SB3798 97TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB097 15738 AMC 60882 b

97TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2011 and 2012
SB3798

Introduced 2/10/2012, by Sen. William R. Haine

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Creates the First 2012 General Revisory Act. Combines multiple versions of Sections amended by more than one Public Act. Renumbers Sections of various Acts to eliminate duplication. Corrects obsolete cross-references and technical errors. Makes stylistic changes. Effective immediately.

FISCAL NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

PENSION IMPACT NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

A BILL FOR

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2012 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 96-1480 through 97-625 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Sections 4.32 and 7 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.32)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-576)

Sec. 4.32. Acts Act repealed on January 1, 2022. The following Acts are Act is repealed on January 1, 2022:

The Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act.

The Detection of Deception Examiners Act.

The Home Inspector License Act.

The Interior Design Title Act.

The Massage Licensing Act.

The Petroleum Equipment Contractors Licensing Act.

The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002.

The Water Well and Pump Installation Contractor's License Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-24, eff. 6-28-11; 97-119, eff. 7-14-11; 97-168, eff. 7-22-11; 97-226, eff. 7-28-11; 97-428, eff. 8-16-11; 97-514, eff. 8-23-11; 97-598, eff. 8-26-11; 97-602, eff. 8-26-11; revised 8-30-11.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-576)

Sec. 4.32. Acts Act repealed on January 1, 2022. The following Acts are Act is repealed on January 1, 2022:

The Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act.

The Collateral Recovery Act.

The Detection of Deception Examiners Act.

The Home Inspector License Act.

The Interior Design Title Act.

The Massage Licensing Act.

The Petroleum Equipment Contractors Licensing Act.

The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002.

The Water Well and Pump Installation Contractor's License Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-24, eff. 6-28-11; 97-119, eff. 7-14-11; 97-168, eff. 7-22-11; 97-226, eff. 7-28-11; 97-428, eff. 8-16-11; 97-514, eff. 8-23-11; 97-576, eff. 7-1-12; 97-598, eff. 8-26-11; 97-602, eff. 8-26-11; revised 8-30-11.)

(5 ILCS 80/7) (from Ch. 127, par. 1907)

Sec. 7. Additional criteria. In determining whether to recommend to the General Assembly under Section 5 the continuation of a regulatory agency or program or any function thereof, the Governor shall also consider the following criteria:

(1) whether the absence of regulation would significantly harm or endanger the public health, safety or welfare;

(2) whether there is a reasonable relationship between the exercise of the State's police power and the protection of the public health, safety or welfare;

(3) whether there is another less restrictive method of regulation available which could adequately protect the public;

(4) whether the regulation has the effect of directly or indirectly increasing the costs of any goods or services involved, and if so, to what degree;

(5) whether the increase in cost is more harmful to the public than the harm which could result from the absence of regulation; and

(6) whether all facets of the regulatory process are designed solely for the purpose of, and have as their primary effect affect, the protection of the public.

(Source: P.A. 90-580, eff. 5-21-98; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 10. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)

Sec. 2. Open meetings.

(a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and closed in accordance with Section 2a.

(b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject included within an enumerated exception.

(c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to consider the following subjects:

(1) The appointment, employment, compensation, discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific employees of the public body or legal counsel for the public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint lodged against an employee of the public body or against legal counsel for the public body to determine its validity.

(2) Collective negotiating matters between the public body and its employees or their representatives, or deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more classes of employees.

(3) The selection of a person to fill a public office, as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public office, when the public body is given power to appoint under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public body is given power to remove the occupant under law or ordinance.

(4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided that the body prepares and makes available for public inspection a written decision setting forth its determinative reasoning.

(5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose of discussing whether a particular parcel should be acquired.

(6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of property owned by the public body.

(7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or investment contracts.

(8) Security procedures and the use of personnel and equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees, students, staff, the public, or public property.

(9) Student disciplinary cases.

(10) The placement of individual students in special education programs and other matters relating to individual students.

(11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or when the public body finds that an action is probable or imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed meeting.

(12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of claims as provided in the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the disposition of a claim or potential claim might be prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications from or with respect to any insurer of the public body or any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool of which the public body is a member.

(13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing practices and creating a commission or administrative agency for their enforcement.

(14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.

(15) Professional ethics or performance when considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the advisory body's field of competence.

(16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of a statewide association of which the public body is a member.

(17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or formal peer review of physicians or other health care professionals for a hospital, or other institution providing medical care, that is operated by the public body.

(18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner Review Board.

(19) Review or discussion of applications received under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Act.

(20) The classification and discussion of matters classified as confidential or continued confidential by the State Government Suggestion Award Board.

(21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as mandated by Section 2.06.

(22) Deliberations for decisions of the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.

(23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves (i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or conclusions of load forecast studies.

(24) Meetings of a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(27) Confidential information, when discussed by one or more members of an elder abuse fatality review team, designated under Section 15 of the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, while participating in a review conducted by that team of the death of an elderly person in which abuse or neglect is suspected, alleged, or substantiated; provided that before the review team holds a closed meeting, or closes an open meeting, to discuss the confidential information, each participating review team member seeking to disclose the confidential information in the closed meeting or closed portion of the meeting must state on the record during an open meeting or the open portion of a meeting the nature of the information to be disclosed and the legal basis for otherwise holding that information confidential.

(28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public Aid Code.

(29) (28) Meetings between internal or external auditors and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards of the United States of America.

(d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose relationship with the public body constitutes an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules, and who is not an independent contractor.

"Public office" means a position created by or under the Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign power of this State. The term "public office" shall include members of the public body, but it shall not include organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to assist the body in the conduct of its business.

"Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make determinations based thereon, but does not include local electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition challenges.

(e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of the nature of the matter being considered and other information that will inform the public of the business being conducted.

(Source: P.A. 96-1235, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1378, eff. 7-29-10; 96-1428, eff. 8-11-10; 97-318, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-452, eff. 8-19-11; revised 9-2-11.)

Section 15. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Sections 7, 7.5, and 11 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7) (from Ch. 116, par. 207)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) When a request is made to inspect or copy a public record that contains information that is exempt from disclosure under this Section, but also contains information that is not exempt from disclosure, the public body may elect to redact the information that is exempt. The public body shall make the remaining information available for inspection and copying. Subject to this requirement, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations implementing federal or State law.

(b) Private information, unless disclosure is required by another provision of this Act, a State or federal law or a court order.

(b-5) Files, documents, and other data or databases maintained by one or more law enforcement agencies and specifically designed to provide information to one or more law enforcement agencies regarding the physical or mental status of one or more individual subjects.

(c) Personal information contained within public records, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. "Unwarranted invasion of personal privacy" means the disclosure of information that is highly personal or objectionable to a reasonable person and in which the subject's right to privacy outweighs any legitimate public interest in obtaining the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy.

(d) Records in the possession of any public body created in the course of administrative enforcement proceedings, and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency that is the recipient of the request;

(ii) interfere with active administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by the public body that is the recipient of the request;

(iii) create a substantial likelihood that a person will be deprived of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, or persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement, or penal agencies; except that the identities of witnesses to traffic accidents, traffic accident reports, and rescue reports shall be provided by agencies of local government, except when disclosure would interfere with an active criminal investigation conducted by the agency that is the recipient of the request;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct, and disclosure would result in demonstrable harm to the agency or public body that is the recipient of the request;

(vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(vii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation by the agency that is the recipient of the request.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or commercial or financial information are furnished under a claim that they are proprietary, privileged or confidential, and that disclosure of the trade secrets or commercial or financial information would cause competitive harm to the person or business, and only insofar as the claim directly applies to the records requested.

The information included under this exemption includes all trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) The following information pertaining to educational matters:

(i) test questions, scoring keys and other examination data used to administer an academic examination;

(ii) information received by a primary or secondary school, college, or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers;

(iii) information concerning a school or university's adjudication of student disciplinary cases, but only to the extent that disclosure would unavoidably reveal the identity of the student; and

(iv) course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, including but not limited to power generating and distribution stations and other transmission and distribution facilities, water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security.

(l) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(m) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(n) Records relating to a public body's adjudication of employee grievances or disciplinary cases; however, this exemption shall not extend to the final outcome of cases in which discipline is imposed.

(o) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including but not limited to software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(p) Records relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(q) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to determine the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(r) The records, documents, and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(s) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool. Insurance or self insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications.

(t) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions or insurance companies, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(u) Information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic or digital signatures under the Electronic Commerce Security Act.

(v) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, the destruction or contamination of which would constitute a clear and present danger to the health or safety of the community, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, or to tactical operations.

(w) (Blank).

(x) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities owned by a utility, by a power generator, or by the Illinois Power Agency.

(y) Information contained in or related to proposals, bids, or negotiations related to electric power procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(z) Information about students exempted from disclosure under Sections 10-20.38 or 34-18.29 of the School Code, and information about undergraduate students enrolled at an institution of higher education exempted from disclosure under Section 25 of the Illinois Credit Card Marketing Act of 2009.

(aa) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.

(bb) Records and information provided to a mortality review team and records maintained by a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(cc) Information regarding interments, entombments, or inurnments of human remains that are submitted to the Cemetery Oversight Database under the Cemetery Care Act or the Cemetery Oversight Act, whichever is applicable.

(dd) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public Aid Code.

(ee) (dd) The names, addresses, or other personal information of persons who are minors and are also participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations.

(ff) (ee) The names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations where such programs are targeted primarily to minors.

(2) A public record that is not in the possession of a public body but is in the possession of a party with whom the agency has contracted to perform a governmental function on behalf of the public body, and that directly relates to the governmental function and is not otherwise exempt under this Act, shall be considered a public record of the public body, for purposes of this Act.

(3) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-261, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; 96-558, eff. 1-1-10; 96-736, eff. 7-1-10; 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 96-1378, eff. 7-29-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-385, eff. 8-15-11; 97-452, eff. 8-19-11; revised 9-2-11.)

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory Exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Records Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Accountability and Portability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(w) (v) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1235, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1331, eff. 7-27-10; 97-80, eff. 7-5-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-342, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-2-11.)

(5 ILCS 140/11) (from Ch. 116, par. 211)

Sec. 11. (a) Any person denied access to inspect or copy any public record by a public body may file suit for injunctive or declaratory relief.

(b) Where the denial is from a public body of the State, suit may be filed in the circuit court for the county where the public body has its principal office or where the person denied access resides.

(c) Where the denial is from a municipality or other public body, except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, suit may be filed in the circuit court for the county where the public body is located.

(d) The circuit court shall have the jurisdiction to enjoin the public body from withholding public records and to order the production of any public records improperly withheld from the person seeking access. If the public body can show that exceptional circumstances exist, and that the body is exercising due diligence in responding to the request, the court may retain jurisdiction and allow the agency additional time to complete its review of the records.

(e) On motion of the plaintiff, prior to or after in camera inspection, the court shall order the public body to provide an index of the records to which access has been denied. The index shall include the following:

(i) A description of the nature or contents of each document withheld, or each deletion from a released document, provided, however, that the public body shall not be required to disclose the information which it asserts is exempt; and

(ii) A statement of the exemption or exemptions claimed for each such deletion or withheld document.

(f) In any action considered by the court, the court shall consider the matter de novo, and shall conduct such in camera examination of the requested records as it finds appropriate to determine if such records or any part thereof may be withheld under any provision of this Act. The burden shall be on the public body to establish that its refusal to permit public inspection or copying is in accordance with the provisions of this Act. Any public body that asserts that a record is exempt from disclosure has the burden of proving that it is exempt by clear and convincing evidence.

(g) In the event of noncompliance with an order of the court to disclose, the court may enforce its order against any public official or employee so ordered or primarily responsible for such noncompliance through the court's contempt powers.

(h) Except as to causes the court considers to be of greater importance, proceedings arising under this Section shall take precedence on the docket over all other causes and be assigned for hearing and trial at the earliest practicable date and expedited in every way.

(i) If a person seeking the right to inspect or receive a copy of a public record prevails in a proceeding under this Section, the court shall award such person reasonable attorneys' fees and costs. In determining what amount of attorney's fees is reasonable, the court shall consider the degree to which the relief obtained relates to the relief sought. The changes contained in this subsection apply to an action filed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(j) If the court determines that a public body willfully and intentionally failed to comply with this Act, or otherwise acted in bad faith, the court shall also impose upon the public body a civil penalty of not less than that $2,500 nor more than $5,000 for each occurrence. In assessing the civil penalty, the court shall consider in aggravation or mitigation the budget of the public body and whether the public body has previously been assessed penalties for violations of this Act. The changes contained in this subsection apply to an action filed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 20. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Sections 6.5 and 6.11 as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Health benefits for TRS benefit recipients and TRS dependent beneficiaries.

(a) Purpose. It is the purpose of this amendatory Act of 1995 to transfer the administration of the program of health benefits established for benefit recipients and their dependent beneficiaries under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code to the Department of Central Management Services.

(b) Transition provisions. The Board of Trustees of the Teachers' Retirement System shall continue to administer the health benefit program established under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code through December 31, 1995. Beginning January 1, 1996, the Department of Central Management Services shall be responsible for administering a program of health benefits for TRS benefit recipients and TRS dependent beneficiaries under this Section. The Department of Central Management Services and the Teachers' Retirement System shall cooperate in this endeavor and shall coordinate their activities so as to ensure a smooth transition and uninterrupted health benefit coverage.

(c) Eligibility. All persons who were enrolled in the Article 16 program at the time of the transfer shall be eligible to participate in the program established under this Section without any interruption or delay in coverage or limitation as to pre-existing medical conditions. Eligibility to participate shall be determined by the Teachers' Retirement System. Eligibility information shall be communicated to the Department of Central Management Services in a format acceptable to the Department.

A TRS dependent beneficiary who is a child age 19 or over and mentally or physically disabled does not become ineligible to participate by reason of (i) becoming ineligible to be claimed as a dependent for Illinois or federal income tax purposes or (ii) receiving earned income, so long as those earnings are insufficient for the child to be fully self-sufficient.

(d) Coverage. The level of health benefits provided under this Section shall be similar to the level of benefits provided by the program previously established under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

Group life insurance benefits are not included in the benefits to be provided to TRS benefit recipients and TRS dependent beneficiaries under this Act.

The program of health benefits under this Section may include any or all of the benefit limitations, including but not limited to a reduction in benefits based on eligibility for federal medicare benefits, that are provided under subsection (a) of Section 6 of this Act for other health benefit programs under this Act.

(e) Insurance rates and premiums. The Director shall determine the insurance rates and premiums for TRS benefit recipients and TRS dependent beneficiaries, and shall present to the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, by April 15 of each calendar year, the rate-setting methodology (including but not limited to utilization levels and costs) used to determine the amount of the health care premiums.

For Fiscal Year 1996, the premium shall be equal to the premium actually charged in Fiscal Year 1995; in subsequent years, the premium shall never be lower than the premium charged in Fiscal Year 1995.

For Fiscal Year 2003, the premium shall not exceed 110% of the premium actually charged in Fiscal Year 2002.

For Fiscal Year 2004, the premium shall not exceed 112% of the premium actually charged in Fiscal Year 2003.

For Fiscal Year 2005, the premium shall not exceed a weighted average of 106.6% of the premium actually charged in Fiscal Year 2004.

For Fiscal Year 2006, the premium shall not exceed a weighted average of 109.1% of the premium actually charged in Fiscal Year 2005.

For Fiscal Year 2007, the premium shall not exceed a weighted average of 103.9% of the premium actually charged in Fiscal Year 2006.

For Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter, the premium in each fiscal year shall not exceed 105% of the premium actually charged in the previous fiscal year.

Rates and premiums may be based in part on age and eligibility for federal medicare coverage. However, the cost of participation for a TRS dependent beneficiary who is an unmarried child age 19 or over and mentally or physically disabled shall not exceed the cost for a TRS dependent beneficiary who is an unmarried child under age 19 and participates in the same major medical or managed care program.

The cost of health benefits under the program shall be paid as follows:

(1) For a TRS benefit recipient selecting a managed care program, up to 75% of the total insurance rate shall be paid from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund. Effective with Fiscal Year 2007 and thereafter, for a TRS benefit recipient selecting a managed care program, 75% of the total insurance rate shall be paid from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund.

(2) For a TRS benefit recipient selecting the major medical coverage program, up to 50% of the total insurance rate shall be paid from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund if a managed care program is accessible, as determined by the Teachers' Retirement System. Effective with Fiscal Year 2007 and thereafter, for a TRS benefit recipient selecting the major medical coverage program, 50% of the total insurance rate shall be paid from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund if a managed care program is accessible, as determined by the Department of Central Management Services.

(3) For a TRS benefit recipient selecting the major medical coverage program, up to 75% of the total insurance rate shall be paid from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund if a managed care program is not accessible, as determined by the Teachers' Retirement System. Effective with Fiscal Year 2007 and thereafter, for a TRS benefit recipient selecting the major medical coverage program, 75% of the total insurance rate shall be paid from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund if a managed care program is not accessible, as determined by the Department of Central Management Services.

(3.1) For a TRS dependent beneficiary who is Medicare primary and enrolled in a managed care plan, or the major medical coverage program if a managed care plan is not available, 25% of the total insurance rate shall be paid from the Teacher Health Security Fund as determined by the Department of Central Management Services. For the purpose of this item (3.1), the term "TRS dependent beneficiary who is Medicare primary" means a TRS dependent beneficiary who is participating in Medicare Parts A and B.

(4) Except as otherwise provided in item (3.1), the balance of the rate of insurance, including the entire premium of any coverage for TRS dependent beneficiaries that has been elected, shall be paid by deductions authorized by the TRS benefit recipient to be withheld from his or her monthly annuity or benefit payment from the Teachers' Retirement System; except that (i) if the balance of the cost of coverage exceeds the amount of the monthly annuity or benefit payment, the difference shall be paid directly to the Teachers' Retirement System by the TRS benefit recipient, and (ii) all or part of the balance of the cost of coverage may, at the school board's option, be paid to the Teachers' Retirement System by the school board of the school district from which the TRS benefit recipient retired, in accordance with Section 10-22.3b of the School Code. The Teachers' Retirement System shall promptly deposit all moneys withheld by or paid to it under this subdivision (e)(4) into the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund. These moneys shall not be considered assets of the Retirement System.

(f) Financing. Beginning July 1, 1995, all revenues arising from the administration of the health benefit programs established under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code or this Section shall be deposited into the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund, which is hereby created as a nonappropriated trust fund to be held outside the State Treasury, with the State Treasurer as custodian. Any interest earned on moneys in the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund shall be deposited into the Fund.

Moneys in the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund shall be used only to pay the costs of the health benefit program established under this Section, including associated administrative costs, and the costs associated with the health benefit program established under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code, as authorized in this Section. Beginning July 1, 1995, the Department of Central Management Services may make expenditures from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund for those costs.

After other funds authorized for the payment of the costs of the health benefit program established under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code are exhausted and until January 1, 1996 (or such later date as may be agreed upon by the Director of Central Management Services and the Secretary of the Teachers' Retirement System), the Secretary of the Teachers' Retirement System may make expenditures from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund as necessary to pay up to 75% of the cost of providing health coverage to eligible benefit recipients (as defined in Sections 16-153.1 and 16-153.3 of the Illinois Pension Code) who are enrolled in the Article 16 health benefit program and to facilitate the transfer of administration of the health benefit program to the Department of Central Management Services.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, or any successor agency designated to procure healthcare contracts pursuant to this Act, is authorized to establish funds, separate accounts provided by any bank or banks as defined by the Illinois Banking Act, or separate accounts provided by any savings and loan association or associations as defined by the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985 to be held by the Director, outside the State treasury, for the purpose of receiving the transfer of moneys from the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund. The Department may promulgate rules further defining the methodology for the transfers. Any interest earned by moneys in the funds or accounts shall inure to the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund. The transferred moneys, and interest accrued thereon, shall be used exclusively for transfers to administrative service organizations or their financial institutions for payments of claims to claimants and providers under the self-insurance health plan. The transferred moneys, and interest accrued thereon, shall not be used for any other purpose including, but not limited to, reimbursement of administration fees due the administrative service organization pursuant to its contract or contracts with the Department.

(g) Contract for benefits. The Director shall by contract, self-insurance, or otherwise make available the program of health benefits for TRS benefit recipients and their TRS dependent beneficiaries that is provided for in this Section. The contract or other arrangement for the provision of these health benefits shall be on terms deemed by the Director to be in the best interest of the State of Illinois and the TRS benefit recipients based on, but not limited to, such criteria as administrative cost, service capabilities of the carrier or other contractor, and the costs of the benefits.

(g-5) Committee. A Teacher Retirement Insurance Program Committee shall be established, to consist of 10 persons appointed by the Governor.

The Committee shall convene at least 4 times each year, and shall consider and make recommendations on issues affecting the program of health benefits provided under this Section. Recommendations of the Committee shall be based on a consensus of the members of the Committee.

If the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund experiences a deficit balance based upon the contribution and subsidy rates established in this Section and Section 6.6 for Fiscal Year 2008 or thereafter, the Committee shall make recommendations for adjustments to the funding sources established under these Sections.

In addition, the Committee shall identify proposed solutions to the funding shortfalls that are affecting the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund, and it shall report those solutions to the Governor and the General Assembly within 6 months after August 15, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-386) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(h) Continuation of program. It is the intention of the General Assembly that the program of health benefits provided under this Section be maintained on an ongoing, affordable basis.

The program of health benefits provided under this Section may be amended by the State and is not intended to be a pension or retirement benefit subject to protection under Article XIII, Section 5 of the Illinois Constitution.

(i) Repeal. (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-1519, eff. 2-4-11; 97-386, eff. 8-15-11; revised 9-2-11.)

(5 ILCS 375/6.11)

Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance Code requirements. The program of health benefits shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits shall provide the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, and 356z.17 and 356z.19 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits must comply with Sections 155.22a, and 155.37, and 356z.19 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 96-139, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-639, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-14-11.)

Section 25. The State Officials and Employees Ethics Act is amended by changing Section 1-5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 430/1-5)

Sec. 1-5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Appointee" means a person appointed to a position in or with a State agency, regardless of whether the position is compensated.

"Board members of Regional Transit Boards" means any person appointed to serve on the governing board of a Regional Transit Board.

"Campaign for elective office" means any activity in furtherance of an effort to influence the selection, nomination, election, or appointment of any individual to any federal, State, or local public office or office in a political organization, or the selection, nomination, or election of Presidential or Vice-Presidential electors, but does not include activities (i) relating to the support or opposition of any executive, legislative, or administrative action (as those terms are defined in Section 2 of the Lobbyist Registration Act), (ii) relating to collective bargaining, or (iii) that are otherwise in furtherance of the person's official State duties.

"Candidate" means a person who has filed nominating papers or petitions for nomination or election to an elected State office, or who has been appointed to fill a vacancy in nomination, and who remains eligible for placement on the ballot at either a general primary election or general election.

"Collective bargaining" has the same meaning as that term is defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act.

"Commission" means an ethics commission created by this Act.

"Compensated time" means any time worked by or credited to a State employee that counts toward any minimum work time requirement imposed as a condition of employment with a State agency, but does not include any designated State holidays or any period when the employee is on a leave of absence.

"Compensatory time off" means authorized time off earned by or awarded to a State employee to compensate in whole or in part for time worked in excess of the minimum work time required of that employee as a condition of employment with a State agency.

"Contribution" has the same meaning as that term is defined in Section 9-1.4 of the Election Code.

"Employee" means (i) any person employed full-time, part-time, or pursuant to a contract and whose employment duties are subject to the direction and control of an employer with regard to the material details of how the work is to be performed or (ii) any appointed or elected commissioner, trustee, director, or board member of a board of a State agency, including any retirement system or investment board subject to the Illinois Pension Code or (iii) any other appointee.

"Employment benefits" include but are not limited to the following: modified compensation or benefit terms; compensated time off; or change of title, job duties, or location of office or employment. An employment benefit may also include favorable treatment in determining whether to bring any disciplinary or similar action or favorable treatment during the course of any disciplinary or similar action or other performance review.

"Executive branch constitutional officer" means the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, and Treasurer.

"Gift" means any gratuity, discount, entertainment, hospitality, loan, forbearance, or other tangible or intangible item having monetary value including, but not limited to, cash, food and drink, and honoraria for speaking engagements related to or attributable to government employment or the official position of an employee, member, or officer. The value of a gift may be further defined by rules adopted by the appropriate ethics commission or by the Auditor General for the Auditor General and for employees of the office of the Auditor General.

"Governmental entity" means a unit of local government (including a community college district) or a school district but not a State agency or a Regional Transit Board.

"Leave of absence" means any period during which a State employee does not receive (i) compensation for State employment, (ii) service credit towards State pension benefits, and (iii) health insurance benefits paid for by the State.

"Legislative branch constitutional officer" means a member of the General Assembly and the Auditor General.

"Legislative leader" means the President and Minority Leader of the Senate and the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

"Member" means a member of the General Assembly.

"Officer" means an executive branch constitutional officer or a legislative branch constitutional officer.

"Political" means any activity in support of or in connection with any campaign for elective office or any political organization, but does not include activities (i) relating to the support or opposition of any executive, legislative, or administrative action (as those terms are defined in Section 2 of the Lobbyist Registration Act), (ii) relating to collective bargaining, or (iii) that are otherwise in furtherance of the person's official State duties or governmental and public service functions.

"Political organization" means a party, committee, association, fund, or other organization (whether or not incorporated) that is required to file a statement of organization with the State Board of Elections or a county clerk under Section 9-3 of the Election Code, but only with regard to those activities that require filing with the State Board of Elections or a county clerk.

"Prohibited political activity" means:

(1) Preparing for, organizing, or participating in any political meeting, political rally, political demonstration, or other political event.

(2) Soliciting contributions, including but not limited to the purchase of, selling, distributing, or receiving payment for tickets for any political fundraiser, political meeting, or other political event.

(3) Soliciting, planning the solicitation of, or preparing any document or report regarding any thing of value intended as a campaign contribution.

(4) Planning, conducting, or participating in a public opinion poll in connection with a campaign for elective office or on behalf of a political organization for political purposes or for or against any referendum question.

(5) Surveying or gathering information from potential or actual voters in an election to determine probable vote outcome in connection with a campaign for elective office or on behalf of a political organization for political purposes or for or against any referendum question.

(6) Assisting at the polls on election day on behalf of any political organization or candidate for elective office or for or against any referendum question.

(7) Soliciting votes on behalf of a candidate for elective office or a political organization or for or against any referendum question or helping in an effort to get voters to the polls.

(8) Initiating for circulation, preparing, circulating, reviewing, or filing any petition on behalf of a candidate for elective office or for or against any referendum question.

(9) Making contributions on behalf of any candidate for elective office in that capacity or in connection with a campaign for elective office.

(10) Preparing or reviewing responses to candidate questionnaires in connection with a campaign for elective office or on behalf of a political organization for political purposes.

(11) Distributing, preparing for distribution, or mailing campaign literature, campaign signs, or other campaign material on behalf of any candidate for elective office or for or against any referendum question.

(12) Campaigning for any elective office or for or against any referendum question.

(13) Managing or working on a campaign for elective office or for or against any referendum question.

(14) Serving as a delegate, alternate, or proxy to a political party convention.

(15) Participating in any recount or challenge to the outcome of any election, except to the extent that under subsection (d) of Section 6 of Article IV of the Illinois Constitution each house of the General Assembly shall judge the elections, returns, and qualifications of its members.

"Prohibited source" means any person or entity who:

(1) is seeking official action (i) by the member or officer or (ii) in the case of an employee, by the employee or by the member, officer, State agency, or other employee directing the employee;

(2) does business or seeks to do business (i) with the member or officer or (ii) in the case of an employee, with the employee or with the member, officer, State agency, or other employee directing the employee;

(3) conducts activities regulated (i) by the member or officer or (ii) in the case of an employee, by the employee or by the member, officer, State agency, or other employee directing the employee;

(4) has interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or non-performance of the official duties of the member, officer, or employee;

(5) is registered or required to be registered with the Secretary of State under the Lobbyist Registration Act, except that an entity not otherwise a prohibited source does not become a prohibited source merely because a registered lobbyist is one of its members or serves on its board of directors; or

(6) is an agent of, a spouse of, or an immediate family member who is living with a "prohibited source".

"Regional Transit Boards" means (i) the Regional Transportation Authority created by the Regional Transportation Authority Act, (ii) the Suburban Bus Division created by the Regional Transportation Authority Act, (iii) the Commuter Rail Division created by the Regional Transportation Authority Act, and (iv) the Chicago Transit Authority created by the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act.

"State agency" includes all officers, boards, commissions and agencies created by the Constitution, whether in the executive or legislative branch; all officers, departments, boards, commissions, agencies, institutions, authorities, public institutions of higher learning as defined in Section 2 of the Higher Education Cooperation Act (except community colleges), and bodies politic and corporate of the State; and administrative units or corporate outgrowths of the State government which are created by or pursuant to statute, other than units of local government (including community college districts) and their officers, school districts, and boards of election commissioners; and all administrative units and corporate outgrowths of the above and as may be created by executive order of the Governor. "State agency" includes the General Assembly, the Senate, the House of Representatives, the President and Minority Leader of the Senate, the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the Senate Operations Commission, and the legislative support services agencies. "State agency" includes the Office of the Auditor General. "State agency" does not include the judicial branch.

"State employee" means any employee of a State agency.

"Ultimate jurisdictional authority" means the following:

(1) For members, legislative partisan staff, and legislative secretaries, the appropriate legislative leader: President of the Senate, Minority Leader of the Senate, Speaker of the House of Representatives, or Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(2) For State employees who are professional staff or employees of the Senate and not covered under item (1), the Senate Operations Commission.

(3) For State employees who are professional staff or employees of the House of Representatives and not covered under item (1), the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(4) For State employees who are employees of the legislative support services agencies, the Joint Committee on Legislative Support Services.

(5) For State employees of the Auditor General, the Auditor General.

(6) For State employees of public institutions of higher learning as defined in Section 2 of the Higher Education Cooperation Act (except community colleges), the board of trustees of the appropriate public institution of higher learning.

(7) For State employees of an executive branch constitutional officer other than those described in paragraph (6), the appropriate executive branch constitutional officer.

(8) For State employees not under the jurisdiction of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7), the Governor.

(9) For employees of Regional Transit Boards, the appropriate Regional Transit Board.

(10) For board members of Regional Transit Boards, the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 95-880, eff. 8-19-08; 96-6, eff. 4-3-09; 96-555, eff. 8-18-09; 96-1528, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1533, eff. 3-4-11; revised 10-20-11.)

Section 30. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 3-3, 4-6.3, 4-10, 5-9, 5-16.3, 6-50.3, 6-56, 19-4, 19-12.1, 19-12.2, and 24-11 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/3-3) (from Ch. 46, par. 3-3)

Sec. 3-3. Every honorably discharged soldier or sailor who is an inmate of any soldiers' and sailors' home within the State of Illinois, any person who is a resident of a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or any person who is a resident of a community-integrated living arrangement, as defined in Section 3 of the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act, for 30 days or longer, and who is a citizen of the United States and has resided in this State and in the election district 30 days next preceding any election shall be entitled to vote in the election district in which any such home or community-integrated living arrangement in which he is an inmate or resident is located, for all officers that now are or hereafter may be elected by the people, and upon all questions that may be submitted to the vote of the people: Provided, that he shall declare upon oath, that it was his bona fide intention at the time he entered said home or community-integrated living arrangement to become a resident thereof.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-563, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-2-11.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-6.3) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-6.3)

Sec. 4-6.3. The county clerk may establish a temporary place of registration for such times and at such locations within the county as the county clerk may select. However, no temporary place of registration may be in operation during the 27 days preceding an election. Notice of the time and place of registration under this Section shall be published by the county clerk in a newspaper having a general circulation in the county not less than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding of such registration.

Temporary places of registration shall be established so that the areas of concentration of population or use by the public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of private business or in public buildings or in mobile units. Areas which may be designated as temporary places of registration include, but are not limited to, facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, Soldiers' and Sailors' Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings and county fairs.

Temporary places of registration shall be available to the public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population or fraction thereof in the county.

All temporary places of registration shall be manned by deputy county clerks or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to Section 4-6.2.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-2-11.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-10) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-10)

Sec. 4-10. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered, unless he applies in person to a registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the registration officers or a deputy registration officer, county clerk, or clerk in the office of the county clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your name, place of residence, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The registration officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of any precinct registration and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified he shall forthwith notify such applicant in writing to appear before the county clerk to complete his registration. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as incomplete if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct and whose registration card is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the county clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, ...., did on (insert date) make application to the board of registry of the .... precinct of the township of .... (or to the county clerk of .... county) and that said board or clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct. That I reside in said precinct, that I intend to reside in said precinct, and am a duly qualified voter of said precinct and am entitled to be registered to vote in said precinct at the next election.

(Signature of applicant) ............................."

All such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or to his duly authorized representative by the applicant, in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day after the days on which the 1969 and 1970 precinct re-registrations are held but not on any day within 27 days preceding the ensuing general election and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 4-7 all such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or his duly authorized representative by the applicant in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day prior to 27 days preceding the ensuing general election. Such application shall be heard by the county clerk or his duly authorized representative at the time the application is presented. If the applicant for registration has registered with the county clerk, such application may be presented to and heard by the county clerk or by his duly authorized representative upon the dates specified above or at any time prior thereto designated by the county clerk.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article, or by simultaneous application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of ...........)

)ss County of ..........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 4-8 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 96-317, eff. 1-1-10; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-2-11.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-9) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-9)

Sec. 5-9. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered unless he applies in person to registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the Deputy Registrars, the Judge of Registration, or an Officer of Registration, County Clerk, or clerk in the office of the County Clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your place of residence, name, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The Registration Officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of precinct registration, and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified, he shall forthwith in writing notify such applicant to appear before the County Clerk to furnish further proof of his qualifications. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "Incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as "incomplete" if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct in such township, city, village or incorporated town and whose registration is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the County Clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, .........., did on (insert date) make application to the Board of Registry of the ........ precinct of ........ ward of the City of .... or of the ......... District ......... Town of .......... (or to the County Clerk of .............) and ............ County; that said Board or Clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct, that I reside in said precinct (or that I intend to reside in said precinct), am a duly qualified voter and entitled to vote in said precinct at the next election.

...........................

(Signature of Applicant)"

All such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant, in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and five o'clock p.m., on Monday and Tuesday of the third week subsequent to the weeks in which the 1961 and 1962 precinct re-registrations are to be held, and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 5-17 of this Article, all such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and nine o'clock p.m. on Monday and Tuesday of the third week prior to the date on which such election is to be held.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article or by simultaneous application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of .........)

)ss County of ........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois for 6 months and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 5-7 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 96-317, eff. 1-1-10; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-2-11.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-16.3) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-16.3)

Sec. 5-16.3. The county clerk may establish temporary places of registration for such times and at such locations within the county as the county clerk may select. However, no temporary place of registration may be in operation during the 27 days preceding an election. Notice of time and place of registration at any such temporary place of registration under this Section shall be published by the county clerk in a newspaper having a general circulation in the county not less than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding of such registration.

Temporary places of registration shall be established so that the areas of concentration of population or use by the public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of private business or in public buildings or in mobile units. Areas which may be designated as temporary places of registration include, but are not limited to, facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, Soldiers' and Sailors' Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings and county fairs.

Temporary places of registration shall be available to the public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population or fraction thereof in the county.

All temporary places of registration shall be manned by deputy county clerks or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to Section 5-16.2.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-2-11.)

(10 ILCS 5/6-50.3) (from Ch. 46, par. 6-50.3)

Sec. 6-50.3. The board of election commissioners may establish temporary places of registration for such times and at such locations as the board may select. However, no temporary place of registration may be in operation during the 27 days preceding an election. Notice of the time and place of registration at any such temporary place of registration under this Section shall be published by the board of election commissioners in a newspaper having a general circulation in the city, village or incorporated town not less than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding of such registration.

Temporary places of registration shall be established so that the areas of concentration of population or use by the public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of private business or in public buildings or in mobile units. Areas which may be designated as temporary places of registration include, but are not limited to, facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, Soldiers' and Sailors' Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings and county fairs.

Temporary places of registration shall be available to the public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population or fraction thereof in the county.

All temporary places of registration shall be manned by employees of the board of election commissioners or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to Section 6-50.2.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-2-11.)

(10 ILCS 5/6-56) (from Ch. 46, par. 6-56)

Sec. 6-56. Not more than 30 nor less than 28 days before any election under this Article, all owners, managers, administrators or operators of hotels, lodging houses, rooming houses, furnished apartments or facilities licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act, which house 4 or more persons, outside the members of the family of such owner, manager, administrator or operator, shall file with the board of election commissioners a report, under oath, together with one copy thereof, in such form as may be required by the board of election commissioners, of the names and descriptions of all lodgers, guests or residents claiming a voting residence at the hotels, lodging houses, rooming houses, furnished apartments, or facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act under their control. In counties having a population of 500,000 or more such report shall be made on forms mailed to them by the board of election commissioners. The board of election commissioners shall sort and assemble the sworn copies of the reports in numerical order according to ward and according to precincts within each ward and shall, not later than 5 days after the last day allowed by this Article for the filing of the reports, maintain one assembled set of sworn duplicate reports available for public inspection until 60 days after election days. Except as is otherwise expressly provided in this Article, the board shall not be required to perform any duties with respect to the sworn reports other than to mail, sort, assemble, post and file them as hereinabove provided.

Except in such cases where a precinct canvass is being conducted by the Board of Election Commissioners prior to a Primary or Election, the board of election commissioners shall compare the original copy of each such report with the list of registered voters from such addresses. Every person registered from such address and not listed in such report or whose name is different from any name so listed, shall immediately after the last day of registration be sent a notice through the United States mail, at the address appearing upon his registration record card, requiring him to appear before the board of election commissioners on one of the days specified in Section 6-45 of this Article and show cause why his registration should not be cancelled. The provisions of Sections 6-45, 6-46 and 6-47 of this Article shall apply to such hearing and proceedings subsequent thereto.

Any owner, manager or operator of any such hotel, lodging house, rooming house or furnished apartment who shall fail or neglect to file such statement and copy thereof as in this Article provided, may, upon written information of the attorney for the election commissioners, be cited by the election commissioners or upon the complaint of any voter of such city, village or incorporated town, to appear before them and furnish such sworn statement and copy thereof and make such oral statements under oath regarding such hotel, lodging house, rooming house or furnished apartment, as the election commissioners may require. The election commissioners shall sit to hear such citations on the Friday of the fourth week preceding the week in which such election is to be held. Such citation shall be served not later than the day preceding the day on which it is returnable.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-2-11.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-4) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-4)

Sec. 19-4. Mailing or delivery of ballots - Time.) Immediately upon the receipt of such application either by mail, not more than 40 days nor less than 5 days prior to such election, or by personal delivery not more than 40 days nor less than one day prior to such election, at the office of such election authority, it shall be the duty of such election authority to examine the records to ascertain whether or not such applicant is lawfully entitled to vote as requested, including a verification of the applicant's signature by comparison with the signature on the official registration record card, and if found so to be entitled to vote, to post within one business day thereafter the name, street address, ward and precinct number or township and district number, as the case may be, of such applicant given on a list, the pages of which are to be numbered consecutively to be kept by such election authority for such purpose in a conspicuous, open and public place accessible to the public at the entrance of the office of such election authority, and in such a manner that such list may be viewed without necessity of requesting permission therefor. Within one day after posting the name and other information of an applicant for an absentee ballot, the election authority shall transmit that name and other posted information to the State Board of Elections, which shall maintain those names and other information in an electronic format on its website, arranged by county and accessible to State and local political committees. Within 2 business days after posting a name and other information on the list within its office, the election authority shall mail, postage prepaid, or deliver in person in such office an official ballot or ballots if more than one are to be voted at said election. Mail delivery of Temporarily Absent Student ballot applications pursuant to Section 19-12.3 shall be by nonforwardable mail. However, for the consolidated election, absentee ballots for certain precincts may be delivered to applicants not less than 25 days before the election if so much time is required to have prepared and printed the ballots containing the names of persons nominated for offices at the consolidated primary. The election authority shall enclose with each absentee ballot or application written instructions on how voting assistance shall be provided pursuant to Section 17-14 and a document, written and approved by the State Board of Elections, enumerating the circumstances under which a person is authorized to vote by absentee ballot pursuant to this Article; such document shall also include a statement informing the applicant that if he or she falsifies or is solicited by another to falsify his or her eligibility to cast an absentee ballot, such applicant or other is subject to penalties pursuant to Section 29-10 and Section 29-20 of the Election Code. Each election authority shall maintain a list of the name, street address, ward and precinct, or township and district number, as the case may be, of all applicants who have returned absentee ballots to such authority, and the name of such absent voter shall be added to such list within one business day from receipt of such ballot. If the absentee ballot envelope indicates that the voter was assisted in casting the ballot, the name of the person so assisting shall be included on the list. The list, the pages of which are to be numbered consecutively, shall be kept by each election authority in a conspicuous, open, and public place accessible to the public at the entrance of the office of the election authority and in a manner that the list may be viewed without necessity of requesting permission for viewing.

Each election authority shall maintain a list for each election of the voters to whom it has issued absentee ballots. The list shall be maintained for each precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority. Prior to the opening of the polls on election day, the election authority shall deliver to the judges of election in each precinct the list of registered voters in that precinct to whom absentee ballots have been issued by mail.

Each election authority shall maintain a list for each election of voters to whom it has issued temporarily absent student ballots. The list shall be maintained for each election jurisdiction within which such voters temporarily abide. Immediately after the close of the period during which application may be made by mail for absentee ballots, each election authority shall mail to each other election authority within the State a certified list of all such voters temporarily abiding within the jurisdiction of the other election authority.

In the event that the return address of an application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector is that of a facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, within the jurisdiction of the election authority, and the applicant is a registered voter in the precinct in which such facility is located, the ballots shall be prepared and transmitted to a responsible judge of election no later than 9 a.m. on the Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding the election as designated by the election authority under Section 19-12.2. Such judge shall deliver in person on the designated day the ballot to the applicant on the premises of the facility from which application was made. The election authority shall by mail notify the applicant in such facility that the ballot will be delivered by a judge of election on the designated day.

All applications for absentee ballots shall be available at the office of the election authority for public inspection upon request from the time of receipt thereof by the election authority until 30 days after the election, except during the time such applications are kept in the office of the election authority pursuant to Section 19-7, and except during the time such applications are in the possession of the judges of election.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-2-11.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-12.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.1)

Sec. 19-12.1. Any qualified elector who has secured an Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card in accordance with the The Illinois Identification Card Act, indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability or any qualified voter who has a permanent physical incapacity of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, or any voter who is a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act and has a condition or disability of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, may secure a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card, which will enable him to vote under this Article as a physically incapacitated or nursing home voter. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

Application for a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card shall be made either: (a) in writing, with voter's sworn affidavit, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, and shall be accompanied by the affidavit of the attending physician specifically describing the nature of the physical incapacity or the fact that the voter is a nursing home resident and is physically unable to be present at the polls on election days; or (b) by presenting, in writing or otherwise, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability. Upon the receipt of either the sworn-to application and the physician's affidavit or proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability, the county clerk or board of election commissioners shall issue a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card. Such identification cards shall be issued for a period of 5 years, upon the expiration of which time the voter may secure a new card by making application in the same manner as is prescribed for the issuance of an original card, accompanied by a new affidavit of the attending physician. The date of expiration of such five-year period shall be made known to any interested person by the election authority upon the request of such person. Applications for the renewal of the identification cards shall be mailed to the voters holding such cards not less than 3 months prior to the date of expiration of the cards.

Each disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card shall bear an identification number, which shall be clearly noted on the voter's original and duplicate registration record cards. In the event the holder becomes physically capable of resuming normal voting, he must surrender his disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card to the county clerk or board of election commissioners before the next election.

The holder of a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card may make application by mail for an official ballot within the time prescribed by Section 19-2. Such application shall contain the same information as is included in the form of application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector prescribed in Section 19-3 except that it shall also include the applicant's disabled voter's identification card number and except that it need not be sworn to. If an examination of the records discloses that the applicant is lawfully entitled to vote, he shall be mailed a ballot as provided in Section 19-4. The ballot envelope shall be the same as that prescribed in Section 19-5 for physically disabled voters, and the manner of voting and returning the ballot shall be the same as that provided in this Article for other absentee ballots, except that a statement to be subscribed to by the voter but which need not be sworn to shall be placed on the ballot envelope in lieu of the affidavit prescribed by Section 19-5.

Any person who knowingly subscribes to a false statement in connection with voting under this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

For the purposes of this Section, "nursing home resident" includes a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed under the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-275, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-2-11.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-12.2) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.2)

Sec. 19-12.2. Voting by physically incapacitated electors who have made proper application to the election authority not later than 5 days before the regular primary and general election of 1980 and before each election thereafter shall be conducted on the premises of (i) federally operated veterans' homes, hospitals, and facilities located in Illinois or (ii) facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act for the sole benefit of residents of such homes, hospitals, and facilities. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center. Such voting shall be conducted during any continuous period sufficient to allow all applicants to cast their ballots between the hours of 9 a.m. and 7 p.m. either on the Friday, Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding the regular election. This absentee voting on one of said days designated by the election authority shall be supervised by two election judges who must be selected by the election authority in the following order of priority: (1) from the panel of judges appointed for the precinct in which such home, hospital, or facility is located, or from a panel of judges appointed for any other precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority in the same ward or township, as the case may be, in which the home, hospital, or facility is located or, only in the case where a judge or judges from the precinct, township or ward are unavailable to serve, (3) from a panel of judges appointed for any other precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority. The two judges shall be from different political parties. Not less than 30 days before each regular election, the election authority shall have arranged with the chief administrative officer of each home, hospital, or facility in his or its election jurisdiction a mutually convenient time period on the Friday, Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding the election for such voting on the premises of the home, hospital, or facility and shall post in a prominent place in his or its office a notice of the agreed day and time period for conducting such voting at each home, hospital, or facility; provided that the election authority shall not later than noon on the Thursday before the election also post the names and addresses of those homes, hospitals, and facilities from which no applications were received and in which no supervised absentee voting will be conducted. All provisions of this Code applicable to pollwatchers shall be applicable herein. To the maximum extent feasible, voting booths or screens shall be provided to insure the privacy of the voter. Voting procedures shall be as described in Article 17 of this Code, except that ballots shall be treated as absentee ballots and shall not be counted until the close of the polls on the following day. After the last voter has concluded voting, the judges shall seal the ballots in an envelope and affix their signatures across the flap of the envelope. Immediately thereafter, the judges shall bring the sealed envelope to the office of the election authority who shall deliver such ballots to the election authority's central ballot counting location prior to the closing of the polls on the day of election. The judges of election shall also report to the election authority the name of any applicant in the home, hospital, or facility who, due to unforeseen circumstance or condition or because of a religious holiday, was unable to vote. In this event, the election authority may appoint a qualified person from his or its staff to deliver the ballot to such applicant on the day of election. This staff person shall follow the same procedures prescribed for judges conducting absentee voting in such homes, hospitals, or facilities and shall return the ballot to the central ballot counting location before the polls close. However, if the home, hospital, or facility from which the application was made is also used as a regular precinct polling place for that voter, voting procedures heretofore prescribed may be implemented by 2 of the election judges of opposite party affiliation assigned to that polling place during the hours of voting on the day of the election. Judges of election shall be compensated not less than $25.00 for conducting absentee voting in such homes, hospitals, or facilities.

Not less than 120 days before each regular election, the Department of Public Health shall certify to the State Board of Elections a list of the facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act. The lists shall indicate the approved bed capacity and the name of the chief administrative officer of each such home, hospital, or facility, and the State Board of Elections shall certify the same to the appropriate election authority within 20 days thereafter.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-275, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-2-11.)

(10 ILCS 5/24-11) (from Ch. 46, par. 24-11)

Sec. 24-11. That portion of cardboard, paper or other material, placed on the front of the machine and containing the names of the candidates shall be known in this Article as a ballot label. The ballot labels shall be supplied by the election authority, and shall be printed in black ink on clear white material of such size as will fit the machine and in plain, clear type, and shall provide space, not less than one-half inch in height and one and one-half inches in width for the printing of each candidate's name with such other wording as is required by law. However, ballot labels for use at the nonpartisan and consolidated elections may be printed on different color material, except blue material, whenever necessary or desirable to facilitate distinguishing between different political subdivisions on the machine. The names of all candidates shall be printed in uniform size in boldface type. The party name or other designation shall be prefixed to the list of the candidates of such party. The order of the lists of candidates of the several parties shall be arranged as is in this Act provided, except that the lists may be placed in horizontal rows or vertical columns, which parties may, if desired be divided into parallel and contiguous rows or columns. Where presidential electors are to be voted for at any election, then there may be placed on the ballot labels a bracket in which are the names of the candidates for President and Vice President of the party or group. Each question or other proposition, to be submitted to a vote of the electors shall appear on the ballot labels, in the form prescribed therefor, but if no such form is prescribed then they shall be in brief form, not to exceed 75 words. The ballot label for each candidate or group of candidates nominated or seeking nomination by a political party shall contain the name of the political party.

In any election in which there is submitted a proposal or proposals for a constitutional amendment or amendments or for calling of a constitutional convention the ballot label for the separate ballot for such proposals shall be printed on blue, rather than white, material.

In elections held pursuant to the provisions of Section 12 of Article VI of the Constitution relating to retention of judges in office, the ballot label for the judicial retention propositions shall be printed on green, rather than white, material.

If any voting machine being used in an election or primary shall become out of order during such election or primary, it shall, if possible, be repaired or another machine substituted by the custodian or election authority, for which purpose the proper authorities may purchase as many extra voting machines as they may deem necessary, but in case such necessary repairs or substitution cannot be made immediately, paper ballots, printed or written and of suitable form, shall be used for the taking of votes. The paper ballots to be used in such event shall be prepared and distributed to the various precincts in the manner provided for in Sections 16-3 and 16-4 of this Election Code; except that the election authority shall supply a number of ballots to each precinct equal to at least 20% of the number of voters registered to vote in that precinct. If a method of election for any candidates is prescribed by law, in which the use of voting machines is not possible or practicable, or in case, at any election the number of candidates nominated or seeking nomination for any office renders the use of the voting machine for such office at such election impracticable, or if for any reason, at any election the use of voting machines is not practicable or possible, the proper officer or officers having charge of the preparation of the ballot labels for the machines may arrange to have the voting for such or all candidates for offices officers conducted by paper ballots. In such cases ballots shall be printed for such or all candidates, and the election conducted by the election officers herein provided for, and the ballots counted and return thereof made in the manner required by law for such candidate or candidates or offices, insofar as paper ballots are used.

(Source: P.A. 80-1469; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 35. The State Budget Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 50-5 as follows:

(15 ILCS 20/50-5)

Sec. 50-5. Governor to submit State budget.

(a) The Governor shall, as soon as possible and not later than the second Wednesday in March in 2010 (March 10, 2010) and the third Wednesday in February of each year beginning in 2011, except as otherwise provided in this Section, submit a State budget, embracing therein the amounts recommended by the Governor to be appropriated to the respective departments, offices, and institutions, and for all other public purposes, the estimated revenues from taxation, and the estimated revenues from sources other than taxation. Except with respect to the capital development provisions of the State budget, beginning with the revenue estimates prepared for fiscal year 2012, revenue estimates shall be based solely on: (i) revenue sources (including non-income resources), rates, and levels that exist as of the date of the submission of the State budget for the fiscal year and (ii) revenue sources (including non-income resources), rates, and levels that have been passed by the General Assembly as of the date of the submission of the State budget for the fiscal year and that are authorized to take effect in that fiscal year. Except with respect to the capital development provisions of the State budget, the Governor shall determine available revenue, deduct the cost of essential government services, including, but not limited to, pension payments and debt service, and assign a percentage of the remaining revenue to each statewide prioritized goal, as established in Section 50-25 of this Law, taking into consideration the proposed goals set forth in the report of the Commission established under that Section. The Governor shall also demonstrate how spending priorities for the fiscal year fulfill those statewide goals. The amounts recommended by the Governor for appropriation to the respective departments, offices and institutions shall be formulated according to each department's, office's, and institution's ability to effectively deliver services that meet the established statewide goals. The amounts relating to particular functions and activities shall be further formulated in accordance with the object classification specified in Section 13 of the State Finance Act. In addition, the amounts recommended by the Governor for appropriation shall take into account each State agency's effectiveness in achieving its prioritized goals for the previous fiscal year, as set forth in Section 50-25 of this Law, giving priority to agencies and programs that have demonstrated a focus on the prevention of waste and the maximum yield from resources.

Beginning in fiscal year 2011, the Governor shall distribute written quarterly financial reports on operating funds, which may include general, State, or federal funds and may include funds related to agencies that have significant impacts on State operations, and budget statements on all appropriated funds to the General Assembly and the State Comptroller. The reports shall be submitted no later than 45 days after the last day of each quarter of the fiscal year and shall be posted on the Governor's Office of Management and Budget's website on the same day. The reports shall be prepared and presented for each State agency and on a statewide level in an executive summary format that may include, for the fiscal year to date, individual itemizations for each significant revenue type as well as itemizations of expenditures and obligations, by agency, with an appropriate level of detail. The reports shall include a calculation of the actual total budget surplus or deficit for the fiscal year to date. The Governor shall also present periodic budget addresses throughout the fiscal year at the invitation of the General Assembly.

The Governor shall not propose expenditures and the General Assembly shall not enact appropriations that exceed the resources estimated to be available, as provided in this Section. Appropriations may be adjusted during the fiscal year by means of one or more supplemental appropriation bills if any State agency either fails to meet or exceeds the goals set forth in Section 50-25 of this Law.

For the purposes of Article VIII, Section 2 of the 1970 Illinois Constitution, the State budget for the following funds shall be prepared on the basis of revenue and expenditure measurement concepts that are in concert with generally accepted accounting principles for governments:

(1) General Revenue Fund.

(2) Common School Fund.

(3) Educational Assistance Fund.

(4) Road Fund.

(5) Motor Fuel Tax Fund.

(6) Agricultural Premium Fund.

These funds shall be known as the "budgeted funds". The revenue estimates used in the State budget for the budgeted funds shall include the estimated beginning fund balance, plus revenues estimated to be received during the budgeted year, plus the estimated receipts due the State as of June 30 of the budgeted year that are expected to be collected during the lapse period following the budgeted year, minus the receipts collected during the first 2 months of the budgeted year that became due to the State in the year before the budgeted year. Revenues shall also include estimated federal reimbursements associated with the recognition of Section 25 of the State Finance Act liabilities. For any budgeted fund for which current year revenues are anticipated to exceed expenditures, the surplus shall be considered to be a resource available for expenditure in the budgeted fiscal year.

Expenditure estimates for the budgeted funds included in the State budget shall include the costs to be incurred by the State for the budgeted year, to be paid in the next fiscal year, excluding costs paid in the budgeted year which were carried over from the prior year, where the payment is authorized by Section 25 of the State Finance Act. For any budgeted fund for which expenditures are expected to exceed revenues in the current fiscal year, the deficit shall be considered as a use of funds in the budgeted fiscal year.

Revenues and expenditures shall also include transfers between funds that are based on revenues received or costs incurred during the budget year.

Appropriations for expenditures shall also include all anticipated statutory continuing appropriation obligations that are expected to be incurred during the budgeted fiscal year.

By March 15 of each year, the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability shall prepare revenue and fund transfer estimates in accordance with the requirements of this Section and report those estimates to the General Assembly and the Governor.

For all funds other than the budgeted funds, the proposed expenditures shall not exceed funds estimated to be available for the fiscal year as shown in the budget. Appropriation for a fiscal year shall not exceed funds estimated by the General Assembly to be available during that year.

(b) By February 24, 2010, the Governor must file a written report with the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives containing the following:

(1) for fiscal year 2010, the revenues for all budgeted funds, both actual to date and estimated for the full fiscal year;

(2) for fiscal year 2010, the expenditures for all budgeted funds, both actual to date and estimated for the full fiscal year;

(3) for fiscal year 2011, the estimated revenues for all budgeted funds, including without limitation the affordable General Revenue Fund appropriations, for the full fiscal year; and

(4) for fiscal year 2011, an estimate of the anticipated liabilities for all budgeted funds, including without limitation the affordable General Revenue Fund appropriations, debt service on bonds issued, and the State's contributions to the pension systems, for the full fiscal year.

Between July 1 and August 31 of each fiscal year, the members of the General Assembly and members of the public may make written budget recommendations to the Governor.

Beginning with budgets prepared for fiscal year 2013, the budgets submitted by the Governor and appropriations made by the General Assembly for all executive branch State agencies must adhere to a method of budgeting where each priority must be justified each year according to merit rather than according to the amount appropriated for the preceding year.

(Source: P.A. 96-1, eff. 2-17-09; 96-320, eff. 1-1-10; 96-881, eff. 2-11-10; 96-958, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1529, eff. 2-16-11; 96-1531, eff. 2-16-11; revised 2-17-11.)

Section 40. The Comptroller's Records Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(15 ILCS 415/3) (from Ch. 15, par. 27)

Sec. 3. Records to be photographed or reproduced on film or in any electronic media. The State Comptroller may have any records kept by him photographed, microfilmed, or otherwise reproduced on film or in any electronic media prior to destruction; provided, that prior to the destruction of any warrants, the Comptroller shall have those warrants photographed, microfilmed or otherwise reproduced on film or in any electronic media, in 2 copies.

Reproductions shall be placed in conveniently accessible files and and provisions made for preserving, examining and using them.

(Source: P.A. 90-24, eff. 6-20-97; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 45. The State Treasurer Act is amended by changing Section 16.5 as follows:

(15 ILCS 505/16.5)

Sec. 16.5. College Savings Pool. The State Treasurer may establish and administer a College Savings Pool to supplement and enhance the investment opportunities otherwise available to persons seeking to finance the costs of higher education. The State Treasurer, in administering the College Savings Pool, may receive moneys paid into the pool by a participant and may serve as the fiscal agent of that participant for the purpose of holding and investing those moneys.

"Participant", as used in this Section, means any person who has authority to withdraw funds, change the designated beneficiary, or otherwise exercise control over an account. "Donor", as used in this Section, means any person who makes investments in the pool. "Designated beneficiary", as used in this Section, means any person on whose behalf an account is established in the College Savings Pool by a participant. Both in-state and out-of-state persons may be participants, donors, and designated beneficiaries in the College Savings Pool. The College Savings Pool must be available to any individual with a valid social security number or taxpayer identification number for the benefit of any individual with a valid social security number or taxpayer identification number, unless a contract in effect on August 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-233) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly does not allow for taxpayer identification numbers, in which case taxpayer identification numbers must be allowed upon the expiration of the contract.

New accounts in the College Savings Pool may be processed through participating financial institutions. "Participating financial institution", as used in this Section, means any financial institution insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and lawfully doing business in the State of Illinois and any credit union approved by the State Treasurer and lawfully doing business in the State of Illinois that agrees to process new accounts in the College Savings Pool. Participating financial institutions may charge a processing fee to participants to open an account in the pool that shall not exceed $30 until the year 2001. Beginning in 2001 and every year thereafter, the maximum fee limit shall be adjusted by the Treasurer based on the Consumer Price Index for the North Central Region as published by the United States Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics for the immediately preceding calendar year. Every contribution received by a financial institution for investment in the College Savings Pool shall be transferred from the financial institution to a location selected by the State Treasurer within one business day following the day that the funds must be made available in accordance with federal law. All communications from the State Treasurer to participants and donors shall reference the participating financial institution at which the account was processed.

The Treasurer may invest the moneys in the College Savings Pool in the same manner and in the same types of investments provided for the investment of moneys by the Illinois State Board of Investment. To enhance the safety and liquidity of the College Savings Pool, to ensure the diversification of the investment portfolio of the pool, and in an effort to keep investment dollars in the State of Illinois, the State Treasurer may make a percentage of each account available for investment in participating financial institutions doing business in the State. The State Treasurer may deposit with the participating financial institution at which the account was processed the following percentage of each account at a prevailing rate offered by the institution, provided that the deposit is federally insured or fully collateralized and the institution accepts the deposit: 10% of the total amount of each account for which the current age of the beneficiary is less than 7 years of age, 20% of the total amount of each account for which the beneficiary is at least 7 years of age and less than 12 years of age, and 50% of the total amount of each account for which the current age of the beneficiary is at least 12 years of age. The Treasurer shall develop, publish, and implement an investment policy covering the investment of the moneys in the College Savings Pool. The policy shall be published each year as part of the audit of the College Savings Pool by the Auditor General, which shall be distributed to all participants. The Treasurer shall notify all participants in writing, and the Treasurer shall publish in a newspaper of general circulation in both Chicago and Springfield, any changes to the previously published investment policy at least 30 calendar days before implementing the policy. Any investment policy adopted by the Treasurer shall be reviewed and updated if necessary within 90 days following the date that the State Treasurer takes office.

Participants shall be required to use moneys distributed from the College Savings Pool for qualified expenses at eligible educational institutions. "Qualified expenses", as used in this Section, means the following: (i) tuition, fees, and the costs of books, supplies, and equipment required for enrollment or attendance at an eligible educational institution and (ii) certain room and board expenses incurred while attending an eligible educational institution at least half-time. "Eligible educational institutions", as used in this Section, means public and private colleges, junior colleges, graduate schools, and certain vocational institutions that are described in Section 481 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1088) and that are eligible to participate in Department of Education student aid programs. A student shall be considered to be enrolled at least half-time if the student is enrolled for at least half the full-time academic work load for the course of study the student is pursuing as determined under the standards of the institution at which the student is enrolled. Distributions made from the pool for qualified expenses shall be made directly to the eligible educational institution, directly to a vendor, or in the form of a check payable to both the beneficiary and the institution or vendor. Any moneys that are distributed in any other manner or that are used for expenses other than qualified expenses at an eligible educational institution shall be subject to a penalty of 10% of the earnings unless the beneficiary dies, becomes disabled, or receives a scholarship that equals or exceeds the distribution. Penalties shall be withheld at the time the distribution is made.

The Treasurer shall limit the contributions that may be made on behalf of a designated beneficiary based on the limitations established by the Internal Revenue Service. The contributions made on behalf of a beneficiary who is also a beneficiary under the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Program shall be further restricted to ensure that the contributions in both programs combined do not exceed the limit established for the College Savings Pool. The Treasurer shall provide the Illinois Student Assistance Commission each year at a time designated by the Commission, an electronic report of all participant accounts in the Treasurer's College Savings Pool, listing total contributions and disbursements from each individual account during the previous calendar year. As soon thereafter as is possible following receipt of the Treasurer's report, the Illinois Student Assistance Commission shall, in turn, provide the Treasurer with an electronic report listing those College Savings Pool participants who also participate in the State's prepaid tuition program, administered by the Commission. The Commission shall be responsible for filing any combined tax reports regarding State qualified savings programs required by the United States Internal Revenue Service. The Treasurer shall work with the Illinois Student Assistance Commission to coordinate the marketing of the College Savings Pool and the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Program when considered beneficial by the Treasurer and the Director of the Illinois Student Assistance Commission. The Treasurer's office shall not publicize or otherwise market the College Savings Pool or accept any moneys into the College Savings Pool prior to March 1, 2000. The Treasurer shall provide a separate accounting for each designated beneficiary to each participant, the Illinois Student Assistance Commission, and the participating financial institution at which the account was processed. No interest in the program may be pledged as security for a loan. Moneys held in an account invested in the Illinois College Savings Pool shall be exempt from all claims of the creditors of the participant, donor, or designated beneficiary of that account, except for the non-exempt College Savings Pool transfers to or from the account as defined under subsection (j) of Section 12-1001 of the Code of Civil Procedure (735 ILCS 5/12-1001(j)).

The assets of the College Savings Pool and its income and operation shall be exempt from all taxation by the State of Illinois and any of its subdivisions. The accrued earnings on investments in the Pool once disbursed on behalf of a designated beneficiary shall be similarly exempt from all taxation by the State of Illinois and its subdivisions, so long as they are used for qualified expenses. Contributions to a College Savings Pool account during the taxable year may be deducted from adjusted gross income as provided in Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The provisions of this paragraph are exempt from Section 250 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

The Treasurer shall adopt rules he or she considers necessary for the efficient administration of the College Savings Pool. The rules shall provide whatever additional parameters and restrictions are necessary to ensure that the College Savings Pool meets all of the requirements for a qualified state tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 529). The rules shall provide for the administration expenses of the pool to be paid from its earnings and for the investment earnings in excess of the expenses and all moneys collected as penalties to be credited or paid monthly to the several participants in the pool in a manner which equitably reflects the differing amounts of their respective investments in the pool and the differing periods of time for which those amounts were in the custody of the pool. Also, the rules shall require the maintenance of records that enable the Treasurer's office to produce a report for each account in the pool at least annually that documents the account balance and investment earnings. Notice of any proposed amendments to the rules and regulations shall be provided to all participants prior to adoption. Amendments to rules and regulations shall apply only to contributions made after the adoption of the amendment.

Upon creating the College Savings Pool, the State Treasurer shall give bond with 2 or more sufficient sureties, payable to and for the benefit of the participants in the College Savings Pool, in the penal sum of $1,000,000, conditioned upon the faithful discharge of his or her duties in relation to the College Savings Pool.

(Source: P.A. 97-233, eff. 8-1-11; 97-537, eff. 8-23-11; revised 9-7-11.)

Section 50. The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 5-20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5/5-20) (was 20 ILCS 5/4)

Sec. 5-20. Heads of departments. Each department shall have an officer as its head who shall be known as director or secretary and who shall, subject to the provisions of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, execute the powers and discharge the duties vested by law in his or her respective department.

The following officers are hereby created:

Director of Aging, for the Department on Aging.

Director of Agriculture, for the Department of Agriculture.

Director of Central Management Services, for the Department of Central Management Services.

Director of Children and Family Services, for the Department of Children and Family Services.

Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, for the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

Director of Corrections, for the Department of Corrections.

Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, for the Illinois Emergency Management Agency.

Director of Employment Security, for the Department of Employment Security.

Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, for the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Director of Healthcare and Family Services, for the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

Director of Human Rights, for the Department of Human Rights.

Secretary of Human Services, for the Department of Human Services.

Director of Juvenile Justice, for the Department of Juvenile Justice.

Director of Labor, for the Department of Labor.

Director of Natural Resources, for the Department of Natural Resources.

Director of Public Health, for the Department of Public Health.

Director of Revenue, for the Department of Revenue.

Director of State Police, for the Department of State Police.

Secretary of Transportation, for the Department of Transportation.

Director of Veterans' Affairs, for the Department of Veterans' Affairs.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 97-464, eff. 10-15-11; 97-618, eff. 10-26-11; revised 11-9-11.)

Section 55. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by changing Section 8.08 as follows:

(20 ILCS 105/8.08)

Sec. 8.08. Older direct care worker recognition. The Department shall present one award annually to older direct care workers in each of the following categories: Older American Act Services, Home Health Services, Community Care Program Services, Nursing Homes, and programs that provide housing with services licensed or certified by the State. The Department shall solicit nominations from associations representing providers of the named services or settings and trade associations representing applicable direct care workers. Nominations shall be presented in a format designated by the Department. Direct care workers honored with this award must be 55 years of age or older and shall be recognized for their dedication and commitment to improving the quality of aging in Illinois above and beyond the confines of their job description. Award recipients shall be honored before their peers at the Governor's Conference on Aging or at a similar venue, shall have their pictures displayed on the Department's website with their permission, and shall receive a letter of commendation from the Governor. The Department shall include the recipients of these awards in all Senior Hall of Fame displays required by this the Act on Aging. Except as otherwise prohibited by law, the Department may solicit private sector funding to underwrite the cost of all awards and recognition materials and shall request that all associations representing providers of the named services or settings and trade associations applicable to direct care workers publicize the awards and the award recipients in communications with their members.

(Source: P.A. 96-376, eff. 8-13-09; 96-918, eff. 6-9-10; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 60. The Child Death Review Team Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(20 ILCS 515/35)

Sec. 35. Indemnification. The State shall indemnify and hold harmless members of a child death review team and the Executive Council for all their acts, omissions, decisions, or other conduct arising out of the scope of their service on the team or Executive Council, except those involving willful or wanton misconduct. The method of providing indemnification shall be as provided in the State Employee Indemnification Act (5 ILCS 350/0.01 (5 ILCS 350/1 et seq.).

(Source: P.A. 92-468, eff. 8-22-01; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 65. The Illinois Emergency Employment Development Act is amended by changing Sections 9 and 17 as follows:

(20 ILCS 630/9) (from Ch. 48, par. 2409)

Sec. 9. (a) Eligible businesses.

(a) A business employer is an eligible employer if it enters into a written contract, signed and subscribed to under oath, with the employment administrator for its service delivery area containing assurances that:

(1) funds received by a business shall be used only as permitted under the program;

(2) the business has submitted a plan to the employment administrator (A) (1) describing the duties and proposed compensation of each employee proposed to be hired under the program; and (B) (2) demonstrating that with the funds provided under the program the business is likely to succeed and continue to employ persons hired under the program;

(3) the business will use funds exclusively for compensation and fringe benefits of eligible job applicants and will provide employees hired with these funds with fringe benefits and other terms and conditions of employment comparable to those provided to other employees of the business who do comparable work;

(4) the funds are necessary to allow the business to begin, or to employ additional people, but not to fill positions which would be filled even in the absence of funds from this program;

(5) the business will cooperate with the coordinator in collecting data to assess the result of the program; and

(6) the business is in compliance with all applicable affirmative action, fair labor, health, safety, and environmental standards.

(b) In allocating funds among eligible businesses, the employment administrator shall give priority to businesses which best satisfy the following criteria:

(1) have a high potential for growth and long-term job creation;

(2) are labor intensive;

(3) make high use of local and State resources;

(4) are under ownership of women and minorities;

(4.5) (4-5) meet the definition of a small business as defined in Section 5 of the Small Business Advisory Act;

(4.10) (4-10) produce energy conserving materials or services or are involved in development of renewable sources of energy;

(5) have their primary places of business in the State; and

(6) intend to continue the employment of the eligible applicant for at least 6 months of unsubsidized employment.

(c) (Blank).

(d) A business receiving funds under this program shall repay 70% of the amount received for each eligible job applicant employed who does not continue in the employment of the business for at least 6 months beyond the subsidized period unless the employer dismisses an employee for good cause and works with the Employment Administrator to employ and train another person referred by the Employment Administrator. The Employment Administrator shall forward payments received under this subsection to the Coordinator on a monthly basis. The Coordinator shall deposit these payments into the Illinois 21st Century Workforce Development Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-581, eff. 8-26-11; revised 11-18-11.)

(20 ILCS 630/17)

Sec. 17. Work incentive demonstration project. The coordinator and members of the Advisory Committee shall explore available avaliable resources to leverage in combination with the wage subsidies in this Act to develop a Transitional Jobs program. This Transitional Jobs program would prioritize services for individuals with limited experience in the labor market and barriers to employment, including but not limited to, recipients of Temporary Assistance to Needy Families, Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, or other related public assistance, and people with criminal records.

(Source: P.A. 97-581, eff. 8-26-11; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 70. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing and renumbering multiple versions of Section 1-37a as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/1-37a)

Sec. 1-37a. Cross-agency prequalification and master service agreements.

(a) "State human services agency" means the Department on Aging, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, and the Department of Public Health.

(b) Intent. Per the requirements of Public Act 96-1141, on January 1, 2011 a report titled "Streamlined Auditing and Monitoring for Community Based Services: First Steps Toward a More Efficient System for Providers, State Government, and the Community" was provided to members of the General Assembly. The report, which was developed by a steering committee of community providers, trade associations, and designated representatives from the Departments of Children and Family Services, Healthcare and Family Services, Human Services, and Public Health, issued a series of recommendations, including recommended changes to Administrative Rules and Illinois statutes, on the categories of deemed status for accreditation, fiscal audits, centralized repository of information, Medicaid, technology, contracting, and streamlined monitoring procedures. It is the intent of the 97th General Assembly to pursue implementation of those recommendations that have been determined to require Acts of the General Assembly.

(c) Cross-Agency Prequalification of Human Service Providers. Each State human services agency shall have the authority and is hereby directed to collaboratively adopt joint rules to establish a cross-agency prequalification process for contracting with human service providers. This process shall include a mechanism for the State human services agencies to collect information from human service providers including, but not limited to, provider organizational experience, capability to perform services, and organizational integrity in order for the agencies to screen potential human service providers as vendors to contract with the agencies.

(d) Master Service Agreements for human service providers. Each State human services agency shall have the authority and is hereby directed to collaboratively adopt joint rules to establish a cross-agency master service agreement of standard terms and conditions for contracting with human service providers. The master service agreement shall be awarded to prequalified providers as determined through the cross-agency prequalification process outlined in subsection (c) of this Act. The master service agreement shall not replace or serve as the equivalent of a contract between an agency and a human service provider, but only those human service providers that are prequalified with a master service agreement may contract with an agency to provide services.

(e) Common Service Taxonomy for human service providers. Each State human services agency shall have the authority and is hereby directed to collaboratively adopt joint rules to establish a cross-agency common service taxonomy for human service providers to streamline the processes outlined in subsections (c) and (d) of this Act. The taxonomy shall include, but not be limited to, a common list of terms to define services, processes, and client populations.

(f) Notwithstanding Nothwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, the Department of Human Services shall serve as the lead agency on all matters provided in subsections (c), (d), and (e).

(Source: P.A. 97-210, eff. 7-28-11; revised 10-28-11.)

(20 ILCS 1305/1-37b)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2014)

Sec. 1-37b 1-37a. Management Improvement Initiative Committee.

(a) As used in this Section, unless the context indicates otherwise:

"Departments" means the Department on Aging, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, and the Department of Public Health.

"Management Improvement Initiative Committee" or "Committee" means the Management Improvement Initiative Committee created under this Section.

"Management Improvement Initiative Departmental Leadership Team" or "Team" means the Management Improvement Initiative Departmental Leadership Team created under this Section.

(b) The Governor, or his or her designee, shall create a Management Improvement Initiative Committee that shall include the Management Improvement Initiative Departmental Leadership Team to implement the recommendations made in the report submitted to the General Assembly on January 1, 2011 as required under Public Act 96-1141, and to continue the work of the group formed under the auspices of Public Act 96-1141.

The Team shall be comprised of a representative from each of the Departments.

The Team members shall integrate the Committee's objectives into their respective departmental operations and continue the work of the group formed under the auspices of Public Act 96-1141 including:

(1) Implementing the recommendations of the report submitted to the General Assembly on January 1, 2011 under Public Act 96-1141.

(2) Submitting a progress report to the General Assembly by November 1, 2011 on the progress made in implementing the recommendations made in the report submitted to the General Assembly on January 1, 2011 under Public Act 96-1141.

(3) Reviewing contracts held with community health and human service providers on the regulations and work processes, including reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, certification, and licensing processes, required by the departments and their divisions.

(4) Eliminating obsolete, redundant, or unreasonable regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, certifications, licensing, and work processes.

(5) Implementing reciprocity across divisions and departments. Reciprocity shall be used to accept other division or department regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, certification, and licensing processes.

(6) Implementing integrated work processes across divisions and departments that will be used for efficient and effective work processes including regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, licensing, and certification processes.

(7) Implementing the deemed status for accredited community health and human service providers.

(8) Reviewing work products meant to address the Committee's objectives as set forth in this Section. The review shall be done in concert with similar reviews conducted by the divisions under the Department of Human Services and other department steering committees, committees, and work groups as appropriate and necessary to eliminate redundant work processes including reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, licensing, and certification processes.

(9) Describing how improved regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, certification, licensing, and work processes are measured at the community vendor, contractor, and departmental levels, and how they have reduced redundant regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, certification, licensing, and work processes.

(c) The Team shall examine the entire body of regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, certification, licensing, and work processes that guide departmental operations and contracts to eliminate obsolete, redundant, or unreasonable regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, licensing, and certifications.

(d) The Team shall identify immediate, near-term, and long-term opportunities to improve accountable, non-redundant, effective, and efficient accountability, regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, certification, and licensing processes that are necessary, appropriate, and sufficient to determine the success and quality of contracts with community health and human service vendors and providers.

(e) The Team shall develop performance measures to assess progress towards accomplishing the Committee's objectives and shall develop procedures to provide feedback on the impact of the State's operational improvements meant to achieve management improvement initiative objectives.

(f) The Team shall report operational improvements and document efforts that address the Committee's objectives. These reports shall be submitted to the Governor and the General Assembly semi-annually and shall:

(1) Include the results made to maintain efficient accountability while eliminating obsolete, redundant, or unreasonable regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, licensing, and certifications.

(2) Specify improved regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, certification, licensing, and work processes.

(3) Describe how improved regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, certification, licensing, and work processes are measured at the community vendor, contractor, and departmental levels, and how they have reduced redundant regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, certification, licensing, and work processes.

(4) Include the methods used to engage health and human service providers in the management improvement initiative to improve regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, certification, licensing, and work processes.

(5) Describe how departmental practices have been changed to improve non-redundant accountability, efficiency, effectiveness, and quality.

(g) Beginning in State Fiscal Year 2012, regulations, reporting, monitoring, compliance, auditing, certification, licensing, and work processes, including each new departmental initiative, shall be linked directly to non-redundant, accountable, efficient, and effective outcome indicators which can be used to evaluate the success of the new initiative.

(h) The Management Improvement Initiative Committee.

(1) The Committee shall be comprised of Team members from each of the Departments to manage the overall implementation process and to ensure that any new monitoring and compliance activities are developed as recommended in the report submitted to the General Assembly on January 1, 2011.

(2) Team members shall be able to access available resources within their respective departments, to set priorities, manage the overall implementation process, and ensure that any new monitoring and compliance activities are developed as recommended in the report submitted to the General Assembly on January 1, 2011.

(3) The Departments shall each designate a member to serve as a member of the Committee.

(4) The Committee shall also consist of the community organizations, community providers, associations, and private philanthropic organizations appointed under Public Act 96-1141, and shall be charged with overseeing implementation of the Committee's objectives and ensuring that provider prospective is incorporated.

(5) The Committee shall be co-chaired by department and community representatives, with leadership responsibility resting with the Governor in order to increase the priority and accountability for implementation of the Committee's objectives and recommendations.

(6) The Team shall be responsible for establishing within the Committee workgroups consisting of subject matter experts necessary to reach the Committee's objectives, including the recommendations made in the report submitted to the General Assembly on January 1, 2011 under Public Act 96-1141. Those subject matter experts, including those with necessary technological expertise, shall include outside experts, departmental, association, and community providers.

(7) Recommendations of the Committee shall be reviewed and its efforts integrated into existing as well as ongoing initiatives as appropriate, including the implementation of Public Act 96-1501, the Illinois Frameworks planning and implementation efforts, and any other task force that may make proposals that impact community provider work processes and contract deliverables.

(8) The Department of Human Services shall be designated as the lead support agency and provide administrative staffing for the Committee. Other Departments, as defined by this Section, shall provide additional administrative staffing in conjunction with the Department of Human Services to support the Committee.

(i) This Section is repealed on December 31, 2014.

(Source: P.A. 97-558, eff. 8-25-11; revised 10-28-11.)

Section 75. The Illinois Lottery Law is amended by changing Sections 21.5 and 29 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1605/21.5)

Sec. 21.5. Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure.

(a) The Department shall offer a special instant scratch-off game with the title of "Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure". The game shall commence on January 1, 2006 or as soon thereafter, in the discretion of the Superintendent, as is reasonably practical, and shall be discontinued on December 31, 2016. The operation of the game shall be governed by this Act and any rules adopted by the Department. The Department must consult with the Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure Board, which is established under Section 2310-347 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, regarding the design and promotion of the game. If any provision of this Section is inconsistent with any other provision of this Act, then this Section governs.

(b) The Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure Grant Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The net revenue from the Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure special instant scratch-off game shall be deposited into the Fund for appropriation by the General Assembly solely to the Department of Public Health for the purpose of making grants to public or private entities in Illinois for the purpose of funding breast cancer research, and supportive services for breast cancer survivors and those impacted by breast cancer and breast cancer education. In awarding grants, the Department of Public Health shall consider criteria that includes, but is not limited to, projects and initiatives that address disparities in incidence and mortality rates of breast cancer, based on data from the Illinois Cancer Registry, and populations facing barriers to care. The Department of Public Health shall, before grants are awarded, provide copies of all grant applications to the Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure Board, receive and review the Board's recommendations and comments, and consult with the Board regarding the grants. For purposes of this Section, the term "research" includes, without limitation, expenditures to develop and advance the understanding, techniques, and modalities effective in the detection, prevention, screening, and treatment of breast cancer and may include clinical trials. The grant funds may not be used for institutional, organizational, or community-based overhead costs, indirect costs, or levies.

Moneys received for the purposes of this Section, including, without limitation, net revenue from the special instant scratch-off game and gifts, grants, and awards from any public or private entity, must be deposited into the Fund. Any interest earned on moneys in the Fund must be deposited into the Fund.

For purposes of this subsection, "net revenue" means the total amount for which tickets have been sold less the sum of the amount paid out in prizes and the actual administrative expenses of the Department solely related to the Ticket For The Cure game.

(c) During the time that tickets are sold for the Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure game, the Department shall not unreasonably diminish the efforts devoted to marketing any other instant scratch-off lottery game.

(d) The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement and administer the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1290, eff. 7-26-10; 97-92, eff. 7-11-11; 97-464, eff. 10-15-11; revised 9-7-11.)

(20 ILCS 1605/29)

Sec. 29. The Department of the Lottery.

(a) Executive Order No. 2003-09 is hereby superseded by this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly to the extent that Executive Order No. 2003-09 transfers the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities of the Department of the Lottery to the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue.

(b) The Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue is hereby abolished and the Department of the Lottery is created as an independent department. On the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, all powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities of the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue shall be transferred to the Department of the Lottery.

(c) The personnel of the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue shall be transferred to the Department of the Lottery. The status and rights of such employees under the Personnel Code shall not be affected by the transfer. The rights of the employees and the State of Illinois and its agencies under the Personnel Code and applicable collective bargaining agreements or under any pension, retirement, or annuity plan shall not be affected by this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. To the extent that an employee performs duties for the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue and the Department of Revenue itself or any other division or agency within the Department of Revenue, that employee shall be transferred at the Governor's discretion.

(d) All books, records, papers, documents, property (real and personal), contracts, causes of action, and pending business pertaining to the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred by this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly from the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue to the Department of the Lottery, including, but not limited to, material in electronic or magnetic format and necessary computer hardware and software, shall be transferred to the Department of the Lottery.

(e) All unexpended appropriations and balances and other funds available for use by the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue shall be transferred for use by the Department of the Lottery pursuant to the direction of the Governor. Unexpended balances so transferred shall be expended only for the purpose for which the appropriations were originally made.

(f) The powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred from the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue by this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall be vested in and shall be exercised by the Department of the Lottery.

(g) Whenever reports or notices are now required to be made or given or papers or documents furnished or served by any person to or upon the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue in connection with any of the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred by this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the same shall be made, given, furnished, or served in the same manner to or upon the Department of the Lottery.

(h) This amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly does not affect any act done, ratified, or canceled or any right occurring or established or any action or proceeding had or commenced in an administrative, civil, or criminal cause by the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue before this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly takes effect; such actions or proceedings may be prosecuted and continued by the Department of the Lottery.

(i) Any rules of the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue, including any rules of its predecessor Department of the Lottery, that relate to its powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities and are in full force on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall become the rules of the recreated Department of the Lottery. This amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly does not affect the legality of any such rules in the Illinois Administrative Code.

Any proposed rules filed with the Secretary of State by the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue that are pending in the rulemaking process on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and pertain to the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred, shall be deemed to have been filed by the Department of the Lottery. As soon as practicable hereafter, the Department of the Lottery shall revise and clarify the rules transferred to it under this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly to reflect the reorganization of powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities affected by this amendatory Act, using the procedures for recodification of rules available under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Procedures Act, except that existing title, part, and section numbering for the affected rules may be retained. The Department of the Lottery may propose and adopt under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Procedures Act such other rules of the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue that will now be administered by the Department of the Lottery.

To the extent that, prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the Superintendent of the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue had been empowered to prescribe rules or had other rulemaking authority jointly with the Director of the Department of Revenue with regard to the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities of the Division of the Lottery within the Department of Revenue, such duties shall be exercised from and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly solely by the Superintendent of the Department of the Lottery.

