquishing all parental rights to the child, and (she) (he) has stated that such is (her) (his) intention and desire.

Dated (insert date).

Signature ..............................

(4) If a consent to standby adoption is executed in this form, the consent shall be valid only if the specified person or persons adopt the child. The consent shall be void if:

(a) the specified person or persons do not file a petition for standby adoption of the child; or

(b) a court denies the standby adoption petition.

The parent shall not need to take further action to revoke the consent if the standby adoption by the specified person or persons does not occur, notwithstanding the provisions of Section 11 of this Act.

C. The form of surrender to any agency given by a parent of a born child who is to be subsequently placed for adoption shall be substantially as follows and shall contain such other facts and statements as the particular agency shall require.

FINAL AND IRREVOCABLE SURRENDER

FOR PURPOSES OF ADOPTION

I, .... (relationship, e.g., mother, father, relative, guardian) of ...., a ..male child, state:

That such child was born on ...., at .....

That I reside at ...., County of ...., and State of .....

That I am of the age of .... years.

That I do hereby surrender and entrust the entire custody and control of such child to the .... (the "Agency"), a (public) (licensed) child welfare agency with its principal office in the City of ...., County of .... and State of ...., for the purpose of enabling it to care for and supervise the care of such child, to place such child for adoption and to consent to the legal adoption of such child.

That I hereby grant to the Agency full power and authority to place such child with any person or persons it may in its sole discretion select to become the adopting parent or parents and to consent to the legal adoption of such child by such person or persons; and to take any and all measures which, in the judgment of the Agency, may be for the best interests of such child, including authorizing medical, surgical and dental care and treatment including inoculation and anaesthesia for such child.

That I wish to and understand that by signing this surrender I do irrevocably and permanently give up all custody and other parental rights I have to such child.

That I understand I cannot under any circumstances, after signing this surrender, change my mind and revoke or cancel this surrender or obtain or recover custody or any other rights over such child.

That I have read and understand the above and I am signing it as my free and voluntary act.

Dated (insert date).

........................

C-5. The form of a Final and Irrevocable Designated Surrender for Purposes of Adoption to any agency given by a parent of a born child who is to be subsequently placed for adoption is to be used by legal parents only. The form shall be substantially as follows and shall contain such other facts and statements as the particular agency shall require:

FINAL AND IRREVOCABLE DESIGNATED SURRENDER

FOR PURPOSES OF ADOPTION

I, .... (relationship, e.g., mother, father, relative, guardian) of ...., a ..male child, state:

1. That such child was born on ...., at .....

2. That I reside at ...., County of ...., and State of .....

3. That I am of the age of .... years.

4. That I do hereby surrender and entrust the entire custody and control of such child to the .... (the "Agency"), a (public) (licensed) child welfare agency with its principal office in the City of ...., County of .... and State of ...., for the purpose of enabling it to care for and supervise the care of such child, to place such child for adoption with ............................. (specified person or persons) and to consent to the legal adoption of such child and to take any and all measures which, in the judgment of the Agency, may be for the best interests of such child, including authorizing medical, surgical and dental care and treatment including inoculation and anesthesia for such child.

5. That I wish to and understand that by signing this surrender I do irrevocably and permanently give up all custody and other parental rights I have to such child.

6. That if the petition for adoption is not filed by the specified person or persons designated herein or, if the petition for adoption is filed but the adoption petition is dismissed with prejudice or the adoption proceeding is otherwise concluded without an order declaring the child to be the adopted child of each specified person, then I understand that the Agency will provide notice to me within 10 business days and that such notice will be directed to me using the contact information I have provided to the Agency. I understand that I will have 10 business days from the date that the Agency sends me its notice to respond, within which time I may choose to designate other adoptive parent(s). However, I acknowledge that the Agency has full power and authority to place the child for adoption with any person or persons it may in its sole discretion select to become the adopting parent or parents and to consent to the legal adoption of the child by such person or persons.

7. That I acknowledge that this surrender is valid even if the specified persons separate or divorce or one of the specified persons dies prior to the entry of the final judgment for adoption.

8. That I expressly acknowledge that the above paragraphs 6 and 7 do not impair the validity and absolute finality of this surrender under any circumstance.

9. That I understand that I have a remaining obligation to keep the Agency informed of my current contact information until the adoption of the child has been finalized if I wish to be notified in the event the adoption by the specified person(s) cannot proceed.

10. That I understand I cannot under any circumstances, after signing this surrender, change my mind and revoke or cancel this surrender or obtain or recover custody or any other rights over such child.

11. That I have read and understand the above and I am signing it as my free and voluntary act.

Dated (insert date). ..............................

D. The form of surrender to an agency given by a parent of an unborn child who is to be subsequently placed for adoption shall be substantially as follows and shall contain such other facts and statements as the particular agency shall require.

SURRENDER OF UNBORN CHILD FOR

PURPOSES OF ADOPTION

I, .... (father), state:

That I am the father of a child expected to be born on or about .... to .... (name of mother).

That I reside at ...., County of ...., and State of .....

That I am of the age of .... years.

That I do hereby surrender and entrust the entire custody and control of such child to the .... (the "Agency"), a (public) (licensed) child welfare agency with its principal office in the City of ...., County of .... and State of ...., for the purpose of enabling it to care for and supervise the care of such child, to place such child for adoption and to consent to the legal adoption of such child, and that I have not previously executed a consent or surrender with respect to such child.

That I hereby grant to the Agency full power and authority to place such child with any person or persons it may in its sole discretion select to become the adopting parent or parents and to consent to the legal adoption of such child by such person or persons; and to take any and all measures which, in the judgment of the Agency, may be for the best interests of such child, including authorizing medical, surgical and dental care and treatment, including inoculation and anaesthesia for such child.

That I wish to and understand that by signing this surrender I do irrevocably and permanently give up all custody and other parental rights I have to such child.

That I understand I cannot under any circumstances, after signing this surrender, change my mind and revoke or cancel this surrender or obtain or recover custody or any other rights over such child, except that I have the right to revoke this surrender by giving written notice of my revocation not later than 72 hours after the birth of such child.

That I have read and understand the above and I am signing it as my free and voluntary act.