(Source: P.A. 97-464, eff. 10-15-11; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 80. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 73 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1705/15) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-15)

Sec. 15. Before any person is released from a facility operated by the State pursuant to an absolute discharge or a conditional discharge from hospitalization under this Act, the facility director of the facility in which such person is hospitalized shall determine that such person is not currently in need of hospitalization and:

(a) is able to live independently in the community; or

(b) requires further oversight and supervisory care for which arrangements have been made with responsible relatives or supervised residential program approved by the Department; or

(c) requires further personal care or general oversight as defined by the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, for which placement arrangements have been made with a suitable family home or other licensed facility approved by the Department under this Section; or

(d) requires community mental health services for which arrangements have been made with a community mental health provider in accordance with criteria, standards, and procedures promulgated by rule.

Such determination shall be made in writing and shall become a part of the facility record of such absolutely or conditionally discharged person. When the determination indicates that the condition of the person to be granted an absolute discharge or a conditional discharge is described under subparagraph (c) or (d) of this Section, the name and address of the continuing care facility or home to which such person is to be released shall be entered in the facility record. Where a discharge from a mental health facility is made under subparagraph (c), the Department shall assign the person so discharged to an existing community based not-for-profit agency for participation in day activities suitable to the person's needs, such as but not limited to social and vocational rehabilitation, and other recreational, educational and financial activities unless the community based not-for-profit agency is unqualified to accept such assignment. Where the clientele of any not-for-profit agency increases as a result of assignments under this amendatory Act of 1977 by more than 3% over the prior year, the Department shall fully reimburse such agency for the costs of providing services to such persons in excess of such 3% increase. The Department shall keep written records detailing how many persons have been assigned to a community based not-for-profit agency and how many persons were not so assigned because the community based agency was unable to accept the assignments, in accordance with criteria, standards, and procedures promulgated by rule. Whenever a community based agency is found to be unable to accept the assignments, the name of the agency and the reason for the finding shall be included in the report.

Insofar as desirable in the interests of the former recipient, the facility, program or home in which the discharged person is to be placed shall be located in or near the community in which the person resided prior to hospitalization or in the community in which the person's family or nearest next of kin presently reside. Placement of the discharged person in facilities, programs or homes located outside of this State shall not be made by the Department unless there are no appropriate facilities, programs or homes available within this State. Out-of-state placements shall be subject to return of recipients so placed upon the availability of facilities, programs or homes within this State to accommodate these recipients, except where placement in a contiguous state results in locating a recipient in a facility or program closer to the recipient's home or family. If an appropriate facility or program becomes available equal to or closer to the recipient's home or family, the recipient shall be returned to and placed at the appropriate facility or program within this State.

To place any person who is under a program of the Department at board in a suitable family home or in such other facility or program as the Department may consider desirable. The Department may place in licensed nursing homes, sheltered care homes, or homes for the aged those persons whose behavioral manifestations and medical and nursing care needs are such as to be substantially indistinguishable from persons already living in such facilities. Prior to any placement by the Department under this Section, a determination shall be made by the personnel of the Department, as to the capability and suitability of such facility to adequately meet the needs of the person to be discharged. When specialized programs are necessary in order to enable persons in need of supervised living to develop and improve in the community, the Department shall place such persons only in specialized residential care facilities which shall meet Department standards including restricted admission policy, special staffing and programming for social and vocational rehabilitation, in addition to the requirements of the appropriate State licensing agency. The Department shall not place any new person in a facility the license of which has been revoked or not renewed on grounds of inadequate programming, staffing, or medical or adjunctive services, regardless of the pendency of an action for administrative review regarding such revocation or failure to renew. Before the Department may transfer any person to a licensed nursing home, sheltered care home or home for the aged or place any person in a specialized residential care facility the Department shall notify the person to be transferred, or a responsible relative of such person, in writing, at least 30 days before the proposed transfer, with respect to all the relevant facts concerning such transfer, except in cases of emergency when such notice is not required. If either the person to be transferred or a responsible relative of such person objects to such transfer, in writing to the Department, at any time after receipt of notice and before the transfer, the facility director of the facility in which the person was a recipient shall immediately schedule a hearing at the facility with the presence of the facility director, the person who objected to such proposed transfer, and a psychiatrist who is familiar with the record of the person to be transferred. Such person to be transferred or a responsible relative may be represented by such counsel or interested party as he may appoint, who may present such testimony with respect to the proposed transfer. Testimony presented at such hearing shall become a part of the facility record of the person-to-be-transferred. The record of testimony shall be held in the person-to-be-transferred's record in the central files of the facility. If such hearing is held a transfer may only be implemented, if at all, in accordance with the results of such hearing. Within 15 days after such hearing the facility director shall deliver his findings based on the record of the case and the testimony presented at the hearing, by registered or certified mail, to the parties to such hearing. The findings of the facility director shall be deemed a final administrative decision of the Department. For purposes of this Section, "case of emergency" means those instances in which the health of the person to be transferred is imperiled and the most appropriate mental health care or medical care is available at a licensed nursing home, sheltered care home or home for the aged or a specialized residential care facility.

Prior to placement of any person in a facility under this Section the Department shall ensure that an appropriate training plan for staff is provided by the facility. Said training may include instruction and demonstration by Department personnel qualified in the area of mental illness or intellectual disabilities, as applicable to the person to be placed. Training may be given both at the facility from which the recipient is transferred and at the facility receiving the recipient, and may be available on a continuing basis subsequent to placement. In a facility providing services to former Department recipients, training shall be available as necessary for facility staff. Such training will be on a continuing basis as the needs of the facility and recipients change and further training is required.

The Department shall not place any person in a facility which does not have appropriately trained staff in sufficient numbers to accommodate the recipient population already at the facility. As a condition of further or future placements of persons, the Department shall require the employment of additional trained staff members at the facility where said persons are to be placed. The Secretary, or his or her designate, shall establish written guidelines for placement of persons in facilities under this Act. The Department shall keep written records detailing which facilities have been determined to have staff who have been appropriately trained by the Department and all training which it has provided or required under this Section.

Bills for the support for a person boarded out shall be payable monthly out of the proper maintenance funds and shall be audited as any other accounts of the Department. If a person is placed in a facility or program outside the Department, the Department may pay the actual costs of residence, treatment or maintenance in such facility and may collect such actual costs or a portion thereof from the recipient or the estate of a person placed in accordance with this Section.

Other than those placed in a family home the Department shall cause all persons who are placed in a facility, as defined by the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or in designated community living situations or programs, to be visited at least once during the first month following placement, and once every month thereafter for the first year following placement when indicated, but at least quarterly. After the first year, the Department shall determine at what point the appropriate licensing entity for the facility or designated community living situation or program will assume the responsibility of ensuring that appropriate services are being provided to the resident. Once that responsibility is assumed, the Department may discontinue such visits. If a long term care facility has periodic care plan conferences, the visitor may participate in those conferences, if such participation is approved by the resident or the resident's guardian. Visits shall be made by qualified and trained Department personnel, or their designee, in the area of mental health or developmental disabilities applicable to the person visited, and shall be made on a more frequent basis when indicated. The Department may not use as designee any personnel connected with or responsible to the representatives of any facility in which persons who have been transferred under this Section are placed. In the course of such visit there shall be consideration of the following areas, but not limited thereto: effects of transfer on physical and mental health of the person, sufficiency of nursing care and medical coverage required by the person, sufficiency of staff personnel and ability to provide basic care for the person, social, recreational and programmatic activities available for the person, and other appropriate aspects of the person's environment.

A report containing the above observations shall be made to the Department, to the licensing agency, and to any other appropriate agency subsequent to each visitation. The report shall contain recommendations to improve the care and treatment of the resident, as necessary, which shall be reviewed by the facility's interdisciplinary team and the resident or the resident's legal guardian.

Upon the complaint of any person placed in accordance with this Section or any responsible citizen or upon discovery that such person has been abused, neglected, or improperly cared for, or that the placement does not provide the type of care required by the recipient's current condition, the Department immediately shall investigate, and determine if the well-being, health, care, or safety of any person is affected by any of the above occurrences, and if any one of the above occurrences is verified, the Department shall remove such person at once to a facility of the Department or to another facility outside the Department, provided such person's needs can be met at said facility. The Department may also provide any person placed in accordance with this Section who is without available funds, and who is permitted to engage in employment outside the facility, such sums for the transportation, and other expenses as may be needed by him until he receives his wages for such employment.

The Department shall promulgate rules and regulations governing the purchase of care for persons who are wards of or who are receiving services from the Department. Such rules and regulations shall apply to all monies expended by any agency of the State of Illinois for services rendered by any person, corporate entity, agency, governmental agency or political subdivision whether public or private outside of the Department whether payment is made through a contractual, per-diem or other arrangement. No funds shall be paid to any person, corporation, agency, governmental entity or political subdivision without compliance with such rules and regulations.

The rules and regulations governing purchase of care shall describe categories and types of service deemed appropriate for purchase by the Department.

Any provider of services under this Act may elect to receive payment for those services, and the Department is authorized to arrange for that payment, by means of direct deposit transmittals to the service provider's account maintained at a bank, savings and loan association, or other financial institution. The financial institution shall be approved by the Department, and the deposits shall be in accordance with rules and regulations adopted by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-7-11.)

(20 ILCS 1705/73)

Sec. 73. Report; Williams v. Quinn consent decree.

(a) Annual Report.

(1) No later than that December 31, 2011, and on December 31st of each of the following 4 years, the Department of Human Services shall prepare and submit an annual report to the General Assembly concerning the implementation of the Williams v. Quinn consent decree and other efforts to move persons with mental illnesses from institutional settings to community-based settings. This report shall include:

(A) The number of persons who have been moved from long-term care facilities to community-based settings during the previous year and the number of persons projected to be moved during the next year.

(B) Any implementation or compliance reports prepared by the State for the Court or the court-appointed monitor in Williams v. Quinn.

(C) Any reports from the court-appointed monitor or findings by the Court reflecting the Department's compliance or failure to comply with the Williams v. Quinn consent decree and any other order issued during that proceeding.

(D) Statistics reflecting the number and types of community-based services provided to persons who have been moved from long-term care facilities to community-based settings.

(E) Any additional community-based services which are or will be needed in order to ensure maximum community integration as provided for by the Williams v. Quinn consent decree, and the Department's plan for providing these services.

(F) Any and all costs associated with transitioning residents from institutional settings to community-based settings, including, but not limited to, the cost of residential services, the cost of outpatient treatment, and the cost of all community support services facilitating the community-based setting.

(2) The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report with the Speaker, Minority Leader, and Clerk of the House of Representatives; the President, Minority Leader, and Secretary of the Senate; and the Legislative Research Unit, as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and by filing additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

(b) Department rule. The Department of Human Services shall draft and promulgate a new rule governing community-based residential settings. The new rule for community-based residential settings shall include settings that offer to persons with serious mental illness (i) community-based residential recovery-oriented mental health care, treatment, and services; and (ii) community-based residential mental health and co-occurring substance use disorder care, treatment, and services.

Community-based residential settings shall honor a consumer's choice as well as a consumer's right to live in the:

(1) Least restrictive environment.

(2) Most appropriate integrated setting.

(3) Least restrictive environment and most appropriate integrated setting designed to assist the individual in living in a safe, appropriate, and therapeutic environment.

(4) Least restrictive environment and most appropriate integrated setting that affords the person the opportunity to live similarly to persons without serious mental illness.

The new rule for community-based residential settings shall be drafted in such a manner as to delineate State-supported care, treatment, and services appropriately governed within the new rule, and shall continue eligibility for eligible individuals in programs governed by Title 59, Part 132 of the Illinois Administrative Code. The Department shall draft a new rule for community-based residential settings by January 1, 2012. The new rule must include, but shall not be limited to, standards for:

(i) Administrative requirements.

(ii) Monitoring, review, and reporting.

(iii) Certification requirements.

(iv) Life safety.

(c) Study of housing and residential services. By no later than October 1, 2011, the Department shall conduct a statewide study to assess the existing types of community-based housing and residential services currently being provided to individuals with mental illnesses in Illinois. This study shall include State-funded and federally funded housing and residential services. The results of this study shall be used to inform the rulemaking process outlined in subsection (b).

(Source: P.A. 97-529, eff. 8-23-11; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 85. The Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2105-60 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-60)

Sec. 2105-60. Payment by credit card or third-party payment agent.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "credit card" has the meaning given to it in Section 10 of the Local Governmental Government Acceptance of Credit Cards Act.

(b) The Department may, but need not, accept payment by credit card for any fee, fine, or other charge that it is authorized by law to collect. The Department may adopt rules and procedures governing the acceptance of payment by credit card and may enter into such agreements as may be necessary to accept payment by credit card.

(c) The Department may, but need not, accept payment through a third-party payment agent of any fee, fine, or other charges to the Department. The Department may adopt rules and procedures governing the acceptance of payments through third-party payment agents.

The Department may enter into agreements with one or more financial institutions, internet companies, or other business entities to act as third-party payment agents for the payment of fees, fines, or other charges to the Department. These agreements may authorize the third-party payment agent to retain a service fee out of the payments collected.

(d) Receipt by the Department of the amount of a fee, fine, or other charge paid by credit card or through a third-party payment agent authorized by the Department, less the amount of any service fee retained under the Department's agreement with the credit card service provider or the third-party payment agent, shall be deemed receipt of the full amount of the fee or other charge and shall discharge the payment obligation in full.

(e) In the event of a conflict between this Section and a provision of any other Act administered by the Department, this Section controls.

(Source: P.A. 92-565, eff. 6-24-02; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 90. The Illinois Health Finance Reform Act is amended by changing Section 4-2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2215/4-2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 6504-2)

Sec. 4-2. Powers and duties.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Uniform Provider Utilization and Charge Information.

(1) The Department of Public Health shall require that all hospitals and ambulatory surgical treatment centers licensed to operate in the State of Illinois adopt a uniform system for submitting patient claims and encounter data for payment from public and private payors. This system shall be based upon adoption of the uniform electronic billing form pursuant to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

(2) (Blank).

(3) The Department of Insurance shall require all third-party payors, including but not limited to, licensed insurers, medical and hospital service corporations, health maintenance organizations, and self-funded employee health plans, to accept the uniform billing form, without attachment as submitted by hospitals pursuant to paragraph (1) of subsection (d) above, effective January 1, 1985; provided, however, nothing shall prevent all such third party payors from requesting additional information necessary to determine eligibility for benefits or liability for reimbursement for services provided.

(4) By no later than 60 days after the end of each calendar quarter, each hospital licensed in the State shall electronically submit to the Department inpatient and outpatient claims and encounter data related to surgical and invasive procedures collected under paragraph (5) for each patient.

By no later than 60 days after the end of each calendar quarter, each ambulatory surgical treatment center licensed in the State shall electronically submit to the Department outpatient claims and encounter data collected under paragraph (5) for each patient, provided however, that, until July 1, 2006, ambulatory surgical treatment centers who cannot electronically submit data may submit data by computer diskette. For hospitals, the claims and encounter data to be reported shall include all inpatient surgical cases. Claims and encounter data submitted under this Act shall not include a patient's Social Security number; provided, however, that the Department may require, by rule, the inclusion of a unique patient identifier that may be based upon the last four digits of the patient's Social Security number. The Department shall promulgate regulations to protect the patient's rights of confidentiality and privacy. The regulations shall ensure that patient names, addresses, Social Security numbers, or any other data that the Department believes could be used to determine the identity of an individual patient shall be stored and processed in the most secure manner possible.

(5) By no later than January 1, 2006, the Department must collect and compile claims and encounter data related to surgical and invasive procedures according to uniform electronic submission formats as required under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. By no later than January 1, 2006, the Department must collect and compile from ambulatory surgical treatment centers the claims and encounter data according to uniform electronic data element formats as required under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA).

(6) The Department shall make available on its website the "Consumer Guide to Health Care" by January 1, 2006. The Department shall also make available on its website the Hospital Report Card Act. The "Consumer Guide to Health Care" and the Hospital Report Card Act were established to educate and assist Illinois health care consumers as they make health care choices for themselves, their families, and their loved ones. Significant and useful information is available through the "Consumer Guide to Health Care" and the Hospital Report Card Act. The links to the "Consumer Guide to Health Care" and the Hospital Report Card Act on the Department's website shall include a brief description of the information available in both. When the Department creates new or updates existing consumer fact sheets and other information or materials for the purpose of educating the Illinois health care consumer, it shall reference the web pages of the "Consumer Guide to Health Care" and the Hospital Report Card Act when it is relevant and appropriate. The "Consumer Guide to Health Care" shall include information on at least 30 inpatient conditions and procedures identified by the Department that demonstrate the highest degree of variation in patient charges and quality of care. By no later than January 1, 2007, the "Consumer Guide to Health Care" shall also include information on at least 30 outpatient conditions and procedures identified by the Department that demonstrate the highest degree of variation in patient charges and quality care. As to each condition or procedure, the "Consumer Guide to Health Care" shall include up-to-date comparison information relating to volume of cases, average charges, risk-adjusted mortality rates, and nosocomial infection rates and, with respect to outpatient surgical and invasive procedures, shall include information regarding surgical infections, complications, and direct admissions of outpatient cases to hospitals for selected procedures, as determined by the Department, based on review by the Department of its own, local, or national studies. Information disclosed pursuant to this paragraph on mortality and infection rates shall be based upon information hospitals and ambulatory surgical treatment centers have either (i) previously submitted to the Department pursuant to their obligations to report health care information under this Act or other public health reporting laws and regulations outside of this Act or (ii) submitted to the Department under the provisions of the Hospital Report Card Act.

(7) Publicly disclosed information must be provided in language that is easy to understand and accessible to consumers using an interactive query system. The guide shall include such additional information as is necessary to enhance decision making among consumer and health care purchasers, which shall include, at a minimum, appropriate guidance on how to interpret the data and an explanation of why the data may vary from provider to provider. The "Consumer Guide to Health Care" shall also cite standards that facilities meet under state and federal law and, if applicable, to achieve voluntary accreditation.

(8) None of the information the Department discloses to the public under this subsection may be made available unless the information has been reviewed, adjusted, and validated according to the following process:

(i) Hospitals, ambulatory surgical treatment centers, and organizations representing hospitals, ambulatory surgical treatment centers, purchasers, consumer groups, and health plans are meaningfully involved in providing advice and consultation to the Department in the development of all aspects of the Department's methodology for collecting, analyzing, and disclosing the information collected under this Act, including collection methods, formatting, and methods and means for release and dissemination;

(ii) The entire methodology for collecting and analyzing the data is disclosed to all relevant organizations and to all providers that are the subject of any information to be made available to the public before any public disclosure of such information;

(iii) Data collection and analytical methodologies are used that meet accepted standards of validity and reliability before any information is made available to the public;

(iv) The limitations of the data sources and analytic methodologies used to develop comparative provider information are clearly identified and acknowledged, including, but not limited to, appropriate and inappropriate uses of the data;

(v) To the greatest extent possible, comparative hospital and ambulatory surgical treatment center information initiatives use standard-based norms derived from widely accepted provider-developed practice guidelines;

(vi) Comparative hospital and ambulatory surgical treatment center information and other information that the Department has compiled regarding hospitals and ambulatory surgical treatment centers is shared with the hospitals and ambulatory surgical treatment centers under review prior to public dissemination of the information and these providers have an opportunity to make corrections and additions of helpful explanatory comments about the information before the publication;

(vii) Comparisons among hospitals and ambulatory surgical treatment centers adjust for patient case mix and other relevant risk factors and control for provider peer groups, if applicable;

(viii) Effective safeguards to protect against the unauthorized use or disclosure of hospital and ambulatory surgical treatment center information are developed and implemented;

(ix) Effective safeguards to protect against the dissemination of inconsistent, incomplete, invalid, inaccurate, or subjective provider data are developed and implemented;

(x) The quality and accuracy of hospital and ambulatory surgical treatment center information reported under this Act and its data collection, analysis, and dissemination methodologies are evaluated regularly; and

(xi) Only the most basic hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center identifying information from mandatory reports is used. Information regarding a hospital or ambulatory surgical center may be released regardless of the number of employees or health care professionals whose data are reflected in the data for the hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center as long as no specific information identifying an employee or a health care professional is released. Further, patient identifiable information is not released. The input data collected by the Department shall not be a public record under the Illinois Freedom of Information Act.

None of the information the Department discloses to the public under this Act may be used to establish a standard of care in a private civil action.

(9) The Department must develop and implement an outreach campaign to educate the public regarding the availability of the "Consumer Guide to Health Care".

(10) By January 1, 2006, the Department must study the most effective methods for public disclosure of patient claims and encounter data and health care quality information that will be useful to consumers in making health care decisions and report its recommendations to the Governor and to the General Assembly.

(11) The Department must undertake all steps necessary under State and Federal law to protect patient confidentiality in order to prevent the identification of individual patient records.

(12) The Department must adopt rules for inpatient and outpatient data collection and reporting no later than January 1, 2006.

(13) In addition to the data products indicated above, the Department shall respond to requests by government agencies, academic research organizations, and private sector organizations for purposes of clinical performance measurements and analyses of data collected pursuant to this Section.

(14) The Department, with the advice of and in consultation with hospitals, ambulatory surgical treatment centers, organizations representing hospitals, organizations representing ambulatory treatment centers, purchasers, consumer groups, and health plans, must evaluate additional methods for comparing the performance of hospitals and ambulatory surgical treatment centers, including the value of disclosing additional measures that are adopted by the National Quality Forum, The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, or similar national entities that establish standards to measure the performance of health care providers. The Department shall report its findings and recommendations on its Internet website and to the Governor and General Assembly no later than July 1, 2006.

(e) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-171, eff. 1-1-12; 97-180, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-7-11.)

Section 95. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2310-367, 2310-550, 2310-560, 2310-565, and 2310-625 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-367)

Sec. 2310-367. Health Data Task Force; purpose; implementation plan.

(a) In accordance with the recommendations of the 2007 State Health Improvement Plan, it is the policy of the State that, to the extent possible and consistent with privacy and other laws, State public health data and health-related administrative data are to be used to understand and report on the scope of health problems, plan prevention programs, and evaluate program effectiveness at the State and community level. It is a priority to use data to address racial, ethnic, and other health disparities. This system is intended to support State and community level public health planning, and is not intended to supplant or replace data-use agreements between State agencies and academic researchers for more specific research needs.

(b) Within 30 days after August 24, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-418) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, a Health Data Task Force shall be convened to create a system for public access to integrated health data. The Task Force shall consist of the following: the Director of Public Health or his or her designee; the Director of Healthcare and Family Services or his or her designee; the Secretary of Human Services or his or her designee; the Director of the Department on Aging or his or her designee; the Director of Children and Family Services or his or her designee; the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee; and other State officials as deemed appropriate by the Governor.

The Task Force shall be advised by a public advisory group consisting of community health data users, minority health advocates, local public health departments, and private data suppliers such as hospitals and other health care providers. Each member of the Task Force shall appoint 3 members of the public advisory group. The public advisory group shall assist the Task Force in setting goals, articulating user needs, and setting priorities for action.

The Department of Public Health is primarily responsible for providing staff and administrative support to the Task Force. The other State agencies represented on the Task Force shall work cooperatively with the Department of Public Health to provide administrative support to the Task Force. The Department of Public Health shall have ongoing responsibility for monitoring the implementation of the plan and shall have ongoing responsibility to identify new or emerging data or technology needs.

The State agencies represented on the Task Force shall review their health data, data collection, and dissemination policies for opportunities to coordinate and integrate data and make data available within and outside State government in support of this State policy. To the extent possible, existing data infrastructure shall be used to create this system of public access to data. The Illinois Department of Health Care and Family Services data warehouse and the Illinois Department of Public Health IPLAN Data System may be the foundation of this system.

(c) The Task Force shall produce a plan with a phased and prioritized implementation timetable focusing on assuring access to improving the quality of data necessary to understand health disparities. The Task Force shall submit an initial report to the General Assembly no later than that July 1, 2008, and shall make annual reports to the General Assembly on or before July 1 of each year through 2011 of the progress toward implementing the plan.

(Source: P.A. 95-418, eff. 8-24-07; revised 11-18-11.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-550) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.40)

Sec. 2310-550. Long-term care facilities. The Department may perform, in all long-term care facilities as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, all facilities as defined in the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, and all facilities as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, all inspection, evaluation, certification, and inspection of care duties that the federal government may require the State of Illinois to perform or have performed as a condition of participation in any programs under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-7-11.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-560) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.87)

Sec. 2310-560. Advisory committees concerning construction of facilities.

(a) The Director shall appoint an advisory committee. The committee shall be established by the Department by rule. The Director and the Department shall consult with the advisory committee concerning the application of building codes and Department rules related to those building codes to facilities under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, and the ID/DD Community Care Act.

(b) The Director shall appoint an advisory committee to advise the Department and to conduct informal dispute resolution concerning the application of building codes for new and existing construction and related Department rules and standards under the Hospital Licensing Act, including without limitation rules and standards for (i) design and construction, (ii) engineering and maintenance of the physical plant, site, equipment, and systems (heating, cooling, electrical, ventilation, plumbing, water, sewer, and solid waste disposal), and (iii) fire and safety. The advisory committee shall be composed of all of the following members:

(1) The chairperson or an elected representative from the Hospital Licensing Board under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(2) Two health care architects with a minimum of 10 years of experience in institutional design and building code analysis.

(3) Two engineering professionals (one mechanical and one electrical) with a minimum of 10 years of experience in institutional design and building code analysis.

(4) One commercial interior design professional with a minimum of 10 years of experience.

(5) Two representatives from provider associations.

(6) The Director or his or her designee, who shall serve as the committee moderator.

Appointments shall be made with the concurrence of the Hospital Licensing Board. The committee shall submit recommendations concerning the application of building codes and related Department rules and standards to the Hospital Licensing Board for review and comment prior to submission to the Department. The committee shall submit recommendations concerning informal dispute resolution to the Director. The Department shall provide per diem and travel expenses to the committee members.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-7-11.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-565) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.88)

Sec. 2310-565. Facility construction training program. The Department shall conduct, at least annually, a joint in-service training program for architects, engineers, interior designers, and other persons involved in the construction of a facility under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the Hospital Licensing Act on problems and issues relating to the construction of facilities under any of those Acts.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-7-11.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-625)

Sec. 2310-625. Emergency Powers.

(a) Upon proclamation of a disaster by the Governor, as provided for in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, the Director of Public Health shall have the following powers, which shall be exercised only in coordination with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation:

(1) The power to suspend the requirements for temporary or permanent licensure or certification of persons who are licensed or certified in another state and are working under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to the declared disaster.

(2) The power to modify the scope of practice restrictions under the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act for any persons who are licensed under that Act for any person working under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to the declared disaster.

(3) The power to modify the scope of practice restrictions under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act for Certified Nursing Assistants for any person working under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to the declared disaster.

(b) Persons exempt from licensure or certification under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) and persons operating under modified scope of practice provisions under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) and paragraph (3) of subsection (a) shall be exempt from licensure or certification or subject to modified scope of practice only until the declared disaster has ended as provided by law. For purposes of this Section, persons working under the direction of an emergency services and disaster agency accredited by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and a local public health department, pursuant to a declared disaster, shall be deemed to be working under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Department of Public Health.

(c) The Director shall exercise these powers by way of proclamation.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-7-11.)

Section 100. The Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2435/15) (from Ch. 23, par. 3395-15)

Sec. 15. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Abuse" means causing any physical, sexual, or mental abuse to an adult with disabilities, including exploitation of the adult's financial resources. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an adult with disabilities is a victim of abuse or neglect for the sole reason that he or she is being furnished with or relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an adult with disabilities is a victim of abuse because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

"Adult with disabilities" means a person aged 18 through 59 who resides in a domestic living situation and whose physical or mental disability impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain protection from abuse, neglect, or exploitation.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"Adults with Disabilities Abuse Project" or "project" means that program within the Office of Inspector General designated by the Department of Human Services to receive and assess reports of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation of adults with disabilities.

"Domestic living situation" means a residence where the adult with disabilities lives alone or with his or her family or household members, a care giver, or others or at a board and care home or other community-based unlicensed facility, but is not:

(1) A licensed facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act or Section 1-113 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or Section 1-113 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act.

(2) A life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act.

(3) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government, a federal agency, or the State.

(4) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation of organized facilities and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act or community residential alternative as licensed under that Act.

"Emergency" means a situation in which an adult with disabilities is in danger of death or great bodily harm.

"Family or household members" means a person who as a family member, volunteer, or paid care provider has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of an adult with disabilities who needs assistance with activities of daily living.

"Financial exploitation" means the illegal, including tortious, use of the assets or resources of an adult with disabilities. Exploitation includes, but is not limited to, the misappropriation of assets or resources of an adult with disabilities by undue influence, by breach of a fiduciary relationship, by fraud, deception, or extortion, or by the use of the assets or resources in a manner contrary to law.

"Mental abuse" means the infliction of emotional or mental distress by a caregiver, a family member, or any person with ongoing access to a person with disabilities by threat of harm, humiliation, or other verbal or nonverbal conduct.

"Neglect" means the failure of another individual to provide an adult with disabilities with or the willful withholding from an adult with disabilities the necessities of life, including, but not limited to, food, clothing, shelter, or medical care.

Nothing in the definition of "neglect" shall be construed to impose a requirement that assistance be provided to an adult with disabilities over his or her objection in the absence of a court order, nor to create any new affirmative duty to provide support, assistance, or intervention to an adult with disabilities. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an adult with disabilities is a victim of neglect because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

"Physical abuse" means any of the following acts:

(1) knowing or reckless use of physical force, confinement, or restraint;

(2) knowing, repeated, and unnecessary sleep deprivation;

(3) knowing or reckless conduct which creates an immediate risk of physical harm; or

(4) when committed by a caregiver, a family member, or any person with ongoing access to a person with disabilities, directing another person to physically abuse a person with disabilities.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Human Services.

"Sexual abuse" means touching, fondling, sexual threats, sexually inappropriate remarks, or any other sexual activity with an adult with disabilities when the adult with disabilities is unable to understand, unwilling to consent, threatened, or physically forced to engage in sexual behavior. Sexual abuse includes acts of sexual exploitation including, but not limited to, facilitating or compelling an adult with disabilities to become a prostitute, or receiving anything of value from an adult with disabilities knowing it was obtained in whole or in part from the practice of prostitution.

"Substantiated case" means a reported case of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation in which the Adults with Disabilities Abuse Project staff, after assessment, determines that there is reason to believe abuse, neglect, or exploitation has occurred.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-354, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-7-11.)

Section 105. The Illinois Finance Authority Act is amended by changing Section 801-10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3501/801-10)

Sec. 801-10. Definitions. The following terms, whenever used or referred to in this Act, shall have the following meanings, except in such instances where the context may clearly indicate otherwise:

(a) The term "Authority" means the Illinois Finance Authority created by this Act.

(b) The term "project" means an industrial project, conservation project, housing project, public purpose project, higher education project, health facility project, cultural institution project, agricultural facility or agribusiness, and "project" may include any combination of one or more of the foregoing undertaken jointly by any person with one or more other persons.

(c) The term "public purpose project" means any project or facility including without limitation land, buildings, structures, machinery, equipment and all other real and personal property, which is authorized or required by law to be acquired, constructed, improved, rehabilitated, reconstructed, replaced or maintained by any unit of government or any other lawful public purpose which is authorized or required by law to be undertaken by any unit of government.

(d) The term "industrial project" means the acquisition, construction, refurbishment, creation, development or redevelopment of any facility, equipment, machinery, real property or personal property for use by any instrumentality of the State or its political subdivisions, for use by any person or institution, public or private, for profit or not for profit, or for use in any trade or business including, but not limited to, any industrial, manufacturing or commercial enterprise and which is (1) a capital project including but not limited to: (i) land and any rights therein, one or more buildings, structures or other improvements, machinery and equipment, whether now existing or hereafter acquired, and whether or not located on the same site or sites; (ii) all appurtenances and facilities incidental to the foregoing, including, but not limited to utilities, access roads, railroad sidings, track, docking and similar facilities, parking facilities, dockage, wharfage, railroad roadbed, track, trestle, depot, terminal, switching and signaling or related equipment, site preparation and landscaping; and (iii) all non-capital costs and expenses relating thereto or (2) any addition to, renovation, rehabilitation or improvement of a capital project or (3) any activity or undertaking which the Authority determines will aid, assist or encourage economic growth, development or redevelopment within the State or any area thereof, will promote the expansion, retention or diversification of employment opportunities within the State or any area thereof or will aid in stabilizing or developing any industry or economic sector of the State economy. The term "industrial project" also means the production of motion pictures.

(e) The term "bond" or "bonds" shall include bonds, notes (including bond, grant or revenue anticipation notes), certificates and/or other evidences of indebtedness representing an obligation to pay money, including refunding bonds.

(f) The terms "lease agreement" and "loan agreement" shall mean: (i) an agreement whereby a project acquired by the Authority by purchase, gift or lease is leased to any person, corporation or unit of local government which will use or cause the project to be used as a project as heretofore defined upon terms providing for lease rental payments at least sufficient to pay when due all principal of, interest and premium, if any, on any bonds of the Authority issued with respect to such project, providing for the maintenance, insuring and operation of the project on terms satisfactory to the Authority, providing for disposition of the project upon termination of the lease term, including purchase options or abandonment of the premises, and such other terms as may be deemed desirable by the Authority, or (ii) any agreement pursuant to which the Authority agrees to loan the proceeds of its bonds issued with respect to a project or other funds of the Authority to any person which will use or cause the project to be used as a project as heretofore defined upon terms providing for loan repayment installments at least sufficient to pay when due all principal of, interest and premium, if any, on any bonds of the Authority, if any, issued with respect to the project, and providing for maintenance, insurance and other matters as may be deemed desirable by the Authority.

(g) The term "financial aid" means the expenditure of Authority funds or funds provided by the Authority through the issuance of its bonds, notes or other evidences of indebtedness or from other sources for the development, construction, acquisition or improvement of a project.

(h) The term "person" means an individual, corporation, unit of government, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, 2 or more persons having a joint or common interest, or any other legal entity.

(i) The term "unit of government" means the federal government, the State or unit of local government, a school district, or any agency or instrumentality, office, officer, department, division, bureau, commission, college or university thereof.

(j) The term "health facility" means: (a) any public or private institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act; (b) any public or private institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act; (c) any public or licensed private hospital as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; (d) any such facility exempted from such licensure when the Director of Public Health attests that such exempted facility meets the statutory definition of a facility subject to licensure; (e) any other public or private health service institution, place, building, or agency which the Director of Public Health attests is subject to certification by the Secretary, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services under the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended, or which the Director of Public Health attests is subject to standard-setting by a recognized public or voluntary accrediting or standard-setting agency; (f) any public or private institution, place, building or agency engaged in providing one or more supporting services to a health facility; (g) any public or private institution, place, building or agency engaged in providing training in the healing arts, including but not limited to schools of medicine, dentistry, osteopathy, optometry, podiatry, pharmacy or nursing, schools for the training of x-ray, laboratory or other health care technicians and schools for the training of para-professionals in the health care field; (h) any public or private congregate, life or extended care or elderly housing facility or any public or private home for the aged or infirm, including, without limitation, any Facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act; (i) any public or private mental, emotional or physical rehabilitation facility or any public or private educational, counseling, or rehabilitation facility or home, for those persons with a developmental disability, those who are physically ill or disabled, the emotionally disturbed, those persons with a mental illness or persons with learning or similar disabilities or problems; (j) any public or private alcohol, drug or substance abuse diagnosis, counseling treatment or rehabilitation facility, (k) any public or private institution, place, building or agency licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or which is not so licensed but which the Director of Children and Family Services attests provides child care, child welfare or other services of the type provided by facilities subject to such licensure; (l) any public or private adoption agency or facility; and (m) any public or private blood bank or blood center. "Health facility" also means a public or private structure or structures suitable primarily for use as a laboratory, laundry, nurses or interns residence or other housing or hotel facility used in whole or in part for staff, employees or students and their families, patients or relatives of patients admitted for treatment or care in a health facility, or persons conducting business with a health facility, physician's facility, surgicenter, administration building, research facility, maintenance, storage or utility facility and all structures or facilities related to any of the foregoing or required or useful for the operation of a health facility, including parking or other facilities or other supporting service structures required or useful for the orderly conduct of such health facility. "Health facility" also means, with respect to a project located outside the State, any public or private institution, place, building, or agency which provides services similar to those described above, provided that such project is owned, operated, leased or managed by a participating health institution located within the State, or a participating health institution affiliated with an entity located within the State.

(k) The term "participating health institution" means (i) a private corporation or association or (ii) a public entity of this State, in either case authorized by the laws of this State or the applicable state to provide or operate a health facility as defined in this Act and which, pursuant to the provisions of this Act, undertakes the financing, construction or acquisition of a project or undertakes the refunding or refinancing of obligations, loans, indebtedness or advances as provided in this Act.

(l) The term "health facility project", means a specific health facility work or improvement to be financed or refinanced (including without limitation through reimbursement of prior expenditures), acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, with funds provided in whole or in part hereunder, any accounts receivable, working capital, liability or insurance cost or operating expense financing or refinancing program of a health facility with or involving funds provided in whole or in part hereunder, or any combination thereof.

(m) The term "bond resolution" means the resolution or resolutions authorizing the issuance of, or providing terms and conditions related to, bonds issued under this Act and includes, where appropriate, any trust agreement, trust indenture, indenture of mortgage or deed of trust providing terms and conditions for such bonds.

(n) The term "property" means any real, personal or mixed property, whether tangible or intangible, or any interest therein, including, without limitation, any real estate, leasehold interests, appurtenances, buildings, easements, equipment, furnishings, furniture, improvements, machinery, rights of way, structures, accounts, contract rights or any interest therein.

(o) The term "revenues" means, with respect to any project, the rents, fees, charges, interest, principal repayments, collections and other income or profit derived therefrom.

(p) The term "higher education project" means, in the case of a private institution of higher education, an educational facility to be acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof.

(q) The term "cultural institution project" means, in the case of a cultural institution, a cultural facility to be acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof.

(r) The term "educational facility" means any property located within the State, or any property located outside the State, provided that, if the property is located outside the State, it must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, in each case constructed or acquired before or after the effective date of this Act, which is or will be, in whole or in part, suitable for the instruction, feeding, recreation or housing of students, the conducting of research or other work of a private institution of higher education, the use by a private institution of higher education in connection with any educational, research or related or incidental activities then being or to be conducted by it, or any combination of the foregoing, including, without limitation, any such property suitable for use as or in connection with any one or more of the following: an academic facility, administrative facility, agricultural facility, assembly hall, athletic facility, auditorium, boating facility, campus, communication facility, computer facility, continuing education facility, classroom, dining hall, dormitory, exhibition hall, fire fighting facility, fire prevention facility, food service and preparation facility, gymnasium, greenhouse, health care facility, hospital, housing, instructional facility, laboratory, library, maintenance facility, medical facility, museum, offices, parking area, physical education facility, recreational facility, research facility, stadium, storage facility, student union, study facility, theatre or utility.

(s) The term "cultural facility" means any property located within the State, or any property located outside the State, provided that, if the property is located outside the State, it must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, in each case constructed or acquired before or after the effective date of this Act, which is or will be, in whole or in part, suitable for the particular purposes or needs of a cultural institution, including, without limitation, any such property suitable for use as or in connection with any one or more of the following: an administrative facility, aquarium, assembly hall, auditorium, botanical garden, exhibition hall, gallery, greenhouse, library, museum, scientific laboratory, theater or zoological facility, and shall also include, without limitation, books, works of art or music, animal, plant or aquatic life or other items for display, exhibition or performance. The term "cultural facility" includes buildings on the National Register of Historic Places which are owned or operated by nonprofit entities.

(t) "Private institution of higher education" means a not-for-profit educational institution which is not owned by the State or any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which is authorized by law to provide a program of education beyond the high school level and which:

(1) Admits as regular students only individuals having a certificate of graduation from a high school, or the recognized equivalent of such a certificate;

(2) Provides an educational program for which it awards a bachelor's degree, or provides an educational program, admission into which is conditioned upon the prior attainment of a bachelor's degree or its equivalent, for which it awards a postgraduate degree, or provides not less than a 2-year program which is acceptable for full credit toward such a degree, or offers a 2-year program in engineering, mathematics, or the physical or biological sciences which is designed to prepare the student to work as a technician and at a semiprofessional level in engineering, scientific, or other technological fields which require the understanding and application of basic engineering, scientific, or mathematical principles or knowledge;

(3) Is accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency or association or, if not so accredited, is an institution whose credits are accepted, on transfer, by not less than 3 institutions which are so accredited, for credit on the same basis as if transferred from an institution so accredited, and holds an unrevoked certificate of approval under the Private College Act from the Board of Higher Education, or is qualified as a "degree granting institution" under the Academic Degree Act; and

(4) Does not discriminate in the admission of students on the basis of race or color. "Private institution of higher education" also includes any "academic institution".

(u) The term "academic institution" means any not-for-profit institution which is not owned by the State or any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which institution engages in, or facilitates academic, scientific, educational or professional research or learning in a field or fields of study taught at a private institution of higher education. Academic institutions include, without limitation, libraries, archives, academic, scientific, educational or professional societies, institutions, associations or foundations having such purposes.

(v) The term "cultural institution" means any not-for-profit institution which is not owned by the State or any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which institution engages in the cultural, intellectual, scientific, educational or artistic enrichment of the people of the State. Cultural institutions include, without limitation, aquaria, botanical societies, historical societies, libraries, museums, performing arts associations or societies, scientific societies and zoological societies.

(w) The term "affiliate" means, with respect to financing of an agricultural facility or an agribusiness, any lender, any person, firm or corporation controlled by, or under common control with, such lender, and any person, firm or corporation controlling such lender.

(x) The term "agricultural facility" means land, any building or other improvement thereon or thereto, and any personal properties deemed necessary or suitable for use, whether or not now in existence, in farming, ranching, the production of agricultural commodities (including, without limitation, the products of aquaculture, hydroponics and silviculture) or the treating, processing or storing of such agricultural commodities when such activities are customarily engaged in by farmers as a part of farming.

(y) The term "lender" with respect to financing of an agricultural facility or an agribusiness, means any federal or State chartered bank, Federal Land Bank, Production Credit Association, Bank for Cooperatives, federal or State chartered savings and loan association or building and loan association, Small Business Investment Company or any other institution qualified within this State to originate and service loans, including, but without limitation to, insurance companies, credit unions and mortgage loan companies. "Lender" also means a wholly owned subsidiary of a manufacturer, seller or distributor of goods or services that makes loans to businesses or individuals, commonly known as a "captive finance company".

(z) The term "agribusiness" means any sole proprietorship, limited partnership, co-partnership, joint venture, corporation or cooperative which operates or will operate a facility located within the State of Illinois that is related to the processing of agricultural commodities (including, without limitation, the products of aquaculture, hydroponics and silviculture) or the manufacturing, production or construction of agricultural buildings, structures, equipment, implements, and supplies, or any other facilities or processes used in agricultural production. Agribusiness includes but is not limited to the following:

(1) grain handling and processing, including grain storage, drying, treatment, conditioning, mailing and packaging;

(2) seed and feed grain development and processing;

(3) fruit and vegetable processing, including preparation, canning and packaging;

(4) processing of livestock and livestock products, dairy products, poultry and poultry products, fish or apiarian products, including slaughter, shearing, collecting, preparation, canning and packaging;

(5) fertilizer and agricultural chemical manufacturing, processing, application and supplying;

(6) farm machinery, equipment and implement manufacturing and supplying;

(7) manufacturing and supplying of agricultural commodity processing machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment used in slaughter, treatment, handling, collecting, preparation, canning or packaging of agricultural commodities;

(8) farm building and farm structure manufacturing, construction and supplying;

(9) construction, manufacturing, implementation, supplying or servicing of irrigation, drainage and soil and water conservation devices or equipment;

(10) fuel processing and development facilities that produce fuel from agricultural commodities or byproducts;

(11) facilities and equipment for processing and packaging agricultural commodities specifically for export;

(12) facilities and equipment for forestry product processing and supplying, including sawmilling operations, wood chip operations, timber harvesting operations, and manufacturing of prefabricated buildings, paper, furniture or other goods from forestry products;

(13) facilities and equipment for research and development of products, processes and equipment for the production, processing, preparation or packaging of agricultural commodities and byproducts.

(aa) The term "asset" with respect to financing of any agricultural facility or any agribusiness, means, but is not limited to the following: cash crops or feed on hand; livestock held for sale; breeding stock; marketable bonds and securities; securities not readily marketable; accounts receivable; notes receivable; cash invested in growing crops; net cash value of life insurance; machinery and equipment; cars and trucks; farm and other real estate including life estates and personal residence; value of beneficial interests in trusts; government payments or grants; and any other assets.

(bb) The term "liability" with respect to financing of any agricultural facility or any agribusiness shall include, but not be limited to the following: accounts payable; notes or other indebtedness owed to any source; taxes; rent; amounts owed on real estate contracts or real estate mortgages; judgments; accrued interest payable; and any other liability.

(cc) The term "Predecessor Authorities" means those authorities as described in Section 845-75.

(dd) The term "housing project" means a specific work or improvement undertaken to provide residential dwelling accommodations, including the acquisition, construction or rehabilitation of lands, buildings and community facilities and in connection therewith to provide nonhousing facilities which are part of the housing project, including land, buildings, improvements, equipment and all ancillary facilities for use for offices, stores, retirement homes, hotels, financial institutions, service, health care, education, recreation or research establishments, or any other commercial purpose which are or are to be related to a housing development.

(ee) The term "conservation project" means any project including the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, maintenance, operation, or upgrade that is intended to create or expand open space or to reduce energy usage through efficiency measures. For the purpose of this definition, "open space" has the definition set forth under Section 10 of the Illinois Open Land Trust Act.

(ff) The term "significant presence" means the existence within the State of the national or regional headquarters of an entity or group or such other facility of an entity or group of entities where a significant amount of the business functions are performed for such entity or group of entities.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1021, eff. 7-12-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-7-11.)

Section 110. The Illinois Power Agency Act is amended by changing Sections 1-5, 1-10, 1-20, and 1-75 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3855/1-5)

Sec. 1-5. Legislative declarations and findings. The General Assembly finds and declares:

(1) The health, welfare, and prosperity of all Illinois citizens require the provision of adequate, reliable, affordable, efficient, and environmentally sustainable electric service at the lowest total cost over time, taking into account any benefits of price stability.

(2) The transition to retail competition is not complete. Some customers, especially residential and small commercial customers, have failed to benefit from lower electricity costs from retail and wholesale competition.

(3) Escalating prices for electricity in Illinois pose a serious threat to the economic well-being, health, and safety of the residents of and the commerce and industry of the State.

(4) To protect against this threat to economic well-being, health, and safety it is necessary to improve the process of procuring electricity to serve Illinois residents, to promote investment in energy efficiency and demand-response measures, and to support development of clean coal technologies and renewable resources.

(5) Procuring a diverse electricity supply portfolio will ensure the lowest total cost over time for adequate, reliable, efficient, and environmentally sustainable electric service.

(6) Including cost-effective renewable resources in that portfolio will reduce long-term direct and indirect costs to consumers by decreasing environmental impacts and by avoiding or delaying the need for new generation, transmission, and distribution infrastructure.

(7) Energy efficiency, demand-response measures, and renewable energy are resources currently underused in Illinois.

(8) The State should encourage the use of advanced clean coal technologies that capture and sequester carbon dioxide emissions to advance environmental protection goals and to demonstrate the viability of coal and coal-derived fuels in a carbon-constrained economy.

(9) The General Assembly enacted Public Act 96-0795 to reform the State's purchasing processes, recognizing that government procurement is susceptible to abuse if structural and procedural safeguards are not in place to ensure independence, insulation, oversight, and transparency.

(10) The principles that underlie the procurement reform legislation apply also in the context of power purchasing.

The General Assembly therefore finds that it is necessary to create the Illinois Power Agency and that the goals and objectives of that Agency are to accomplish each of the following:

(A) Develop electricity procurement plans to ensure adequate, reliable, affordable, efficient, and environmentally sustainable electric service at the lowest total cost over time, taking into account any benefits of price stability, for electric utilities that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to at least 100,000 customers in Illinois and for small multi-jurisdictional electric utilities that (i) on December 31, 2005 served less than 100,000 customers in Illinois and (ii) request a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load. The procurement plan shall be updated on an annual basis and shall include renewable energy resources sufficient to achieve the standards specified in this Act.

(B) Conduct competitive procurement processes to procure the supply resources identified in the procurement plan.

(C) Develop electric generation and co-generation facilities that use indigenous coal or renewable resources, or both, financed with bonds issued by the Illinois Finance Authority.

(D) Supply electricity from the Agency's facilities at cost to one or more of the following: municipal electric systems, governmental aggregators, or rural electric cooperatives in Illinois.

(E) Ensure that the process of power procurement is conducted in an ethical and transparent fashion, immune from improper influence.

(F) Continue to review its policies and practices to determine how best to meet its mission of providing the lowest cost power to the greatest number of people, at any given point in time, in accordance with applicable law.

(G) Operate in a structurally insulated, independent, and transparent fashion so that nothing impedes the Agency's mission to secure power at the best prices the market will bear, provided that the Agency meets all applicable legal requirements.

(Source: P.A. 97-325, eff. 8-12-11; 97-618, eff. 10-26-11; revised 11-9-11.)

(20 ILCS 3855/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Definitions.

"Agency" means the Illinois Power Agency.

"Agency loan agreement" means any agreement pursuant to which the Illinois Finance Authority agrees to loan the proceeds of revenue bonds issued with respect to a project to the Agency upon terms providing for loan repayment installments at least sufficient to pay when due all principal of, interest and premium, if any, on those revenue bonds, and providing for maintenance, insurance, and other matters in respect of the project.

"Authority" means the Illinois Finance Authority.

"Clean coal facility" means an electric generating facility that uses primarily coal as a feedstock and that captures and sequesters carbon dioxide emissions at the following levels: at least 50% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit if, at the time construction commences, the facility is scheduled to commence operation before 2016, at least 70% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit if, at the time construction commences, the facility is scheduled to commence operation during 2016 or 2017, and at least 90% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit if, at the time construction commences, the facility is scheduled to commence operation after 2017. The power block of the clean coal facility shall not exceed allowable emission rates for sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, particulates and mercury for a natural gas-fired combined-cycle facility the same size as and in the same location as the clean coal facility at the time the clean coal facility obtains an approved air permit. All coal used by a clean coal facility shall have high volatile bituminous rank and greater than 1.7 pounds of sulfur per million btu content, unless the clean coal facility does not use gasification technology and was operating as a conventional coal-fired electric generating facility on June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-1027).

"Clean coal SNG brownfield facility" means a facility that (1) has commenced construction by July 1, 2015 on an urban brownfield site in a municipality with at least 1,000,000 residents; (2) uses a gasification process to produce substitute natural gas; (3) uses coal as at least 50% of the total feedstock over the term of any sourcing agreement with a utility and the remainder of the feedstock may be either petroleum coke or coal, with all such coal having a high bituminous rank and greater than 1.7 pounds of sulfur per million Btu content unless the facility reasonably determines that it is necessary to use additional petroleum coke to deliver additional consumer savings, in which case the facility shall use coal for at least 35% of the total feedstock over the term of any sourcing agreement; and (4) captures and sequesters at least 85% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit.

"Clean coal SNG facility" means a facility that uses a gasification process to produce substitute natural gas, that sequesters at least 90% of the total carbon dioxide emissions that the facility would otherwise emit, that uses at least 90% coal as a feedstock, with all such coal having a high bituminous rank and greater than 1.7 pounds of sulfur per million btu content, and that has a valid and effective permit to construct emission sources and air pollution control equipment and approval with respect to the federal regulations for Prevention of Significant Deterioration of Air Quality (PSD) for the plant pursuant to the federal Clean Air Act; provided, however, a clean coal SNG brownfield facility shall not be a clean coal SNG facility.

"Commission" means the Illinois Commerce Commission.

"Costs incurred in connection with the development and construction of a facility" means:

(1) the cost of acquisition of all real property, fixtures, and improvements in connection therewith and equipment, personal property, and other property, rights, and easements acquired that are deemed necessary for the operation and maintenance of the facility;

(2) financing costs with respect to bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness of the Agency;

(3) all origination, commitment, utilization, facility, placement, underwriting, syndication, credit enhancement, and rating agency fees;

(4) engineering, design, procurement, consulting, legal, accounting, title insurance, survey, appraisal, escrow, trustee, collateral agency, interest rate hedging, interest rate swap, capitalized interest, contingency, as required by lenders, and other financing costs, and other expenses for professional services; and

(5) the costs of plans, specifications, site study and investigation, installation, surveys, other Agency costs and estimates of costs, and other expenses necessary or incidental to determining the feasibility of any project, together with such other expenses as may be necessary or incidental to the financing, insuring, acquisition, and construction of a specific project and starting up, commissioning, and placing that project in operation.

"Department" means the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Power Agency.

"Demand-response" means measures that decrease peak electricity demand or shift demand from peak to off-peak periods.

"Distributed renewable energy generation device" means a device that is:

(1) powered by wind, solar thermal energy, photovoltaic cells and panels, biodiesel, crops and untreated and unadulterated organic waste biomass, tree waste, and hydropower that does not involve new construction or significant expansion of hydropower dams;

(2) interconnected at the distribution system level of either an electric utility as defined in this Section, an alternative retail electric supplier as defined in Section 16-102 of the Public Utilities Act, a municipal utility as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, or a rural electric cooperative as defined in Section 3-119 of the Public Utilities Act;

(3) located on the customer side of the customer's electric meter and is primarily used to offset that customer's electricity load; and

(4) limited in nameplate capacity to no more than 2,000 kilowatts.

"Energy efficiency" means measures that reduce the amount of electricity or natural gas required to achieve a given end use.

"Electric utility" has the same definition as found in Section 16-102 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Facility" means an electric generating unit or a co-generating unit that produces electricity along with related equipment necessary to connect the facility to an electric transmission or distribution system.

"Governmental aggregator" means one or more units of local government that individually or collectively procure electricity to serve residential retail electrical loads located within its or their jurisdiction.

"Local government" means a unit of local government as defined in Article VII of Section 1 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

"Municipality" means a city, village, or incorporated town.

"Person" means any natural person, firm, partnership, corporation, either domestic or foreign, company, association, limited liability company, joint stock company, or association and includes any trustee, receiver, assignee, or personal representative thereof.

"Project" means the planning, bidding, and construction of a facility.

"Public utility" has the same definition as found in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Real property" means any interest in land together with all structures, fixtures, and improvements thereon, including lands under water and riparian rights, any easements, covenants, licenses, leases, rights-of-way, uses, and other interests, together with any liens, judgments, mortgages, or other claims or security interests related to real property.

"Renewable energy credit" means a tradable credit that represents the environmental attributes of a certain amount of energy produced from a renewable energy resource.

"Renewable energy resources" includes energy and its associated renewable energy credit or renewable energy credits from wind, solar thermal energy, photovoltaic cells and panels, biodiesel, anaerobic digestion, crops and untreated and unadulterated organic waste biomass, tree waste, hydropower that does not involve new construction or significant expansion of hydropower dams, and other alternative sources of environmentally preferable energy. For purposes of this Act, landfill gas produced in the State is considered a renewable energy resource. "Renewable energy resources" does not include the incineration or burning of tires, garbage, general household, institutional, and commercial waste, industrial lunchroom or office waste, landscape waste other than tree waste, railroad crossties, utility poles, or construction or demolition debris, other than untreated and unadulterated waste wood.

"Revenue bond" means any bond, note, or other evidence of indebtedness issued by the Authority, the principal and interest of which is payable solely from revenues or income derived from any project or activity of the Agency.

"Sequester" means permanent storage of carbon dioxide by injecting it into a saline aquifer, a depleted gas reservoir, or an oil reservoir, directly or through an enhanced oil recovery process that may involve intermediate storage, regardless of whether these activities are conducted by a clean coal facility, a clean coal SNG facility, a clean coal SNG brownfield facility, or a party with which a clean coal facility, or clean coal SNG facility, or clean coal SNG brownfield facility has contracted for such purposes.

"Sourcing agreement" means (i) in the case of an electric utility, an agreement between the owner of a clean coal facility and such electric utility, which agreement shall have terms and conditions meeting the requirements of paragraph (3) of subsection (d) of Section 1-75, (ii) in the case of an alternative retail electric supplier, an agreement between the owner of a clean coal facility and such alternative retail electric supplier, which agreement shall have terms and conditions meeting the requirements of Section 16-115(d)(5) of the Public Utilities Act, and (iii) in case of a gas utility, an agreement between the owner of a clean coal SNG brownfield facility and the gas utility, which agreement shall have the terms and conditions meeting the requirements of subsection (h-1) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Substitute natural gas" or "SNG" means a gas manufactured by gasification of hydrocarbon feedstock, which is substantially interchangeable in use and distribution with conventional natural gas.

"Total resource cost test" or "TRC test" means a standard that is met if, for an investment in energy efficiency or demand-response measures, the benefit-cost ratio is greater than one. The benefit-cost ratio is the ratio of the net present value of the total benefits of the program to the net present value of the total costs as calculated over the lifetime of the measures. A total resource cost test compares the sum of avoided electric utility costs, representing the benefits that accrue to the system and the participant in the delivery of those efficiency measures, as well as other quantifiable societal benefits, including avoided natural gas utility costs, to the sum of all incremental costs of end-use measures that are implemented due to the program (including both utility and participant contributions), plus costs to administer, deliver, and evaluate each demand-side program, to quantify the net savings obtained by substituting the demand-side program for supply resources. In calculating avoided costs of power and energy that an electric utility would otherwise have had to acquire, reasonable estimates shall be included of financial costs likely to be imposed by future regulations and legislation on emissions of greenhouse gases.

(Source: P.A. 96-33, eff. 7-10-09; 96-159, eff. 8-10-09; 96-784, eff. 8-28-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-96, eff. 7-13-11; 97-239, eff. 8-2-11; 97-491, eff. 8-22-11; 97-616, eff. 10-26-11; revised 11-10-11.)

(20 ILCS 3855/1-20)

Sec. 1-20. General powers of the Agency.

(a) The Agency is authorized to do each of the following:

(1) Develop electricity procurement plans to ensure adequate, reliable, affordable, efficient, and environmentally sustainable electric service at the lowest total cost over time, taking into account any benefits of price stability, for electric utilities that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to at least 100,000 customers in Illinois and for small multi-jurisdictional electric utilities that (A) on December 31, 2005 served less than 100,000 customers in Illinois and (B) request a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load. The procurement plans shall be updated on an annual basis and shall include electricity generated from renewable resources sufficient to achieve the standards specified in this Act.

(2) Conduct competitive procurement processes to procure the supply resources identified in the procurement plan, pursuant to Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(3) Develop electric generation and co-generation facilities that use indigenous coal or renewable resources, or both, financed with bonds issued by the Illinois Finance Authority.

(4) Supply electricity from the Agency's facilities at cost to one or more of the following: municipal electric systems, governmental aggregators, or rural electric cooperatives in Illinois.

(b) Except as otherwise limited by this Act, the Agency has all of the powers necessary or convenient to carry out the purposes and provisions of this Act, including without limitation, each of the following:

(1) To have a corporate seal, and to alter that seal at pleasure, and to use it by causing it or a facsimile to be affixed or impressed or reproduced in any other manner.

(2) To use the services of the Illinois Finance Authority necessary to carry out the Agency's purposes.

(3) To negotiate and enter into loan agreements and other agreements with the Illinois Finance Authority.

(4) To obtain and employ personnel and hire consultants that are necessary to fulfill the Agency's purposes, and to make expenditures for that purpose within the appropriations for that purpose.

(5) To purchase, receive, take by grant, gift, devise, bequest, or otherwise, lease, or otherwise acquire, own, hold, improve, employ, use, and otherwise deal in and with, real or personal property whether tangible or intangible, or any interest therein, within the State.

(6) To acquire real or personal property, whether tangible or intangible, including without limitation property rights, interests in property, franchises, obligations, contracts, and debt and equity securities, and to do so by the exercise of the power of eminent domain in accordance with Section 1-21; except that any real property acquired by the exercise of the power of eminent domain must be located within the State.

(7) To sell, convey, lease, exchange, transfer, abandon, or otherwise dispose of, or mortgage, pledge, or create a security interest in, any of its assets, properties, or any interest therein, wherever situated.

(8) To purchase, take, receive, subscribe for, or otherwise acquire, hold, make a tender offer for, vote, employ, sell, lend, lease, exchange, transfer, or otherwise dispose of, mortgage, pledge, or grant a security interest in, use, and otherwise deal in and with, bonds and other obligations, shares, or other securities (or interests therein) issued by others, whether engaged in a similar or different business or activity.

(9) To make and execute agreements, contracts, and other instruments necessary or convenient in the exercise of the powers and functions of the Agency under this Act, including contracts with any person, including personal service contracts, or with any local government, State agency, or other entity; and all State agencies and all local governments are authorized to enter into and do all things necessary to perform any such agreement, contract, or other instrument with the Agency. No such agreement, contract, or other instrument shall exceed 40 years.

(10) To lend money, invest and reinvest its funds in accordance with the Public Funds Investment Act, and take and hold real and personal property as security for the payment of funds loaned or invested.

(11) To borrow money at such rate or rates of interest as the Agency may determine, issue its notes, bonds, or other obligations to evidence that indebtedness, and secure any of its obligations by mortgage or pledge of its real or personal property, machinery, equipment, structures, fixtures, inventories, revenues, grants, and other funds as provided or any interest therein, wherever situated.

(12) To enter into agreements with the Illinois Finance Authority to issue bonds whether or not the income therefrom is exempt from federal taxation.

(13) To procure insurance against any loss in connection with its properties or operations in such amount or amounts and from such insurers, including the federal government, as it may deem necessary or desirable, and to pay any premiums therefor.

(14) To negotiate and enter into agreements with trustees or receivers appointed by United States bankruptcy courts or federal district courts or in other proceedings involving adjustment of debts and authorize proceedings involving adjustment of debts and authorize legal counsel for the Agency to appear in any such proceedings.

(15) To file a petition under Chapter 9 of Title 11 of the United States Bankruptcy Code or take other similar action for the adjustment of its debts.

(16) To enter into management agreements for the operation of any of the property or facilities owned by the Agency.

(17) To enter into an agreement to transfer and to transfer any land, facilities, fixtures, or equipment of the Agency to one or more municipal electric systems, governmental aggregators, or rural electric agencies or cooperatives, for such consideration and upon such terms as the Agency may determine to be in the best interest of the citizens of Illinois.

(18) To enter upon any lands and within any building whenever in its judgment it may be necessary for the purpose of making surveys and examinations to accomplish any purpose authorized by this Act.

(19) To maintain an office or offices at such place or places in the State as it may determine.

(20) To request information, and to make any inquiry, investigation, survey, or study that the Agency may deem necessary to enable it effectively to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(21) To accept and expend appropriations.

(22) To engage in any activity or operation that is incidental to and in furtherance of efficient operation to accomplish the Agency's purposes, including hiring employees that the Director deems essential for the operations of the Agency.

(23) To adopt, revise, amend, and repeal rules with respect to its operations, properties, and facilities as may be necessary or convenient to carry out the purposes of this Act, subject to the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and Sections 1-22 and 1-35 of this Act.

(24) To establish and collect charges and fees as described in this Act.

(25) To conduct competitive gasification feedstock procurement processes to procure the feedstocks for the clean coal SNG brownfield facility in accordance with the requirements of Section 1-78 of this Act.

(26) To review, revise, and approve sourcing agreements and mediate and resolve disputes between gas utilities and the clean coal SNG brownfield facility pursuant to subsection (h-1) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-784, eff. 8-28-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-96, eff. 7-13-11; 97-325, eff. 8-12-11; 97-618, eff. 10-26-11; revised 11-10-11.)

(20 ILCS 3855/1-75)

Sec. 1-75. Planning and Procurement Bureau. The Planning and Procurement Bureau has the following duties and responsibilities:

(a) The Planning and Procurement Bureau shall each year, beginning in 2008, develop procurement plans and conduct competitive procurement processes in accordance with the requirements of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act for the eligible retail customers of electric utilities that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to at least 100,000 customers in Illinois. The Planning and Procurement Bureau shall also develop procurement plans and conduct competitive procurement processes in accordance with the requirements of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act for the eligible retail customers of small multi-jurisdictional electric utilities that (i) on December 31, 2005 served less than 100,000 customers in Illinois and (ii) request a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load. This Section shall not apply to a small multi-jurisdictional utility until such time as a small multi-jurisdictional utility requests the Agency to prepare a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load. For the purposes of this Section, the term "eligible retail customers" has the same definition as found in Section 16-111.5(a) of the Public Utilities Act.

(1) The Agency shall each year, beginning in 2008, as needed, issue a request for qualifications for experts or expert consulting firms to develop the procurement plans in accordance with Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. In order to qualify an expert or expert consulting firm must have:

(A) direct previous experience assembling large-scale power supply plans or portfolios for end-use customers;

(B) an advanced degree in economics, mathematics, engineering, risk management, or a related area of study;

(C) 10 years of experience in the electricity sector, including managing supply risk;

(D) expertise in wholesale electricity market rules, including those established by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission and regional transmission organizations;

(E) expertise in credit protocols and familiarity with contract protocols;

(F) adequate resources to perform and fulfill the required functions and responsibilities; and

(G) the absence of a conflict of interest and inappropriate bias for or against potential bidders or the affected electric utilities.

(2) The Agency shall each year, as needed, issue a request for qualifications for a procurement administrator to conduct the competitive procurement processes in accordance with Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. In order to qualify an expert or expert consulting firm must have:

(A) direct previous experience administering a large-scale competitive procurement process;

(B) an advanced degree in economics, mathematics, engineering, or a related area of study;

(C) 10 years of experience in the electricity sector, including risk management experience;

(D) expertise in wholesale electricity market rules, including those established by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission and regional transmission organizations;

(E) expertise in credit and contract protocols;

(F) adequate resources to perform and fulfill the required functions and responsibilities; and

(G) the absence of a conflict of interest and inappropriate bias for or against potential bidders or the affected electric utilities.

(3) The Agency shall provide affected utilities and other interested parties with the lists of qualified experts or expert consulting firms identified through the request for qualifications processes that are under consideration to develop the procurement plans and to serve as the procurement administrator. The Agency shall also provide each qualified expert's or expert consulting firm's response to the request for qualifications. All information provided under this subparagraph shall also be provided to the Commission. The Agency may provide by rule for fees associated with supplying the information to utilities and other interested parties. These parties shall, within 5 business days, notify the Agency in writing if they object to any experts or expert consulting firms on the lists. Objections shall be based on:

(A) failure to satisfy qualification criteria;

(B) identification of a conflict of interest; or

(C) evidence of inappropriate bias for or against potential bidders or the affected utilities.

The Agency shall remove experts or expert consulting firms from the lists within 10 days if there is a reasonable basis for an objection and provide the updated lists to the affected utilities and other interested parties. If the Agency fails to remove an expert or expert consulting firm from a list, an objecting party may seek review by the Commission within 5 days thereafter by filing a petition, and the Commission shall render a ruling on the petition within 10 days. There is no right of appeal of the Commission's ruling.

(4) The Agency shall issue requests for proposals to the qualified experts or expert consulting firms to develop a procurement plan for the affected utilities and to serve as procurement administrator.

(5) The Agency shall select an expert or expert consulting firm to develop procurement plans based on the proposals submitted and shall award contracts of up to 5 years to those selected.

(6) The Agency shall select an expert or expert consulting firm, with approval of the Commission, to serve as procurement administrator based on the proposals submitted. If the Commission rejects, within 5 days, the Agency's selection, the Agency shall submit another recommendation within 3 days based on the proposals submitted. The Agency shall award a 5-year contract to the expert or expert consulting firm so selected with Commission approval.

(b) The experts or expert consulting firms retained by the Agency shall, as appropriate, prepare procurement plans, and conduct a competitive procurement process as prescribed in Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act, to ensure adequate, reliable, affordable, efficient, and environmentally sustainable electric service at the lowest total cost over time, taking into account any benefits of price stability, for eligible retail customers of electric utilities that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to at least 100,000 customers in the State of Illinois, and for eligible Illinois retail customers of small multi-jurisdictional electric utilities that (i) on December 31, 2005 served less than 100,000 customers in Illinois and (ii) request a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load.

(c) Renewable portfolio standard.

(1) The procurement plans shall include cost-effective renewable energy resources. A minimum percentage of each utility's total supply to serve the load of eligible retail customers, as defined in Section 16-111.5(a) of the Public Utilities Act, procured for each of the following years shall be generated from cost-effective renewable energy resources: at least 2% by June 1, 2008; at least 4% by June 1, 2009; at least 5% by June 1, 2010; at least 6% by June 1, 2011; at least 7% by June 1, 2012; at least 8% by June 1, 2013; at least 9% by June 1, 2014; at least 10% by June 1, 2015; and increasing by at least 1.5% each year thereafter to at least 25% by June 1, 2025. To the extent that it is available, at least 75% of the renewable energy resources used to meet these standards shall come from wind generation and, beginning on June 1, 2011, at least the following percentages of the renewable energy resources used to meet these standards shall come from photovoltaics on the following schedule: 0.5% by June 1, 2012, 1.5% by June 1, 2013; 3% by June 1, 2014; and 6% by June 1, 2015 and thereafter. Of the renewable energy resources procured pursuant to this Section, at least the following percentages shall come from distributed renewable energy generation devices: 0.5% by June 1, 2013, 0.75% by June 1, 2014, and 1% by June 1, 2015 and thereafter. To the extent available, half of the renewable energy resources procured from distributed renewable energy generation shall come from devices of less than 25 kilowatts in nameplate capacity. Renewable energy resources procured from distributed generation devices may also count towards the required percentages for wind and solar photovoltaics. Procurement of renewable energy resources from distributed renewable energy generation devices shall be done on an annual basis through multi-year contracts of no less than 5 years, and shall consist solely of renewable energy credits.

The Agency shall create credit requirements for suppliers of distributed renewable energy. In order to minimize the administrative burden on contracting entities, the Agency shall solicit the use of third-party organizations to aggregate distributed renewable energy into groups of no less than one megawatt in installed capacity. These third-party organizations shall administer contracts with individual distributed renewable energy generation device owners. An individual distributed renewable energy generation device owner shall have the ability to measure the output of his or her distributed renewable energy generation device.

For purposes of this subsection (c), "cost-effective" means that the costs of procuring renewable energy resources do not cause the limit stated in paragraph (2) of this subsection (c) to be exceeded and do not exceed benchmarks based on market prices for renewable energy resources in the region, which shall be developed by the procurement administrator, in consultation with the Commission staff, Agency staff, and the procurement monitor and shall be subject to Commission review and approval.

(2) For purposes of this subsection (c), the required procurement of cost-effective renewable energy resources for a particular year shall be measured as a percentage of the actual amount of electricity (megawatt-hours) supplied by the electric utility to eligible retail customers in the planning year ending immediately prior to the procurement. For purposes of this subsection (c), the amount paid per kilowatthour means the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis. For purposes of this subsection (c), the total amount paid for electric service includes without limitation amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges, and add-on taxes.

Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (c), the total of renewable energy resources procured pursuant to the procurement plan for any single year shall be reduced by an amount necessary to limit the annual estimated average net increase due to the costs of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to:

(A) in 2008, no more than 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007;

(B) in 2009, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2008 or 1% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007;

(C) in 2010, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009 or 1.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007;

(D) in 2011, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2010 or 2% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007; and

(E) thereafter, the amount of renewable energy resources procured pursuant to the procurement plan for any single year shall be reduced by an amount necessary to limit the estimated average net increase due to the cost of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to no more than the greater of 2.015% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007 or the incremental amount per kilowatthour paid for these resources in 2011.

No later than June 30, 2011, the Commission shall review the limitation on the amount of renewable energy resources procured pursuant to this subsection (c) and report to the General Assembly its findings as to whether that limitation unduly constrains the procurement of cost-effective renewable energy resources.

(3) Through June 1, 2011, renewable energy resources shall be counted for the purpose of meeting the renewable energy standards set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c) only if they are generated from facilities located in the State, provided that cost-effective renewable energy resources are available from those facilities. If those cost-effective resources are not available in Illinois, they shall be procured in states that adjoin Illinois and may be counted towards compliance. If those cost-effective resources are not available in Illinois or in states that adjoin Illinois, they shall be purchased elsewhere and shall be counted towards compliance. After June 1, 2011, cost-effective renewable energy resources located in Illinois and in states that adjoin Illinois may be counted towards compliance with the standards set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c). If those cost-effective resources are not available in Illinois or in states that adjoin Illinois, they shall be purchased elsewhere and shall be counted towards compliance.

(4) The electric utility shall retire all renewable energy credits used to comply with the standard.

(5) Beginning with the year commencing June 1, 2010, an electric utility subject to this subsection (c) shall apply the lesser of the maximum alternative compliance payment rate or the most recent estimated alternative compliance payment rate for its service territory for the corresponding compliance period, established pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 16-115D of the Public Utilities Act to its retail customers that take service pursuant to the electric utility's hourly pricing tariff or tariffs. The electric utility shall retain all amounts collected as a result of the application of the alternative compliance payment rate or rates to such customers, and, beginning in 2011, the utility shall include in the information provided under item (1) of subsection (d) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act the amounts collected under the alternative compliance payment rate or rates for the prior year ending May 31. Notwithstanding any limitation on the procurement of renewable energy resources imposed by item (2) of this subsection (c), the Agency shall increase its spending on the purchase of renewable energy resources to be procured by the electric utility for the next plan year by an amount equal to the amounts collected by the utility under the alternative compliance payment rate or rates in the prior year ending May 31.

(d) Clean coal portfolio standard.

(1) The procurement plans shall include electricity generated using clean coal. Each utility shall enter into one or more sourcing agreements with the initial clean coal facility, as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), covering electricity generated by the initial clean coal facility representing at least 5% of each utility's total supply to serve the load of eligible retail customers in 2015 and each year thereafter, as described in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), subject to the limits specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d). It is the goal of the State that by January 1, 2025, 25% of the electricity used in the State shall be generated by cost-effective clean coal facilities. For purposes of this subsection (d), "cost-effective" means that the expenditures pursuant to such sourcing agreements do not cause the limit stated in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) to be exceeded and do not exceed cost-based benchmarks, which shall be developed to assess all expenditures pursuant to such sourcing agreements covering electricity generated by clean coal facilities, other than the initial clean coal facility, by the procurement administrator, in consultation with the Commission staff, Agency staff, and the procurement monitor and shall be subject to Commission review and approval.

A utility party to a sourcing agreement shall immediately retire any emission credits that it receives in connection with the electricity covered by such agreement.

Utilities shall maintain adequate records documenting the purchases under the sourcing agreement to comply with this subsection (d) and shall file an accounting with the load forecast that must be filed with the Agency by July 15 of each year, in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

A utility shall be deemed to have complied with the clean coal portfolio standard specified in this subsection (d) if the utility enters into a sourcing agreement as required by this subsection (d).

(2) For purposes of this subsection (d), the required execution of sourcing agreements with the initial clean coal facility for a particular year shall be measured as a percentage of the actual amount of electricity (megawatt-hours) supplied by the electric utility to eligible retail customers in the planning year ending immediately prior to the agreement's execution. For purposes of this subsection (d), the amount paid per kilowatthour means the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis. For purposes of this subsection (d), the total amount paid for electric service includes without limitation amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges and add-on taxes.

Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (d), the total amount paid under sourcing agreements with clean coal facilities pursuant to the procurement plan for any given year shall be reduced by an amount necessary to limit the annual estimated average net increase due to the costs of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to:

(A) in 2010, no more than 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009;

(B) in 2011, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2010 or 1% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009;

(C) in 2012, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2011 or 1.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009;

(D) in 2013, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2012 or 2% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009; and

(E) thereafter, the total amount paid under sourcing agreements with clean coal facilities pursuant to the procurement plan for any single year shall be reduced by an amount necessary to limit the estimated average net increase due to the cost of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to no more than the greater of (i) 2.015% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009 or (ii) the incremental amount per kilowatthour paid for these resources in 2013. These requirements may be altered only as provided by statute.

No later than June 30, 2015, the Commission shall review the limitation on the total amount paid under sourcing agreements, if any, with clean coal facilities pursuant to this subsection (d) and report to the General Assembly its findings as to whether that limitation unduly constrains the amount of electricity generated by cost-effective clean coal facilities that is covered by sourcing agreements.

(3) Initial clean coal facility. In order to promote development of clean coal facilities in Illinois, each electric utility subject to this Section shall execute a sourcing agreement to source electricity from a proposed clean coal facility in Illinois (the "initial clean coal facility") that will have a nameplate capacity of at least 500 MW when commercial operation commences, that has a final Clean Air Act permit on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, and that will meet the definition of clean coal facility in Section 1-10 of this Act when commercial operation commences. The sourcing agreements with this initial clean coal facility shall be subject to both approval of the initial clean coal facility by the General Assembly and satisfaction of the requirements of paragraph (4) of this subsection (d) and shall be executed within 90 days after any such approval by the General Assembly. The Agency and the Commission shall have authority to inspect all books and records associated with the initial clean coal facility during the term of such a sourcing agreement. A utility's sourcing agreement for electricity produced by the initial clean coal facility shall include:

(A) a formula contractual price (the "contract price") approved pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (d), which shall:

(i) be determined using a cost of service methodology employing either a level or deferred capital recovery component, based on a capital structure consisting of 45% equity and 55% debt, and a return on equity as may be approved by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, which in any case may not exceed the lower of 11.5% or the rate of return approved by the General Assembly pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (d); and

(ii) provide that all miscellaneous net revenue, including but not limited to net revenue from the sale of emission allowances, if any, substitute natural gas, if any, grants or other support provided by the State of Illinois or the United States Government, firm transmission rights, if any, by-products produced by the facility, energy or capacity derived from the facility and not covered by a sourcing agreement pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (d) or item (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, whether generated from the synthesis gas derived from coal, from SNG, or from natural gas, shall be credited against the revenue requirement for this initial clean coal facility;

(B) power purchase provisions, which shall:

(i) provide that the utility party to such sourcing agreement shall pay the contract price for electricity delivered under such sourcing agreement;

(ii) require delivery of electricity to the regional transmission organization market of the utility that is party to such sourcing agreement;

(iii) require the utility party to such sourcing agreement to buy from the initial clean coal facility in each hour an amount of energy equal to all clean coal energy made available from the initial clean coal facility during such hour times a fraction, the numerator of which is such utility's retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State during the prior calendar month and the denominator of which is the total retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by utilities during such prior month and the sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by alternative retail electric suppliers during such prior month that are subject to the requirements of this subsection (d) and paragraph (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, provided that the amount purchased by the utility in any year will be limited by paragraph (2) of this subsection (d); and

(iv) be considered pre-existing contracts in such utility's procurement plans for eligible retail customers;

(C) contract for differences provisions, which shall:

(i) require the utility party to such sourcing agreement to contract with the initial clean coal facility in each hour with respect to an amount of energy equal to all clean coal energy made available from the initial clean coal facility during such hour times a fraction, the numerator of which is such utility's retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the utility's service territory in the State during the prior calendar month and the denominator of which is the total retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by utilities during such prior month and the sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by alternative retail electric suppliers during such prior month that are subject to the requirements of this subsection (d) and paragraph (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, provided that the amount paid by the utility in any year will be limited by paragraph (2) of this subsection (d);

(ii) provide that the utility's payment obligation in respect of the quantity of electricity determined pursuant to the preceding clause (i) shall be limited to an amount equal to (1) the difference between the contract price determined pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (d) and the day-ahead price for electricity delivered to the regional transmission organization market of the utility that is party to such sourcing agreement (or any successor delivery point at which such utility's supply obligations are financially settled on an hourly basis) (the "reference price") on the day preceding the day on which the electricity is delivered to the initial clean coal facility busbar, multiplied by (2) the quantity of electricity determined pursuant to the preceding clause (i); and

(iii) not require the utility to take physical delivery of the electricity produced by the facility;

(D) general provisions, which shall:

(i) specify a term of no more than 30 years, commencing on the commercial operation date of the facility;

(ii) provide that utilities shall maintain adequate records documenting purchases under the sourcing agreements entered into to comply with this subsection (d) and shall file an accounting with the load forecast that must be filed with the Agency by July 15 of each year, in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(iii) provide that all costs associated with the initial clean coal facility will be periodically reported to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission and to purchasers in accordance with applicable laws governing cost-based wholesale power contracts;

(iv) permit the Illinois Power Agency to assume ownership of the initial clean coal facility, without monetary consideration and otherwise on reasonable terms acceptable to the Agency, if the Agency so requests no less than 3 years prior to the end of the stated contract term;

(v) require the owner of the initial clean coal facility to provide documentation to the Commission each year, starting in the facility's first year of commercial operation, accurately reporting the quantity of carbon emissions from the facility that have been captured and sequestered and report any quantities of carbon released from the site or sites at which carbon emissions were sequestered in prior years, based on continuous monitoring of such sites. If, in any year after the first year of commercial operation, the owner of the facility fails to demonstrate that the initial clean coal facility captured and sequestered at least 50% of the total carbon emissions that the facility would otherwise emit or that sequestration of emissions from prior years has failed, resulting in the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, the owner of the facility must offset excess emissions. Any such carbon offsets must be permanent, additional, verifiable, real, located within the State of Illinois, and legally and practicably enforceable. The cost of such offsets for the facility that are not recoverable shall not exceed $15 million in any given year. No costs of any such purchases of carbon offsets may be recovered from a utility or its customers. All carbon offsets purchased for this purpose and any carbon emission credits associated with sequestration of carbon from the facility must be permanently retired. The initial clean coal facility shall not forfeit its designation as a clean coal facility if the facility fails to fully comply with the applicable carbon sequestration requirements in any given year, provided the requisite offsets are purchased. However, the Attorney General, on behalf of the People of the State of Illinois, may specifically enforce the facility's sequestration requirement and the other terms of this contract provision. Compliance with the sequestration requirements and offset purchase requirements specified in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d) shall be reviewed annually by an independent expert retained by the owner of the initial clean coal facility, with the advance written approval of the Attorney General. The Commission may, in the course of the review specified in item (vii), reduce the allowable return on equity for the facility if the facility wilfully fails to comply with the carbon capture and sequestration requirements set forth in this item (v);

(vi) include limits on, and accordingly provide for modification of, the amount the utility is required to source under the sourcing agreement consistent with paragraph (2) of this subsection (d);

(vii) require Commission review: (1) to determine the justness, reasonableness, and prudence of the inputs to the formula referenced in subparagraphs (A)(i) through (A)(iii) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), prior to an adjustment in those inputs including, without limitation, the capital structure and return on equity, fuel costs, and other operations and maintenance costs and (2) to approve the costs to be passed through to customers under the sourcing agreement by which the utility satisfies its statutory obligations. Commission review shall occur no less than every 3 years, regardless of whether any adjustments have been proposed, and shall be completed within 9 months;

(viii) limit the utility's obligation to such amount as the utility is allowed to recover through tariffs filed with the Commission, provided that neither the clean coal facility nor the utility waives any right to assert federal pre-emption or any other argument in response to a purported disallowance of recovery costs;

(ix) limit the utility's or alternative retail electric supplier's obligation to incur any liability until such time as the facility is in commercial operation and generating power and energy and such power and energy is being delivered to the facility busbar;

(x) provide that the owner or owners of the initial clean coal facility, which is the counterparty to such sourcing agreement, shall have the right from time to time to elect whether the obligations of the utility party thereto shall be governed by the power purchase provisions or the contract for differences provisions;

(xi) append documentation showing that the formula rate and contract, insofar as they relate to the power purchase provisions, have been approved by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission pursuant to Section 205 of the Federal Power Act;

(xii) provide that any changes to the terms of the contract, insofar as such changes relate to the power purchase provisions, are subject to review under the public interest standard applied by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission pursuant to Sections 205 and 206 of the Federal Power Act; and

(xiii) conform with customary lender requirements in power purchase agreements used as the basis for financing non-utility generators.

(4) Effective date of sourcing agreements with the initial clean coal facility.

Any proposed sourcing agreement with the initial clean coal facility shall not become effective unless the following reports are prepared and submitted and authorizations and approvals obtained:

(i) Facility cost report. The owner of the initial clean coal facility shall submit to the Commission, the Agency, and the General Assembly a front-end engineering and design study, a facility cost report, method of financing (including but not limited to structure and associated costs), and an operating and maintenance cost quote for the facility (collectively "facility cost report"), which shall be prepared in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section, and shall provide the Commission and the Agency access to the work papers, relied upon documents, and any other backup documentation related to the facility cost report.

(ii) Commission report. Within 6 months following receipt of the facility cost report, the Commission, in consultation with the Agency, shall submit a report to the General Assembly setting forth its analysis of the facility cost report. Such report shall include, but not be limited to, a comparison of the costs associated with electricity generated by the initial clean coal facility to the costs associated with electricity generated by other types of generation facilities, an analysis of the rate impacts on residential and small business customers over the life of the sourcing agreements, and an analysis of the likelihood that the initial clean coal facility will commence commercial operation by and be delivering power to the facility's busbar by 2016. To assist in the preparation of its report, the Commission, in consultation with the Agency, may hire one or more experts or consultants, the costs of which shall be paid for by the owner of the initial clean coal facility. The Commission and Agency may begin the process of selecting such experts or consultants prior to receipt of the facility cost report.

(iii) General Assembly approval. The proposed sourcing agreements shall not take effect unless, based on the facility cost report and the Commission's report, the General Assembly enacts authorizing legislation approving (A) the projected price, stated in cents per kilowatthour, to be charged for electricity generated by the initial clean coal facility, (B) the projected impact on residential and small business customers' bills over the life of the sourcing agreements, and (C) the maximum allowable return on equity for the project; and

(iv) Commission review. If the General Assembly enacts authorizing legislation pursuant to subparagraph (iii) approving a sourcing agreement, the Commission shall, within 90 days of such enactment, complete a review of such sourcing agreement. During such time period, the Commission shall implement any directive of the General Assembly, resolve any disputes between the parties to the sourcing agreement concerning the terms of such agreement, approve the form of such agreement, and issue an order finding that the sourcing agreement is prudent and reasonable.

The facility cost report shall be prepared as follows:

(A) The facility cost report shall be prepared by duly licensed engineering and construction firms detailing the estimated capital costs payable to one or more contractors or suppliers for the engineering, procurement and construction of the components comprising the initial clean coal facility and the estimated costs of operation and maintenance of the facility. The facility cost report shall include:

(i) an estimate of the capital cost of the core plant based on one or more front end engineering and design studies for the gasification island and related facilities. The core plant shall include all civil, structural, mechanical, electrical, control, and safety systems.

(ii) an estimate of the capital cost of the balance of the plant, including any capital costs associated with sequestration of carbon dioxide emissions and all interconnects and interfaces required to operate the facility, such as transmission of electricity, construction or backfeed power supply, pipelines to transport substitute natural gas or carbon dioxide, potable water supply, natural gas supply, water supply, water discharge, landfill, access roads, and coal delivery.

The quoted construction costs shall be expressed in nominal dollars as of the date that the quote is prepared and shall include capitalized financing costs during construction, taxes, insurance, and other owner's costs, and an assumed escalation in materials and labor beyond the date as of which the construction cost quote is expressed.

(B) The front end engineering and design study for the gasification island and the cost study for the balance of plant shall include sufficient design work to permit quantification of major categories of materials, commodities and labor hours, and receipt of quotes from vendors of major equipment required to construct and operate the clean coal facility.

(C) The facility cost report shall also include an operating and maintenance cost quote that will provide the estimated cost of delivered fuel, personnel, maintenance contracts, chemicals, catalysts, consumables, spares, and other fixed and variable operations and maintenance costs. The delivered fuel cost estimate will be provided by a recognized third party expert or experts in the fuel and transportation industries. The balance of the operating and maintenance cost quote, excluding delivered fuel costs, will be developed based on the inputs provided by duly licensed engineering and construction firms performing the construction cost quote, potential vendors under long-term service agreements and plant operating agreements, or recognized third party plant operator or operators.

The operating and maintenance cost quote (including the cost of the front end engineering and design study) shall be expressed in nominal dollars as of the date that the quote is prepared and shall include taxes, insurance, and other owner's costs, and an assumed escalation in materials and labor beyond the date as of which the operating and maintenance cost quote is expressed.

(D) The facility cost report shall also include an analysis of the initial clean coal facility's ability to deliver power and energy into the applicable regional transmission organization markets and an analysis of the expected capacity factor for the initial clean coal facility.

(E) Amounts paid to third parties unrelated to the owner or owners of the initial clean coal facility to prepare the core plant construction cost quote, including the front end engineering and design study, and the operating and maintenance cost quote will be reimbursed through Coal Development Bonds.

(5) Re-powering and retrofitting coal-fired power plants previously owned by Illinois utilities to qualify as clean coal facilities. During the 2009 procurement planning process and thereafter, the Agency and the Commission shall consider sourcing agreements covering electricity generated by power plants that were previously owned by Illinois utilities and that have been or will be converted into clean coal facilities, as defined by Section 1-10 of this Act. Pursuant to such procurement planning process, the owners of such facilities may propose to the Agency sourcing agreements with utilities and alternative retail electric suppliers required to comply with subsection (d) of this Section and item (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, covering electricity generated by such facilities. In the case of sourcing agreements that are power purchase agreements, the contract price for electricity sales shall be established on a cost of service basis. In the case of sourcing agreements that are contracts for differences, the contract price from which the reference price is subtracted shall be established on a cost of service basis. The Agency and the Commission may approve any such utility sourcing agreements that do not exceed cost-based benchmarks developed by the procurement administrator, in consultation with the Commission staff, Agency staff and the procurement monitor, subject to Commission review and approval. The Commission shall have authority to inspect all books and records associated with these clean coal facilities during the term of any such contract.

(6) Costs incurred under this subsection (d) or pursuant to a contract entered into under this subsection (d) shall be deemed prudently incurred and reasonable in amount and the electric utility shall be entitled to full cost recovery pursuant to the tariffs filed with the Commission.

(e) The draft procurement plans are subject to public comment, as required by Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(f) The Agency shall submit the final procurement plan to the Commission. The Agency shall revise a procurement plan if the Commission determines that it does not meet the standards set forth in Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(g) The Agency shall assess fees to each affected utility to recover the costs incurred in preparation of the annual procurement plan for the utility.

(h) The Agency shall assess fees to each bidder to recover the costs incurred in connection with a competitive procurement process.

(Source: P.A. 96-159, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1437, eff. 8-17-10; 97-325, eff. 8-12-11; 97-616, eff. 10-26-11; 97-618, eff. 10-26-11; revised 11-10-11.)

Section 115. The Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 12, 13, and 14.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3960/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1153)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Health care facilities" means and includes the following facilities and organizations:

1. An ambulatory surgical treatment center required to be licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act;

2. An institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed pursuant to the Hospital Licensing Act;

3. Skilled and intermediate long term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act;

3.5. Skilled and intermediate care facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act;

3.7. Facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act;

4. Hospitals, nursing homes, ambulatory surgical treatment centers, or kidney disease treatment centers maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof;

5. Kidney disease treatment centers, including a free-standing hemodialysis unit required to be licensed under the End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act;

6. An institution, place, building, or room used for the performance of outpatient surgical procedures that is leased, owned, or operated by or on behalf of an out-of-state facility;

7. An institution, place, building, or room used for provision of a health care category of service as defined by the Board, including, but not limited to, cardiac catheterization and open heart surgery; and

8. An institution, place, building, or room used for provision of major medical equipment used in the direct clinical diagnosis or treatment of patients, and whose project cost is in excess of the capital expenditure minimum.

This Act shall not apply to the construction of any new facility or the renovation of any existing facility located on any campus facility as defined in Section 5-5.8b of the Illinois Public Aid Code, provided that the campus facility encompasses 30 or more contiguous acres and that the new or renovated facility is intended for use by a licensed residential facility.

No federally owned facility shall be subject to the provisions of this Act, nor facilities used solely for healing by prayer or spiritual means.

No facility licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act shall be subject to the provisions of this Act.

No facility established and operating under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act as a children's respite care center alternative health care model demonstration program or as an Alzheimer's Disease Management Center alternative health care model demonstration program shall be subject to the provisions of this Act.

A facility designated as a supportive living facility that is in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code shall not be subject to the provisions of this Act.

This Act does not apply to facilities granted waivers under Section 3-102.2 of the Nursing Home Care Act. However, if a demonstration project under that Act applies for a certificate of need to convert to a nursing facility, it shall meet the licensure and certificate of need requirements in effect as of the date of application.

This Act does not apply to a dialysis facility that provides only dialysis training, support, and related services to individuals with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis. This Act does not apply to a dialysis unit located in a licensed nursing home that offers or provides dialysis-related services to residents with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis within the nursing home. The Board, however, may require these dialysis facilities and licensed nursing homes to report statistical information on a quarterly basis to the Board to be used by the Board to conduct analyses on the need for proposed kidney disease treatment centers.

This Act shall not apply to the closure of an entity or a portion of an entity licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, with the exceptions of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes, that elects to convert, in whole or in part, to an assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

This Act does not apply to any change of ownership of a healthcare facility that is licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, with the exceptions of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes. Changes of ownership of facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act must meet the requirements set forth in Sections 3-101 through 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

With the exception of those health care facilities specifically included in this Section, nothing in this Act shall be intended to include facilities operated as a part of the practice of a physician or other licensed health care professional, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional group. Further, this Act shall not apply to physicians or other licensed health care professional's practices where such practices are carried out in a portion of a health care facility under contract with such health care facility by a physician or by other licensed health care professionals, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional groups. This Act shall apply to construction or modification and to establishment by such health care facility of such contracted portion which is subject to facility licensing requirements, irrespective of the party responsible for such action or attendant financial obligation.

"Person" means any one or more natural persons, legal entities, governmental bodies other than federal, or any combination thereof.

"Consumer" means any person other than a person (a) whose major occupation currently involves or whose official capacity within the last 12 months has involved the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, (b) who is engaged in health research or the teaching of health, (c) who has a material financial interest in any activity which involves the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, or (d) who is or ever has been a member of the immediate family of the person defined by (a), (b), or (c).

"State Board" or "Board" means the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

"Construction or modification" means the establishment, erection, building, alteration, reconstruction, modernization, improvement, extension, discontinuation, change of ownership, of or by a health care facility, or the purchase or acquisition by or through a health care facility of equipment or service for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes or for facility administration or operation, or any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum; however, any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility for (i) the construction or modification of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act or (ii) a conversion project undertaken in accordance with Section 30 of the Older Adult Services Act shall be excluded from any obligations under this Act.

"Establish" means the construction of a health care facility or the replacement of an existing facility on another site or the initiation of a category of service as defined by the Board.

"Major medical equipment" means medical equipment which is used for the provision of medical and other health services and which costs in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, except that such term does not include medical equipment acquired by or on behalf of a clinical laboratory to provide clinical laboratory services if the clinical laboratory is independent of a physician's office and a hospital and it has been determined under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act to meet the requirements of paragraphs (10) and (11) of Section 1861(s) of such Act. In determining whether medical equipment has a value in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, the value of studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition of such equipment shall be included.

"Capital Expenditure" means an expenditure: (A) made by or on behalf of a health care facility (as such a facility is defined in this Act); and (B) which under generally accepted accounting principles is not properly chargeable as an expense of operation and maintenance, or is made to obtain by lease or comparable arrangement any facility or part thereof or any equipment for a facility or part; and which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum.

For the purpose of this paragraph, the cost of any studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition, improvement, expansion, or replacement of any plant or equipment with respect to which an expenditure is made shall be included in determining if such expenditure exceeds the capital expenditures minimum. Unless otherwise interdependent, or submitted as one project by the applicant, components of construction or modification undertaken by means of a single construction contract or financed through the issuance of a single debt instrument shall not be grouped together as one project. Donations of equipment or facilities to a health care facility which if acquired directly by such facility would be subject to review under this Act shall be considered capital expenditures, and a transfer of equipment or facilities for less than fair market value shall be considered a capital expenditure for purposes of this Act if a transfer of the equipment or facilities at fair market value would be subject to review.

"Capital expenditure minimum" means $11,500,000 for projects by hospital applicants, $6,500,000 for applicants for projects related to skilled and intermediate care long-term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, and $3,000,000 for projects by all other applicants, which shall be annually adjusted to reflect the increase in construction costs due to inflation, for major medical equipment and for all other capital expenditures.

"Non-clinical service area" means an area (i) for the benefit of the patients, visitors, staff, or employees of a health care facility and (ii) not directly related to the diagnosis, treatment, or rehabilitation of persons receiving services from the health care facility. "Non-clinical service areas" include, but are not limited to, chapels; gift shops; news stands; computer systems; tunnels, walkways, and elevators; telephone systems; projects to comply with life safety codes; educational facilities; student housing; patient, employee, staff, and visitor dining areas; administration and volunteer offices; modernization of structural components (such as roof replacement and masonry work); boiler repair or replacement; vehicle maintenance and storage facilities; parking facilities; mechanical systems for heating, ventilation, and air conditioning; loading docks; and repair or replacement of carpeting, tile, wall coverings, window coverings or treatments, or furniture. Solely for the purpose of this definition, "non-clinical service area" does not include health and fitness centers.

"Areawide" means a major area of the State delineated on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis for health planning and for health service and having within it one or more local areas for health planning and health service. The term "region", as contrasted with the term "subregion", and the word "area" may be used synonymously with the term "areawide".

"Local" means a subarea of a delineated major area that on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis may be considered to be part of such major area. The term "subregion" may be used synonymously with the term "local".

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice in accordance with the Medical Practice Act of 1987, as amended.

"Licensed health care professional" means a person licensed to practice a health profession under pertinent licensing statutes of the State of Illinois.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Agency" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Alternative health care model" means a facility or program authorized under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act.

"Out-of-state facility" means a person that is both (i) licensed as a hospital or as an ambulatory surgery center under the laws of another state or that qualifies as a hospital or an ambulatory surgery center under regulations adopted pursuant to the Social Security Act and (ii) not licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, or the Nursing Home Care Act. Affiliates of out-of-state facilities shall be considered out-of-state facilities. Affiliates of Illinois licensed health care facilities 100% owned by an Illinois licensed health care facility, its parent, or Illinois physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches shall not be considered out-of-state facilities. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to include an office or any part of an office of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois that is not required to be licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

"Change of ownership of a health care facility" means a change in the person who has ownership or control of a health care facility's physical plant and capital assets. A change in ownership is indicated by the following transactions: sale, transfer, acquisition, lease, change of sponsorship, or other means of transferring control.

"Related person" means any person that: (i) is at least 50% owned, directly or indirectly, by either the health care facility or a person owning, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility; or (ii) owns, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility.

"Charity care" means care provided by a health care facility for which the provider does not expect to receive payment from the patient or a third-party payer.

"Freestanding emergency center" means a facility subject to licensure under Section 32.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-277, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-7-11.)

(20 ILCS 3960/12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1162)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 12. Powers and duties of State Board. For purposes of this Act, the State Board shall exercise the following powers and duties:

(1) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, criteria, procedures or reviews which may vary according to the purpose for which a particular review is being conducted or the type of project reviewed and which are required to carry out the provisions and purposes of this Act. Policies and procedures of the State Board shall take into consideration the priorities and needs of medically underserved areas and other health care services identified through the comprehensive health planning process, giving special consideration to the impact of projects on access to safety net services.

(2) Adopt procedures for public notice and hearing on all proposed rules, regulations, standards, criteria, and plans required to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Develop criteria and standards for health care facilities planning, conduct statewide inventories of health care facilities, maintain an updated inventory on the Board's web site reflecting the most recent bed and service changes and updated need determinations when new census data become available or new need formulae are adopted, and develop health care facility plans which shall be utilized in the review of applications for permit under this Act. Such health facility plans shall be coordinated by the Board with pertinent State Plans. Inventories pursuant to this Section of skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or nursing homes licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be conducted on an annual basis no later than July 1 of each year and shall include among the information requested a list of all services provided by a facility to its residents and to the community at large and differentiate between active and inactive beds.

In developing health care facility plans, the State Board shall consider, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) The size, composition and growth of the population of the area to be served;

(b) The number of existing and planned facilities offering similar programs;

(c) The extent of utilization of existing facilities;

(d) The availability of facilities which may serve as alternatives or substitutes;

(e) The availability of personnel necessary to the operation of the facility;

(f) Multi-institutional planning and the establishment of multi-institutional systems where feasible;

(g) The financial and economic feasibility of proposed construction or modification; and

(h) In the case of health care facilities established by a religious body or denomination, the needs of the members of such religious body or denomination may be considered to be public need.

The health care facility plans which are developed and adopted in accordance with this Section shall form the basis for the plan of the State to deal most effectively with statewide health needs in regard to health care facilities.

(5) Coordinate with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning and other state agencies having responsibilities affecting health care facilities, including those of licensure and cost reporting.

(6) Solicit, accept, hold and administer on behalf of the State any grants or bequests of money, securities or property for use by the State Board or Center for Comprehensive Health Planning in the administration of this Act; and enter into contracts consistent with the appropriations for purposes enumerated in this Act.

(7) The State Board shall prescribe procedures for review, standards, and criteria which shall be utilized to make periodic reviews and determinations of the appropriateness of any existing health services being rendered by health care facilities subject to the Act. The State Board shall consider recommendations of the Board in making its determinations.

(8) Prescribe, in consultation with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning, rules, regulations, standards, and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review of applications for permits for projects of construction or modification of a health care facility, which projects are classified as emergency, substantive, or non-substantive in nature.

Six months after June 30, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-31), substantive projects shall include no more than the following:

(a) Projects to construct (1) a new or replacement facility located on a new site or (2) a replacement facility located on the same site as the original facility and the cost of the replacement facility exceeds the capital expenditure minimum;

(b) Projects proposing a (1) new service or (2) discontinuation of a service, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 60 days; or

(c) Projects proposing a change in the bed capacity of a health care facility by an increase in the total number of beds or by a redistribution of beds among various categories of service or by a relocation of beds from one physical facility or site to another by more than 20 beds or more than 10% of total bed capacity, as defined by the State Board, whichever is less, over a 2-year period.

The Chairman may approve applications for exemption that meet the criteria set forth in rules or refer them to the full Board. The Chairman may approve any unopposed application that meets all of the review criteria or refer them to the full Board.

Such rules shall not abridge the right of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning to make recommendations on the classification and approval of projects, nor shall such rules prevent the conduct of a public hearing upon the timely request of an interested party. Such reviews shall not exceed 60 days from the date the application is declared to be complete.

(9) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and criteria pertaining to the granting of permits for construction and modifications which are emergent in nature and must be undertaken immediately to prevent or correct structural deficiencies or hazardous conditions that may harm or injure persons using the facility, as defined in the rules and regulations of the State Board. This procedure is exempt from public hearing requirements of this Act.

(10) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review, not exceeding 60 days, of applications for permits for projects to construct or modify health care facilities which are needed for the care and treatment of persons who have acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or related conditions.

(11) Issue written decisions upon request of the applicant or an adversely affected party to the Board within 30 days of the meeting in which a final decision has been made. A "final decision" for purposes of this Act is the decision to approve or deny an application, or take other actions permitted under this Act, at the time and date of the meeting that such action is scheduled by the Board. The staff of the State Board shall prepare a written copy of the final decision and the State Board shall approve a final copy for inclusion in the formal record.

(12) Require at least one of its members to participate in any public hearing, after the appointment of the 9 members to the Board.

(13) Provide a mechanism for the public to comment on, and request changes to, draft rules and standards.

(14) Implement public information campaigns to regularly inform the general public about the opportunity for public hearings and public hearing procedures.

(15) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for long-term care that recognizes that nursing homes are a different business line and service model from other regulated facilities. An open and transparent process shall be developed that considers the following: how skilled nursing fits in the continuum of care with other care providers, modernization of nursing homes, establishment of more private rooms, development of alternative services, and current trends in long-term care services. The Chairman of the Board shall appoint a permanent Health Services Review Board Long-term Care Facility Advisory Subcommittee that shall develop and recommend to the Board the rules to be established by the Board under this paragraph (15). The Subcommittee shall also provide continuous review and commentary on policies and procedures relative to long-term care and the review of related projects. In consultation with other experts from the health field of long-term care, the Board and the Subcommittee shall study new approaches to the current bed need formula and Health Service Area boundaries to encourage flexibility and innovation in design models reflective of the changing long-term care marketplace and consumer preferences. The Board shall file the proposed related administrative rules for the separate rules and guidelines for long-term care required by this paragraph (15) by September 1, 2010. The Subcommittee shall be provided a reasonable and timely opportunity to review and comment on any review, revision, or updating of the criteria, standards, procedures, and rules used to evaluate project applications as provided under Section 12.3 of this Act prior to approval by the Board and promulgation of related rules.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-7-11.)

(20 ILCS 3960/13) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1163)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 13. Investigation of applications for permits and certificates of recognition. The Agency or the State Board shall make or cause to be made such investigations as it or the State Board deems necessary in connection with an application for a permit or an application for a certificate of recognition, or in connection with a determination of whether or not construction or modification which has been commenced is in accord with the permit issued by the State Board or whether construction or modification has been commenced without a permit having been obtained. The State Board may issue subpoenas duces tecum requiring the production of records and may administer oaths to such witnesses.

Any circuit court of this State, upon the application of the State Board or upon the application of any party to such proceedings, may, in its discretion, compel the attendance of witnesses, the production of books, papers, records, or memoranda and the giving of testimony before the State Board, by a proceeding as for contempt, or otherwise, in the same manner as production of evidence may be compelled before the court.

The State Board shall require all health facilities operating in this State to provide such reasonable reports at such times and containing such information as is needed by it to carry out the purposes and provisions of this Act. Prior to collecting information from health facilities, the State Board shall make reasonable efforts through a public process to consult with health facilities and associations that represent them to determine whether data and information requests will result in useful information for health planning, whether sufficient information is available from other sources, and whether data requested is routinely collected by health facilities and is available without retrospective record review. Data and information requests shall not impose undue paperwork burdens on health care facilities and personnel. Health facilities not complying with this requirement shall be reported to licensing, accrediting, certifying, or payment agencies as being in violation of State law. Health care facilities and other parties at interest shall have reasonable access, under rules established by the State Board, to all planning information submitted in accord with this Act pertaining to their area.

Among the reports to be required by the State Board are facility questionnaires for health care facilities licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act. These questionnaires shall be conducted on an annual basis and compiled by the Agency. For health care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, these reports shall include, but not be limited to, the identification of specialty services provided by the facility to patients, residents, and the community at large. For health care facilities that contain long term care beds, the reports shall also include the number of staffed long term care beds, physical capacity for long term care beds at the facility, and long term care beds available for immediate occupancy. For purposes of this paragraph, "long term care beds" means beds (i) licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, (ii) licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, (iii) licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, or (iv) licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act and certified as skilled nursing or nursing facility beds under Medicaid or Medicare.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-7-11.)

(20 ILCS 3960/14.1)

Sec. 14.1. Denial of permit; other sanctions.

(a) The State Board may deny an application for a permit or may revoke or take other action as permitted by this Act with regard to a permit as the State Board deems appropriate, including the imposition of fines as set forth in this Section, for any one or a combination of the following:

(1) The acquisition of major medical equipment without a permit or in violation of the terms of a permit.

(2) The establishment, construction, or modification of a health care facility without a permit or in violation of the terms of a permit.

(3) The violation of any provision of this Act or any rule adopted under this Act.

(4) The failure, by any person subject to this Act, to provide information requested by the State Board or Agency within 30 days after a formal written request for the information.

(5) The failure to pay any fine imposed under this Section within 30 days of its imposition.

(a-5) For facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for actions specified under item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the ID/DD Community Care Act. For facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for actions specified under item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act. For facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for: (i) actions specified under item (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of Section 3-117 of the Nursing Home Care Act; (ii) actions specified under item (a)(6) of Section 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care Act; or (iii) actions within the preceding 5 years constituting a substantial and repeated failure to comply with the Nursing Home Care Act or the rules and regulations adopted by the Department under that Act. The State Board shall not deny a permit on account of any action described in this subsection (a-5) without also considering all such actions in the light of all relevant information available to the State Board, including whether the permit is sought to substantially comply with a mandatory or voluntary plan of correction associated with any action described in this subsection (a-5).

(b) Persons shall be subject to fines as follows:

(1) A permit holder who fails to comply with the requirements of maintaining a valid permit shall be fined an amount not to exceed 1% of the approved permit amount plus an additional 1% of the approved permit amount for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(2) A permit holder who alters the scope of an approved project or whose project costs exceed the allowable permit amount without first obtaining approval from the State Board shall be fined an amount not to exceed the sum of (i) the lesser of $25,000 or 2% of the approved permit amount and (ii) in those cases where the approved permit amount is exceeded by more than $1,000,000, an additional $20,000 for each $1,000,000, or fraction thereof, in excess of the approved permit amount.

(3) A person who acquires major medical equipment or who establishes a category of service without first obtaining a permit or exemption, as the case may be, shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 for each such acquisition or category of service established plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(4) A person who constructs, modifies, or establishes a health care facility without first obtaining a permit shall be fined an amount not to exceed $25,000 plus an additional $25,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(5) A person who discontinues a health care facility or a category of service without first obtaining a permit shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues. For purposes of this subparagraph (5), facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD Community Care Act, with the exceptions of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes, are exempt from this permit requirement. However, facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD Community Care Act must comply with Section 3-423 of the Nursing Home Care Act or Section 3-423 of the ID/DD Community Care Act and must provide the Board with 30-days' written notice of its intent to close.

(6) A person subject to this Act who fails to provide information requested by the State Board or Agency within 30 days of a formal written request shall be fined an amount not to exceed $1,000 plus an additional $1,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the information is not received by the State Board or Agency.

(c) Before imposing any fine authorized under this Section, the State Board shall afford the person or permit holder, as the case may be, an appearance before the State Board and an opportunity for a hearing before a hearing officer appointed by the State Board. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with Section 10.

(d) All fines collected under this Act shall be transmitted to the State Treasurer, who shall deposit them into the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-7-11.)

Section 120. The Judicial Note Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(25 ILCS 60/7) (from Ch. 63, par. 42.67)

Sec. 7. Whenever any committee of either house reports report any bill with amendments of such a nature as will affect the number of judges in the State as stated in the judicial note relating to the measure at the time of its referral to the committee, there shall be included with the report of the committee a statement of the effect of the change proposed by the amendment reported as desired by a majority of the committee. In like manner, whenever any measure is amended on the floor of either house in such manner as to affect the number of judges in the State as stated in the judicial note relating to the measure prior to such amendment, a majority of such house may propose that no action shall be taken upon the amendment until the sponsor of the amendment shows to the members a statement of the judicial effect affect of his proposed amendment.

(Source: P.A. 77-1258; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 125. The Compensation Review Act is amended by changing Section 2.1 as follows:

(25 ILCS 120/2.1)

Sec. 2.1. "Set by Compensation Review Board"; meaning. If salary or compensation is provided by law as set by the Compensation Review Board, then that means the salary or compensation in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly or as otherwise provided in this Act and as provided in Section 5.6 of the Compensation Review Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-800, eff. 10-30-09; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 130. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.755, 5.786, 5.787, and 6z-87 and by changing Section 6z-27 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.755)

Sec. 5.755. The Healthcare Provider Relief Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-820, eff. 11-18-09; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.786)

Sec. 5.786. The Fund for the Advancement of Education.

(Source: P.A. 96-1496, eff. 1-13-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.787)

Sec. 5.787. The Commitment to Human Services Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-1496, eff. 1-13-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.788)

Sec. 5.788 5.755. The Chicago Police Memorial Foundation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-1547, eff. 3-10-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.789)

Sec. 5.789 5.786. The Department of Human Services Community Services Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.790)

Sec. 5.790 5.786. The Death Penalty Abolition Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-1543, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.791)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 5.791 5.786. The Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-46, eff. 7-1-12; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.792)

Sec. 5.792 5.786. Attorney General Tobacco Fund. There is hereby created in the State treasury the Attorney General Tobacco Fund to be used, subject to appropriation, exclusively by the Attorney General for enforcement of the tobacco Master Settlement Agreement and for law enforcement activities of the Attorney General.

(Source: P.A. 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.793)

Sec. 5.793 5.786. The Veterans Traumatic Brain Injury and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Public Service Announcement Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-78, eff. 7-5-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.794)

Sec. 5.794 5.786. The Homeland Security Emergency Preparedness Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-116, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.795)

Sec. 5.795 5.786. The Athletics Supervision and Regulation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.796)

Sec. 5.796 5.786. The State Charter School Commission Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-152, eff. 7-20-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.797)

Sec. 5.797 5.786. The Electronic Health Record Incentive Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-169, eff. 7-22-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.798)

Sec. 5.798 5.786. The Historic Property Administrative Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-203, eff. 7-28-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.799)

Sec. 5.799 5.786. The Octave Chanute Aerospace Heritage Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-243, eff. 8-4-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.800)

Sec. 5.800 5.786. The Roseland Community Medical District Income Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-259, eff. 8-5-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.801)

Sec. 5.801 5.786. The Illinois Department of Corrections Parole Division Offender Supervision Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-262, eff. 8-5-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.802)

Sec. 5.802 5.786. The Small Business Development Grant Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-406, eff. 8-16-11; revised 8-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.803)

Sec. 5.803 5.786. The Illinois Law Enforcement Alarm Systems Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-453, eff. 8-19-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.804)

Sec. 5.804 5.786. The Illinois State Crime Stoppers Association Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-478, eff. 8-22-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.805)

Sec. 5.805 5.786. The Savings Institutions Regulatory Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-492, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.806)

Sec. 5.806 5.786. The Prescription Pill and Drug Disposal Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-545, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.807)

Sec. 5.807 5.786. The Illinois Main Street Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-573, eff. 8-25-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.808)

Sec. 5.808 5.787. The After-School Rescue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-478, eff. 8-22-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.810)

Sec. 5.810 5.786. The Chicago Travel Industry Promotion Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-617, eff. 10-26-11; revised 12-5-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-27)

Sec. 6z-27. All moneys in the Audit Expense Fund shall be transferred, appropriated and used only for the purposes authorized by, and subject to the limitations and conditions prescribed by, the State Auditing Act.

Within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 2011, the State Comptroller shall order transferred and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the following funds moneys in the specified amounts for deposit into the Audit Expense Fund:

Adeline Jay Geo-Karis Illinois

Beach Marina Fund....................................517 Assisted Living and Shared Housing Regulatory Fund.......532 Care Provider Fund for Persons with Developmental Disability..........................12,370 Carolyn Adams Ticket for the Cure Grant Fund.............687 CDLIS/AAMVA Net Trust Fund...............................609 Coal Mining Regulatory Fund..............................884 Common School Fund...................................162,681 The Communications Revolving Fund.....................79,373 Community Health Center Care Fund........................599 Community Mental Health Medicaid Trust Fund...............................20,824 Death Certificate Surcharge Fund.......................1,917 Department of Business Services Special Operations Fund....................................4,088 The Downstate Public Transportation Fund...............6,423 Drivers Education Fund...................................676 The Education Assistance Fund.........................40,799 Emergency Public Health Fund...........................4,934 Environmental Protection Permit and

Inspection Fund......................................913 Estate Tax Collection Distributive Fund................1,315 Facilities Management Revolving Fund.................146,649 The Fire Prevention Fund...............................4,110 Food and Drug Safety Fund..............................2,216 General Professions Dedicated Fund.....................7,978 The General Revenue Fund..........................17,684,627 Grade Crossing Protection Fund.........................1,188 Hazardous Waste Fund...................................1,295 Health Facility Plan Review Fund.......................2,063 Health and Human Services

Medicaid Trust Fund...............................11,590 Healthcare Provider Relief Fund.......................16,458 Home Care Services Agency Licensure Fund...............1,025 Illinois Affordable Housing Trust Fund...................799 Illinois Clean Water Fund..............................1,420 Illinois Health Facilities Planning Fund...............2,572 Illinois Power Agency Trust Fund......................46,305 Illinois Power Agency Operations Fund.................30,960 Illinois School Asbestos Abatement Fund................1,368 Illinois Tax Increment Fund..............................751 Illinois Veterans Rehabilitation Fund..................1,134 Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission

Operations Fund...................................70,049 IMSA Income Fund.......................................7,588 Income Tax Refund Fund................................55,211 Innovations in Long-term Care Quality Demonstration

Grants Fund........................................3,140 Lead Poisoning, Screening, Prevention and

Abatement Fund.....................................5,025 Live and Learn Fund...................................18,166 The Local Government Distributive Fund................49,520 Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Fund...................2,365 Long Term Care Provider Fund...........................2,214 Low Level Radioactive Waste Facility Development and

Operation Fund.....................................3,880 Mandatory Arbitration Fund.............................2,926 Mental Health Fund.....................................6,210 Metabolic Screening and Treatment Fund................19,342 Monitoring Device Driving Permit Administration Fee Fund.645 The Motor Fuel Tax Fund...............................31,806 Motor Vehicle License Plate Fund.......................8,027 Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Trust Fund.............59,407 Multiple Sclerosis Research Fund.......................1,830 Natural Areas Acquisition Fund.........................1,776 Nuclear Safety Emergency Preparedness Fund...........216,920 Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund................2,180 Open Space Lands Acquisition and

Development Fund...................................7,009 Park and Conservation Fund.............................4,857 Partners for Conservation Fund...........................759 The Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund............47,871 Plumbing Licensure and Program Fund....................3,065 Professional Services Fund.............................8,811 Public Health Laboratory Services Revolving Fund.......1,420 The Public Transportation Fund........................18,837 Radiation Protection Fund.............................65,921 Rental Housing Support Program Fund......................681 The Road Fund........................................203,659 Regional Transportation Authority Occupation and Use Tax Replacement Fund...........................1,010 Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund.............1,350 Secretary of State Identification

Security and Theft Prevention Fund.................1,219 Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund..........3,194 Secretary of State Special Services Fund..............14,404 Securities Audit and Enforcement Fund..................4,743 Securities Investors Education Fund......................882 September 11th Fund....................................1,062 Solid Waste Management Fund............................1,348 State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund..................1,984 State Boating Act Fund.................................3,155 State Construction Account Fund.......................34,102 The State Garage Revolving Fund.......................30,345 The State Lottery Fund................................17,959 State Parks Fund.......................................2,483 State Surplus Property Revolving Fund..................2,090 The Statistical Services Revolving Fund..............105,824 Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund......................30,157 Trauma Center Fund.....................................6,569 Underground Storage Tank Fund..........................7,216 The Vehicle Inspection Fund............................5,050 1 Wildlife and Fish Fund................................16,553 The Working Capital Revolving Fund..................31,272

Notwithstanding any provision of the law to the contrary, the General Assembly hereby authorizes the use of such funds for the purposes set forth in this Section.

These provisions do not apply to funds classified by the Comptroller as federal trust funds or State trust funds. The Audit Expense Fund may receive transfers from those trust funds only as directed herein, except where prohibited by the terms of the trust fund agreement. The Auditor General shall notify the trustees of those funds of the estimated cost of the audit to be incurred under the Illinois State Auditing Act for the fund. The trustees of those funds shall direct the State Comptroller and Treasurer to transfer the estimated amount to the Audit Expense Fund.

The Auditor General may bill entities that are not subject to the above transfer provisions, including private entities, related organizations and entities whose funds are locally-held, for the cost of audits, studies, and investigations incurred on their behalf. Any revenues received under this provision shall be deposited into the Audit Expense Fund.

In the event that moneys on deposit in any fund are unavailable, by reason of deficiency or any other reason preventing their lawful transfer, the State Comptroller shall order transferred and the State Treasurer shall transfer the amount deficient or otherwise unavailable from the General Revenue Fund for deposit into the Audit Expense Fund.

On or before December 1, 1992, and each December 1 thereafter, the Auditor General shall notify the Governor's Office of Management and Budget (formerly Bureau of the Budget) of the amount estimated to be necessary to pay for audits, studies, and investigations in accordance with the Illinois State Auditing Act during the next succeeding fiscal year for each State fund for which a transfer or reimbursement is anticipated.

Beginning with fiscal year 1994 and during each fiscal year thereafter, the Auditor General may direct the State Comptroller and Treasurer to transfer moneys from funds authorized by the General Assembly for that fund. In the event funds, including federal and State trust funds but excluding the General Revenue Fund, are transferred, during fiscal year 1994 and during each fiscal year thereafter, in excess of the amount to pay actual costs attributable to audits, studies, and investigations as permitted or required by the Illinois State Auditing Act or specific action of the General Assembly, the Auditor General shall, on September 30, or as soon thereafter as is practicable, direct the State Comptroller and Treasurer to transfer the excess amount back to the fund from which it was originally transferred.

(Source: P.A. 96-476, eff. 8-14-09; 96-976, eff. 7-2-10; 97-66, eff. 6-30-11; revised 7-13-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-87)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 6z-87. Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund known as the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund. The Fund shall receive revenue pursuant to Section 27.3a of the Clerks of Courts Act. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(b) The Department of Natural Resources may use moneys in the Fund to support any lawful operations of the Illinois Conservation Police.

(c) Expenditures may be made from the Fund only as appropriated by the General Assembly by law.

(d) Investment income that is attributable to the investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund for the uses specified in this Section.

(e) The Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund shall not be subject to administrative chargebacks.

(Source: P.A. 97-46, eff. 7-1-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-89)

Sec. 6z-89 6z-87. The Veterans Traumatic Brain Injury and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Public Service Announcement Fund; creation. The Veterans Traumatic Brain Injury and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Public Service Announcement Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Department of Veterans' Affairs may collect gifts, donations, and charitable contributions from any private individual or entity for the purpose of providing public service announcements to inform veterans of the services and benefits of State and federal laws, including but not limited to the services and benefits available to veterans suffering from traumatic brain injuries or post-traumatic stress disorder. The gifts, donations, and charitable contributions shall be deposited into the Veterans Traumatic Brain Injury and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Public Service Announcement Fund. All money in the Veterans Traumatic Brain Injury and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Public Service Announcement Fund shall be used, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, by the Department of Veterans' Affairs for this purpose.

(Source: P.A. 97-78, eff. 7-5-11; revised 9-19-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-90)

Sec. 6z-90 6z-87. The Small Business Development Grant Fund.

(a) The Small Business Development Grant Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall make grants from the Fund:

(1) to small businesses in the State that commit to using the grant moneys to create additional jobs;

(2) to small businesses from outside of the State that commit to relocate within the State; and

(3) for individual projects that create 100 or fewer additional jobs.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "small business" means a legal entity, including a corporation, partnership, or sole proprietorship that:

(1) is formed for the purpose of making a profit;

(2) is independently owned and operated; and

(3) has fewer than 100 employees.

(c) In making grants under this Section, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall give priority to minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by a person with a disability, as those terms are defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(d) In making grants under this Section, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall also give priority to small businesses that pledge not to pay any of the grant moneys to an executive of the business in the form of compensation above the executive's base salary.

(e) In making grants under this Section, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall also give priority to small businesses that have as their primary purpose the provision of energy derived from renewable energy technology. For the purposes of this Section, "renewable energy technology" means any technology that exclusively relies on an energy source that is naturally regenerated over a short time and derived (i) directly from the sun, (ii) indirectly from the sun, or (iii) from moving water or other natural movements and mechanisms of the environment. The term "renewable energy technology" includes sources that rely on energy derived directly from the sun, on wind, geothermal, hydroelectric, wave, or tidal energy, or on biomass or biomass-based waste products, including landfill gas. The term "renewable energy technology" does not include energy resources derived from fossil fuels, waste products from fossil fuels, or waste products from inorganic sources.

(Source: P.A. 97-406, eff. 8-16-11; revised 9-19-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-91)

Sec. 6z-91 6z-87. Illinois Law Enforcement Alarm Systems Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund known as the Illinois Law Enforcement Alarm Systems (ILEAS) Fund. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(b) Moneys in the Fund may be used to finance support for law enforcement, airborne, and terrorism operations as approved by the ILEAS Executive Board with 33.3% of the revenue used for air support programs.

(c) Expenditures may be made from the Fund only as appropriated by the General Assembly by law.

(d) Investment income that is attributable to the investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund for the uses specified in this Section.

(e) The Illinois Law Enforcement Alarm Systems Fund shall not be subject to administrative chargebacks.

(Source: P.A. 97-453, eff. 8-19-11; revised 9-19-11.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-92)

Sec. 6z-92 6z-87. Illinois State Crime Stoppers Association Fund. The Illinois State Crime Stoppers Association Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation, the Fund shall be used by the Criminal Justice Information Authority to make grants to the Illinois State Crime Stoppers Association to enhance and develop Crime Stoppers programs in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 97-478, eff. 8-22-11; revised 9-19-11.)

Section 135. The General Obligation Bond Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 9 as follows:

(30 ILCS 330/2) (from Ch. 127, par. 652)

Sec. 2. Authorization for Bonds. The State of Illinois is authorized to issue, sell and provide for the retirement of General Obligation Bonds of the State of Illinois for the categories and specific purposes expressed in Sections 2 through 8 of this Act, in the total amount of $45,476,125,743 $41,314,125,743 $41,379,777,443.

The bonds authorized in this Section 2 and in Section 16 of this Act are herein called "Bonds".

Of the total amount of Bonds authorized in this Act, up to $2,200,000,000 in aggregate original principal amount may be issued and sold in accordance with the Baccalaureate Savings Act in the form of General Obligation College Savings Bonds.

Of the total amount of Bonds authorized in this Act, up to $300,000,000 in aggregate original principal amount may be issued and sold in accordance with the Retirement Savings Act in the form of General Obligation Retirement Savings Bonds.

Of the total amount of Bonds authorized in this Act, the additional $10,000,000,000 authorized by Public Act 93-2, the $3,466,000,000 authorized by Public Act 96-43, and the $4,096,348,300 authorized by Public Act 96-1497 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be used solely as provided in Section 7.2.

The issuance and sale of Bonds pursuant to the General Obligation Bond Act is an economical and efficient method of financing the long-term capital needs of the State. This Act will permit the issuance of a multi-purpose General Obligation Bond with uniform terms and features. This will not only lower the cost of registration but also reduce the overall cost of issuing debt by improving the marketability of Illinois General Obligation Bonds.

(Source: P.A. 95-1026, eff. 1-12-09; 96-5, eff. 4-3-09; 96-36, eff. 7-13-09; 96-43, eff. 7-15-09; 96-885, eff. 3-11-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1497, eff. 1-14-11; 96-1554, eff. 3-18-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 10-31-11.)

(30 ILCS 330/9) (from Ch. 127, par. 659)

Sec. 9. Conditions for Issuance and Sale of Bonds - Requirements for Bonds.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, Bonds shall be issued and sold from time to time, in one or more series, in such amounts and at such prices as may be directed by the Governor, upon recommendation by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. Bonds shall be in such form (either coupon, registered or book entry), in such denominations, payable within 25 years from their date, subject to such terms of redemption with or without premium, bear interest payable at such times and at such fixed or variable rate or rates, and be dated as shall be fixed and determined by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget in the order authorizing the issuance and sale of any series of Bonds, which order shall be approved by the Governor and is herein called a "Bond Sale Order"; provided however, that interest payable at fixed or variable rates shall not exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act, as now or hereafter amended. Bonds shall be payable at such place or places, within or without the State of Illinois, and may be made registrable as to either principal or as to both principal and interest, as shall be specified in the Bond Sale Order. Bonds may be callable or subject to purchase and retirement or tender and remarketing as fixed and determined in the Bond Sale Order. Bonds, other than Bonds issued under Section 3 of this Act for the costs associated with the purchase and implementation of information technology, (i) except for refunding Bonds satisfying the requirements of Section 16 of this Act and sold during fiscal year 2009, 2010, or 2011, must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts in equal amounts, with the first maturity issued occurring within the fiscal year in which the Bonds are issued or within the next succeeding fiscal year and (ii) must mature or be subject to mandatory redemption each fiscal year thereafter up to 25 years, except for refunding Bonds satisfying the requirements of Section 16 of this Act and sold during fiscal year 2009, 2010, or 2011 which must mature or be subject to mandatory redemption each fiscal year thereafter up to 16 years. Bonds issued under Section 3 of this Act for the costs associated with the purchase and implementation of information technology must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts in equal amounts, with the first maturity issued occurring with the fiscal year in which the respective bonds are issued or with the next succeeding fiscal year, with the respective bonds issued maturing or subject to mandatory redemption each fiscal year thereafter up to 10 years. Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, the Bonds authorized by Public Act 96-43 shall be payable within 5 years from their date and must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts in equal amounts, with payment of principal or mandatory redemption beginning in the first fiscal year following the fiscal year in which the Bonds are issued.

Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, the Bonds authorized by Public Act 96-1497 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be payable within 8 years from their date and shall be issued with payment of maturing principal or scheduled mandatory redemptions in accordance with the following schedule, except the following amounts shall be prorated if less than the total additional amount of Bonds authorized by Public Act 96-1497 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly are issued:

Fiscal Year After Issuance Amount

1-2 $0

3 $110,712,120

4 $332,136,360

5 $664,272,720

6-8 $996,409,080

In the case of any series of Bonds bearing interest at a variable interest rate ("Variable Rate Bonds"), in lieu of determining the rate or rates at which such series of Variable Rate Bonds shall bear interest and the price or prices at which such Variable Rate Bonds shall be initially sold or remarketed (in the event of purchase and subsequent resale), the Bond Sale Order may provide that such interest rates and prices may vary from time to time depending on criteria established in such Bond Sale Order, which criteria may include, without limitation, references to indices or variations in interest rates as may, in the judgment of a remarketing agent, be necessary to cause Variable Rate Bonds of such series to be remarketable from time to time at a price equal to their principal amount, and may provide for appointment of a bank, trust company, investment bank, or other financial institution to serve as remarketing agent in that connection. The Bond Sale Order may provide that alternative interest rates or provisions for establishing alternative interest rates, different security or claim priorities, or different call or amortization provisions will apply during such times as Variable Rate Bonds of any series are held by a person providing credit or liquidity enhancement arrangements for such Bonds as authorized in subsection (b) of this Section. The Bond Sale Order may also provide for such variable interest rates to be established pursuant to a process generally known as an auction rate process and may provide for appointment of one or more financial institutions to serve as auction agents and broker-dealers in connection with the establishment of such interest rates and the sale and remarketing of such Bonds.

(b) In connection with the issuance of any series of Bonds, the State may enter into arrangements to provide additional security and liquidity for such Bonds, including, without limitation, bond or interest rate insurance or letters of credit, lines of credit, bond purchase contracts, or other arrangements whereby funds are made available to retire or purchase Bonds, thereby assuring the ability of owners of the Bonds to sell or redeem their Bonds. The State may enter into contracts and may agree to pay fees to persons providing such arrangements, but only under circumstances where the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget certifies that he or she reasonably expects the total interest paid or to be paid on the Bonds, together with the fees for the arrangements (being treated as if interest), would not, taken together, cause the Bonds to bear interest, calculated to their stated maturity, at a rate in excess of the rate that the Bonds would bear in the absence of such arrangements.

The State may, with respect to Bonds issued or anticipated to be issued, participate in and enter into arrangements with respect to interest rate protection or exchange agreements, guarantees, or financial futures contracts for the purpose of limiting, reducing, or managing interest rate exposure. The authority granted under this paragraph, however, shall not increase the principal amount of Bonds authorized to be issued by law. The arrangements may be executed and delivered by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget on behalf of the State. Net payments for such arrangements shall constitute interest on the Bonds and shall be paid from the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund. The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall at least annually certify to the Governor and the State Comptroller his or her estimate of the amounts of such net payments to be included in the calculation of interest required to be paid by the State.

(c) Prior to the issuance of any Variable Rate Bonds pursuant to subsection (a), the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall adopt an interest rate risk management policy providing that the amount of the State's variable rate exposure with respect to Bonds shall not exceed 20%. This policy shall remain in effect while any Bonds are outstanding and the issuance of Bonds shall be subject to the terms of such policy. The terms of this policy may be amended from time to time by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget but in no event shall any amendment cause the permitted level of the State's variable rate exposure with respect to Bonds to exceed 20%.

(d) "Build America Bonds" in this Section means Bonds authorized by Section 54AA of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended ("Internal Revenue Code"), and bonds issued from time to time to refund or continue to refund "Build America Bonds".

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, Qualified School Construction Bonds shall be issued and sold from time to time, in one or more series, in such amounts and at such prices as may be directed by the Governor, upon recommendation by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. Qualified School Construction Bonds shall be in such form (either coupon, registered or book entry), in such denominations, payable within 25 years from their date, subject to such terms of redemption with or without premium, and if the Qualified School Construction Bonds are issued with a supplemental coupon, bear interest payable at such times and at such fixed or variable rate or rates, and be dated as shall be fixed and determined by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget in the order authorizing the issuance and sale of any series of Qualified School Construction Bonds, which order shall be approved by the Governor and is herein called a "Bond Sale Order"; except that interest payable at fixed or variable rates, if any, shall not exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act, as now or hereafter amended. Qualified School Construction Bonds shall be payable at such place or places, within or without the State of Illinois, and may be made registrable as to either principal or as to both principal and interest, as shall be specified in the Bond Sale Order. Qualified School Construction Bonds may be callable or subject to purchase and retirement or tender and remarketing as fixed and determined in the Bond Sale Order. Qualified School Construction Bonds must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts or sinking fund payments into the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund (or subaccount therefor) in equal amounts, with the first maturity issued, mandatory redemption payment or sinking fund payment occurring within the fiscal year in which the Qualified School Construction Bonds are issued or within the next succeeding fiscal year, with Qualified School Construction Bonds issued maturing or subject to mandatory redemption or with sinking fund payments thereof deposited each fiscal year thereafter up to 25 years. Sinking fund payments set forth in this subsection shall be permitted only to the extent authorized in Section 54F of the Internal Revenue Code or as otherwise determined by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. "Qualified School Construction Bonds" in this subsection means Bonds authorized by Section 54F of the Internal Revenue Code and for bonds issued from time to time to refund or continue to refund such "Qualified School Construction Bonds".

(f) Beginning with the next issuance by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget to the Procurement Policy Board of a request for quotation for the purpose of formulating a new pool of qualified underwriting banks list, all entities responding to such a request for quotation for inclusion on that list shall provide a written report to the Governor's Office of Management and Budget and the Illinois Comptroller. The written report submitted to the Comptroller shall (i) be published on the Comptroller's Internet website and (ii) be used by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget for the purposes of scoring such a request for quotation. The written report, at a minimum, shall:

(1) disclose whether, within the past 3 months, pursuant to its credit default swap market-making activities, the firm has entered into any State of Illinois credit default swaps ("CDS");

(2) include, in the event of State of Illinois CDS activity, disclosure of the firm's cumulative notional volume of State of Illinois CDS trades and the firm's outstanding gross and net notional amount of State of Illinois CDS, as of the end of the current 3-month period;

(3) indicate, pursuant to the firm's proprietary trading activities, disclosure of whether the firm, within the past 3 months, has entered into any proprietary trades for its own account in State of Illinois CDS;

(4) include, in the event of State of Illinois proprietary trades, disclosure of the firm's outstanding gross and net notional amount of proprietary State of Illinois CDS and whether the net position is short or long credit protection, as of the end of the current 3-month period;

(5) list all time periods during the past 3 months during which the firm held net long or net short State of Illinois CDS proprietary credit protection positions, the amount of such positions, and whether those positions were net long or net short credit protection positions; and

(6) indicate whether, within the previous 3 months, the firm released any publicly available research or marketing reports that reference State of Illinois CDS and include those research or marketing reports as attachments.

(g) All entities included on a Governor's Office of Management and Budget's pool of qualified underwriting banks list shall, as soon as possible after March 18, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1554) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, but not later than January 21, 2011, and on a quarterly fiscal basis thereafter, provide a written report to the Governor's Office of Management and Budget and the Illinois Comptroller. The written reports submitted to the Comptroller shall be published on the Comptroller's Internet website. The written reports, at a minimum, shall:

(1) disclose whether, within the past 3 months, pursuant to its credit default swap market-making activities, the firm has entered into any State of Illinois credit default swaps ("CDS");

(2) include, in the event of State of Illinois CDS activity, disclosure of the firm's cumulative notional volume of State of Illinois CDS trades and the firm's outstanding gross and net notional amount of State of Illinois CDS, as of the end of the current 3-month period;

(3) indicate, pursuant to the firm's proprietary trading activities, disclosure of whether the firm, within the past 3 months, has entered into any proprietary trades for its own account in State of Illinois CDS;

(4) include, in the event of State of Illinois proprietary trades, disclosure of the firm's outstanding gross and net notional amount of proprietary State of Illinois CDS and whether the net position is short or long credit protection, as of the end of the current 3-month period;

(5) list all time periods during the past 3 months during which the firm held net long or net short State of Illinois CDS proprietary credit protection positions, the amount of such positions, and whether those positions were net long or net short credit protection positions; and

(6) indicate whether, within the previous 3 months, the firm released any publicly available research or marketing reports that reference State of Illinois CDS and include those research or marketing reports as attachments.

(Source: P.A. 96-18, eff. 6-26-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-43, eff. 7-15-09; 96-828, eff. 12-2-09; 96-1497, eff. 1-14-11; 96-1554, eff. 3-18-11; revised 4-5-11.)

Section 140. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Section 1-10 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Application.

(a) This Code applies only to procurements for which contractors were first solicited on or after July 1, 1998. This Code shall not be construed to affect or impair any contract, or any provision of a contract, entered into based on a solicitation prior to the implementation date of this Code as described in Article 99, including but not limited to any covenant entered into with respect to any revenue bonds or similar instruments. All procurements for which contracts are solicited between the effective date of Articles 50 and 99 and July 1, 1998 shall be substantially in accordance with this Code and its intent.

(b) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of the funds with which the contracts are paid, including federal assistance moneys. This Code shall not apply to:

(1) Contracts between the State and its political subdivisions or other governments, or between State governmental bodies except as specifically provided in this Code.

(2) Grants, except for the filing requirements of Section 20-80.

(3) Purchase of care.

(4) Hiring of an individual as employee and not as an independent contractor, whether pursuant to an employment code or policy or by contract directly with that individual.

(5) Collective bargaining contracts.

(6) Purchase of real estate, except that notice of this type of contract with a value of more than $25,000 must be published in the Procurement Bulletin within 7 days after the deed is recorded in the county of jurisdiction. The notice shall identify the real estate purchased, the names of all parties to the contract, the value of the contract, and the effective date of the contract.

(7) Contracts necessary to prepare for anticipated litigation, enforcement actions, or investigations, provided that the chief legal counsel to the Governor shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring agency is one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor, and provided that the chief legal counsel of any other procuring entity subject to this Code shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring entity is not one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor.

(8) Contracts for services to Northern Illinois University by a person, acting as an independent contractor, who is qualified by education, experience, and technical ability and is selected by negotiation for the purpose of providing non-credit educational service activities or products by means of specialized programs offered by the university.

(9) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois Conservation Foundation when only private funds are used.

(10) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority involving private funds from the Health Information Exchange Fund. "Private funds" means gifts, donations, and private grants.

(11) Public-private agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 20 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act and design-build agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 25 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act.

(c) This Code does not apply to the electric power procurement process provided for under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(d) Except for Section 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code, and as expressly required by Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law, the provisions of this Code do not apply to the procurement process provided for under Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law.

(e) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain a person or entity to assist the Capital Development Board with its duties related to the determination of costs of a clean coal SNG brownfield facility, as defined by Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, as required in subsection (h-3) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act, including calculating the range of capital costs, the range of operating and maintenance costs, or the sequestration costs or monitoring the construction of clean coal SNG brownfield facility for the full duration of construction.

(f) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Illinois Power Agency to retain a mediator to mediate sourcing agreement disputes between gas utilities and the clean coal SNG brownfield facility, as defined in Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, as required under subsection (h-1) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act.

(g) (e) This Code does not apply to the processes used by the Illinois Power Agency to retain a mediator to mediate contract disputes between gas utilities and the clean coal SNG facility and to retain an expert to assist in the review of contracts under subsection (h) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act. This Code does not apply to the process used by the Illinois Commerce Commission to retain an expert to assist in determining the actual incurred costs of the clean coal SNG facility and the reasonableness of those costs as required under subsection (h) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-840, eff. 12-23-09; 96-1331, eff. 7-27-10; 97-96, eff. 7-13-11; 97-239, eff. 8-2-11; 97-502, eff. 8-23-11; revised 9-7-11.)

Section 145. The State Prompt Payment Act is amended by changing Section 3-2 as follows:

(30 ILCS 540/3-2)

Sec. 3-2. Beginning July 1, 1993, in any instance where a State official or agency is late in payment of a vendor's bill or invoice for goods or services furnished to the State, as defined in Section 1, properly approved in accordance with rules promulgated under Section 3-3, the State official or agency shall pay interest to the vendor in accordance with the following:

(1) Any bill, except a bill submitted under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code and except as provided under paragraph (1.05) of this Section, approved for payment under this Section must be paid or the payment issued to the payee within 60 days of receipt of a proper bill or invoice. If payment is not issued to the payee within this 60-day period, an interest penalty of 1.0% of any amount approved and unpaid shall be added for each month or fraction thereof after the end of this 60-day period, until final payment is made. Any bill, except a bill for pharmacy or nursing facility services or goods, and except as provided under paragraph (1.05) 1.05 of this Section, submitted under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code approved for payment under this Section must be paid or the payment issued to the payee within 60 days after receipt of a proper bill or invoice, and, if payment is not issued to the payee within this 60-day period, an interest penalty of 2.0% of any amount approved and unpaid shall be added for each month or fraction thereof after the end of this 60-day period, until final payment is made. Any bill for pharmacy or nursing facility services or goods submitted under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code, except as provided under paragraph (1.05) of this Section, and approved for payment under this Section must be paid or the payment issued to the payee within 60 days of receipt of a proper bill or invoice. If payment is not issued to the payee within this 60-day period, an interest penalty of 1.0% of any amount approved and unpaid shall be added for each month or fraction thereof after the end of this 60-day period, until final payment is made.

(1.05) For State fiscal year 2012 and future fiscal years, any bill approved for payment under this Section must be paid or the payment issued to the payee within 90 days of receipt of a proper bill or invoice. If payment is not issued to the payee within this 90-day period, an interest penalty of 1.0% of any amount approved and unpaid shall be added for each month or fraction thereof after the end of this 90-day period, until final payment is made.

(1.1) A State agency shall review in a timely manner each bill or invoice after its receipt. If the State agency determines that the bill or invoice contains a defect making it unable to process the payment request, the agency shall notify the vendor requesting payment as soon as possible after discovering the defect pursuant to rules promulgated under Section 3-3; provided, however, that the notice for construction related bills or invoices must be given not later than 30 days after the bill or invoice was first submitted. The notice shall identify the defect and any additional information necessary to correct the defect. If one or more items on a construction related bill or invoice are disapproved, but not the entire bill or invoice, then the portion that is not disapproved shall be paid.

(2) Where a State official or agency is late in payment of a vendor's bill or invoice properly approved in accordance with this Act, and different late payment terms are not reduced to writing as a contractual agreement, the State official or agency shall automatically pay interest penalties required by this Section amounting to $50 or more to the appropriate vendor. Each agency shall be responsible for determining whether an interest penalty is owed and for paying the interest to the vendor. Except as provided in paragraph (4), an individual interest payment amounting to $5 or less shall not be paid by the State. Interest due to a vendor that amounts to greater than $5 and less than $50 shall not be paid but shall be accrued until all interest due the vendor for all similar warrants exceeds $50, at which time the accrued interest shall be payable and interest will begin accruing again, except that interest accrued as of the end of the fiscal year that does not exceed $50 shall be payable at that time. In the event an individual has paid a vendor for services in advance, the provisions of this Section shall apply until payment is made to that individual.

(3) The provisions of Public Act 96-1501 reducing the interest rate on pharmacy claims under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code to 1.0% per month shall apply to any pharmacy bills for services and goods under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code received on or after the date 60 days before January 25, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1501) except as provided under paragraph (1.05) of this Section.

(4) Interest amounting to less than $5 shall not be paid by the State, except for claims (i) to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or the Department of Human Services, (ii) pursuant to Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, or the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, and (iii) made (A) by pharmacies for prescriptive services or (B) by any federally qualified health center for prescriptive services or any other services.

(Source: P.A. 96-555, eff. 8-18-09; 96-802, eff. 1-1-10; 96-959, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1501, eff. 1-25-11; 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11; 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; 97-74, eff. 6-30-11; 97-348, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-7-11.)

Section 150. The Project Labor Agreements Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(30 ILCS 571/5)

Sec. 5. Findings.

(a) The State of Illinois has a compelling interest in awarding public works contracts so as to ensure the highest standards of quality and efficiency at the lowest responsible cost.

(b) A project labor agreement, which is a form of pre-hire collective bargaining agreement covering all terms and conditions of employment on a specific project, can ensure the highest standards of quality and efficiency at the lowest responsible cost on appropriate public works projects.

(c) The State of Illinois has a compelling interest that a highly skilled workforce be employed on public works projects to ensure lower costs over the lifetime of the completed project for building, repairs, and maintenance.

(d) Project labor agreements provide the State of Illinois with a guarantee that public works projects will be completed with highly skilled workers.

(e) Project labor agreements provide for peaceful, orderly, and mutually binding procedures for resolving labor issues without labor disruption, preventing significant lost-time on construction projects.

(f) Project labor agreements allow public agencies to predict more accurately the actual cost of the public works project.

(g) (e) The use of project labor agreements can be of particular benefit to complex construction projects.

(Source: P.A. 97-199, eff. 7-27-11; revised 9-7-11.)

Section 155. The Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(30 ILCS 575/2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2012)

Sec. 2. Definitions.

(A) For the purpose of this Act, the following terms shall have the following definitions:

(1) "Minority person" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is any of the following:

(a) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(b) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(c) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(d) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(e) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

(2) "Female" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is of the female gender.

(2.05) "Person with a disability" means a person who is a citizen or lawful resident of the United States and is a person qualifying as being disabled under subdivision (2.1) of this subsection (A).

(2.1) "Disabled" means a severe physical or mental disability that:

(a) results from:

amputation,

arthritis,

autism,

blindness,

burn injury,

cancer,

cerebral palsy,

Crohn's disease,

cystic fibrosis,

deafness,

head injury,

heart disease,

hemiplegia,

hemophilia,

respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction,

an intellectual disability,

mental illness,

multiple sclerosis,

muscular dystrophy,

musculoskeletal disorders,

neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy,

paraplegia,

quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions,

sickle cell anemia,

ulcerative colitis,

specific learning disabilities, or

end stage renal failure disease; and

(b) substantially limits one or more of the person's major life activities.

Another disability or combination of disabilities may also be considered as a severe disability for the purposes of item (a) of this subdivision (2.1) if it is determined by an evaluation of rehabilitation potential to cause a comparable degree of substantial functional limitation similar to the specific list of disabilities listed in item (a) of this subdivision (2.1).

(3) "Minority owned business" means a business concern which is at least 51% owned by one or more minority persons, or in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more minority persons; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the minority individuals who own it.

(4) "Female owned business" means a business concern which is at least 51% owned by one or more females, or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more females; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the females who own it.

(4.1) "Business owned by a person with a disability" means a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more persons with a disability and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the persons with disabilities who own it. A not-for-profit agency for persons with disabilities that is exempt from taxation under Section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is also considered a "business owned by a person with a disability".

(4.2) "Council" means the Business Enterprise Council for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities created under Section 5 of this Act.

(5) "State contracts" shall mean all State contracts, funded exclusively with State funds which are not subject to federal reimbursement, whether competitively bid or negotiated as defined by the Secretary of the Council and approved by the Council.

"State construction contracts" means all State contracts entered into by a State agency or State university for the repair, remodeling, renovation or construction of a building or structure, or for the construction or maintenance of a highway defined in Article 2 of the Illinois Highway Code.

(6) "State agencies" shall mean all departments, officers, boards, commissions, institutions and bodies politic and corporate of the State, but does not include the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University, municipalities or other local governmental units, or other State constitutional officers.

(7) "State universities" shall mean the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, and the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University.

(8) "Certification" means a determination made by the Council or by one delegated authority from the Council to make certifications, or by a State agency with statutory authority to make such a certification, that a business entity is a business owned by a minority, female, or person with a disability for whatever purpose. A business owned and controlled by females shall select and designate whether such business is to be certified as a "Female-owned business" or "Minority-owned business" if the females are also minorities.

(9) "Control" means the exclusive or ultimate and sole control of the business including, but not limited to, capital investment and all other financial matters, property, acquisitions, contract negotiations, legal matters, officer-director-employee selection and comprehensive hiring, operating responsibilities, cost-control matters, income and dividend matters, financial transactions and rights of other shareholders or joint partners. Control shall be real, substantial and continuing, not pro forma. Control shall include the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the business and to make the day-to-day as well as major decisions in matters of policy, management and operations. Control shall be exemplified by possessing the requisite knowledge and expertise to run the particular business and control shall not include simple majority or absentee ownership.

(10) "Business concern or business" means a business that has annual gross sales of less than $75,000,000 as evidenced by the federal income tax return of the business. A firm with gross sales in excess of this cap may apply to the Council for certification for a particular contract if the firm can demonstrate that the contract would have significant impact on businesses owned by minorities, females, or persons with disabilities as suppliers or subcontractors or in employment of minorities, females, or persons with disabilities.

(B) When a business concern is owned at least 51% by any combination of minority persons, females, or persons with disabilities, even though none of the 3 classes alone holds at least a 51% interest, the ownership requirement for purposes of this Act is considered to be met. The certification category for the business is that of the class holding the largest ownership interest in the business. If 2 or more classes have equal ownership interests, the certification category shall be determined by the business concern.

(Source: P.A. 96-453, eff. 8-14-09; 96-795, eff. 7-1-10 (see Section 5 of P.A. 96-793 for effective date of changes made by P.A. 96-795); 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-396, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-7-11.)

Section 160. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Sections 8.34 and 8.35 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.34)

Sec. 8.34. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 96-889, 96-952, 96-961, 96-1046, 96-1084, 96-1140, 96-1215, 96-1248, 96-1252, 96-1254, 96-1258, 96-1260, 96-1425, 96-1485, or 96-1536 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-889, eff. 1-1-11; 96-952, eff. 6-28-10; 96-961, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1046, eff. 7-14-10; 96-1084, eff. 7-16-10; 96-1140, eff. 7-21-10; 96-1215, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1248, eff. 7-23-10; 96-1252, eff. 7-23-10; 96-1254, eff. 7-23-10; 96-1258, eff. 7-23-10; 96-1260, eff. 7-23-10; 96-1425, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1485, eff. 12-1-10; incorporates 96-1536, eff. 3-4-11; revised 12-5-11.)

(30 ILCS 805/8.35)

Sec. 8.35. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 97-30, 97-87, 97-99, 97-272, 97-319, 97-326, 97-328, 97-415, or 97-609 this amendatory Act of the 96th 97th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-1536, eff. 3-4-11; 97-30, eff. 7-1-11; 97-87, eff. 7-8-11; 97-99, eff. 1-1-12; 97-272, eff. 8-8-11; 97-319, eff. 1-1-12; 97-326, eff. 8-12-11; 97-328, eff. 8-12-11; 97-415, eff. 8-16-11; 97-609, eff. 1-1-12; revised 12-5-11.)

Section 165. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 201.5 and 806 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/201.5)

Sec. 201.5. State spending limitation and tax reduction.

(a) If, beginning in State fiscal year 2012 and continuing through State fiscal year 2015, State spending for any fiscal year exceeds the State spending limitation set forth in subsection (b) of this Section, then the tax rates set forth in subsection (b) of Section 201 of this Act shall be reduced, according to the procedures set forth in this Section, to 3% of the taxpayer's net income for individuals, trusts, and estates and to 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for corporations. For all taxable years following the taxable year in which the rate has been reduced pursuant to this Section, the tax rate set forth in subsection (b) of Section 201 of this Act shall be 3% of the taxpayer's net income for individuals, trusts, and estates and 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for corporations.

(b) The State spending limitation for fiscal years 2012 through 2015 shall be as follows: (i) for fiscal year 2012, $36,818,000,000; (ii) for fiscal year 2013, $37,554,000,000; (iii) for fiscal year 2014, $38,305,000,000; and (iv) for fiscal year 2015, $39,072,000,000.

(c) Notwithstanding Nothwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the Auditor General shall examine each Public Act authorizing State spending from State general funds and prepare a report no later than 30 days after receiving notification of the Public Act from the Secretary of State or 60 days after the effective date of the Public Act, whichever is earlier. The Auditor General shall file the report with the Secretary of State and copies with the Governor, the State Treasurer, the State Comptroller, the Senate, and the House of Representatives. The report shall indicate: (i) the amount of State spending set forth in the applicable Public Act; (ii) the total amount of State spending authorized by law for the applicable fiscal year as of the date of the report; and (iii) whether State spending exceeds the State spending limitation set forth in subsection (b). The Auditor General may examine multiple Public Acts in one consolidated report, provided that each Public Act is examined within the time period mandated by this subsection (c). The Auditor General shall issue reports in accordance with this Section through June 30, 2015 or the effective date of a reduction in the rate of tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act pursuant to this Section, whichever is earlier.

At the request of the Auditor General, each State agency shall, without delay, make available to the Auditor General or his or her designated representative any record or information requested and shall provide for examination or copying all records, accounts, papers, reports, vouchers, correspondence, books and other documentation in the custody of that agency, including information stored in electronic data processing systems, which is related to or within the scope of a report prepared under this Section. The Auditor General shall report to the Governor each instance in which a State agency fails to cooperate promptly and fully with his or her office as required by this Section.

The Auditor General's report shall not be in the nature of a post-audit or examination and shall not lead to the issuance of an opinion as that term is defined in generally accepted government auditing standards.

(d) If the Auditor General reports that State spending has exceeded the State spending limitation set forth in subsection (b) and if the Governor has not been presented with a bill or bills passed by the General Assembly to reduce State spending to a level that does not exceed the State spending limitation within 45 calendar days of receipt of the Auditor General's report, then the Governor may, for the purpose of reducing State spending to a level that does not exceed the State spending limitation set forth in subsection (b), designate amounts to be set aside as a reserve from the amounts appropriated from the State general funds for all boards, commissions, agencies, institutions, authorities, colleges, universities, and bodies politic and corporate of the State, but not other constitutional officers, the legislative or judicial branch, the office of the Executive Inspector General, or the Executive Ethics Commission. Such a designation must be made within 15 calendar days after the end of that 45-day period. If the Governor designates amounts to be set aside as a reserve, the Governor shall give notice of the designation to the Auditor General, the State Treasurer, the State Comptroller, the Senate, and the House of Representatives. The amounts placed in reserves shall not be transferred, obligated, encumbered, expended, or otherwise committed unless so authorized by law. Any amount placed in reserves is not State spending and shall not be considered when calculating the total amount of State spending. Any Public Act authorizing the use of amounts placed in reserve by the Governor is considered State spending, unless such Public Act authorizes the use of amounts placed in reserves in response to a fiscal emergency under subsection (g).

(e) If the Auditor General reports under subsection (c) that State spending has exceeded the State spending limitation set forth in subsection (b), then the Auditor General shall issue a supplemental report no sooner than the 61st day and no later than the 65th day after issuing the report pursuant to subsection (c). The supplemental report shall: (i) summarize details of actions taken by the General Assembly and the Governor after the issuance of the initial report to reduce State spending, if any, (ii) indicate whether the level of State spending has changed since the initial report, and (iii) indicate whether State spending exceeds the State spending limitation. The Auditor General shall file the report with the Secretary of State and copies with the Governor, the State Treasurer, the State Comptroller, the Senate, and the House of Representatives. If the supplemental report of the Auditor General provides that State spending exceeds the State spending limitation, then the rate of tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 is reduced as provided in this Section beginning on the first day of the first month to occur not less than 30 days after issuance of the supplemental report.

(f) For any taxable year in which the rates of tax have been reduced under this Section, the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 shall be determined as follows:

(1) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, the tax shall be imposed in an amount equal to the sum of (i) the rate applicable to the taxpayer under subsection (b) of Section 201 (without regard to the provisions of this Section) times the taxpayer's net income for any portion of the taxable year prior to the effective date of the reduction and (ii) 3% of the taxpayer's net income for any portion of the taxable year on or after the effective date of the reduction.

(2) In the case of a corporation, the tax shall be imposed in an amount equal to the sum of (i) the rate applicable to the taxpayer under subsection (b) of Section 201 (without regard to the provisions of this Section) times the taxpayer's net income for any portion of the taxable year prior to the effective date of the reduction and (ii) 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for any portion of the taxable year on or after the effective date of the reduction.

(3) For any taxpayer for whom the rate has been reduced under this Section for a portion of a taxable year, the taxpayer shall determine the net income for each portion of the taxable year following the rules set forth in Section 202.5 of this Act, using the effective date of the rate reduction rather than the January 1 dates found in that Section, and the day before the effective date of the rate reduction rather than the December 31 dates found in that Section.

(4) If the rate applicable to the taxpayer under subsection (b) of Section 201 (without regard to the provisions of this Section) changes during a portion of the taxable year to which that rate is applied under paragraphs (1) or (2) of this subsection (f), the tax for that portion of the taxable year for purposes of paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection (f) shall be determined as if that portion of the taxable year were a separate taxable year, following the rules set forth in Section 202.5 of this Act. If the taxpayer elects to follow the rules set forth in subsection (b) of Section 202.5, the taxpayer shall follow the rules set forth in subsection (b) of Section 202.5 for all purposes of this Section for that taxable year.

(g) Notwithstanding the State spending limitation set forth in subsection (b) of this Section, the Governor may declare a fiscal emergency by filing a declaration with the Secretary of State and copies with the State Treasurer, the State Comptroller, the Senate, and the House of Representatives. The declaration must be limited to only one State fiscal year, set forth compelling reasons for declaring a fiscal emergency, and request a specific dollar amount. Unless, within 10 calendar days of receipt of the Governor's declaration, the State Comptroller or State Treasurer notifies the Senate and the House of Representatives that he or she does not concur in the Governor's declaration, State spending authorized by law to address the fiscal emergency in an amount no greater than the dollar amount specified in the declaration shall not be considered "State spending" for purposes of the State spending limitation.

(h) As used in this Section:

"State general funds" means the General Revenue Fund, the Common School Fund, the General Revenue Common School Special Account Fund, the Education Assistance Fund, and the Budget Stabilization Fund.

"State spending" means (i) the total amount authorized for spending by appropriation or statutory transfer from the State general funds in the applicable fiscal year, and (ii) any amounts the Governor places in reserves in accordance with subsection (d) that are subsequently released from reserves following authorization by a Public Act. For the purpose of this definition, "appropriation" means authority to spend money from a State general fund for a specific amount, purpose, and time period, including any supplemental appropriation or continuing appropriation, but does not include reappropriations from a previous fiscal year. For the purpose of this definition, "statutory transfer" means authority to transfer funds from one State general fund to any other fund in the State treasury, but does not include transfers made from one State general fund to another State general fund.

"State spending limitation" means the amount described in subsection (b) of this Section for the applicable fiscal year.

(Source: P.A. 96-1496, eff. 1-13-11; revised 11-18-11.)

(35 ILCS 5/806)

Sec. 806. Exemption from penalty. An individual taxpayer shall not be subject to a penalty for failing to pay estimated tax as required by Section 803 if the taxpayer is 65 years of age or older and is a permanent resident of a nursing home. For purposes of this Section, "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to licensure by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

Section 170. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 1h as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/1h) (from Ch. 120, par. 440h)

Sec. 1h. Upon request made on or after July 1, 1987, the Department shall furnish to any county or municipality a list containing the name of each corporation, society, association, foundation or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious or educational purposes, and each not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution or organization which has no compensated officers or employees and which is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older, which had a valid exemption identification number on the first day of January or July, as the case may be, proceeding the date on which such request is received and which is located within the corporate limits of such municipality or the unincorporated territory of such county, except that the list need not include subsidiary organizations using an exemption identification number issued to its parent organization as provided by Section 1g 1d of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 85-293; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 175. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 15-168, 15-170, and 15-172 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/15-168)

Sec. 15-168. Disabled persons' homestead exemption.

(a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an annual homestead exemption is granted to disabled persons in the amount of $2,000, except as provided in subsection (c), to be deducted from the property's value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue. The disabled person shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the disabled person.

(2) The disabled person must be liable for paying the real estate taxes on the property.

(3) The disabled person must be an owner of record of the property or have a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. In the case of a leasehold interest in property, the lease must be for a single family residence.

A person who is disabled during the taxable year is eligible to apply for this homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application must be made during the application period in effect for the county of residence. If a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and the person awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, then the exemption shall continue (i) so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the homestead exemption.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "disabled person" means a person unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity by reason of a medically determinable physical or mental impairment which can be expected to result in death or has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period of not less than 12 months. Disabled persons filing claims under this Act shall submit proof of disability in such form and manner as the Department shall by rule and regulation prescribe. Proof that a claimant is eligible to receive disability benefits under the Federal Social Security Act shall constitute proof of disability for purposes of this Act. Issuance of an Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability, as defined in Section 4A of The Illinois Identification Card Act, shall constitute proof that the person named thereon is a disabled person for purposes of this Act. A disabled person not covered under the Federal Social Security Act and not presenting a Disabled Person Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability shall be examined by a physician designated by the Department, and his status as a disabled person determined using the same standards as used by the Social Security Administration. The costs of any required examination shall be borne by the claimant.

(c) For land improved with (i) an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or (ii) a life care facility as defined under Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act that is considered to be a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized or assessed by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a disabled person. The disabled person shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the disabled person.

(2) The disabled person must be liable by contract with the owner or owners of record for paying the apportioned property taxes on the property of the cooperative or life care facility. In the case of a life care facility, the disabled person must be liable for paying the apportioned property taxes under a life care contract as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

(3) The disabled person must be an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building. A leasehold interest does not meet this requirement. If a homestead exemption is granted under this subsection, the cooperative association or management firm shall credit the savings resulting from the exemption to the apportioned tax liability of the qualifying disabled person. The chief county assessment officer may request reasonable proof that the association or firm has properly credited the exemption. A person who willfully refuses to credit an exemption to the qualified disabled person is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(d) The chief county assessment officer shall determine the eligibility of property to receive the homestead exemption according to guidelines established by the Department. After a person has received an exemption under this Section, an annual verification of eligibility for the exemption shall be mailed to the taxpayer.

In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the chief county assessment officer shall provide to each person granted a homestead exemption under this Section a form to designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied under this Code on the person's qualifying property. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to be provided to the person receiving the exemption and shall be given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice shall pay an administrative fee of $5 to the chief county assessment officer. The assessment officer shall then file the executed designation with the county collector, who shall issue the duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A designation may be rescinded by the disabled person in the manner required by the chief county assessment officer.

(e) A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165 or 15-169 may not claim an exemption under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-170)

Sec. 15-170. Senior Citizens Homestead Exemption. An annual homestead exemption limited, except as described here with relation to cooperatives or life care facilities, to a maximum reduction set forth below from the property's value, as equalized or assessed by the Department, is granted for property that is occupied as a residence by a person 65 years of age or older who is liable for paying real estate taxes on the property and is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest therein as evidenced by a written instrument, except for a leasehold interest, other than a leasehold interest of land on which a single family residence is located, which is occupied as a residence by a person 65 years or older who has an ownership interest therein, legal, equitable or as a lessee, and on which he or she is liable for the payment of property taxes. Before taxable year 2004, the maximum reduction shall be $2,500 in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $2,000 in all other counties. For taxable years 2004 through 2005, the maximum reduction shall be $3,000 in all counties. For taxable years 2006 and 2007, the maximum reduction shall be $3,500 and, for taxable years 2008 and thereafter, the maximum reduction is $4,000 in all counties.

For land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person 65 years of age or older who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying property taxes on the property and is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. For land improved with a life care facility, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by persons 65 years of age or older, irrespective of any legal, equitable, or leasehold interest in the facility, who are liable, under a contract with the owner or owners of record of the facility, for paying property taxes on the property. In a cooperative or a life care facility where a homestead exemption has been granted, the cooperative association or the management firm of the cooperative or facility shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner or resident who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to so credit the savings shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Under this Section and Sections 15-175, 15-176, and 15-177, "life care facility" means a facility, as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act, with which the applicant for the homestead exemption has a life care contract as defined in that Act.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and the person qualifying subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the exemption shall continue so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse if the spouse is 65 years of age or older, or if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the homestead exemption.

A person who will be 65 years of age during the current assessment year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that assessment year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his residence.

Beginning with assessment year 2003, for taxes payable in 2004, property that is first occupied as a residence after January 1 of any assessment year by a person who is eligible for the senior citizens homestead exemption under this Section must be granted a pro-rata exemption for the assessment year. The amount of the pro-rata exemption is the exemption allowed in the county under this Section divided by 365 and multiplied by the number of days during the assessment year the property is occupied as a residence by a person eligible for the exemption under this Section. The chief county assessment officer must adopt reasonable procedures to establish eligibility for this pro-rata exemption.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility to receive the benefits provided by this Section, by affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The assessor may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited the exemption.

The chief county assessment officer of each county with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants shall provide to each person allowed a homestead exemption under this Section a form to designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied under this Code on the property of the person receiving the exemption. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to be provided to the person receiving the exemption, and shall be given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice shall pay a fee of $5 to cover administrative costs to the supervisor of assessments, who shall then file the executed designation with the county collector. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, the filing of such an executed designation requires the county collector to provide duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A designation may be rescinded by the person who executed such designation at any time, in the manner and form required by the chief county assessment officer.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of residential property to receive the homestead exemption provided by this Section by application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods. The determination shall be made in accordance with guidelines established by the Department.

In counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, beginning in taxable year 2010, each taxpayer who has been granted an exemption under this Section must reapply on an annual basis. The chief county assessment officer shall mail the application to the taxpayer. In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the county board may by resolution provide that if a person has been granted a homestead exemption under this Section, the person qualifying need not reapply for the exemption.

In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if the assessor or chief county assessment officer requires annual application for verification of eligibility for an exemption once granted under this Section, the application shall be mailed to the taxpayer.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer shall notify each person who qualifies for an exemption under this Section that the person may also qualify for deferral of real estate taxes under the Senior Citizens Real Estate Tax Deferral Act. The notice shall set forth the qualifications needed for deferral of real estate taxes, the address and telephone number of county collector, and a statement that applications for deferral of real estate taxes may be obtained from the county collector.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-355, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1418, eff. 8-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-172)

Sec. 15-172. Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(a) This Section may be cited as the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means an individual who has filed an application under this Section.

"Base amount" means the base year equalized assessed value of the residence plus the first year's equalized assessed value of any added improvements which increased the assessed value of the residence after the base year.

"Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable year for which the applicant first qualifies and applies for the exemption provided that in the prior taxable year the property was improved with a permanent structure that was occupied as a residence by the applicant who was liable for paying real property taxes on the property and who was either (i) an owner of record of the property or had legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument or (ii) had a legal or equitable interest as a lessee in the parcel of property that was single family residence. If in any subsequent taxable year for which the applicant applies and qualifies for the exemption the equalized assessed value of the residence is less than the equalized assessed value in the existing base year (provided that such equalized assessed value is not based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years), then that subsequent taxable year shall become the base year until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph. For taxable year 1999 only, the Chief County Assessment Officer shall review (i) all taxable years for which the applicant applied and qualified for the exemption and (ii) the existing base year. The assessment officer shall select as the new base year the year with the lowest equalized assessed value. An equalized assessed value that is based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years shall not be considered the lowest equalized assessed value. The selected year shall be the base year for taxable year 1999 and thereafter until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph.

"Chief County Assessment Officer" means the County Assessor or Supervisor of Assessments of the county in which the property is located.

"Equalized assessed value" means the assessed value as equalized by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

"Household" means the applicant, the spouse of the applicant, and all persons using the residence of the applicant as their principal place of residence.

"Household income" means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income" has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act, except that, beginning in assessment year 2001, "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

"Internal Revenue Code of 1986" means the United States Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or any successor law or laws relating to federal income taxes in effect for the year preceding the taxable year.

"Life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative" means a facility as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

"Maximum income limitation" means:

(1) $35,000 prior to taxable year 1999;

(2) $40,000 in taxable years 1999 through 2003;

(3) $45,000 in taxable years 2004 through 2005;

(4) $50,000 in taxable years 2006 and 2007; and

(5) $55,000 in taxable year 2008 and thereafter.

"Residence" means the principal dwelling place and appurtenant structures used for residential purposes in this State occupied on January 1 of the taxable year by a household and so much of the surrounding land, constituting the parcel upon which the dwelling place is situated, as is used for residential purposes. If the Chief County Assessment Officer has established a specific legal description for a portion of property constituting the residence, then that portion of property shall be deemed the residence for the purposes of this Section.

"Taxable year" means the calendar year during which ad valorem property taxes payable in the next succeeding year are levied.

(c) Beginning in taxable year 1994, a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption is granted for real property that is improved with a permanent structure that is occupied as a residence by an applicant who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) is liable for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. This homestead exemption shall also apply to a leasehold interest in a parcel of property improved with a permanent structure that is a single family residence that is occupied as a residence by a person who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) has a legal or equitable ownership interest in the property as lessee, and (iv) is liable for the payment of real property taxes on that property.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of the exemption for all taxable years is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount. In all other counties, the amount of the exemption is as follows: (i) through taxable year 2005 and for taxable year 2007 and thereafter, the amount of this exemption shall be the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount; and (ii) for taxable year 2006, the amount of the exemption is as follows:

(1) For an applicant who has a household income of $45,000 or less, the amount of the exemption is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount.