Dated (insert date).

........................

E. The form of consent required from the parents for the adoption of an adult, when such adult elects to obtain such consent, shall be substantially as follows:

CONSENT

I, ...., (father) (mother) of ...., an adult, state:

That I reside at ...., County of .... and State of .....

That I do hereby consent and agree to the adoption of such adult by .... and .....

Dated (insert date).

.........................

F. The form of consent required for the adoption of a child of the age of 14 years or over, or of an adult, to be given by such person, shall be substantially as follows:

CONSENT

I, ...., state:

That I reside at ...., County of .... and State of ..... That I am of the age of .... years. That I hereby enter my appearance in this proceeding and waive service of summons on me. That I consent and agree to my adoption by .... and .....

Dated (insert date).

........................

G. The form of consent given by an agency to the adoption by specified persons of a child previously surrendered to it shall set forth that the agency has the authority to execute such consent. The form of consent given by a guardian of the person of a child sought to be adopted, appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction, shall set forth the facts of such appointment and the authority of the guardian to execute such consent.

H. A consent (other than that given by an agency, or guardian of the person of the child sought to be adopted who was appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction) shall be acknowledged by a parent before a judge of a court of competent jurisdiction or, except as otherwise provided in this Act, before a representative of an agency, or before a person, other than the attorney for the prospective adoptive parent or parents, designated by a court of competent jurisdiction.

I. A surrender, or any other document equivalent to a surrender, by which a child is surrendered to an agency shall be acknowledged by the person signing such surrender, or other document, before a judge of a court of competent jurisdiction, or, except as otherwise provided in this Act, before a representative of an agency, or before a person designated by a court of competent jurisdiction.

J. The form of the certificate of acknowledgment for a consent, a surrender, or any other document equivalent to a surrender, shall be substantially as follows:

STATE OF ....) ) SS. COUNTY OF ...)

I, .... (Name of judge or other person), .... (official title, name and location of court or status or position of other person), certify that ...., personally known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed to the foregoing (consent) (surrender), appeared before me this day in person and acknowledged that (she) (he) signed and delivered such (consent) (surrender) as (her) (his) free and voluntary act, for the specified purpose.

I have fully explained that by signing such (consent) (surrender) (she) (he) is irrevocably relinquishing all parental rights to such child or adult and (she) (he) has stated that such is (her) (his) intention and desire. (Add if Consent only) I am further satisfied that, before signing this Consent, ........ has read, or has had read to him or her, the Birth Parent Rights and Responsibilities-Private Form.

Dated (insert date).

Signature ...............

K. When the execution of a consent or a surrender is acknowledged before someone other than a judge, such other person shall have his or her signature on the certificate acknowledged before a notary public, in form substantially as follows:

STATE OF ....) ) SS. COUNTY OF ...)

I, a Notary Public, in and for the County of ......, in the State of ......, certify that ...., personally known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed to the foregoing certificate of acknowledgment, appeared before me in person and acknowledged that (she) (he) signed such certificate as (her) (his) free and voluntary act and that the statements made in the certificate are true.

Dated (insert date).

Signature ...................... Notary Public

(official seal)

There shall be attached a certificate of magistracy, or other comparable proof of office of the notary public satisfactory to the court, to a consent signed and acknowledged in another state.

L. A surrender or consent executed and acknowledged outside of this State, either in accordance with the law of this State or in accordance with the law of the place where executed, is valid.

M. Where a consent or a surrender is signed in a foreign country, the execution of such consent shall be acknowledged or affirmed in a manner conformable to the law and procedure of such country.

N. If the person signing a consent or surrender is in the military service of the United States, the execution of such consent or surrender may be acknowledged before a commissioned officer and the signature of such officer on such certificate shall be verified or acknowledged before a notary public or by such other procedure as is then in effect for such division or branch of the armed forces.

O. (1) The parent or parents of a child in whose interests a petition under Section 2-13 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is pending may, with the approval of the designated representative of the Department of Children and Family Services ("Department" or "DCFS"), execute a consent to adoption by a specified person or persons:

(a) in whose physical custody the child has resided for at least 6 months; or

(b) in whose physical custody at least one sibling of the child who is the subject of this consent has resided for at least 6 months, and the child who is the subject of this consent is currently residing in this foster home; or

(c) in whose physical custody a child under one year of age has resided for at least 3 months.

The court may waive the time frames in subdivisions (a), (b), and (c) for good cause shown if the court finds it to be in the child's best interests.

A consent under this subsection O shall be acknowledged by a parent pursuant to subsection H and subsection K of this Section.

(2) The final and irrevocable consent to adoption by a specified person or persons in a Department of Children and Family Services (DCFS) case shall be substantially as follows:

FINAL AND IRREVOCABLE CONSENT TO ADOPTION BY

A SPECIFIED PERSON OR PERSONS: DCFS CASE

I, ......................................, the .................. (mother or father) of a ....male child, state:

1. My child ............................ (name of child) was born on (insert date) at .................... Hospital in the municipality of ........., in ................ County, State of ...............

2. I reside at ......................, County of ............. and State of ..............

Mail may also be sent to me at this address ............................, in care of .................

My home telephone number is......................

My cell telephone number is......................

My e-mail address is.................................

3. I, ..........................., am .... years old.

4. I enter my appearance in this action for my child to be adopted by the person or persons specified herein by me and waive service of summons on me in this action only.

5. I hereby acknowledge that I have been provided a copy of the Birth Parent Rights and Responsibilities for DCFS Cases before signing this Consent and that I have had time to read this form or have it read to me and that I understand the rights and responsibilities described in this form. I understand that if I do not receive any of my rights as described in the form, it shall not constitute a basis to revoke this Final and Irrevocable Consent to Adoption by a Specified Person or Persons.

6. I do hereby consent and agree to the adoption of such child by .......... (specified person or persons) only.

7. I wish to sign this consent and I understand that by signing this consent I irrevocably and permanently give up all my parental rights I have to my child.

8. I understand that this consent allows my child to be adopted by .......... only and that I cannot under any circumstances after signing this document change my mind and revoke or cancel this consent.

9. I understand that this consent will be void if:

(a) the Department places my child with someone other than the specified person or persons; or

(b) a court denies the adoption petition for the specified person or persons to adopt my child; or

(c) the DCFS Guardianship Administrator refuses to consent to my child's adoption by the specified person or persons on the basis that the adoption is not in my child's best interests.

I understand that if this consent is void I have parental rights to my child, subject to any applicable court orders including those entered under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, unless and until I sign a new consent or surrender or my parental rights are involuntarily terminated. I understand that if this consent is void, my child may be adopted by someone other than the specified person or persons only if I sign a new consent or surrender, or my parental rights are involuntarily terminated. I understand that if this consent is void, the Department will notify me within 30 days using the addresses and telephone numbers I provided in paragraph 2 of this form. I understand that if I receive such a notice, it is very important that I contact the Department immediately, and preferably within 30 days, to have input into the plan for my child's future.

10. I understand that if a petition for adoption of my child is filed by someone other than the specified person or persons, the Department will notify me within 14 days after the Department becomes aware of the petition. The fact that someone other than the specified person or persons files a petition to adopt my child does not make this consent void.

11. If a person other than the specified person or persons files a petition to adopt my child or if the consent is void under paragraph 9, the Department will send written notice to me using the mailing address and email address provided by me in paragraph 2 of this form. The Department will also contact me using the telephone numbers I provided in paragraph 2 of this form. It is very important that I let the Department know if any of my contact information changes. If I do not let the Department know if any of my contact information changes, I understand that I may not receive notification from the Department if this consent is void or if someone other than the specified person or persons files a petition to adopt my child. If any of my contact information changes, I should immediately notify:

Caseworker's name and telephone number:

............................................................;

Agency name, address, zip code, and telephone number:

............................................................;

Supervisor's name and telephone number:

............................................................;

DCFS Advocacy Office for Children and Families: 800-232-3798.

12. I expressly acknowledge that paragraph 9 (and paragraphs 8a and 8b, if applicable) do not impair the validity and finality of this consent under any circumstances.

13. I have read and understand the above and I am signing it as my free and voluntary act.

Dated (insert date).

.............................................

Signature of parent

(3) If the parent consents to an adoption by 2 specified persons, then the form shall contain 2 additional paragraphs in substantially the following form:

8a. If ............... (specified persons) get a divorce or are granted a dissolution of a civil union before the petition to adopt my child is granted, this consent is valid for ........... (specified person) to adopt my child. I understand that I cannot change my mind or revoke this consent or recover custody of my child on the basis that the specified persons divorce or are granted a dissolution of a civil union.

8b. I understand that if either ............... (specified persons) dies before the petition to adopt my child is granted, this consent remains valid for the surviving person to adopt my child. I understand that I cannot change my mind or revoke this consent or recover custody of my child on the basis that one of the specified persons dies.

(4) The form of the certificate of acknowledgement for a Final and Irrevocable Consent for Adoption by a Specified Person or Persons: DCFS Case shall be substantially as follows:

STATE OF ..............) ) SS. COUNTY OF .............)

I, .................... (Name of Judge or other person), ..................... (official title, name, and address), certify that ............., personally known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed to the foregoing Final and Irrevocable Consent for Adoption by a Specified Person or Persons: DCFS Case, appeared before me this day in person and acknowledged that (she)(he) signed and delivered the consent as (her)(his) free and voluntary act, for the specified purpose.

I have fully explained that by signing this consent this parent is irrevocably and permanently relinquishing all parental rights to the child so that the child may be adopted by a specified person or persons, and this parent has stated that such is (her)(his) intention and desire. I have fully explained that this consent is void only if:

(a) the placement is disrupted and the child is moved to a different placement; or

(b) a court denies the petition for adoption; or

(c) the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator refuses to consent to the child's adoption by a specified person or persons on the basis that the adoption is not in the child's best interests.

Dated (insert date).

...............................

Signature

(5) If a consent to adoption by a specified person or persons is executed in this form, the following provisions shall apply. The consent shall be valid only for the specified person or persons to adopt the child. The consent shall be void if:

(a) the placement disrupts and the child is moved to another placement; or

(b) a court denies the petition for adoption; or

(c) the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator refuses to consent to the child's adoption by the specified person or persons on the basis that the adoption is not in the child's best interests.

If the consent is void under this Section, the parent shall not need to take further action to revoke the consent. No proceeding for termination of parental rights shall be brought unless the parent who executed the consent to adoption by a specified person or persons has been notified of the proceedings pursuant to Section 7 of this Act or subsection (4) of Section 2-13 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(6) The Department of Children and Family Services is authorized to promulgate rules necessary to implement this subsection O.

(7) (Blank).

(8) The Department of Children and Family Services shall promulgate a rule and procedures regarding Consents to Adoption by a Specified Person or Persons in DCFS cases. The rule and procedures shall provide for the development of the Birth Parent Rights and Responsibilities Form for DCFS Cases.

(9) A consent to adoption by specified persons on this consent form shall have no effect on a court's determination of custody or visitation under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act or the Illinois Religious Freedom Protection and Civil Union Act if the marriage or civil union of the specified persons is dissolved after the adoption is final.

P. If the person signing a consent is incarcerated or detained in a correctional facility, prison, jail, detention center, or other comparable institution, either in this State or any other jurisdiction, the execution of such consent may be acknowledged before social service personnel of such institution, or before a person designated by a court of competent jurisdiction.

Q. A consent may be acknowledged telephonically, via audiovisual connection, or other electronic means, provided that a court of competent jurisdiction has entered an order approving the execution of the consent in such manner and has designated an individual to be physically present with the parent executing such consent in order to verify the identity of the parent.

R. An agency whose representative is acknowledging a consent pursuant to this Section shall be a public child welfare agency, or a child welfare agency, or a child placing agency that is authorized or licensed in the State or jurisdiction in which the consent is signed.

S. The form of waiver by a putative or legal father of a born or unborn child shall be substantially as follows:

FINAL AND IRREVOCABLE

WAIVER OF PARENTAL RIGHTS OF PUTATIVE OR LEGAL FATHER

I, .................... , state under oath or affirm as follows:

1. That the biological mother ............... has named me as a possible biological or legal father of her minor child who was born, or is expected to be born on ..........., ......, in the City/Town of........., State of ...........