(2) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $45,000 but not exceeding $46,250, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.8.

(3) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $46,250 but not exceeding $47,500, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.6.

(4) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $47,500 but not exceeding $48,750, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.4.

(5) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $48,750 but not exceeding $50,000, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.2.

When the applicant is a surviving spouse of an applicant for a prior year for the same residence for which an exemption under this Section has been granted, the base year and base amount for that residence are the same as for the applicant for the prior year.

Each year at the time the assessment books are certified to the County Clerk, the Board of Review or Board of Appeals shall give to the County Clerk a list of the assessed values of improvements on each parcel qualifying for this exemption that were added after the base year for this parcel and that increased the assessed value of the property.

In the case of land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building that is a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value of the property is limited to the sum of the reductions calculated for each unit occupied as a residence by a person or persons (i) 65 years of age or older, (ii) with a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) who is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. In the instance of a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to credit that savings to an owner who qualifies for the exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and an applicant then becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the exemption shall be granted in subsequent years so long as the residence (i) continues to be occupied by the qualified applicant's spouse or (ii) if remaining unoccupied, is still owned by the qualified applicant for the homestead exemption.

Beginning January 1, 1997, when an individual dies who would have qualified for an exemption under this Section, and the surviving spouse does not independently qualify for this exemption because of age, the exemption under this Section shall be granted to the surviving spouse for the taxable year preceding and the taxable year of the death, provided that, except for age, the surviving spouse meets all other qualifications for the granting of this exemption for those years.

When married persons maintain separate residences, the exemption provided for in this Section may be claimed by only one of such persons and for only one residence.

For taxable year 1994 only, in counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by February 15, 1995 to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. In counties having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, for taxable year 1994 and all subsequent taxable years, to receive the exemption, a person may submit an application to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located during such period as may be specified by the Chief County Assessment Officer. The Chief County Assessment Officer in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall annually give notice of the application period by mail or by publication. In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, beginning with taxable year 1995 and thereafter, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by July 1 of each taxable year to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. A county may, by ordinance, establish a date for submission of applications that is different than July 1. The applicant shall submit with the application an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and if married the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule, a method for verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 30 days after the applicant regains the capability to file the application, but in no case may the filing deadline be extended beyond 3 months of the original filing deadline. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, and the date on which the applicant regained the capability to file the application.

Beginning January 1, 1998, notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 3 months. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, and that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner.

In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant was denied an exemption in taxable year 1994 and the denial occurred due to an error on the part of an assessment official, or his or her agent or employee, then beginning in taxable year 1997 the applicant's base year, for purposes of determining the amount of the exemption, shall be 1993 rather than 1994. In addition, in taxable year 1997, the applicant's exemption shall also include an amount equal to (i) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1995 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, (ii) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1996 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, and (iii) the amount of the exemption erroneously denied for taxable year 1994.

For purposes of this Section, a person who will be 65 years of age during the current taxable year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence.

The Chief County Assessment Officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative to receive the benefits provided by this Section by use of an affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable method in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The Chief County Assessment Officer may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited that exemption.

Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the chief county assessment officer or the Department from applications filed under this Section, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Section, shall be confidential, except for official purposes or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State or local tax or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by any statute or ordinance imposing a State or local tax. Any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except in accordance with a proper judicial order, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the Director or chief county assessment officer from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the exemption contained in this Section in which the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a way that information contained in any individual claim shall not be disclosed.

(d) Each Chief County Assessment Officer shall annually publish a notice of availability of the exemption provided under this Section. The notice shall be published at least 60 days but no more than 75 days prior to the date on which the application must be submitted to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. The notice shall appear in a newspaper of general circulation in the county.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-355, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

Section 180. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 2-124, 4-108.5, 5-136, 7-109, 7-205, 15-155, 16-158, 18-131, 22-101, and 22-103 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/2-124) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 2-124)

Sec. 2-124. Contributions by State.

(a) The State shall make contributions to the System by appropriations of amounts which, together with the contributions of participants, interest earned on investments, and other income will meet the cost of maintaining and administering the System on a 90% funded basis in accordance with actuarial recommendations.

(b) The Board shall determine the amount of State contributions required for each fiscal year on the basis of the actuarial tables and other assumptions adopted by the Board and the prescribed rate of interest, using the formula in subsection (c).

(c) For State fiscal years 2012 through 2045, the minimum contribution to the System to be made by the State for each fiscal year shall be an amount determined by the System to be sufficient to bring the total assets of the System up to 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System by the end of State fiscal year 2045. In making these determinations, the required State contribution shall be calculated each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining to and including fiscal year 2045 and shall be determined under the projected unit credit actuarial cost method.

For State fiscal years 1996 through 2005, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2006 is $4,157,000.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 is $5,220,300.

For each of State fiscal years 2008 through 2009, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments from the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007, so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2010 is $10,454,000 and shall be made from the proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the General Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2010, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2011 is the amount recertified by the System on or before April 1, 2011 pursuant to Section 2-134 and shall be made from the proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the General Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2011, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Beginning in State fiscal year 2046, the minimum State contribution for each fiscal year shall be the amount needed to maintain the total assets of the System at 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System.

Amounts received by the System pursuant to Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act or Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act in any fiscal year do not reduce and do not constitute payment of any portion of the minimum State contribution required under this Article in that fiscal year. Such amounts shall not reduce, and shall not be included in the calculation of, the required State contributions under this Article in any future year until the System has reached a funding ratio of at least 90%. A reference in this Article to the "required State contribution" or any substantially similar term does not include or apply to any amounts payable to the System under Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2005 and for fiscal year 2008 and each fiscal year thereafter, as calculated under this Section and certified under Section 2-134, shall not exceed an amount equal to (i) the amount of the required State contribution that would have been calculated under this Section for that fiscal year if the System had not received any payments under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, minus (ii) the portion of the State's total debt service payments for that fiscal year on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of that Section 7.2, as determined and certified by the Comptroller, that is the same as the System's portion of the total moneys distributed under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act. In determining this maximum for State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, however, the amount referred to in item (i) shall be increased, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, in equal increments calculated from the sum of the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 plus the applicable portion of the State's total debt service payments for fiscal year 2007 on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, so that, by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

(d) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the System, the value of the System's assets shall be equal to the actuarial value of the System's assets, which shall be calculated as follows:

As of June 30, 2008, the actuarial value of the System's assets shall be equal to the market value of the assets as of that date. In determining the actuarial value of the System's assets for fiscal years after June 30, 2008, any actuarial gains or losses from investment return incurred in a fiscal year shall be recognized in equal annual amounts over the 5-year period following that fiscal year.

(e) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the system for a particular year, the actuarial value of assets shall be assumed to earn a rate of return equal to the system's actuarially assumed rate of return.

(Source: P.A. 95-950, eff. 8-29-08; 96-43, eff. 7-15-09; 96-1497, eff. 1-14-11; 96-1511, eff. 1-27-11; 96-1554, eff. 3-18-11; revised 4-6-11.)

(40 ILCS 5/4-108.5)

Sec. 4-108.5. Service for providing certain fire protection services.

(a) A firefighter for a participating municipality who was employed as an active firefighter providing fire protection for a village or incorporated town with a population of greater than 10,000 but less than that 11,000 located in a county with a population of greater than 600,000 and less than 700,000, as estimated by the United States Census on July 1, 2004, may elect to establish creditable service for periods of that employment in which the firefighter provided fire protection services for the participating municipality if, by May 1, 2007, the firefighter (i) makes written application to the Board and (ii) pays into the pension fund the amount that the person would have contributed had deductions from salary been made for this purpose at the time the service was rendered, plus interest thereon at 6% per annum compounded annually from the time the service was rendered until the date of payment.

(b) Time spent providing fire protection on a part-time basis for a village or incorporated town with a population of greater than 10,000 but less than 11,000 located in a county with a population of greater than 600,000 and less than 700,000, as estimated by the United States Census on July 1, 2004, shall be calculated at the rate of one year of creditable service for each 5 years of time spent providing such fire protection, if the firefighter (i) has at least 5 years of creditable service as an active firefighter, (ii) has at least 5 years of such service with a qualifying village or incorporated town, (iii) applies for the creditable service within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, and (iv) contributes to the Fund an amount representing employee contributions for the number of years of creditable service granted under this subsection (b) based on the salary and contribution rate in effect for the firefighter at the date of entry into the fund, as determined by the Board. The amount of creditable service granted under this subsection (b) may not exceed 3 years.

(Source: P.A. 94-856, eff. 6-15-06; revised 11-18-11.)

(40 ILCS 5/5-136) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 5-136)

Sec. 5-136. Widow's annuity - all employees attaining age 57 in service. The annuity for the wife of an employee who attains age 57 in service, and who thereafter withdraws from or dies in service, shall be fixed, in the case of a future entrant, as of her age at the date of his withdrawal or death, whichever first occurs, and, in the case of a present employee, as of her age when the employee withdraws from or dies in service.

The widow is entitled to annuity from and after the employee's death, as follows:

If the employee withdraws from service and enters upon annuity, the annuity shall be that amount provided from his credit for widow's annuity, and widow's prior service annuity (if a present employee), at the time he withdraws from or dies in service after attainment of age 57, but shall not be less than that 40% of the amount of annuity earned by the employee at the time of his withdrawal from the service after his attainment of age 57 or not less than 40% of the amount of annuity accrued to the credit of the employee on date of his death in service after his attainment of age 57 computed according to Section 5-132, subject to the limitations of Section 5-148, but shall not be less than $100 per month. If the widow is more than 5 years younger than her husband, the 40% annuity for the widow shall be reduced to the actuarial equivalent of her attained age, on the basis of the Combined Annuity Table 3% interest.

The widow of a policeman who retires from service after December 31, 1975 or who dies while in service after December 31, 1975 and on or after the date on which he becomes eligible to retire under Section 5-132 shall, if she is otherwise eligible for a widow's annuity under this Article and if the amount determined under this paragraph is more than the total combined amounts of her widow's annuity and widow's prior service annuity, or the annuities provided hereinbefore in this Section receive, in lieu of such other widow's annuity and widow's prior service annuity, or annuities provided hereinbefore in this Section a widow's annuity equal to 40% of the amount of annuity which her deceased policeman husband received as of the date of his retirement on annuity or if he dies in the service prior to retirement on annuity a widow's annuity equal to 40% of the amount of annuity her deceased policeman husband would have been entitled to receive if he had retired on the day before the date of his death in the service, except that if the age of the wife at date of retirement or the age of the widow at date of death in the service is more than 5 years younger than her policeman husband, the amount of such annuity shall be reduced by 1/2 of 1% for each such month and fraction thereof that she is more than 5 years younger at date of retirement or at date of death subject to a maximum reduction of 50%. However, no annuity under this Section shall exceed $500.00 per month.

This Section does not apply to the widow of any former policeman who was receiving an annuity from the fund on December 31, 1975 and who reenters service as a policeman, unless he renders at least 3 years of additional service after re-entry.

(Source: P.A. 90-14, eff. 7-1-97; revised 11-18-11.)

(40 ILCS 5/7-109) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 7-109)

Sec. 7-109. Employee.

(1) "Employee" means any person who:

(a) 1. Receives earnings as payment for the performance of personal services or official duties out of the general fund of a municipality, or out of any special fund or funds controlled by a municipality, or by an instrumentality thereof, or a participating instrumentality, including, in counties, the fees or earnings of any county fee office; and

2. Under the usual common law rules applicable in determining the employer-employee relationship, has the status of an employee with a municipality, or any instrumentality thereof, or a participating instrumentality, including aldermen, county supervisors and other persons (excepting those employed as independent contractors) who are paid compensation, fees, allowances or other emolument for official duties, and, in counties, the several county fee offices.

(b) Serves as a township treasurer appointed under the School Code, as heretofore or hereafter amended, and who receives for such services regular compensation as distinguished from per diem compensation, and any regular employee in the office of any township treasurer whether or not his earnings are paid from the income of the permanent township fund or from funds subject to distribution to the several school districts and parts of school districts as provided in the School Code, or from both such sources; or is the chief executive officer, chief educational officer, chief fiscal officer, or other employee of a Financial Oversight Panel established pursuant to Article 1H of the School Code, other than a superintendent or certified school business official, except that such person shall not be treated as an employee under this Section if that person has negotiated with the Financial Oversight Panel, in conjunction with the school district, a contractual agreement for exclusion from this Section.

(c) Holds an elective office in a municipality, instrumentality thereof or participating instrumentality.

(2) "Employee" does not include persons who:

(a) Are eligible for inclusion under any of the following laws:

1. "An Act in relation to an Illinois State Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund", approved May 27, 1915, as amended;

2. Articles 15 and 16 of this Code.

However, such persons shall be included as employees to the extent of earnings that are not eligible for inclusion under the foregoing laws for services not of an instructional nature of any kind.

However, any member of the armed forces who is employed as a teacher of subjects in the Reserve Officers Training Corps of any school and who is not certified under the law governing the certification of teachers shall be included as an employee.

(b) Are designated by the governing body of a municipality in which a pension fund is required by law to be established for policemen or firemen, respectively, as performing police or fire protection duties, except that when such persons are the heads of the police or fire department and are not eligible to be included within any such pension fund, they shall be included within this Article; provided, that such persons shall not be excluded to the extent of concurrent service and earnings not designated as being for police or fire protection duties. However, (i) any head of a police department who was a participant under this Article immediately before October 1, 1977 and did not elect, under Section 3-109 of this Act, to participate in a police pension fund shall be an "employee", and (ii) any chief of police who elects to participate in this Fund under Section 3-109.1 of this Code, regardless of whether such person continues to be employed as chief of police or is employed in some other rank or capacity within the police department, shall be an employee under this Article for so long as such person is employed to perform police duties by a participating municipality and has not lawfully rescinded that election.

(c) After August 26, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-609) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, are contributors to or eligible to contribute to a Taft-Hartley pension plan established on or before June 1, 2011 and are employees of a theatre, arena, or convention center that is located in a municipality located in a county with a population greater than 5,000,000, and to which the participating municipality is required to contribute as the person's employer based on earnings from the municipality. Nothing in this paragraph shall affect service credit or creditable service for any period of service prior to August 26, 2011 the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, and this paragraph shall not apply to individuals who are participating in the Fund prior to August 26, 2011 the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(3) All persons, including, without limitation, public defenders and probation officers, who receive earnings from general or special funds of a county for performance of personal services or official duties within the territorial limits of the county, are employees of the county (unless excluded by subsection (2) of this Section) notwithstanding that they may be appointed by and are subject to the direction of a person or persons other than a county board or a county officer. It is hereby established that an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules exists between such employees and the county paying their salaries by reason of the fact that the county boards fix their rates of compensation, appropriate funds for payment of their earnings and otherwise exercise control over them. This finding and this amendatory Act shall apply to all such employees from the date of appointment whether such date is prior to or after the effective date of this amendatory Act and is intended to clarify existing law pertaining to their status as participating employees in the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-429, eff. 8-16-11; 97-609, eff. 8-26-11; revised 9-28-11.)

(40 ILCS 5/7-205) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 7-205)

Sec. 7-205. Reserves for annuities. Appropriate reserves shall be created for payment of all annuities granted under this Article at the time such annuities are granted and in amounts determined to be necessary under actuarial tables adopted by the Board upon recommendation of the actuary of the fund. All annuities payable shall be charged to the annuity reserve.

1. Amounts credited to annuity reserves shall be derived by transfer of all the employee credits from the appropriate employee reserves and by charges to the municipality reserve of those municipalities in which the retiring employee has accumulated service. If a retiring employee has accumulated service in more than one participating municipality or participating instrumentality, the municipality charges for non-concurrent service shall be calculated as follows:

(A) for purposes of calculating the annuity reserve, an annuity will be calculated based on service and adjusted earnings with each employer (without regard to the vesting requirement contained in subsection (a) of Section 7-142); and

(B) the difference between the municipality charges for the actual annuity granted and the aggregation of the municipality charges based upon the ratio of each from those calculations to the aggregated total from paragraph (A) of this item 1.

Aggregate municipality charges for concurrent service shall be prorated based on the employee's earnings. The municipality charges for retirement annuities calculated under subparagraph a. of paragraph subparagraph 1. of subsection (a) of Section 7-142 shall be prorated based on actual contributions .

2. Supplemental annuities shall be handled as a separate annuity and amounts to be credited to the annuity reserve therefor shall be derived in the same manner as a regular annuity.

3. When a retirement annuity is granted to an employee with a spouse eligible for a surviving spouse annuity, there shall be credited to the annuity reserve an amount to fund the cost of both the retirement and surviving spouse annuity as a joint and survivors annuity.

4. Beginning January 1, 1989, when a retirement annuity is awarded, an amount equal to the present value of the $3,000 death benefit payable upon the death of the annuitant shall be transferred to the annuity reserve from the appropriate municipality reserves in the same manner as the transfer for annuities.

5. All annuity reserves shall be revalued annually as of December 31. Beginning as of December 31, 1973, adjustment required therein by such revaluation shall be charged or credited to the earnings and experience variation reserve.

6. There shall be credited to the annuity reserve all of the payments made by annuitants under Section 7-144.2, plus an additional amount from the earnings and experience variation reserve to fund the cost of the incremental annuities granted to annuitants making these payments.

7. As of December 31, 1972, the excess in the annuity reserve shall be transferred to the municipality reserves. An amount equal to the deficiency in the reserve of participating municipalities and participating instrumentalities which have no participating employees shall be allocated to their reserves. The remainder shall be allocated in amounts proportionate to the present value, as of January 1, 1972, of annuities of annuitants of the remaining participating municipalities and participating instrumentalities.

(Source: P.A. 97-319, eff. 1-1-12; 97-609, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(40 ILCS 5/15-155) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 15-155)

Sec. 15-155. Employer contributions.

(a) The State of Illinois shall make contributions by appropriations of amounts which, together with the other employer contributions from trust, federal, and other funds, employee contributions, income from investments, and other income of this System, will be sufficient to meet the cost of maintaining and administering the System on a 90% funded basis in accordance with actuarial recommendations.

The Board shall determine the amount of State contributions required for each fiscal year on the basis of the actuarial tables and other assumptions adopted by the Board and the recommendations of the actuary, using the formula in subsection (a-1).

(a-1) For State fiscal years 2012 through 2045, the minimum contribution to the System to be made by the State for each fiscal year shall be an amount determined by the System to be sufficient to bring the total assets of the System up to 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System by the end of State fiscal year 2045. In making these determinations, the required State contribution shall be calculated each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining to and including fiscal year 2045 and shall be determined under the projected unit credit actuarial cost method.

For State fiscal years 1996 through 2005, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2006 is $166,641,900.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 is $252,064,100.

For each of State fiscal years 2008 through 2009, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments from the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007, so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2010 is $702,514,000 and shall be made from the State Pensions Fund and proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the General Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2010, (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2011 is the amount recertified by the System on or before April 1, 2011 pursuant to Section 15-165 and shall be made from the State Pensions Fund and proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the General Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2011, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Beginning in State fiscal year 2046, the minimum State contribution for each fiscal year shall be the amount needed to maintain the total assets of the System at 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System.

Amounts received by the System pursuant to Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act or Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act in any fiscal year do not reduce and do not constitute payment of any portion of the minimum State contribution required under this Article in that fiscal year. Such amounts shall not reduce, and shall not be included in the calculation of, the required State contributions under this Article in any future year until the System has reached a funding ratio of at least 90%. A reference in this Article to the "required State contribution" or any substantially similar term does not include or apply to any amounts payable to the System under Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2005 and for fiscal year 2008 and each fiscal year thereafter, as calculated under this Section and certified under Section 15-165, shall not exceed an amount equal to (i) the amount of the required State contribution that would have been calculated under this Section for that fiscal year if the System had not received any payments under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, minus (ii) the portion of the State's total debt service payments for that fiscal year on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of that Section 7.2, as determined and certified by the Comptroller, that is the same as the System's portion of the total moneys distributed under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act. In determining this maximum for State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, however, the amount referred to in item (i) shall be increased, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, in equal increments calculated from the sum of the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 plus the applicable portion of the State's total debt service payments for fiscal year 2007 on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, so that, by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

(b) If an employee is paid from trust or federal funds, the employer shall pay to the Board contributions from those funds which are sufficient to cover the accruing normal costs on behalf of the employee. However, universities having employees who are compensated out of local auxiliary funds, income funds, or service enterprise funds are not required to pay such contributions on behalf of those employees. The local auxiliary funds, income funds, and service enterprise funds of universities shall not be considered trust funds for the purpose of this Article, but funds of alumni associations, foundations, and athletic associations which are affiliated with the universities included as employers under this Article and other employers which do not receive State appropriations are considered to be trust funds for the purpose of this Article.

(b-1) The City of Urbana and the City of Champaign shall each make employer contributions to this System for their respective firefighter employees who participate in this System pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 15-107. The rate of contributions to be made by those municipalities shall be determined annually by the Board on the basis of the actuarial assumptions adopted by the Board and the recommendations of the actuary, and shall be expressed as a percentage of salary for each such employee. The Board shall certify the rate to the affected municipalities as soon as may be practical. The employer contributions required under this subsection shall be remitted by the municipality to the System at the same time and in the same manner as employee contributions.

(c) Through State fiscal year 1995: The total employer contribution shall be apportioned among the various funds of the State and other employers, whether trust, federal, or other funds, in accordance with actuarial procedures approved by the Board. State of Illinois contributions for employers receiving State appropriations for personal services shall be payable from appropriations made to the employers or to the System. The contributions for Class I community colleges covering earnings other than those paid from trust and federal funds, shall be payable solely from appropriations to the Illinois Community College Board or the System for employer contributions.

(d) Beginning in State fiscal year 1996, the required State contributions to the System shall be appropriated directly to the System and shall be payable through vouchers issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 15-165, except as provided in subsection (g).

(e) The State Comptroller shall draw warrants payable to the System upon proper certification by the System or by the employer in accordance with the appropriation laws and this Code.

(f) Normal costs under this Section means liability for pensions and other benefits which accrues to the System because of the credits earned for service rendered by the participants during the fiscal year and expenses of administering the System, but shall not include the principal of or any redemption premium or interest on any bonds issued by the Board or any expenses incurred or deposits required in connection therewith.

(g) If the amount of a participant's earnings for any academic year used to determine the final rate of earnings, determined on a full-time equivalent basis, exceeds the amount of his or her earnings with the same employer for the previous academic year, determined on a full-time equivalent basis, by more than 6%, the participant's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, the present value of the increase in benefits resulting from the portion of the increase in earnings that is in excess of 6%. This present value shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection (g), the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute and, if the employer asserts that the calculation is subject to subsection (h) or (i) of this Section, must include an affidavit setting forth and attesting to all facts within the employer's knowledge that are pertinent to the applicability of subsection (h) or (i). Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection (f) may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

(h) This subsection (h) applies only to payments made or salary increases given on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. The changes made by Public Act 94-1057 shall not require the System to refund any payments received before July 31, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-1057).

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude earnings increases paid to participants under contracts or collective bargaining agreements entered into, amended, or renewed before June 1, 2005.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude earnings increases paid to a participant at a time when the participant is 10 or more years from retirement eligibility under Section 15-135.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude earnings increases resulting from overload work, including a contract for summer teaching, or overtime when the employer has certified to the System, and the System has approved the certification, that: (i) in the case of overloads (A) the overload work is for the sole purpose of academic instruction in excess of the standard number of instruction hours for a full-time employee occurring during the academic year that the overload is paid and (B) the earnings increases are equal to or less than the rate of pay for academic instruction computed using the participant's current salary rate and work schedule; and (ii) in the case of overtime, the overtime was necessary for the educational mission.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude any earnings increase resulting from (i) a promotion for which the employee moves from one classification to a higher classification under the State Universities Civil Service System, (ii) a promotion in academic rank for a tenured or tenure-track faculty position, or (iii) a promotion that the Illinois Community College Board has recommended in accordance with subsection (k) of this Section. These earnings increases shall be excluded only if the promotion is to a position that has existed and been filled by a member for no less than one complete academic year and the earnings increase as a result of the promotion is an increase that results in an amount no greater than the average salary paid for other similar positions.

(i) When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude any salary increase described in subsection (h) of this Section given on or after July 1, 2011 but before July 1, 2014 under a contract or collective bargaining agreement entered into, amended, or renewed on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any payments made or salary increases given after June 30, 2014 shall be used in assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g) of this Section.

(j) The System shall prepare a report and file copies of the report with the Governor and the General Assembly by January 1, 2007 that contains all of the following information:

(1) The number of recalculations required by the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057 for each employer.

(2) The dollar amount by which each employer's contribution to the System was changed due to recalculations required by Public Act 94-1057.

(3) The total amount the System received from each employer as a result of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-4.

(4) The increase in the required State contribution resulting from the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057.

(k) The Illinois Community College Board shall adopt rules for recommending lists of promotional positions submitted to the Board by community colleges and for reviewing the promotional lists on an annual basis. When recommending promotional lists, the Board shall consider the similarity of the positions submitted to those positions recognized for State universities by the State Universities Civil Service System. The Illinois Community College Board shall file a copy of its findings with the System. The System shall consider the findings of the Illinois Community College Board when making determinations under this Section. The System shall not exclude any earnings increases resulting from a promotion when the promotion was not submitted by a community college. Nothing in this subsection (k) shall require any community college to submit any information to the Community College Board.

(l) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the System, the value of the System's assets shall be equal to the actuarial value of the System's assets, which shall be calculated as follows:

As of June 30, 2008, the actuarial value of the System's assets shall be equal to the market value of the assets as of that date. In determining the actuarial value of the System's assets for fiscal years after June 30, 2008, any actuarial gains or losses from investment return incurred in a fiscal year shall be recognized in equal annual amounts over the 5-year period following that fiscal year.

(m) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the system for a particular year, the actuarial value of assets shall be assumed to earn a rate of return equal to the system's actuarially assumed rate of return.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-950, eff. 8-29-08; 96-43, eff. 7-15-09; 96-1497, eff. 1-14-11; 96-1511, eff. 1-27-11; 96-1554, eff. 3-18-11; revised 4-6-11.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-158) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-158)

Sec. 16-158. Contributions by State and other employing units.

(a) The State shall make contributions to the System by means of appropriations from the Common School Fund and other State funds of amounts which, together with other employer contributions, employee contributions, investment income, and other income, will be sufficient to meet the cost of maintaining and administering the System on a 90% funded basis in accordance with actuarial recommendations.

The Board shall determine the amount of State contributions required for each fiscal year on the basis of the actuarial tables and other assumptions adopted by the Board and the recommendations of the actuary, using the formula in subsection (b-3).

(a-1) Annually, on or before November 15, the Board shall certify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution for the coming fiscal year. The certification shall include a copy of the actuarial recommendations upon which it is based.

On or before May 1, 2004, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2005, taking into account the amounts appropriated to and received by the System under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act.

On or before July 1, 2005 April 1, 2011, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2006, taking into account the changes in required State contributions made by this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

On or before April 1, 2011 June 15, 2010, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2011, applying the changes made by Public Act 96-889 to the System's assets and liabilities as of June 30, 2009 as though Public Act 96-889 was approved on that date.

(b) Through State fiscal year 1995, the State contributions shall be paid to the System in accordance with Section 18-7 of the School Code.

(b-1) Beginning in State fiscal year 1996, on the 15th day of each month, or as soon thereafter as may be practicable, the Board shall submit vouchers for payment of State contributions to the System, in a total monthly amount of one-twelfth of the required annual State contribution certified under subsection (a-1). From the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly through June 30, 2004, the Board shall not submit vouchers for the remainder of fiscal year 2004 in excess of the fiscal year 2004 certified contribution amount determined under this Section after taking into consideration the transfer to the System under subsection (a) of Section 6z-61 of the State Finance Act. These vouchers shall be paid by the State Comptroller and Treasurer by warrants drawn on the funds appropriated to the System for that fiscal year.

If in any month the amount remaining unexpended from all other appropriations to the System for the applicable fiscal year (including the appropriations to the System under Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act and Section 1 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act) is less than the amount lawfully vouchered under this subsection, the difference shall be paid from the Common School Fund under the continuing appropriation authority provided in Section 1.1 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act.

(b-2) Allocations from the Common School Fund apportioned to school districts not coming under this System shall not be diminished or affected by the provisions of this Article.

(b-3) For State fiscal years 2012 through 2045, the minimum contribution to the System to be made by the State for each fiscal year shall be an amount determined by the System to be sufficient to bring the total assets of the System up to 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System by the end of State fiscal year 2045. In making these determinations, the required State contribution shall be calculated each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining to and including fiscal year 2045 and shall be determined under the projected unit credit actuarial cost method.

For State fiscal years 1996 through 2005, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate required under this Section; except that in the following specified State fiscal years, the State contribution to the System shall not be less than the following indicated percentages of the applicable employee payroll, even if the indicated percentage will produce a State contribution in excess of the amount otherwise required under this subsection and subsection (a), and notwithstanding any contrary certification made under subsection (a-1) before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998: 10.02% in FY 1999; 10.77% in FY 2000; 11.47% in FY 2001; 12.16% in FY 2002; 12.86% in FY 2003; and 13.56% in FY 2004.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2006 is $534,627,700.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 is $738,014,500.

For each of State fiscal years 2008 through 2009, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments from the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007, so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2010 is $2,089,268,000 and shall be made from the proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the Common School Fund in fiscal year 2010, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2011 is the amount recertified by the System on or before April 1, 2011 pursuant to subsection (a-1) of this Section and shall be made from the proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the Common School Fund in fiscal year 2011, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable. This amount shall include, in addition to the amount certified by the System, an amount necessary to meet employer contributions required by the State as an employer under paragraph (e) of this Section, which may also be used by the System for contributions required by paragraph (a) of Section 16-127.

Beginning in State fiscal year 2046, the minimum State contribution for each fiscal year shall be the amount needed to maintain the total assets of the System at 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System.

Amounts received by the System pursuant to Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act or Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act in any fiscal year do not reduce and do not constitute payment of any portion of the minimum State contribution required under this Article in that fiscal year. Such amounts shall not reduce, and shall not be included in the calculation of, the required State contributions under this Article in any future year until the System has reached a funding ratio of at least 90%. A reference in this Article to the "required State contribution" or any substantially similar term does not include or apply to any amounts payable to the System under Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2005 and for fiscal year 2008 and each fiscal year thereafter, as calculated under this Section and certified under subsection (a-1), shall not exceed an amount equal to (i) the amount of the required State contribution that would have been calculated under this Section for that fiscal year if the System had not received any payments under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, minus (ii) the portion of the State's total debt service payments for that fiscal year on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of that Section 7.2, as determined and certified by the Comptroller, that is the same as the System's portion of the total moneys distributed under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act. In determining this maximum for State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, however, the amount referred to in item (i) shall be increased, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, in equal increments calculated from the sum of the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 plus the applicable portion of the State's total debt service payments for fiscal year 2007 on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, so that, by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

(c) Payment of the required State contributions and of all pensions, retirement annuities, death benefits, refunds, and other benefits granted under or assumed by this System, and all expenses in connection with the administration and operation thereof, are obligations of the State.

If members are paid from special trust or federal funds which are administered by the employing unit, whether school district or other unit, the employing unit shall pay to the System from such funds the full accruing retirement costs based upon that service, as determined by the System. Employer contributions, based on salary paid to members from federal funds, may be forwarded by the distributing agency of the State of Illinois to the System prior to allocation, in an amount determined in accordance with guidelines established by such agency and the System.

(d) Effective July 1, 1986, any employer of a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106 shall pay the employer's normal cost of benefits based upon the teacher's service, in addition to employee contributions, as determined by the System. Such employer contributions shall be forwarded monthly in accordance with guidelines established by the System.

However, with respect to benefits granted under Section 16-133.4 or 16-133.5 to a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106, the employer's contribution shall be 12% (rather than 20%) of the member's highest annual salary rate for each year of creditable service granted, and the employer shall also pay the required employee contribution on behalf of the teacher. For the purposes of Sections 16-133.4 and 16-133.5, a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106 who is serving in that capacity while on leave of absence from another employer under this Article shall not be considered an employee of the employer from which the teacher is on leave.

(e) Beginning July 1, 1998, every employer of a teacher shall pay to the System an employer contribution computed as follows:

(1) Beginning July 1, 1998 through June 30, 1999, the employer contribution shall be equal to 0.3% of each teacher's salary.

(2) Beginning July 1, 1999 and thereafter, the employer contribution shall be equal to 0.58% of each teacher's salary.

The school district or other employing unit may pay these employer contributions out of any source of funding available for that purpose and shall forward the contributions to the System on the schedule established for the payment of member contributions.

These employer contributions are intended to offset a portion of the cost to the System of the increases in retirement benefits resulting from this amendatory Act of 1998.

Each employer of teachers is entitled to a credit against the contributions required under this subsection (e) with respect to salaries paid to teachers for the period January 1, 2002 through June 30, 2003, equal to the amount paid by that employer under subsection (a-5) of Section 6.6 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 with respect to salaries paid to teachers for that period.

The additional 1% employee contribution required under Section 16-152 by this amendatory Act of 1998 is the responsibility of the teacher and not the teacher's employer, unless the employer agrees, through collective bargaining or otherwise, to make the contribution on behalf of the teacher.

If an employer is required by a contract in effect on May 1, 1998 between the employer and an employee organization to pay, on behalf of all its full-time employees covered by this Article, all mandatory employee contributions required under this Article, then the employer shall be excused from paying the employer contribution required under this subsection (e) for the balance of the term of that contract. The employer and the employee organization shall jointly certify to the System the existence of the contractual requirement, in such form as the System may prescribe. This exclusion shall cease upon the termination, extension, or renewal of the contract at any time after May 1, 1998.

(f) If the amount of a teacher's salary for any school year used to determine final average salary exceeds the member's annual full-time salary rate with the same employer for the previous school year by more than 6%, the teacher's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, the present value of the increase in benefits resulting from the portion of the increase in salary that is in excess of 6%. This present value shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. If a teacher's salary for the 2005-2006 school year is used to determine final average salary under this subsection (f), then the changes made to this subsection (f) by Public Act 94-1057 shall apply in calculating whether the increase in his or her salary is in excess of 6%. For the purposes of this Section, change in employment under Section 10-21.12 of the School Code on or after June 1, 2005 shall constitute a change in employer. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation. The changes made to this subsection (f) by this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly apply without regard to whether the teacher was in service on or after its effective date.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection, the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute and, if the employer asserts that the calculation is subject to subsection (g) or (h) of this Section, must include an affidavit setting forth and attesting to all facts within the employer's knowledge that are pertinent to the applicability of that subsection. Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection (f) may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

(g) This subsection (g) applies only to payments made or salary increases given on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. The changes made by Public Act 94-1057 shall not require the System to refund any payments received before July 31, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-1057).

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases paid to teachers under contracts or collective bargaining agreements entered into, amended, or renewed before June 1, 2005.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases paid to a teacher at a time when the teacher is 10 or more years from retirement eligibility under Section 16-132 or 16-133.2.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases resulting from overload work, including summer school, when the school district has certified to the System, and the System has approved the certification, that (i) the overload work is for the sole purpose of classroom instruction in excess of the standard number of classes for a full-time teacher in a school district during a school year and (ii) the salary increases are equal to or less than the rate of pay for classroom instruction computed on the teacher's current salary and work schedule.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude a salary increase resulting from a promotion (i) for which the employee is required to hold a certificate or supervisory endorsement issued by the State Teacher Certification Board that is a different certification or supervisory endorsement than is required for the teacher's previous position and (ii) to a position that has existed and been filled by a member for no less than one complete academic year and the salary increase from the promotion is an increase that results in an amount no greater than the lesser of the average salary paid for other similar positions in the district requiring the same certification or the amount stipulated in the collective bargaining agreement for a similar position requiring the same certification.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude any payment to the teacher from the State of Illinois or the State Board of Education over which the employer does not have discretion, notwithstanding that the payment is included in the computation of final average salary.

(h) When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude any salary increase described in subsection (g) of this Section given on or after July 1, 2011 but before July 1, 2014 under a contract or collective bargaining agreement entered into, amended, or renewed on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any payments made or salary increases given after June 30, 2014 shall be used in assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f) of this Section.

(i) The System shall prepare a report and file copies of the report with the Governor and the General Assembly by January 1, 2007 that contains all of the following information:

(1) The number of recalculations required by the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057 for each employer.

(2) The dollar amount by which each employer's contribution to the System was changed due to recalculations required by Public Act 94-1057.

(3) The total amount the System received from each employer as a result of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-4.

(4) The increase in the required State contribution resulting from the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057.

(j) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the System, the value of the System's assets shall be equal to the actuarial value of the System's assets, which shall be calculated as follows:

As of June 30, 2008, the actuarial value of the System's assets shall be equal to the market value of the assets as of that date. In determining the actuarial value of the System's assets for fiscal years after June 30, 2008, any actuarial gains or losses from investment return incurred in a fiscal year shall be recognized in equal annual amounts over the 5-year period following that fiscal year.

(k) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the system for a particular year, the actuarial value of assets shall be assumed to earn a rate of return equal to the system's actuarially assumed rate of return.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-950, eff. 8-29-08; 96-43, eff. 7-15-09; 96-1497, eff. 1-14-11; 96-1511, eff. 1-27-11; 96-1554, eff. 3-18-11; revised 4-6-11.)

(40 ILCS 5/18-131) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 18-131)

Sec. 18-131. Financing; employer contributions.

(a) The State of Illinois shall make contributions to this System by appropriations of the amounts which, together with the contributions of participants, net earnings on investments, and other income, will meet the costs of maintaining and administering this System on a 90% funded basis in accordance with actuarial recommendations.

(b) The Board shall determine the amount of State contributions required for each fiscal year on the basis of the actuarial tables and other assumptions adopted by the Board and the prescribed rate of interest, using the formula in subsection (c).

(c) For State fiscal years 2012 through 2045, the minimum contribution to the System to be made by the State for each fiscal year shall be an amount determined by the System to be sufficient to bring the total assets of the System up to 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System by the end of State fiscal year 2045. In making these determinations, the required State contribution shall be calculated each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining to and including fiscal year 2045 and shall be determined under the projected unit credit actuarial cost method.

For State fiscal years 1996 through 2005, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2006 is $29,189,400.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 is $35,236,800.

For each of State fiscal years 2008 through 2009, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments from the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007, so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2010 is $78,832,000 and shall be made from the proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the General Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2010, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2011 is the amount recertified by the System on or before April 1, 2011 pursuant to Section 18-140 and shall be made from the proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the General Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2011, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Beginning in State fiscal year 2046, the minimum State contribution for each fiscal year shall be the amount needed to maintain the total assets of the System at 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System.

Amounts received by the System pursuant to Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act or Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act in any fiscal year do not reduce and do not constitute payment of any portion of the minimum State contribution required under this Article in that fiscal year. Such amounts shall not reduce, and shall not be included in the calculation of, the required State contributions under this Article in any future year until the System has reached a funding ratio of at least 90%. A reference in this Article to the "required State contribution" or any substantially similar term does not include or apply to any amounts payable to the System under Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2005 and for fiscal year 2008 and each fiscal year thereafter, as calculated under this Section and certified under Section 18-140, shall not exceed an amount equal to (i) the amount of the required State contribution that would have been calculated under this Section for that fiscal year if the System had not received any payments under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, minus (ii) the portion of the State's total debt service payments for that fiscal year on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of that Section 7.2, as determined and certified by the Comptroller, that is the same as the System's portion of the total moneys distributed under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act. In determining this maximum for State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, however, the amount referred to in item (i) shall be increased, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, in equal increments calculated from the sum of the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 plus the applicable portion of the State's total debt service payments for fiscal year 2007 on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, so that, by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

(d) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the System, the value of the System's assets shall be equal to the actuarial value of the System's assets, which shall be calculated as follows:

As of June 30, 2008, the actuarial value of the System's assets shall be equal to the market value of the assets as of that date. In determining the actuarial value of the System's assets for fiscal years after June 30, 2008, any actuarial gains or losses from investment return incurred in a fiscal year shall be recognized in equal annual amounts over the 5-year period following that fiscal year.

(e) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the system for a particular year, the actuarial value of assets shall be assumed to earn a rate of return equal to the system's actuarially assumed rate of return.

(Source: P.A. 95-950, eff. 8-29-08; 96-43, eff. 7-15-09; 96-1497, eff. 1-14-11; 96-1511, eff. 1-27-11; 96-1554, eff. 3-18-11; revised 4-6-11.)

(40 ILCS 5/22-101) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 22-101)

Sec. 22-101. Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees.

(a) There shall be established and maintained by the Authority created by the "Metropolitan Transit Authority Act", approved April 12, 1945, as amended, (referred to in this Section as the "Authority") a financially sound pension and retirement system adequate to provide for all payments when due under such established system or as modified from time to time by ordinance of the Chicago Transit Board or collective bargaining agreement. For this purpose, the Board must make contributions to the established system as required under this Section and may make any additional contributions provided for by Board ordinance or collective bargaining agreement. The participating employees shall make such periodic payments to the established system as required under this Section and may make any additional contributions provided for by Board ordinance or collective bargaining agreement.

Provisions shall be made by the Board for all officers, except those who first become members on or after January 1, 2012, and employees of the Authority appointed pursuant to the "Metropolitan Transit Authority Act" to become, subject to reasonable rules and regulations, participants of the pension or retirement system with uniform rights, privileges, obligations and status as to the class in which such officers and employees belong. The terms, conditions and provisions of any pension or retirement system or of any amendment or modification thereof affecting employees who are members of any labor organization may be established, amended or modified by agreement with such labor organization, provided the terms, conditions and provisions must be consistent with this Act, the annual funding levels for the retirement system established by law must be met and the benefits paid to future participants in the system may not exceed the benefit ceilings set for future participants under this Act and the contribution levels required by the Authority and its employees may not be less than the contribution levels established under this Act.

(b) The Board of Trustees shall consist of 11 members appointed as follows: (i) 5 trustees shall be appointed by the Chicago Transit Board; (ii) 3 trustees shall be appointed by an organization representing the highest number of Chicago Transit Authority participants; (iii) one trustee shall be appointed by an organization representing the second-highest number of Chicago Transit Authority participants; (iv) one trustee shall be appointed by the recognized coalition representatives of participants who are not represented by an organization with the highest or second-highest number of Chicago Transit Authority participants; and (v) one trustee shall be selected by the Regional Transportation Authority Board of Directors, and the trustee shall be a professional fiduciary who has experience in the area of collectively bargained pension plans. Trustees shall serve until a successor has been appointed and qualified, or until resignation, death, incapacity, or disqualification.

Any person appointed as a trustee of the board shall qualify by taking an oath of office that he or she will diligently and honestly administer the affairs of the system and will not knowingly violate or willfully permit the violation of any of the provisions of law applicable to the Plan, including Sections 1-109, 1-109.1, 1-109.2, 1-110, 1-111, 1-114, and 1-115 of the Illinois Pension Code.

Each trustee shall cast individual votes, and a majority vote shall be final and binding upon all interested parties, provided that the Board of Trustees may require a supermajority vote with respect to the investment of the assets of the Retirement Plan, and may set forth that requirement in the Retirement Plan documents, by-laws, or rules of the Board of Trustees. Each trustee shall have the rights, privileges, authority, and obligations as are usual and customary for such fiduciaries.

The Board of Trustees may cause amounts on deposit in the Retirement Plan to be invested in those investments that are permitted investments for the investment of moneys held under any one or more of the pension or retirement systems of the State, any unit of local government or school district, or any agency or instrumentality thereof. The Board, by a vote of at least two-thirds of the trustees, may transfer investment management to the Illinois State Board of Investment, which is hereby authorized to manage these investments when so requested by the Board of Trustees.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article or any law to the contrary, any person who first becomes a member of the Chicago Transit Board on or after January 1, 2012 shall not be eligible to participate in this Retirement Plan.

(c) All individuals who were previously participants in the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees shall remain participants, and shall receive the same benefits established by the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees, except as provided in this amendatory Act or by subsequent legislative enactment or amendment to the Retirement Plan. For Authority employees hired on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees shall be the exclusive retirement plan and such employees shall not be eligible for any supplemental plan, except for a deferred compensation plan funded only by employee contributions.

For all Authority employees who are first hired on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and are participants in the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees, the following terms, conditions and provisions with respect to retirement shall be applicable:

(1) Such participant shall be eligible for an unreduced retirement allowance for life upon the attainment of age 64 with 25 years of continuous service.

(2) Such participant shall be eligible for a reduced retirement allowance for life upon the attainment of age 55 with 10 years of continuous service.

(3) For the purpose of determining the retirement allowance to be paid to a retiring employee, the term "Continuous Service" as used in the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees shall also be deemed to include all pension credit for service with any retirement system established under Article 8 or Article 11 of this Code, provided that the employee forfeits and relinquishes all pension credit under Article 8 or Article 11 of this Code, and the contribution required under this subsection is made by the employee. The Retirement Plan's actuary shall determine the contribution paid by the employee as an amount equal to the normal cost of the benefit accrued, had the service been rendered as an employee, plus interest per annum from the time such service was rendered until the date the payment is made.

(d) From the effective date of this amendatory Act through December 31, 2008, all participating employees shall contribute to the Retirement Plan in an amount not less than 6% of compensation, and the Authority shall contribute to the Retirement Plan in an amount not less than 12% of compensation.

(e)(1) Beginning January 1, 2009 the Authority shall make contributions to the Retirement Plan in an amount equal to twelve percent (12%) of compensation and participating employees shall make contributions to the Retirement Plan in an amount equal to six percent (6%) of compensation. These contributions may be paid by the Authority and participating employees on a payroll or other periodic basis, but shall in any case be paid to the Retirement Plan at least monthly.

(2) For the period ending December 31, 2040, the amount paid by the Authority in any year with respect to debt service on bonds issued for the purposes of funding a contribution to the Retirement Plan under Section 12c of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act, other than debt service paid with the proceeds of bonds or notes issued by the Authority for any year after calendar year 2008, shall be treated as a credit against the amount of required contribution to the Retirement Plan by the Authority under subsection (e)(1) for the following year up to an amount not to exceed 6% of compensation paid by the Authority in that following year.

(3) By September 15 of each year beginning in 2009 and ending on December 31, 2039, on the basis of a report prepared by an enrolled actuary retained by the Plan, the Board of Trustees of the Retirement Plan shall determine the estimated funded ratio of the total assets of the Retirement Plan to its total actuarially determined liabilities. A report containing that determination and the actuarial assumptions on which it is based shall be filed with the Authority, the representatives of its participating employees, the Auditor General of the State of Illinois, and the Regional Transportation Authority. If the funded ratio is projected to decline below 60% in any year before 2040, the Board of Trustees shall also determine the increased contribution required each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining until 2040 using the projected unit credit actuarial cost method so the funded ratio does not decline below 60% and include that determination in its report. If the actual funded ratio declines below 60% in any year prior to 2040, the Board of Trustees shall also determine the increased contribution required each year as a level percentage of payroll during the years after the then current year using the projected unit credit actuarial cost method so the funded ratio is projected to reach at least 60% no later than 10 years after the then current year and include that determination in its report. Within 60 days after receiving the report, the Auditor General shall review the determination and the assumptions on which it is based, and if he finds that the determination and the assumptions on which it is based are unreasonable in the aggregate, he shall issue a new determination of the funded ratio, the assumptions on which it is based and the increased contribution required each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining until 2040 using the projected unit credit actuarial cost method so the funded ratio does not decline below 60%, or, in the event of an actual decline below 60%, so the funded ratio is projected to reach 60% by no later than 10 years after the then current year. If the Board of Trustees or the Auditor General determine that an increased contribution is required to meet the funded ratio required by the subsection, effective January 1 following the determination or 30 days after such determination, whichever is later, one-third of the increased contribution shall be paid by participating employees and two-thirds by the Authority, in addition to the contributions required by this subsection (1).

(4) For the period beginning 2040, the minimum contribution to the Retirement Plan for each fiscal year shall be an amount determined by the Board of Trustees of the Retirement Plan to be sufficient to bring the total assets of the Retirement Plan up to 90% of its total actuarial liabilities by the end of 2059. Participating employees shall be responsible for one-third of the required contribution and the Authority shall be responsible for two-thirds of the required contribution. In making these determinations, the Board of Trustees shall calculate the required contribution each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining to and including fiscal year 2059 using the projected unit credit actuarial cost method. A report containing that determination and the actuarial assumptions on which it is based shall be filed by September 15 of each year with the Authority, the representatives of its participating employees, the Auditor General of the State of Illinois and the Regional Transportation Authority. If the funded ratio is projected to fail to reach 90% by December 31, 2059, the Board of Trustees shall also determine the increased contribution required each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining until December 31, 2059 using the projected unit credit actuarial cost method so the funded ratio will meet 90% by December 31, 2059 and include that determination in its report. Within 60 days after receiving the report, the Auditor General shall review the determination and the assumptions on which it is based and if he finds that the determination and the assumptions on which it is based are unreasonable in the aggregate, he shall issue a new determination of the funded ratio, the assumptions on which it is based and the increased contribution required each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining until December 31, 2059 using the projected unit credit actuarial cost method so the funded ratio reaches no less than 90% by December 31, 2059. If the Board of Trustees or the Auditor General determine that an increased contribution is required to meet the funded ratio required by this subsection, effective January 1 following the determination or 30 days after such determination, whichever is later, one-third of the increased contribution shall be paid by participating employees and two-thirds by the Authority, in addition to the contributions required by subsection (e)(1).

(5) Beginning in 2060, the minimum contribution for each year shall be the amount needed to maintain the total assets of the Retirement Plan at 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the Plan, and the contribution shall be funded two-thirds by the Authority and one-third by the participating employees in accordance with this subsection.

(f) The Authority shall take the steps necessary to comply with Section 414(h)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, to permit the pick-up of employee contributions under subsections (d) and (e) on a tax-deferred basis.

(g) The Board of Trustees shall certify to the Governor, the General Assembly, the Auditor General, the Board of the Regional Transportation Authority, and the Authority at least 90 days prior to the end of each fiscal year the amount of the required contributions to the retirement system for the next retirement system fiscal year under this Section. The certification shall include a copy of the actuarial recommendations upon which it is based. In addition, copies of the certification shall be sent to the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability and the Mayor of Chicago.

(h)(1) As to an employee who first becomes entitled to a retirement allowance commencing on or after November 30, 1989, the retirement allowance shall be the amount determined in accordance with the following formula:

(A) One percent (1%) of his "Average Annual Compensation in the highest four (4) completed Plan Years" for each full year of continuous service from the date of original employment to the effective date of the Plan; plus

(B) One and seventy-five hundredths percent (1.75%) of his "Average Annual Compensation in the highest four (4) completed Plan Years" for each year (including fractions thereof to completed calendar months) of continuous service as provided for in the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees. Provided, however that:

(2) As to an employee who first becomes entitled to a retirement allowance commencing on or after January 1, 1993, the retirement allowance shall be the amount determined in accordance with the following formula:

(A) One percent (1%) of his "Average Annual Compensation in the highest four (4) completed Plan Years" for each full year of continuous service from the date of original employment to the effective date of the Plan; plus

(B) One and eighty hundredths percent (1.80%) of his "Average Annual Compensation in the highest four (4) completed Plan Years" for each year (including fractions thereof to completed calendar months) of continuous service as provided for in the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees. Provided, however that:

(3) As to an employee who first becomes entitled to a retirement allowance commencing on or after January 1, 1994, the retirement allowance shall be the amount determined in accordance with the following formula:

(A) One percent (1%) of his "Average Annual Compensation in the highest four (4) completed Plan Years" for each full year of continuous service from the date of original employment to the effective date of the Plan; plus

(B) One and eighty-five hundredths percent (1.85%) of his "Average Annual Compensation in the highest four (4) completed Plan Years" for each year (including fractions thereof to completed calendar months) of continuous service as provided for in the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees. Provided, however that:

(4) As to an employee who first becomes entitled to a retirement allowance commencing on or after January 1, 2000, the retirement allowance shall be the amount determined in accordance with the following formula:

(A) One percent (1%) of his "Average Annual Compensation in the highest four (4) completed Plan Years" for each full year of continuous service from the date of original employment to the effective date of the Plan; plus

(B) Two percent (2%) of his "Average Annual Compensation in the highest four (4) completed Plan Years" for each year (including fractions thereof to completed calendar months) of continuous service as provided for in the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees. Provided, however that:

(5) As to an employee who first becomes entitled to a retirement allowance commencing on or after January 1, 2001, the retirement allowance shall be the amount determined in accordance with the following formula:

(A) One percent (1%) of his "Average Annual Compensation in the highest four (4) completed Plan Years" for each full year of continuous service from the date of original employment to the effective date of the Plan; plus

(B) Two and fifteen hundredths percent (2.15%) of his "Average Annual Compensation in the highest four (4) completed Plan Years" for each year (including fractions thereof to completed calendar months) of continuous service as provided for in the Retirement Plan for Chicago Transit Authority Employees.

The changes made by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, to the extent that they affect the rights or privileges of Authority employees that are currently the subject of collective bargaining, have been agreed to between the authorized representatives of these employees and of the Authority prior to enactment of this amendatory Act, as evidenced by a Memorandum of Understanding between these representatives that will be filed with the Secretary of State Index Department and designated as "95-GA-C05". The General Assembly finds and declares that those changes are consistent with 49 U.S.C. 5333(b) (also known as Section 13(c) of the Federal Transit Act) because of this agreement between authorized representatives of these employees and of the Authority, and that any future amendments to the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, to the extent those amendments would affect the rights and privileges of Authority employees that are currently the subject of collective bargaining, would be consistent with 49 U.S.C. 5333(b) if and only if those amendments were agreed to between these authorized representatives prior to enactment.

(i) Early retirement incentive plan; funded ratio.

(1) Beginning on the effective date of this Section, no early retirement incentive shall be offered to participants of the Plan unless the Funded Ratio of the Plan is at least 80% or more.

(2) For the purposes of this Section, the Funded Ratio shall be the Adjusted Assets divided by the Actuarial Accrued Liability developed in accordance with Statement #25 promulgated by the Government Accounting Standards Board and the actuarial assumptions described in the Plan. The Adjusted Assets shall be calculated based on the methodology described in the Plan.

(j) Nothing in this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall impair the rights or privileges of Authority employees under any other law.

(k) Any individual who, on or after August 19, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-442) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, first becomes a participant of the Retirement Plan shall not be paid any of the benefits provided under this Code if he or she is convicted of a felony relating to, arising out of, or in connection with his or her service as a participant.

This subsection (k) shall not operate to impair any contract or vested right acquired before August 19, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-442) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly under any law or laws continued in this Code, and it shall not preclude the right to refund.

(Source: P.A. 97-442, eff. 8-19-11; 97-609, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(40 ILCS 5/22-103)

Sec. 22-103. Regional Transportation Authority and related pension plans.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Affected pension plan" means a defined-benefit pension plan supported in whole or in part by employer contributions and maintained by the Regional Transportation Authority, the Suburban Bus Division, or the Commuter Rail Division, or any combination thereof, under the general authority of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, including but not limited to any such plan that has been established under or is subject to a collective bargaining agreement or is limited to employees covered by a collective bargaining agreement. "Affected pension plan" does not include any pension fund or retirement system subject to Section 22-101 of this Section.

"Authority" means the Regional Transportation Authority created under the Regional Transportation Authority Act.

"Contributing employer" means an employer that is required to make contributions to an affected pension plan under the terms of that plan.

"Funding ratio" means the ratio of an affected pension plan's assets to the present value of its actuarial liabilities, as determined at its latest actuarial valuation in accordance with applicable actuarial assumptions and recommendations.

"Under-funded pension plan" or "under-funded" means an affected pension plan that, at the time of its last actuarial valuation, has a funding ratio of less than 90%.

(b) The contributing employers of each affected pension plan have a general duty to make the required employer contributions to the affected pension plan in a timely manner in accordance with the terms of the plan. A contributing employer must make contributions to the affected pension plan as required under this subsection and, if applicable, subsection (c); a contributing employer may make any additional contributions provided for by the board of the employer or collective bargaining agreement.

(c) In the case of an affected pension plan that is under-funded on January 1, 2009 or becomes under-funded at any time after that date, the contributing employers shall contribute to the affected pension plan, in addition to all amounts otherwise required, amounts sufficient to bring the funding ratio of the affected pension plan up to 90% in accordance with an amortization schedule adopted jointly by the contributing employers and the trustee of the affected pension plan. The amortization schedule may extend for any period up to a maximum of 50 years and shall provide for additional employer contributions in substantially equal annual amounts over the selected period. If the contributing employers and the trustee of the affected pension plan do not agree on an appropriate period for the amortization schedule within 6 months of the date of determination that the plan is under-funded, then the amortization schedule shall be based on a period of 50 years.

In the case of an affected pension plan that has more than one contributing employer, each contributing employer's share of the total additional employer contributions required under this subsection shall be determined: (i) in proportion to the amounts, if any, by which the respective contributing employers have failed to meet their contribution obligations under the terms of the affected pension plan; or (ii) if all of the contributing employers have met their contribution obligations under the terms of the affected pension plan, then in the same proportion as they are required to contribute under the terms of that plan. In the case of an affected pension plan that has only one contributing employer, that contributing employer is responsible for all of the additional employer contributions required under this subsection.

If an under-funded pension plan is determined to have achieved a funding ratio of at least 90% during the period when an amortization schedule is in force under this Section, the contributing employers and the trustee of the affected pension plan, acting jointly, may cancel the amortization schedule and the contributing employers may cease making additional contributions under this subsection for as long as the affected pension plan retains a funding ratio of at least 90%.

(d) Beginning January 1, 2009, if the Authority fails to pay to an affected pension fund within 30 days after it is due (i) any employer contribution that it is required to make as a contributing employer, (ii) any additional employer contribution that it is required to pay under subsection (c), or (iii) any payment that it is required to make under Section 4.02a or 4.02b of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, the trustee of the affected pension fund shall promptly so notify the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability, the Mayor of Chicago, the Governor, and the General Assembly.

(e) For purposes of determining employer contributions, assets, and actuarial liabilities under this subsection, contributions, assets, and liabilities relating to health care benefits shall not be included.

(f) This amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly does not affect or impair the right of any contributing employer or its employees to collectively bargain the amount or level of employee contributions to an affected pension plan, to the extent that the plan includes employees subject to collective bargaining.

(g) Any individual who, on or after August 19, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-442) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, first becomes a participant of an affected pension plan shall not be paid any of the benefits provided under this Code if he or she is convicted of a felony relating to, arising out of, or in connection with his or her service as a participant.

This subsection shall not operate to impair any contract or vested right acquired before August 19, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-442) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly under any law or laws continued in this Code, and it shall not preclude the right to refund.

(h) (g) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article or any law to the contrary, a person who, on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-609) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, first becomes a director on the Suburban Bus Board, the Commuter Rail Board, or the Board of Directors of the Regional Transportation Authority shall not be eligible to participate in an affected pension plan.

(Source: P.A. 97-442, eff. 8-19-11; 97-609, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

Section 185. The State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act is amended by changing Section 1.2 as follows:

(40 ILCS 15/1.2)

Sec. 1.2. Appropriations for the State Employees' Retirement System.

(a) From each fund from which an amount is appropriated for personal services to a department or other employer under Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code, there is hereby appropriated to that department or other employer, on a continuing annual basis for each State fiscal year, an additional amount equal to the amount, if any, by which (1) an amount equal to the percentage of the personal services line item for that department or employer from that fund for that fiscal year that the Board of Trustees of the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois has certified under Section 14-135.08 of the Illinois Pension Code to be necessary to meet the State's obligation under Section 14-131 of the Illinois Pension Code for that fiscal year, exceeds (2) the amounts otherwise appropriated to that department or employer from that fund for State contributions to the State Employees' Retirement System for that fiscal year. From the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly through the final payment from a department or employer's personal services line item for fiscal year 2004, payments to the State Employees' Retirement System that otherwise would have been made under this subsection (a) shall be governed by the provisions in subsection (a-1).

(a-1) If a Fiscal Year 2004 Shortfall is certified under subsection (f) of Section 14-131 of the Illinois Pension Code, there is hereby appropriated to the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois on a continuing basis from the General Revenue Fund an additional aggregate amount equal to the Fiscal Year 2004 Shortfall.

(a-2) If a Fiscal Year 2010 Shortfall is certified under subsection (g) of Section 14-131 of the Illinois Pension Code, there is hereby appropriated to the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois on a continuing basis from the General Revenue Fund an additional aggregate amount equal to the Fiscal Year 2010 Shortfall.

(b) The continuing appropriations provided for by this Section shall first be available in State fiscal year 1996.

(c) Beginning in Fiscal Year 2005, any continuing appropriation under this Section arising out of an appropriation for personal services from the Road Fund to the Department of State Police or the Secretary of State shall be payable from the General Revenue Fund rather than the Road Fund.

(d) For State fiscal year 2010 only, a continuing appropriation is provided to the State Employees' Retirement System equal to the amount certified by the System on or before December 31, 2008, less the gross proceeds of the bonds sold in fiscal year 2010 under the authorization contained in subsection (a) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act.

(e) For State fiscal year 2011 only, the continuing appropriation under this Section provided to the State Employees' Retirement System is limited to an amount equal to the amount certified by the System on or before December 31, 2009, less any amounts received pursuant to subsection (a-3) of Section 14.1 of the State Finance Act.

(f) (e) For State fiscal year 2011 only, a continuing appropriation is provided to the State Employees' Retirement System equal to the amount certified by the System on or before April 1, 2011, less the gross proceeds of the bonds sold in fiscal year 2011 under the authorization contained in subsection (a) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-43, eff. 7-15-09; 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; 96-958, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1497, eff. 1-14-11; 96-1511, eff. 1-27-11; revised 4-5-11.)

Section 190. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 5-1006.7, 5-1069.3, and 5-12001.1 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/5-1006.7)

Sec. 5-1006.7. School facility occupation taxes.

(a) In any county, a tax shall be imposed upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at retail in the county on the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of business to provide revenue to be used exclusively for school facility purposes if a proposition for the tax has been submitted to the electors of that county and approved by a majority of those voting on the question as provided in subsection (c). The tax under this Section shall be imposed only in one-quarter percent increments and may not exceed 1%.

This additional tax may not be imposed on the sale of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics. The Department of Revenue has full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of a tax or penalty under this subsection. The Department shall deposit all taxes and penalties collected under this subsection into a special fund created for that purpose.

In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) are subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and (iii) shall employ the same modes of procedure as are set forth in Sections 1 through 1o, 2 through 2-70 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 2a through 2h, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as if those provisions were set forth in this subsection.

The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act permits the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable without registering separately with the Department under an ordinance or resolution under this subsection.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to any bracketed schedules set forth by the Department.

(b) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (a), then a service occupation tax must also be imposed at the same rate upon all persons engaged, in the county, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making those sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the county as an incident to a sale of service.

This tax may not be imposed on sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics.

The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the Department and deposited into a special fund created for that purpose. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of a tax or penalty under this subsection.

In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definition of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are set forth in Sections 2 (except that that reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State means the county), 2a through 2d, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the county), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax is a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 is the county), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State means the county), Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, pursuant to any bracketed schedules set forth by the Department.

(c) The tax under this Section may not be imposed until the question of imposing the tax has been submitted to the electors of the county at a regular election and approved by a majority of the electors voting on the question. For all regular elections held prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, upon a resolution by the county board or a resolution by school district boards that represent at least 51% of the student enrollment within the county, the county board must certify the question to the proper election authority in accordance with the Election Code.

For all regular elections held prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall (name of county) be authorized to impose a retailers' occupation tax and a service occupation tax (commonly referred to as a "sales tax") at a rate of (insert rate) to be used exclusively for school facility purposes? The election authority must record the votes as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then the county may, thereafter, impose the tax.

For all regular elections held on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the regional superintendent of schools for the county must, upon receipt of a resolution or resolutions of school district boards that represent more than 50% of the student enrollment within the county, certify the question to the proper election authority for submission to the electors of the county at the next regular election at which the question lawfully may be submitted to the electors, all in accordance with the Election Code.

For all regular elections held on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall a retailers' occupation tax and a service occupation tax (commonly referred to as a "sales tax") be imposed in (name of county) at a rate of (insert rate) to be used exclusively for school facility purposes? The election authority must record the votes as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then the tax shall be imposed at the rate set forth in the question.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), "enrollment" means the head count of the students residing in the county on the last school day of September of each year, which must be reported on the Illinois State Board of Education Public School Fall Enrollment/Housing Report.

(d) The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected under this Section to be deposited into the School Facility Occupation Tax Fund, which shall be an unappropriated trust fund held outside the State treasury.

On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the regional superintendents of schools in counties from which retailers or servicemen have paid taxes or penalties to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each regional superintendent of schools and disbursed to him or her in accordance with Section 3-14.31 of the School Code, is equal to the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected from the county under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, (i) less 2% of that amount, which shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, to cover the costs of the Department in administering and enforcing the provisions of this Section, on behalf of the county, (ii) plus an amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body; (iii) less an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the county; and (iv) less any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the county. When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a regional superintendent of schools under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amounts by an amount necessary to offset any miscalculation of previous disbursements within the previous 6 months from the time a miscalculation is discovered.

Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller from the Department of the disbursement certification to the regional superintendents of the schools provided for in this Section, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with directions contained in the certification.

If the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, then the Department shall notify the Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the Treasurer out of the School Facility Occupation Tax Fund.

(e) For the purposes of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or another mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This subsection does not apply to coal or another mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the United States Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

(f) Nothing in this Section may be construed to authorize a tax to be imposed upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(g) If a county board imposes a tax under this Section pursuant to a referendum held before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly at a rate below the rate set forth in the question approved by a majority of electors of that county voting on the question as provided in subsection (c), then the county board may, by ordinance, increase the rate of the tax up to the rate set forth in the question approved by a majority of electors of that county voting on the question as provided in subsection (c). If a county board imposes a tax under this Section pursuant to a referendum held before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, then the board may, by ordinance, discontinue or reduce the rate of the tax. If a tax is imposed under this Section pursuant to a referendum held on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, then the county board may reduce or discontinue the tax, but only in accordance with subsection (h-5) of this Section. If, however, a school board issues bonds that are secured by the proceeds of the tax under this Section, then the county board may not reduce the tax rate or discontinue the tax if that rate reduction or discontinuance would adversely affect the school board's ability to pay the principal and interest on those bonds as they become due or necessitate the extension of additional property taxes to pay the principal and interest on those bonds. If the county board reduces the tax rate or discontinues the tax, then a referendum must be held in accordance with subsection (c) of this Section in order to increase the rate of the tax or to reimpose the discontinued tax.

The results of any election that imposes, reduces, or discontinues a tax under this Section must be certified by the election authority, and any ordinance that increases or lowers the rate or discontinues the tax must be certified by the county clerk and, in each case, filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of January next following the filing.

(h) For purposes of this Section, "school facility purposes" means (i) the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, financing, architectural planning, and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interest in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection with the capital facilities and (ii) the payment of bonds or other obligations heretofore or hereafter issued, including bonds or other obligations heretofore or hereafter issued to refund or to continue to refund bonds or other obligations issued, for school facility purposes, provided that the taxes levied to pay those bonds are abated by the amount of the taxes imposed under this Section that are used to pay those bonds. "School-facility purposes" also includes fire prevention, safety, energy conservation, disabled accessibility, school security, and specified repair purposes set forth under Section 17-2.11 of the School Code.

(h-5) A county board in a county where a tax has been imposed under this Section pursuant to a referendum held on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly may, by ordinance or resolution, submit to the voters of the county the question of reducing or discontinuing the tax. In the ordinance or resolution, the county board shall certify the question to the proper election authority in accordance with the Election Code. The election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall the school facility retailers' occupation tax and service occupation tax (commonly referred to as the "school facility sales tax") currently imposed in (name of county) at a rate of (insert rate) be (reduced to (insert rate))(discontinued)? If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then, subject to the provisions of subsection (g) of this Section, the tax shall be reduced or discontinued as set forth in the question.

(i) This Section does not apply to Cook County.

(j) This Section may be cited as the County School Facility Occupation Tax Law.

(Source: P.A. 97-542, eff. 8-23-11; revised 11-18-11.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1069.3)

Sec. 5-1069.3. Required health benefits. If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, and 356z.15 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections Section 155.22a and 356z.19 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this Section is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule county to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 96-139, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-14-11.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-12001.1)

Sec. 5-12001.1. Authority to regulate certain specified facilities of a telecommunications carrier and to regulate, pursuant to subsections (a) through (g), AM broadcast towers and facilities.

(a) Notwithstanding any other Section in this Division, the county board or board of county commissioners of any county shall have the power to regulate the location of the facilities, as defined in subsection (c), of a telecommunications carrier or AM broadcast station established outside the corporate limits of cities, villages, and incorporated towns that have municipal zoning ordinances in effect. The power shall only be exercised to the extent and in the manner set forth in this Section.

(b) The provisions of this Section shall not abridge any rights created by or authority confirmed in the federal Telecommunications Act of 1996, P.L. 104-104.

(c) As used in this Section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) "county jurisdiction area" means those portions of a county that lie outside the corporate limits of cities, villages, and incorporated towns that have municipal zoning ordinances in effect;

(2) "county board" means the county board or board of county commissioners of any county;

(3) "residential zoning district" means a zoning district that is designated under a county zoning ordinance and is zoned predominantly for residential uses;

(4) "non-residential zoning district" means the county jurisdiction area of a county, except for those portions within a residential zoning district;

(5) "residentially zoned lot" means a zoning lot in a residential zoning district;

(6) "non-residentially zoned lot" means a zoning lot in a non-residential zoning district;

(7) "telecommunications carrier" means a telecommunications carrier as defined in the Public Utilities Act as of January 1, 1997;

(8) "facility" means that part of the signal distribution system used or operated by a telecommunications carrier or AM broadcast station under a license from the FCC consisting of a combination of improvements and equipment including (i) one or more antennas, (ii) a supporting structure and the hardware by which antennas are attached; (iii) equipment housing; and (iv) ancillary equipment such as signal transmission cables and miscellaneous hardware;

(9) "FAA" means the Federal Aviation Administration of the United States Department of Transportation;

(10) "FCC" means the Federal Communications Commission;

(11) "antenna" means an antenna device by which radio signals are transmitted, received, or both;

(12) "supporting structure" means a structure, whether an antenna tower or another type of structure, that supports one or more antennas as part of a facility;

(13) "qualifying structure" means a supporting structure that is (i) an existing structure, if the height of the facility, including the structure, is not more than 15 feet higher than the structure just before the facility is installed, or (ii) a substantially similar, substantially same-location replacement of an existing structure, if the height of the facility, including the replacement structure, is not more than 15 feet higher than the height of the existing structure just before the facility is installed;

(14) "equipment housing" means a combination of one or more equipment buildings or enclosures housing equipment that operates in conjunction with the antennas of a facility, and the equipment itself;

(15) "height" of a facility means the total height of the facility's supporting structure and any antennas that will extend above the top of the supporting structure; however, if the supporting structure's foundation extends more than 3 feet above the uppermost ground level along the perimeter of the foundation, then each full foot in excess of 3 feet shall be counted as an additional foot of facility height. The height of a facility's supporting structure is to be measured from the highest point of the supporting structure's foundation;

(16) "facility lot" means the zoning lot on which a facility is or will be located;

(17) "principal residential building" has its common meaning but shall not include any building under the same ownership as the land of the facility lot. "Principal residential building" shall not include any structure that is not designed for human habitation;

(18) "horizontal separation distance" means the distance measured from the center of the base of the facility's supporting structure to the point where the ground meets a vertical wall of a principal residential building;

(19) "lot line set back distance" means the distance measured from the center of the base of the facility's supporting structure to the nearest point on the common lot line between the facility lot and the nearest residentially zoned lot. If there is no common lot line, the measurement shall be made to the nearest point on the lot line of the nearest residentially zoned lot without deducting the width of any intervening right of way; and

(20) "AM broadcast station" means a facility and one or more towers for the purpose of transmitting communication in the 540 kHz to 1700 kHz band for public reception authorized by the FCC.

(d) In choosing a location for a facility, a telecommunications carrier or AM broadcast station shall consider the following:

(1) A non-residentially zoned lot is the most desirable location.

(2) A residentially zoned lot that is not used for residential purposes is the second most desirable location.

(3) A residentially zoned lot that is 2 acres or more in size and is used for residential purposes is the third most desirable location.

(4) A residentially zoned lot that is less than 2 acres in size and is used for residential purposes is the least desirable location.

The size of a lot shall be the lot's gross area in square feet without deduction of any unbuildable or unusable land, any roadway, or any other easement.

(e) In designing a facility, a telecommunications carrier or AM broadcast station shall consider the following guidelines:

(1) No building or tower that is part of a facility should encroach onto any recorded easement prohibiting the encroachment unless the grantees of the easement have given their approval.

(2) Lighting should be installed for security and safety purposes only. Except with respect to lighting required by the FCC or FAA, all lighting should be shielded so that no glare extends substantially beyond the boundaries of a facility.

(3) No facility should encroach onto an existing septic field.

(4) Any facility located in a special flood hazard area or wetland should meet the legal requirements for those lands.

(5) Existing trees more than 3 inches in diameter should be preserved if reasonably feasible during construction. If any tree more than 3 inches in diameter is removed during construction a tree 3 inches or more in diameter of the same or a similar species shall be planted as a replacement if reasonably feasible. Tree diameter shall be measured at a point 3 feet above ground level.

(6) If any elevation of a facility faces an existing, adjoining residential use within a residential zoning district, low maintenance landscaping should be provided on or near the facility lot to provide at least partial screening of the facility. The quantity and type of that landscaping should be in accordance with any county landscaping regulations of general applicability, except that paragraph (5) of this subsection (e) shall control over any tree-related regulations imposing a greater burden.

(7) Fencing should be installed around a facility. The height and materials of the fencing should be in accordance with any county fence regulations of general applicability.

(8) Any building that is part of a facility located adjacent to a residentially zoned lot should be designed with exterior materials and colors that are reasonably compatible with the residential character of the area.

(f) The following provisions shall apply to all facilities established in any county jurisdiction area (i) after the effective date of the amendatory Act of 1997 with respect to telecommunications carriers and (ii) after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly with respect to AM broadcast stations:

(1) Except as provided in this Section, no yard or set back regulations shall apply to or be required for a facility.

(2) A facility may be located on the same zoning lot as one or more other structures or uses without violating any ordinance or regulation that prohibits or limits multiple structures, buildings, or uses on a zoning lot.

(3) No minimum lot area, width, or depth shall be required for a facility, and unless the facility is to be manned on a regular, daily basis, no off-street parking spaces shall be required for a facility. If the facility is to be manned on a regular, daily basis, one off-street parking space shall be provided for each employee regularly at the facility. No loading facilities are required.

(4) No portion of a facility's supporting structure or equipment housing shall be less than 15 feet from the front lot line of the facility lot or less than 10 feet from any other lot line.

(5) No bulk regulations or lot coverage, building coverage, or floor area ratio limitations shall be applied to a facility or to any existing use or structure coincident with the establishment of a facility. Except as provided in this Section, no height limits or restrictions shall apply to a facility.

(6) A county's review of a building permit application for a facility shall be completed within 30 days. If a decision of the county board is required to permit the establishment of a facility, the county's review of the application shall be simultaneous with the process leading to the county board's decision.

(7) The improvements and equipment comprising the facility may be wholly or partly freestanding or wholly or partly attached to, enclosed in, or installed in or on a structure or structures.

(8) Any public hearing authorized under this Section shall be conducted in a manner determined by the county board. Notice of any such public hearing shall be published at least 15 days before the hearing in a newspaper of general circulation published in the county. Notice of any such public hearing shall also be sent by certified mail at least 15 days prior to the hearing to the owners of record of all residential property that is adjacent to the lot upon which the facility is proposed to be sited.

(9) Any decision regarding a facility by the county board or a county agency or official shall be supported by written findings of fact. The circuit court shall have jurisdiction to review the reasonableness of any adverse decision and the plaintiff shall bear the burden of proof, but there shall be no presumption of the validity of the decision.

(10) Thirty days prior to the issuance of a building permit for a facility necessitating the erection of a new tower, the permit applicant shall provide written notice of its intent to construct the facility to the State Representative and the State Senator of the district in which the subject facility is to be constructed and all county board members for the county board district in the county in which the subject facility is to be constructed. This notice shall include, but not be limited to, the following information: (i) the name, address, and telephone number of the company responsible for the construction of the facility; (ii) the name, address, and telephone number of the governmental entity authorized to issue the building permit; and (iii) the location of the proposed facility. The applicant shall demonstrate compliance with the notice requirements set forth in this item (10) by submitting certified mail receipts or equivalent mail service receipts at the same time that the applicant submits the permit application.

(g) The following provisions shall apply to all facilities established (i) after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 with respect to telecommunications carriers and (ii) after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly with respect to AM broadcast stations in the county jurisdiction area of any county with a population of less than 180,000:

(1) A facility is permitted if its supporting structure is a qualifying structure or if both of the following conditions are met:

(A) the height of the facility shall not exceed 200 feet, except that if a facility is located more than one and one-half miles from the corporate limits of any municipality with a population of 25,000 or more the height of the facility shall not exceed 350 feet; and

(B) the horizontal separation distance to the nearest principal residential building shall not be less than the height of the supporting structure; except that if the supporting structure exceeds 99 feet in height, the horizontal separation distance to the nearest principal residential building shall be at least 100 feet or 80% of the height of the supporting structure, whichever is greater. Compliance with this paragraph shall only be evaluated as of the time that a building permit application for the facility is submitted. If the supporting structure is not an antenna tower this paragraph is satisfied.

(2) Unless a facility is permitted under paragraph (1) of this subsection (g), a facility can be established only after the county board gives its approval following consideration of the provisions of paragraph (3) of this subsection (g). The county board may give its approval after one public hearing on the proposal, but only by the favorable vote of a majority of the members present at a meeting held no later than 75 days after submission of a complete application by the telecommunications carrier. If the county board fails to act on the application within 75 days after its submission, the application shall be deemed to have been approved. No more than one public hearing shall be required.

(3) For purposes of paragraph (2) of this subsection (g), the following siting considerations, but no other matter, shall be considered by the county board or any other body conducting the public hearing:

(A) the criteria in subsection (d) of this Section;

(B) whether a substantial adverse effect on public safety will result from some aspect of the facility's design or proposed construction, but only if that aspect of design or construction is modifiable by the applicant;

(C) the benefits to be derived by the users of the services to be provided or enhanced by the facility and whether public safety and emergency response capabilities would benefit by the establishment of the facility;

(D) the existing uses on adjacent and nearby properties; and

(E) the extent to which the design of the proposed facility reflects compliance with subsection (e) of this Section.

(4) On judicial review of an adverse decision, the issue shall be the reasonableness of the county board's decision in light of the evidence presented on the siting considerations and the well-reasoned recommendations of any other body that conducts the public hearing.

(h) The following provisions shall apply to all facilities established after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 in the county jurisdiction area of any county with a population of 180,000 or more. A facility is permitted in any zoning district subject to the following:

(1) A facility shall not be located on a lot under paragraph (4) of subsection (d) unless a variation is granted by the county board under paragraph (4) of this subsection (h).

(2) Unless a height variation is granted by the county board, the height of a facility shall not exceed 75 feet if the facility will be located in a residential zoning district or 200 feet if the facility will be located in a non-residential zoning district. However, the height of a facility may exceed the height limit in this paragraph, and no height variation shall be required, if the supporting structure is a qualifying structure.

(3) The improvements and equipment of the facility shall be placed to comply with the requirements of this paragraph at the time a building permit application for the facility is submitted. If the supporting structure is an antenna tower other than a qualifying structure then (i) if the facility will be located in a residential zoning district the lot line set back distance to the nearest residentially zoned lot shall be at least 50% of the height of the facility's supporting structure or (ii) if the facility will be located in a non-residential zoning district the horizontal separation distance to the nearest principal residential building shall be at least equal to the height of the facility's supporting structure.

(4) The county board may grant variations for any of the regulations, conditions, and restrictions of this subsection (h), after one public hearing on the proposed variations held at a zoning or other appropriate committee meeting with proper notice given as provided in this Section, by a favorable vote of a majority of the members present at a meeting held no later than 75 days after submission of an application by the telecommunications carrier. If the county board fails to act on the application within 75 days after submission, the application shall be deemed to have been approved. In its consideration of an application for variations, the county board, and any other body conducting the public hearing, shall consider the following, and no other matters:

(A) whether, but for the granting of a variation, the service that the telecommunications carrier seeks to enhance or provide with the proposed facility will be less available, impaired, or diminished in quality, quantity, or scope of coverage;

(B) whether the conditions upon which the application for variations is based are unique in some respect or, if not, whether the strict application of the regulations would result in a hardship on the telecommunications carrier;

(C) whether a substantial adverse effect on public safety will result from some aspect of the facility's design or proposed construction, but only if that aspect of design or construction is modifiable by the applicant;

(D) whether there are benefits to be derived by the users of the services to be provided or enhanced by the facility and whether public safety and emergency response capabilities would benefit by the establishment of the facility; and

(E) the extent to which the design of the proposed facility reflects compliance with subsection (e) of this Section.

No more than one public hearing shall be required.

(5) On judicial review of an adverse decision, the issue shall be the reasonableness of the county board's decision in light of the evidence presented and the well-reasoned recommendations of any other body that conducted the public hearing.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 30 days prior to the issuance of any permits for a new telecommunications facility within a county, the telecommunications carrier constructing the facility shall provide written notice of its intent to construct the facility. The notice shall include, but not be limited to, the following information: (i) the name, address, and telephone number of the company responsible for the construction of the facility, (ii) the address and telephone number of the governmental entity that is to issue the building permit for the telecommunications facility, (iii) a site plan and site map of sufficient specificity to indicate both the location of the parcel where the telecommunications facility is to be constructed and the location of all the telecommunications facilities within that parcel, and (iv) the property index number and common address of the parcel where the telecommunications facility is to be located. The notice shall not contain any material that appears to be an advertisement for the telecommunications carrier or any services provided by the telecommunications carrier. The notice shall be provided in person, by overnight private courier, or by certified mail to all owners of property within 250 feet of the parcel in which the telecommunications carrier has a leasehold or ownership interest. For the purposes of this notice requirement, "owners" means those persons or entities identified from the authentic tax records of the county in which the telecommunications facility is to be located. If, after a bona fide effort by the telecommunications carrier to determine the owner and his or her address, the owner of the property on whom the notice must be served cannot be found at the owner's last known address, or if the mailed notice is returned because the owner cannot be found at the last known address, the notice requirement of this paragraph is deemed satisfied.

(Source: P.A. 96-696, eff. 1-1-10; 97-242, eff. 8-4-11; 97-496, eff. 8-22-11; revised 9-28-11.)

Section 195. The County Care for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act is amended by changing Sections 1.1 and 1.2 as follows:

(55 ILCS 105/1.1)

Sec. 1.1. Petition for submission to referendum by county.

(a) If, on and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the county board passes an ordinance or resolution as provided in Section 1 of this Act asking that an annual tax may be levied for the purpose of providing facilities or services set forth in that Section and so instructs the county clerk, the clerk shall certify the proposition to the proper election officials for submission at the next general county election. The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

Shall ..... County levy an annual tax not to exceed 0.1% upon the equalized assessed value of all taxable property in the county for the purposes of providing facilities or services for the benefit of its residents who are intellectually disabled or under a developmental disability and who are not eligible to participate in any program provided under Article 14 of the School Code, 105 ILCS 5/14-1.01 105 ILCS 5/14.1-1.01 et seq., including contracting for those facilities or services with any privately or publicly operated entity that provides those facilities or services either in or out of the county?

(b) If a majority of the votes cast upon the proposition are in favor thereof, such tax levy shall be authorized and the county shall levy a tax not to exceed the rate set forth in Section 1 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1350, eff. 7-28-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-18-11.)

(55 ILCS 105/1.2)

Sec. 1.2. Petition for submission to referendum by electors.

(a) Whenever a petition for submission to referendum by the electors which requests the establishment and maintenance of facilities or services for the benefit of its residents with a developmental disability and the levy of an annual tax not to exceed 0.1% upon all the taxable property in the county at the value thereof, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, is signed by electors of the county equal in number to at least 10% of the total votes cast for the office that received the greatest total number of votes at the last preceding general county election and is presented to the county clerk, the clerk shall certify the proposition to the proper election authorities for submission at the next general county election. The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

Shall ..... County levy an annual tax not to exceed 0.1% upon the equalized assessed value of all taxable property in the county for the purposes of establishing and maintaining facilities or services for the benefit of its residents who are intellectually disabled or under a developmental disability and who are not eligible to participate in any program provided under Article 14 of the School Code, 105 ILCS 5/14-1.01 105 ILCS 5/14.1-1.01 et seq., including contracting for those facilities or services with any privately or publicly operated entity that provides those facilities or services either in or out of the county?