2. That I understand that the biological mother ............. intends to or has placed the child for adoption.

3. That I reside at ................, in the City/Town of..........., State of ................

4. That I am ................ years of age and my date of birth is ..............., .............

5. That I (select one):

..... am married to the biological mother.

..... am not married to the biological mother and have not been married to the biological mother within 300 days before the child's birth or expected date of child's birth.

..... am not currently married to the biological mother, but was married to the biological mother, within 300 days before the child's birth or expected date of child's birth.

6. That I (select one):

..... neither admit nor deny that I am the biological father of the child.

..... deny that I am the biological father of the child.

7. That I hereby agree to the termination of my parental rights, if any, without further notice to me of any proceeding for the adoption of the minor child, even if I have taken any action to establish parental rights or take any such action in the future including registering with any putative father registry.

8. That I understand that by signing this Waiver I do irrevocably and permanently give up all custody and other parental rights I may have to such child.

9. That I understand that this Waiver is FINAL AND IRREVOCABLE and that I am permanently barred from contesting any proceeding for the adoption of the child after I sign this Waiver.

10. That I waive any further service of summons or other pleadings in any proceeding to terminate parental rights, if any to this child, or any proceeding for adoption of this child.

11. That I understand that if a final judgment or order of adoption for this child is not entered, then any parental rights or responsibilities that I may have remain intact.

12. That I have read and understand the above and that I am signing it as my free and voluntary act.

Dated: ................... , ..............

...........................................

Signature

OATH I have been duly sworn and I state under oath that I have read and understood this Final and Irrevocable Waiver of Parental Rights of Putative or Legal Father. The facts contained in it are true and correct to the best of my knowledge. I have signed this document as my free and voluntary act in order to facilitate the adoption of the child.

.............................. Signature

Signed and Sworn before me on this ............ day of ..........., 20....

................... Notary Public

(Source: P.A. 96-601, eff. 8-21-09; 96-1461, eff. 1-1-11; 97-493, eff. 8-22-11; 97-988, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1063, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 500. The Disposition of Remains Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(755 ILCS 65/5)

Sec. 5. Right to control disposition; priority. Unless a decedent has left directions in writing for the disposition or designated an agent to direct the disposition of the decedent's remains as provided in Section 65 of the Crematory Regulation Act or in subsection (a) of Section 40 of this Act, the following persons, in the priority listed, have the right to control the disposition, including cremation, of the decedent's remains and are liable for the reasonable costs of the disposition:

(1) the person designated in a written instrument that satisfies the provisions of Sections 10 and 15 of this Act;

(2) any person serving as executor or legal representative of the decedent's estate and acting according to the decedent's written instructions contained in the decedent's will;

(3) the individual who was the spouse of the decedent at the time of the decedent's death;

(4) the sole surviving competent adult child of the decedent, or if there is more than one surviving competent adult child of the decedent, the majority of the surviving competent adult children; however, less than one-half of the surviving adult children shall be vested with the rights and duties of this Section if they have used reasonable efforts to notify all other surviving competent adult children of their instructions and are not aware of any opposition to those instructions on the part of more than one-half of all surviving competent adult children;

(5) the surviving competent parents of the decedent; if one of the surviving competent parents is absent, the remaining competent parent shall be vested with the rights and duties of this Act after reasonable efforts have been unsuccessful in locating the absent surviving competent parent;

(6) the surviving competent adult person or persons respectively in the next degrees of kindred or, if there is more than one surviving competent adult person of the same degree of kindred, the majority of those persons; less than the majority of surviving competent adult persons of the same degree of kindred shall be vested with the rights and duties of this Act if those persons have used reasonable efforts to notify all other surviving competent adult persons of the same degree of kindred of their instructions and are not aware of any opposition to those instructions on the part of one-half or more of all surviving competent adult persons of the same degree of kindred;

(7) in the case of indigents or any other individuals whose final disposition is the responsibility of the State or any of its instrumentalities, a public administrator, medical examiner, coroner, State appointed guardian, or any other public official charged with arranging the final disposition of the decedent;

(8) in the case of individuals who have donated their bodies to science, or whose death occurred in a nursing home or other private institution, who have executed cremation authorization forms under Section 65 of the Crematory Regulation Act and the institution is charged with making arrangements for the final disposition of the decedent, a representative of the institution; or

(9) any other person or organization that is willing to assume legal and financial responsibility.

As used in Section, "adult" means any individual who has reached his or her eighteenth birthday.

Notwithstanding provisions to the contrary, in the case of decedents who die while serving as members of the United States Armed Forces, the Illinois National Guard, or the United States Reserve Reserved Forces, as defined in Section 1481 of Title 10 of the United States Code, and who have executed the required U.S. Department of Defense Record of Emergency Data Form (DD Form 93), or successor form, the person designated in such form to direct disposition of the decedent's remains shall have the right to control the disposition, including cremation, of the decedent's remains.

(Source: P.A. 96-1243, eff. 7-23-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 505. The Residential Real Property Disclosure Act is amended by changing Section 78 as follows:

(765 ILCS 77/78)

Sec. 78. Exemption. Borrowers applying for reverse mortgage financing of residential real estate including under programs regulated by the Federal Housing Administration Authority (FHA) that require HUD-certified counseling are exempt from the program and may submit a HUD counseling certificate to comply with the program.

(Source: P.A. 95-691, eff. 6-1-08; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 510. The Land Sales Registration Act of 1999 is amended by changing Section 20-25 as follows:

(765 ILCS 86/20-25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 20-25. Real Estate License Administration Fund. All fees collected for registration and for civil penalties pursuant to this Act and administrative rules adopted under this Act shall be deposited into the Real Estate License Administration Fund. The moneys deposited in the Real Estate License Administration License Fund shall be appropriated to the Department for expenses for the administration and enforcement of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-855, eff. 12-31-09; revised 10-18-12.)

Section 515. The Condominium Property Act is amended by changing Section 22.2 as follows:

(765 ILCS 605/22.2)

Sec. 22.2. Resale approval. In the event of a sale of a condominium unit by a unit owner, no condominium association shall exercise any right of refusal, option to purchase, or right to disapprove the sale, on the basis that the purchaser's financing is guaranteed by the Federal Housing Administration Authority.

(Source: P.A. 96-228, eff. 1-1-10; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 520. The Health Care Services Lien Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(770 ILCS 23/30)

Sec. 30. Adjudication of rights. On petition filed by the injured person or the health care professional or health care provider and on the petitioner's written notice to all interested adverse parties, the circuit court shall adjudicate the rights of all interested parties and enforce their liens. A lien created under the Crime Victims Compensation Act may be reduced only by the Court of Claims.

A petition filed under this Section may be served upon the interested adverse parties by personal service, substitute service, or registered or certified mail.

(Source: P.A. 97-817, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1042, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

Section 525. The Illinois Development Credit Corporation Act is amended by changing Section 6.1 as follows:

(805 ILCS 35/6.1)

Sec. 6.1. All moneys received by the Department of Financial Institutions under this Act shall be deposited in the Financial Institution Institutions Fund created under Section 6z-26 of the State Finance Act.

(Source: P.A. 88-13; revised 10-18-12.)

Section 530. The Uniform Limited Partnership Act (2001) is amended by changing Sections 117 and 1308 as follows:

(805 ILCS 215/117)

Sec. 117. Service of process.

(a) An agent for service of process appointed by a limited partnership or foreign limited partnership is an agent of the limited partnership or foreign limited partnership for service of any process, notice, or demand required or permitted by law to be served upon the limited partnership or foreign limited partnership.

(b) If a limited partnership or foreign limited partnership does not appoint or maintain an agent for service of process in this State or the agent for service of process cannot with reasonable diligence be found at the agent's address, the Secretary of State is an agent of the limited partnership or foreign limited partnership upon whom process, notice, or demand may be served.

(c) Service under subsection (b) shall be made by the person instituting the action by doing all of the following:

(1) serving upon the Secretary of State, or upon any employee having responsibility for administering this Act, a copy of the process, notice, or demand, together with any papers required by law to be delivered in connection with service and paying the fee prescribed by Section 1302 of this Act;

(2) transmitting notice of the service upon the Secretary of State and a copy of the process, notice, or demand and accompanying papers to the limited partnership being served, by registered or certified mail:

(A) at the last address of the agent for service of process for the limited partnership or foreign limited partnership shown by the records on file in the Office of the Secretary of State; and

(B) at the address the use of which the person instituting the action, suit, or proceeding knows or, on the basis of reasonable inquiry, has reason to believe, is most likely to result in actual notice; .

(3) attaching an affidavit of compliance with this Section, in substantially the form that the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe, to the process, notice, or demand.

(d) Service is effected under subsection (c) at the earliest of:

(1) the date the limited partnership or foreign limited partnership receives the process, notice, or demand;

(2) the date shown on the return receipt, if signed on behalf of the limited partnership or foreign limited partnership; or

(3) five days after the process, notice, or demand is deposited in the mail, if mailed postpaid and correctly addressed.

(e) The Secretary of State shall keep a record of each process, notice, and demand served pursuant to this Section and record the time of, and the action taken regarding, the service.

(f) This Section does not affect the right to serve process, notice, or demand in any other manner provided by law.

(Source: P.A. 97-839, eff. 7-20-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(805 ILCS 215/1308)

Sec. 1308. Department of Business Services Special Operations Fund.

(a) A special fund in the State Treasury is created and shall be known as the Department of Business Services Special Operations Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Department of Business Services of the Office of the Secretary of State, hereinafter "Department", to create and maintain the capability to perform expedited services in response to special requests made by the public for same day or 24 hour service. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall be used for, but not limited to, expenditures for personal services, retirement, Social Security, contractual services, equipment, electronic data processing, and telecommunications.

(b) The balance in the Fund at the end of any fiscal year shall not exceed $600,000 and any amount in excess thereof shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund.

(c) All fees payable to the Secretary of State under this Section shall be deposited into the Fund. No other fees or charges collected under this Act shall be deposited into the Fund.

(d) "Expedited services" means services rendered within the same day, or within 24 hours from the time the request therefor is submitted by the filer, law firm, service company, or messenger physically in person or, at the Secretary of State's discretion, by electronic means, to the Department's Springfield Office or Chicago Office and includes requests for certified copies, photocopies, and certificates of existence or abstracts of computer record made to the Department's Springfield Office in person or by telephone, or requests for certificates of existence or abstracts of computer record made in person or by telephone to the Department's Chicago Office.

(e) Fees for expedited services shall be as follows:

Merger or conversion, $200;

Certificate of limited partnership, $100;

Certificate of amendment, $100;

Reinstatement, $100;

Application for admission to transact business, $100;

Certificate of existence or abstract of computer record, $20; .

All other filings, copies of documents, annual renewal reports, and copies of documents of canceled limited partnerships, $50.

(Source: P.A. 97-839, eff. 7-20-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 535. The Uniform Commercial Code is amended by changing Section 9-516 as follows:

(810 ILCS 5/9-516)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1034)

Sec. 9-516. What constitutes filing; effectiveness of filing.

(a) What constitutes filing. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), communication of a record to a filing office and tender of the filing fee or acceptance of the record by the filing office constitutes filing.