(b) If a majority of the votes cast upon the proposition are in favor thereof, such tax levy shall be authorized and the county shall levy a tax not to exceed the rate set forth in Section 1 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1350, eff. 7-28-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 200. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 8-11-1.7, 10-2.1-4, 10-4-2.3, 11-23-4, 11-124-5, and 11-126-4 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-1.7)

Sec. 8-11-1.7. Non-home rule municipal service occupation tax; municipalities between 20,000 and 25,000. The corporate authorities of a non-home rule municipality with a population of more than 20,000 but less than 25,000 as determined by the last preceding decennial census that has, prior to January 1, 1987, established a Redevelopment Project Area that has been certified as a State Sales Tax Boundary and has issued bonds or otherwise incurred indebtedness to pay for costs in excess of $5,000,000, which is secured in part by a tax increment allocation fund, in accordance with the provisions of Division 11-74.4 11-74.7 of this Code may, by passage of an ordinance, impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the municipality in the business of making sales of service. If imposed, the tax shall only be imposed in .25% increments of the selling price of all tangible personal property transferred by such servicemen either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. This tax may not be imposed on the sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics. The tax imposed by a municipality under this Sec. and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. An ordinance imposing a tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted under this Section without registering separately with the Department under the ordinance or resolution or under this Section. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section, to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in a manner hereinafter provided, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2, 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the taxing municipality), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the taxing municipality), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this municipal tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12, (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the taxing municipality), the first paragraph of Sections 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

A tax may not be imposed by a municipality under this Section unless the municipality also imposes a tax at the same rate under Section 8-11-1.6 of this Act.

Person subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their servicemen's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, under such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in such notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Non-Home Rule Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named municipalities, the municipalities to be those from which suppliers and servicemen have paid taxes or penalties hereunder to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such municipality, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the municipalities and the General Revenue Fund, provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a municipality under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a municipality to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(Source: P.A. 96-939, eff. 6-24-10; revised 11-18-11.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-4) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-2.1-4)

Sec. 10-2.1-4. Fire and police departments; Appointment of members; Certificates of appointments.

The board of fire and police commissioners shall appoint all officers and members of the fire and police departments of the municipality, including the chief of police and the chief of the fire department, unless the council or board of trustees shall by ordinance as to them otherwise provide; except as otherwise provided in this Section, and except that in any municipality which adopts or has adopted this Division 2.1 and also adopts or has adopted Article 5 of this Code, the chief of police and the chief of the fire department shall be appointed by the municipal manager, if it is provided by ordinance in such municipality that such chiefs, or either of them, shall not be appointed by the board of fire and police commissioners.

If the chief of the fire department or the chief of the police department or both of them are appointed in the manner provided by ordinance, they may be removed or discharged by the appointing authority. In such case the appointing authority shall file with the corporate authorities the reasons for such removal or discharge, which removal or discharge shall not become effective unless confirmed by a majority vote of the corporate authorities.

If a member of the department is appointed chief of police or chief of the fire department prior to being eligible to retire on pension, he shall be considered as on furlough from the rank he held immediately prior to his appointment as chief. If he resigns as chief or is discharged as chief prior to attaining eligibility to retire on pension, he shall revert to and be established in whatever rank he currently holds, except for previously appointed positions, and thereafter be entitled to all the benefits and emoluments of that rank, without regard as to whether a vacancy then exists in that rank.

All appointments to each department other than that of the lowest rank, however, shall be from the rank next below that to which the appointment is made except as otherwise provided in this Section, and except that the chief of police and the chief of the fire department may be appointed from among members of the police and fire departments, respectively, regardless of rank, unless the council or board of trustees shall have by ordinance as to them otherwise provided. A chief of police or the chief of the fire department, having been appointed from among members of the police or fire department, respectively, shall be permitted, regardless of rank, to take promotional exams and be promoted to a higher classified rank than he currently holds, without having to resign as chief of police or chief of the fire department.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the Board of Fire and Police Commissioners and all certificates of appointments issued to any officer or member of the fire or police department of a municipality shall be signed by the chairman and secretary respectively of the board of fire and police commissioners of such municipality, upon appointment of such officer or member of the fire and police department of such municipality by action of the board of fire and police commissioners. In any municipal fire department that employs full-time firefighters and is subject to a collective bargaining agreement, a person who has not qualified for regular appointment under the provisions of this Division 2.1 shall not be used as a temporary or permanent substitute for classified members of a municipality's fire department or for regular appointment as a classified member of a municipality's fire department unless mutually agreed to by the employee's certified bargaining agent. Such agreement shall be considered a permissive subject of bargaining. Municipal fire departments covered by the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that are using non-certificated employees as substitutes immediately prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly may, by mutual agreement with the certified bargaining agent, continue the existing practice or a modified practice and that agreement shall be considered a permissive subject of bargaining. A home rule unit may not regulate the hiring of temporary or substitute members of the municipality's fire department in a manner that is inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

The term "policemen" as used in this Division does not include auxiliary police officers except as provided for in Section 10-2.1-6.

Any full time member of a regular fire or police department of any municipality which comes under the provisions of this Division or adopts this Division 2.1 or which has adopted any of the prior Acts pertaining to fire and police commissioners, is a city officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the Chief of Police of a department in a non-home rule non-homerule municipality of more than 130,000 inhabitants may, without the advice or consent of the Board of Fire and Police Commissioners, appoint up to 6 officers who shall be known as deputy chiefs or assistant deputy chiefs, and whose rank shall be immediately below that of Chief. The deputy or assistant deputy chiefs may be appointed from any rank of sworn officers of that municipality, but no person who is not such a sworn officer may be so appointed. Such deputy chief or assistant deputy chief shall have the authority to direct and issue orders to all employees of the Department holding the rank of captain or any lower rank. A deputy chief of police or assistant deputy chief of police, having been appointed from any rank of sworn officers of that municipality, shall be permitted, regardless of rank, to take promotional exams and be promoted to a higher classified rank than he currently holds, without having to resign as deputy chief of police or assistant deputy chief of police.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a non-home rule non-homerule municipality of 130,000 or fewer inhabitants, through its council or board of trustees, may, by ordinance, provide for a position of deputy chief to be appointed by the chief of the police department. The ordinance shall provide for no more than one deputy chief position if the police department has fewer than 25 full-time police officers and for no more than 2 deputy chief positions if the police department has 25 or more full-time police officers. The deputy chief position shall be an exempt rank immediately below that of Chief. The deputy chief may be appointed from any rank of sworn, full-time officers of the municipality's police department, but must have at least 5 years of full-time service as a police officer in that department. A deputy chief shall serve at the discretion of the Chief and, if removed from the position, shall revert to the rank currently held, without regard as to whether a vacancy exists in that rank. A deputy chief of police, having been appointed from any rank of sworn full-time officers of that municipality's police department, shall be permitted, regardless of rank, to take promotional exams and be promoted to a higher classified rank than he currently holds, without having to resign as deputy chief of police.

No municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year. The limitation on periods of probationary employment provided in this amendatory Act of 1989 is an exclusive power and function of the State. Pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 must comply with this limitation on periods of probationary employment, which is a denial and limitation of home rule powers. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a certified paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic certification.

To the extent that this Section or any other Section in this Division conflicts with Section 10-2.1-6.3 or 10-2.1-6.4, then Section 10-2.1-6.3 or 10-2.1-6.4 shall control.

(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; revised 11-18-11.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-4-2.3)

Sec. 10-4-2.3. Required health benefits. If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, and 356z.15 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections Section 155.22a and 356z.19 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule municipality to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 96-139, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-14-11.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-23-4) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-23-4)

Sec. 11-23-4. When such a city council has decided to establish and maintain, or to purchase and maintain, a public hospital under this Division 23, the mayor, with the approval of the city council, shall appoint a board of 3 directors for the hospital.

One of the directors shall hold office for one year, one for 2 years, and one for 3 years, from the first day of July following their appointments. At their first regular meeting the directors shall cast lots for the respective terms. Before the first day of July each year thereafter, the mayor, with the approval of the city council, shall appoint one director to take the place of the retiring director, who shall hold office for 3 years, and until his successor is appointed.

The city council may, by resolution, increase the membership of the board to 5 directors. Such resolution shall not affect effect the terms of the incumbent directors. Before the first day of July following the adoption of such resolution the mayor with the approval of the city council, shall appoint 3 directors, one to succeed the incumbent whose term expires and the 2 additional provided for in the resolution, for terms of 3, 4 and 5 years from July 1 of the year of the appointment. Thereafter, upon the expiration of the term of any director his successor shall be appointed for a term of 5 years and until his successor is appointed for a like term.

If the city council has, by previous resolution, increased the membership of the board to 5 directors, the city council may by new resolution increase the membership of the board by 2 new members in any one year up to a maximum of 11 directors. Such new resolution shall not affect the terms of incumbent directors. Before the first day of July following the adoption of the new resolution the mayor with the approval of the city council shall appoint a sufficient number of directors so that there will be a successor for the full term of each incumbent whose term expires, and the 2 additional provided for in the resolution for terms of 4 and 5 years from July 1 of the year of appointment. Thereafter, upon the expiration of the term of any director, his successor shall be appointed for a term of 5 years and until his successor is appointed and qualified for a like term.

The mayor, with the consent of the city council, may remove any director for misconduct or neglect of duty. Vacancies in the board of directors, however occasioned, shall be filled for the unexpired term in like manner as original appointments. No director shall receive compensation for serving as a director. No director shall be interested, either directly or indirectly, in the purchase or sale of any supplies for the hospital.

(Source: P.A. 86-739; revised 11-18-11.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-124-5)

Sec. 11-124-5. Acquisition of water systems by eminent domain.

(a) In addition to other provisions providing for the acquisition of water systems or water works, whenever a public utility subject to the Public Utilities Act utilizes public property (including, but not limited to, right-of-way) of a municipality for the installation or maintenance of all or part of its water distribution system, the municipality has the right to exercise eminent domain to acquire all or part of the water system, in accordance with this Section. Unless it complies with the provisions set forth in this Section, a municipality is not permitted to acquire by eminent domain that portion of a system located in another incorporated municipality without agreement of that municipality, but this provision shall not prevent the acquisition of that portion of the water system existing within the acquiring municipality.

(b) Where a water system that is owned by a public utility (as defined in the Public 16 Utilities Act) provides water to customers located in 2 or more municipalities, the system may be acquired by a majority of the municipalities by eminent domain. If the system is to be acquired by more than one municipality, then there must be an intergovernmental agreement in existence between the acquiring municipalities providing for the acquisition.

(c) If a water system that is owned by a public utility provides water to customers located in one or more municipalities and also to customers in an unincorporated area and if at least 70% of the customers of the system or portion thereof are located within the municipality or municipalities, then the system, or portion thereof as determined by the corporate authorities, may be acquired, using eminent domain or otherwise, by either a municipality under subsection (a) or an entity created by agreement between municipalities where at least 70% of the customers reside. For the purposes of determining "customers of the system", only retail customers directly billed by the company shall be included in the computation. The number of customers of the system most recently reported to the Illinois Commerce Commission for any calendar year preceding the year a resolution is passed by a municipality or municipalities expressing preliminary intent to purchase the water system or portion thereof shall be presumed to be the total number of customers within the system. The public utility shall provide information relative to the number of customers within each municipality and within the system within 60 days after any such request by a municipality.

(d) In the case of acquisition by a municipality or municipalities or a public entity created by law to own or operate a water system under this Section, service and water supply must be provided to persons who are customers of the system on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly without discrimination based on whether the customer is located within or outside of the boundaries of the acquiring municipality or municipalities or entity, and a supply contract existing on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly must be honored by an acquiring municipality, municipalities, or entity according to the terms so long as the agreement does not conflict with any other existing agreement.

(e) For the purposes of this Section, "system" includes all assets reasonably necessary to provide water service to a contiguous or compact geographical service area or to an area served by a common pipeline and include, but are not limited to, interests in real estate, all wells, pipes, treatment plants, pumps and other physical apparatus, data and records of facilities and customers, fire hydrants, equipment, or vehicles and also includes service agreements and obligations derived from use of the assets, whether or not the assets are contiguous to the municipality, municipalities, or entity created for the purpose of owning or operating a water system.

(f) Before making a good faith offer, a municipality may pass a resolution of intent to study the feasibility of purchasing or exercising its power of eminent domain to acquire any water system or water works, sewer system or sewer works, or combined water and sewer system or works, or part thereof. Upon the passage of such a resolution, the municipality shall have the right to review and inspect all financial and other records, and both corporeal and incorporeal assets of such utility related to the condition and the operation of the system or works, or part thereof, as part of the study and determination of feasibility of the proposed acquisition by purchase or exercise of the power of eminent domain, and the utility shall make knowledgeable persons who have access to all relevant facts and information regarding the subject system or works available to answer inquiries related to the study and determination.

The right to review and inspect shall be upon reasonable notice to the utility, with reasonable inspection and review time limitations and reasonable response times for production, copying, and answer. In addition, the utility may utilize a reasonable security protocol for personnel on the municipality's physical inspection team.

In the absence of other agreement, the utility must respond to any notice by the municipality concerning its review and inspection within 21 days after receiving the notice. The review and inspection of the assets of the company shall be over such period of time and carried out in such manner as is reasonable under the circumstances.

Information requested that is not privileged or protected from discovery under the Illinois Code of Civil Procedure but is reasonably claimed to be proprietary, including, without limitation, information that constitutes trade secrets or information that involves system security concerns, shall be provided, but shall not be considered a public record and shall be kept confidential by the municipality.

In addition, the municipality must, upon request, reimburse the utility for the actual, reasonable costs and expenses, excluding attorneys' fees, incurred by the utility as a result of the municipality's inspection and requests for information. Upon written request, the utility shall issue a statement itemizing, with reasonable detail, the costs and expenses for which reimbursement is sought by the utility. Where such written request for a statement has been made, no payment shall be required until 30 days after receipt of the statement. Such reimbursement by the municipality shall be considered income for purposes of any rate proceeding or other financial request before the Illinois Commerce Commission by the utility.

The municipality and the utility shall cooperate to resolve any dispute arising under this subsection. In the event the dispute under this subsection cannot be resolved, either party may request relief from the circuit court in any county in which the water system is located, with the prevailing party to be awarded such relief as the court deems appropriate under the discovery abuse sanctions currently set forth in the Illinois Code of Civil Procedure.

The municipality's right to inspect physical assets and records in connection with the purpose of this Section shall not be exercised with respect to any system more than one time during a 5-year period, unless a substantial change in the size of the system or condition of the operating assets of the system has occurred since the previous inspection. Rights under franchise agreements and other agreements or statutory or regulatory provisions are not limited by this Section and are preserved.

The passage of time between an inspection of the utilities and physical assets and the making of a good faith offer or initiation of an eminent domain action because of the limit placed on inspections by this subsection shall not be used as a basis for challenging the good faith of any offer or be used as the basis for attacking any appraisal, expert, argument, or position before a court related to an acquisition by purchase or eminent domain.

(g) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Illinois Commerce Commission has no approval authority of any eminent domain action brought by any governmental entity or combination of such entities to acquire water systems or water works.

(h) The provisions of this Section are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(i) This Section does not apply to any public utility company that, on January 1, 2006, supplied a total of 70,000 or fewer meter connections in the State unless and until (i) that public utility company receives approval from the Illinois Commerce Commission under Section 7-204 of the Public Utilities Act for the reorganization of the public utility company or (ii) the majority control of the company changes through a stock sale, a sale of assets, a merger (other than an internal reorganization) or otherwise. For the purpose of this Section, "public utility company" means the public utility providing water service and includes any of its corporate parents, subsidiaries, or affiliates possessing a franchised water service in the State.

(j) Any contractor or subcontractor that performs work on a water system acquired by a municipality or municipalities under this Section shall comply with the requirements of Section 30-22 of the Illinois Procurement Code. The contractor or subcontractor shall submit evidence of compliance with Section 30-22 to the municipality or municipalities.

(k) The municipality or municipalities acquiring the water system shall offer available employee positions to the qualified employees of the acquired water system.

(Source: P.A. 97-586, eff. 8-26-11; revised 11-18-11.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-126-4) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-126-4)

Sec. 11-126-4. The corporate authorities of each municipality may make make and enforce all needful rules and regulations in the construction and management of such a system of waterworks, and for the use of the water supplied thereby.

The corporate authorities of each municipality also may make and enforce all needful rules, regulations, and enact ordinances for the improvement, care, and protection from pollution or other injury of any impounding reservoir or artificial lake constructed or maintained by the municipality for water supply purposes and any adjacent zone of land which the municipality may acquire or control. If the leasing of portions of such adjacent zone of land will, in the discretion of the corporate authorities, aid in the protection from pollution or other injury of the impounding reservoir or artificial lake by promoting forestation, development or care of other suitable vegetation, and the improvement, care and maintenance of the premises, the corporate authorities may lease those portions of that land jointly or severally to custodians of good reputation and character for periods not to exceed 60 years, and permit those custodians to construct, maintain, use, and occupy dwelling houses and other structures thereon for such rental and on such other terms and conditions and subject to such rules and regulations and with such powers and duties as may be determined by the corporate authorities.

The corporate authorities of each municipality have the power to fix and collect from the inhabitants thereof the rent or rates for the use and benefit of water used or supplied to them by such a system of waterworks, as the corporate authorities shall deem just and expedient. These rents or rates shall be paid and collected in such manner as the corporate authorities by ordinance shall provide. Such charges, rents, or rates are liens upon the real estate upon or for which water service is supplied whenever the charges, rents, or rates become delinquent as provided by the ordinance of the municipality fixing a delinquency date. However, the municipality has no preference over the rights of any purchaser, mortgagee, judgment creditor, or other lien holder arising prior to the filing of the notice of such a lien in the office of the recorder of the county in which such real estate is located, or in the office of the registrar of titles of such county if the property affected is registered under "An Act concerning land titles", approved May 1, 1897, as amended. This notice shall consist of a sworn statement setting out (1) a description of such real estate sufficient for the identification thereof, (2) the amount of money due for such water service, and (3) the date when such amount became delinquent. The municipality may foreclose this lien in the same manner and with the same effect as in the foreclosure of mortgages on real estate.

(Source: P.A. 83-358; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 205. The Civic Center Code is amended by changing Section 205-100 as follows:

(70 ILCS 200/205-100)

Sec. 205-100. Partial invalidity. The provisions of this Article and the applications thereof to any person or circumstance are declared to be severable.

If any Section, clause, sentence, paragraph, part or provision of this Article shall be held to be invalid by any court, it shall be conclusively presumed that the remaining portions of this Article would have been passed by the Legislature without such invalid Section, clause, sentence, paragraph, part or provision.

If the application of any Section, clause, sentence, paragraph, part or provision of this Article to any person or circumstances is held invalid, such invalidity shall not affect effect the application thereof to other persons or circumstances.

(Source: P.A. 90-328, eff. 1-1-98; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 210. The Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act is amended by changing Section 28 as follows:

(70 ILCS 210/28) (from Ch. 85, par. 1248)

Sec. 28. If any provision of this Act is held invalid such provision shall be deemed to be excised from this Act act and the invalidity thereof shall not affect effect any of the other provisions of this Act. If the application of any provision of this Act to any person or circumstance is held invalid, it shall not affect the application of such provision to such persons or circumstances other than those as to which it is held invalid.

(Source: Laws 1955, p. 1125; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 215. The Soil and Water Conservation Districts Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 6 as follows:

(70 ILCS 405/3) (from Ch. 5, par. 108)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context clearly otherwise requires, the terms defined in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 4 Sections 3.01 through 3.30 have the meanings ascribed to them in those Sections.

(Source: P.A. 81-1509; revised 11-18-11.)

(70 ILCS 405/6) (from Ch. 5, par. 111)

Sec. 6. Powers and duties. In addition to the powers and duties otherwise conferred upon the Department, it shall have the following powers and duties:

(1) To offer such assistance as may be appropriate to the directors of soil and water conservation districts, organized as provided hereinafter, in the carrying out of any of the powers and programs.

(2) To keep the directors of each of said several districts informed of the activities and experience of other such districts, and to facilitate an interchange of advice and experience between such districts and cooperation between them.

(3) To coordinate the programs of the several districts so far as this may be done by advice and consultation.

(4) To seek the cooperation and assistance of the United States and of agencies of this State, in the work of such districts.

(5) To disseminate information throughout the State concerning the formation of such districts, and to assist in the formation of such districts in areas where their organization is desirable.

(6) To consider, review, and express its opinion concerning any rules, regulations, ordinances or other action of the board of directors of any district and to advise such board of directors accordingly.

(7) To prepare and submit to the Director of the Department an annual budget.

(8) To develop and coordinate a comprehensive State erosion and sediment control program, including guidelines to be used by districts in implementing this program. In developing this program, the Department may consult with and request technical assistance from local, State and federal agencies, and may consult and advise with technically qualified persons and with the soil and water conservation districts. The guidelines developed may be revised from time to time as necessary.

(9) To promote among its members the management of marginal agricultural and other rural lands for forestry, consistent with the goals and purposes of the "Illinois Forestry Development Act".

Nothing in this Act shall authorize the Department or any district to regulate or control point source discharges to waters.

(10) To make grants subject to annual appropriation from the the Build Illinois Bond Fund or any other sources, including the federal government, to Soil and Water Conservation Districts and the Soil Conservation Service.

(11) To provide payment for outstanding health care costs of Soil and Water Conservation District employees incurred between January 1, 1996 and December 31, 1996 that were eligible for reimbursement from the District's insurance carrier, Midcontinent Medical Benefit Trust, but have not been paid to date by Midcontinent. All claims shall be filed with the Department on or before January 30, 1998 to be considered for payment under the provisions of this amendatory Act of 1997. The Department shall approve or reject claims based upon documentation and in accordance with established procedures. The authority granted under this item (11) expires on September 1, 1998.

Nothing in this Act shall authorize the Department in any district to regulate or curtail point source discharges to waters.

(Source: P.A. 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 220. The Illinois International Port District Act is amended by changing Section 26 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1810/26) (from Ch. 19, par. 177)

Sec. 26. If any provision of this Act is held invalid such provision shall be deemed to be exercised from this Act and the invalidity thereof shall not affect effect any of the other provisions of this Act. If the application of any provision of this Act to any person or circumstance is held invalid it shall not affect the application of such persons or circumstances other than those as to which it is invalid. The provisions of this Act shall not be considered as impairing, altering, modifying, repealing or superseding any of the jurisdiction or powers of the Illinois Commerce Commission or of the Department of Natural Resources under the Rivers, Lakes, and Streams Act. Nothing in this Act or done under its authority shall apply to, restrict, limit or interfere with the use of any terminal, terminal facility or port facility owned or operated by any private person for the storage or handling or transfer of any commodity moving in interstate commerce or the use of the land and facilities of a common carrier or other public utility and the space above such land and facilities or the right to use such land and such facilities in the business of such common carrier or other public utility, without approval of the Illinois Commerce Commission and without the payment of just compensation to any such common carrier or other public utility for damages resulting from any such restriction, limitation or interference.

(Source: P.A. 89-445, eff. 2-7-96; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 225. The Regional Transportation Authority Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 2.37 and by changing Section 4.03 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3615/2.37)

Sec. 2.37. Wireless Internet study. By January 1, 2012, the Authority must prepare and submit a report to the Governor and General Assembly regarding the feasibility of providing wireless Internet services on all fixed-route public transportation services.

(Source: P.A. 97-85, eff. 7-7-11.)

(70 ILCS 3615/2.38)

Sec. 2.38 2.37. Universal fare instrument for persons age 65 and over. No later than 120 days after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-271) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the Authority must develop and make available for use by riders age 65 and over a universal fare instrument that may be used interchangeably on all public transportation funded by the Authority, except for ADA paratransit services.

(Source: P.A. 97-271, eff. 1-1-12; revised 8-11-11.)

(70 ILCS 3615/4.03) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 704.03)

Sec. 4.03. Taxes.

(a) In order to carry out any of the powers or purposes of the Authority, the Board may by ordinance adopted with the concurrence of 12 of the then Directors, impose throughout the metropolitan region any or all of the taxes provided in this Section. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, taxes imposed under this Section and civil penalties imposed incident thereto shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have the power to administer and enforce the taxes and to determine all rights for refunds for erroneous payments of the taxes. Nothing in this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly is intended to invalidate any taxes currently imposed by the Authority. The increased vote requirements to impose a tax shall only apply to actions taken after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(b) The Board may impose a public transportation tax upon all persons engaged in the metropolitan region in the business of selling at retail motor fuel for operation of motor vehicles upon public highways. The tax shall be at a rate not to exceed 5% of the gross receipts from the sales of motor fuel in the course of the business. As used in this Act, the term "motor fuel" shall have the same meaning as in the Motor Fuel Tax Law. The Board may provide for details of the tax. The provisions of any tax shall conform, as closely as may be practicable, to the provisions of the Municipal Retailers Occupation Tax Act, including without limitation, conformity to penalties with respect to the tax imposed and as to the powers of the State Department of Revenue to promulgate and enforce rules and regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of the tax imposed, except that reference in the Act to any municipality shall refer to the Authority and the tax shall be imposed only with regard to receipts from sales of motor fuel in the metropolitan region, at rates as limited by this Section.

(c) In connection with the tax imposed under paragraph (b) of this Section the Board may impose a tax upon the privilege of using in the metropolitan region motor fuel for the operation of a motor vehicle upon public highways, the tax to be at a rate not in excess of the rate of tax imposed under paragraph (b) of this Section. The Board may provide for details of the tax.

(d) The Board may impose a motor vehicle parking tax upon the privilege of parking motor vehicles at off-street parking facilities in the metropolitan region at which a fee is charged, and may provide for reasonable classifications in and exemptions to the tax, for administration and enforcement thereof and for civil penalties and refunds thereunder and may provide criminal penalties thereunder, the maximum penalties not to exceed the maximum criminal penalties provided in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The Authority may collect and enforce the tax itself or by contract with any unit of local government. The State Department of Revenue shall have no responsibility for the collection and enforcement unless the Department agrees with the Authority to undertake the collection and enforcement. As used in this paragraph, the term "parking facility" means a parking area or structure having parking spaces for more than 2 vehicles at which motor vehicles are permitted to park in return for an hourly, daily, or other periodic fee, whether publicly or privately owned, but does not include parking spaces on a public street, the use of which is regulated by parking meters.

(e) The Board may impose a Regional Transportation Authority Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in the metropolitan region. In Cook County the tax rate shall be 1.25% of the gross receipts from sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics, and 1% of the gross receipts from other taxable sales made in the course of that business. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will Counties, the tax rate shall be 0.75% of the gross receipts from all taxable sales made in the course of that business. The tax imposed under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1c, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (e), a tax shall also be imposed under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section.

For the purpose of determining whether a tax authorized under this Section is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois, is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the Federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

No tax shall be imposed or collected under this subsection on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state if that motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the Regional Transportation Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(f) If a tax has been imposed under paragraph (e), a Regional Transportation Authority Service Occupation Tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged, in the metropolitan region in the business of making sales of service, who as an incident to making the sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the metropolitan region, either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. In Cook County, the tax rate shall be: (1) 1.25% of the serviceman's cost price of food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to the service occupation tax by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act that is located in the metropolitan region; (2) 1.25% of the selling price of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics; and (3) 1% of the selling price from other taxable sales of tangible personal property transferred. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry and Will Counties the rate shall be 0.75% of the selling price of all tangible personal property transferred.

The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2, 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the Authority), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the Authority), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the Authority), the first paragraph of Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, that charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize the Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(g) If a tax has been imposed under paragraph (e), a tax shall also be imposed upon the privilege of using in the metropolitan region, any item of tangible personal property that is purchased outside the metropolitan region at retail from a retailer, and that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. In Cook County the tax rate shall be 1% of the selling price of the tangible personal property, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry and Will counties the tax rate shall be 0.75% of the selling price of the tangible personal property, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. The tax shall be collected from persons whose Illinois address for titling or registration purposes is given as being in the metropolitan region. The tax shall be collected by the Department of Revenue for the Regional Transportation Authority. The tax must be paid to the State, or an exemption determination must be obtained from the Department of Revenue, before the title or certificate of registration for the property may be issued. The tax or proof of exemption may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or the State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered if the Department and the State agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes, penalties and interest due hereunder; to dispose of taxes, penalties and interest collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda or refunds arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax, penalty or interest hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except the definition of "retailer maintaining a place of business in this State"), 3 through 3-80 (except provisions pertaining to the State rate of tax, and except provisions concerning collection or refunding of the tax by retailers), 4, 11, 12, 12a, 14, 15, 19 (except the portions pertaining to claims by retailers and except the last paragraph concerning refunds), 20, 21 and 22 of the Use Tax Act, and are not inconsistent with this paragraph, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section.

(h) The Authority may impose a replacement vehicle tax of $50 on any passenger car as defined in Section 1-157 of the Illinois Vehicle Code purchased within the metropolitan region by or on behalf of an insurance company to replace a passenger car of an insured person in settlement of a total loss claim. The tax imposed may not become effective before the first day of the month following the passage of the ordinance imposing the tax and receipt of a certified copy of the ordinance by the Department of Revenue. The Department of Revenue shall collect the tax for the Authority in accordance with Sections 3-2002 and 3-2003 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the Authority. The amount to be paid to the Authority shall be the amount collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less any amount determined by the Department to be necessary for the payment of refunds, and less any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the Authority provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for that amount in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

(i) The Board may not impose any other taxes except as it may from time to time be authorized by law to impose.

(j) A certificate of registration issued by the State Department of Revenue to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxed under the tax imposed under paragraphs (b), (e), (f) or (g) of this Section and no additional registration shall be required under the tax. A certificate issued under the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act shall be applicable with regard to any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section.

(k) The provisions of any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section shall conform as closely as may be practicable to the provisions of the Use Tax Act, including without limitation conformity as to penalties with respect to the tax imposed and as to the powers of the State Department of Revenue to promulgate and enforce rules and regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of the tax imposed. The taxes shall be imposed only on use within the metropolitan region and at rates as provided in the paragraph.

(l) The Board in imposing any tax as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Section, shall, after seeking the advice of the State Department of Revenue, provide means for retailers, users or purchasers of motor fuel for purposes other than those with regard to which the taxes may be imposed as provided in those paragraphs to receive refunds of taxes improperly paid, which provisions may be at variance with the refund provisions as applicable under the Municipal Retailers Occupation Tax Act. The State Department of Revenue may provide for certificates of registration for users or purchasers of motor fuel for purposes other than those with regard to which taxes may be imposed as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Section to facilitate the reporting and nontaxability of the exempt sales or uses.

(m) Any ordinance imposing or discontinuing any tax under this Section shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before June 1, whereupon the Department of Revenue shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section on behalf of the Regional Transportation Authority as of September 1 next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, an ordinance or resolution imposing, increasing, decreasing, or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of the first month to occur not less than 60 days following such adoption and filing. Any ordinance or resolution of the Authority imposing a tax under this Section and in effect on August 1, 2007 shall remain in full force and effect and shall be administered by the Department of Revenue under the terms and conditions and rates of tax established by such ordinance or resolution until the Department begins administering and enforcing an increased tax under this Section as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. The tax rates authorized by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly are effective only if imposed by ordinance of the Authority.

(n) The State Department of Revenue shall, upon collecting any taxes as provided in this Section, pay the taxes over to the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority. The taxes shall be held in a trust fund outside the State Treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the State Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller of the State of Illinois and to the Authority (i) the amount of taxes collected in each County other than Cook County in the metropolitan region, (ii) the amount of taxes collected within the City of Chicago, and (iii) the amount collected in that portion of Cook County outside of Chicago, each amount less the amount necessary for the payment of refunds to taxpayers located in those areas described in items (i), (ii), and (iii). Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the certification of the amounts, the Comptroller shall cause an order to be drawn for the payment of two-thirds of the amounts certified in item (i) of this subsection to the Authority and one-third of the amounts certified in item (i) of this subsection to the respective counties other than Cook County and the amount certified in items (ii) and (iii) of this subsection to the Authority.

In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding paragraph, an allocation shall be made in July 1991 and each year thereafter to the Regional Transportation Authority. The allocation shall be made in an amount equal to the average monthly distribution during the preceding calendar year (excluding the 2 months of lowest receipts) and the allocation shall include the amount of average monthly distribution from the Regional Transportation Authority Occupation and Use Tax Replacement Fund. The distribution made in July 1992 and each year thereafter under this paragraph and the preceding paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in accordance with this paragraph.

(o) Failure to adopt a budget ordinance or otherwise to comply with Section 4.01 of this Act or to adopt a Five-year Capital Program or otherwise to comply with paragraph (b) of Section 2.01 of this Act shall not affect the validity of any tax imposed by the Authority otherwise in conformity with law.

(p) At no time shall a public transportation tax or motor vehicle parking tax authorized under paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of this Section be in effect at the same time as any retailers' occupation, use or service occupation tax authorized under paragraphs (e), (f) and (g) of this Section is in effect.

Any taxes imposed under the authority provided in paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) shall remain in effect only until the time as any tax authorized by paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) of this Section are imposed and becomes effective. Once any tax authorized by paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) is imposed the Board may not reimpose taxes as authorized in paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of the Section unless any tax authorized by paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) of this Section becomes ineffective by means other than an ordinance of the Board.

(q) Any existing rights, remedies and obligations (including enforcement by the Regional Transportation Authority) arising under any tax imposed under paragraphs (b), (c) or (d) of this Section shall not be affected by the imposition of a tax under paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-939, eff. 6-24-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

Section 230. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 1D-1, 10-20.43, 10-21.9, 10-22.3f, 10-22.6, 18-8.05, 21-1b, 21-7.1, 21-25, 21-28, 21B-75, 27A-4, 27A-5, 34-18, 34-18.5, 34-19, 34-200, 34-205, 34-225, and 34-230, by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 2-3.153 and 22-65, and by changing and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 10-20.53 and 34-18.45 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/1D-1)

Sec. 1D-1. Block grant funding.

(a) For fiscal year 1996 and each fiscal year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall award to a school district having a population exceeding 500,000 inhabitants a general education block grant and an educational services block grant, determined as provided in this Section, in lieu of distributing to the district separate State funding for the programs described in subsections (b) and (c). The provisions of this Section, however, do not apply to any federal funds that the district is entitled to receive. In accordance with Section 2-3.32, all block grants are subject to an audit. Therefore, block grant receipts and block grant expenditures shall be recorded to the appropriate fund code for the designated block grant.

(b) The general education block grant shall include the following programs: REI Initiative, Summer Bridges, Preschool At Risk, K-6 Comprehensive Arts, School Improvement Support, Urban Education, Scientific Literacy, Substance Abuse Prevention, Second Language Planning, Staff Development, Outcomes and Assessment, K-6 Reading Improvement, 7-12 Continued Reading Improvement, Truants' Optional Education, Hispanic Programs, Agriculture Education, Parental Education, Prevention Initiative, Report Cards, and Criminal Background Investigations. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all amounts paid under the general education block grant from State appropriations to a school district in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 inhabitants shall be appropriated and expended by the board of that district for any of the programs included in the block grant or any of the board's lawful purposes.

(c) The educational services block grant shall include the following programs: Regular and Vocational Transportation, State Lunch and Free Breakfast Program, Special Education (Personnel, Transportation, Orphanage, Private Tuition), funding for children requiring special education services, Summer School, Educational Service Centers, and Administrator's Academy. This subsection (c) does not relieve the district of its obligation to provide the services required under a program that is included within the educational services block grant. It is the intention of the General Assembly in enacting the provisions of this subsection (c) to relieve the district of the administrative burdens that impede efficiency and accompany single-program funding. The General Assembly encourages the board to pursue mandate waivers pursuant to Section 2-3.25g.

The funding program included in the educational services block grant for funding for children requiring special education services in each fiscal year shall be treated in that fiscal year as a payment to the school district in respect of services provided or costs incurred in the prior fiscal year, calculated in each case as provided in this Section. Nothing in this Section shall change the nature of payments for any program that, apart from this Section, would be or, prior to adoption or amendment of this Section, was on the basis of a payment in a fiscal year in respect of services provided or costs incurred in the prior fiscal year, calculated in each case as provided in this Section.

(d) For fiscal year 1996 and each fiscal year thereafter, the amount of the district's block grants shall be determined as follows: (i) with respect to each program that is included within each block grant, the district shall receive an amount equal to the same percentage of the current fiscal year appropriation made for that program as the percentage of the appropriation received by the district from the 1995 fiscal year appropriation made for that program, and (ii) the total amount that is due the district under the block grant shall be the aggregate of the amounts that the district is entitled to receive for the fiscal year with respect to each program that is included within the block grant that the State Board of Education shall award the district under this Section for that fiscal year. In the case of the Summer Bridges program, the amount of the district's block grant shall be equal to 44% of the amount of the current fiscal year appropriation made for that program.

(e) The district is not required to file any application or other claim in order to receive the block grants to which it is entitled under this Section. The State Board of Education shall make payments to the district of amounts due under the district's block grants on a schedule determined by the State Board of Education.

(f) A school district to which this Section applies shall report to the State Board of Education on its use of the block grants in such form and detail as the State Board of Education may specify. In addition, the report must include the following description for the district, which must also be reported to the General Assembly: block grant allocation and expenditures by program; population and service levels by program; and administrative expenditures by program. The State Board of Education shall ensure that the reporting requirements for the district are the same as for all other school districts in this State.

(g) This paragraph provides for the treatment of block grants under Article 1C for purposes of calculating the amount of block grants for a district under this Section. Those block grants under Article 1C are, for this purpose, treated as included in the amount of appropriation for the various programs set forth in paragraph (b) above. The appropriation in each current fiscal year for each block grant under Article 1C shall be treated for these purposes as appropriations for the individual program included in that block grant. The proportion of each block grant so allocated to each such program included in it shall be the proportion which the appropriation for that program was of all appropriations for such purposes now in that block grant, in fiscal 1995.

Payments to the school district under this Section with respect to each program for which payments to school districts generally, as of the date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, are on a reimbursement basis shall continue to be made to the district on a reimbursement basis, pursuant to the provisions of this Code governing those programs.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any school district receiving a block grant under this Section may classify all or a portion of the funds that it receives in a particular fiscal year from any block grant authorized under this Code or from general State aid pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code (other than supplemental general State aid) as funds received in connection with any funding program for which it is entitled to receive funds from the State in that fiscal year (including, without limitation, any funding program referred to in subsection (c) of this Section), regardless of the source or timing of the receipt. The district may not classify more funds as funds received in connection with the funding program than the district is entitled to receive in that fiscal year for that program. Any classification by a district must be made by a resolution of its board of education. The resolution must identify the amount of any block grant or general State aid to be classified under this subsection (h) and must specify the funding program to which the funds are to be treated as received in connection therewith. This resolution is controlling as to the classification of funds referenced therein. A certified copy of the resolution must be sent to the State Superintendent of Education. The resolution shall still take effect even though a copy of the resolution has not been sent to the State Superintendent of Education in a timely manner. No classification under this subsection (h) by a district shall affect the total amount or timing of money the district is entitled to receive under this Code. No classification under this subsection (h) by a district shall in any way relieve the district from or affect any requirements that otherwise would apply with respect to the block grant as provided in this Section, including any accounting of funds by source, reporting expenditures by original source and purpose, reporting requirements, or requirements of provision of services.

(Source: P.A. 97-238, eff. 8-2-11; 97-324, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-21-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.153)

Sec. 2-3.153. Survey of learning conditions. The State Board of Education shall select for statewide administration an instrument to provide feedback from, at a minimum, students in grades 6 through 12 and teachers on the instructional environment within a school after giving consideration to the recommendations of the Performance Evaluation Advisory Council made pursuant to subdivision (6) of subsection (a) of Section 24A-20 of this Code. Subject to appropriation to the State Board of Education for the State's cost of development and administration and commencing with the 2012-2013 school year, each school district shall administer, at least biannually, the instrument in every public school attendance center by a date specified by the State Superintendent of Education, and data resulting from the instrument's administration must be provided to the State Board of Education. The survey component that requires completion by the teachers must be administered during teacher meetings or professional development days or at other times that would not interfere with the teachers' regular classroom and direct instructional duties. The State Superintendent, following consultation with teachers, principals, and other appropriate stakeholders, shall publicly report on selected indicators of learning conditions resulting from administration of the instrument at the individual school, district, and State levels and shall identify whether the indicators result from an anonymous administration of the instrument. If in any year the appropriation to the State Board of Education is insufficient for the State's costs associated with statewide administration of the instrument, the State Board of Education shall give priority to districts with low-performing schools and a representative sample of other districts.

(Source: P.A. 97-8, eff. 6-13-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.154)

Sec. 2-3.154 2-3.153. Low Performing Schools Intervention Program. From any funds appropriated to the State Board of Education for the purposes of intervening in low performing schools, the State Superintendent may, in his or her discretion, select school districts and schools in which to directly or indirectly intervene; provided however that such school districts and schools are within the lowest 5% in terms of performance in the State as determined by the State Superintendent. Intervention may take the form of a needs assessment or additional, more intensive intervention, as determined by the State Superintendent. Expenditures from funds appropriated for this purpose may include, without limitation, contracts, grants and travel to support the intervention.

(Source: P.A. 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; revised 10-7-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.155)

Sec. 2-3.155 2-3.153. Textbook block grant program.

(a) The provisions of this Section are in the public interest, for the public benefit, and serve secular public purposes.

(b) As used in this Section, "textbook" means any book or book substitute that a pupil uses as a text or text substitute, including electronic textbooks. "Textbook" includes books, reusable workbooks, manuals, whether bound or in loose-leaf form, instructional computer software, and electronic textbooks and the technological equipment necessary to gain access to and use electronic textbooks intended as a principal source of study material for a given class or group of students. "Textbook" also includes science curriculum materials in a kit format that includes pre-packaged consumable materials if (i) it is shown that the materials serve as a textbook substitute, (ii) the materials are for use by the pupils as a principal learning source, (iii) each component of the materials is integrally necessary to teach the requirements of the intended course, (iv) the kit includes teacher guidance materials, and (v) the purchase of individual consumable materials is not allowed.

(c) Beginning July 1, 2011, subject to annual appropriation by the General Assembly, the State Board of Education is authorized to provide annual funding to public school districts and State-recognized, non-public schools serving students in grades kindergarten through 12 for the purchase of selected textbooks. The textbooks authorized to be purchased under this Section are limited without exception to textbooks that have been preapproved and designated by the State Board of Education for use in any public school and that are secular, non-religious, and non-sectarian. The State Board of Education shall annually publish a list of the textbooks authorized to be purchased under this Section. Each public school district and State-recognized, non-public school shall, subject to appropriations for that purpose, receive a per pupil grant for the purchase of secular textbooks. The per pupil grant amount must be calculated by the State Board of Education utilizing the total appropriation made for these purposes divided by the most current student enrollment data available.

(d) The State Board of Education may adopt rules as necessary for the implementation of this Section and to ensure the religious neutrality of the textbook block grant program, as well as provide for the monitoring of all textbooks authorized in this Section to be purchased directly by State-recognized, nonpublic schools serving students in grades kindergarten through 12.

(Source: P.A. 97-570, eff. 8-25-11; revised 10-7-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.43)

Sec. 10-20.43. School facility occupation tax fund. All proceeds received by a school district from a distribution under Section 3-14.31 must be maintained in a special fund known as the school facility occupation tax fund. The district may use moneys in that fund only for school facility purposes, as that term is defined under Section 5-1006.7 of the Counties Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-675, eff. 10-11-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; revised 11-18-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.53)

Sec. 10-20.53. Minimum reading instruction. Each school board shall promote 60 minutes of minimum reading opportunities daily for students in kindergarten through 3rd grade whose reading level is one grade level or lower than their his or her current grade level according to current learning standards and the school district.

(Source: P.A. 97-88, eff. 7-8-11; revised 10-7-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.54)

Sec. 10-20.54 10-20.53. Student athletes; concussions and head injuries.

(a) The General Assembly recognizes all of the following:

(1) Concussions are one of the most commonly reported injuries in children and adolescents who participate in sports and recreational activities. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention estimates that as many as 3,900,000 sports-related and recreation-related concussions occur in the United States each year. A concussion is caused by a blow or motion to the head or body that causes the brain to move rapidly inside the skull. The risk of catastrophic injuries or death are significant when a concussion or head injury is not properly evaluated and managed.

(2) Concussions are a type of brain injury that can range from mild to severe and can disrupt the way the brain normally works. Concussions can occur in any organized or unorganized sport or recreational activity and can result from a fall or from players colliding with each other, the ground, or with obstacles. Concussions occur with or without loss of consciousness, but the vast majority of concussions occur without loss of consciousness.

(3) Continuing to play with a concussion or symptoms of a head injury leaves a young athlete especially vulnerable to greater injury and even death. The General Assembly recognizes that, despite having generally recognized return-to-play standards for concussions and head injuries, some affected youth athletes are prematurely returned to play, resulting in actual or potential physical injury or death to youth athletes in this State.

(b) Each school board shall adopt a policy regarding student athlete concussions and head injuries that is in compliance with the protocols, policies, and by-laws of the Illinois High School Association. Information on the school board's concussion and head injury policy must be a part of any agreement, contract, code, or other written instrument that a school district requires a student athlete and his or her parents or guardian to sign before participating in practice or interscholastic competition.

(c) The Illinois High School Association shall make available to all school districts, including elementary school districts, education materials, such as visual presentations and other written materials, that describe the nature and risk of concussions and head injuries. Each school district shall use education materials provided by the Illinois High School Association to educate coaches, student athletes, and parents and guardians of student athletes about the nature and risk of concussions and head injuries, including continuing play after a concussion or head injury.

(Source: P.A. 97-204, eff. 7-28-11; revised 10-7-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-21.9) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-21.9)

Sec. 10-21.9. Criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database.

(a) Certified and noncertified applicants for employment with a school district, except school bus driver applicants, are required as a condition of employment to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check to determine if such applicants have been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or have been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State. Authorization for the check shall be furnished by the applicant to the school district, except that if the applicant is a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one school district, a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one school district (as a reading specialist, special education teacher or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one district, any such district may require the applicant to furnish authorization for the check to the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which are located the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee. Upon receipt of this authorization, the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent, as the case may be, shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Department of State Police, to the Department. The regional superintendent submitting the requisite information to the Department of State Police shall promptly notify the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee that the check of the applicant has been requested. The Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, until expunged, to the president of the school board for the school district that requested the check, or to the regional superintendent who requested the check. The Department shall charge the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent a fee for conducting such check, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry; and the applicant shall not be charged a fee for such check by the school district or by the regional superintendent, except that those applicants seeking employment as a substitute teacher with a school district may be charged a fee not to exceed the cost of the inquiry. Subject to appropriations for these purposes, the State Superintendent of Education shall reimburse school districts and regional superintendents for fees paid to obtain criminal history records checks under this Section.

(a-5) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, for each applicant.

(a-6) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Community Notification Law, for each applicant.

(b) Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the school board or the regional superintendent shall be confidential and may only be transmitted to the superintendent of the school district or his designee, the appropriate regional superintendent if the check was requested by the school district, the presidents of the appropriate school boards if the check was requested from the Department of State Police by the regional superintendent, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Teacher Certification Board, any other person necessary to the decision of hiring the applicant for employment, or for clarification purposes the Department of State Police or Statewide Sex Offender Database, or both. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Department of State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Upon the check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, the school district or regional superintendent shall notify an applicant as to whether or not the applicant has been identified in the Database as a sex offender. If a check of an applicant for employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee in more than one school district was requested by the regional superintendent, and the Department of State Police upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and so notifies the regional superintendent and if the regional superintendent upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been identified in the Sex Offender Database as a sex offender, then the regional superintendent shall issue to the applicant a certificate evidencing that as of the date specified by the Department of State Police the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and evidencing that as of the date that the regional superintendent conducted a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, the applicant has not been identified in the Database as a sex offender. The school board of any school district may rely on the certificate issued by any regional superintendent to that substitute teacher, concurrent part-time teacher, or concurrent educational support personnel employee or may initiate its own criminal history records check of the applicant through the Department of State Police and its own check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database as provided in subsection (a). Any person who releases any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions of an applicant for employment shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, unless the release of such information is authorized by this Section.

(c) No school board shall knowingly employ a person who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to Section 21B-80 of this Code. Further, no school board shall knowingly employ a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of any minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(d) No school board shall knowingly employ a person for whom a criminal history records check and a Statewide Sex Offender Database check has not been initiated.

(e) Upon receipt of the record of a conviction of or a finding of child abuse by a holder of any certificate issued pursuant to Article 21 or Section 34-8.1 or 34-83 of the School Code, the State Superintendent of Education may initiate certificate suspension and revocation proceedings as authorized by law.

(e-5) The superintendent of the employing school board shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education and the applicable regional superintendent of schools of any certificate holder whom he or she has reasonable cause to believe has committed an intentional act of abuse or neglect with the result of making a child an abused child or a neglected child, as defined in Section 3 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and that act resulted in the certificate holder's dismissal or resignation from the school district. This notification must be submitted within 30 days after the dismissal or resignation. The certificate holder must also be contemporaneously sent a copy of the notice by the superintendent. All correspondence, documentation, and other information so received by the regional superintendent of schools, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Board of Education, or the State Teacher Certification Board under this subsection (e-5) is confidential and must not be disclosed to third parties, except (i) as necessary for the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee to investigate and prosecute pursuant to Article 21 of this Code, (ii) pursuant to a court order, (iii) for disclosure to the certificate holder or his or her representative, or (iv) as otherwise provided in this Article and provided that any such information admitted into evidence in a hearing is exempt from this confidentiality and non-disclosure requirement. Except for an act of willful or wanton misconduct, any superintendent who provides notification as required in this subsection (e-5) shall have immunity from any liability, whether civil or criminal or that otherwise might result by reason of such action.

(f) After January 1, 1990 the provisions of this Section shall apply to all employees of persons or firms holding contracts with any school district including, but not limited to, food service workers, school bus drivers and other transportation employees, who have direct, daily contact with the pupils of any school in such district. For purposes of criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database on employees of persons or firms holding contracts with more than one school district and assigned to more than one school district, the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which the contracting school districts are located may, at the request of any such school district, be responsible for receiving the authorization for a criminal history records check prepared by each such employee and submitting the same to the Department of State Police and for conducting a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database for each employee. Any information concerning the record of conviction and identification as a sex offender of any such employee obtained by the regional superintendent shall be promptly reported to the president of the appropriate school board or school boards.

(g) In order to student teach in the public schools, a person is required to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database prior to participating in any field experiences in the public schools. Authorization for and payment of the costs of the checks must be furnished by the student teacher. Results of the checks must be furnished to the higher education institution where the student teacher is enrolled and the superintendent of the school district where the student is assigned.

(h) Upon request of a school, school district, community college district, or private school, any information obtained by a school district pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section within the last year must be made available to that school, school district, community college district, or private school.

(Source: P.A. 96-431, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1452, eff. 8-20-10; 96-1489, eff. 1-1-11; 97-154, eff. 1-1-12; 97-248, eff. 1-1-12; 97-607, eff. 8-26-11; revised 9-21-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.3f)

Sec. 10-22.3f. Required health benefits. Insurance protection and benefits for employees shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, and 356z.15 of the Illinois Insurance Code. Insurance policies shall comply with Section 356z.19 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Section 155.22a of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 96-139, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.6) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.6)

Sec. 10-22.6. Suspension or expulsion of pupils; school searches.

(a) To expel pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, including gross disobedience or misconduct perpetuated by electronic means, and no action shall lie against them for such expulsion. Expulsion shall take place only after the parents have been requested to appear at a meeting of the board, or with a hearing officer appointed by it, to discuss their child's behavior. Such request shall be made by registered or certified mail and shall state the time, place and purpose of the meeting. The board, or a hearing officer appointed by it, at such meeting shall state the reasons for dismissal and the date on which the expulsion is to become effective. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting and the board may take such action thereon as it finds appropriate. An expelled pupil may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the expulsion, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(b) To suspend or by policy to authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, or to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct on the school bus from riding the school bus, and no action shall lie against them for such suspension. The board may by policy authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of such acts for a period not to exceed 10 school days. If a pupil is suspended due to gross disobedience or misconduct on a school bus, the board may suspend the pupil in excess of 10 school days for safety reasons. Any suspension shall be reported immediately to the parents or guardian of such pupil along with a full statement of the reasons for such suspension and a notice of their right to a review. The school board must be given a summary of the notice, including the reason for the suspension and the suspension length. Upon request of the parents or guardian the school board or a hearing officer appointed by it shall review such action of the superintendent or principal, assistant principal, or dean of students. At such review the parents or guardian of the pupil may appear and discuss the suspension with the board or its hearing officer. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting. After its hearing or upon receipt of the written report of its hearing officer, the board may take such action as it finds appropriate. A pupil who is suspended in excess of 20 school days may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the suspension, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(c) The Department of Human Services shall be invited to send a representative to consult with the board at such meeting whenever there is evidence that mental illness may be the cause for expulsion or suspension.

(d) The board may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case by case basis. A student who is determined to have brought one of the following objects to school, any school-sponsored activity or event, or any activity or event that bears a reasonable relationship to school shall be expelled for a period of not less than one year:

(1) A firearm. For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" means any gun, rifle, shotgun, weapon as defined by Section 921 of Title 18 of the United States Code, firearm as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or firearm as defined in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961. The expulsion period under this subdivision (1) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis.

(2) A knife, brass knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, a billy club, or any other object if used or attempted to be used to cause bodily harm, including "look alikes" of any firearm as defined in subdivision (1) of this subsection (d). The expulsion requirement under this subdivision (2) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis. Expulsion or suspension shall be construed in a manner consistent with the Federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. A student who is subject to suspension or expulsion as provided in this Section may be eligible for a transfer to an alternative school program in accordance with Article 13A of the School Code. The provisions of this subsection (d) apply in all school districts, including special charter districts and districts organized under Article 34.

(d-5) The board may suspend or by regulation authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend a student for a period not to exceed 10 school days or may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case by case basis, if (i) that student has been determined to have made an explicit threat on an Internet website against a school employee, a student, or any school-related personnel, (ii) the Internet website through which the threat was made is a site that was accessible within the school at the time the threat was made or was available to third parties who worked or studied within the school grounds at the time the threat was made, and (iii) the threat could be reasonably interpreted as threatening to the safety and security of the threatened individual because of his or her duties or employment status or status as a student inside the school. The provisions of this subsection (d-5) apply in all school districts, including special charter districts and districts organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(e) To maintain order and security in the schools, school authorities may inspect and search places and areas such as lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school, as well as personal effects left in those places and areas by students, without notice to or the consent of the student, and without a search warrant. As a matter of public policy, the General Assembly finds that students have no reasonable expectation of privacy in these places and areas or in their personal effects left in these places and areas. School authorities may request the assistance of law enforcement officials for the purpose of conducting inspections and searches of lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school for illegal drugs, weapons, or other illegal or dangerous substances or materials, including searches conducted through the use of specially trained dogs. If a search conducted in accordance with this Section produces evidence that the student has violated or is violating either the law, local ordinance, or the school's policies or rules, such evidence may be seized by school authorities, and disciplinary action may be taken. School authorities may also turn over such evidence to law enforcement authorities. The provisions of this subsection (e) apply in all school districts, including special charter districts and districts organized under Article 34.

(f) Suspension or expulsion may include suspension or expulsion from school and all school activities and a prohibition from being present on school grounds.

(g) A school district may adopt a policy providing that if a student is suspended or expelled for any reason from any public or private school in this or any other state, the student must complete the entire term of the suspension or expulsion in an alternative school program under Article 13A of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program under Article 13B of this Code before being admitted into the school district if there is no threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program. This subsection (g) applies to all school districts, including special charter districts and districts organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-633, eff. 8-24-09; 96-998, eff. 7-2-10; 97-340, eff. 1-1-12; 97-495, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/18-8.05)

Sec. 18-8.05. Basis for apportionment of general State financial aid and supplemental general State aid to the common schools for the 1998-1999 and subsequent school years.

(A) General Provisions.

(1) The provisions of this Section apply to the 1998-1999 and subsequent school years. The system of general State financial aid provided for in this Section is designed to assure that, through a combination of State financial aid and required local resources, the financial support provided each pupil in Average Daily Attendance equals or exceeds a prescribed per pupil Foundation Level. This formula approach imputes a level of per pupil Available Local Resources and provides for the basis to calculate a per pupil level of general State financial aid that, when added to Available Local Resources, equals or exceeds the Foundation Level. The amount of per pupil general State financial aid for school districts, in general, varies in inverse relation to Available Local Resources. Per pupil amounts are based upon each school district's Average Daily Attendance as that term is defined in this Section.

(2) In addition to general State financial aid, school districts with specified levels or concentrations of pupils from low income households are eligible to receive supplemental general State financial aid grants as provided pursuant to subsection (H). The supplemental State aid grants provided for school districts under subsection (H) shall be appropriated for distribution to school districts as part of the same line item in which the general State financial aid of school districts is appropriated under this Section.

(3) To receive financial assistance under this Section, school districts are required to file claims with the State Board of Education, subject to the following requirements:

(a) Any school district which fails for any given school year to maintain school as required by law, or to maintain a recognized school is not eligible to file for such school year any claim upon the Common School Fund. In case of nonrecognition of one or more attendance centers in a school district otherwise operating recognized schools, the claim of the district shall be reduced in the proportion which the Average Daily Attendance in the attendance center or centers bear to the Average Daily Attendance in the school district. A "recognized school" means any public school which meets the standards as established for recognition by the State Board of Education. A school district or attendance center not having recognition status at the end of a school term is entitled to receive State aid payments due upon a legal claim which was filed while it was recognized.

(b) School district claims filed under this Section are subject to Sections 18-9 and 18-12, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(c) If a school district operates a full year school under Section 10-19.1, the general State aid to the school district shall be determined by the State Board of Education in accordance with this Section as near as may be applicable.

(d) (Blank).

(4) Except as provided in subsections (H) and (L), the board of any district receiving any of the grants provided for in this Section may apply those funds to any fund so received for which that board is authorized to make expenditures by law.

School districts are not required to exert a minimum Operating Tax Rate in order to qualify for assistance under this Section.

(5) As used in this Section the following terms, when capitalized, shall have the meaning ascribed herein:

(a) "Average Daily Attendance": A count of pupil attendance in school, averaged as provided for in subsection (C) and utilized in deriving per pupil financial support levels.

(b) "Available Local Resources": A computation of local financial support, calculated on the basis of Average Daily Attendance and derived as provided pursuant to subsection (D).

(c) "Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes": Funds paid to local school districts pursuant to "An Act in relation to the abolition of ad valorem personal property tax and the replacement of revenues lost thereby, and amending and repealing certain Acts and parts of Acts in connection therewith", certified August 14, 1979, as amended (Public Act 81-1st S.S.-1).

(d) "Foundation Level": A prescribed level of per pupil financial support as provided for in subsection (B).

(e) "Operating Tax Rate": All school district property taxes extended for all purposes, except Bond and Interest, Summer School, Rent, Capital Improvement, and Vocational Education Building purposes.

(B) Foundation Level.

(1) The Foundation Level is a figure established by the State representing the minimum level of per pupil financial support that should be available to provide for the basic education of each pupil in Average Daily Attendance. As set forth in this Section, each school district is assumed to exert a sufficient local taxing effort such that, in combination with the aggregate of general State financial aid provided the district, an aggregate of State and local resources are available to meet the basic education needs of pupils in the district.

(2) For the 1998-1999 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,225. For the 1999-2000 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,325. For the 2000-2001 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,425. For the 2001-2002 school year and 2002-2003 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,560. For the 2003-2004 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,810. For the 2004-2005 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,964. For the 2005-2006 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,164. For the 2006-2007 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,334. For the 2007-2008 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,734. For the 2008-2009 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,959.

(3) For the 2009-2010 school year and each school year thereafter, the Foundation Level of support is $6,119 or such greater amount as may be established by law by the General Assembly.

(C) Average Daily Attendance.

(1) For purposes of calculating general State aid pursuant to subsection (E), an Average Daily Attendance figure shall be utilized. The Average Daily Attendance figure for formula calculation purposes shall be the monthly average of the actual number of pupils in attendance of each school district, as further averaged for the best 3 months of pupil attendance for each school district. In compiling the figures for the number of pupils in attendance, school districts and the State Board of Education shall, for purposes of general State aid funding, conform attendance figures to the requirements of subsection (F).

(2) The Average Daily Attendance figures utilized in subsection (E) shall be the requisite attendance data for the school year immediately preceding the school year for which general State aid is being calculated or the average of the attendance data for the 3 preceding school years, whichever is greater. The Average Daily Attendance figures utilized in subsection (H) shall be the requisite attendance data for the school year immediately preceding the school year for which general State aid is being calculated.

(D) Available Local Resources.

(1) For purposes of calculating general State aid pursuant to subsection (E), a representation of Available Local Resources per pupil, as that term is defined and determined in this subsection, shall be utilized. Available Local Resources per pupil shall include a calculated dollar amount representing local school district revenues from local property taxes and from Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes, expressed on the basis of pupils in Average Daily Attendance. Calculation of Available Local Resources shall exclude any tax amnesty funds received as a result of Public Act 93-26.

(2) In determining a school district's revenue from local property taxes, the State Board of Education shall utilize the equalized assessed valuation of all taxable property of each school district as of September 30 of the previous year. The equalized assessed valuation utilized shall be obtained and determined as provided in subsection (G).

(3) For school districts maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the applicable equalized assessed valuation for the district multiplied by 3.00%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure. For school districts maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the applicable equalized assessed valuation for the district multiplied by 2.30%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure. For school districts maintaining grades 9 through 12, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be the applicable equalized assessed valuation of the district multiplied by 1.05%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure.

For partial elementary unit districts created pursuant to Article 11E of this Code, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for elementary purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, multiplied by 2.06% and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure, plus the product of the equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for high school purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, multiplied by 0.94% and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure.

(4) The Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes paid to each school district during the calendar year one year before the calendar year in which a school year begins, divided by the Average Daily Attendance figure for that district, shall be added to the local property tax revenues per pupil as derived by the application of the immediately preceding paragraph (3). The sum of these per pupil figures for each school district shall constitute Available Local Resources as that term is utilized in subsection (E) in the calculation of general State aid.

(E) Computation of General State Aid.

(1) For each school year, the amount of general State aid allotted to a school district shall be computed by the State Board of Education as provided in this subsection.

(2) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil is less than the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level, general State aid for that district shall be calculated as an amount equal to the Foundation Level minus Available Local Resources, multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(3) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil is equal to or greater than the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level and less than the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level, the general State aid per pupil shall be a decimal proportion of the Foundation Level derived using a linear algorithm. Under this linear algorithm, the calculated general State aid per pupil shall decline in direct linear fashion from 0.07 times the Foundation Level for a school district with Available Local Resources equal to the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level, to 0.05 times the Foundation Level for a school district with Available Local Resources equal to the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level. The allocation of general State aid for school districts subject to this paragraph 3 shall be the calculated general State aid per pupil figure multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(4) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil equals or exceeds the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level, the general State aid for the school district shall be calculated as the product of $218 multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(5) The amount of general State aid allocated to a school district for the 1999-2000 school year meeting the requirements set forth in paragraph (4) of subsection (G) shall be increased by an amount equal to the general State aid that would have been received by the district for the 1998-1999 school year by utilizing the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation as calculated in paragraph (4) of subsection (G) less the general State aid allotted for the 1998-1999 school year. This amount shall be deemed a one time increase, and shall not affect any future general State aid allocations.

(F) Compilation of Average Daily Attendance.

(1) Each school district shall, by July 1 of each year, submit to the State Board of Education, on forms prescribed by the State Board of Education, attendance figures for the school year that began in the preceding calendar year. The attendance information so transmitted shall identify the average daily attendance figures for each month of the school year. Beginning with the general State aid claim form for the 2002-2003 school year, districts shall calculate Average Daily Attendance as provided in subdivisions (a), (b), and (c) of this paragraph (1).

(a) In districts that do not hold year-round classes, days of attendance in August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May.

(b) In districts in which all buildings hold year-round classes, days of attendance in July and August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May.

(c) In districts in which some buildings, but not all, hold year-round classes, for the non-year-round buildings, days of attendance in August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May. The average daily attendance for the year-round buildings shall be computed as provided in subdivision (b) of this paragraph (1). To calculate the Average Daily Attendance for the district, the average daily attendance for the year-round buildings shall be multiplied by the days in session for the non-year-round buildings for each month and added to the monthly attendance of the non-year-round buildings.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, days of attendance by pupils shall be counted only for sessions of not less than 5 clock hours of school work per day under direct supervision of: (i) teachers, or (ii) non-teaching personnel or volunteer personnel when engaging in non-teaching duties and supervising in those instances specified in subsection (a) of Section 10-22.34 and paragraph 10 of Section 34-18, with pupils of legal school age and in kindergarten and grades 1 through 12.

Days of attendance by tuition pupils shall be accredited only to the districts that pay the tuition to a recognized school.

(2) Days of attendance by pupils of less than 5 clock hours of school shall be subject to the following provisions in the compilation of Average Daily Attendance.

(a) Pupils regularly enrolled in a public school for only a part of the school day may be counted on the basis of 1/6 day for every class hour of instruction of 40 minutes or more attended pursuant to such enrollment, unless a pupil is enrolled in a block-schedule format of 80 minutes or more of instruction, in which case the pupil may be counted on the basis of the proportion of minutes of school work completed each day to the minimum number of minutes that school work is required to be held that day.

(b) Days of attendance may be less than 5 clock hours on the opening and closing of the school term, and upon the first day of pupil attendance, if preceded by a day or days utilized as an institute or teachers' workshop.

(c) A session of 4 or more clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance upon certification by the regional superintendent, and approved by the State Superintendent of Education to the extent that the district has been forced to use daily multiple sessions.

(d) A session of 3 or more clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance (1) when the remainder of the school day or at least 2 hours in the evening of that day is utilized for an in-service training program for teachers, up to a maximum of 5 days per school year, provided a district conducts an in-service training program for teachers in accordance with Section 10-22.39 of this Code; or, in lieu of 4 such days, 2 full days may be used, in which event each such day may be counted as a day required for a legal school calendar pursuant to Section 10-19 of this Code; (1.5) when, of the 5 days allowed under item (1), a maximum of 4 days are used for parent-teacher conferences, or, in lieu of 4 such days, 2 full days are used, in which case each such day may be counted as a calendar day required under Section 10-19 of this Code, provided that the full-day, parent-teacher conference consists of (i) a minimum of 5 clock hours of parent-teacher conferences, (ii) both a minimum of 2 clock hours of parent-teacher conferences held in the evening following a full day of student attendance, as specified in subsection (F)(1)(c), and a minimum of 3 clock hours of parent-teacher conferences held on the day immediately following evening parent-teacher conferences, or (iii) multiple parent-teacher conferences held in the evenings following full days of student attendance, as specified in subsection (F)(1)(c), in which the time used for the parent-teacher conferences is equivalent to a minimum of 5 clock hours; and (2) when days in addition to those provided in items (1) and (1.5) are scheduled by a school pursuant to its school improvement plan adopted under Article 34 or its revised or amended school improvement plan adopted under Article 2, provided that (i) such sessions of 3 or more clock hours are scheduled to occur at regular intervals, (ii) the remainder of the school days in which such sessions occur are utilized for in-service training programs or other staff development activities for teachers, and (iii) a sufficient number of minutes of school work under the direct supervision of teachers are added to the school days between such regularly scheduled sessions to accumulate not less than the number of minutes by which such sessions of 3 or more clock hours fall short of 5 clock hours. Any full days used for the purposes of this paragraph shall not be considered for computing average daily attendance. Days scheduled for in-service training programs, staff development activities, or parent-teacher conferences may be scheduled separately for different grade levels and different attendance centers of the district.

(e) A session of not less than one clock hour of teaching hospitalized or homebound pupils on-site or by telephone to the classroom may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance, however these pupils must receive 4 or more clock hours of instruction to be counted for a full day of attendance.

(f) A session of at least 4 clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance for first grade pupils, and pupils in full day kindergartens, and a session of 2 or more hours may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance by pupils in kindergartens which provide only 1/2 day of attendance.

(g) For children with disabilities who are below the age of 6 years and who cannot attend 2 or more clock hours because of their disability or immaturity, a session of not less than one clock hour may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance; however for such children whose educational needs so require a session of 4 or more clock hours may be counted as a full day of attendance.

(h) A recognized kindergarten which provides for only 1/2 day of attendance by each pupil shall not have more than 1/2 day of attendance counted in any one day. However, kindergartens may count 2 1/2 days of attendance in any 5 consecutive school days. When a pupil attends such a kindergarten for 2 half days on any one school day, the pupil shall have the following day as a day absent from school, unless the school district obtains permission in writing from the State Superintendent of Education. Attendance at kindergartens which provide for a full day of attendance by each pupil shall be counted the same as attendance by first grade pupils. Only the first year of attendance in one kindergarten shall be counted, except in case of children who entered the kindergarten in their fifth year whose educational development requires a second year of kindergarten as determined under the rules and regulations of the State Board of Education.

(i) On the days when the Prairie State Achievement Examination is administered under subsection (c) of Section 2-3.64 of this Code, the day of attendance for a pupil whose school day must be shortened to accommodate required testing procedures may be less than 5 clock hours and shall be counted towards the 176 days of actual pupil attendance required under Section 10-19 of this Code, provided that a sufficient number of minutes of school work in excess of 5 clock hours are first completed on other school days to compensate for the loss of school work on the examination days.

(j) Pupils enrolled in a remote educational program established under Section 10-29 of this Code may be counted on the basis of one-fifth day of attendance for every clock hour of instruction attended in the remote educational program, provided that, in any month, the school district may not claim for a student enrolled in a remote educational program more days of attendance than the maximum number of days of attendance the district can claim (i) for students enrolled in a building holding year-round classes if the student is classified as participating in the remote educational program on a year-round schedule or (ii) for students enrolled in a building not holding year-round classes if the student is not classified as participating in the remote educational program on a year-round schedule.

(G) Equalized Assessed Valuation Data.

(1) For purposes of the calculation of Available Local Resources required pursuant to subsection (D), the State Board of Education shall secure from the Department of Revenue the value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue of all taxable property of every school district, together with (i) the applicable tax rate used in extending taxes for the funds of the district as of September 30 of the previous year and (ii) the limiting rate for all school districts subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

The Department of Revenue shall add to the equalized assessed value of all taxable property of each school district situated entirely or partially within a county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code (a) an amount equal to the total amount by which the homestead exemption allowed under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code for real property situated in that school district exceeds the total amount that would have been allowed in that school district if the maximum reduction under Section 15-176 was (i) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year 2003 or (ii) $5,000 in all counties in tax year 2004 and thereafter and (b) an amount equal to the aggregate amount for the taxable year of all additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. The county clerk of any county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code shall annually calculate and certify to the Department of Revenue for each school district all homestead exemption amounts under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and all amounts of additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. It is the intent of this paragraph that if the general homestead exemption for a parcel of property is determined under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code rather than Section 15-175, then the calculation of Available Local Resources shall not be affected by the difference, if any, between the amount of the general homestead exemption allowed for that parcel of property under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and the amount that would have been allowed had the general homestead exemption for that parcel of property been determined under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code. It is further the intent of this paragraph that if additional exemptions are allowed under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of less than $30,000, then the calculation of Available Local Resources shall not be affected by the difference, if any, because of those additional exemptions.

This equalized assessed valuation, as adjusted further by the requirements of this subsection, shall be utilized in the calculation of Available Local Resources.

(2) The equalized assessed valuation in paragraph (1) shall be adjusted, as applicable, in the following manner:

(a) For the purposes of calculating State aid under this Section, with respect to any part of a school district within a redevelopment project area in respect to which a municipality has adopted tax increment allocation financing pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act, Sections 11-74.4-1 through 11-74.4-11 of the Illinois Municipal Code or the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law, Sections 11-74.6-1 through 11-74.6-50 of the Illinois Municipal Code, no part of the current equalized assessed valuation of real property located in any such project area which is attributable to an increase above the total initial equalized assessed valuation of such property shall be used as part of the equalized assessed valuation of the district, until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid, as provided in Section 11-74.4-8 of the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act or in Section 11-74.6-35 of the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law. For the purpose of the equalized assessed valuation of the district, the total initial equalized assessed valuation or the current equalized assessed valuation, whichever is lower, shall be used until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid.

(b) The real property equalized assessed valuation for a school district shall be adjusted by subtracting from the real property value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue for the district an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under Section 18-170 of the Property Tax Code by 3.00% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, by 2.30% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, or by 1.05% for a district maintaining grades 9 through 12 and adjusted by an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under subsection (a) of Section 18-165 of the Property Tax Code by the same percentage rates for district type as specified in this subparagraph (b).

(3) For the 1999-2000 school year and each school year thereafter, if a school district meets all of the criteria of this subsection (G)(3), the school district's Available Local Resources shall be calculated under subsection (D) using the district's Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation as calculated under this subsection (G)(3).

For purposes of this subsection (G)(3) the following terms shall have the following meanings:

"Budget Year": The school year for which general State aid is calculated and awarded under subsection (E).

"Base Tax Year": The property tax levy year used to calculate the Budget Year allocation of general State aid.

"Preceding Tax Year": The property tax levy year immediately preceding the Base Tax Year.

"Base Tax Year's Tax Extension": The product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the County Clerk in the Base Tax Year multiplied by the limiting rate as calculated by the County Clerk and defined in the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

"Preceding Tax Year's Tax Extension": The product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the County Clerk in the Preceding Tax Year multiplied by the Operating Tax Rate as defined in subsection (A).

"Extension Limitation Ratio": A numerical ratio, certified by the County Clerk, in which the numerator is the Base Tax Year's Tax Extension and the denominator is the Preceding Tax Year's Tax Extension.

"Operating Tax Rate": The operating tax rate as defined in subsection (A).

If a school district is subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law, the State Board of Education shall calculate the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of that district. For the 1999-2000 school year, the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated by the State Board of Education shall be equal to the product of the district's 1996 Equalized Assessed Valuation and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph for a school district that has approved or does approve an increase in its limiting rate, for the 2000-2001 school year and each school year thereafter, the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated by the State Board of Education shall be equal to the product of the Equalized Assessed Valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. If the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated under this subsection (G)(3) is less than the district's equalized assessed valuation as calculated pursuant to subsections (G)(1) and (G)(2), then for purposes of calculating the district's general State aid for the Budget Year pursuant to subsection (E), that Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation shall be utilized to calculate the district's Available Local Resources under subsection (D). For the 2009-2010 school year and each school year thereafter, if a school district has approved or does approve an increase in its limiting rate, pursuant to Section 18-190 of the Property Tax Code, affecting the Base Tax Year, the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of the school district, as calculated by the State Board of Education, shall be equal to the product of the Equalized Assessed Valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid times an amount equal to one plus the percentage increase, if any, in the Consumer Price Index for all Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor for the 12-month calendar year preceding the Base Tax Year, plus the Equalized Assessed Valuation of new property, annexed property, and recovered tax increment value and minus the Equalized Assessed Valuation of disconnected property. New property and recovered tax increment value shall have the meanings set forth in the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

Partial elementary unit districts created in accordance with Article 11E of this Code shall not be eligible for the adjustment in this subsection (G)(3) until the fifth year following the effective date of the reorganization.

(3.5) For the 2010-2011 school year and each school year thereafter, if a school district's boundaries span multiple counties, then the Department of Revenue shall send to the State Board of Education, for the purpose of calculating general State aid, the limiting rate and individual rates by purpose for the county that contains the majority of the school district's Equalized Assessed Valuation.

(4) For the purposes of calculating general State aid for the 1999-2000 school year only, if a school district experienced a triennial reassessment on the equalized assessed valuation used in calculating its general State financial aid apportionment for the 1998-1999 school year, the State Board of Education shall calculate the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation that would have been used to calculate the district's 1998-1999 general State aid. This amount shall equal the product of the equalized assessed valuation used to calculate general State aid for the 1997-1998 school year and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. If the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of the school district as calculated under this paragraph (4) is less than the district's equalized assessed valuation utilized in calculating the district's 1998-1999 general State aid allocation, then for purposes of calculating the district's general State aid pursuant to paragraph (5) of subsection (E), that Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation shall be utilized to calculate the district's Available Local Resources.

(5) For school districts having a majority of their equalized assessed valuation in any county except Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, or Will, if the amount of general State aid allocated to the school district for the 1999-2000 school year under the provisions of subsection (E), (H), and (J) of this Section is less than the amount of general State aid allocated to the district for the 1998-1999 school year under these subsections, then the general State aid of the district for the 1999-2000 school year only shall be increased by the difference between these amounts. The total payments made under this paragraph (5) shall not exceed $14,000,000. Claims shall be prorated if they exceed $14,000,000.

(H) Supplemental General State Aid.

(1) In addition to the general State aid a school district is allotted pursuant to subsection (E), qualifying school districts shall receive a grant, paid in conjunction with a district's payments of general State aid, for supplemental general State aid based upon the concentration level of children from low-income households within the school district. Supplemental State aid grants provided for school districts under this subsection shall be appropriated for distribution to school districts as part of the same line item in which the general State financial aid of school districts is appropriated under this Section.

(1.5) This paragraph (1.5) applies only to those school years preceding the 2003-2004 school year. For purposes of this subsection (H), the term "Low-Income Concentration Level" shall be the low-income eligible pupil count from the most recently available federal census divided by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district. If, however, (i) the percentage decrease from the 2 most recent federal censuses in the low-income eligible pupil count of a high school district with fewer than 400 students exceeds by 75% or more the percentage change in the total low-income eligible pupil count of contiguous elementary school districts, whose boundaries are coterminous with the high school district, or (ii) a high school district within 2 counties and serving 5 elementary school districts, whose boundaries are coterminous with the high school district, has a percentage decrease from the 2 most recent federal censuses in the low-income eligible pupil count and there is a percentage increase in the total low-income eligible pupil count of a majority of the elementary school districts in excess of 50% from the 2 most recent federal censuses, then the high school district's low-income eligible pupil count from the earlier federal census shall be the number used as the low-income eligible pupil count for the high school district, for purposes of this subsection (H). The changes made to this paragraph (1) by Public Act 92-28 shall apply to supplemental general State aid grants for school years preceding the 2003-2004 school year that are paid in fiscal year 1999 or thereafter and to any State aid payments made in fiscal year 1994 through fiscal year 1998 pursuant to subsection 1(n) of Section 18-8 of this Code (which was repealed on July 1, 1998), and any high school district that is affected by Public Act 92-28 is entitled to a recomputation of its supplemental general State aid grant or State aid paid in any of those fiscal years. This recomputation shall not be affected by any other funding.

(1.10) This paragraph (1.10) applies to the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter. For purposes of this subsection (H), the term "Low-Income Concentration Level" shall, for each fiscal year, be the low-income eligible pupil count as of July 1 of the immediately preceding fiscal year (as determined by the Department of Human Services based on the number of pupils who are eligible for at least one of the following low income programs: Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program, TANF, or Food Stamps, excluding pupils who are eligible for services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services, averaged over the 2 immediately preceding fiscal years for fiscal year 2004 and over the 3 immediately preceding fiscal years for each fiscal year thereafter) divided by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(2) Supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 1998-1999, 1999-2000, and 2000-2001 school years only:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 20% and less than 35%, the grant for any school year shall be $800 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 35% and less than 50%, the grant for the 1998-1999 school year shall be $1,100 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(c) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 50% and less than 60%, the grant for the 1998-99 school year shall be $1,500 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(d) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 60% or more, the grant for the 1998-99 school year shall be $1,900 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(e) For the 1999-2000 school year, the per pupil amount specified in subparagraphs (b), (c), and (d) immediately above shall be increased to $1,243, $1,600, and $2,000, respectively.

(f) For the 2000-2001 school year, the per pupil amounts specified in subparagraphs (b), (c), and (d) immediately above shall be $1,273, $1,640, and $2,050, respectively.

(2.5) Supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 2002-2003 school year:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of less than 10%, the grant for each school year shall be $355 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 10% and less than 20%, the grant for each school year shall be $675 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(c) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 20% and less than 35%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,330 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(d) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 35% and less than 50%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,362 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(e) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 50% and less than 60%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,680 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(f) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 60% or more, the grant for each school year shall be $2,080 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(2.10) Except as otherwise provided, supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 15% or less, the grant for each school year shall be $355 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level greater than 15%, the grant for each school year shall be $294.25 added to the product of $2,700 and the square of the Low Income Concentration Level, all multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

For the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter through the 2008-2009 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2009-2010 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year multiplied by 0.66. For the 2010-2011 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year multiplied by 0.33. Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph to the contrary, if for any school year supplemental general State aid grants are prorated as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (H), then the grants under this paragraph shall be prorated.

For the 2003-2004 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.25 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2004-2005 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.50 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2005-2006 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.75 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year.

(3) School districts with an Average Daily Attendance of more than 1,000 and less than 50,000 that qualify for supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection shall submit a plan to the State Board of Education prior to October 30 of each year for the use of the funds resulting from this grant of supplemental general State aid for the improvement of instruction in which priority is given to meeting the education needs of disadvantaged children. Such plan shall be submitted in accordance with rules and regulations promulgated by the State Board of Education.

(4) School districts with an Average Daily Attendance of 50,000 or more that qualify for supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection shall be required to distribute from funds available pursuant to this Section, no less than $261,000,000 in accordance with the following requirements:

(a) The required amounts shall be distributed to the attendance centers within the district in proportion to the number of pupils enrolled at each attendance center who are eligible to receive free or reduced-price lunches or breakfasts under the federal Child Nutrition Act of 1966 and under the National School Lunch Act during the immediately preceding school year.

(b) The distribution of these portions of supplemental and general State aid among attendance centers according to these requirements shall not be compensated for or contravened by adjustments of the total of other funds appropriated to any attendance centers, and the Board of Education shall utilize funding from one or several sources in order to fully implement this provision annually prior to the opening of school.

(c) Each attendance center shall be provided by the school district a distribution of noncategorical funds and other categorical funds to which an attendance center is entitled under law in order that the general State aid and supplemental general State aid provided by application of this subsection supplements rather than supplants the noncategorical funds and other categorical funds provided by the school district to the attendance centers.

(d) Any funds made available under this subsection that by reason of the provisions of this subsection are not required to be allocated and provided to attendance centers may be used and appropriated by the board of the district for any lawful school purpose.

(e) Funds received by an attendance center pursuant to this subsection shall be used by the attendance center at the discretion of the principal and local school council for programs to improve educational opportunities at qualifying schools through the following programs and services: early childhood education, reduced class size or improved adult to student classroom ratio, enrichment programs, remedial assistance, attendance improvement, and other educationally beneficial expenditures which supplement the regular and basic programs as determined by the State Board of Education. Funds provided shall not be expended for any political or lobbying purposes as defined by board rule.

(f) Each district subject to the provisions of this subdivision (H)(4) shall submit an acceptable plan to meet the educational needs of disadvantaged children, in compliance with the requirements of this paragraph, to the State Board of Education prior to July 15 of each year. This plan shall be consistent with the decisions of local school councils concerning the school expenditure plans developed in accordance with part 4 of Section 34-2.3. The State Board shall approve or reject the plan within 60 days after its submission. If the plan is rejected, the district shall give written notice of intent to modify the plan within 15 days of the notification of rejection and then submit a modified plan within 30 days after the date of the written notice of intent to modify. Districts may amend approved plans pursuant to rules promulgated by the State Board of Education.

Upon notification by the State Board of Education that the district has not submitted a plan prior to July 15 or a modified plan within the time period specified herein, the State aid funds affected by that plan or modified plan shall be withheld by the State Board of Education until a plan or modified plan is submitted.

If the district fails to distribute State aid to attendance centers in accordance with an approved plan, the plan for the following year shall allocate funds, in addition to the funds otherwise required by this subsection, to those attendance centers which were underfunded during the previous year in amounts equal to such underfunding.

For purposes of determining compliance with this subsection in relation to the requirements of attendance center funding, each district subject to the provisions of this subsection shall submit as a separate document by December 1 of each year a report of expenditure data for the prior year in addition to any modification of its current plan. If it is determined that there has been a failure to comply with the expenditure provisions of this subsection regarding contravention or supplanting, the State Superintendent of Education shall, within 60 days of receipt of the report, notify the district and any affected local school council. The district shall within 45 days of receipt of that notification inform the State Superintendent of Education of the remedial or corrective action to be taken, whether by amendment of the current plan, if feasible, or by adjustment in the plan for the following year. Failure to provide the expenditure report or the notification of remedial or corrective action in a timely manner shall result in a withholding of the affected funds.

The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules and regulations to implement the provisions of this subsection. No funds shall be released under this subdivision (H)(4) to any district that has not submitted a plan that has been approved by the State Board of Education.

(I) (Blank).

(J) (Blank).

(K) Grants to Laboratory and Alternative Schools.

In calculating the amount to be paid to the governing board of a public university that operates a laboratory school under this Section or to any alternative school that is operated by a regional superintendent of schools, the State Board of Education shall require by rule such reporting requirements as it deems necessary.

As used in this Section, "laboratory school" means a public school which is created and operated by a public university and approved by the State Board of Education. The governing board of a public university which receives funds from the State Board under this subsection (K) may not increase the number of students enrolled in its laboratory school from a single district, if that district is already sending 50 or more students, except under a mutual agreement between the school board of a student's district of residence and the university which operates the laboratory school. A laboratory school may not have more than 1,000 students, excluding students with disabilities in a special education program.

As used in this Section, "alternative school" means a public school which is created and operated by a Regional Superintendent of Schools and approved by the State Board of Education. Such alternative schools may offer courses of instruction for which credit is given in regular school programs, courses to prepare students for the high school equivalency testing program or vocational and occupational training. A regional superintendent of schools may contract with a school district or a public community college district to operate an alternative school. An alternative school serving more than one educational service region may be established by the regional superintendents of schools of the affected educational service regions. An alternative school serving more than one educational service region may be operated under such terms as the regional superintendents of schools of those educational service regions may agree.

Each laboratory and alternative school shall file, on forms provided by the State Superintendent of Education, an annual State aid claim which states the Average Daily Attendance of the school's students by month. The best 3 months' Average Daily Attendance shall be computed for each school. The general State aid entitlement shall be computed by multiplying the applicable Average Daily Attendance by the Foundation Level as determined under this Section.

(L) Payments, Additional Grants in Aid and Other Requirements.

(1) For a school district operating under the financial supervision of an Authority created under Article 34A, the general State aid otherwise payable to that district under this Section, but not the supplemental general State aid, shall be reduced by an amount equal to the budget for the operations of the Authority as certified by the Authority to the State Board of Education, and an amount equal to such reduction shall be paid to the Authority created for such district for its operating expenses in the manner provided in Section 18-11. The remainder of general State school aid for any such district shall be paid in accordance with Article 34A when that Article provides for a disposition other than that provided by this Article.

(2) (Blank).

(3) Summer school. Summer school payments shall be made as provided in Section 18-4.3.

(M) Education Funding Advisory Board.

The Education Funding Advisory Board, hereinafter in this subsection (M) referred to as the "Board", is hereby created. The Board shall consist of 5 members who are appointed by the Governor, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate. The members appointed shall include representatives of education, business, and the general public. One of the members so appointed shall be designated by the Governor at the time the appointment is made as the chairperson of the Board. The initial members of the Board may be appointed any time after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997. The regular term of each member of the Board shall be for 4 years from the third Monday of January of the year in which the term of the member's appointment is to commence, except that of the 5 initial members appointed to serve on the Board, the member who is appointed as the chairperson shall serve for a term that commences on the date of his or her appointment and expires on the third Monday of January, 2002, and the remaining 4 members, by lots drawn at the first meeting of the Board that is held after all 5 members are appointed, shall determine 2 of their number to serve for terms that commence on the date of their respective appointments and expire on the third Monday of January, 2001, and 2 of their number to serve for terms that commence on the date of their respective appointments and expire on the third Monday of January, 2000. All members appointed to serve on the Board shall serve until their respective successors are appointed and confirmed. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as original appointments. If a vacancy in membership occurs at a time when the Senate is not in session, the Governor shall make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate, when he or she shall appoint, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate, a person to fill that membership for the unexpired term. If the Senate is not in session when the initial appointments are made, those appointments shall be made as in the case of vacancies.

The Education Funding Advisory Board shall be deemed established, and the initial members appointed by the Governor to serve as members of the Board shall take office, on the date that the Governor makes his or her appointment of the fifth initial member of the Board, whether those initial members are then serving pursuant to appointment and confirmation or pursuant to temporary appointments that are made by the Governor as in the case of vacancies.

The State Board of Education shall provide such staff assistance to the Education Funding Advisory Board as is reasonably required for the proper performance by the Board of its responsibilities.

For school years after the 2000-2001 school year, the Education Funding Advisory Board, in consultation with the State Board of Education, shall make recommendations as provided in this subsection (M) to the General Assembly for the foundation level under subdivision (B)(3) of this Section and for the supplemental general State aid grant level under subsection (H) of this Section for districts with high concentrations of children from poverty. The recommended foundation level shall be determined based on a methodology which incorporates the basic education expenditures of low-spending schools exhibiting high academic performance. The Education Funding Advisory Board shall make such recommendations to the General Assembly on January 1 of odd numbered years, beginning January 1, 2001.

(N) (Blank).

(O) References.

(1) References in other laws to the various subdivisions of Section 18-8 as that Section existed before its repeal and replacement by this Section 18-8.05 shall be deemed to refer to the corresponding provisions of this Section 18-8.05, to the extent that those references remain applicable.

(2) References in other laws to State Chapter 1 funds shall be deemed to refer to the supplemental general State aid provided under subsection (H) of this Section.

(P) Public Act 93-838 and Public Act 93-808 make inconsistent changes to this Section. Under Section 6 of the Statute on Statutes there is an irreconcilable conflict between Public Act 93-808 and Public Act 93-838. Public Act 93-838, being the last acted upon, is controlling. The text of Public Act 93-838 is the law regardless of the text of Public Act 93-808.

(Source: P.A. 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; 96-152, eff. 8-7-09; 96-300, eff. 8-11-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-640, eff. 8-24-09; 96-959, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1480, eff. 11-18-10; 97-339, eff. 8-12-11; 97-351, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-28-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/21-1b) (from Ch. 122, par. 21-1b)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2013)

Sec. 21-1b. Subject endorsement on certificates.

(a) All certificates initially issued under this Article after June 30, 1986, shall be specifically endorsed by the State Board of Education for each subject the holder of the certificate is legally qualified to teach, such endorsements to be made in accordance with standards promulgated by the State Board of Education in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board. The regional superintendent of schools, however, has the duty, after appropriate training, to accept and review all transcripts for new initial certificate applications and ensure that each applicant has met all of the criteria established by the State Board of Education in consultation with with the State Teacher Certification Board. All certificates which are issued under this Article prior to July 1, 1986 may, by application to the State Board of Education, be specifically endorsed for each subject the holder is legally qualified to teach. Endorsements issued under this Section shall not apply to substitute teacher's certificates issued under Section 21-9 of this Code.

(b) Until December 31, 2011, each application for endorsement of an existing teaching certificate shall be accompanied by a $30 nonrefundable fee.

(c) Beginning on January 1, 2012, each application for endorsement of an existing teaching certificate must be accompanied by a $50 nonrefundable fee.

(d) There is hereby created a Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund as a special fund within the State Treasury. The proceeds of each endorsement fee shall be paid into the Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund; and the moneys in that Fund shall be appropriated and used to provide the technology and other resources necessary for the timely and efficient processing of certification requests. The Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund is not subject to administrative charge transfers authorized under Section 8h of the State Finance Act from the Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund into any other fund of this State.

(e) The State Board of Education and each regional office of education are authorized to charge a service or convenience fee for the use of credit cards for the payment of certification fees. This service or convenience fee may not exceed the amount required by the credit card processing company or vendor that has entered into a contract with the State Board or regional office of education for this purpose, and the fee must be paid to that company or vendor.

(f) This Section is repealed on June 30, 2013.

(Source: P.A. 96-403, eff. 8-13-09; 97-607, eff. 8-26-11; revised 11-18-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/21-7.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 21-7.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2013)

Sec. 21-7.1. Administrative certificate.

(a) After July 1, 1999, an administrative certificate valid for 5 years of supervising and administering in the public common schools (unless changed under subsection (a-5) of this Section) may be issued to persons who have graduated from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning with a master's degree or its equivalent and who have been recommended by a recognized institution of higher learning, a not-for-profit entity, or a combination thereof, as having completed a program of preparation for one or more of these endorsements. Such programs of academic and professional preparation required for endorsement shall be administered by an institution or not-for-profit entity approved to offer such programs by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board, and shall be operated in accordance with this Article and the standards set forth by the State Superintendent of Education in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board. Any program offered in whole or in part by a not-for-profit entity must also be approved by the Board of Higher Education.

(a-5) Beginning July 1, 2003, if an administrative certificate holder holds a Standard Teaching Certificate, the validity period of the administrative certificate shall be changed, if necessary, so that the validity period of the administrative certificate coincides with the validity period of the Standard Teaching Certificate. Beginning July 1, 2003, if an administrative certificate holder holds a Master Teaching Certificate, the validity period of the administrative certificate shall be changed so that the validity period of the administrative certificate coincides with the validity period of the Master Teaching Certificate.

(b) No administrative certificate shall be issued for the first time after June 30, 1987 and no endorsement provided for by this Section shall be made or affixed to an administrative certificate for the first time after June 30, 1987 unless the person to whom such administrative certificate is to be issued or to whose administrative certificate such endorsement is to be affixed has been required to demonstrate as a part of a program of academic or professional preparation for such certification or endorsement: (i) an understanding of the knowledge called for in establishing productive parent-school relationships and of the procedures fostering the involvement which such relationships demand; and (ii) an understanding of the knowledge required for establishing a high quality school climate and promoting good classroom organization and management, including rules of conduct and instructional procedures appropriate to accomplishing the tasks of schooling; and (iii) a demonstration of the knowledge and skills called for in providing instructional leadership. The standards for demonstrating an understanding of such knowledge shall be set forth by the State Board of Education in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board, and shall be administered by the recognized institutions of higher learning as part of the programs of academic and professional preparation required for certification and endorsement under this Section. As used in this subsection: "establishing productive parent-school relationships" means the ability to maintain effective communication between parents and school personnel, to encourage parental involvement in schooling, and to motivate school personnel to engage parents in encouraging student achievement, including the development of programs and policies which serve to accomplish this purpose; and "establishing a high quality school climate" means the ability to promote academic achievement, to maintain discipline, to recognize substance abuse problems among students and utilize appropriate law enforcement and other community resources to address these problems, to support teachers and students in their education endeavors, to establish learning objectives and to provide instructional leadership, including the development of policies and programs which serve to accomplish this purpose; and "providing instructional leadership" means the ability to effectively evaluate school personnel, to possess general communication and interpersonal skills, and to establish and maintain appropriate classroom learning environments. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to or affect the initial issuance or making on or before June 30, 1987 of any administrative certificate or endorsement provided for under this Section, nor shall such provisions apply to or affect the renewal after June 30, 1987 of any such certificate or endorsement initially issued or made on or before June 30, 1987.

(c) Administrative certificates shall be renewed every 5 years with the first renewal being 5 years following the initial receipt of an administrative certificate, unless the validity period for the administrative certificate has been changed under subsection (a-5) of this Section, in which case the certificate shall be renewed at the same time that the Standard or Master Teaching Certificate is renewed.

(c-5) (Blank).

(c-10) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c-15) of this Section, persons holding administrative certificates must follow the certificate renewal procedure set forth in this subsection (c-10), provided that those persons holding administrative certificates on June 30, 2003 who are renewing those certificates on or after July 1, 2003 shall be issued new administrative certificates valid for 5 years (unless changed under subsection (a-5) of this Section), which may be renewed thereafter as set forth in this subsection (c-10).

A person holding an administrative certificate and employed in a position requiring administrative certification, including a regional superintendent of schools, must satisfy the continuing professional development requirements of this Section to renew his or her administrative certificate. The continuing professional development must include without limitation the following continuing professional development purposes:

(1) To improve the administrator's knowledge of instructional practices and administrative procedures in accordance with the Illinois Professional School Leader Standards.

(2) To maintain the basic level of competence required for initial certification.

(3) To improve the administrator's mastery of skills and knowledge regarding the improvement of teaching performance in clinical settings and assessment of the levels of student performance in the schools.

The continuing professional development must include the following in order for the certificate to be renewed:

(A) Participation in continuing professional development activities, which must total a minimum of 100 hours of continuing professional development. The participation must consist of a minimum of 5 activities per validity period of the certificate, and the certificate holder must maintain documentation of completion of each activity.

(B) Participation every year in an Illinois Administrators' Academy course, which participation must total a minimum of 30 continuing professional development hours during the period of the certificate's validity and which must include completion of applicable required coursework, including completion of a communication, dissemination, or application component, as defined by the State Board of Education.

The certificate holder must complete a verification form developed by the State Board of Education and certify that 100 hours of continuing professional development activities and 5 Administrators' Academy courses have been completed. The regional superintendent of schools shall review and validate the verification form for a certificate holder. Based on compliance with all of the requirements for renewal, the regional superintendent of schools shall forward a recommendation for renewal or non-renewal to the State Superintendent of Education and shall notify the certificate holder of the recommendation. The State Superintendent of Education shall review the recommendation to renew or non-renew and shall notify, in writing, the certificate holder of a decision denying renewal of his or her certificate. Any decision regarding non-renewal of an administrative certificate may be appealed to the State Teacher Certification Board.

The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board, shall adopt rules to implement this subsection (c-10).

The regional superintendent of schools shall monitor the process for renewal of administrative certificates established in this subsection (c-10).

(c-15) This subsection (c-15) applies to the first period of an administrative certificate's validity during which the holder becomes subject to the requirements of subsection (c-10) of this Section if the certificate has less than 5 years' validity or has less than 5 years' validity remaining when the certificate holder becomes subject to the requirements of subsection (c-10) of this Section. With respect to this period, the 100 hours of continuing professional development and 5 activities per validity period specified in clause (A) of subsection (c-10) of this Section shall instead be deemed to mean 20 hours of continuing professional development and one activity per year of the certificate's validity or remaining validity and the 30 continuing professional development hours specified in clause (B) of subsection (c-10) of this Section shall instead be deemed to mean completion of at least one course per year of the certificate's validity or remaining validity. Certificate holders who evaluate certified staff must complete a 2-day teacher evaluation course, in addition to the 30 continuing professional development hours.

(c-20) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board, shall develop procedures for implementing this Section and shall administer the renewal of administrative certificates. Failure to submit satisfactory evidence of continuing professional education which contributes to promoting the goals of this Section shall result in a loss of administrative certification.

(d) Any limited or life supervisory certificate issued prior to July 1, 1968 shall continue to be valid for all administrative and supervisory positions in the public schools for which it is valid as of that date as long as its holder meets the requirements for registration or renewal as set forth in the statutes or until revoked according to law.

(e) The administrative or supervisory positions for which the certificate shall be valid shall be determined by one or more of the following endorsements: general supervisory, general administrative, principal, chief school business official, and superintendent.

Subject to the provisions of Section 21-1a, endorsements shall be made under conditions set forth in this Section. The State Board of Education shall, in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board, adopt rules pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, establishing requirements for obtaining administrative certificates where the minimum administrative or supervisory requirements surpass those set forth in this Section.

The State Teacher Certification Board shall file with the State Board of Education a written recommendation when considering additional administrative or supervisory requirements. All additional requirements shall be based upon the requisite knowledge necessary to perform those tasks required by the certificate. The State Board of Education shall in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board, establish standards within its rules which shall include the academic and professional requirements necessary for certification. These standards shall at a minimum contain, but not be limited to, those used by the State Board of Education in determining whether additional knowledge will be required. Additionally, the State Board of Education shall in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board, establish provisions within its rules whereby any member of the educational community or the public may file a formal written recommendation or inquiry regarding requirements.

(1) Until July 1, 2003, the general supervisory endorsement shall be affixed to the administrative certificate of any holder who has at least 16 semester hours of graduate credit in professional education including 8 semester hours of graduate credit in curriculum and research and who has at least 2 years of full-time teaching experience or school service personnel experience in public schools, schools under the supervision of the Department of Corrections, schools under the administration of the Department of Rehabilitation Services, or nonpublic schools meeting the standards established by the State Superintendent of Education or comparable out-of-state recognition standards approved by the State Superintendent of Education.

Such endorsement shall be required for supervisors, curriculum directors and for such similar and related positions as determined by the State Superintendent of Education in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board.

(2) Until August 31, 2014, the general administrative endorsement shall be affixed to the administrative certificate of any holder who has at least 20 semester hours of graduate credit in educational administration and supervision and who has at least 2 years of full-time teaching experience or school service personnel experience in public schools, schools under the supervision of the Department of Corrections, schools under the administration of the Department of Rehabilitation Services, or nonpublic schools meeting the standards established by the State Superintendent of Education or comparable out-of-state recognition standards approved by the State Superintendent of Education.

Such endorsement or a principal endorsement shall be required for principal, assistant principal, assistant or associate superintendent, and junior college dean and for related or similar positions as determined by the State Superintendent of Education in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board.

(2.5) The principal endorsement shall be affixed to the administrative certificate of any holder who qualifies by:

(A) successfully completing a principal preparation program approved in accordance with Section 21-7.6 of this Code and any applicable rules;

(B) having 4 years of teaching experience; however, the State Board of Education shall allow, by rules, for fewer than 4 years of experience based on meeting standards set forth in such rules, including without limitation a review of performance evaluations or other evidence of demonstrated qualifications; and

(C) having a master's degree.

(3) The chief school business official endorsement shall be affixed to the administrative certificate of any holder who qualifies by having a Master's degree, 2 years of administrative experience in school business management or 2 years of university-approved practical experience, and a minimum of 20 semester hours of graduate credit in a program established by the State Superintendent of Education in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board for the preparation of school business administrators. Such endorsement shall also be affixed to the administrative certificate of any holder who qualifies by having a Master's Degree in Public Administration, Business Administration, Finance, or Accounting and 6 semester hours of internship in school business management from a regionally accredited institution of higher education.

After June 30, 1977, such endorsement shall be required for any individual first employed as a chief school business official.

(4) The superintendent endorsement shall be affixed to the administrative certificate of any holder who has completed 30 semester hours of graduate credit beyond the master's degree in a program for the preparation of superintendents of schools including 16 semester hours of graduate credit in professional education and who has at least 2 years experience as an administrator or supervisor in the public schools or the State Board of Education or education service regions or in nonpublic schools meeting the standards established by the State Superintendent of Education or comparable out-of-state recognition standards approved by the State Superintendent of Education and holds general supervisory or general administrative endorsement, or who has had 2 years of experience as a supervisor, chief school business official, or administrator while holding an all-grade supervisory certificate or a certificate comparable in validity and educational and experience requirements.

After June 30, 1968, such endorsement shall be required for a superintendent of schools, except as provided in the second paragraph of this Section and in Section 34-6.

Any person appointed to the position of superintendent between the effective date of this Act and June 30, 1993 in a school district organized pursuant to Article 32 with an enrollment of at least 20,000 pupils shall be exempt from the provisions of this paragraph (4) until June 30, 1996.

(f) All official interpretations or acts of issuing or denying administrative certificates or endorsements by the State Teacher's Certification Board, State Board of Education or the State Superintendent of Education, from the passage of P.A. 81-1208 on November 8, 1979 through September 24, 1981 are hereby declared valid and legal acts in all respects and further that the purported repeal of the provisions of this Section by P.A. 81-1208 and P.A. 81-1509 is declared null and void.

(g) This Section is repealed on June 30, 2013.

(Source: P.A. 96-56, eff. 1-1-10; 96-903, eff. 7-1-10; 96-982, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1423, eff. 8-3-10; 97-255, eff. 8-4-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-607, eff. 8-26-11; revised 9-28-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/21-25) (from Ch. 122, par. 21-25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2013)

Sec. 21-25. School service personnel certificate.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "school service personnel" means persons employed and performing appropriate services in an Illinois public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control or a charter school operating in compliance with the Charter Schools Law in a position requiring a school service personnel certificate.

Subject to the provisions of Section 21-1a, a school service personnel certificate shall be issued to those applicants of good character, good health, a citizen of the United States and at least 19 years of age who have a Bachelor's degree with not fewer than 120 semester hours from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning and who meets the requirements established by the State Superintendent of Education in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board. A school service personnel certificate with a school nurse endorsement may be issued to a person who holds a bachelor of science degree from an institution of higher learning accredited by the North Central Association or other comparable regional accrediting association. Persons seeking any other endorsement on the school service personnel certificate shall be recommended for the endorsement by a recognized teacher education institution as having completed a program of preparation approved by the State Superintendent of Education in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board.

(b) Until August 30, 2002, a school service personnel certificate endorsed for school social work may be issued to a student who has completed a school social work program that has not been approved by the State Superintendent of Education, provided that each of the following conditions is met:

(1) The program was offered by a recognized, public teacher education institution that first enrolled students in its master's degree program in social work in 1998;

(2) The student applying for the school service personnel certificate was enrolled in the institution's master's degree program in social work on or after May 11, 1998;

(3) The State Superintendent verifies that the student has completed coursework that is substantially similar to that required in approved school social work programs, including (i) not fewer than 600 clock hours of a supervised internship in a school setting or (ii) if the student has completed part of a supervised internship in a school setting prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly and receives the prior approval of the State Superintendent, not fewer than 300 additional clock hours of supervised work in a public school setting under the supervision of a certified school social worker who certifies that the supervised work was completed in a satisfactory manner; and

(4) The student has passed a test of basic skills and the test of subject matter knowledge required by Section 21-1a.

This subsection (b) does not apply after August 29, 2002.

(c) A school service personnel certificate shall be endorsed with the area of Service as determined by the State Superintendent of Education in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board.

The holder of such certificate shall be entitled to all of the rights and privileges granted holders of a valid teaching certificate, including teacher benefits, compensation and working conditions.

When the holder of such certificate has earned a master's degree, including 8 semester hours of graduate professional education from a recognized institution of higher learning, and has at least 2 years of successful school experience while holding such certificate, the certificate may be endorsed for supervision.

(d) Persons who have successfully achieved National Board certification through the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards shall be issued a Master School Service Personnel Certificate, valid for 10 years and renewable thereafter every 10 years through compliance with requirements set forth by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board. However, each holder of a Master School Service Personnel Certificate shall be eligible for a corresponding position in this State in the areas for which he or she holds a Master Certificate without satisfying any other requirements of this Code, except for those requirements pertaining to criminal background checks.

(e) School service personnel certificates are renewable every 5 years and may be renewed as provided in this Section. Requests for renewals must be submitted, in a format prescribed by the State Board of Education, to the regional office of education responsible for the school where the holder is employed.

Upon completion of at least 80 hours of continuing professional development as provided in this subsection (e), a person who holds a valid school service personnel certificate shall have his or her certificate renewed for a period of 5 years. A person who (i) holds an active license issued by the State as a clinical professional counselor, a professional counselor, a clinical social worker, a social worker, or a speech-language pathologist; (ii) holds national certification as a Nationally Certified School Psychologist from the National School Psychology Certification Board; (iii) is nationally certified as a National Certified School Nurse from the National Board for Certification of School Nurses; (iv) is nationally certified as a National Certified Counselor or National Certified School Counselor from the National Board for Certified Counselors; or (v) holds a Certificate of Clinical Competence from the American Speech-Language-Hearing Association shall be deemed to have satisfied the continuing professional development requirements established by the State Board of Education and the State Teacher Certification Board to renew a school service personnel certificate.

School service personnel certificates may be renewed by the State Teacher Certification Board based upon proof of continuing professional development. The State Board of Education shall (i) establish a procedure for renewing school service personnel certificates, which shall include without limitation annual timelines for the renewal process and the components set forth in this Section; (ii) approve or disapprove the providers of continuing professional development activities; and (iii) provide, on a timely basis to all school service personnel certificate holders, regional superintendents of schools, school districts, and others with an interest in continuing professional development, information about the standards and requirements established pursuant to this subsection (e).

Any school service personnel certificate held by an individual employed and performing services in an Illinois public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control in a certificated school service personnel position or in a charter school in compliance with the Charter Schools Law must be maintained Valid and Active through certificate renewal activities specified in the certificate renewal procedure established pursuant to this Section, provided that a holder of a Valid and Active certificate who is only employed on either a part-time basis or day-to-day basis as a substitute shall pay only the required registration fee to renew his or her certificate and maintain it as Valid and Active. All other school service personnel certificates held may be maintained as Valid and Exempt through the registration process provided for in the certificate renewal procedure established pursuant to Section 21-14 of this Code. A Valid and Exempt certificate must be immediately activated, through procedures developed by the State Board of Education upon the certificate holder becoming employed and performing services in an Illinois public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control in a certificated school service personnel position or in a charter school operating in compliance with the Charter Schools Law. A holder of a Valid and Exempt certificate may activate his or her certificate through procedures provided for in the certificate renewal procedure established pursuant to this Section.

A school service personnel certificate that has been maintained as Valid and Active for the 5 years of the certificate's validity shall be renewed as Valid and Active upon the certificate holder (i) completing the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards process in an area of concentration comparable to the holder's school service personnel certificate of endorsement or (ii) earning 80 continuing professional development units as described in this Section. If, however, the certificate holder has maintained the certificate as Valid and Exempt for a portion of the 5-year period of validity, the number of continuing professional development units needed to renew the certificate as Valid and Active must be proportionately reduced by the amount of time the certificate was Valid and Exempt. If a certificate holder is employed and performs services requiring the holder's school service personnel certificate on a part-time basis for all or a portion of the certificate's 5-year period of validity, the number of continuing professional development units needed to renew the certificate as Valid and Active shall be reduced by 50% for the amount of time the certificate holder has been employed and performing such services on a part-time basis. "Part-time" means less than 50% of the school day or school term.

Beginning July 1, 2008, in order to satisfy the requirements for continuing professional development provided for in this Section, each Valid and Active school service personnel certificate holder shall complete professional development activities that address the certificate or those certificates that are required of his or her certificated position, if the certificate holder is employed and performing services in an Illinois public or State operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control, or that certificate or those certificates most closely related to his or her teaching position, if the certificate holder is employed in a charter school. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (e), the certificate holder's activities must address and must reflect the following continuing professional development purposes:

(1) Advance both the certificate holder's knowledge and skills consistent with the Illinois Standards for the service area in which the certificate is endorsed in order to keep the certificate holder current in that area.

(2) Develop the certificate holder's knowledge and skills in areas determined by the State Board of Education to be critical for all school service personnel.

(3) Address the knowledge, skills, and goals of the certificate holder's local school improvement plan, if the certificate holder is employed in an Illinois public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control.

(4) Address the needs of serving students with disabilities, including adapting and modifying clinical or professional practices to meet the needs of students with disabilities and serving such students in the least restrictive environment.

(5) Address the needs of serving students who are the children of immigrants, including, if the certificate holder is employed as a counselor in an Illinois public or State-operated secondary school, opportunities for higher education for students who are undocumented immigrants.

The coursework or continuing professional development units ("CPDU") required under this subsection (e) must total 80 CPDUs or the equivalent and must address 4 of the 5 purposes described in items (1) through (5) of this subsection (e). Holders of school service personnel certificates may fulfill this obligation with any combination of semester hours or CPDUs as follows:

(A) Collaboration and partnership activities related to improving the school service personnel certificate holder's knowledge and skills, including (i) participating on collaborative planning and professional improvement teams and committees; (ii) peer review and coaching; (iii) mentoring in a formal mentoring program, including service as a consulting teacher participating in a remediation process formulated under Section 24A-5 of this Code; (iv) participating in site-based management or decision-making teams, relevant committees, boards, or task forces directly related to school improvement plans; (v) coordinating community resources in schools, if the project is a specific goal of the school improvement plan; (vi) facilitating parent education programs for a school, school district, or regional office of education directly related to student achievement or school improvement plans; (vii) participating in business, school, or community partnerships directly related to student achievement or school improvement plans; or (viii) supervising a student teacher (student services personnel) or teacher education candidate in clinical supervision, provided that the supervision may be counted only once during the course of 5 years.

(B) Coursework from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning related to one of the purposes listed in items (1) through (4) of this subsection (e), which shall apply at the rate of 15 continuing professional development units per semester hour of credit earned during the previous 5-year period when the status of the holder's school service personnel certificate was Valid and Active. Proportionate reductions shall apply when the holder's status was Valid and Active for less than the 5-year period preceding the renewal.

(C) Teaching college or university courses in areas relevant to the certificate area being renewed, provided that the teaching may be counted only once during the course of 5 years.

(D) Conferences, workshops, institutes, seminars, or symposiums designed to improve the certificate holder's knowledge and skills in the service area and applicable to the purposes listed in items (1) through (5) of this subsection (e). One CPDU shall be awarded for each hour of attendance. No one shall receive credit for conferences, workshops, institutes, seminars, or symposiums that are designed for entertainment, promotional, or commercial purposes or that are solely inspirational or motivational. The State Superintendent of Education and regional superintendents of schools are authorized to review the activities and events provided or to be provided under this subdivision (D) and to investigate complaints regarding those activities and events. Either the State Superintendent of Education or a regional superintendent of schools may recommend that the State Board of Education disapprove those activities and events considered to be inconsistent with this subdivision (D).

(E) Completing non-university credit directly related to student achievement, school improvement plans, or State priorities.

(F) Participating in or presenting at workshops, seminars, conferences, institutes, or symposiums.

(G) Training as external reviewers for quality assurance.

(H) Training as reviewers of university teacher preparation programs.

(I) Other educational experiences related to improving the school service personnel's knowledge and skills as a teacher, including (i) participating in action research and inquiry projects; (ii) traveling related to one's assignment and directly related to school service personnel achievement or school improvement plans and approved by the regional superintendent of schools or his or her designee at least 30 days prior to the travel experience, provided that the traveling shall not include time spent commuting to destinations where the learning experience will occur; (iii) participating in study groups related to student achievement or school improvement plans; (iv) serving on a statewide education-related committee, including without limitation the State Teacher Certification Board, State Board of Education strategic agenda teams, or the State Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities; (v) participating in work/learn programs or internships; or (vi) developing a portfolio of student and teacher work.

(J) Professional leadership experiences related to improving the teacher's knowledge and skills as a teacher, including (i) participating in curriculum development or assessment activities at the school, school district, regional office of education, State, or national level; (ii) participating in team or department leadership in a school or school district; (iii) participating on external or internal school or school district review teams; (iv) publishing educational articles, columns, or books relevant to the certificate area being renewed; or (v) participating in non-strike-related professional association or labor organization service or activities related to professional development.

(f) This Section is repealed on June 30, 2013.

(Source: P.A. 97-233, eff. 8-1-11; 97-607, eff. 8-26-11; revised 9-28-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/21-28)

Sec. 21-28. Special education teachers; certification.

(a) In order to create a special education workforce with the broad-based knowledge necessary to educate students with a variety of disabilities, the State Board of Education and State Teacher Certification Board shall certify a special education teacher under one of the following:

(1) Learning behavior specialist I.

(2) Learning behavior specialist II.

(3) Teacher of students who are blind or visually impaired.

(4) Teacher of students who are deaf or hard of hearing.

(5) Speech-language pathologist.

(6) Early childhood special education teacher.

(b) The State Board of Education is authorized to provide for the assignment of individuals to special education positions by short-term, emergency certification. Short-term, emergency certification shall not be renewed.

(c) The State Board of Education is authorized to use peremptory rulemaking, in accordance with Section 5-50 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, to place into the Illinois Administrative Code the certification policies and standards related to special education, as authorized under this Section, that the State Board has been required to implement pursuant to federal court orders dated February 27, 2001, August 15, 2001, and September 11, 2002 in the matter of Corey H., et al. v. Board of Education of the City of Chicago, et al. Intellectual disabilities

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-461, eff. 8-19-11; revised 10-13-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-75)

Sec. 21B-75. Suspension or revocation of license.

(a) As used in this Section, "teacher" means any school district employee regularly required to be licensed, as provided in this Article, in order to teach or supervise in the public schools.

(b) The State Superintendent of Education has the exclusive authority, in accordance with this Section and any rules adopted by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, to initiate the suspension of up to 5 calendar years or revocation of any license issued pursuant to this Article for abuse or neglect of a child, immorality, a condition of health detrimental to the welfare of pupils, incompetency, unprofessional conduct (which includes the failure to disclose on an employment application any previous conviction for a sex offense, as defined in Section 21B-80 of this Code, or any other offense committed in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed in this State, would be punishable as a sex offense, as defined in Section 21B-80 of this Code), the neglect of any professional duty, willful failure to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, failure to establish satisfactory repayment on an educational loan guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission, or other just cause. Unprofessional conduct shall include the refusal to attend or participate in institutes, teachers' meetings, or professional readings or to meet other reasonable requirements of the regional superintendent of schools or State Superintendent of Education. Unprofessional conduct also includes conduct that violates the standards, ethics, or rules applicable to the security, administration, monitoring, or scoring of or the reporting of scores from any assessment test or examination administered under Section 2-3.64 of this Code or that is known or intended to produce or report manipulated or artificial, rather than actual, assessment or achievement results or gains from the administration of those tests or examinations. Unprofessional conduct shall also include neglect or unnecessary delay in the making of statistical and other reports required by school officers. Incompetency shall include, without limitation, 2 or more school terms of service for which the license holder has received an unsatisfactory rating on a performance evaluation conducted pursuant to Article 24A of this Code within a period of 7 school terms of service. In determining whether to initiate action against one or more licenses based on incompetency and the recommended sanction for such action, the State Superintendent shall consider factors that include without limitation all of the following:

(1) Whether the unsatisfactory evaluation ratings occurred prior to June 13, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-8).

(2) Whether the unsatisfactory evaluation ratings occurred prior to or after the implementation date, as defined in Section 24A-2.5 of this Code, of an evaluation system for teachers in a school district.

(3) Whether the evaluator or evaluators who performed an unsatisfactory evaluation met the pre-licensure and training requirements set forth in Section 24A-3 of this Code.

(4) The time between the unsatisfactory evaluation ratings.

(5) The quality of the remediation plans associated with the unsatisfactory evaluation ratings and whether the license holder successfully completed the remediation plans.

(6) Whether the unsatisfactory evaluation ratings were related to the same or different assignments performed by the license holder.

(7) Whether one or more of the unsatisfactory evaluation ratings occurred in the first year of a teaching or administrative assignment. When initiating an action against one or more licenses, the State Superintendent may seek required professional development as a sanction in lieu of or in addition to suspension or revocation. Any such required professional development must be at the expense of the license holder, who may use, if available and applicable to the requirements established by administrative or court order, training, coursework, or other professional development funds in accordance with the terms of an applicable collective bargaining agreement entered into after June 13, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-8), unless that agreement specifically precludes use of funds for such purpose.

(c) The State Superintendent of Education shall, upon receipt of evidence of abuse or neglect of a child, immorality, a condition of health detrimental to the welfare of pupils, incompetency (subject to subsection (b) of this Section), unprofessional conduct, the neglect of any professional duty, or other just cause, further investigate and, if and as appropriate, serve written notice to the individual and afford the individual opportunity for a hearing prior to suspension, or revocation, or other sanction; provided that the State Superintendent is under no obligation to initiate such an investigation if the Department of Children and Family Services is investigating the same or substantially similar allegations and its child protective service unit has not made its determination, as required under Section 7.12 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. If the State Superintendent of Education does not receive from an individual a request for a hearing within 10 days after the individual receives notice, the suspension, or revocation, or other sanction shall immediately take effect in accordance with the notice. If a hearing is requested within 10 days after notice of an opportunity for hearing, it shall act as a stay of proceedings until the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board issues a decision. Any hearing shall take place in the educational service region where the educator is or was last employed and in accordance with rules adopted by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, and such rules shall include without limitation provisions for discovery and the sharing of information between parties prior to the hearing. The standard of proof for any administrative hearing held pursuant to this Section shall be by the preponderance of the evidence. The decision of the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board is a final administrative decision and is subject to judicial review by appeal of either party.

The State Board of Education may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

The exclusive authority of the State Superintendent of Education to initiate suspension or revocation of a license pursuant to this Section does not preclude a regional superintendent of schools from cooperating with the State Superintendent or a State's Attorney with respect to an investigation of alleged misconduct.

(d) The State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee may initiate and conduct such investigations as may be reasonably necessary to establish the existence of any alleged misconduct. At any stage of the investigation, the State Superintendent may issue a subpoena requiring the attendance and testimony of a witness, including the license holder, and the production of any evidence, including files, records, correspondence, or documents, relating to any matter in question in the investigation. The subpoena shall require a witness to appear at the State Board of Education at a specified date and time and shall specify any evidence to be produced. The license holder is not entitled to be present, but the State Superintendent shall provide the license holder with a copy of any recorded testimony prior to a hearing under this Section. Such recorded testimony must not be used as evidence at a hearing, unless the license holder has adequate notice of the testimony and the opportunity to cross-examine the witness. Failure of a license holder to comply with a duly issued, investigatory subpoena may be grounds for revocation, suspension, or denial of a license.

(e) All correspondence, documentation, and other information so received by the regional superintendent of schools, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Board of Education, or the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board under this Section is confidential and must not be disclosed to third parties, except (i) as necessary for the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee to investigate and prosecute pursuant to this Article, (ii) pursuant to a court order, (iii) for disclosure to the license holder or his or her representative, or (iv) as otherwise required in this Article and provided that any such information admitted into evidence in a hearing is exempt from this confidentiality and non-disclosure requirement.

(f) The State Superintendent of Education or a person designated by him or her shall have the power to administer oaths to witnesses at any hearing conducted before the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board pursuant to this Section. The State Superintendent of Education or a person designated by him or her is authorized to subpoena and bring before the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board any person in this State and to take testimony either orally or by deposition or by exhibit, with the same fees and mileage and in the same manner as prescribed by law in judicial proceedings in civil cases in circuit courts of this State.

(g) Any circuit court, upon the application of the State Superintendent of Education or the license holder, may, by order duly entered, require the attendance of witnesses and the production of relevant books and papers as part of any investigation or at any hearing the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board is authorized to conduct pursuant to this Section, and the court may compel obedience to its orders by proceedings for contempt.

(h) The State Board of Education shall receive an annual line item appropriation to cover fees associated with the investigation and prosecution of alleged educator misconduct and hearings related thereto.

(Source: P.A. 97-607, eff. 8-26-11; incorporates 97-8, eff. 6-13-11; revised 1-10-12.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-65)

Sec. 22-65. The Task Force on the Prevention of Sexual Abuse of Children. The Task Force on the Prevention of Sexual Abuse of Children is created within the Department of Children and Family Services. The Task Force shall consist of all of the following members:

(1) One member of the General Assembly and one member of the public, appointed by the President of the Senate.

(2) One member of the General Assembly and one member of the public, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(3) One member of the General Assembly and one member of the public, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(4) One member of the General Assembly and one member of the public, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(5) The Director of Children and Family Services or his or her designee.

(6) The State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee.

(7) The Director of Public Health or his or her designee.

(8) The Executive Director of the Illinois Violence Prevention Authority or his or her designee.

(9) A representative of an agency that leads the collaboration of the investigation, prosecution, and treatment of child sexual and physical abuse cases, appointed by the Director of Children and Family Services.

(10) A representative of an organization representing law enforcement, appointed by the Director of State Police.

(11) A representative of a statewide professional teachers' organization, appointed by the head of that organization.

(12) A representative of a different statewide professional teachers' organization, appointed by the head of that organization.

(13) A representative of an organization involved in the prevention of child abuse in this State, appointed by the Director of Children and Family Services.

(14) A representative of an organization representing school management in this State, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(15) Erin Merryn, for whom Section 10-23.13 of this Code is named.

Members of the Task Force must be individuals who are actively involved in the fields of the prevention of child abuse and neglect and child welfare. The appointment of members must reflect the geographic diversity of the State.

The Task Force shall elect a presiding officer by a majority vote of the membership of the Task Force. The Task Force shall meet at the call of the presiding officer.

The Task Force shall make recommendations for reducing child sexual abuse in Illinois. In making those recommendations, the Task Force shall:

(1) gather information concerning child sexual abuse throughout the State;

(2) receive reports and testimony from individuals, State and local agencies, community-based organizations, and other public and private organizations;

(3) create goals for State policy that would prevent child sexual abuse; and

(4) submit a final report with its recommendations to the Office of the Governor and the General Assembly by January 1, 2012.

The recommendations may include proposals for specific statutory changes and methods to foster cooperation among State agencies and between the State and local government.

The Task Force shall consult with employees of the Department of Children and Family Services, the Criminal Justice Information Agency, the Department of State Police, the Illinois State Board of Education, and any other State agency or department as necessary to accomplish the Task Force's responsibilities under this Section.

The members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation and shall not be reimbursed for their expenses.

The Task Force shall be abolished upon submission of the final report to the Office of the Governor and the General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-1524, eff. 2-14-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-70)

Sec. 22-70 22-65. Enrollment information; children of military personnel. At the time of annual enrollment or at any time during the school year, a school district or a recognized non-public school, except for sectarian non-public schools, serving any of grades kindergarten through 12 shall provide, either on its standard enrollment form or on a separate form, the opportunity for the individual enrolling the student to voluntarily state whether the student has a parent or guardian who is a member of a branch of the armed forces of the United States and who is either deployed to active duty or expects to be deployed to active duty during the school year. Each school district and recognized non-public school shall report this enrollment information as aggregate data to the State Board of Education.

(Source: P.A. 97-505, eff. 8-23-11; revised 10-31-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-4)

Sec. 27A-4. General Provisions.

(a) The General Assembly does not intend to alter or amend the provisions of any court-ordered desegregation plan in effect for any school district. A charter school shall be subject to all federal and State laws and constitutional provisions prohibiting discrimination on the basis of disability, race, creed, color, gender, national origin, religion, ancestry, marital status, or need for special education services.

(b) The total number of charter schools operating under this Article at any one time shall not exceed 120. Not more than 70 charter schools shall operate at any one time in any city having a population exceeding 500,000, with at least 5 charter schools devoted exclusively to students from low-performing or overcrowded schools operating at any one time in that city; and not more than 45 charter schools shall operate at any one time in the remainder of the State, with not more than one charter school that has been initiated by a board of education, or by an intergovernmental agreement between or among boards of education, operating at any one time in the school district where the charter school is located. In addition to these charter schools, up to but no more than 5 charter schools devoted exclusively to re-enrolled high school dropouts and/or students 16 or 15 years old at risk of dropping out may operate at any one time in any city having a population exceeding 500,000. Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in subsection (b) of Section 27A-5 of this Code, each such dropout charter may operate up to 15 campuses within the city. Any of these dropout charters may have a maximum of 1,875 enrollment seats, any one of the campuses of the dropout charter may have a maximum of 165 enrollment seats, and each campus of the dropout charter must be operated, through a contract or payroll, by the same legal entity as that for which the charter is approved and certified.

For purposes of implementing this Section, the State Board shall assign a number to each charter submission it receives under Section 27A-6 for its review and certification, based on the chronological order in which the submission is received by it. The State Board shall promptly notify local school boards when the maximum numbers of certified charter schools authorized to operate have been reached.

(c) No charter shall be granted under this Article that would convert any existing private, parochial, or non-public school to a charter school.

(d) Enrollment in a charter school shall be open to any pupil who resides within the geographic boundaries of the area served by the local school board, provided that the board of education in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may designate attendance boundaries for no more than one-third of the charter schools permitted in the city if the board of education determines that attendance boundaries are needed to relieve overcrowding or to better serve low-income and at-risk students. Students residing within an attendance boundary may be given priority for enrollment, but must not be required to attend the charter school.

(e) Nothing in this Article shall prevent 2 or more local school boards from jointly issuing a charter to a single shared charter school, provided that all of the provisions of this Article are met as to those local school boards.

(f) No local school board shall require any employee of the school district to be employed in a charter school.

(g) No local school board shall require any pupil residing within the geographic boundary of its district to enroll in a charter school.

(h) If there are more eligible applicants for enrollment in a charter school than there are spaces available, successful applicants shall be selected by lottery. However, priority shall be given to siblings of pupils enrolled in the charter school and to pupils who were enrolled in the charter school the previous school year, unless expelled for cause, and priority may be given to pupils residing within the charter school's attendance boundary, if a boundary has been designated by the board of education in a city having a population exceeding 500,000. Dual enrollment at both a charter school and a public school or non-public school shall not be allowed. A pupil who is suspended or expelled from a charter school shall be deemed to be suspended or expelled from the public schools of the school district in which the pupil resides. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this subsection (h), any charter school with a mission exclusive to educating high school dropouts may grant priority admission to students who are high school dropouts and/or students 16 or 15 years old at risk of dropping out and any charter school with a mission exclusive to educating students from low-performing or overcrowded schools may restrict admission to students who are from low-performing or overcrowded schools. "Priority admission" for charter schools exclusively devoted to re-enrolled dropouts or students at risk of dropping out means a minimum of 90% of students enrolled shall be high school dropouts.

(i) (Blank).

(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, a school district in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 shall not have a duty to collectively bargain with an exclusive representative of its employees over decisions to grant or deny a charter school proposal under Section 27A-8 of this Code, decisions to renew or revoke a charter under Section 27A-9 of this Code, and the impact of these decisions, provided that nothing in this Section shall have the effect of negating, abrogating, replacing, reducing, diminishing, or limiting in any way employee rights, guarantees, or privileges granted in Sections 2, 3, 7, 8, 10, 14, and 15 of the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.

(k) In this Section:

"Low-performing school" means a public school in a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code that enrolls students in any of grades kindergarten through 8 and that is ranked within the lowest 10% of schools in that district in terms of the percentage of students meeting or exceeding standards on the Illinois Standards Achievement Test.

"Overcrowded school" means a public school in a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code that (i) enrolls students in any of grades kindergarten through 8, (ii) has a percentage of low-income students of 70% or more, as identified in the most recently available School Report Card published by the State Board of Education, and (iii) is determined by the Chicago Board of Education to be in the most severely overcrowded 5% of schools in the district. On or before November 1 of each year, the Chicago Board of Education shall file a report with the State Board of Education on which schools in the district meet the definition of "overcrowded school". "Students at risk of dropping out" means students 16 or 15 years old in a public school in a district organized under Article 34 of this Code that enrolls students in any grades 9-12 who have been absent at least 90 school attendance days of the previous 180 school attendance days.

(Source: P.A. 96-105, eff. 7-30-09; 97-151, eff. 1-1-12; 97-624, eff. 11-28-11; revised 11-29-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-5)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, in all new applications submitted to the State Board or a local school board to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. The changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly do not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before the effective date of this amendatory Act.

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act.

(d) A charter school shall comply with all applicable health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. Annually, by December 1, every charter school must submit to the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in the School Code governing public schools and local school board policies, except the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of the School Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 24-24 and 34-84A of the School Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) The Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(6) The Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of the School Code regarding school report cards; and

(8) The P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. However, a charter school that is established on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and that operates in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to manage or operate the school during the period that commences on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005 school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is approved by the Commission, then the Commission charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 96-104, eff. 1-1-10; 96-105, eff. 7-30-09; 96-107, eff. 7-30-09; 96-734, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-152, eff. 7-20-11; 97-154, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-18)

Sec. 34-18. Powers of the board. The board shall exercise general supervision and jurisdiction over the public education and the public school system of the city, and, except as otherwise provided by this Article, shall have power:

1. To make suitable provision for the establishment and maintenance throughout the year or for such portion thereof as it may direct, not less than 9 months, of schools of all grades and kinds, including normal schools, high schools, night schools, schools for defectives and delinquents, parental and truant schools, schools for the blind, the deaf and the physically disabled, schools or classes in manual training, constructural and vocational teaching, domestic arts and physical culture, vocation and extension schools and lecture courses, and all other educational courses and facilities, including establishing, equipping, maintaining and operating playgrounds and recreational programs, when such programs are conducted in, adjacent to, or connected with any public school under the general supervision and jurisdiction of the board; provided that the calendar for the school term and any changes must be submitted to and approved by the State Board of Education before the calendar or changes may take effect, and provided that in allocating funds from year to year for the operation of all attendance centers within the district, the board shall ensure that supplemental general State aid funds are allocated and applied in accordance with Section 18-8 or 18-8.05. To admit to such schools without charge foreign exchange students who are participants in an organized exchange student program which is authorized by the board. The board shall permit all students to enroll in apprenticeship programs in trade schools operated by the board, whether those programs are union-sponsored or not. No student shall be refused admission into or be excluded from any course of instruction offered in the common schools by reason of that student's sex. No student shall be denied equal access to physical education and interscholastic athletic programs supported from school district funds or denied participation in comparable physical education and athletic programs solely by reason of the student's sex. Equal access to programs supported from school district funds and comparable programs will be defined in rules promulgated by the State Board of Education in consultation with the Illinois High School Association. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, neither the board of education nor any local school council or other school official shall recommend that children with disabilities be placed into regular education classrooms unless those children with disabilities are provided with supplementary services to assist them so that they benefit from the regular classroom instruction and are included on the teacher's regular education class register;

2. To furnish lunches to pupils, to make a reasonable charge therefor, and to use school funds for the payment of such expenses as the board may determine are necessary in conducting the school lunch program;

3. To co-operate with the circuit court;

4. To make arrangements with the public or quasi-public libraries and museums for the use of their facilities by teachers and pupils of the public schools;

5. To employ dentists and prescribe their duties for the purpose of treating the pupils in the schools, but accepting such treatment shall be optional with parents or guardians;

6. To grant the use of assembly halls and classrooms when not otherwise needed, including light, heat, and attendants, for free public lectures, concerts, and other educational and social interests, free of charge, under such provisions and control as the principal of the affected attendance center may prescribe;

7. To apportion the pupils to the several schools; provided that no pupil shall be excluded from or segregated in any such school on account of his color, race, sex, or nationality. The board shall take into consideration the prevention of segregation and the elimination of separation of children in public schools because of color, race, sex, or nationality. Except that children may be committed to or attend parental and social adjustment schools established and maintained either for boys or girls only. All records pertaining to the creation, alteration or revision of attendance areas shall be open to the public. Nothing herein shall limit the board's authority to establish multi-area attendance centers or other student assignment systems for desegregation purposes or otherwise, and to apportion the pupils to the several schools. Furthermore, beginning in school year 1994-95, pursuant to a board plan adopted by October 1, 1993, the board shall offer, commencing on a phased-in basis, the opportunity for families within the school district to apply for enrollment of their children in any attendance center within the school district which does not have selective admission requirements approved by the board. The appropriate geographical area in which such open enrollment may be exercised shall be determined by the board of education. Such children may be admitted to any such attendance center on a space available basis after all children residing within such attendance center's area have been accommodated. If the number of applicants from outside the attendance area exceed the space available, then successful applicants shall be selected by lottery. The board of education's open enrollment plan must include provisions that allow low income students to have access to transportation needed to exercise school choice. Open enrollment shall be in compliance with the provisions of the Consent Decree and Desegregation Plan cited in Section 34-1.01;

8. To approve programs and policies for providing transportation services to students. Nothing herein shall be construed to permit or empower the State Board of Education to order, mandate, or require busing or other transportation of pupils for the purpose of achieving racial balance in any school;

9. Subject to the limitations in this Article, to establish and approve system-wide curriculum objectives and standards, including graduation standards, which reflect the multi-cultural diversity in the city and are consistent with State law, provided that for all purposes of this Article courses or proficiency in American Sign Language shall be deemed to constitute courses or proficiency in a foreign language; and to employ principals and teachers, appointed as provided in this Article, and fix their compensation. The board shall prepare such reports related to minimal competency testing as may be requested by the State Board of Education, and in addition shall monitor and approve special education and bilingual education programs and policies within the district to assure that appropriate services are provided in accordance with applicable State and federal laws to children requiring services and education in those areas;

10. To employ non-teaching personnel or utilize volunteer personnel for: (i) non-teaching duties not requiring instructional judgment or evaluation of pupils, including library duties; and (ii) supervising study halls, long distance teaching reception areas used incident to instructional programs transmitted by electronic media such as computers, video, and audio, detention and discipline areas, and school-sponsored extracurricular activities. The board may further utilize volunteer non-certificated personnel or employ non-certificated personnel to assist in the instruction of pupils under the immediate supervision of a teacher holding a valid certificate, directly engaged in teaching subject matter or conducting activities; provided that the teacher shall be continuously aware of the non-certificated persons' activities and shall be able to control or modify them. The general superintendent shall determine qualifications of such personnel and shall prescribe rules for determining the duties and activities to be assigned to such personnel;

10.5. To utilize volunteer personnel from a regional School Crisis Assistance Team (S.C.A.T.), created as part of the Safe to Learn Program established pursuant to Section 25 of the Illinois Violence Prevention Act of 1995, to provide assistance to schools in times of violence or other traumatic incidents within a school community by providing crisis intervention services to lessen the effects of emotional trauma on individuals and the community; the School Crisis Assistance Team Steering Committee shall determine the qualifications for volunteers;

11. To provide television studio facilities in not to exceed one school building and to provide programs for educational purposes, provided, however, that the board shall not construct, acquire, operate, or maintain a television transmitter; to grant the use of its studio facilities to a licensed television station located in the school district; and to maintain and operate not to exceed one school radio transmitting station and provide programs for educational purposes;

12. To offer, if deemed appropriate, outdoor education courses, including field trips within the State of Illinois, or adjacent states, and to use school educational funds for the expense of the said outdoor educational programs, whether within the school district or not;

13. During that period of the calendar year not embraced within the regular school term, to provide and conduct courses in subject matters normally embraced in the program of the schools during the regular school term and to give regular school credit for satisfactory completion by the student of such courses as may be approved for credit by the State Board of Education;

14. To insure against any loss or liability of the board, the former School Board Nominating Commission, Local School Councils, the Chicago Schools Academic Accountability Council, or the former Subdistrict Councils or of any member, officer, agent or employee thereof, resulting from alleged violations of civil rights arising from incidents occurring on or after September 5, 1967 or from the wrongful or negligent act or omission of any such person whether occurring within or without the school premises, provided the officer, agent or employee was, at the time of the alleged violation of civil rights or wrongful act or omission, acting within the scope of his employment or under direction of the board, the former School Board Nominating Commission, the Chicago Schools Academic Accountability Council, Local School Councils, or the former Subdistrict Councils; and to provide for or participate in insurance plans for its officers and employees, including but not limited to retirement annuities, medical, surgical and hospitalization benefits in such types and amounts as may be determined by the board; provided, however, that the board shall contract for such insurance only with an insurance company authorized to do business in this State. Such insurance may include provision for employees who rely on treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone for healing, in accordance with the tenets and practice of a recognized religious denomination;

15. To contract with the corporate authorities of any municipality or the county board of any county, as the case may be, to provide for the regulation of traffic in parking areas of property used for school purposes, in such manner as is provided by Section 11-209 of The Illinois Vehicle Code, approved September 29, 1969, as amended;

16. (a) To provide, on an equal basis, access to a high school campus and student directory information to the official recruiting representatives of the armed forces of Illinois and the United States for the purposes of informing students of the educational and career opportunities available in the military if the board has provided such access to persons or groups whose purpose is to acquaint students with educational or occupational opportunities available to them. The board is not required to give greater notice regarding the right of access to recruiting representatives than is given to other persons and groups. In this paragraph 16, "directory information" means a high school student's name, address, and telephone number.

(b) If a student or his or her parent or guardian submits a signed, written request to the high school before the end of the student's sophomore year (or if the student is a transfer student, by another time set by the high school) that indicates that the student or his or her parent or guardian does not want the student's directory information to be provided to official recruiting representatives under subsection (a) of this Section, the high school may not provide access to the student's directory information to these recruiting representatives. The high school shall notify its students and their parents or guardians of the provisions of this subsection (b).

(c) A high school may require official recruiting representatives of the armed forces of Illinois and the United States to pay a fee for copying and mailing a student's directory information in an amount that is not more than the actual costs incurred by the high school.

(d) Information received by an official recruiting representative under this Section may be used only to provide information to students concerning educational and career opportunities available in the military and may not be released to a person who is not involved in recruiting students for the armed forces of Illinois or the United States;

17. (a) To sell or market any computer program developed by an employee of the school district, provided that such employee developed the computer program as a direct result of his or her duties with the school district or through the utilization of the school district resources or facilities. The employee who developed the computer program shall be entitled to share in the proceeds of such sale or marketing of the computer program. The distribution of such proceeds between the employee and the school district shall be as agreed upon by the employee and the school district, except that neither the employee nor the school district may receive more than 90% of such proceeds. The negotiation for an employee who is represented by an exclusive bargaining representative may be conducted by such bargaining representative at the employee's request.

(b) For the purpose of this paragraph 17:

(1) "Computer" means an internally programmed, general purpose digital device capable of automatically accepting data, processing data and supplying the results of the operation.

(2) "Computer program" means a series of coded instructions or statements in a form acceptable to a computer, which causes the computer to process data in order to achieve a certain result.

(3) "Proceeds" means profits derived from marketing or sale of a product after deducting the expenses of developing and marketing such product;

18. To delegate to the general superintendent of schools, by resolution, the authority to approve contracts and expenditures in amounts of $10,000 or less;

19. Upon the written request of an employee, to withhold from the compensation of that employee any dues, payments or contributions payable by such employee to any labor organization as defined in the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act. Under such arrangement, an amount shall be withheld from each regular payroll period which is equal to the pro rata share of the annual dues plus any payments or contributions, and the board shall transmit such withholdings to the specified labor organization within 10 working days from the time of the withholding;

19a. Upon receipt of notice from the comptroller of a municipality with a population of 500,000 or more, a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or a housing authority of a municipality with a population of 500,000 or more that a debt is due and owing the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority by an employee of the Chicago Board of Education, to withhold, from the compensation of that employee, the amount of the debt that is due and owing and pay the amount withheld to the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority; provided, however, that the amount deducted from any one salary or wage payment shall not exceed 25% of the net amount of the payment. Before the Board deducts any amount from any salary or wage of an employee under this paragraph, the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority shall certify that (i) the employee has been afforded an opportunity for a hearing to dispute the debt that is due and owing the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority and (ii) the employee has received notice of a wage deduction order and has been afforded an opportunity for a hearing to object to the order. For purposes of this paragraph, "net amount" means that part of the salary or wage payment remaining after the deduction of any amounts required by law to be deducted and "debt due and owing" means (i) a specified sum of money owed to the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority for services, work, or goods, after the period granted for payment has expired, or (ii) a specified sum of money owed to the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority pursuant to a court order or order of an administrative hearing officer after the exhaustion of, or the failure to exhaust, judicial review;

20. The board is encouraged to employ a sufficient number of certified school counselors to maintain a student/counselor ratio of 250 to 1 by July 1, 1990. Each counselor shall spend at least 75% of his work time in direct contact with students and shall maintain a record of such time;

21. To make available to students vocational and career counseling and to establish 5 special career counseling days for students and parents. On these days representatives of local businesses and industries shall be invited to the school campus and shall inform students of career opportunities available to them in the various businesses and industries. Special consideration shall be given to counseling minority students as to career opportunities available to them in various fields. For the purposes of this paragraph, minority student means a person who is any of the following:

(a) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(b) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(c) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(d) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(e) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

Counseling days shall not be in lieu of regular school days;

22. To report to the State Board of Education the annual student dropout rate and number of students who graduate from, transfer from or otherwise leave bilingual programs;

23. Except as otherwise provided in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or other applicable State or federal law, to permit school officials to withhold, from any person, information on the whereabouts of any child removed from school premises when the child has been taken into protective custody as a victim of suspected child abuse. School officials shall direct such person to the Department of Children and Family Services, or to the local law enforcement agency if appropriate;

24. To develop a policy, based on the current state of existing school facilities, projected enrollment and efficient utilization of available resources, for capital improvement of schools and school buildings within the district, addressing in that policy both the relative priority for major repairs, renovations and additions to school facilities, and the advisability or necessity of building new school facilities or closing existing schools to meet current or projected demographic patterns within the district;

25. To make available to the students in every high school attendance center the ability to take all courses necessary to comply with the Board of Higher Education's college entrance criteria effective in 1993;

26. To encourage mid-career changes into the teaching profession, whereby qualified professionals become certified teachers, by allowing credit for professional employment in related fields when determining point of entry on teacher pay scale;

27. To provide or contract out training programs for administrative personnel and principals with revised or expanded duties pursuant to this Act in order to assure they have the knowledge and skills to perform their duties;

28. To establish a fund for the prioritized special needs programs, and to allocate such funds and other lump sum amounts to each attendance center in a manner consistent with the provisions of part 4 of Section 34-2.3. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to require any additional appropriations of State funds for this purpose;

29. (Blank);

30. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or any other law to the contrary, to contract with third parties for services otherwise performed by employees, including those in a bargaining unit, and to layoff those employees upon 14 days written notice to the affected employees. Those contracts may be for a period not to exceed 5 years and may be awarded on a system-wide basis. The board may not operate more than 30 contract schools, provided that the board may operate an additional 5 contract turnaround schools pursuant to item (5.5) of subsection (d) of Section 34-8.3 of this Code;

31. To promulgate rules establishing procedures governing the layoff or reduction in force of employees and the recall of such employees, including, but not limited to, criteria for such layoffs, reductions in force or recall rights of such employees and the weight to be given to any particular criterion. Such criteria shall take into account factors including, but not be limited to, qualifications, certifications, experience, performance ratings or evaluations, and any other factors relating to an employee's job performance;

32. To develop a policy to prevent nepotism in the hiring of personnel or the selection of contractors;

33. To enter into a partnership agreement, as required by Section 34-3.5 of this Code, and, notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, to promulgate policies, enter into contracts, and take any other action necessary to accomplish the objectives and implement the requirements of that agreement; and

34. To establish a Labor Management Council to the board comprised of representatives of the board, the chief executive officer, and those labor organizations that are the exclusive representatives of employees of the board and to promulgate policies and procedures for the operation of the Council.

The specifications of the powers herein granted are not to be construed as exclusive but the board shall also exercise all other powers that they may be requisite or proper for the maintenance and the development of a public school system, not inconsistent with the other provisions of this Article or provisions of this Code which apply to all school districts.

In addition to the powers herein granted and authorized to be exercised by the board, it shall be the duty of the board to review or to direct independent reviews of special education expenditures and services. The board shall file a report of such review with the General Assembly on or before May 1, 1990.

(Source: P.A. 96-105, eff. 7-30-09; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-396, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.5) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-18.5)

Sec. 34-18.5. Criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database.

(a) Certified and noncertified applicants for employment with the school district are required as a condition of employment to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check to determine if such applicants have been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or have been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State. Authorization for the check shall be furnished by the applicant to the school district, except that if the applicant is a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one school district, or a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one school district (as a reading specialist, special education teacher or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one district, any such district may require the applicant to furnish authorization for the check to the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which are located the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee. Upon receipt of this authorization, the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent, as the case may be, shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Department of State Police, to the Department. The regional superintendent submitting the requisite information to the Department of State Police shall promptly notify the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee that the check of the applicant has been requested. The Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, until expunged, to the president of the school board for the school district that requested the check, or to the regional superintendent who requested the check. The Department shall charge the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent a fee for conducting such check, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry; and the applicant shall not be charged a fee for such check by the school district or by the regional superintendent. Subject to appropriations for these purposes, the State Superintendent of Education shall reimburse the school district and regional superintendent for fees paid to obtain criminal history records checks under this Section.

(a-5) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, for each applicant.

(a-6) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Community Notification Law, for each applicant.

(b) Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the board of education or the regional superintendent shall be confidential and may only be transmitted to the general superintendent of the school district or his designee, the appropriate regional superintendent if the check was requested by the board of education for the school district, the presidents of the appropriate board of education or school boards if the check was requested from the Department of State Police by the regional superintendent, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Teacher Certification Board or any other person necessary to the decision of hiring the applicant for employment. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Department of State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Upon the check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, the school district or regional superintendent shall notify an applicant as to whether or not the applicant has been identified in the Database as a sex offender. If a check of an applicant for employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee in more than one school district was requested by the regional superintendent, and the Department of State Police upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and so notifies the regional superintendent and if the regional superintendent upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been identified in the Sex Offender Database as a sex offender, then the regional superintendent shall issue to the applicant a certificate evidencing that as of the date specified by the Department of State Police the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and evidencing that as of the date that the regional superintendent conducted a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, the applicant has not been identified in the Database as a sex offender. The school board of any school district may rely on the certificate issued by any regional superintendent to that substitute teacher, concurrent part-time teacher, or concurrent educational support personnel employee or may initiate its own criminal history records check of the applicant through the Department of State Police and its own check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database as provided in subsection (a). Any person who releases any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions of an applicant for employment shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, unless the release of such information is authorized by this Section.

(c) The board of education shall not knowingly employ a person who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to Section 21B-80 of this Code. Further, the board of education shall not knowingly employ a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of any minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(d) The board of education shall not knowingly employ a person for whom a criminal history records check and a Statewide Sex Offender Database check has not been initiated.

(e) Upon receipt of the record of a conviction of or a finding of child abuse by a holder of any certificate issued pursuant to Article 21 or Section 34-8.1 or 34-83 of the School Code, the State Superintendent of Education may initiate certificate suspension and revocation proceedings as authorized by law.

(e-5) The general superintendent of schools shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education of any certificate holder whom he or she has reasonable cause to believe has committed an intentional act of abuse or neglect with the result of making a child an abused child or a neglected child, as defined in Section 3 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and that act resulted in the certificate holder's dismissal or resignation from the school district. This notification must be submitted within 30 days after the dismissal or resignation. The certificate holder must also be contemporaneously sent a copy of the notice by the superintendent. All correspondence, documentation, and other information so received by the State Superintendent of Education, the State Board of Education, or the State Teacher Certification Board under this subsection (e-5) is confidential and must not be disclosed to third parties, except (i) as necessary for the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee to investigate and prosecute pursuant to Article 21 of this Code, (ii) pursuant to a court order, (iii) for disclosure to the certificate holder or his or her representative, or (iv) as otherwise provided in this Article and provided that any such information admitted into evidence in a hearing is exempt from this confidentiality and non-disclosure requirement. Except for an act of willful or wanton misconduct, any superintendent who provides notification as required in this subsection (e-5) shall have immunity from any liability, whether civil or criminal or that otherwise might result by reason of such action.

(f) After March 19, 1990, the provisions of this Section shall apply to all employees of persons or firms holding contracts with any school district including, but not limited to, food service workers, school bus drivers and other transportation employees, who have direct, daily contact with the pupils of any school in such district. For purposes of criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database on employees of persons or firms holding contracts with more than one school district and assigned to more than one school district, the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which the contracting school districts are located may, at the request of any such school district, be responsible for receiving the authorization for a criminal history records check prepared by each such employee and submitting the same to the Department of State Police and for conducting a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database for each employee. Any information concerning the record of conviction and identification as a sex offender of any such employee obtained by the regional superintendent shall be promptly reported to the president of the appropriate school board or school boards.

(g) In order to student teach in the public schools, a person is required to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database prior to participating in any field experiences in the public schools. Authorization for and payment of the costs of the checks must be furnished by the student teacher. Results of the checks must be furnished to the higher education institution where the student teacher is enrolled and the general superintendent of schools.

(h) Upon request of a school, school district, community college district, or private school, any information obtained by the school district pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section within the last year must be made available to that school, school district, community college district, or private school.

(Source: P.A. 96-431, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1452, eff. 8-20-10; 97-154, eff. 1-1-12; 97-248, eff. 1-1-12; 97-607, eff. 8-26-11; revised 9-28-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.45)

Sec. 34-18.45. Minimum reading instruction. The board shall promote 60 minutes of minimum reading opportunities daily for students in kindergarten through 3rd grade whose reading level is one grade level or lower than their his or her current grade level according to current learning standards and the school district.

(Source: P.A. 97-88, eff. 7-8-11; revised 10-7-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.46)

Sec. 34-18.46 34-18.45. Student athletes; concussions and head injuries.

(a) The General Assembly recognizes all of the following:

(1) Concussions are one of the most commonly reported injuries in children and adolescents who participate in sports and recreational activities. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention estimates that as many as 3,900,000 sports-related and recreation-related concussions occur in the United States each year. A concussion is caused by a blow or motion to the head or body that causes the brain to move rapidly inside the skull. The risk of catastrophic injuries or death are significant when a concussion or head injury is not properly evaluated and managed.

(2) Concussions are a type of brain injury that can range from mild to severe and can disrupt the way the brain normally works. Concussions can occur in any organized or unorganized sport or recreational activity and can result from a fall or from players colliding with each other, the ground, or with obstacles. Concussions occur with or without loss of consciousness, but the vast majority of concussions occur without loss of consciousness.

(3) Continuing to play with a concussion or symptoms of a head injury leaves a young athlete especially vulnerable to greater injury and even death. The General Assembly recognizes that, despite having generally recognized return-to-play standards for concussions and head injuries, some affected youth athletes are prematurely returned to play, resulting in actual or potential physical injury or death to youth athletes in this State.

(b) The board shall adopt a policy regarding student athlete concussions and head injuries that is in compliance with the protocols, policies, and by-laws of the Illinois High School Association. Information on the board's concussion and head injury policy must be a part of any agreement, contract, code, or other written instrument that the school district requires a student athlete and his or her parents or guardian to sign before participating in practice or interscholastic competition.

(c) The Illinois High School Association shall make available to the school district education materials, such as visual presentations and other written materials, that describe the nature and risk of concussions and head injuries. The school district shall use education materials provided by the Illinois High School Association to educate coaches, student athletes, and parents and guardians of student athletes about the nature and risk of concussions and head injuries, including continuing play after a concussion or head injury.

(Source: P.A. 97-204, eff. 7-28-11; revised 10-7-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-19) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-19)

Sec. 34-19. By-laws, rules and regulations; business transacted at regular meetings; voting; records. The board shall, subject to the limitations in this Article, establish by-laws, rules and regulations, which shall have the force of ordinances, for the proper maintenance of a uniform system of discipline for both employees and pupils, and for the entire management of the schools, and may fix the school age of pupils, the minimum of which in kindergartens shall not be under 4 years, except that, based upon an assessment of the child's readiness, children who have attended a non-public preschool and continued their education at that school through kindergarten, were taught in kindergarten by an appropriately certified teacher, and will attain the age of 6 years on or before December 31 of the year of the 2009-2010 school term and each school term thereafter may attend first grade upon commencement of such term, and in grade schools shall not be under 6 years. It may expel, suspend or, subject to the limitations of all policies established or adopted under Section 14-8.05, otherwise discipline any pupil found guilty of gross disobedience, misconduct or other violation of the by-laws, rules and regulations, including gross disobedience or misconduct perpetuated by electronic means. An expelled pupil may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the expulsion, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program. A pupil who is suspended in excess of 20 school days may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the suspension, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program. The bylaws, rules and regulations of the board shall be enacted, money shall be appropriated or expended, salaries shall be fixed or changed, and textbooks, electronic textbooks, and courses of instruction shall be adopted or changed only at the regular meetings of the board and by a vote of a majority of the full membership of the board; provided that notwithstanding any other provision of this Article or the School Code, neither the board or any local school council may purchase any textbook for use in any public school of the district from any textbook publisher that fails to furnish any computer diskettes as required under Section 28-21. Funds appropriated for textbook purchases must be available for electronic textbook purchases and the technological equipment necessary to gain access to and use electronic textbooks at the local school council's discretion. The board shall be further encouraged to provide opportunities for public hearing and testimony before the adoption of bylaws, rules and regulations. Upon all propositions requiring for their adoption at least a majority of all the members of the board the yeas and nays shall be taken and reported. The by-laws, rules and regulations of the board shall not be repealed, amended or added to, except by a vote of 2/3 of the full membership of the board. The board shall keep a record of all its proceedings. Such records and all by-laws, rules and regulations, or parts thereof, may be proved by a copy thereof certified to be such by the secretary of the board, but if they are printed in book or pamphlet form which are purported to be published by authority of the board they need not be otherwise published and the book or pamphlet shall be received as evidence, without further proof, of the records, by-laws, rules and regulations, or any part thereof, as of the dates thereof as shown in such book or pamphlet, in all courts and places where judicial proceedings are had.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article or in the School Code, the board may delegate to the general superintendent or to the attorney the authorities granted to the board in the School Code, provided such delegation and appropriate oversight procedures are made pursuant to board by-laws, rules and regulations, adopted as herein provided, except that the board may not delegate its authorities and responsibilities regarding (1) budget approval obligations; (2) rule-making functions; (3) desegregation obligations; (4) real estate acquisition, sale or lease in excess of 10 years as provided in Section 34-21; (5) the levy of taxes; or (6) any mandates imposed upon the board by "An Act in relation to school reform in cities over 500,000, amending Acts herein named", approved December 12, 1988 (P.A. 85-1418).

(Source: P.A. 96-864, eff. 1-21-10; 96-1403, eff. 7-29-10; 97-340, eff. 1-1-12; 97-495, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-200)

Sec. 34-200. Definitions. For the purposes of Sections 34-200 through 34-235 of this Article:

"Capital improvement plan" means a plan that identifies capital projects to be started or finished within the designated period, excluding projects funded by locally raised capital not exceeding $10,000.

"Community area" means a geographic area of the City of Chicago defined by the chief executive officer as part of the development of the educational facilities master plan.

"Space utilization" means the percentage achieved by dividing the school's actual enrollment by its design capacity.

"School closing" or "school closure" means the closing of a school, the effect of which is the assignment and transfer of all students enrolled at that school to one or more designated receiving schools.

"School consolidation" means the consolidation of 2 or more schools by closing one or more schools and reassigning the students to another school.

"Phase-out" means the gradual cessation of enrollment in certain grades each school year until a school closes or is consolidated with another school.

"School action" means any school closing;, school consolidation;, co-location;, boundary change that requires reassignment of students, unless the reassignment is to a new school with an attendance area boundary and is made to relieve overcrowding; if the boundary change forces a student transfer, or phase-out.

(Source: P.A. 97-473, eff. 1-1-12; 97-474, eff. 8-22-11; revised 10-18-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-205)

Sec. 34-205. Educational facility standards.

(a) By January 1, 2012 December 31, 2011, the district shall publish space utilization standards on the district's website. The standards shall include the following:

(1) the method by which design capacity is calculated, including consideration of the requirements of elementary and secondary programs, shared campuses, after school programming, the facility needs, grade and age ranges of the attending students, and use of school buildings by governmental agencies and community organizations;

(2) the method to determine efficient use of a school building based upon educational program design capacity;

(3) the rate of utilization; and

(4) the standards for overcrowding and underutilization.

(b) The chief executive officer or his or her designee shall publish a space utilization report for each school building operated by the district on the district's website by December 31 of each year.

(c) The facility performance standards provisions are as follows:

(1) On or before January 1, 2012 December 31, 2011, the chief executive officer shall propose minimum and optimal facility performance standards for thermal comfort, daylight, acoustics, indoor air quality, furniture ergonomics for students and staff, technology, life safety, ADA accessibility, plumbing and washroom access, environmental hazards, and walkability.

(2) The chief executive officer shall conduct at least one public hearing and submit the proposed educational facilities standards to each local school council and to the Chicago Public Building Commission for review and comment prior to adoption submission to the Board.

(3) After the chief executive officer has incorporated the input and recommendations of the public and the Chicago Public Building Commission, the chief executive officer shall issue final facility performance standards.

(4) The chief executive officer is authorized to amend the facility performance standards following the procedures in this Section.

(5) The final educational facility space utilization and performance standards shall be published on the district's Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 97-473, eff. 1-1-12; 97-474, eff. 8-22-11; revised 10-18-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-225)

Sec. 34-225. School transition plans.

(a) If the Board approves a school action, the chief executive officer or his or her designee shall work collaboratively with local school educators and families of students attending a school that is the subject of a school action to ensure successful integration of affected students into new learning environments.

(b) The chief executive officer or his or her designee shall prepare and implement a school transition plan to support students attending a school that is the subject of a school action that accomplishes the goals of this Section. The chief executive must identify and commit specific resources for implementation of the school transition plan for a minimum of the full first academic year after the board approves a school action.

(c) The school transition plan shall include the following:

(1) services to support the academic, social, and emotional needs of students; supports for students with disabilities, homeless students, and English language learners; and support to address security and safety issues;

(2) options to enroll in higher performing schools;

(3) informational briefings counseling regarding the choice of schools that include includes all pertinent information to enable the parent or guardian and child to make an informed choice, including the option to visit the schools of choice prior to making a decision; and

(4) the provision of appropriate transportation where practicable.

(Source: P.A. 97-473, eff. 1-1-12; 97-474, eff. 8-22-11; revised 10-18-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-230)

Sec. 34-230. School action public meetings and hearings.

(a) By November 1 of each year, the chief executive officer shall prepare and publish guidelines for school actions. The guidelines shall outline the academic and non-academic criteria for a school action. These guidelines, and each subsequent revision, shall be subject to a public comment period of at least 21 days before their approval.

(b) The chief executive officer shall announce all proposed school actions to be taken at the close of the current academic year consistent with the guidelines by December 1 of each year.

(c) On or before December 1, 2011 of each year, the chief executive officer shall publish notice of the proposed school actions.

(1) Notice of the proposal for a school action shall include a written statement of the basis for the school action, and an explanation of how the school action meets the criteria set forth in the guidelines. This proposal shall include a preliminary, and a draft School Transition Plan identifying the items required in Section 34-225 of this Code for all schools affected by the school action. The notice shall state the date, time, and place of the hearing or meeting.

(2) The chief executive officer or his or her designee shall provide notice to the principal, staff, local school council, and parents or guardians of any school that is subject to the proposed school action.

(3) The chief executive officer shall provide written notice of any proposed school action to the State Senator, State Representative, and alderman for the school or schools that are subject to the proposed school action.

(4) The chief executive officer shall publish notice of proposed school actions on the district's Internet website and in a newspaper of general circulation.

(5) The chief executive officer shall provide notice of proposed school actions at least 30 calendar days in advance of a public hearing or meeting. The notice shall state the date, time, and place of the hearing or meeting. No Board decision regarding a proposed school action may take place less than 60 days after the announcement of the proposed school action.

(d) The chief executive officer shall publish a brief summary of the proposed school actions and the date, time, and place of the hearings or meetings in a newspaper of general circulation.

(e) (d) The chief executive officer shall designate at least 3 opportunities to elicit public comment at a hearing or meeting on a proposed school action and shall do the following:

(1) Convene at least one public hearing at the centrally located office of the Board.

(2) Convene at least 2 additional public hearings or meetings at a location convenient to the school community subject to the proposed school action.

(f) (e) Public hearings shall be conducted by a qualified independent hearing officer chosen from a list of independent hearing officers. The general counsel shall compile and publish a list of independent hearing officers by November 1 of each school year. The independent hearing officer shall have the following qualifications:

(1) he or she must be a licensed attorney eligible to practice law in Illinois;

(2) he or she must not be an employee of the Board; and

(3) he or she must not have represented the Board, its employees or any labor organization representing its employees, any local school council, or any charter or contract school in any capacity within the last year.

(4) The independent hearing officer shall issue a written report that summarizes the hearing and determines whether the chief executive officer complied with the requirements of this Section and the guidelines.

(5) The chief executive officer shall publish the report on the district's Internet website within 5 calendar days after receiving the report and at least 15 days prior to any Board action being taken.

(g) (f) Public meetings hearings shall be conducted by a representative of the chief executive officer. A summary of the public meeting shall be published on the district's Internet website within 5 calendar days after the meeting.

(h) (g) If the chief executive officer proposes a school action without following the mandates set forth in this Section, the proposed school action shall not be approved by the Board during the school year in which the school action was proposed.

(Source: P.A. 97-473, eff. 1-1-12; 97-474, eff. 8-22-11; revised 10-18-11.)

Section 235. The Forensic Psychiatry Fellowship Training Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(110 ILCS 46/10)

Sec. 10. Powers and duties under program. Under the forensic psychiatry fellowship training program created under Section 5 of this Act, the University of Illinois at Chicago and Southern Illinois University shall each have all of the following powers and duties:

(1) The university's undergraduate and graduate programs may increase their service and training commitments in order to provide mental health care to chronically mentally ill populations in this State.

(2) The university shall coordinate service, education, and research in mental health and may work with communities, State agencies, other colleges and universities, private foundations, health care providers, and other interested organizations on innovative strategies to respond to the challenges of providing greater physician presence in the field of forensic psychiatry. However, the majority of the clinical rotations of the fellows must be served in publicly supported programs in this State.

(3) The university may establish such clinical and educational centers and may cooperate with other universities and associations as may be necessary to carry out the intent of this Act according to the following priorities:

(A) a preference for programs that are designed to enroll, educate, and facilitate the graduation of mental health professionals trained in forensic psychiatry and other forensic mental health sub-specialties sub-specialities; and

(B) a preference for public sector programs that involve networking with other agencies, organizations, and institutions that have similar objectives.

(Source: P.A. 95-22, eff. 8-3-07; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 240. The Public University Energy Conservation Act is amended by changing Section 5-5 as follows:

(110 ILCS 62/5-5)

Sec. 5-5. Public university. "Public university" means any of the the following institutions of higher learning: the University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Eastern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, Northeastern Illinois University, Chicago State University, Governors State University, or Illinois State University, acting in each case through its board of trustees or through a designee of that board.

(Source: P.A. 90-486, eff. 8-17-97; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 245. The Board of Higher Education Act is amended by changing Sections 8 and 9.16 as follows:

(110 ILCS 205/8) (from Ch. 144, par. 188)

Sec. 8. The Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University, and the Illinois Community College Board shall submit to the Board not later than the 15th day of November of each year its budget proposals for the operation and capital needs of the institutions under its governance or supervision for the ensuing fiscal year. Each budget proposal shall conform to the procedures developed by the Board in the design of an information system for State universities and colleges.

In order to maintain a cohesive system of higher education, the Board and its staff shall communicate on a regular basis with all public university presidents. They shall meet at least semiannually to achieve economies of scale where possible and provide the most innovative and efficient programs and services.

The Board, in the analysis of formulating the annual budget request, shall consider rates of tuition and fees and undergraduate tuition and fee waiver programs at the state universities and colleges. The Board shall also consider the current and projected utilization of the total physical plant of each campus of a university or college in approving the capital budget for any new building or facility.

The Board of Higher Education shall submit to the Governor, to the General Assembly, and to the appropriate budget agencies of the Governor and General Assembly its analysis and recommendations on such budget proposals.

The Board is directed to form a broad-based group of individuals representing the Office of the Governor, the General Assembly, public institutions of higher education, State agencies, business and industry, Statewide organizations representing faculty and staff, and others as the Board shall deem appropriate to devise a system for allocating State resources to public institutions of higher education based upon performance in achieving State goals related to student success and certificate and degree completion.

Beginning in Fiscal Year 2013, the Board of Higher Education budget recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly shall include allocations to public institutions of higher education based upon performance metrics designed to promote and measure student success in degree and certificate completion. These metrics must be adopted by the Board by rule and must be developed and promulgated in accordance with the following principles:

(1) The metrics must be developed in consultation with public institutions of higher education, as well as other State educational agencies and other higher education organizations, associations, interests, and stakeholders as deemed appropriate by the Board.

(2) The metrics shall include provisions for recognizing the demands on and rewarding the performance of institutions in advancing the success of students who are academically or financially at risk, including first-generation students, low-income students, and students traditionally underrepresented in higher education, as specified in Section 9.16 of this Act.

(3) The metrics shall recognize and account for the differentiated missions of institutions and sectors of higher education.

(4) The metrics shall focus on the fundamental goal of increasing completion of college courses, certificates, and degrees. Performance metrics shall recognize the unique and broad mission of public community colleges through consideration of additional factors including, but not limited to, enrollment, progress through key academic milestones, transfer to a baccalaureate institution, and degree completion.

(5) The metrics must be designed to maintain the quality of degrees, certificates, courses, and programs. In devising performance metrics, the Board may be guided by the report of the Higher Education Finance Study Commission.

Each state supported institution within the application of this Act must submit its plan for capital improvements of non-instructional facilities to the Board for approval before final commitments are made if the total cost of the project as approved by the institution's board of control is in excess of $2 million. Non-instructional uses shall include but not be limited to dormitories, union buildings, field houses, stadium, other recreational facilities and parking lots. The Board shall determine whether or not any project submitted for approval is consistent with the master plan for higher education and with instructional buildings that are provided for therein. If the project is found by a majority of the Board not to be consistent, such capital improvement shall not be constructed.