(b) Refusal to accept record; filing does not occur. Filing does not occur with respect to a record that a filing office refuses to accept because:

(1) the record is not communicated by a method or medium of communication authorized by the filing office;

(2) an amount equal to or greater than the applicable filing fee is not tendered;

(3) the filing office is unable to index the record because:

(A) in the case of an initial financing statement, the record does not provide a name for the debtor;

(B) in the case of an amendment or correction statement, the record:

(i) does not identify the initial financing statement as required by Section 9-512 or 9-518, as applicable;

(ii) identifies an initial financing statement whose effectiveness has lapsed under Section 9-515; or

(iii) identifies an initial financing statement which was terminated pursuant to Section 9-501.1;

(C) in the case of an initial financing statement that provides the name of a debtor identified as an individual or an amendment that provides a name of a debtor identified as an individual which was not previously provided in the financing statement to which the record relates, the record does not identify the debtor's last name;

(D) in the case of a record filed or recorded in the filing office described in Section 9-501(a)(1), the record does not provide a sufficient description of the real property to which it relates; or

(E) in the case of a record submitted to the filing office described in Section 9-501(a)(1), the filing office has reason to believe, from information contained in the record or from the person that communicated the record to the office, that: (i) if the record indicates that the debtor is a transmitting utility, the debtor does not meet the definition of a transmitting utility as described in Section 9-102(a)(81); (ii) if the record indicates that the transaction relating to the record is a manufactured-home transaction, the transaction does not meet the definition of a manufactured-home transaction as described in Section 9-102(a)(54); or (iii) if the record indicates that the transaction relating to the record is a public-finance transaction, the transaction does not meet the definition of a public-finance transaction as described in Section 9-102(a)(67);

(3.5) in the case of an initial financing statement or an amendment, if the filing office believes in good faith that the record was communicated to the filing office in violation of Section 9-501.1(a);

(4) in the case of an initial financing statement or an amendment that adds a secured party of record, the record does not provide a name and mailing address for the secured party of record;

(5) in the case of an initial financing statement or an amendment that provides a name of a debtor which was not previously provided in the financing statement to which the amendment relates, the record does not:

(A) provide a mailing address for the debtor;

(B) indicate whether the debtor is an individual or an organization; or

(C) if the financing statement indicates that the debtor is an organization, provide:

(i) a type of organization for the debtor;

(ii) a jurisdiction of organization for the debtor; or

(iii) an organizational identification number for the debtor or indicate that the debtor has none;

(6) in the case of an assignment reflected in an initial financing statement under Section 9-514(a) or an amendment filed under Section 9-514(b), the record does not provide a name and mailing address for the assignee; or

(7) in the case of a continuation statement, the record is not filed within the six-month period prescribed by Section 9-515(d).

(c) Rules applicable to subsection (b). For purposes of subsection (b):

(1) a record does not provide information if the filing office is unable to read or decipher the information; and

(2) a record that does not indicate that it is an amendment or identify an initial financing statement to which it relates, as required by Section 9-512, 9-514, or 9-518, is an initial financing statement.

(d) Refusal to accept record; record effective as filed record. A record that is communicated to the filing office with tender of the filing fee, but which the filing office refuses to accept for a reason other than one set forth in subsection (b), is effective as a filed record except as against a purchaser of the collateral which gives value in reasonable reliance upon the absence of the record from the files.

(e) The Secretary of State may refuse to accept a record for filing under subdivision (b)(3)(E) or (b)(3.5) only if the refusal is approved by the Department of Business Services of the Secretary of State and the General Counsel to the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 97-836, eff. 7-20-12.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1034)

Sec. 9-516. What constitutes filing; effectiveness of filing.

(a) What constitutes filing. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), communication of a record to a filing office and tender of the filing fee or acceptance of the record by the filing office constitutes filing.

(b) Refusal to accept record; filing does not occur. Filing does not occur with respect to a record that a filing office refuses to accept because:

(1) the record is not communicated by a method or medium of communication authorized by the filing office;

(2) an amount equal to or greater than the applicable filing fee is not tendered;

(3) the filing office is unable to index the record because:

(A) in the case of an initial financing statement, the record does not provide a name for the debtor;

(B) in the case of an amendment or information statement, the record:

(i) does not identify the initial financing statement as required by Section 9-512 or 9-518, as applicable;

(ii) identifies an initial financing statement whose effectiveness has lapsed under Section 9-515; or

(iii) identifies an initial financing statement which was terminated pursuant to Section 9-501.1;

(C) in the case of an initial financing statement that provides the name of a debtor identified as an individual or an amendment that provides a name of a debtor identified as an individual which was not previously provided in the financing statement to which the record relates, the record does not identify the debtor's surname;

(D) in the case of a record filed or recorded in the filing office described in Section 9-501(a)(1), the record does not provide a sufficient description of the real property to which it relates; or

(E) in the case of a record submitted to the filing office described in Section 9-501(a)(1), the filing office has reason to believe, from information contained in the record or from the person that communicated the record to the office, that: (i) if the record indicates that the debtor is a transmitting utility, the debtor does not meet the definition of a transmitting utility as described in Section 9-102(a)(81); (ii) if the record indicates that the transaction relating to the record is a manufactured-home transaction, the transaction does not meet the definition of a manufactured-home transaction as described in Section 9-102(a)(54); or (iii) if the record indicates that the transaction relating to the record is a public-finance transaction, the transaction does not meet the definition of a public-finance transaction as described in Section 9-102(a)(67);

(3.5) in the case of an initial financing statement or an amendment, if the filing office believes in good faith that the record was communicated to the filing office in violation of Section 9-501.1(a);

(4) in the case of an initial financing statement or an amendment that adds a secured party of record, the record does not provide a name and mailing address for the secured party of record;

(5) in the case of an initial financing statement or an amendment that provides a name of a debtor which was not previously provided in the financing statement to which the amendment relates, the record does not:

(A) provide a mailing address for the debtor; or

(B) indicate whether the name provided as the name of the debtor is the name of an individual or an organization;

(6) in the case of an assignment reflected in an initial financing statement under Section 9-514(a) or an amendment filed under Section 9-514(b), the record does not provide a name and mailing address for the assignee; or

(7) in the case of a continuation statement, the record is not filed within the six-month period prescribed by Section 9-515(d).

(c) Rules applicable to subsection (b). For purposes of subsection (b):

(1) a record does not provide information if the filing office is unable to read or decipher the information; and

(2) a record that does not indicate that it is an amendment or identify an initial financing statement to which it relates, as required by Section 9-512, 9-514, or 9-518, is an initial financing statement.

(d) Refusal to accept record; record effective as filed record. A record that is communicated to the filing office with tender of the filing fee, but which the filing office refuses to accept for a reason other than one set forth in subsection (b), is effective as a filed record except as against a purchaser of the collateral which gives value in reasonable reliance upon the absence of the record from the files.