(Source: P.A. 97-290, eff. 8-10-11; 97-320, eff. 1-1-12; 97-610, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(110 ILCS 205/9.16) (from Ch. 144, par. 189.16)

Sec. 9.16. Underrepresentation of certain groups in higher education. To require public institutions of higher education to develop and implement methods and strategies to increase the participation of minorities, women and handicapped individuals who are traditionally underrepresented in education programs and activities. For the purpose of this Section, minorities shall mean persons who are citizens of the United States or lawful permanent resident aliens of the United States and who are any of the following:

(1) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(2) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(3) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(4) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

The Board shall adopt any rules necessary to administer this Section. The Board shall also do the following:

(a) require all public institutions of higher education to develop and submit plans for the implementation of this Section;

(b) conduct periodic review of public institutions of higher education to determine compliance with this Section; and if the Board finds that a public institution of higher education is not in compliance with this Section, it shall notify the institution of steps to take to attain compliance;

(c) provide advice and counsel pursuant to this Section;

(d) conduct studies of the effectiveness of methods and strategies designed to increase participation of students in education programs and activities in which minorities, women and handicapped individuals are traditionally underrepresented, and monitor the success of students in such education programs and activities;

(e) encourage minority student recruitment and retention in colleges and universities. In implementing this paragraph, the Board shall undertake but need not be limited to the following: the establishment of guidelines and plans for public institutions of higher education for minority student recruitment and retention, the review and monitoring of minority student programs implemented at public institutions of higher education to determine their compliance with any guidelines and plans so established, the determination of the effectiveness and funding requirements of minority student programs at public institutions of higher education, the dissemination of successful programs as models, and the encouragement of cooperative partnerships between community colleges and local school attendance centers which are experiencing difficulties in enrolling minority students in four-year colleges and universities;

(f) mandate all public institutions of higher education to submit data and information essential to determine compliance with this Section. The Board shall prescribe the format and the date for submission of this data and any other education equity data; and

(g) report to the General Assembly and the Governor annually with a description of the plans submitted by each public institution of higher education for implementation of this Section, including financial data relating to the most recent fiscal year expenditures for specific minority programs, the effectiveness of such plans and programs and the effectiveness of the methods and strategies developed by the Board in meeting the purposes of this Section, the degree of compliance with this Section by each public institution of higher education as determined by the Board pursuant to its periodic review responsibilities, and the findings made by the Board in conducting its studies and monitoring student success as required by paragraph d) of this Section. With respect to each public institution of higher education such report also shall include, but need not be limited to, information with respect to each institution's minority program budget allocations; minority student admission, retention and graduation statistics; admission, retention, and graduation statistics of all students who are the first in their immediate family to attend an institution of higher education; number of financial assistance awards to undergraduate and graduate minority students; and minority faculty representation. This paragraph shall not be construed to prohibit the Board from making, preparing or issuing additional surveys or studies with respect to minority education in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 97-396, eff. 1-1-12; 97-588, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

Section 250. The Public Community College Act is amended by changing Section 3A-1 as follows:

(110 ILCS 805/3A-1) (from Ch. 122, par. 103A-1)

Sec. 3A-1. Any community college district may borrow money for the purpose of building, equipping, altering or repairing community college buildings or purchasing or improving community college sites, or acquiring and equipping recreation grounds, athletic fields, and other buildings or land used or useful for community college purposes or for the purpose of purchasing a site, with or without a building or buildings thereon, or for the building of a house or houses on such site, or for the building of a house or houses on the site of the community college district, for residential purposes of the administrators or faculty of the community college district, and issue its negotiable coupon bonds therefor signed by the chairman and secretary of the board, in denominations of not less than $100 nor more than $5,000, payable at such place and at such time or times, not exceeding 20 years from date of issuance, as the board may prescribe, and bearing interest at a rate not to exceed the maximum rate authorized by the Bond Authorization Act, as amended at the time of the making of the contract, payable annually, semiannually or quarterly, but no such bonds shall be issued unless the proposition to issue them is submitted to the voters of the community college district at a regular scheduled election in such district and the board shall certify the proposition to the proper election authorities for submission in accordance with the general election law and a majority of all the votes cast on the proposition is in favor of the proposition, nor shall any residential site be acquired unless such proposition to acquire a site is submitted to the voters of the district at a regular scheduled election and the board shall certify the proposition to the proper election authorities for submission to the electors in accordance with the general election law and a majority of all the votes cast on the proposition is in favor of the proposition. Nothing in this Act shall be construed as to require the listing of maturity dates of any bonds either in the notice of bond election or ballot used in the bond election.

Bonds issued in accordance with this Section for Elgin Community College District No. 509 may be payable at such time or times, not exceeding 25 years from date of issuance, as the board may prescribe, if the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held in 2009.

(ii) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the board determines, by resolution, that the projects built, acquired, altered, renovated, repaired, purchased, improved, installed, or equipped with the proceeds of the bonds are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district, to meet demand in the fields of health care or public safety, to meet accreditation standards, or to maintain campus safety and security.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more more bond issuances, on or before April 7, 2014.

(iv) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those purposes approved by the voters at an election held in 2009.

Bonds issued in accordance with this Section for Kishwaukee Community College District No. 523 may be payable at such time or times, not exceeding 25 years from date of issuance, as the board may prescribe, if the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held in 2010 or 2011.

(ii) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the board determines, by resolution, that the projects built, acquired, altered, renovated, repaired, purchased, improved, installed, or equipped with the proceeds of the bonds are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district, to meet demand in the fields of health care or public safety, to meet accreditation standards, or to maintain campus safety and security.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before November 2, 2015.

(iv) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those purposes approved by the voters at an election held in 2010 or 2011.

With respect to instruments for the payment of money issued under this Section either before, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1989, it is and always has been the intention of the General Assembly (i) that the Omnibus Bond Acts are and always have been supplementary grants of power to issue instruments in accordance with the Omnibus Bond Acts, regardless of any provision of this Act that may appear to be or to have been more restrictive than those Acts, (ii) that the provisions of this Section are not a limitation on the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts, and (iii) that instruments issued under this Section within the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts are not invalid because of any provision of this Act that may appear to be or to have been more restrictive than those Acts.

(Source: P.A. 96-787, eff. 8-28-09; 96-1077, eff. 7-16-10; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 255. The Illinois Banking Act is amended by changing Section 79 as follows:

(205 ILCS 5/79) (from Ch. 17, par. 391)

Sec. 79. Board, terms of office. The terms of office of the State Banking Board of Illinois shall be 4 years, except that the initial Board appointments shall be staggered with the Governor initially appointing, with advice and consent of the Senate, 3 members to serve 2-year terms, 4 members to serve 3-year terms, and 4 members to serve 4-year terms. Members shall continue to serve on the Board until their replacement is appointed and qualified. Vacancies shall be filled by appointment by the Governor with advice and consent of the Senate.

(d) No State Banking Board member shall serve more than 2 full 4-year terms of office.

(Source: P.A. 96-1163, eff. 1-1-11; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 260. The Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985 is amended by changing Section 6-4 as follows:

(205 ILCS 105/6-4) (from Ch. 17, par. 3306-4)

Sec. 6-4. Merger; Adoption of plan. Any depository institution may merge into an association operating under this Act; any association operating under this Act may merge into a depository institution. The board of directors of the merging association or depository institution, by resolution adopted by a majority vote of all members of the board, must approve the plan of merger, which shall set forth:

(a) the The name of each of the merging associations or depository institutions and the name of the continuing association or depository institution and the location of its business office;

(b) the The amount of capital, reserves, and undivided profits of the continuing association or depository institution and the kinds of shares and other types of capital to be issued thereby;

(c) the The articles of incorporation of the continuing association or charter of the continuing depository institution;

(d) a A detailed pro forma financial Statement of the assets and liabilities of the continuing association or depository institution;

(e) the The manner and basis of converting the capital of each merging association or depository institution into capital of the continuing association or depository institution;

(f) the The other terms and conditions of the merger and the method of effectuating it; and

(g) other Other provisions with respect to the merger that appear necessary or desirable or that the Secretary may reasonably require to enable him to discharge his duties with respect to the merger.

(h) The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-492, eff. 1-1-12; revised 1-11-12.)

Section 265. The Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 3-2 as follows:

(205 ILCS 635/3-2) (from Ch. 17, par. 2323-2)

Sec. 3-2. Annual audit.

(a) At the licensee's fiscal year-end, but in no case more than 12 months after the last audit conducted pursuant to this Section, except as otherwise provided in this Section, it shall be mandatory for each residential mortgage licensee to cause its books and accounts to be audited by a certified public accountant not connected with such licensee. The books and records of all licensees under this Act shall be maintained on an accrual basis. The audit must be sufficiently comprehensive in scope to permit the expression of an opinion on the financial statements, which must be prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, and must be performed in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards. Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection, a licensee that is a first tier subsidiary may submit audited consolidated financial statements of its parent as long as the consolidated statements are supported by consolidating statements. The licensee's chief financial officer shall attest to the licensee's financial statements disclosed in the consolidating statements.

(b) As used herein, the term "expression of opinion" includes either (1) an unqualified opinion, (2) a qualified opinion, (3) a disclaimer of opinion, or (4) an adverse opinion.

(c) If a qualified or adverse opinion is expressed or if an opinion is disclaimed, the reasons therefore must be fully explained. An opinion, qualified as to a scope limitation, shall not be acceptable.

(d) The most recent audit report shall be filed with the Commissioner within 90 days after the end of the licensee's fiscal year, or with the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry, if applicable, pursuant to Mortgage Call Report requirements. The report filed with the Commissioner shall be certified by the certified public accountant conducting the audit. The Commissioner may promulgate rules regarding late audit reports.

(e) If any licensee required to make an audit shall fail to cause an audit to be made, the Commissioner shall cause the same to be made by a certified public accountant at the licensee's expense. The Commissioner shall select such certified public accountant by advertising for bids or by such other fair and impartial means as he or she establishes by regulation.

(f) In lieu of the audit or compilation financial statement required by this Section, a licensee shall submit and the Commissioner may accept any audit made in conformance with the audit requirements of the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development.

(g) With respect to licensees who solely broker residential mortgage loans as defined in subsection (o) of Section 1-4, instead of the audit required by this Section, the Commissioner may accept compilation financial statements prepared at least every 12 months, and the compilation financial statement must be prepared by an independent certified public accountant licensed under the Illinois Public Accounting Act or by an equivalent state licensing law with full disclosure in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles principals and must be submitted within 90 days after the end of the licensee's fiscal year, or with the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry, if applicable, pursuant to Mortgage Call Report requirements. If a licensee under this Section fails to file a compilation as required, the Commissioner shall cause an audit of the licensee's books and accounts to be made by a certified public accountant at the licensee's expense. The Commissioner shall select the certified public accountant by advertising for bids or by such other fair and impartial means as he or she establishes by rule. A licensee who files false or misleading compilation financial statements is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined not less than $5,000.

(h) The workpapers of the certified public accountants employed by each licensee for purposes of this Section are to be made available to the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee upon request and may be reproduced by the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee to enable to the Commissioner to carry out the purposes of this Act.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, if a licensee relying on subsection (g) of this Section causes its books to be audited at any other time or causes its financial statements to be reviewed, a complete copy of the audited or reviewed financial statements shall be delivered to the Commissioner at the time of the annual license renewal payment following receipt by the licensee of the audited or reviewed financial statements. All workpapers shall be made available to the Commissioner upon request. The financial statements and workpapers may be reproduced by the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee to carry out the purposes of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-112, eff. 7-31-09; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 270. The Consumer Installment Loan Act is amended by changing Section 17.5 as follows:

(205 ILCS 670/17.5)

Sec. 17.5. Consumer reporting service.

(a) For the purpose of this Section, "certified database" means the consumer reporting service database established pursuant to the Payday Loan Reform Act.

(b) Within 90 days after making a small consumer loan, a licensee shall enter information about the loan into the certified database.

(c) For every small consumer loan made, the licensee shall input the following information into the certified database within 90 days after the loan is made:

(i) the consumer's name and official identification number (for purposes of this Act, "official identification number" includes a Social Security Number, an Individual Taxpayer Identification Number, a Federal Employer Identification Number, an Alien Registration Number, or an identification number imprinted on a passport or consular identification document issued by a foreign government);

(ii) the consumer's gross monthly income;

(iii) the date of the loan;

(iv) the amount financed;

(v) the term of the loan;

(vi) the acquisition charge;

(vii) the monthly installment account handling charge;

(viii) the verification fee;

(ix) the number and amount of payments; and

(x) whether the loan is a first or subsequent refinancing of a prior small consumer loan.

(d) Once a loan is entered with the certified database, the certified database shall provide to the licensee a dated, time-stamped statement acknowledging the certified database's receipt of the information and assigning each loan a unique loan number.

(e) The licensee shall update the certified database within 90 days if any of the following events occur:

(i) the loan is paid in full by cash;

(ii) the loan is refinanced;

(iii) the loan is renewed;

(iv) the loan is satisfied in full or in part by collateral being sold after default;

(v) the loan is cancelled or rescinded; or

(vi) the consumer's obligation on the loan is otherwise discharged by the licensee.

(f) To the extent a licensee sells a product or service to a consumer, other than a small consumer loan, and finances any portion of the cost of the product or service, the licensee shall, in addition to and at the same time as the information inputted under subsection (d) of this Section, enter into the certified database:

(i) a description of the product or service sold;

(ii) the charge for the product or service; and

(iii) the portion of the charge for the product or service, if any, that is included in the amount financed by a small consumer loan.

(g) The certified database provider shall indemnify the licensee against all claims and actions arising from illegal or willful or wanton acts on the part of the certified database provider. The certified database provider may charge a fee not to exceed $1 for each loan entered into the certified database under subsection (d) of this Section. The database provider shall not charge any additional fees or charges to the licensee.

(h) All personally identifiable information regarding any consumer obtained by way of the certified database and maintained by the Department is strictly confidential and shall be exempt from disclosure under subsection (c) provision (i) of item (b) of subsection (1) of Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act.

(i) A licensee who submits information to a certified database provider in accordance with this Section shall not be liable to any person for any subsequent release or disclosure of that information by the certified database provider, the Department, or any other person acquiring possession of the information, regardless of whether such subsequent release or disclosure was lawful, authorized, or intentional.

(j) To the extent the certified database becomes unavailable to a licensee as a result of some event or events outside the control of the licensee or the certified database is decertified, the requirements of this Section and Section 17.4 of this Act are suspended until such time as the certified database becomes available.

(Source: P.A. 96-936, eff. 3-21-11; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 275. The Illinois Financial Services Development Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(205 ILCS 675/5) (from Ch. 17, par. 7005)

Sec. 5. A financial institution may charge and collect interest under a revolving credit plan on outstanding unpaid indebtedness in the borrower's account under the plan at such periodic percentage rate or rates as the agreement governing the plan provides or as established in the manner provided in the agreement governing the plan. If the agreement governing the revolving credit plan so provides, the periodic percentage rate or rates of interest under such plan may vary in accordance with a schedule or formula. Such periodic percentage rate or rates may vary from time to time as the rate determined in accordance with such schedule or formula varies and such periodic percentage rate or rates, as so varied, may be made applicable to all outstanding unpaid indebtedness under the plan on or after the effective date of such variation, including any such indebtedness arising out of purchases made or loans obtained prior to such variation in the periodic percentage rate or rates. If the applicable periodic percentage rate under the agreement governing the plan is other than daily, periodic interest may be calculated on an amount not in excess of the average of outstanding unpaid indebtedness for the applicable billing period, determined by dividing the total of the amounts of outstanding unpaid indebtedness for each day in the applicable billing period by the number of days in the billing period. If the applicable periodic percentage rate under the agreement governing the plan is monthly, a billing period shall be deemed to be a month or monthly if the last day of each billing period is on the same day of each month or does not vary by more than that 4 days therefrom.

(Source: P.A. 85-1432; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 280. The Alternative Health Care Delivery Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 30 as follows:

(210 ILCS 3/15)

Sec. 15. License required. No health care facility or program that meets the definition and scope of an alternative health care model shall operate as such unless it is a participant in a demonstration program under this Act and licensed by the Department as an alternative health care model. , the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, ID/DD The provisions of this Act concerning children's respite care centers shall not apply to any facility licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the University of Illinois Hospital Act that provides respite care services to children.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-135, eff. 7-14-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 3/30)

Sec. 30. Demonstration program requirements. The requirements set forth in this Section shall apply to demonstration programs.

(a) (Blank).

(a-5) There shall be no more than the total number of postsurgical recovery care centers with a certificate of need for beds as of January 1, 2008.

(a-10) There shall be no more than a total of 9 children's respite care center alternative health care models in the demonstration program, which shall be located as follows:

(1) Two in the City of Chicago.

(2) One in Cook County outside the City of Chicago.

(3) A total of 2 in the area comprised of DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties.

(4) A total of 2 in municipalities with a population of 50,000 or more and not located in the areas described in paragraphs (1), (2), or (3).

(5) A total of 2 in rural areas, as defined by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

No more than one children's respite care model owned and operated by a licensed skilled pediatric facility shall be located in each of the areas designated in this subsection (a-10).

(a-15) There shall be 5 authorized community-based residential rehabilitation center alternative health care models in the demonstration program.

(a-20) There shall be an authorized Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model in the demonstration program. The Alzheimer's disease management center shall be located in Will County, owned by a not-for-profit entity, and endorsed by a resolution approved by the county board before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly.

(a-25) There shall be no more than 10 birth center alternative health care models in the demonstration program, located as follows:

(1) Four in the area comprising Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties, one of which shall be owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.

(2) Three in municipalities with a population of 50,000 or more not located in the area described in paragraph (1) of this subsection, one of which shall be owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.

(3) Three in rural areas, one of which shall be owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.

The first 3 birth centers authorized to operate by the Department shall be located in or predominantly serve the residents of a health professional shortage area as determined by the United States Department of Health and Human Services. There shall be no more than 2 birth centers authorized to operate in any single health planning area for obstetric services as determined under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act. If a birth center is located outside of a health professional shortage area, (i) the birth center shall be located in a health planning area with a demonstrated need for obstetrical service beds, as determined by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board or (ii) there must be a reduction in the existing number of obstetrical service beds in the planning area so that the establishment of the birth center does not result in an increase in the total number of obstetrical service beds in the health planning area.

(b) Alternative health care models, other than a model authorized under subsection (a-10) or (a-20), shall obtain a certificate of need from the Health Facilities and Services Review Board under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act before receiving a license by the Department. If, after obtaining its initial certificate of need, an alternative health care delivery model that is a community based residential rehabilitation center seeks to increase the bed capacity of that center, it must obtain a certificate of need from the Health Facilities and Services Review Board before increasing the bed capacity. Alternative health care models in medically underserved areas shall receive priority in obtaining a certificate of need.

(c) An alternative health care model license shall be issued for a period of one year and shall be annually renewed if the facility or program is in substantial compliance with the Department's rules adopted under this Act. A licensed alternative health care model that continues to be in substantial compliance after the conclusion of the demonstration program shall be eligible for annual renewals unless and until a different licensure program for that type of health care model is established by legislation, except that a postsurgical recovery care center meeting the following requirements may apply within 3 years after August 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-669) for a Certificate of Need permit to operate as a hospital:

(1) The postsurgical recovery care center shall apply to the Illinois Health Facilities and Services Review Planning Board for a Certificate of Need permit to discontinue the postsurgical recovery care center and to establish a hospital.

(2) If the postsurgical recovery care center obtains a Certificate of Need permit to operate as a hospital, it shall apply for licensure as a hospital under the Hospital Licensing Act and shall meet all statutory and regulatory requirements of a hospital.

(3) After obtaining licensure as a hospital, any license as an ambulatory surgical treatment center and any license as a post-surgical recovery care center shall be null and void.

(4) The former postsurgical recovery care center that receives a hospital license must seek and use its best efforts to maintain certification under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

The Department may issue a provisional license to any alternative health care model that does not substantially comply with the provisions of this Act and the rules adopted under this Act if (i) the Department finds that the alternative health care model has undertaken changes and corrections which upon completion will render the alternative health care model in substantial compliance with this Act and rules and (ii) the health and safety of the patients of the alternative health care model will be protected during the period for which the provisional license is issued. The Department shall advise the licensee of the conditions under which the provisional license is issued, including the manner in which the alternative health care model fails to comply with the provisions of this Act and rules, and the time within which the changes and corrections necessary for the alternative health care model to substantially comply with this Act and rules shall be completed.

(d) Alternative health care models shall seek certification under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act. In addition, alternative health care models shall provide charitable care consistent with that provided by comparable health care providers in the geographic area.

(d-5) (Blank).

(e) Alternative health care models shall, to the extent possible, link and integrate their services with nearby health care facilities.

(f) Each alternative health care model shall implement a quality assurance program with measurable benefits and at reasonable cost.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-129, eff. 8-4-09; 96-669, eff. 8-25-09; 96-812, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1071, eff. 7-16-10; 96-1123, eff. 1-1-11; 97-135, eff. 7-14-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 285. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(210 ILCS 5/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 157-8.3)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings ascribed to them:

(A) "Ambulatory surgical treatment center" means any institution, place or building devoted primarily to the maintenance and operation of facilities for the performance of surgical procedures or any facility in which a medical or surgical procedure is utilized to terminate a pregnancy, irrespective of whether the facility is devoted primarily to this purpose. Such facility shall not provide beds or other accommodations for the overnight stay of patients; however, facilities devoted exclusively to the treatment of children may provide accommodations and beds for their patients for up to 23 hours following admission. Individual patients shall be discharged in an ambulatory condition without danger to the continued well being of the patients or shall be transferred to a hospital.

The term "ambulatory surgical treatment center" does not include any of the following:

(1) Any institution, place, building or agency required to be licensed pursuant to the "Hospital Licensing Act", approved July 1, 1953, as amended.

(2) Any person or institution required to be licensed pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act.

(3) Hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers under its management and control.

(4) Hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers maintained by the Federal Government or agencies thereof.

(5) Any place, agency, clinic, or practice, public or private, whether organized for profit or not, devoted exclusively to the performance of dental or oral surgical procedures.

(B) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, association, or joint stock association, or the legal successor thereof.

(C) "Department" means the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(D) "Director" means the Director of the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(E) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches in the State of Illinois.

(F) "Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.

(G) "Podiatrist" means a person licensed to practice podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

Section 290. The Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 35, 55, and 145 as follows:

(210 ILCS 9/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. For purposes of this Act:

"Activities of daily living" means eating, dressing, bathing, toileting, transferring, or personal hygiene.

"Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" means a home, building, residence, or any other place where sleeping accommodations are provided for at least 3 unrelated adults, at least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and where the following are provided consistent with the purposes of this Act:

(1) services consistent with a social model that is based on the premise that the resident's unit in assisted living and shared housing is his or her own home;

(2) community-based residential care for persons who need assistance with activities of daily living, including personal, supportive, and intermittent health-related services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a resident;

(3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the establishment, with the consent of the resident or resident's representative; and

(4) a physical environment that is a homelike setting that includes the following and such other elements as established by the Department: individual living units each of which shall accommodate small kitchen appliances and contain private bathing, washing, and toilet facilities, or private washing and toilet facilities with a common bathing room readily accessible to each resident. Units shall be maintained for single occupancy except in cases in which 2 residents choose to share a unit. Sufficient common space shall exist to permit individual and group activities.

"Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by the federal government or the State of Illinois.

(2) A long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act. However, a facility licensed under either of those Acts may convert distinct parts of the facility to assisted living. If the facility elects to do so, the facility shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing and sheltered care beds that were converted.

(3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious denomination.

(7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(8) A supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act.

(9) The portion of a life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act not licensed as an assisted living establishment under this Act; a life care facility may apply under this Act to convert sections of the community to assisted living.

(10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

(11) A shared housing establishment.

(12) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Emergency situation" means imminent danger of death or serious physical harm to a resident of an establishment.

"License" means any of the following types of licenses issued to an applicant or licensee by the Department:

(1) "Probationary license" means a license issued to an applicant or licensee that has not held a license under this Act prior to its application or pursuant to a license transfer in accordance with Section 50 of this Act.

(2) "Regular license" means a license issued by the Department to an applicant or licensee that is in substantial compliance with this Act and any rules promulgated under this Act.

"Licensee" means a person, agency, association, corporation, partnership, or organization that has been issued a license to operate an assisted living or shared housing establishment.

"Licensed health care professional" means a registered professional nurse, an advanced practice nurse, a physician assistant, and a licensed practical nurse.

"Mandatory services" include the following:

(1) 3 meals per day available to the residents prepared by the establishment or an outside contractor;

(2) housekeeping services including, but not limited to, vacuuming, dusting, and cleaning the resident's unit;

(3) personal laundry and linen services available to the residents provided or arranged for by the establishment;

(4) security provided 24 hours each day including, but not limited to, locked entrances or building or contract security personnel;

(5) an emergency communication response system, which is a procedure in place 24 hours each day by which a resident can notify building management, an emergency response vendor, or others able to respond to his or her need for assistance; and

(6) assistance with activities of daily living as required by each resident.

"Negotiated risk" is the process by which a resident, or his or her representative, may formally negotiate with providers what risks each are willing and unwilling to assume in service provision and the resident's living environment. The provider assures that the resident and the resident's representative, if any, are informed of the risks of these decisions and of the potential consequences of assuming these risks.

"Owner" means the individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other person who owns an assisted living or shared housing establishment. In the event an assisted living or shared housing establishment is operated by a person who leases or manages the physical plant, which is owned by another person, "owner" means the person who operates the assisted living or shared housing establishment, except that if the person who owns the physical plant is an affiliate of the person who operates the assisted living or shared housing establishment and has significant control over the day to day operations of the assisted living or shared housing establishment, the person who owns the physical plant shall incur jointly and severally with the owner all liabilities imposed on an owner under this Act.

"Physician" means a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all of its branches.

"Resident" means a person residing in an assisted living or shared housing establishment.

"Resident's representative" means a person, other than the owner, agent, or employee of an establishment or of the health care provider unless related to the resident, designated in writing by a resident to be his or her representative. This designation may be accomplished through the Illinois Power of Attorney Act, pursuant to the guardianship process under the Probate Act of 1975, or pursuant to an executed designation of representative form specified by the Department.

"Self" means the individual or the individual's designated representative.

"Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" means a publicly or privately operated free-standing residence for 16 or fewer persons, at least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and who are unrelated to the owners and one manager of the residence, where the following are provided:

(1) services consistent with a social model that is based on the premise that the resident's unit is his or her own home;

(2) community-based residential care for persons who need assistance with activities of daily living, including housing and personal, supportive, and intermittent health-related services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a resident; and

(3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the establishment, with the consent of the resident or the resident's representative.

"Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by the federal government or the State of Illinois.

(2) A long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act. A facility licensed under either of those Acts may, however, convert sections of the facility to assisted living. If the facility elects to do so, the facility shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing beds that were converted.

(3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious denomination.

(7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(8) A supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act.

(9) A life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act; a life care facility may apply under this Act to convert sections of the community to assisted living.

(10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

(11) An assisted living establishment.

(12) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Total assistance" means that staff or another individual performs the entire activity of daily living without participation by the resident.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-975, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 9/35)

Sec. 35. Issuance of license.

(a) Upon receipt and review of an application for a license and review of the applicant establishment, the Director may issue a license if he or she finds:

(1) that the individual applicant, or the corporation, partnership, or other entity if the applicant is not an individual, is a person responsible and suitable to operate or to direct or participate in the operation of an establishment by virtue of financial capacity, appropriate business or professional experience, a record of lawful compliance with lawful orders of the Department and lack of revocation of a license issued under this Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act during the previous 5 years;

(2) that the establishment is under the supervision of a full-time director who is at least 21 years of age and has a high school diploma or equivalent plus either:

(A) 2 years of management experience or 2 years of experience in positions of progressive responsibility in health care, housing with services, or adult day care or providing similar services to the elderly; or

(B) 2 years of management experience or 2 years of experience in positions of progressive responsibility in hospitality and training in health care and housing with services management as defined by rule;

(3) that the establishment has staff sufficient in number with qualifications, adequate skills, education, and experience to meet the 24 hour scheduled and unscheduled needs of residents and who participate in ongoing training to serve the resident population;

(4) that all employees who are subject to the Health Care Worker Background Check Act meet the requirements of that Act;

(5) that the applicant is in substantial compliance with this Act and such other requirements for a license as the Department by rule may establish under this Act;

(6) that the applicant pays all required fees;

(7) that the applicant has provided to the Department an accurate disclosure document in accordance with the Alzheimer's Disease and Related Dementias Special Care Disclosure Act and in substantial compliance with Section 150 of this Act.

In addition to any other requirements set forth in this Act, as a condition of licensure under this Act, the director of an establishment must participate in at least 20 hours of training every 2 years to assist him or her in better meeting the needs of the residents of the establishment and managing the operation of the establishment.

Any license issued by the Director shall state the physical location of the establishment, the date the license was issued, and the expiration date. All licenses shall be valid for one year, except as provided in Sections 40 and 45. Each license shall be issued only for the premises and persons named in the application, and shall not be transferable or assignable.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-990, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 9/55)

Sec. 55. Grounds for denial of a license. An application for a license may be denied for any of the following reasons:

(1) failure to meet any of the standards set forth in this Act or by rules adopted by the Department under this Act;

(2) conviction of the applicant, or if the applicant is a firm, partnership, or association, of any of its members, or if a corporation, the conviction of the corporation or any of its officers or stockholders, or of the person designated to manage or supervise the establishment, of a felony or of 2 or more misdemeanors involving moral turpitude during the previous 5 years as shown by a certified copy of the record of the court of conviction;

(3) personnel insufficient in number or unqualified by training or experience to properly care for the residents;

(4) insufficient financial or other resources to operate and conduct the establishment in accordance with standards adopted by the Department under this Act;

(5) revocation of a license during the previous 5 years, if such prior license was issued to the individual applicant, a controlling owner or controlling combination of owners of the applicant; or any affiliate of the individual applicant or controlling owner of the applicant and such individual applicant, controlling owner of the applicant or affiliate of the applicant was a controlling owner of the prior license; provided, however, that the denial of an application for a license pursuant to this Section must be supported by evidence that the prior revocation renders the applicant unqualified or incapable of meeting or maintaining an establishment in accordance with the standards and rules adopted by the Department under this Act; or

(6) the establishment is not under the direct supervision of a full-time director, as defined by rule.

The Department shall deny an application for a license if 6 months after submitting its initial application the applicant has not provided the Department with all of the information required for review and approval or the applicant is not actively pursuing the processing of its application. In addition, the Department shall determine whether the applicant has violated any provision of the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 9/145)

Sec. 145. Conversion of facilities. Entities licensed as facilities under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act may elect to convert to a license under this Act. Any facility that chooses to convert, in whole or in part, shall follow the requirements in the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, as applicable, and rules promulgated under those Acts regarding voluntary closure and notice to residents. Any conversion of existing beds licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act to licensure under this Act is exempt from review by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

Section 295. The Abuse Prevention Review Team Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 50 as follows:

(210 ILCS 28/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Executive Council" means the Illinois Residential Health Care Facility Resident Sexual Assault and Death Review Teams Executive Council.

"Resident" means a person residing in and receiving personal care from a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act.

"Review team" means a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team appointed under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 28/50)

Sec. 50. Funding. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, to the extent permitted by federal law, the Department shall use moneys from fines paid by facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act for violating requirements for certification under Titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act to implement the provisions of this Act. The Department shall use moneys deposited in the Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Fund to pay the costs of implementing this Act that cannot be met by the use of federal civil monetary penalties.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

Section 300. The Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 4, and 6 as follows:

(210 ILCS 30/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4163)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act unless the context otherwise requires:

a. "Department" means the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

b. "Resident" means a person residing in and receiving personal care from a long term care facility, or residing in a mental health facility or developmental disability facility as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

c. "Long term care facility" has the same meaning ascribed to such term in the Nursing Home Care Act, except that the term as used in this Act shall include any mental health facility or developmental disability facility as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The term also includes any facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act.

d. "Abuse" means any physical injury, sexual abuse or mental injury inflicted on a resident other than by accidental means.

e. "Neglect" means a failure in a long term care facility to provide adequate medical or personal care or maintenance, which failure results in physical or mental injury to a resident or in the deterioration of a resident's physical or mental condition.

f. "Protective services" means services provided to a resident who has been abused or neglected, which may include, but are not limited to alternative temporary institutional placement, nursing care, counseling, other social services provided at the nursing home where the resident resides or at some other facility, personal care and such protective services of voluntary agencies as are available.

g. Unless the context otherwise requires, direct or indirect references in this Act to the programs, personnel, facilities, services, service providers, or service recipients of the Department of Human Services shall be construed to refer only to those programs, personnel, facilities, services, service providers, or service recipients that pertain to the Department of Human Services' mental health and developmental disabilities functions.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 30/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4164)

Sec. 4. Any long term care facility administrator, agent or employee or any physician, hospital, surgeon, dentist, osteopath, chiropractor, podiatrist, accredited religious practitioner who provides treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer in accordance with the tenets and practices of the accrediting church, coroner, social worker, social services administrator, registered nurse, law enforcement officer, field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, field personnel of the Illinois Department of Public Health and County or Municipal Health Departments, personnel of the Department of Human Services (acting as the successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities or the Department of Public Aid), personnel of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, personnel of the State Fire Marshal, local fire department inspectors or other personnel, or personnel of the Illinois Department on Aging, or its subsidiary Agencies on Aging, or employee of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, having reasonable cause to believe any resident with whom they have direct contact has been subjected to abuse or neglect shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department. Persons required to make reports or cause reports to be made under this Section include all employees of the State of Illinois who are involved in providing services to residents, including professionals providing medical or rehabilitation services and all other persons having direct contact with residents; and further include all employees of community service agencies who provide services to a resident of a public or private long term care facility outside of that facility. Any long term care surveyor of the Illinois Department of Public Health who has reasonable cause to believe in the course of a survey that a resident has been abused or neglected and initiates an investigation while on site at the facility shall be exempt from making a report under this Section but the results of any such investigation shall be forwarded to the central register in a manner and form described by the Department.

The requirement of this Act shall not relieve any long term care facility administrator, agent or employee of responsibility to report the abuse or neglect of a resident under Section 3-610 of the Nursing Home Care Act or under Section 3-610 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or under Section 3-610 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act.

In addition to the above persons required to report suspected resident abuse and neglect, any other person may make a report to the Department, or to any law enforcement officer, if such person has reasonable cause to suspect a resident has been abused or neglected.

This Section also applies to residents whose death occurs from suspected abuse or neglect before being found or brought to a hospital.

A person required to make reports or cause reports to be made under this Section who fails to comply with the requirements of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 30/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4166)

Sec. 6. All reports of suspected abuse or neglect made under this Act shall be made immediately by telephone to the Department's central register established under Section 14 on the single, State-wide, toll-free telephone number established under Section 13, or in person or by telephone through the nearest Department office. No long term care facility administrator, agent or employee, or any other person, shall screen reports or otherwise withhold any reports from the Department, and no long term care facility, department of State government, or other agency shall establish any rules, criteria, standards or guidelines to the contrary. Every long term care facility, department of State government and other agency whose employees are required to make or cause to be made reports under Section 4 shall notify its employees of the provisions of that Section and of this Section, and provide to the Department documentation that such notification has been given. The Department of Human Services shall train all of its mental health and developmental disabilities employees in the detection and reporting of suspected abuse and neglect of residents. Reports made to the central register through the State-wide, toll-free telephone number shall be transmitted to appropriate Department offices and municipal health departments that have responsibility for licensing long term care facilities under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act. All reports received through offices of the Department shall be forwarded to the central register, in a manner and form described by the Department. The Department shall be capable of receiving reports of suspected abuse and neglect 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. Reports shall also be made in writing deposited in the U.S. mail, postage prepaid, within 24 hours after having reasonable cause to believe that the condition of the resident resulted from abuse or neglect. Such reports may in addition be made to the local law enforcement agency in the same manner. However, in the event a report is made to the local law enforcement agency, the reporter also shall immediately so inform the Department. The Department shall initiate an investigation of each report of resident abuse and neglect under this Act, whether oral or written, as provided for in Section 3-702 of the Nursing Home Care Act, Section 3-702 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or Section 3-702 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, except that reports of abuse which indicate that a resident's life or safety is in imminent danger shall be investigated within 24 hours of such report. The Department may delegate to law enforcement officials or other public agencies the duty to perform such investigation.

With respect to investigations of reports of suspected abuse or neglect of residents of mental health and developmental disabilities institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department of Human Services, the Department shall transmit copies of such reports to the Department of State Police, the Department of Human Services, and the Inspector General appointed under Section 1-17 of the Department of Human Services Act. If the Department receives a report of suspected abuse or neglect of a recipient of services as defined in Section 1-123 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, the Department shall transmit copies of such report to the Inspector General and the Directors of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission and the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Developmentally Disabled Persons Act. When requested by the Director of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, or the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department, the Department of Human Services and the Department of State Police shall make available a copy of the final investigative report regarding investigations conducted by their respective agencies on incidents of suspected abuse or neglect of residents of mental health and developmental disabilities institutions or individuals receiving services at community agencies under the jurisdiction of the Department of Human Services. Such final investigative report shall not contain witness statements, investigation notes, draft summaries, results of lie detector tests, investigative files or other raw data which was used to compile the final investigative report. Specifically, the final investigative report of the Department of State Police shall mean the Director's final transmittal letter. The Department of Human Services shall also make available a copy of the results of disciplinary proceedings of employees involved in incidents of abuse or neglect to the Directors. All identifiable information in reports provided shall not be further disclosed except as provided by the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act. Nothing in this Section is intended to limit or construe the power or authority granted to the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, pursuant to any other State or federal statute.

With respect to investigations of reported resident abuse or neglect, the Department shall effect with appropriate law enforcement agencies formal agreements concerning methods and procedures for the conduct of investigations into the criminal histories of any administrator, staff assistant or employee of the nursing home or other person responsible for the residents care, as well as for other residents in the nursing home who may be in a position to abuse, neglect or exploit the patient. Pursuant to the formal agreements entered into with appropriate law enforcement agencies, the Department may request information with respect to whether the person or persons set forth in this paragraph have ever been charged with a crime and if so, the disposition of those charges. Unless the criminal histories of the subjects involved crimes of violence or resident abuse or neglect, the Department shall be entitled only to information limited in scope to charges and their dispositions. In cases where prior crimes of violence or resident abuse or neglect are involved, a more detailed report can be made available to authorized representatives of the Department, pursuant to the agreements entered into with appropriate law enforcement agencies. Any criminal charges and their disposition information obtained by the Department shall be confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Department, except as required herein, to authorized representatives or delegates of the Department, and may not be transmitted to anyone within the Department who is not duly authorized to handle resident abuse or neglect investigations.

The Department shall effect formal agreements with appropriate law enforcement agencies in the various counties and communities to encourage cooperation and coordination in the handling of resident abuse or neglect cases pursuant to this Act. The Department shall adopt and implement methods and procedures to promote statewide uniformity in the handling of reports of abuse and neglect under this Act, and those methods and procedures shall be adhered to by personnel of the Department involved in such investigations and reporting. The Department shall also make information required by this Act available to authorized personnel within the Department, as well as its authorized representatives.

The Department shall keep a continuing record of all reports made pursuant to this Act, including indications of the final determination of any investigation and the final disposition of all reports.

The Department shall report annually to the General Assembly on the incidence of abuse and neglect of long term care facility residents, with special attention to residents who are mentally disabled. The report shall include but not be limited to data on the number and source of reports of suspected abuse or neglect filed under this Act, the nature of any injuries to residents, the final determination of investigations, the type and number of cases where abuse or neglect is determined to exist, and the final disposition of cases.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

Section 305. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Sections 1-113, 3-202.5, and 3-304.2 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/1-113) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4151-113)

Sec. 1-113. "Facility" or "long-term care facility" means a private home, institution, building, residence, or any other place, whether operated for profit or not, or a county home for the infirm and chronically ill operated pursuant to Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, or any similar institution operated by a political subdivision of the State of Illinois, which provides, through its ownership or management, personal care, sheltered care or nursing for 3 or more persons, not related to the applicant or owner by blood or marriage. It includes skilled nursing facilities and intermediate care facilities as those terms are defined in Title XVIII and Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act. It also includes homes, institutions, or other places operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs.

"Facility" does not include the following:

(1) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof, or by the State of Illinois, other than homes, institutions, or other places operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs;

(2) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution whose principal activity or business is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation as organized facilities therefor, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(3) Any "facility for child care" as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969;

(4) Any "Community Living Facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(5) Any "community residential alternative" as defined in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act;

(6) Any nursing home or sanatorium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination. However, such nursing home or sanatorium shall comply with all local laws and rules relating to sanitation and safety;

(7) Any facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(8) Any "Supportive Residence" licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act;

(9) Any "supportive living facility" in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(10) Any assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(11) An Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act;

(12) A facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act; or

(13) A facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-202.5)

Sec. 3-202.5. Facility plan review; fees.

(a) Before commencing construction of a new facility or specified types of alteration or additions to an existing long term care facility involving major construction, as defined by rule by the Department, with an estimated cost greater than $100,000, architectural drawings and specifications for the facility shall be submitted to the Department for review and approval. A facility may submit architectural drawings and specifications for other construction projects for Department review according to subsection (b) that shall not be subject to fees under subsection (d). Review of drawings and specifications shall be conducted by an employee of the Department meeting the qualifications established by the Department of Central Management Services class specifications for such an individual's position or by a person contracting with the Department who meets those class specifications. Final approval of the drawings and specifications for compliance with design and construction standards shall be obtained from the Department before the alteration, addition, or new construction is begun.

(b) The Department shall inform an applicant in writing within 10 working days after receiving drawings and specifications and the required fee, if any, from the applicant whether the applicant's submission is complete or incomplete. Failure to provide the applicant with this notice within 10 working days shall result in the submission being deemed complete for purposes of initiating the 60-day review period under this Section. If the submission is incomplete, the Department shall inform the applicant of the deficiencies with the submission in writing. If the submission is complete the required fee, if any, has been paid, the Department shall approve or disapprove drawings and specifications submitted to the Department no later than 60 days following receipt by the Department. The drawings and specifications shall be of sufficient detail, as provided by Department rule, to enable the Department to render a determination of compliance with design and construction standards under this Act. If the Department finds that the drawings are not of sufficient detail for it to render a determination of compliance, the plans shall be determined to be incomplete and shall not be considered for purposes of initiating the 60 day review period. If a submission of drawings and specifications is incomplete, the applicant may submit additional information. The 60-day review period shall not commence until the Department determines that a submission of drawings and specifications is complete or the submission is deemed complete. If the Department has not approved or disapproved the drawings and specifications within 60 days, the construction, major alteration, or addition shall be deemed approved. If the drawings and specifications are disapproved, the Department shall state in writing, with specificity, the reasons for the disapproval. The entity submitting the drawings and specifications may submit additional information in response to the written comments from the Department or request a reconsideration of the disapproval. A final decision of approval or disapproval shall be made within 45 days of the receipt of the additional information or reconsideration request. If denied, the Department shall state the specific reasons for the denial.

(c) The Department shall provide written approval for occupancy pursuant to subsection (g) and shall not issue a violation to a facility as a result of a licensure or complaint survey based upon the facility's physical structure if:

(1) the Department reviewed and approved or deemed approved the drawings and specifications for compliance with design and construction standards;

(2) the construction, major alteration, or addition was built as submitted;

(3) the law or rules have not been amended since the original approval; and

(4) the conditions at the facility indicate that there is a reasonable degree of safety provided for the residents.

(d) The Department shall charge the following fees in connection with its reviews conducted before June 30, 2004 under this Section:

(1) (Blank).

(2) (Blank).

(3) If the estimated dollar value of the alteration, addition, or new construction is $100,000 or more but less than $500,000, the fee shall be the greater of $2,400 or 1.2% of that value.

(4) If the estimated dollar value of the alteration, addition, or new construction is $500,000 or more but less than $1,000,000, the fee shall be the greater of $6,000 or 0.96% of that value.

(5) If the estimated dollar value of the alteration, addition, or new construction is $1,000,000 or more but less than $5,000,000, the fee shall be the greater of $9,600 or 0.22% of that value.

(6) If the estimated dollar value of the alteration, addition, or new construction is $5,000,000 or more, the fee shall be the greater of $11,000 or 0.11% of that value, but shall not exceed $40,000.

The fees provided in this subsection (d) shall not apply to major construction projects involving facility changes that are required by Department rule amendments.

The fees provided in this subsection (d) shall also not apply to major construction projects if 51% or more of the estimated cost of the project is attributed to capital equipment. For major construction projects where 51% or more of the estimated cost of the project is attributed to capital equipment, the Department shall by rule establish a fee that is reasonably related to the cost of reviewing the project.

The Department shall not commence the facility plan review process under this Section until the applicable fee has been paid.

(e) All fees received by the Department under this Section shall be deposited into the Health Facility Plan Review Fund, a special fund created in the State Treasury. All fees paid by long-term care facilities under subsection (d) shall be used only to cover the costs relating to the Department's review of long-term care facility projects under this Section. Moneys shall be appropriated from that Fund to the Department only to pay the costs of conducting reviews under this Section or under Section 3-202.5 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or under Section 3-202.5 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act. None of the moneys in the Health Facility Plan Review Fund shall be used to reduce the amount of General Revenue Fund moneys appropriated to the Department for facility plan reviews conducted pursuant to this Section.

(f) (1) The provisions of this amendatory Act of 1997 concerning drawings and specifications shall apply only to drawings and specifications submitted to the Department on or after October 1, 1997.

(2) On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 and before October 1, 1997, an applicant may submit or resubmit drawings and specifications to the Department and pay the fees provided in subsection (d). If an applicant pays the fees provided in subsection (d) under this paragraph (2), the provisions of subsection (b) shall apply with regard to those drawings and specifications.

(g) The Department shall conduct an on-site inspection of the completed project no later than 30 days after notification from the applicant that the project has been completed and all certifications required by the Department have been received and accepted by the Department. The Department shall provide written approval for occupancy to the applicant within 5 working days of the Department's final inspection, provided the applicant has demonstrated substantial compliance as defined by Department rule. Occupancy of new major construction is prohibited until Department approval is received, unless the Department has not acted within the time frames provided in this subsection (g), in which case the construction shall be deemed approved. Occupancy shall be authorized after any required health inspection by the Department has been conducted.

(h) The Department shall establish, by rule, a procedure to conduct interim on-site review of large or complex construction projects.

(i) The Department shall establish, by rule, an expedited process for emergency repairs or replacement of like equipment.

(j) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to maintenance, upkeep, or renovation that does not affect the structural integrity of the building, does not add beds or services over the number for which the long-term care facility is licensed, and provides a reasonable degree of safety for the residents.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-304.2)

Sec. 3-304.2. Designation of distressed facilities.

(a) By May 1, 2011, and quarterly thereafter, the Department shall generate and publish quarterly a list of distressed facilities. Criteria for inclusion of certified facilities on the list shall be those used by the U.S. General Accounting Office in report 9-689, until such time as the Department by rule modifies the criteria.

(b) In deciding whether and how to modify the criteria used by the General Accounting Office, the Department shall complete a test run of any substitute criteria to determine their reliability by comparing the number of facilities identified as distressed against the number of distressed facilities generated using the criteria contained in the General Accounting Office report. The Department may not adopt substitute criteria that generate fewer facilities with a distressed designation than are produced by the General Accounting Office criteria during the test run.

(c) The Department shall, by rule, adopt criteria to identify non-Medicaid-certified facilities that are distressed and shall publish this list quarterly beginning October 1, 2011.

(d) The Department shall notify each facility of its distressed designation, and of the calculation on which it is based.

(e) A distressed facility may contract with an independent consultant meeting criteria established by the Department. If the distressed facility does not seek the assistance of an independent consultant, the Department shall place a monitor or a temporary manager in the facility, depending on the Department's assessment of the condition of the facility.

(f) Independent consultant. A facility that has been designated a distressed facility may contract with an independent consultant to develop and assist in the implementation of a plan of improvement to bring and keep the facility in compliance with this Act and, if applicable, with federal certification requirements. A facility that contracts with an independent consultant shall have 90 days to develop a plan of improvement and demonstrate a good faith effort at implementation, and another 90 days to achieve compliance and take whatever additional actions are called for in the improvement plan to maintain compliance. A facility that the Department determines has a plan of improvement likely to bring and keep the facility in compliance and that has demonstrated good faith efforts at implementation within the first 90 days may be eligible to receive a grant under the Equity in Long-term Care Quality Act to assist it in achieving and maintaining compliance. In this subsection, "independent" consultant means an individual who has no professional or financial relationship with the facility, any person with a reportable ownership interest in the facility, or any related parties. In this subsection, "related parties" has the meaning attributed to it in the instructions for completing Medicaid cost reports.

(f-5) (f) Monitor and temporary managers. A distressed facility that does not contract with a consultant shall be assigned a monitor or a temporary manager at the Department's discretion. The cost of the temporary manager shall be paid by the facility. The temporary manager shall have the authority determined by the Department, which may grant the temporary manager any or all of the authority a court may grant a receiver. The temporary manager may apply to the Equity in Long-term Care Quality Fund for grant funds to implement the plan of improvement.

(g) The Department shall by rule establish a mentor program for owners of distressed facilities.

(h) The Department shall by rule establish sanctions (in addition to those authorized elsewhere in this Article) against distressed facilities that are not in compliance with this Act and (if applicable) with federal certification requirements. Criteria for imposing sanctions shall take into account a facility's actions to address the violations and deficiencies that caused its designation as a distressed facility, and its compliance with this Act and with federal certification requirements (if applicable), subsequent to its designation as a distressed facility, including mandatory revocations if criteria can be agreed upon by the Department, resident advocates, and representatives of the nursing home profession. By February 1, 2011, the Department shall report to the General Assembly on the results of negotiations about creating criteria for mandatory license revocations of distressed facilities and make recommendations about any statutory changes it believes are appropriate to protect the health, safety, and welfare of nursing home residents.

(i) The Department may establish by rule criteria for restricting the owner of a facility on the distressed list from acquiring additional skilled nursing facilities.

(Source: P.A. 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 310. The ID/DD Community Care Act is amended by changing Section 3-310 as follows:

(210 ILCS 47/3-310)

Sec. 3-310. Collection of penalties. All penalties shall be paid to the Department within 10 days of receipt of notice of assessment or, if the penalty is contested under Section 3-309, within 10 days of receipt of the final decision, unless the decision is appealed and the order is stayed by court order under Section 3-713. A facility choosing to waive the right to a hearing under Section 3-309 shall submit a payment totaling 65% of the original fine amount along with the written waiver. A penalty assessed under this Act shall be collected by the Department and shall be deposited with the State Treasurer into the Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Fund. If the person or facility against whom a penalty has been assessed does not comply with a written demand for payment within 30 days, the Director shall issue an order to do any of the following:

(1) Direct the State Treasurer or Comptroller to deduct the amount of the fine from amounts otherwise due from the State for the penalty, including any payments to be made from the Developmentally Disabled Care Provider Fund established under Section 5C-7 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and remit that amount to the Department;

(2) Add the amount of the penalty to the facility's licensing fee; if the licensee refuses to make the payment at the time of application for renewal of its license, the license shall not be renewed; or

(3) Bring an action in circuit court to recover the amount of the penalty. Equity

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-28-11.)

Section 315. The Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act is amended by changing Sections 1-113 and 3-305 as follows:

(210 ILCS 48/1-113)

Sec. 1-113. Facility. "Facility" means a specialized mental health rehabilitation facility, whether operated for profit or not, which provides, through its ownership or management, personal care or nursing for 3 or more persons not related to the applicant or owner by blood or marriage. It includes facilities that meet the following criteria:

(i) 100% of the resident population of the facility has a diagnosis of serious mental illness;

(ii) no more than 15% of the resident population of the facility is 65 years of age or older;

(iii) none of the residents have a primary diagnosis of moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability mental retardation;

(iv) meet standards established in Subpart T of Section 300 of Title 77 of the Illinois Administrative Code as it existed on June 30, 2011. Facilities licensed under this Act shall continue to meet standards established under this portion of the Illinois Administrative Code until such time as new rules are adopted pursuant to this Act; and

(v) must participate in the Demonstration Project for Mental Health Services in Nursing Facilities established under Department of Healthcare and Family Services rules at 89 Ill. Adm. Code 145.10 and its successor; to be considered for participation in this Demonstration Project for Mental Health Services in Nursing Facilities, a facility must meet all standards established in this rulemaking (89 Ill. Adm. Code) or its successor; this demonstration project shall be extended through June 30, 2014.

"Facility" does not include the following:

(1) a home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof, or by the State of Illinois, other than homes, institutions, or other places operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs;

(2) a hospital, sanitarium, or other institution whose principal activity or business is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation as organized facilities therefore, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(3) any "facility for child care" as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969;

(4) any "community living facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(5) any "community residential alternative" as defined in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act;

(6) any nursing home or sanatorium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination. However, such nursing home or sanatorium shall comply with all local laws and rules relating to sanitation and safety;

(7) any facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(8) any "supportive residence" licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act;

(9) any "supportive living facility" in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(10) any assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(11) an Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act;

(12) a home, institution, or other place operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs;

(13) any facility licensed under the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act; or

(14) any facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; revised 11-18-11.)

(210 ILCS 48/3-305)

Sec. 3-305. Licensee subject to penalties; fines. The license of a facility that is in violation of this Act or any rule adopted under this Act may be subject to the penalties or fines levied by the Department as specified in this Section.

(1) A licensee who commits a Type "AA" violation as defined in Section 1-128.5 is automatically issued a conditional license for a period of 6 months to coincide with an acceptable plan of correction and assessed a fine up to $25,000 per violation.

(1.5) A licensee who commits a Type "A" violation as defined in Section 1-129 is automatically issued a conditional license for a period of 6 months to coincide with an acceptable plan of correction and assessed a fine of up to $12,500 per violation.

(2) A licensee who commits a Type "B" violation as defined in Section 1-130 shall be assessed a fine of up to $1,100 per violation.

(2.5) A licensee who commits 10 or more Type "C" violations, as defined in Section 1-132, in a single survey shall be assessed a fine of up to $250 per violation. A licensee who commits one or more Type "C" violations with a high-risk designation, as defined by rule, shall be assessed a fine of up to $500 per violation.

(3) A licensee who commits a Type "AA" or Type "A" violation as defined in Section 1-128.5 or 1-129 that continues beyond the time specified in paragraph (a) of Section 3-303 which is cited as a repeat violation shall have its license revoked and shall be assessed a fine of 3 times the fine computed per resident per day under subsection (1).

(4) A licensee who fails to satisfactorily comply with an accepted plan of correction for a Type "B" violation or an administrative warning issued pursuant to Sections 3-401 through 3-413 or the rules promulgated thereunder shall be automatically issued a conditional license for a period of not less than 6 months. A second or subsequent acceptable plan of correction shall be filed. A fine shall be assessed in accordance with subsection (2) when cited for the repeat violation. This fine shall be computed for all days of the violation, including the duration of the first plan of correction compliance time.

(5) For the purpose of computing a penalty under subsections (2) through (4), the number of residents per day shall be based on the average number of residents in the facility during the 30 days preceding the discovery of the violation.

(6) When the Department finds that a provision of Article II has been violated with regard to a particular resident, the Department shall issue an order requiring the facility to reimburse the resident for injuries incurred, or $100, whichever is greater. In the case of a violation involving any action other than theft of money belonging to a resident, reimbursement shall be ordered only if a provision of Article II has been violated with regard to that or any other resident of the facility within the 2 years immediately preceding the violation in question.

(7) For purposes of assessing fines under this Section, a repeat violation shall be a violation which has been cited during one inspection of the facility for which an accepted plan of correction was not complied with or a new citation of the same rule if the licensee is not substantially addressing the issue routinely throughout the facility. Violations of the Nursing Home Care Act and the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act shall be deemed violations of this Act.

(7.5) If an occurrence results in more than one type of violation as defined in this Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act (that is, a Type "AA", Type "A", Type "B", or Type "C" violation), the maximum fine that may be assessed for that occurrence is the maximum fine that may be assessed for the most serious type of violation charged. For purposes of the preceding sentence, a Type "AA" violation is the most serious type of violation that may be charged, followed by a Type "A", Type "B", or Type "C" violation, in that order.

(8) The minimum and maximum fines that may be assessed pursuant to this Section shall be twice those otherwise specified for any facility that willfully makes a misstatement of fact to the Department, or willfully fails to make a required notification to the Department, if that misstatement or failure delays the start of a surveyor or impedes a survey.

(9) If the Department finds that a facility has violated a provision of the Illinois Administrative Code that has a high-risk designation, or that a facility has violated the same provision of the Illinois Administrative Code 3 or more times in the previous 12 months, the Department may assess a fine of up to 2 times the maximum fine otherwise allowed.

(10) If a licensee has paid a civil monetary penalty imposed pursuant to the Medicare and Medicaid Certification Program for the equivalent federal violation giving rise to a fine under this Section, the Department shall offset the fine by the amount of the civil monetary penalty. The offset may not reduce the fine by more than 75% of the original fine, however.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 320. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Section 3.50 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.50)

Sec. 3.50. Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Licensure.

(a) "Emergency Medical Technician-Basic" or "EMT-B" means a person who has successfully completed a course of instruction in basic life support as prescribed by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an EMS System.

(b) "Emergency Medical Technician-Intermediate" or "EMT-I" means a person who has successfully completed a course of instruction in intermediate life support as prescribed by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System.

(c) "Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic" or "EMT-P" means a person who has successfully completed a course of instruction in advanced life support care as prescribed by the Department, is licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Advanced Life Support EMS System.

(d) The Department shall have the authority and responsibility to:

(1) Prescribe education and training requirements, which includes training in the use of epinephrine, for all levels of EMT, based on the respective national curricula of the United States Department of Transportation and any modifications to such curricula specified by the Department through rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(2) Prescribe licensure testing requirements for all levels of EMT, which shall include a requirement that all phases of instruction, training, and field experience be completed before taking the EMT licensure examination. Candidates may elect to take the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians examination in lieu of the Department's examination, but are responsible for making their own arrangements for taking the National Registry examination.

(2.5) Review applications for EMT licensure from honorably discharged members of the armed forces of the United States with military emergency medical training. Applications shall be filed with the Department within one year after military discharge and shall contain: (i) proof of successful completion of military emergency medical training; (ii) a detailed description of the emergency medical curriculum completed; and (iii) a detailed description of the applicant's clinical experience. The Department may request additional and clarifying information. The Department shall evaluate the application, including the applicant's training and experience, consistent with the standards set forth under subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 3.10. If the application clearly demonstrates that the training and experience meets such standards, the Department shall offer the applicant the opportunity to successfully complete a Department-approved EMT examination for which the applicant is qualified. Upon passage of an examination, the Department shall issue a license, which shall be subject to all provisions of this Act that are otherwise applicable to the class of EMT license issued.

(3) License individuals as an EMT-B, EMT-I, or EMT-P who have met the Department's education, training and examination requirements.

(4) Prescribe annual continuing education and relicensure requirements for all levels of EMT.

(5) Relicense individuals as an EMT-B, EMT-I, or EMT-P every 4 years, based on their compliance with continuing education and relicensure requirements. An Illinois licensed Emergency Medical Technician whose license has been expired for less than 36 months may apply for reinstatement by the Department. Reinstatement shall require that the applicant (i) submit satisfactory proof of completion of continuing medical education and clinical requirements to be prescribed by the Department in an administrative rule; (ii) submit a positive recommendation from an Illinois EMS Medical Director attesting to the applicant's qualifications for retesting; and (iii) pass a Department approved test for the level of EMT license sought to be reinstated.

(6) Grant inactive status to any EMT who qualifies, based on standards and procedures established by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(7) Charge a fee for EMT examination, licensure, and license renewal.

(8) Suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew the license of any licensee, after an opportunity for an impartial hearing before a neutral administrative law judge appointed by the Director, where the preponderance of the evidence shows one or more of the following:

(A) The licensee has not met continuing education or relicensure requirements as prescribed by the Department;

(B) The licensee has failed to maintain proficiency in the level of skills for which he or she is licensed;

(C) The licensee, during the provision of medical services, engaged in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(D) The licensee has failed to maintain or has violated standards of performance and conduct as prescribed by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act or his or her EMS System's Program Plan;

(E) The licensee is physically impaired to the extent that he or she cannot physically perform the skills and functions for which he or she is licensed, as verified by a physician, unless the person is on inactive status pursuant to Department regulations;

(F) The licensee is mentally impaired to the extent that he or she cannot exercise the appropriate judgment, skill and safety for performing the functions for which he or she is licensed, as verified by a physician, unless the person is on inactive status pursuant to Department regulations;

(G) The licensee has violated this Act or any rule adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act; or

(H) The licensee has been convicted (or entered a plea of guilty or nolo-contendere) by a court of competent jurisdiction of a Class X, Class 1, or Class 2 felony in this State or an out-of-state equivalent offense.

(9) An EMT who is a member of the Illinois National Guard or , an Illinois State Trooper, or who exclusively serves as a volunteer for units of local government with a population base of less than 5,000 or as a volunteer for a not-for-profit organization that serves a service area with a population base of less than 5,000 may submit an application to the Department for a waiver of these fees on a form prescribed by the Department.

The education requirements prescribed by the Department under this subsection must allow for the suspension of those requirements in the case of a member of the armed services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is on active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor at the time that the member would otherwise be required to fulfill a particular education requirement. Such a person must fulfill the education requirement within 6 months after his or her release from active duty.

(e) In the event that any rule of the Department or an EMS Medical Director that requires testing for drug use as a condition for EMT licensure conflicts with or duplicates a provision of a collective bargaining agreement that requires testing for drug use, that rule shall not apply to any person covered by the collective bargaining agreement.

(Source: P.A. 96-540, eff. 8-17-09; 96-1149, eff. 7-21-10; 96-1469, eff. 1-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-509, eff. 8-23-11; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 325. The Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 2.08 as follows:

(210 ILCS 55/2.08)

Sec. 2.08. "Home services agency" means an agency that provides services directly, or acts as a placement agency, for the purpose of placing individuals as workers providing home services for consumers in their personal residences. "Home services agency" does not include agencies licensed under the Nurse Agency Licensing Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act and does not include an agency that limits its business exclusively to providing housecleaning services. Programs providing services exclusively through the Community Care Program of the Illinois Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services Office of Rehabilitation Services, or the United States Department of Veterans Affairs are not considered to be a home services agency under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-577, eff. 8-18-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

Section 330. The Hospice Program Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 4 as follows:

(210 ILCS 60/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 6103)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Bereavement" means the period of time during which the hospice patient's family experiences and adjusts to the death of the hospice patient.

(a-5) "Bereavement services" means counseling services provided to an individual's family after the individual's death.

(a-10) "Attending physician" means a physician who:

(1) is a doctor of medicine or osteopathy; and

(2) is identified by an individual, at the time the individual elects to receive hospice care, as having the most significant role in the determination and delivery of the individual's medical care.

(b) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(c) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(d) "Hospice care" means a program of palliative care that provides for the physical, emotional, and spiritual care needs of a terminally ill patient and his or her family. The goal of such care is to achieve the highest quality of life as defined by the patient and his or her family through the relief of suffering and control of symptoms.

(e) "Hospice care team" means an interdisciplinary group or groups composed of individuals who provide or supervise the care and services offered by the hospice.

(f) "Hospice patient" means a terminally ill person receiving hospice services.

(g) "Hospice patient's family" means a hospice patient's immediate family consisting of a spouse, sibling, child, parent and those individuals designated as such by the patient for the purposes of this Act.

(g-1) "Hospice residence" means a separately licensed home, apartment building, or similar building providing living quarters:

(1) that is owned or operated by a person licensed to operate as a comprehensive hospice; and

(2) at which hospice services are provided to facility residents.

A building that is licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act is not a hospice residence.

(h) "Hospice services" means a range of professional and other supportive services provided to a hospice patient and his or her family. These services may include, but are not limited to, physician services, nursing services, medical social work services, spiritual counseling services, bereavement services, and volunteer services.

(h-5) "Hospice program" means a licensed public agency or private organization, or a subdivision of either of those, that is primarily engaged in providing care to terminally ill individuals through a program of home care or inpatient care, or both home care and inpatient care, utilizing a medically directed interdisciplinary hospice care team of professionals or volunteers, or both professionals and volunteers. A hospice program may be licensed as a comprehensive hospice program or a volunteer hospice program.

(h-10) "Comprehensive hospice" means a program that provides hospice services and meets the minimum standards for certification under the Medicare program set forth in the Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 418 but is not required to be Medicare-certified.

(i) "Palliative care" means the management of pain and other distressing symptoms that incorporates medical, nursing, psychosocial, and spiritual care according to the needs, values, beliefs, and culture or cultures of the patient and his or her family. The evaluation and treatment is patient-centered, with a focus on the central role of the family unit in decision-making.

(j) "Hospice service plan" means a plan detailing the specific hospice services offered by a comprehensive or volunteer hospice program, and the administrative and direct care personnel responsible for those services. The plan shall include but not be limited to:

(1) Identification of the person or persons administratively responsible for the program.

(2) The estimated average monthly patient census.

(3) The proposed geographic area the hospice will serve.

(4) A listing of those hospice services provided directly by the hospice, and those hospice services provided indirectly through a contractual agreement.

(5) The name and qualifications of those persons or entities under contract to provide indirect hospice services.

(6) The name and qualifications of those persons providing direct hospice services, with the exception of volunteers.

(7) A description of how the hospice plans to utilize volunteers in the provision of hospice services.

(8) A description of the program's record keeping system.

(k) "Terminally ill" means a medical prognosis by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches that a patient has an anticipated life expectancy of one year or less.

(l) "Volunteer" means a person who offers his or her services to a hospice without compensation. Reimbursement for a volunteer's expenses in providing hospice service shall not be considered compensation.

(l-5) "Employee" means a paid or unpaid member of the staff of a hospice program, or, if the hospice program is a subdivision of an agency or organization, of the agency or organization, who is appropriately trained and assigned to the hospice program. "Employee" also means a volunteer whose duties are prescribed by the hospice program and whose performance of those duties is supervised by the hospice program.

(l-10) "Representative" means an individual who has been authorized under State law to terminate an individual's medical care or to elect or revoke the election of hospice care on behalf of a terminally ill individual who is mentally or physically incapacitated.

(m) "Volunteer hospice" means a program which provides hospice services to patients regardless of their ability to pay, with emphasis on the utilization of volunteers to provide services, under the administration of a not-for-profit agency. This definition does not prohibit the employment of staff.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 60/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 6104)

Sec. 4. License.

(a) No person shall establish, conduct or maintain a comprehensive or volunteer hospice program without first obtaining a license from the Department. A hospice residence may be operated only at the locations listed on the license. A comprehensive hospice program owning or operating a hospice residence is not subject to the provisions of the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act in owning or operating a hospice residence.

(b) No public or private agency shall advertise or present itself to the public as a comprehensive or volunteer hospice program which provides hospice services without meeting the provisions of subsection (a).

(c) The license shall be valid only in the possession of the hospice to which it was originally issued and shall not be transferred or assigned to any other person, agency, or corporation.

(d) The license shall be renewed annually.

(e) The license shall be displayed in a conspicuous place inside the hospice program office.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

Section 335. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 6.09, and 10.10 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/3)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act:

(A) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building, buildings on a campus, or agency, public or private, whether organized for profit or not, devoted primarily to the maintenance and operation of facilities for the diagnosis and treatment or care of 2 or more unrelated persons admitted for overnight stay or longer in order to obtain medical, including obstetric, psychiatric and nursing, care of illness, disease, injury, infirmity, or deformity.

The term "hospital", without regard to length of stay, shall also include:

(a) any facility which is devoted primarily to providing psychiatric and related services and programs for the diagnosis and treatment or care of 2 or more unrelated persons suffering from emotional or nervous diseases;

(b) all places where pregnant females are received, cared for, or treated during delivery irrespective of the number of patients received.

The term "hospital" includes general and specialized hospitals, tuberculosis sanitaria, mental or psychiatric hospitals and sanitaria, and includes maternity homes, lying-in homes, and homes for unwed mothers in which care is given during delivery.

The term "hospital" does not include:

(1) any person or institution required to be licensed pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(2) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the hospitalization or care facilities under its management and control;

(3) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the federal government or agencies thereof;

(4) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by any university or college established under the laws of this State and supported principally by public funds raised by taxation;

(5) any person or facility required to be licensed pursuant to the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act;

(6) any facility operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination;

(7) an Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act; or

(8) any veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 or maintained by a State-supported or publicly funded university or college.

(B) "Person" means the State, and any political subdivision or municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, association, or joint stock association, or the legal successor thereof.

(C) "Department" means the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(D) "Director" means the Director of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(E) "Perinatal" means the period of time between the conception of an infant and the end of the first month after birth.

(F) "Federally designated organ procurement agency" means the organ procurement agency designated by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for the service area in which a hospital is located; except that in the case of a hospital located in a county adjacent to Wisconsin which currently contracts with an organ procurement agency located in Wisconsin that is not the organ procurement agency designated by the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human Services for the service area in which the hospital is located, if the hospital applies for a waiver pursuant to 42 USC 1320b-8(a), it may designate an organ procurement agency located in Wisconsin to be thereafter deemed its federally designated organ procurement agency for the purposes of this Act.

(G) "Tissue bank" means any facility or program operating in Illinois that is certified by the American Association of Tissue Banks or the Eye Bank Association of America and is involved in procuring, furnishing, donating, or distributing corneas, bones, or other human tissue for the purpose of injecting, transfusing, or transplanting any of them into the human body. "Tissue bank" does not include a licensed blood bank. For the purposes of this Act, "tissue" does not include organs.

(H) "Campus", as this terms applies to operations, has the same meaning as the term "campus" as set forth in federal Medicare regulations, 42 CFR 413.65.

(Source: P.A. 96-219, eff. 8-10-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1515, eff. 2-4-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 85/6.09) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 147.09)

Sec. 6.09. (a) In order to facilitate the orderly transition of aged and disabled patients from hospitals to post-hospital care, whenever a patient who qualifies for the federal Medicare program is hospitalized, the patient shall be notified of discharge at least 24 hours prior to discharge from the hospital. With regard to pending discharges to a skilled nursing facility, the hospital must notify the case coordination unit, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 240.260, at least 24 hours prior to discharge or, if home health services are ordered, the hospital must inform its designated case coordination unit, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 240.260, of the pending discharge and must provide the patient with the case coordination unit's telephone number and other contact information.

(b) Every hospital shall develop procedures for a physician with medical staff privileges at the hospital or any appropriate medical staff member to provide the discharge notice prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section. The procedures must include prohibitions against discharging or referring a patient to any of the following if unlicensed, uncertified, or unregistered: (i) a board and care facility, as defined in the Board and Care Home Act; (ii) an assisted living and shared housing establishment, as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; (iii) a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act; (iv) a supportive living facility, as defined in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or (v) a free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act if licensure, certification, or registration is required. The Department of Public Health shall annually provide hospitals with a list of licensed, certified, or registered board and care facilities, assisted living and shared housing establishments, nursing homes, supportive living facilities, facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, and hospice facilities. Reliance upon this list by a hospital shall satisfy compliance with this requirement. The procedure may also include a waiver for any case in which a discharge notice is not feasible due to a short length of stay in the hospital by the patient, or for any case in which the patient voluntarily desires to leave the hospital before the expiration of the 24 hour period.

(c) At least 24 hours prior to discharge from the hospital, the patient shall receive written information on the patient's right to appeal the discharge pursuant to the federal Medicare program, including the steps to follow to appeal the discharge and the appropriate telephone number to call in case the patient intends to appeal the discharge.

(d) Before transfer of a patient to a long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act where elderly persons reside, a hospital shall as soon as practicable initiate a name-based criminal history background check by electronic submission to the Department of State Police for all persons between the ages of 18 and 70 years; provided, however, that a hospital shall be required to initiate such a background check only with respect to patients who:

(1) are transferring to a long term care facility for the first time;

(2) have been in the hospital more than 5 days;

(3) are reasonably expected to remain at the long term care facility for more than 30 days;

(4) have a known history of serious mental illness or substance abuse; and

(5) are independently ambulatory or mobile for more than a temporary period of time.

A hospital may also request a criminal history background check for a patient who does not meet any of the criteria set forth in items (1) through (5).

A hospital shall notify a long term care facility if the hospital has initiated a criminal history background check on a patient being discharged to that facility. In all circumstances in which the hospital is required by this subsection to initiate the criminal history background check, the transfer to the long term care facility may proceed regardless of the availability of criminal history results. Upon receipt of the results, the hospital shall promptly forward the results to the appropriate long term care facility. If the results of the background check are inconclusive, the hospital shall have no additional duty or obligation to seek additional information from, or about, the patient.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 85/10.10)

Sec. 10.10. Nurse Staffing by Patient Acuity.

(a) Findings. The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:

(1) The State of Illinois has a substantial interest in promoting quality care and improving the delivery of health care services.

(2) Evidence-based studies have shown that the basic principles of staffing in the acute care setting should be based on the complexity of patients' care needs aligned with available nursing skills to promote quality patient care consistent with professional nursing standards.

(3) Compliance with this Section promotes an organizational climate that values registered nurses' input in meeting the health care needs of hospital patients.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Acuity model" means an assessment tool selected and implemented by a hospital, as recommended by a nursing care committee, that assesses the complexity of patient care needs requiring professional nursing care and skills and aligns patient care needs and nursing skills consistent with professional nursing standards.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Direct patient care" means care provided by a registered professional nurse with direct responsibility to oversee or carry out medical regimens or nursing care for one or more patients.

"Nursing care committee" means an existing or newly created hospital-wide committee or committees of nurses whose functions, in part or in whole, contribute to the development, recommendation, and review of the hospital's nurse staffing plan established pursuant to subsection (d).

"Registered professional nurse" means a person licensed as a Registered Nurse under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Written staffing plan for nursing care services" means a written plan for guiding the assignment of patient care nursing staff based on multiple nurse and patient considerations that yield minimum staffing levels for inpatient care units and the adopted acuity model aligning patient care needs with nursing skills required for quality patient care consistent with professional nursing standards.

(c) Written staffing plan.

(1) Every hospital shall implement a written hospital-wide staffing plan, recommended by a nursing care committee or committees, that provides for minimum direct care professional registered nurse-to-patient staffing needs for each inpatient care unit. The written hospital-wide staffing plan shall include, but need not be limited to, the following considerations:

(A) The complexity of complete care, assessment on patient admission, volume of patient admissions, discharges and transfers, evaluation of the progress of a patient's problems, ongoing physical assessments, planning for a patient's discharge, assessment after a change in patient condition, and assessment of the need for patient referrals.

(B) The complexity of clinical professional nursing judgment needed to design and implement a patient's nursing care plan, the need for specialized equipment and technology, the skill mix of other personnel providing or supporting direct patient care, and involvement in quality improvement activities, professional preparation, and experience.

(C) Patient acuity and the number of patients for whom care is being provided.

(D) The ongoing assessments of a unit's patient acuity levels and nursing staff needed shall be routinely made by the unit nurse manager or his or her designee.

(E) The identification of additional registered nurses available for direct patient care when patients' unexpected needs exceed the planned workload for direct care staff.

(2) In order to provide staffing flexibility to meet patient needs, every hospital shall identify an acuity model for adjusting the staffing plan for each inpatient care unit.

(3) The written staffing plan shall be posted in a conspicuous and accessible location for both patients and direct care staff, as required under the Hospital Report Card Act. A copy of the written staffing plan shall be provided to any member of the general public upon request.

(d) Nursing care committee.

(1) Every hospital shall have a nursing care committee. A hospital shall appoint members of a committee whereby at least 50% of the members are registered professional nurses providing direct patient care.

(2) A nursing care committee's recommendations must be given significant regard and weight in the hospital's adoption and implementation of a written staffing plan.

(3) A nursing care committee or committees shall recommend a written staffing plan for the hospital based on the principles from the staffing components set forth in subsection (c). In particular, a committee or committees shall provide input and feedback on the following:

(A) Selection, implementation, and evaluation of minimum staffing levels for inpatient care units.

(B) Selection, implementation, and evaluation of an acuity model to provide staffing flexibility that aligns changing patient acuity with nursing skills required.

(C) Selection, implementation, and evaluation of a written staffing plan incorporating the items described in subdivisions (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this Section.

(D) Review the following: nurse-to-patient staffing guidelines for all inpatient areas; and current acuity tools and measures in use.

(4) A nursing care committee must address the items described in subparagraphs (A) through (D) of paragraph (3) semi-annually.

(e) Nothing in is this Section 10.10 shall be construed to limit, alter, or modify any of the terms, conditions, or provisions of a collective bargaining agreement entered into by the hospital.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 97-423, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 340. The Language Assistance Services Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(210 ILCS 87/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Interpreter" means a person fluent in English and in the necessary language of the patient who can accurately speak, read, and readily interpret the necessary second language, or a person who can accurately sign and read sign language. Interpreters shall have the ability to translate the names of body parts and to describe completely symptoms and injuries in both languages. Interpreters may include members of the medical or professional staff.

"Language or communication barriers" means either of the following:

(1) With respect to spoken language, barriers that are experienced by limited-English-speaking or non-English-speaking individuals who speak the same primary language, if those individuals constitute at least 5% of the patients served by the health facility annually.

(2) With respect to sign language, barriers that are experienced by individuals who are deaf and whose primary language is sign language.

"Health facility" means a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, a long-term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, or a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-28-11.)

Section 345. The Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act is amended by changing Section 4 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 13 as follows:

(210 ILCS 135/4) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1704)

Sec. 4. (a) Any community mental health or developmental services agency who wishes to develop and support a variety of community-integrated living arrangements may do so pursuant to a license issued by the Department under this Act. However, programs established under or otherwise subject to the Child Care Act of 1969, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, as now or hereafter amended, shall remain subject thereto, and this Act shall not be construed to limit the application of those Acts.

(b) The system of licensure established under this Act shall be for the purposes of:

(1) Insuring that all recipients residing in community-integrated living arrangements are receiving appropriate community-based services, including treatment, training and habilitation or rehabilitation;

(2) Insuring that recipients' rights are protected and that all programs provided to and placements arranged for recipients comply with this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations;

(3) Maintaining the integrity of communities by requiring regular monitoring and inspection of placements and other services provided in community-integrated living arrangements.

The licensure system shall be administered by a quality assurance unit within the Department which shall be administratively independent of units responsible for funding of agencies or community services.

(c) As a condition of being licensed by the Department as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act, the agency shall certify to the Department that:

(1) All recipients residing in community-integrated living arrangements are receiving appropriate community-based services, including treatment, training and habilitation or rehabilitation;

(2) All programs provided to and placements arranged for recipients are supervised by the agency; and

(3) All programs provided to and placements arranged for recipients comply with this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations.

(d) An applicant for licensure as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act shall submit an application pursuant to the application process established by the Department by rule and shall pay an application fee in an amount established by the Department, which amount shall not be more than $200.

(e) If an applicant meets the requirements established by the Department to be licensed as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act, after payment of the licensing fee, the Department shall issue a license valid for 3 years from the date thereof unless suspended or revoked by the Department or voluntarily surrendered by the agency.

(f) Upon application to the Department, the Department may issue a temporary permit to an applicant for a 6-month period to allow the holder of such permit reasonable time to become eligible for a license under this Act.

(g)(1) The Department may conduct site visits to an agency licensed under this Act, or to any program or placement certified by the agency, and inspect the records or premises, or both, of such agency, program or placement as it deems appropriate, for the purpose of determining compliance with this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations.

(2) If the Department determines that an agency licensed under this Act is not in compliance with this Act or the rules and regulations promulgated under this Act, the Department shall serve a notice of violation upon the licensee. Each notice of violation shall be prepared in writing and shall specify the nature of the violation, the statutory provision or rule alleged to have been violated, and that the licensee submit a plan of correction to the Department if required. The notice shall also inform the licensee of any other action which the Department might take pursuant to this Act and of the right to a hearing.

(g-5) As determined by the Department, a disproportionate number or percentage of licensure complaints; a disproportionate number or percentage of substantiated cases of abuse, neglect, or exploitation involving an agency; an apparent unnatural death of an individual served by an agency; any egregious or life-threatening abuse or neglect within an agency; or any other significant event as determined by the Department shall initiate a review of the agency's license by the Department, as well as a review of its service agreement for funding. The Department shall adopt rules to establish the process by which the determination to initiate a review shall be made and the timeframe to initiate a review upon the making of such determination.

(h) Upon the expiration of any license issued under this Act, a license renewal application shall be required of and a license renewal fee in an amount established by the Department shall be charged to a community mental health or developmental services agency, provided that such fee shall not be more than $200.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-441, eff. 8-19-11; revised 9-28-11.)

(210 ILCS 135/13)

Sec. 13. Fire inspections; authority.

(a) Per the requirements of Public Act 96-1141, on January 1, 2011 a report titled "Streamlined Auditing and Monitoring for Community Based Services: First Steps Toward a More Efficient System for Providers, State Government, and the Community" was provided for members of the General Assembly. The report, which was developed by a steering committee of community providers, trade associations, and designated representatives from the Departments of Children and Family Services, Healthcare and Family Services, Human Services, and Public Health, issued a series of recommendations, including recommended changes to Administrative Rules and Illinois statutes, on the categories of deemed status for accreditation, fiscal audits, centralized repository of information, Medicaid, technology, contracting, and streamlined monitoring procedures. It is the intent of the 97th General Assembly to pursue implementation of those recommendations that have been determined to require Acts of the General Assembly.

(b) For community-integrated living arrangements licensed under this Act, the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall provide the necessary fire inspection to comply with licensing requirements. The Office of the State Fire Marshal may enter into an agreement with another State agency to conduct this inspection if qualified personnel are employed by that agency. Code enforcement inspection of the facility by the local authority shall only occur if the local authority having jurisdiction enforces code requirements that are more stringent than those enforced by the State Fire Marshal. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a local fire authority from conducting fire incident planning activities.

(Source: P.A. 97-321, eff. 8-12-11.)

(210 ILCS 135/13.1)

Sec. 13.1 13. Registry checks for employees.

(a) Within 60 days after August 19, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-441) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the Department shall require all of its community developmental services agencies to conduct required registry checks on employees at the time of hire and annually thereafter during employment. The required registries to be checked are the Health Care Worker Registry, the Department of Children and Family Services' State Central Register, and the Illinois Sex Offender Registry. A person may not be employed if he or she is found to have disqualifying convictions or substantiated cases of abuse or neglect. At the time of the annual registry checks, if a current employee's name has been placed on a registry with disqualifying convictions or disqualifying substantiated cases of abuse or neglect, then the employee must be terminated. Disqualifying convictions or disqualifying substantiated cases of abuse or neglect are defined for the Department of Children and Family Services' State Central Register by the Department of Children and Family Services' standards for background checks in Part 385 of Title 89 of the Illinois Administrative Code. Disqualifying convictions or disqualifying substantiated cases of abuse or neglect are defined for the Health Care Worker Registry by the Health Care Worker Background Check Act and the Department's standards for abuse and neglect investigations in Section 1-17 of the Department of Human Services Act.

(b) In collaboration with the Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Public Health, the Department of Human Services shall establish a waiver process from the prohibition of employment or termination of employment requirements in subsection (a) of this Section for any applicant or employee listed under the Department of Children and Family Services' State Central Register seeking to be hired or maintain his or her employment with a community developmental services agency under this Act. The waiver process for applicants and employees outlined under Section 40 of the Health Care Worker Background Check Act shall remain in effect for individuals listed on the Health Care Worker Registry.

(c) In order to effectively and efficiently comply with subsection (a), the Department of Children and Family Services shall take immediate actions to streamline the process for checking the State Central Register for employees hired by community developmental services agencies referenced in this Act. These actions may include establishing a website for registry checks or establishing a registry check process similar to the Health Care Worker Registry.

(Source: P.A. 97-441, eff. 8-19-11; revised 10-28-11.)

Section 350. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 356z.3, 356z.16, 364.01, 368a, 408, 409, and 1540 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 356z.19 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/356z.3)

Sec. 356z.3. Disclosure of limited benefit. An insurer that issues, delivers, amends, or renews an individual or group policy of accident and health insurance in this State after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly and arranges, contracts with, or administers contracts with a provider whereby beneficiaries are provided an incentive to use the services of such provider must include the following disclosure on its contracts and evidences of coverage: "WARNING, LIMITED BENEFITS WILL BE PAID WHEN NON-PARTICIPATING PROVIDERS ARE USED. You should be aware that when you elect to utilize the services of a non-participating provider for a covered service in non-emergency situations, benefit payments to such non-participating provider are not based upon the amount billed. The basis of your benefit payment will be determined according to your policy's fee schedule, usual and customary charge (which is determined by comparing charges for similar services adjusted to the geographical area where the services are performed), or other method as defined by the policy. YOU CAN EXPECT TO PAY MORE THAN THE COINSURANCE AMOUNT DEFINED IN THE POLICY AFTER THE PLAN HAS PAID ITS REQUIRED PORTION. Non-participating providers may bill members for any amount up to the billed charge after the plan has paid its portion of the bill as provided in Section 356z.3a of the Illinois Insurance Code this Code. Participating providers have agreed to accept discounted payments for services with no additional billing to the member other than co-insurance and deductible amounts. You may obtain further information about the participating status of professional providers and information on out-of-pocket expenses by calling the toll free telephone number on your identification card.".