(e) The Secretary of State may refuse to accept a record for filing under subdivision (b)(3)(E) or (b)(3.5) only if the refusal is approved by the Department of Business Services of the Secretary of State and the General Counsel to the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 97-836, eff. 7-20-12; 97-1034, eff. 7-1-13; revised 9-11-12.)

Section 540. The Recyclable Metal Purchase Registration Law is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(815 ILCS 325/3) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 323)

Sec. 3. Records of purchases. Except as provided in Section 5 of this Act every recyclable metal dealer in this State shall enter into an electronic record-keeping system for each purchase of recyclable metal or recyclable metal containing copper the following information:

1. The name and address of the recyclable metal dealer;

2. The date and place of each purchase;

3. The name and address of the person or persons from whom the recyclable metal was purchased, which shall be verified from a valid driver's license or other government-issued photo identification. The recyclable metal dealer shall make and record a photocopy or electronic scan of the driver's license or other government-issued photo identification. If the person delivering the recyclable metal does not have a valid driver's license or other government-issued photo identification, the recyclable metal dealer shall not complete the transaction;

4. The motor vehicle license number and state of issuance of the motor vehicle license number of the vehicle or conveyance on which the recyclable metal was delivered to the recyclable metal dealer;

5. A description of the recyclable metal purchased, including the weight and whether it consists of bars, cable, ingots, rods, tubing, wire, wire scraps, clamps, connectors, other appurtenances, or some combination thereof;

6. Photographs or video, or both, of the seller and of the materials as presented on the scale; and

7. A declaration signed and dated by the person or persons from whom the recyclable metal was purchased which states the following:

"I, the undersigned, affirm under penalty of law that the property that is subject to this transaction is not to the best of my knowledge stolen property.".

A copy of the recorded information shall be kept in an electronic record-keeping system by the recyclable metal dealer. Purchase records shall be retained for a period of 3 years. Photographs shall be retained for a period of 3 months and video recordings shall be retained for a period of one month. The electronic record-keeping system shall be made available for inspection by any law enforcement official or the representatives of common carriers and persons, firms, corporations or municipal corporations engaged in either the generation, transmission or distribution of electric energy or engaged in telephone, telegraph or other communications, at any time.

(Source: P.A. 96-507, eff. 8-14-09; 97-923, eff. 1-1-13; 97-924, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

Section 545. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2MMM as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2MMM)

Sec. 2MMM. Violations of the Private Business and Vocational Schools Act of 2012. A school subject to the Private Business and Vocational Schools Act of 2012 commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act when it violates subsection (k) of Section 85 of the Private Business and Vocational Schools Act of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 97-650, eff. 2-1-12.)

(815 ILCS 505/2PPP)

Sec. 2PPP 2MMM. Internet dating safety. It is an unlawful practice under this Act for an Internet dating service to fail to provide notice or falsely indicate that it has performed criminal background screenings in accordance with the Internet Dating Safety Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1056, eff. 8-24-12; revised 1-24-13.)

Section 550. The Day and Temporary Labor Services Act is amended by changing Section 80 as follows:

(820 ILCS 175/80)

Sec. 80. Child Labor and Day and Temporary Labor Services Enforcement Fund. All moneys received as fees and civil penalties under this Act shall be deposited into the Child Labor and Day and Temporary Labor Services Enforcement Fund and may be used for the purposes set forth in Section 17.3 of the Child Labor Law.

(Source: P.A. 92-783, eff. 1-1-03; revised 10-18-12.)

Section 555. The Child Labor Law is amended by changing Section 17.3 as follows:

(820 ILCS 205/17.3) (from Ch. 48, par. 31.17-3)

Sec. 17.3. Any employer who violates any of the provisions of this Act or any rule or regulation issued under the Act shall be subject to a civil penalty of not to exceed $5,000 for each such violation. In determining the amount of such penalty, the appropriateness of such penalty to the size of the business of the employer charged and the gravity of the violation shall be considered. The amount of such penalty, when finally determined, may be

(1) recovered in a civil action brought by the Director of Labor in any circuit court, in which litigation the Director of Labor shall be represented by the Attorney General;

(2) ordered by the court, in an action brought for violation under Section 19, to be paid to the Director of Labor.

Any administrative determination by the Department of Labor of the amount of each penalty shall be final unless reviewed as provided in Section 17.1 of this Act.

Civil penalties recovered under this Section shall be paid into the Child Labor and Day and Temporary Labor Services Enforcement Fund, a special fund which is hereby created in the State treasury. Moneys in the Fund may be used, subject to appropriation, for exemplary programs, demonstration projects, and other activities or purposes related to the enforcement of this Act or for the activities or purposes related to the enforcement of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-783, eff. 1-1-03; revised 10-18-12.)

Section 560. The Unemployment Insurance Act is amended by changing Sections 1402 and 1801.1 as follows:

(820 ILCS 405/1402) (from Ch. 48, par. 552)

Sec. 1402. Penalties.

A. If any employer fails, within the time prescribed in this Act as amended and in effect on October 5, 1980, and the regulations of the Director, to file a report of wages paid to each of his workers, or to file a sufficient report of such wages after having been notified by the Director to do so, for any period which begins prior to January 1, 1982, he shall pay to the Department as a penalty a sum determined in accordance with the provisions of this Act as amended and in effect on October 5, 1980.

B. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, any employer who fails to file a report of wages paid to each of his workers for any period which begins on or after January 1, 1982, within the time prescribed by the provisions of this Act and the regulations of the Director, or, if the Director pursuant to such regulations extends the time for filing the report, fails to file it within the extended time, shall, in addition to any sum otherwise payable by him under the provisions of this Act, pay to the Department as a penalty a sum equal to the lesser of (1) $5 for each $10,000 or fraction thereof of the total wages for insured work paid by him during the period or (2) $2,500, for each month or part thereof of such failure to file the report. With respect to an employer who has elected to file reports of wages on an annual basis pursuant to Section 1400.2, in assessing penalties for the failure to submit all reports by the due date established pursuant to that Section, the 30-day period immediately following the due date shall be considered as one month.

If the Director deems an employer's report of wages paid to each of his workers for any period which begins on or after January 1, 1982, insufficient, he shall notify the employer to file a sufficient report. If the employer fails to file such sufficient report within 30 days after the mailing of the notice to him, he shall, in addition to any sum otherwise payable by him under the provisions of this Act, pay to the Department as a penalty a sum determined in accordance with the provisions of the first paragraph of this subsection, for each month or part thereof of such failure to file such sufficient report after the date of the notice.

For wages paid in calendar years prior to 1988, the penalty or penalties which accrue under the two foregoing paragraphs with respect to a report for any period shall not be less than $100, and shall not exceed the lesser of (1) $10 for each $10,000 or fraction thereof of the total wages for insured work paid during the period or (2) $5,000. For wages paid in calendar years after 1987, the penalty or penalties which accrue under the 2 foregoing paragraphs with respect to a report for any period shall not be less than $50, and shall not exceed the lesser of (1) $10 for each $10,000 or fraction of the total wages for insured work paid during the period or (2) $5,000. With respect to an employer who has elected to file reports of wages on an annual basis pursuant to Section 1400.2, for purposes of calculating the minimum penalty prescribed by this Section for failure to file the reports on a timely basis, a calendar year shall constitute a single period. For reports of wages paid after 1986, the Director shall not, however, impose a penalty pursuant to either of the two foregoing paragraphs on any employer who can prove within 30 working days after the mailing of a notice of his failure to file such a report, that (1) the failure to file the report is his first such failure during the previous 20 consecutive calendar quarters, and (2) the amount of the total contributions due for the calendar quarter of such report (or, in the case of an employer who is required to file the reports on a monthly basis, the amount of the total contributions due for the calendar quarter that includes the month of such report) is less than $500.

For any month which begins on or after January 1, 2013, a report of the wages paid to each of an employer's workers shall be due on or before the last day of the month next following the calendar month in which the wages were paid if the employer is required to report such wages electronically pursuant to the regulations of the Director; otherwise a report of the wages paid to each of the employer's workers shall be due on or before the last day of the month next following the calendar quarter in which the wages were paid.

Any employer who wilfully fails to pay any contribution or part thereof, based upon wages paid prior to 1987, when required by the provisions of this Act and the regulations of the Director, with intent to defraud the Director, shall in addition to such contribution or part thereof pay to the Department a penalty equal to 50 percent of the amount of such contribution or part thereof, as the case may be, provided that the penalty shall not be less than $200.

Any employer who willfully fails to pay any contribution or part thereof, based upon wages paid in 1987 and in each calendar year thereafter, when required by the provisions of this Act and the regulations of the Director, with intent to defraud the Director, shall in addition to such contribution or part thereof pay to the Department a penalty equal to 60% of the amount of such contribution or part thereof, as the case may be, provided that the penalty shall not be less than $400.

However, all or part of any penalty may be waived by the Director for good cause shown.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-791, eff. 1-1-13; revised 7-23-12.)

(820 ILCS 405/1801.1)

Sec. 1801.1. Directory of New Hires.

A. The Director shall establish and operate an automated directory of newly hired employees which shall be known as the "Illinois Directory of New Hires" which shall contain the information required to be reported by employers to the Department under subsection B. In the administration of the Directory, the Director shall comply with any requirements concerning the Employer New Hire Reporting Program established by the federal Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996. The Director is authorized to use the information contained in the Directory of New Hires to administer any of the provisions of this Act.

B. Each employer in Illinois, except a department, agency, or instrumentality of the United States, shall file with the Department a report in accordance with rules adopted by the Department (but in any event not later than 20 days after the date the employer hires the employee or, in the case of an employer transmitting reports magnetically or electronically, by 2 monthly transmissions, if necessary, not less than 12 days nor more than 16 days apart) providing the following information concerning each newly hired employee: the employee's name, address, and social security number, the date services for remuneration were first performed by the employee, the employee's projected monthly wages, and the employer's name, address, Federal Employer Identification Number assigned under Section 6109 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, and such other information as may be required by federal law or regulation, provided that each employer may voluntarily file the address to which the employer wants income withholding orders to be mailed, if it is different from the address given on the Federal Employer Identification Number. An employer in Illinois which transmits its reports electronically or magnetically and which also has employees in another state may report all newly hired employees to a single designated state in which the employer has employees if it has so notified the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services in writing. An employer may, at its option, submit information regarding any rehired employee in the same manner as information is submitted regarding a newly hired employee. Each report required under this subsection shall, to the extent practicable, be made on an Internal Revenue Service Form W-4 or, at the option of the employer, an equivalent form, and may be transmitted by first class mail, by telefax, magnetically, or electronically.

C. An employer which knowingly fails to comply with the reporting requirements established by this Section shall be subject to a civil penalty of $15 for each individual whom it fails to report. An employer shall be considered to have knowingly failed to comply with the reporting requirements established by this Section with respect to an individual if the employer has been notified by the Department that it has failed to report an individual, and it fails, without reasonable cause, to supply the required information to the Department within 21 days after the date of mailing of the notice. Any individual who knowingly conspires with the newly hired employee to cause the employer to fail to report the information required by this Section or who knowingly conspires with the newly hired employee to cause the employer to file a false or incomplete report shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor with a fine not to exceed $500 with respect to each employee with whom the individual so conspires.

D. As used in this Section, "newly hired employee" means an individual who (i) is an employee within the meaning of Chapter 24 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 and (ii) either has not previously been employed by the employer or was previously employed by the employer but has been separated from that prior employment for at least 60 consecutive days; however, "newly hired employee" does not include an employee of a federal or State agency performing intelligence or counterintelligence functions, if the head of that agency has determined that the filing of the report required by this Section with respect to the employee could endanger the safety of the employee or compromise an ongoing investigation or intelligence mission.

Notwithstanding Section 205, and for the purposes of this Section only, the term "employer" has the meaning given by Section 3401(d) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 and includes any governmental entity and labor organization as defined by Section 2(5) of the National Labor Relations Act, and includes any entity (also known as a hiring hall) which is used by the organization and an employer to carry out the requirements described in Section 8(f)(3) of that Act of an agreement between the organization and the employer.

(Source: P.A. 97-621, eff. 11-18-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-791, eff. 1-1-13; revised 7-23-12.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.