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1523, eff. 6-1-11; revised 11-18-11.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.16)

Sec. 356z.16. Applicability of mandated benefits to supplemental policies. Unless specified otherwise, the following Sections of the Illinois Insurance Code do not apply to short-term travel, disability income, long-term care, accident only, or limited or specified disease policies: 356b, 356c, 356d, 356g, 356k, 356m, 356n, 356p, 356q, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.12, 356z.19, 356z.21 356z.19, 364.01, 367.2-5, and 367e.

(Source: P.A. 96-180, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1034, eff. 1-1-11; 97-91, eff. 1-1-12; 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-592, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-13-11.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.19)

Sec. 356z.19. Cardiovascular disease. Because cardiovascular disease is a leading cause of death and disability, an insurer providing group or individual policies of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan shall develop and implement a process to communicate with their adult enrollees on an annual basis regarding the importance and value of early detection and proactive management of cardiovascular disease. Nothing in this Section affects any change in the terms, conditions, or benefits of the policies and plans, nor the criteria, standards, and procedures related to the application for, enrollment in, or renewal of coverage or conditions of participation of enrollees in the health plans or policies subject to this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-282, eff. 8-9-11.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.20)

Sec. 356z.20 356z.19. Cancer drug parity.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Financial requirement" means deductibles, copayments, coinsurance, out-of-pocket expenses, aggregate lifetime limits, and annual limits.

"Treatment limitation" means limits on the frequency of treatment, days of coverage, or other similar limits on the scope or duration of treatment.

(b) On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, every insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews an individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that provides coverage for prescribed orally-administered cancer medications and intravenously administered or injected cancer medications shall ensure that:

(1) the financial requirements applicable to such prescribed orally-administered cancer medications are no more restrictive than the financial requirements applied to intravenously administered or injected cancer medications that are covered by the policy and that there are no separate cost-sharing requirements that are applicable only with respect to such prescribed orally-administered cancer medications; and

(2) the treatment limitations applicable to such prescribed orally-administered cancer medications are no more restrictive than the treatment limitations applied to intravenously administered or injected cancer medications that are covered by the policy and that there are no separate treatment limitations that are applicable only with respect to such prescribed orally-administered cancer medications.

(c) An insurer cannot achieve compliance with this Section by increasing financial requirements or imposing more restrictive treatment limitations on prescribed orally-administered cancer medications or intravenously administered or injected cancer medications covered under the policy on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 97-198, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-13-11.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.21)

Sec. 356z.21 356z.19. Tobacco use cessation programs; coverage offer.

(a) Tobacco use is the number one cause of preventable disease and death in Illinois, costing $4.1 billion annually in direct health care costs and an additional $4.35 billion in lost productivity. In Illinois, the smoking rates are highest among African Americans (25.8%). Smoking rates among lesbian, gay, and bisexual adults range from 25% to 44%. The U.S. Public Health Service Clinical Practice Guideline 2008 Update found that tobacco dependence treatments are both clinically effective and highly cost effective. A study in the Journal of Preventive Medicine concluded that comprehensive smoking cessation treatment is one of the 3 most important and cost effective preventive services that can be provided in medical practice. Greater efforts are needed to achieve more of this potential value by increasing current low levels of performance.

(b) In this Section, "tobacco use cessation program" means a program recommended by a physician that follows evidence-based treatment, such as is outlined in the United States Public Health Service guidelines for tobacco use cessation. "Tobacco use cessation program" includes education and medical treatment components designed to assist a person in ceasing the use of tobacco products. "Tobacco use cessation program" includes education and counseling by physicians or associated medical personnel and all FDA approved medications for the treatment of tobacco dependence irrespective of whether they are available only over the counter, only by prescription, or both over the counter and by prescription.

(c) On or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, every insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews group accident and health policies providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment or services on an expense-incurred basis shall offer, for an additional premium and subject to the insurer's standard of insurability, optional coverage or optional reimbursement of up to $500 annually for a tobacco use cessation program for a person enrolled in the plan who is 18 years of age or older.

(d) The coverage required by this Section shall be subject to other general exclusions and limitations of the policy, including coordination of benefits, participating provider requirements, restrictions on services provided by family or household members, utilization review of health care services, including review of medical necessity, case management, experimental and investigational treatments, and other managed care provisions.

(e) For the coverage provided under this Section, an insurer may not penalize or reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider or provide incentives, monetary or otherwise, to an attending provider to induce the provider to provide care to an insured in a manner inconsistent with the coverage under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-592, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-13-11.)

(215 ILCS 5/364.01)

Sec. 364.01. Qualified clinical cancer trials.

(a) No individual or group policy of accident and health insurance issued or renewed in this State may be cancelled or non-renewed for any individual based on that individual's participation in a qualified clinical cancer trial.

(b) Qualified clinical cancer trials must meet the following criteria:

(1) the effectiveness of the treatment has not been determined relative to established therapies;

(2) the trial is under clinical investigation as part of an approved cancer research trial in Phase II, Phase III, or Phase IV of investigation;

(3) the trial is:

(A) approved by the Food and Drug Administration; or

(B) approved and funded by the National Institutes of Health, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, the United States Department of Defense, the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, or the United States Department of Energy in the form of an investigational new drug application, or a cooperative group or center of any entity described in this subdivision (B); and

(4) the patient's primary care physician, if any, is involved in the coordination of care.

(c) No group policy of accident and health insurance shall exclude coverage for any routine patient care administered to an insured who is a qualified individual participating in a qualified clinical cancer trial, if the policy covers that same routine patient care of insureds not enrolled in a qualified clinical cancer trial.

(d) The coverage that may not be excluded under subsection (c) of this Section is subject to all terms, conditions, restrictions, exclusions, and limitations that apply to the same routine patient care received by an insured not enrolled in a qualified clinical cancer trial, including the application of any authorization requirement, utilization review, or medical management practices. The insured or enrollee shall incur no greater out-of-pocket liability than had the insured or enrollee not enrolled in a qualified clinical cancer trial.

(e) If the group policy of accident and health insurance uses a preferred provider program and a preferred provider provides routine patient care in connection with a qualified clinical cancer trial, then the insurer may require the insured to use the preferred provider if the preferred provider agrees to provide to the insured that routine patient care.

(f) A qualified clinical cancer trial may not pay or refuse to pay for routine patient care of an individual participating in the trial, based in whole or in part on the person's having or not having coverage for routine patient care under a group policy of accident and health insurance.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit an insurer's coverage with respect to clinical trials.

(h) Nothing in this Section shall require coverage for out-of-network services where the underlying health benefit plan does not provide coverage for out-of-network services.

(i) As used in this Section, "routine patient care" means all health care services provided in the qualified clinical cancer trial that are otherwise generally covered under the policy if those items or services were not provided in connection with a qualified clinical cancer trial consistent with the standard of care for the treatment of cancer, including the type and frequency of any diagnostic modality, that a provider typically provides to a cancer patient who is not enrolled in a qualified clinical cancer trial. "Routine patient care" does not include, and a group policy of accident and health insurance may exclude, coverage for:

(1) a health care service, item, or drug that is the subject of the cancer clinical trial;

(2) a health care service, item, or drug provided solely to satisfy data collection and analysis needs for the qualified clinical cancer trial that is not used in the direct clinical management of the patient;

(3) an investigational drug or device that has not been approved for market by the United States Food and Drug Administration;

(4) transportation, lodging, food, or other expenses for the patient or a family member or companion of the patient that are associated with the travel to or from a facility providing the qualified clinical cancer trial, unless the policy covers these expenses for a cancer patient who is not enrolled in a qualified clinical cancer trial;

(5) a health care service, item, or drug customarily provided by the qualified clinical cancer trial sponsors free of charge for any patient;

(6) a health care service or item, which except for the fact that it is being provided in a qualified clinical cancer trial, is otherwise specifically excluded from coverage under the insured's policy, including:

(A) costs of extra treatments, services, procedures, tests, or drugs that would not be performed or administered except for the fact that the insured is participating in the cancer clinical trial; and

(B) costs of nonhealth care services that the patient is required to receive as a result of participation in the approved cancer clinical trial;

(7) costs for services, items, or drugs that are eligible for reimbursement from a source other than a patient's contract or policy providing for third-party payment or prepayment of health or medical expenses, including the sponsor of the approved cancer clinical trial; or

(8) costs associated with approved cancer clinical trials designed exclusively to test toxicity or disease pathophysiology, unless the policy covers these expenses for a cancer patient who is not enrolled in a qualified clinical cancer trial; or

(9) a health care service or item that is eligible for reimbursement by a source other than the insured's policy, including the sponsor of the qualified clinical cancer trial.

The definitions of the terms "health care services", "Non-Preferred Provider", "Preferred Provider", and "Preferred Provider Program", stated in 50 IL Adm. Code Part 2051 Preferred Provider Programs apply to these terms in this Section.

(j) The external review procedures established under the Health Carrier External Review Act shall apply to the provisions under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-91, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-18-11.)

(215 ILCS 5/368a)

Sec. 368a. Timely payment for health care services.

(a) This Section applies to insurers, health maintenance organizations, managed care plans, health care plans, preferred provider organizations, third party administrators, independent practice associations, and physician-hospital organizations (hereinafter referred to as "payors") that provide periodic payments, which are payments not requiring a claim, bill, capitation encounter data, or capitation reconciliation reports, such as prospective capitation payments, to health care professionals and health care facilities to provide medical or health care services for insureds or enrollees.

(1) A payor shall make periodic payments in accordance with item (3). Failure to make periodic payments within the period of time specified in item (3) shall entitle the health care professional or health care facility to interest at the rate of 9% per year from the date payment was required to be made to the date of the late payment, provided that interest amounting to less than $1 need not be paid. Any required interest payments shall be made within 30 days after the payment.

(2) When a payor requires selection of a health care professional or health care facility, the selection shall be completed by the insured or enrollee no later than 30 days after enrollment. The payor shall provide written notice of this requirement to all insureds and enrollees. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require a payor to select a health care professional or health care facility for an insured or enrollee.

(3) A payor shall provide the health care professional or health care facility with notice of the selection as a health care professional or health care facility by an insured or enrollee and the effective date of the selection within 60 calendar days after the selection. No later than the 60th day following the date an insured or enrollee has selected a health care professional or health care facility or the date that selection becomes effective, whichever is later, or in cases of retrospective enrollment only, 30 days after notice by an employer to the payor of the selection, a payor shall begin periodic payment of the required amounts to the insured's or enrollee's health care professional or health care facility, or the designee of either, calculated from the date of selection or the date the selection becomes effective, whichever is later. All subsequent payments shall be made in accordance with a monthly periodic cycle.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, independent practice associations and physician-hospital organizations shall make periodic payment of the required amounts in accordance with a monthly periodic schedule after an insured or enrollee has selected a health care professional or health care facility or after that selection becomes effective, whichever is later.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, independent practice associations and physician-hospital organizations shall make all other payments for health services within 30 days after receipt of due proof of loss. Independent practice associations and physician-hospital organizations shall notify the insured, insured's assignee, health care professional, or health care facility of any failure to provide sufficient documentation for a due proof of loss within 30 days after receipt of the claim for health services.

Failure to pay within the required time period shall entitle the payee to interest at the rate of 9% per year from the date the payment is due to the date of the late payment, provided that interest amounting to less than that $1 need not be paid. Any required interest payments shall be made within 30 days after the payment.

(c) All insurers, health maintenance organizations, managed care plans, health care plans, preferred provider organizations, and third party administrators shall ensure that all claims and indemnities concerning health care services other than for any periodic payment shall be paid within 30 days after receipt of due written proof of such loss. An insured, insured's assignee, health care professional, or health care facility shall be notified of any known failure to provide sufficient documentation for a due proof of loss within 30 days after receipt of the claim for health care services. Failure to pay within such period shall entitle the payee to interest at the rate of 9% per year from the 30th day after receipt of such proof of loss to the date of late payment, provided that interest amounting to less than one dollar need not be paid. Any required interest payments shall be made within 30 days after the payment.

(d) The Department shall enforce the provisions of this Section pursuant to the enforcement powers granted to it by law.

(e) The Department is hereby granted specific authority to issue a cease and desist order, fine, or otherwise penalize independent practice associations and physician-hospital organizations that violate this Section. The Department shall adopt reasonable rules to enforce compliance with this Section by independent practice associations and physician-hospital organizations.

(Source: P.A. 91-605, eff. 12-14-99; 91-788, eff. 6-9-00; 92-745, eff. 1-1-03; revised 11-18-11.)

(215 ILCS 5/408) (from Ch. 73, par. 1020)

Sec. 408. Fees and charges.

(1) The Director shall charge, collect and give proper acquittances for the payment of the following fees and charges:

(a) For filing all documents submitted for the incorporation or organization or certification of a domestic company, except for a fraternal benefit society, $2,000.

(b) For filing all documents submitted for the incorporation or organization of a fraternal benefit society, $500.

(c) For filing amendments to articles of incorporation and amendments to declaration of organization, except for a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association, a burial society or a farm mutual, $200.

(d) For filing amendments to articles of incorporation of a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association or a burial society, $100.

(e) For filing amendments to articles of incorporation of a farm mutual, $50.

(f) For filing bylaws or amendments thereto, $50.

(g) For filing agreement of merger or consolidation:

(i) for a domestic company, except for a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association, a burial society, or a farm mutual, $2,000.

(ii) for a foreign or alien company, except for a fraternal benefit society, $600.

(iii) for a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association, a burial society, or a farm mutual, $200.

(h) For filing agreements of reinsurance by a domestic company, $200.

(i) For filing all documents submitted by a foreign or alien company to be admitted to transact business or accredited as a reinsurer in this State, except for a fraternal benefit society, $5,000.

(j) For filing all documents submitted by a foreign or alien fraternal benefit society to be admitted to transact business in this State, $500.

(k) For filing declaration of withdrawal of a foreign or alien company, $50.

(l) For filing annual statement by a domestic company, except a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association, a burial society, or a farm mutual, $200.

(m) For filing annual statement by a domestic fraternal benefit society, $100.

(n) For filing annual statement by a farm mutual, a mutual benefit association, or a burial society, $50.

(o) For issuing a certificate of authority or renewal thereof except to a foreign fraternal benefit society, $400.

(p) For issuing a certificate of authority or renewal thereof to a foreign fraternal benefit society, $200.

(q) For issuing an amended certificate of authority, $50.

(r) For each certified copy of certificate of authority, $20.

(s) For each certificate of deposit, or valuation, or compliance or surety certificate, $20.

(t) For copies of papers or records per page, $1.

(u) For each certification to copies of papers or records, $10.

(v) For multiple copies of documents or certificates listed in subparagraphs (r), (s), and (u) of paragraph (1) of this Section, $10 for the first copy of a certificate of any type and $5 for each additional copy of the same certificate requested at the same time, unless, pursuant to paragraph (2) of this Section, the Director finds these additional fees excessive.

(w) For issuing a permit to sell shares or increase paid-up capital:

(i) in connection with a public stock offering, $300;

(ii) in any other case, $100.

(x) For issuing any other certificate required or permissible under the law, $50.

(y) For filing a plan of exchange of the stock of a domestic stock insurance company, a plan of demutualization of a domestic mutual company, or a plan of reorganization under Article XII, $2,000.

(z) For filing a statement of acquisition of a domestic company as defined in Section 131.4 of this Code, $2,000.

(aa) For filing an agreement to purchase the business of an organization authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act or of a health maintenance organization or a limited health service organization, $2,000.

(bb) For filing a statement of acquisition of a foreign or alien insurance company as defined in Section 131.12a of this Code, $1,000.

(cc) For filing a registration statement as required in Sections 131.13 and 131.14, the notification as required by Sections 131.16, 131.20a, or 141.4, or an agreement or transaction required by Sections 124.2(2), 141, 141a, or 141.1, $200.

(dd) For filing an application for licensing of:

(i) a religious or charitable risk pooling trust or a workers' compensation pool, $1,000;

(ii) a workers' compensation service company, $500;

(iii) a self-insured automobile fleet, $200; or

(iv) a renewal of or amendment of any license issued pursuant to (i), (ii), or (iii) above, $100.

(ee) For filing articles of incorporation for a syndicate to engage in the business of insurance through the Illinois Insurance Exchange, $2,000.

(ff) For filing amended articles of incorporation for a syndicate engaged in the business of insurance through the Illinois Insurance Exchange, $100.

(gg) For filing articles of incorporation for a limited syndicate to join with other subscribers or limited syndicates to do business through the Illinois Insurance Exchange, $1,000.

(hh) For filing amended articles of incorporation for a limited syndicate to do business through the Illinois Insurance Exchange, $100.

(ii) For a permit to solicit subscriptions to a syndicate or limited syndicate, $100.

(jj) For the filing of each form as required in Section 143 of this Code, $50 per form. The fee for advisory and rating organizations shall be $200 per form.

(i) For the purposes of the form filing fee, filings made on insert page basis will be considered one form at the time of its original submission. Changes made to a form subsequent to its approval shall be considered a new filing.

(ii) Only one fee shall be charged for a form, regardless of the number of other forms or policies with which it will be used.

(iii) Fees charged for a policy filed as it will be issued regardless of the number of forms comprising that policy shall not exceed $1,500. For advisory or rating organizations, fees charged for a policy filed as it will be issued regardless of the number of forms comprising that policy shall not exceed $2,500.

(iv) The Director may by rule exempt forms from such fees.

(kk) For filing an application for licensing of a reinsurance intermediary, $500.

(ll) For filing an application for renewal of a license of a reinsurance intermediary, $200.

(2) When printed copies or numerous copies of the same paper or records are furnished or certified, the Director may reduce such fees for copies if he finds them excessive. He may, when he considers it in the public interest, furnish without charge to state insurance departments and persons other than companies, copies or certified copies of reports of examinations and of other papers and records.

(3) The expenses incurred in any performance examination authorized by law shall be paid by the company or person being examined. The charge shall be reasonably related to the cost of the examination including but not limited to compensation of examiners, electronic data processing costs, supervision and preparation of an examination report and lodging and travel expenses. All lodging and travel expenses shall be in accord with the applicable travel regulations as published by the Department of Central Management Services and approved by the Governor's Travel Control Board, except that out-of-state lodging and travel expenses related to examinations authorized under Section 132 shall be in accordance with travel rates prescribed under paragraph 301-7.2 of the Federal Travel Regulations, 41 C.F.R. 301-7.2, for reimbursement of subsistence expenses incurred during official travel. All lodging and travel expenses may be reimbursed directly upon authorization of the Director. With the exception of the direct reimbursements authorized by the Director, all performance examination charges collected by the Department shall be paid to the Insurance Producers Administration Fund, however, the electronic data processing costs incurred by the Department in the performance of any examination shall be billed directly to the company being examined for payment to the Statistical Services Revolving Fund.

(4) At the time of any service of process on the Director as attorney for such service, the Director shall charge and collect the sum of $20, which may be recovered as taxable costs by the party to the suit or action causing such service to be made if he prevails in such suit or action.

(5) (a) The costs incurred by the Department of Insurance in conducting any hearing authorized by law shall be assessed against the parties to the hearing in such proportion as the Director of Insurance may determine upon consideration of all relevant circumstances including: (1) the nature of the hearing; (2) whether the hearing was instigated by, or for the benefit of a particular party or parties; (3) whether there is a successful party on the merits of the proceeding; and (4) the relative levels of participation by the parties.

(b) For purposes of this subsection (5) costs incurred shall mean the hearing officer fees, court reporter fees, and travel expenses of Department of Insurance officers and employees; provided however, that costs incurred shall not include hearing officer fees or court reporter fees unless the Department has retained the services of independent contractors or outside experts to perform such functions.

(c) The Director shall make the assessment of costs incurred as part of the final order or decision arising out of the proceeding; provided, however, that such order or decision shall include findings and conclusions in support of the assessment of costs. This subsection (5) shall not be construed as permitting the payment of travel expenses unless calculated in accordance with the applicable travel regulations of the Department of Central Management Services, as approved by the Governor's Travel Control Board. The Director as part of such order or decision shall require all assessments for hearing officer fees and court reporter fees, if any, to be paid directly to the hearing officer or court reporter by the party(s) assessed for such costs. The assessments for travel expenses of Department officers and employees shall be reimbursable to the Director of Insurance for deposit to the fund out of which those expenses had been paid.

(d) The provisions of this subsection (5) shall apply in the case of any hearing conducted by the Director of Insurance not otherwise specifically provided for by law.

(6) The Director shall charge and collect an annual financial regulation fee from every domestic company for examination and analysis of its financial condition and to fund the internal costs and expenses of the Interstate Insurance Receivership Commission as may be allocated to the State of Illinois and companies doing an insurance business in this State pursuant to Article X of the Interstate Insurance Receivership Compact. The fee shall be the greater fixed amount based upon the combination of nationwide direct premium income and nationwide reinsurance assumed premium income or upon admitted assets calculated under this subsection as follows:

(a) Combination of nationwide direct premium income and nationwide reinsurance assumed premium.

(i) $150, if the premium is less than $500,000 and there is no reinsurance assumed premium;

(ii) $750, if the premium is $500,000 or more, but less than $5,000,000 and there is no reinsurance assumed premium; or if the premium is less than $5,000,000 and the reinsurance assumed premium is less than $10,000,000;

(iii) $3,750, if the premium is less than $5,000,000 and the reinsurance assumed premium is $10,000,000 or more;

(iv) $7,500, if the premium is $5,000,000 or more, but less than $10,000,000;

(v) $18,000, if the premium is $10,000,000 or more, but less than $25,000,000;

(vi) $22,500, if the premium is $25,000,000 or more, but less than $50,000,000;

(vii) $30,000, if the premium is $50,000,000 or more, but less than $100,000,000;

(viii) $37,500, if the premium is $100,000,000 or more.

(b) Admitted assets.

(i) $150, if admitted assets are less than $1,000,000;

(ii) $750, if admitted assets are $1,000,000 or more, but less than $5,000,000;

(iii) $3,750, if admitted assets are $5,000,000 or more, but less than $25,000,000;

(iv) $7,500, if admitted assets are $25,000,000 or more, but less than $50,000,000;

(v) $18,000, if admitted assets are $50,000,000 or more, but less than $100,000,000;

(vi) $22,500, if admitted assets are $100,000,000 or more, but less than $500,000,000;

(vii) $30,000, if admitted assets are $500,000,000 or more, but less than $1,000,000,000;

(viii) $37,500, if admitted assets are $1,000,000,000 or more.

(c) The sum of financial regulation fees charged to the domestic companies of the same affiliated group shall not exceed $250,000 in the aggregate in any single year and shall be billed by the Director to the member company designated by the group.

(7) The Director shall charge and collect an annual financial regulation fee from every foreign or alien company, except fraternal benefit societies, for the examination and analysis of its financial condition and to fund the internal costs and expenses of the Interstate Insurance Receivership Commission as may be allocated to the State of Illinois and companies doing an insurance business in this State pursuant to Article X of the Interstate Insurance Receivership Compact. The fee shall be a fixed amount based upon Illinois direct premium income and nationwide reinsurance assumed premium income in accordance with the following schedule:

(a) $150, if the premium is less than $500,000 and there is no reinsurance assumed premium;

(b) $750, if the premium is $500,000 or more, but less than $5,000,000 and there is no reinsurance assumed premium; or if the premium is less than $5,000,000 and the reinsurance assumed premium is less than $10,000,000;

(c) $3,750, if the premium is less than $5,000,000 and the reinsurance assumed premium is $10,000,000 or more;

(d) $7,500, if the premium is $5,000,000 or more, but less than $10,000,000;

(e) $18,000, if the premium is $10,000,000 or more, but less than $25,000,000;

(f) $22,500, if the premium is $25,000,000 or more, but less than $50,000,000;

(g) $30,000, if the premium is $50,000,000 or more, but less than $100,000,000;

(h) $37,500, if the premium is $100,000,000 or more.

The sum of financial regulation fees under this subsection (7) charged to the foreign or alien companies within the same affiliated group shall not exceed $250,000 in the aggregate in any single year and shall be billed by the Director to the member company designated by the group.

(8) Beginning January 1, 1992, the financial regulation fees imposed under subsections (6) and (7) of this Section shall be paid by each company or domestic affiliated group annually. After January 1, 1994, the fee shall be billed by Department invoice based upon the company's premium income or admitted assets as shown in its annual statement for the preceding calendar year. The invoice is due upon receipt and must be paid no later than June 30 of each calendar year. All financial regulation fees collected by the Department shall be paid to the Insurance Financial Regulation Fund. The Department may not collect financial examiner per diem charges from companies subject to subsections (6) and (7) of this Section undergoing financial examination after June 30, 1992.

(9) In addition to the financial regulation fee required by this Section, a company undergoing any financial examination authorized by law shall pay the following costs and expenses incurred by the Department: electronic data processing costs, the expenses authorized under Section 131.21 and subsection (d) of Section 132.4 of this Code, and lodging and travel expenses.

Electronic data processing costs incurred by the Department in the performance of any examination shall be billed directly to the company undergoing examination for payment to the Statistical Services Revolving Fund. Except for direct reimbursements authorized by the Director or direct payments made under Section 131.21 or subsection (d) of Section 132.4 of this Code, all financial regulation fees and all financial examination charges collected by the Department shall be paid to the Insurance Financial Regulation Fund.

All lodging and travel expenses shall be in accordance with applicable travel regulations published by the Department of Central Management Services and approved by the Governor's Travel Control Board, except that out-of-state lodging and travel expenses related to examinations authorized under Sections 132.1 through 132.7 shall be in accordance with travel rates prescribed under paragraph 301-7.2 of the Federal Travel Regulations, 41 C.F.R. 301-7.2, for reimbursement of subsistence expenses incurred during official travel. All lodging and travel expenses may be reimbursed directly upon the authorization of the Director.

In the case of an organization or person not subject to the financial regulation fee, the expenses incurred in any financial examination authorized by law shall be paid by the organization or person being examined. The charge shall be reasonably related to the cost of the examination including, but not limited to, compensation of examiners and other costs described in this subsection.

(10) Any company, person, or entity failing to make any payment of $150 or more as required under this Section shall be subject to the penalty and interest provisions provided for in subsections (4) and (7) of Section 412.

(11) Unless otherwise specified, all of the fees collected under this Section shall be paid into the Insurance Financial Regulation Fund.

(12) For purposes of this Section:

(a) "Domestic company" means a company as defined in Section 2 of this Code which is incorporated or organized under the laws of this State, and in addition includes a not-for-profit corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act, a health maintenance organization, and a limited health service organization.

(b) "Foreign company" means a company as defined in Section 2 of this Code which is incorporated or organized under the laws of any state of the United States other than this State and in addition includes a health maintenance organization and a limited health service organization which is incorporated or organized under the laws of any state of the United States other than this State.

(c) "Alien company" means a company as defined in Section 2 of this Code which is incorporated or organized under the laws of any country other than the United States.

(d) "Fraternal benefit society" means a corporation, society, order, lodge or voluntary association as defined in Section 282.1 of this Code.

(e) "Mutual benefit association" means a company, association or corporation authorized by the Director to do business in this State under the provisions of Article XVIII of this Code.

(f) "Burial society" means a person, firm, corporation, society or association of individuals authorized by the Director to do business in this State under the provisions of Article XIX of this Code.

(g) "Farm mutual" means a district, county and township mutual insurance company authorized by the Director to do business in this State under the provisions of the Farm Mutual Insurance Company Act of 1986.

(Source: P.A. 97-486, eff. 1-1-12; 97-603, eff. 8-26-11; revised 11-1-11.)

(215 ILCS 5/409) (from Ch. 73, par. 1021)

Sec. 409. Annual privilege tax payable by companies.

(1) As of January 1, 1999 for all health maintenance organization premiums written; as of July 1, 1998 for all premiums written as accident and health business, voluntary health service plan business, dental service plan business, or limited health service organization business; and as of January 1, 1998 for all other types of insurance premiums written, every company doing any form of insurance business in this State, including, but not limited to, every risk retention group, and excluding all fraternal benefit societies, all farm mutual companies, all religious charitable risk pooling trusts, and excluding all statutory residual market and special purpose entities in which companies are statutorily required to participate, whether incorporated or otherwise, shall pay, for the privilege of doing business in this State, to the Director for the State treasury a State tax equal to 0.5% of the net taxable premium written, together with any amounts due under Section 444 of this Code, except that the tax to be paid on any premium derived from any accident and health insurance or on any insurance business written by any company operating as a health maintenance organization, voluntary health service plan, dental service plan, or limited health service organization shall be equal to 0.4% of such net taxable premium written, together with any amounts due under Section 444. Upon the failure of any company to pay any such tax due, the Director may, by order, revoke or suspend the company's certificate of authority after giving 20 days written notice to the company, or commence proceedings for the suspension of business in this State under the procedures set forth by Section 401.1 of this Code. The gross taxable premium written shall be the gross amount of premiums received on direct business during the calendar year on contracts covering risks in this State, except premiums on annuities, premiums on which State premium taxes are prohibited by federal law, premiums paid by the State for health care coverage for Medicaid eligible insureds as described in Section 5-2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, premiums paid for health care services included as an element of tuition charges at any university or college owned and operated by the State of Illinois, premiums on group insurance contracts under the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971, and except premiums for deferred compensation plans for employees of the State, units of local government, or school districts. The net taxable premium shall be the gross taxable premium written reduced only by the following:

(a) the amount of premiums returned thereon which shall be limited to premiums returned during the same preceding calendar year and shall not include the return of cash surrender values or death benefits on life policies including annuities;

(b) dividends on such direct business that have been paid in cash, applied in reduction of premiums or left to accumulate to the credit of policyholders or annuitants. In the case of life insurance, no deduction shall be made for the payment of deferred dividends paid in cash to policyholders on maturing policies; dividends left to accumulate to the credit of policyholders or annuitants shall be included as gross taxable premium written when such dividend accumulations are applied to purchase paid-up insurance or to shorten the endowment or premium paying period.

(2) The annual privilege tax payment due from a company under subsection (4) of this Section may be reduced by: (a) the excess amount, if any, by which the aggregate income taxes paid by the company, on a cash basis, for the preceding calendar year under subsections (a) through (d) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act exceed 1.5% of the company's net taxable premium written for that prior calendar year, as determined under subsection (1) of this Section; and (b) the amount of any fire department taxes paid by the company during the preceding calendar year under Section 11-10-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code. Any deductible amount or offset allowed under items (a) and (b) of this subsection for any calendar year will not be allowed as a deduction or offset against the company's privilege tax liability for any other taxing period or calendar year.

(3) If a company survives or was formed by a merger, consolidation, reorganization, or reincorporation, the premiums received and amounts returned or paid by all companies party to the merger, consolidation, reorganization, or reincorporation shall, for purposes of determining the amount of the tax imposed by this Section, be regarded as received, returned, or paid by the surviving or new company.

(4)(a) All companies subject to the provisions of this Section shall make an annual return for the preceding calendar year on or before March 15 setting forth such information on such forms as the Director may reasonably require. Payments of quarterly installments of the taxpayer's total estimated tax for the current calendar year shall be due on or before April 15, June 15, September 15, and December 15 of such year, except that all companies transacting insurance in this State whose annual tax for the immediately preceding calendar year was less than $5,000 shall make only an annual return. Failure of a company to make the annual payment, or to make the quarterly payments, if required, of at least 25% of either (i) the total tax paid during the previous calendar year or (ii) 80% of the actual tax for the current calendar year shall subject it to the penalty provisions set forth in Section 412 of this Code.

(b) Notwithstanding the foregoing provisions, no annual return shall be required or made on March 15, 1998, under this subsection. For the calendar year 1998:

(i) each health maintenance organization shall have no estimated tax installments;

(ii) all companies subject to the tax as of July 1, 1998 as set forth in subsection (1) shall have estimated tax installments due on September 15 and December 15 of 1998 which installments shall each amount to no less than one-half of 80% of the actual tax on its net taxable premium written during the period July 1, 1998, through December 31, 1998; and

(iii) all other companies shall have estimated tax installments due on June 15, September 15, and December 15 of 1998 which installments shall each amount to no less than one-third of 80% of the actual tax on its net taxable premium written during the calendar year 1998.

In the year 1999 and thereafter all companies shall make annual and quarterly installments of their estimated tax as provided by paragraph (a) of this subsection.

(5) In addition to the authority specifically granted under Article XXV of this Code, the Director shall have such authority to adopt rules and establish forms as may be reasonably necessary for purposes of determining the allocation of Illinois corporate income taxes paid under subsections (a) through (d) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act amongst members of a business group that files an Illinois corporate income tax return on a unitary basis, for purposes of regulating the amendment of tax returns, for purposes of defining terms, and for purposes of enforcing the provisions of Article XXV of this Code. The Director shall also have authority to defer, waive, or abate the tax imposed by this Section if in his opinion the company's solvency and ability to meet its insured obligations would be immediately threatened by payment of the tax due.

(6) (c) This Section is subject to the provisions of Section 10 of the New Markets Development Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-1024, eff. 12-31-08; revised 11-18-11.)

(215 ILCS 5/1540)

Sec. 1540. Nonresident license reciprocity.

(a) Unless denied licensure pursuant to Section 1555 of this Article, a nonresident person shall receive a nonresident public adjuster license if:

(1) the person is currently licensed as a resident public adjuster and in good standing in his or her home state;

(2) the person has submitted the proper request for licensure and has provided proof of financial responsibility as required in Section 1560 of this Article;

(3) the person has submitted or transmitted to the Director the appropriate completed application for licensure; and

(4) the person's home state awards nonresident public adjuster licenses to residents of this State on the same basis.

(b) The Director may verify the public adjuster's licensing status through the producer database maintained by the NAIC, its affiliates, or subsidiaries.

(c) As a condition to continuation of a public adjuster license issued under this Section, the licensee shall maintain a resident public adjuster license in his or her home state. The nonresident public adjuster license issued under this Section shall terminate and be surrendered immediately to the Director if the home state public adjuster license terminates for any reason, unless the public adjuster has been issued a license as a resident public adjuster in his or her new home state. Notification to the state or states where the nonresident license is issued must be made as soon as possible, yet no later than that 30 days of change in new state resident license. The licensee shall include his or her new and old address on the notification. A new state resident license is required for nonresident licenses to remain valid. The new state resident license must have reciprocity with the licensing nonresident state or states for the nonresident license not to terminate.

(Source: P.A. 96-1332, eff. 1-1-11; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 355. The Comprehensive Health Insurance Plan Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(215 ILCS 105/8) (from Ch. 73, par. 1308)

Sec. 8. Minimum benefits.

a. Availability. The Plan shall offer in a periodically renewable policy major medical expense coverage to every eligible person who is not eligible for Medicare. Major medical expense coverage offered by the Plan shall pay an eligible person's covered expenses, subject to limit on the deductible and coinsurance payments authorized under paragraph (4) of subsection d of this Section, up to a lifetime benefit limit of $5,000,000. The maximum limit under this subsection shall not be altered by the Board, and no actuarial equivalent benefit may be substituted by the Board. Any person who otherwise would qualify for coverage under the Plan, but is excluded because he or she is eligible for Medicare, shall be eligible for any separate Medicare supplement policy or policies which the Board may offer.

b. Outline of benefits. Covered expenses shall be limited to the usual and customary charge, including negotiated fees, in the locality for the following services and articles when prescribed by a physician and determined by the Plan to be medically necessary for the following areas of services, subject to such separate deductibles, co-payments, exclusions, and other limitations on benefits as the Board shall establish and approve, and the other provisions of this Section:

(1) Hospital services, except that any services provided by a hospital that is located more than 75 miles outside the State of Illinois shall be covered only for a maximum of 45 days in any calendar year. With respect to covered expenses incurred during any calendar year ending on or after December 31, 1999, inpatient hospitalization of an eligible person for the treatment of mental illness at a hospital located within the State of Illinois shall be subject to the same terms and conditions as for any other illness.

(2) Professional services for the diagnosis or treatment of injuries, illnesses or conditions, other than dental and mental and nervous disorders as described in paragraph (17), which are rendered by a physician, or by other licensed professionals at the physician's direction. This includes reconstruction of the breast on which a mastectomy was performed; surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance; and prostheses and treatment of physical complications at all stages of the mastectomy, including lymphedemas.

(2.5) Professional services provided by a physician to children under the age of 16 years for physical examinations and age appropriate immunizations ordered by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Outpatient prescription drugs that by law require a prescription written by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches subject to such separate deductible, copayment, and other limitations or restrictions as the Board shall approve, including the use of a prescription drug card or any other program, or both.

(5) Skilled nursing services of a licensed skilled nursing facility for not more than 120 days during a policy year.

(6) Services of a home health agency in accord with a home health care plan, up to a maximum of 270 visits per year.

(7) Services of a licensed hospice for not more than 180 days during a policy year.

(8) Use of radium or other radioactive materials.

(9) Oxygen.

(10) Anesthetics.

(11) Orthoses and prostheses other than dental.

(12) Rental or purchase in accordance with Board policies or procedures of durable medical equipment, other than eyeglasses or hearing aids, for which there is no personal use in the absence of the condition for which it is prescribed.

(13) Diagnostic x-rays and laboratory tests.

(14) Oral surgery (i) for excision of partially or completely unerupted impacted teeth when not performed in connection with the routine extraction or repair of teeth; (ii) for excision of tumors or cysts of the jaws, cheeks, lips, tongue, and roof and floor of the mouth; (iii) required for correction of cleft lip and palate and other craniofacial and maxillofacial birth defects; or (iv) for treatment of injuries to natural teeth or a fractured jaw due to an accident.

(15) Physical, speech, and functional occupational therapy as medically necessary and provided by appropriate licensed professionals.

(16) Emergency and other medically necessary transportation provided by a licensed ambulance service to the nearest health care facility qualified to treat a covered illness, injury, or condition, subject to the provisions of the Emergency Medical Systems (EMS) Act.

(17) Outpatient services for diagnosis and treatment of mental and nervous disorders provided that a covered person shall be required to make a copayment not to exceed 50% and that the Plan's payment shall not exceed such amounts as are established by the Board.

(18) Human organ or tissue transplants specified by the Board that are performed at a hospital designated by the Board as a participating transplant center for that specific organ or tissue transplant.

(19) Naprapathic services, as appropriate, provided by a licensed naprapathic practitioner.

c. Exclusions. Covered expenses of the Plan shall not include the following:

(1) Any charge for treatment for cosmetic purposes other than for reconstructive surgery when the service is incidental to or follows surgery resulting from injury, sickness or other diseases of the involved part or surgery for the repair or treatment of a congenital bodily defect to restore normal bodily functions.

(2) Any charge for care that is primarily for rest, custodial, educational, or domiciliary purposes.

(3) Any charge for services in a private room to the extent it is in excess of the institution's charge for its most common semiprivate room, unless a private room is prescribed as medically necessary by a physician.

(4) That part of any charge for room and board or for services rendered or articles prescribed by a physician, dentist, or other health care personnel that exceeds the reasonable and customary charge in the locality or for any services or supplies not medically necessary for the diagnosed injury or illness.

(5) Any charge for services or articles the provision of which is not within the scope of licensure of the institution or individual providing the services or articles.

(6) Any expense incurred prior to the effective date of coverage by the Plan for the person on whose behalf the expense is incurred.

(7) Dental care, dental surgery, dental treatment, any other dental procedure involving the teeth or periodontium, or any dental appliances, including crowns, bridges, implants, or partial or complete dentures, except as specifically provided in paragraph (14) of subsection b of this Section.

(8) Eyeglasses, contact lenses, hearing aids or their fitting.

(9) Illness or injury due to acts of war.

(10) Services of blood donors and any fee for failure to replace the first 3 pints of blood provided to a covered person each policy year.

(11) Personal supplies or services provided by a hospital or nursing home, or any other nonmedical or nonprescribed supply or service.

(12) Routine maternity charges for a pregnancy, except where added as optional coverage with payment of an additional premium for pregnancy resulting from conception occurring after the effective date of the optional coverage.

(13) (Blank).

(14) Any expense or charge for services, drugs, or supplies that are: (i) not provided in accord with generally accepted standards of current medical practice; (ii) for procedures, treatments, equipment, transplants, or implants, any of which are investigational, experimental, or for research purposes; (iii) investigative and not proven safe and effective; or (iv) for, or resulting from, a gender transformation operation.

(15) Any expense or charge for routine physical examinations or tests except as provided in item (2.5) of subsection b of this Section.

(16) Any expense for which a charge is not made in the absence of insurance or for which there is no legal obligation on the part of the patient to pay.

(17) Any expense incurred for benefits provided under the laws of the United States and this State, including Medicare, Medicaid, and other medical assistance, maternal and child health services and any other program that is administered or funded by the Department of Human Services, Department of Healthcare and Family Services, or Department of Public Health, military service-connected disability payments, medical services provided for members of the armed forces and their dependents or employees of the armed forces of the United States, and medical services financed on behalf of all citizens by the United States.

(18) Any expense or charge for in vitro fertilization, artificial insemination, or any other artificial means used to cause pregnancy.

(19) Any expense or charge for oral contraceptives used for birth control or any other temporary birth control measures.

(20) Any expense or charge for sterilization or sterilization reversals.

(21) Any expense or charge for weight loss programs, exercise equipment, or treatment of obesity, except when certified by a physician as morbid obesity (at least 2 times normal body weight).

(22) Any expense or charge for acupuncture treatment unless used as an anesthetic agent for a covered surgery.

(23) Any expense or charge for or related to organ or tissue transplants other than those performed at a hospital with a Board approved organ transplant program that has been designated by the Board as a preferred or exclusive provider organization for that specific organ or tissue transplant.

(24) Any expense or charge for procedures, treatments, equipment, or services that are provided in special settings for research purposes or in a controlled environment, are being studied for safety, efficiency, and effectiveness, and are awaiting endorsement by the appropriate national medical specialty speciality college for general use within the medical community.

d. Deductibles and coinsurance.

The Plan coverage defined in Section 6 shall provide for a choice of deductibles per individual as authorized by the Board. If 2 individual members of the same family household, who are both covered persons under the Plan, satisfy the same applicable deductibles, no other member of that family who is also a covered person under the Plan shall be required to meet any deductibles for the balance of that calendar year. The deductibles must be applied first to the authorized amount of covered expenses incurred by the covered person. A mandatory coinsurance requirement shall be imposed at the rate authorized by the Board in excess of the mandatory deductible, the coinsurance in the aggregate not to exceed such amounts as are authorized by the Board per annum. At its discretion the Board may, however, offer catastrophic coverages or other policies that provide for larger deductibles with or without coinsurance requirements. The deductibles and coinsurance factors may be adjusted annually according to the Medical Component of the Consumer Price Index.

e. Scope of coverage.

(1) In approving any of the benefit plans to be offered by the Plan, the Board shall establish such benefit levels, deductibles, coinsurance factors, exclusions, and limitations as it may deem appropriate and that it believes to be generally reflective of and commensurate with health insurance coverage that is provided in the individual market in this State.

(2) The benefit plans approved by the Board may also provide for and employ various cost containment measures and other requirements including, but not limited to, preadmission certification, prior approval, second surgical opinions, concurrent utilization review programs, individual case management, preferred provider organizations, health maintenance organizations, and other cost effective arrangements for paying for covered expenses.

f. Preexisting conditions.

(1) Except for federally eligible individuals qualifying for Plan coverage under Section 15 of this Act or eligible persons who qualify for the waiver authorized in paragraph (3) of this subsection, plan coverage shall exclude charges or expenses incurred during the first 6 months following the effective date of coverage as to any condition for which medical advice, care or treatment was recommended or received during the 6 month period immediately preceding the effective date of coverage.

(2) (Blank).

(3) Waiver: The preexisting condition exclusions as set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection shall be waived to the extent to which the eligible person (a) has satisfied similar exclusions under any prior individual health insurance policy that was involuntarily terminated because of the insolvency of the issuer of the policy and (b) has applied for Plan coverage within 90 days following the involuntary termination of that individual health insurance coverage.

(4) Waiver: The preexisting condition exclusions as set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection shall be waived to the extent to which the eligible person (a) has satisfied the exclusion under prior Comprehensive Health Insurance Plan coverage that was involuntarily terminated because of meeting a lower lifetime benefit limit and (b) has reapplied for Plan coverage within 90 days following an increase in the lifetime benefit limit set forth in Section 8 of this Act.

g. Other sources primary; nonduplication of benefits.

(1) The Plan shall be the last payor of benefits whenever any other benefit or source of third party payment is available. Subject to the provisions of subsection e of Section 7, benefits otherwise payable under Plan coverage shall be reduced by all amounts paid or payable by Medicare or any other government program or through any health insurance coverage or group health plan, whether by insurance, reimbursement, or otherwise, or through any third party liability, settlement, judgment, or award, regardless of the date of the settlement, judgment, or award, whether the settlement, judgment, or award is in the form of a contract, agreement, or trust on behalf of a minor or otherwise and whether the settlement, judgment, or award is payable to the covered person, his or her dependent, estate, personal representative, or guardian in a lump sum or over time, and by all hospital or medical expense benefits paid or payable under any worker's compensation coverage, automobile medical payment, or liability insurance, whether provided on the basis of fault or nonfault, and by any hospital or medical benefits paid or payable under or provided pursuant to any State or federal law or program.

(2) The Plan shall have a cause of action against any covered person or any other person or entity for the recovery of any amount paid to the extent the amount was for treatment, services, or supplies not covered in this Section or in excess of benefits as set forth in this Section.

(3) Whenever benefits are due from the Plan because of sickness or an injury to a covered person resulting from a third party's wrongful act or negligence and the covered person has recovered or may recover damages from a third party or its insurer, the Plan shall have the right to reduce benefits or to refuse to pay benefits that otherwise may be payable by the amount of damages that the covered person has recovered or may recover regardless of the date of the sickness or injury or the date of any settlement, judgment, or award resulting from that sickness or injury.

During the pendency of any action or claim that is brought by or on behalf of a covered person against a third party or its insurer, any benefits that would otherwise be payable except for the provisions of this paragraph (3) shall be paid if payment by or for the third party has not yet been made and the covered person or, if incapable, that person's legal representative agrees in writing to pay back promptly the benefits paid as a result of the sickness or injury to the extent of any future payments made by or for the third party for the sickness or injury. This agreement is to apply whether or not liability for the payments is established or admitted by the third party or whether those payments are itemized.

Any amounts due the plan to repay benefits may be deducted from other benefits payable by the Plan after payments by or for the third party are made.

(4) Benefits due from the Plan may be reduced or refused as an offset against any amount otherwise recoverable under this Section.

h. Right of subrogation; recoveries.

(1) Whenever the Plan has paid benefits because of sickness or an injury to any covered person resulting from a third party's wrongful act or negligence, or for which an insurer is liable in accordance with the provisions of any policy of insurance, and the covered person has recovered or may recover damages from a third party that is liable for the damages, the Plan shall have the right to recover the benefits it paid from any amounts that the covered person has received or may receive regardless of the date of the sickness or injury or the date of any settlement, judgment, or award resulting from that sickness or injury. The Plan shall be subrogated to any right of recovery the covered person may have under the terms of any private or public health care coverage or liability coverage, including coverage under the Workers' Compensation Act or the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act, without the necessity of assignment of claim or other authorization to secure the right of recovery. To enforce its subrogation right, the Plan may (i) intervene or join in an action or proceeding brought by the covered person or his personal representative, including his guardian, conservator, estate, dependents, or survivors, against any third party or the third party's insurer that may be liable or (ii) institute and prosecute legal proceedings against any third party or the third party's insurer that may be liable for the sickness or injury in an appropriate court either in the name of the Plan or in the name of the covered person or his personal representative, including his guardian, conservator, estate, dependents, or survivors.

(2) If any action or claim is brought by or on behalf of a covered person against a third party or the third party's insurer, the covered person or his personal representative, including his guardian, conservator, estate, dependents, or survivors, shall notify the Plan by personal service or registered mail of the action or claim and of the name of the court in which the action or claim is brought, filing proof thereof in the action or claim. The Plan may, at any time thereafter, join in the action or claim upon its motion so that all orders of court after hearing and judgment shall be made for its protection. No release or settlement of a claim for damages and no satisfaction of judgment in the action shall be valid without the written consent of the Plan to the extent of its interest in the settlement or judgment and of the covered person or his personal representative.

(3) In the event that the covered person or his personal representative fails to institute a proceeding against any appropriate third party before the fifth month before the action would be barred, the Plan may, in its own name or in the name of the covered person or personal representative, commence a proceeding against any appropriate third party for the recovery of damages on account of any sickness, injury, or death to the covered person. The covered person shall cooperate in doing what is reasonably necessary to assist the Plan in any recovery and shall not take any action that would prejudice the Plan's right to recovery. The Plan shall pay to the covered person or his personal representative all sums collected from any third party by judgment or otherwise in excess of amounts paid in benefits under the Plan and amounts paid or to be paid as costs, attorneys fees, and reasonable expenses incurred by the Plan in making the collection or enforcing the judgment.

(4) In the event that a covered person or his personal representative, including his guardian, conservator, estate, dependents, or survivors, recovers damages from a third party for sickness or injury caused to the covered person, the covered person or the personal representative shall pay to the Plan from the damages recovered the amount of benefits paid or to be paid on behalf of the covered person.

(5) When the action or claim is brought by the covered person alone and the covered person incurs a personal liability to pay attorney's fees and costs of litigation, the Plan's claim for reimbursement of the benefits provided to the covered person shall be the full amount of benefits paid to or on behalf of the covered person under this Act less a pro rata share that represents the Plan's reasonable share of attorney's fees paid by the covered person and that portion of the cost of litigation expenses determined by multiplying by the ratio of the full amount of the expenditures to the full amount of the judgement, award, or settlement.

(6) In the event of judgment or award in a suit or claim against a third party or insurer, the court shall first order paid from any judgement or award the reasonable litigation expenses incurred in preparation and prosecution of the action or claim, together with reasonable attorney's fees. After payment of those expenses and attorney's fees, the court shall apply out of the balance of the judgment or award an amount sufficient to reimburse the Plan the full amount of benefits paid on behalf of the covered person under this Act, provided the court may reduce and apportion the Plan's portion of the judgement proportionate to the recovery of the covered person. The burden of producing evidence sufficient to support the exercise by the court of its discretion to reduce the amount of a proven charge sought to be enforced against the recovery shall rest with the party seeking the reduction. The court may consider the nature and extent of the injury, economic and non-economic loss, settlement offers, comparative negligence as it applies to the case at hand, hospital costs, physician costs, and all other appropriate costs. The Plan shall pay its pro rata share of the attorney fees based on the Plan's recovery as it compares to the total judgment. Any reimbursement rights of the Plan shall take priority over all other liens and charges existing under the laws of this State with the exception of any attorney liens filed under the Attorneys Lien Act.

(7) The Plan may compromise or settle and release any claim for benefits provided under this Act or waive any claims for benefits, in whole or in part, for the convenience of the Plan or if the Plan determines that collection would result in undue hardship upon the covered person.

(Source: P.A. 95-547, eff. 8-29-07; 96-791, eff. 9-25-09; 96-938, eff. 6-24-10; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 360. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Section 5-3 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/5-3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1411.2)

Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.

(a) Health Maintenance Organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.22a, 355.2, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.21 356z.19, 364.01, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 370c, 370c.1, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1, paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health Maintenance Organizations in the following categories are deemed to be "domestic companies":

(1) a corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control of a Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code,

(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial conditions of the acquired Health Maintenance Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control takes effect;

(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of Section 131.8 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall not apply and (ii) the Director, in making his determination with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control, need not take into account the effect on competition of the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control;

(3) the Director shall have the power to require the following information:

(A) certification by an independent actuary of the adequacy of the reserves of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired;

(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the combined balance sheets of the acquiring company and the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of a date 90 days prior to the acquisition, as well as pro forma financial statements reflecting projected combined operation for a period of 2 years;

(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an acquiring party's plans with respect to the operation of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and

(D) such other information as the Director shall require.

(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by any health maintenance organization of greater than 10% of its enrollee population (including without limitation the health maintenance organization's right, title, and interest in and to its health care certificates).

(e) In considering any management contract or service agreement subject to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the Director (i) shall, in addition to the criteria specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial condition of the health maintenance organization to be managed or serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on competition.

(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the Small Employer Rating, Renewability and Portability Health Insurance Act and except for medicare supplement policies as defined in Section 363 of the Illinois Insurance Code, a Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional premiums under the following terms and conditions:

(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with respect to, the refund or additional premium are set forth in the group or enrollment unit contract agreed in advance of the period for which a refund is to be paid or additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not be less than one year); and

(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium shall not exceed 20% of the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience with respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the period (and, for purposes of a refund or additional premium, the profitable or unprofitable experience shall be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and marketing expenses, but shall not include any refund to be made or additional premium to be paid pursuant to this subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and the group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable or unprofitable experience may be calculated taking into account the refund period and the immediately preceding 2 plan years.

The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a statement in the evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee describing the possibility of a refund or additional premium, and upon request of any group or enrollment unit, provide to the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used to calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting refund to the group or enrollment unit or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting additional premium to be paid by the group or enrollment unit.

In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance Organization Guaranty Association be liable to pay any contractual obligation of an insolvent organization to pay any refund authorized under this Section.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-639, eff. 1-1-10; 96-833, eff. 6-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; 97-437, eff. 8-18-11; 97-486, eff. 1-1-12; 97-592, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-13-11.)

Section 365. The Limited Health Service Organization Act is amended by changing Sections 2003 and 4003 as follows:

(215 ILCS 130/2003) (from Ch. 73, par. 1502-3)

Sec. 2003. Powers of limited health service organizations. The powers of a limited health service organization include, but are not limited to the following:

(1) The purchase, lease, construction, renovation, operation or maintenance of limited health service facilities and their ancillary equipment, and such property as may reasonably be required for its principal office or for such other purposes as may be necessary in the transaction of the business of the organization.

(2) The making of loans to a provider group under contract with it and in furtherance of its program or the making of loans to a corporation or corporations under its control for the purpose of acquiring or constructing limited health service facilities or in furtherance of a program providing limited health services for enrollees.

(3) The furnishing of limited health services through providers which are under contract with or employed by the limited health service organization.

(4) The contracting with any person for the performance on its behalf of certain functions such as marketing, enrollment and administration.

(5) The contracting with an insurance company licensed in this State, or with a hospital, medical, voluntary, dental, vision or pharmaceutical service corporation authorized to do business in this State, for the provision of insurance, indemnity or reimbursement against the cost of limited health service provided by the limited health service organization.

(6) Rendering services related to the functions involved in the operation of its limited health service business including, but not limited to, providing limited health services, data processing, accounting, claims.

(7) Indemnity benefits covering out of area or emergency services directly related to the provision of limited health service.

(8) The offering of point-of-service products as authorized under Section 3009.

(9) Any other business activity reasonably complementary complimentary or supplementary to its limited health service business to the extent approved by the Director.

(Source: P.A. 86-600; 87-1079; revised 11-18-11.)

(215 ILCS 130/4003) (from Ch. 73, par. 1504-3)

Sec. 4003. Illinois Insurance Code provisions. Limited health service organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.37, 355.2, 356v, 356z.10, 356z.21 356z.19, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1 and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code. For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, limited health service organizations in the following categories are deemed to be domestic companies:

(1) a corporation under the laws of this State; or

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% of more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a domestic company under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-486, eff. 1-1-12; 97-592, 1-1-12; revised 10-13-11.)

Section 370. The Viatical Settlements Act of 2009 is amended by changing Section 72 as follows:

(215 ILCS 159/72)

Sec. 72. Crimes and offenses.

(a) A person acting in this State as a viatical settlement provider without having been licensed pursuant to Section 10 of this Act who willfully violates any provision of this Act or any rule adopted or order issued under this Act is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and may be subject to a fine of not more than $3,000. When such violation results in a loss of more than $10,000, the person shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony and may be subject to a fine of not more than $10,000.

(b) A person acting in this State as a viatical settlement broker without having met the licensure and notification requirements established by Section 10 of this Act who willfully violates any provision of this Act or any rule adopted or order issued under this Act is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and may be subject to a fine of not more than $3,000. When such violation results in a loss of more than $10,000, the person shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony and may be subject to a fine of not more than $10,000.

(c) The Director may refer such evidence as is available concerning violations of this Act or any rule adopted or order issued under this Act or of the failure of a person to comply with the licensing requirements of this Act to the Attorney General or the proper county attorney who may, with or without such reference, institute the appropriate criminal proceedings under this Act.

(d) A person commits the offense of viatical settlement fraud when:

(1) For the purpose of depriving another of property or for pecuniary gain any person knowingly:

(A) presents, causes to be presented, or prepares with knowledge or belief that it will be presented to or by a viatical settlement provider, viatical settlement broker, life expectancy provider, viatical settlement purchaser, financing entity, insurer, insurance producer, or any other person, false material information, or conceals material information, as part of, in support of or concerning a fact material to one or more of the following:

(i) an application for the issuance of a viatical settlement contract or insurance policy;

(ii) the underwriting of a viatical settlement contract or insurance policy;

(iii) a claim for payment or benefit pursuant to a viatical settlement contract or insurance policy;

(iv) premiums paid on an insurance policy;

(v) payments and changes in ownership or beneficiary made in accordance with the terms of a viatical settlement contract or insurance policy;

(vi) the reinstatement or conversion of an insurance policy;

(vii) in the solicitation, offer, effectuation, or sale of a viatical settlement contract or insurance policy;

(viii) the issuance of written evidence of a viatical settlement contract or insurance; or

(ix) a financing transaction; or

(B) employs any plan, financial structure, device, scheme, or artifice to defraud related to viaticated policies; or

(C) enters into any act, practice, or arrangement which involves stranger-originated life insurance.

(2) In furtherance of a scheme to defraud, to further a fraud, or to prevent or hinder the detection of a scheme to defraud any person knowingly does or permits his employees or agents to do any of the following:

(A) remove, conceal, alter, destroy, or sequester from the Director the assets or records of a licensee or other person engaged in the business of viatical settlements;

(B) misrepresent or conceal the financial condition of a licensee, financing entity, insurer, or other person;

(C) transact the business of viatical settlements in violation of laws requiring a license, certificate of authority, or other legal authority for the transaction of the business of viatical settlements; or

(D) file with the Director or the equivalent chief insurance regulatory official of another jurisdiction a document containing false information or otherwise conceals information about a material fact from the Director;

(3) Any person knowingly steals, misappropriates, or converts monies, funds, premiums, credits, or other property of a viatical settlement provider, insurer, insured, viator, insurance policyowner, or any other person engaged in the business of viatical settlements or insurance;

(4) Any person recklessly enters into, negotiates, brokers, or otherwise deals in a viatical settlement contract, the subject of which is a life insurance policy that was obtained by presenting false information concerning any fact material to the policy or by concealing, for the purpose of misleading another, information concerning any fact material to the policy, where the person or the persons intended to defraud the policy's issuer, the viatical settlement provider or the viator; or

(5) Any person facilitates the change of state of ownership of a policy or the state of residency of a viator to a state or jurisdiction that does not have a law similar to this Act for the express purposes of evading or avoiding the provisions of this Act.

(e) (c) For purposes of this Section, "person" means (i) an individual, (ii) a corporation, (iii) an officer, agent, or employee of a corporation, (iv) a member, agent, or employee of a partnership, or (v) a member, manager, employee, officer, director, or agent of a limited liability company who, in any such capacity described by this subsection (e) (c), commits viatical settlement fraud.

(Source: P.A. 96-736, eff. 7-1-10; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 375. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/10) (from Ch. 32, par. 604)

Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health services plan corporations and all persons interested therein or dealing therewith shall be subject to the provisions of Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections 3.1, 133, 136, 139, 140, 143, 143c, 149, 155.22a, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.21 356z.19, 364.01, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-833, eff. 6-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; 97-486, eff. 1-1-12; 97-592, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-13-11.)

Section 380. The Health Carrier External Review Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 180/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act:

"Adverse determination" means:

(1) a determination by a health carrier or its designee utilization review organization that, based upon the information provided, a request for a benefit under the health carrier's health benefit plan upon application of any utilization review technique does not meet the health carrier's requirements for medical necessity, appropriateness, health care setting, level of care, or effectiveness or is determined to be experimental or investigational and the requested benefit is therefore denied, reduced, or terminated or payment is not provided or made, in whole or in part, for the benefit;

(2) the denial, reduction, or termination of or failure to provide or make payment, in whole or in part, for a benefit based on a determination by a health carrier or its designee utilization review organization that a preexisting condition was present before the effective date of coverage; or

(3) a recission of coverage determination, which does not include a cancellation or discontinuance of coverage that is attributable to a failure to timely pay required premiums or contributions towards the cost of coverage.

"Authorized representative" means:

(1) a person to whom a covered person has given express written consent to represent the covered person for purposes of this Law;

(2) a person authorized by law to provide substituted consent for a covered person;

(3) a family member of the covered person or the covered person's treating health care professional when the covered person is unable to provide consent;

(4) a health care provider when the covered person's health benefit plan requires that a request for a benefit under the plan be initiated by the health care provider; or

(5) in the case of an urgent care request, a health care provider with knowledge of the covered person's medical condition.

"Best evidence" means evidence based on:

(1) randomized clinical trials;

(2) if randomized clinical trials are not available, then cohort studies or case-control studies;

(3) if items (1) and (2) are not available, then case-series; or

(4) if items (1), (2), and (3) are not available, then expert opinion.

"Case-series" means an evaluation of a series of patients with a particular outcome, without the use of a control group.

"Clinical review criteria" means the written screening procedures, decision abstracts, clinical protocols, and practice guidelines used by a health carrier to determine the necessity and appropriateness of health care services.

"Cohort study" means a prospective evaluation of 2 groups of patients with only one group of patients receiving specific intervention.

"Concurrent review" means a review conducted during a patient's stay or course of treatment in a facility, the office of a health care professional, or other inpatient or outpatient health care setting.

"Covered benefits" or "benefits" means those health care services to which a covered person is entitled under the terms of a health benefit plan.

"Covered person" means a policyholder, subscriber, enrollee, or other individual participating in a health benefit plan.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Insurance.

"Emergency medical condition" means a medical condition manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity, including, but not limited to, severe pain, such that a prudent layperson who possesses an average knowledge of health and medicine could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical attention to result in:

(1) placing the health of the individual or, with respect to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child, in serious jeopardy;

(2) serious impairment to bodily functions; or

(3) serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.

"Emergency services" means health care items and services furnished or required to evaluate and treat an emergency medical condition.

"Evidence-based standard" means the conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of the current best evidence based on an overall systematic review of the research in making decisions about the care of individual patients.

"Expert opinion" means a belief or an interpretation by specialists with experience in a specific area about the scientific evidence pertaining to a particular service, intervention, or therapy.

"Facility" means an institution providing health care services or a health care setting.

"Final adverse determination" means an adverse determination involving a covered benefit that has been upheld by a health carrier, or its designee utilization review organization, at the completion of the health carrier's internal grievance process procedures as set forth by the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

"Health benefit plan" means a policy, contract, certificate, plan, or agreement offered or issued by a health carrier to provide, deliver, arrange for, pay for, or reimburse any of the costs of health care services.

"Health care provider" or "provider" means a physician, hospital facility, or other health care practitioner licensed, accredited, or certified to perform specified health care services consistent with State law, responsible for recommending health care services on behalf of a covered person.

"Health care services" means services for the diagnosis, prevention, treatment, cure, or relief of a health condition, illness, injury, or disease.

"Health carrier" means an entity subject to the insurance laws and regulations of this State, or subject to the jurisdiction of the Director, that contracts or offers to contract to provide, deliver, arrange for, pay for, or reimburse any of the costs of health care services, including a sickness and accident insurance company, a health maintenance organization, or any other entity providing a plan of health insurance, health benefits, or health care services. "Health carrier" also means Limited Health Service Organizations (LHSO) and Voluntary Health Service Plans.

"Health information" means information or data, whether oral or recorded in any form or medium, and personal facts or information about events or relationships that relate to:

(1) the past, present, or future physical, mental, or behavioral health or condition of an individual or a member of the individual's family;

(2) the provision of health care services to an individual; or

(3) payment for the provision of health care services to an individual.

"Independent review organization" means an entity that conducts independent external reviews of adverse determinations and final adverse determinations.

"Medical or scientific evidence" means evidence found in the following sources:

(1) peer-reviewed scientific studies published in or accepted for publication by medical journals that meet nationally recognized requirements for scientific manuscripts and that submit most of their published articles for review by experts who are not part of the editorial staff;

(2) peer-reviewed medical literature, including literature relating to therapies reviewed and approved by a qualified institutional review board, biomedical compendia, and other medical literature that meet the criteria of the National Institutes of Health's Library of Medicine for indexing in Index Medicus (Medline) and Elsevier Science Ltd. for indexing in Excerpta Medicus (EMBASE);

(3) medical journals recognized by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under Section 1861(t)(2) of the federal Social Security Act;

(4) the following standard reference compendia:

(a) The American Hospital Formulary Service-Drug Information;

(b) Drug Facts and Comparisons;

(c) The American Dental Association Accepted Dental Therapeutics; and

(d) The United States Pharmacopoeia-Drug Information;

(5) findings, studies, or research conducted by or under the auspices of federal government agencies and nationally recognized federal research institutes, including:

(a) the federal Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality;

(b) the National Institutes of Health;

(c) the National Cancer Institute;

(d) the National Academy of Sciences;

(e) the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services;

(f) the federal Food and Drug Administration; and

(g) any national board recognized by the National Institutes of Health for the purpose of evaluating the medical value of health care services; or

(6) any other medical or scientific evidence that is comparable to the sources listed in items (1) through (5).

"Person" means an individual, a corporation, a partnership, an association, a joint venture, a joint stock company, a trust, an unincorporated organization, any similar entity, or any combination of the foregoing.

"Prospective review" means a review conducted prior to an admission or the provision of a health care service or a course of treatment in accordance with a health carrier's requirement that the health care service or course of treatment, in whole or in part, be approved prior to its provision.

"Protected health information" means health information (i) that identifies an individual who is the subject of the information; or (ii) with respect to which there is a reasonable basis to believe that the information could be used to identify an individual.

"Randomized clinical trial" means a controlled prospective study of patients that have been randomized into an experimental group and a control group at the beginning of the study with only the experimental group of patients receiving a specific intervention, which includes study of the groups for variables and anticipated outcomes over time.

"Retrospective review" means any review of a request for a benefit that is not a concurrent or prospective review request. "Retrospective review" does not include the review of a claim that is limited to veracity of documentation or accuracy of coding..

"Utilization review" has the meaning provided by the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

"Utilization review organization" means a utilization review program as defined in the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-857, eff. 7-1-10; 97-574, eff. 8-26-11; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 385. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Sections 2-203, 3-101, 8-104, 13-517, and 16-111.5 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/2-203)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 2-203. Public Utility Fund base maintenance contribution. Each electric utility as defined in Section 16-102 of this Act providing service to more than 12,500 customers in this State on January 1, 1995 shall contribute annually a pro rata share of a total amount of $5,500,000 based upon the number of kilowatt-hours delivered to retail customers within this State by each such electric utility in the 12 months preceding the year of contribution. On or before May 1 of each year, the Illinois Commerce Commission shall determine and notify the Illinois Department of Revenue of the pro rata share owed by each electric utility based upon information supplied annually to the Commission. On or before June 1 of each year, the Department of Revenue shall send written notification to each electric utility of the amount of pro rata share they owe. These contributions shall be remitted to the Department of Revenue no earlier than that July 1 and no later than July 31 of each year the contribution is due on a return prescribed and furnished by the Department of Revenue showing such information as the Department of Revenue may reasonably require. The Department of Revenue shall place the funds remitted under this Section in the Public Utility Fund in the State treasury. The funds received pursuant to this Section shall be subject to appropriation by the General Assembly. If an electric utility does not remit its pro rata share to the Department of Revenue, the Department of Revenue must inform the Illinois Commerce Commission of such failure. The Illinois Commerce Commission may then revoke the certification of that electric utility. This Section is repealed on January 1, 2014.

(Source: P.A. 95-1027, eff. 6-1-09; 96-250, eff. 8-11-09; revised 11-18-11.)

(220 ILCS 5/3-101) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 3-101)

Sec. 3-101. Definitions. Unless otherwise specified, the terms set forth in Sections 3-102 through 3-126 3-123 are used in this Act as therein defined.

(Source: P.A. 97-96, eff. 7-13-11; 97-239, eff. 8-2-11; revised 10-28-11.)

(220 ILCS 5/8-104)

Sec. 8-104. Natural gas energy efficiency programs.

(a) It is the policy of the State that natural gas utilities and the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity are required to use cost-effective energy efficiency to reduce direct and indirect costs to consumers. It serves the public interest to allow natural gas utilities to recover costs for reasonably and prudently incurred expenses for cost-effective energy efficiency measures.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "energy efficiency" means measures that reduce the amount of energy required to achieve a given end use and "cost-effective" means that the measures satisfy the total resource cost test which, for purposes of this Section, means a standard that is met if, for an investment in energy efficiency, the benefit-cost ratio is greater than one. The benefit-cost ratio is the ratio of the net present value of the total benefits of the measures to the net present value of the total costs as calculated over the lifetime of the measures. The total resource cost test compares the sum of avoided natural gas utility costs, representing the benefits that accrue to the system and the participant in the delivery of those efficiency measures, as well as other quantifiable societal benefits, including avoided electric utility costs, to the sum of all incremental costs of end use measures (including both utility and participant contributions), plus costs to administer, deliver, and evaluate each demand-side measure, to quantify the net savings obtained by substituting demand-side measures for supply resources. In calculating avoided costs, reasonable estimates shall be included for financial costs likely to be imposed by future regulation of emissions of greenhouse gases. The low-income programs described in item (4) of subsection (f) of this Section shall not be required to meet the total resource cost test.

(c) Natural gas utilities shall implement cost-effective energy efficiency measures to meet at least the following natural gas savings requirements, which shall be based upon the total amount of gas delivered to retail customers, other than the customers described in subsection (m) of this Section, during calendar year 2009 multiplied by the applicable percentage. Natural gas utilities may comply with this Section by meeting the annual incremental savings goal in the applicable year or by showing that total savings associated with measures implemented after May 31, 2011 were equal to the sum of each annual incremental savings requirement from May 31, 2011 through the end of the applicable year:

(1) 0.2% by May 31, 2012;

(2) an additional 0.4% by May 31, 2013, increasing total savings to .6%;

(3) an additional 0.6% by May 31, 2014, increasing total savings to 1.2%;

(4) an additional 0.8% by May 31, 2015, increasing total savings to 2.0%;

(5) an additional 1% by May 31, 2016, increasing total savings to 3.0%;

(6) an additional 1.2% by May 31, 2017, increasing total savings to 4.2%;

(7) an additional 1.4% by May 31, 2018, increasing total savings to 5.6%;

(8) an additional 1.5% by May 31, 2019, increasing total savings to 7.1%; and

(9) an additional 1.5% in each 12-month period thereafter.

(d) Notwithstanding the requirements of subsection (c) of this Section, a natural gas utility shall limit the amount of energy efficiency implemented in any 3-year reporting period established by subsection (f) of Section 8-104 of this Act, by an amount necessary to limit the estimated average increase in the amounts paid by retail customers in connection with natural gas service to no more than 2% in the applicable 3-year reporting period. The energy savings requirements in subsection (c) of this Section may be reduced by the Commission for the subject plan, if the utility demonstrates by substantial evidence that it is highly unlikely that the requirements could be achieved without exceeding the applicable spending limits in any 3-year reporting period. No later than September 1, 2013, the Commission shall review the limitation on the amount of energy efficiency measures implemented pursuant to this Section and report to the General Assembly, in the report required by subsection (k) of this Section, its findings as to whether that limitation unduly constrains the procurement of energy efficiency measures.

(e) Natural gas utilities shall be responsible for overseeing the design, development, and filing of their efficiency plans with the Commission. The utility shall utilize 75% of the available funding associated with energy efficiency programs approved by the Commission, and may outsource various aspects of program development and implementation. The remaining 25% of available funding shall be used by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity to implement energy efficiency measures that achieve no less than 20% of the requirements of subsection (c) of this Section. Such measures shall be designed in conjunction with the utility and approved by the Commission. The Department may outsource development and implementation of energy efficiency measures. A minimum of 10% of the entire portfolio of cost-effective energy efficiency measures shall be procured from local government, municipal corporations, school districts, and community college districts. Five percent of the entire portfolio of cost-effective energy efficiency measures may be granted to local government and municipal corporations for market transformation initiatives. The Department shall coordinate the implementation of these measures and shall integrate delivery of natural gas efficiency programs with electric efficiency programs delivered pursuant to Section 8-103 of this Act, unless the Department can show that integration is not feasible.

The apportionment of the dollars to cover the costs to implement the Department's share of the portfolio of energy efficiency measures shall be made to the Department once the Department has executed grants or contracts for energy efficiency measures and provided supporting documentation for those grants and the contracts to the utility.

The details of the measures implemented by the Department shall be submitted by the Department to the Commission in connection with the utility's filing regarding the energy efficiency measures that the utility implements.

A utility providing approved energy efficiency measures in this State shall be permitted to recover costs of those measures through an automatic adjustment clause tariff filed with and approved by the Commission. The tariff shall be established outside the context of a general rate case and shall be applicable to the utility's customers other than the customers described in subsection (m) of this Section. Each year the Commission shall initiate a review to reconcile any amounts collected with the actual costs and to determine the required adjustment to the annual tariff factor to match annual expenditures.

Each utility shall include, in its recovery of costs, the costs estimated for both the utility's and the Department's implementation of energy efficiency measures. Costs collected by the utility for measures implemented by the Department shall be submitted to the Department pursuant to Section 605-323 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois and shall be used by the Department solely for the purpose of implementing these measures. A utility shall not be required to advance any moneys to the Department but only to forward such funds as it has collected. The Department shall report to the Commission on an annual basis regarding the costs actually incurred by the Department in the implementation of the measures. Any changes to the costs of energy efficiency measures as a result of plan modifications shall be appropriately reflected in amounts recovered by the utility and turned over to the Department.

The portfolio of measures, administered by both the utilities and the Department, shall, in combination, be designed to achieve the annual energy savings requirements set forth in subsection (c) of this Section, as modified by subsection (d) of this Section.

The utility and the Department shall agree upon a reasonable portfolio of measures and determine the measurable corresponding percentage of the savings goals associated with measures implemented by the Department.

No utility shall be assessed a penalty under subsection (f) of this Section for failure to make a timely filing if that failure is the result of a lack of agreement with the Department with respect to the allocation of responsibilities or related costs or target assignments. In that case, the Department and the utility shall file their respective plans with the Commission and the Commission shall determine an appropriate division of measures and programs that meets the requirements of this Section.

If the Department is unable to meet performance requirements for the portion of the portfolio implemented by the Department, then the utility and the Department shall jointly submit a modified filing to the Commission explaining the performance shortfall and recommending an appropriate course going forward, including any program modifications that may be appropriate in light of the evaluations conducted under item (8) of subsection (f) of this Section. In this case, the utility obligation to collect the Department's costs and turn over those funds to the Department under this subsection (e) shall continue only if the Commission approves the modifications to the plan proposed by the Department.

(f) No later than October 1, 2010, each gas utility shall file an energy efficiency plan with the Commission to meet the energy efficiency standards through May 31, 2014. Every 3 years thereafter, each utility shall file, no later than October 1, an energy efficiency plan with the Commission. If a utility does not file such a plan by October 1 of the applicable year, then it shall face a penalty of $100,000 per day until the plan is filed. Each utility's plan shall set forth the utility's proposals to meet the utility's portion of the energy efficiency standards identified in subsection (c) of this Section, as modified by subsection (d) of this Section, taking into account the unique circumstances of the utility's service territory. The Commission shall seek public comment on the utility's plan and shall issue an order approving or disapproving each plan. If the Commission disapproves a plan, the Commission shall, within 30 days, describe in detail the reasons for the disapproval and describe a path by which the utility may file a revised draft of the plan to address the Commission's concerns satisfactorily. If the utility does not refile with the Commission within 60 days after the disapproval, the utility shall be subject to penalties at a rate of $100,000 per day until the plan is filed. This process shall continue, and penalties shall accrue, until the utility has successfully filed a portfolio of energy efficiency measures. Penalties shall be deposited into the Energy Efficiency Trust Fund and the cost of any such penalties may not be recovered from ratepayers. In submitting proposed energy efficiency plans and funding levels to meet the savings goals adopted by this Act the utility shall:

(1) Demonstrate that its proposed energy efficiency measures will achieve the requirements that are identified in subsection (c) of this Section, as modified by subsection (d) of this Section.

(2) Present specific proposals to implement new building and appliance standards that have been placed into effect.

(3) Present estimates of the total amount paid for gas service expressed on a per therm basis associated with the proposed portfolio of measures designed to meet the requirements that are identified in subsection (c) of this Section, as modified by subsection (d) of this Section.

(4) Coordinate with the Department to present a portfolio of energy efficiency measures proportionate to the share of total annual utility revenues in Illinois from households at or below 150% of the poverty level. Such programs shall be targeted to households with incomes at or below 80% of area median income.

(5) Demonstrate that its overall portfolio of energy efficiency measures, not including programs covered by item (4) of this subsection (f), are cost-effective using the total resource cost test and represent a diverse cross section of opportunities for customers of all rate classes to participate in the programs.

(6) Demonstrate that a gas utility affiliated with an electric utility that is required to comply with Section 8-103 of this Act has integrated gas and electric efficiency measures into a single program that reduces program or participant costs and appropriately allocates costs to gas and electric ratepayers. The Department shall integrate all gas and electric programs it delivers in any such utilities' service territories, unless the Department can show that integration is not feasible or appropriate.

(7) Include a proposed cost recovery tariff mechanism to fund the proposed energy efficiency measures and to ensure the recovery of the prudently and reasonably incurred costs of Commission-approved programs.

(8) Provide for quarterly status reports tracking implementation of and expenditures for the utility's portfolio of measures and the Department's portfolio of measures, an annual independent review, and a full independent evaluation of the 3-year results of the performance and the cost-effectiveness of the utility's and Department's portfolios of measures and broader net program impacts and, to the extent practical, for adjustment of the measures on a going forward basis as a result of the evaluations. The resources dedicated to evaluation shall not exceed 3% of portfolio resources in any given 3-year period.

(g) No more than 3% of expenditures on energy efficiency measures may be allocated for demonstration of breakthrough equipment and devices.

(h) Illinois natural gas utilities that are affiliated by virtue of a common parent company may, at the utilities' request, be considered a single natural gas utility for purposes of complying with this Section.

(i) If, after 3 years, a gas utility fails to meet the efficiency standard specified in subsection (c) of this Section as modified by subsection (d), then it shall make a contribution to the Low-Income Home Energy Assistance Program. The total liability for failure to meet the goal shall be assessed as follows:

(1) a large gas utility shall pay $600,000;

(2) a medium gas utility shall pay $400,000; and

(3) a small gas utility shall pay $200,000.

For purposes of this Section, (i) a "large gas utility" is a gas utility that on December 31, 2008, served more than 1,500,000 gas customers in Illinois; (ii) a "medium gas utility" is a gas utility that on December 31, 2008, served fewer than 1,500,000, but more than 500,000 gas customers in Illinois; and (iii) a "small gas utility" is a gas utility that on December 31, 2008, served fewer than 500,000 and more than 100,000 gas customers in Illinois. The costs of this contribution may not be recovered from ratepayers.

If a gas utility fails to meet the efficiency standard specified in subsection (c) of this Section, as modified by subsection (d) of this Section, in any 2 consecutive 3-year planning periods, then the responsibility for implementing the utility's energy efficiency measures shall be transferred to an independent program administrator selected by the Commission. Reasonable and prudent costs incurred by the independent program administrator to meet the efficiency standard specified in subsection (c) of this Section, as modified by subsection (d) of this Section, may be recovered from the customers of the affected gas utilities, other than customers described in subsection (m) of this Section. The utility shall provide the independent program administrator with all information and assistance necessary to perform the program administrator's duties including but not limited to customer, account, and energy usage data, and shall allow the program administrator to include inserts in customer bills. The utility may recover reasonable costs associated with any such assistance.

(j) No utility shall be deemed to have failed to meet the energy efficiency standards to the extent any such failure is due to a failure of the Department.

(k) Not later than January 1, 2012, the Commission shall develop and solicit public comment on a plan to foster statewide coordination and consistency between statutorily mandated natural gas and electric energy efficiency programs to reduce program or participant costs or to improve program performance. Not later than September 1, 2013, the Commission shall issue a report to the General Assembly containing its findings and recommendations.

(l) This Section does not apply to a gas utility that on January 1, 2009, provided gas service to fewer than 100,000 customers in Illinois.

(m) Subsections (a) through (k) of this Section do not apply to customers of a natural gas utility that have a North American Industry Classification System code number that is 22111 or any such code number beginning with the digits 31, 32, or 33 and (i) annual usage in the aggregate of 4 million therms or more within the service territory of the affected gas utility or with aggregate usage of 8 million therms or more in this State and complying with the provisions of item (l) of this subsection (m); or (ii) using natural gas as feedstock and meeting the usage requirements described in item (i) of this subsection (m), to the extent such annual feedstock usage is greater than that 60% of the customer's total annual usage of natural gas.

(1) Customers described in this subsection (m) of this Section shall apply, on a form approved on or before October 1, 2009 by the Department, to the Department to be designated as a self-directing customer ("SDC") or as an exempt customer using natural gas as a feedstock from which other products are made, including, but not limited to, feedstock for a hydrogen plant, on or before the 1st day of February, 2010. Thereafter, application may be made not less than 6 months before the filing date of the gas utility energy efficiency plan described in subsection (f) of this Section; however, a new customer that commences taking service from a natural gas utility after February 1, 2010 may apply to become a SDC or exempt customer up to 30 days after beginning service. Such application shall contain the following:

(A) the customer's certification that, at the time of its application, it qualifies to be a SDC or exempt customer described in this subsection (m) of this Section;

(B) in the case of a SDC, the customer's certification that it has established or will establish by the beginning of the utility's 3-year planning period commencing subsequent to the application, and will maintain for accounting purposes, an energy efficiency reserve account and that the customer will accrue funds in said account to be held for the purpose of funding, in whole or in part, energy efficiency measures of the customer's choosing, which may include, but are not limited to, projects involving combined heat and power systems that use the same energy source both for the generation of electrical or mechanical power and the production of steam or another form of useful thermal energy or the use of combustible gas produced from biomass, or both;

(C) in the case of a SDC, the customer's certification that annual funding levels for the energy efficiency reserve account will be equal to 2% of the customer's cost of natural gas, composed of the customer's commodity cost and the delivery service charges paid to the gas utility, or $150,000, whichever is less;

(D) in the case of a SDC, the customer's certification that the required reserve account balance will be capped at 3 years' worth of accruals and that the customer may, at its option, make further deposits to the account to the extent such deposit would increase the reserve account balance above the designated cap level;

(E) in the case of a SDC, the customer's certification that by October 1 of each year, beginning no sooner than October 1, 2012, the customer will report to the Department information, for the 12-month period ending May 31 of the same year, on all deposits and reductions, if any, to the reserve account during the reporting year, and to the extent deposits to the reserve account in any year are in an amount less than $150,000, the basis for such reduced deposits; reserve account balances by month; a description of energy efficiency measures undertaken by the customer and paid for in whole or in part with funds from the reserve account; an estimate of the energy saved, or to be saved, by the measure; and that the report shall include a verification by an officer or plant manager of the customer or by a registered professional engineer or certified energy efficiency trade professional that the funds withdrawn from the reserve account were used for the energy efficiency measures;

(F) in the case of an exempt customer, the customer's certification of the level of gas usage as feedstock in the customer's operation in a typical year and that it will provide information establishing this level, upon request of the Department;

(G) in the case of either an exempt customer or a SDC, the customer's certification that it has provided the gas utility or utilities serving the customer with a copy of the application as filed with the Department;

(H) in the case of either an exempt customer or a SDC, certification of the natural gas utility or utilities serving the customer in Illinois including the natural gas utility accounts that are the subject of the application; and

(I) in the case of either an exempt customer or a SDC, a verification signed by a plant manager or an authorized corporate officer attesting to the truthfulness and accuracy of the information contained in the application.

(2) The Department shall review the application to determine that it contains the information described in provisions (A) through (I) of item (1) of this subsection (m), as applicable. The review shall be completed within 30 days after the date the application is filed with the Department. Absent a determination by the Department within the 30-day period, the applicant shall be considered to be a SDC or exempt customer, as applicable, for all subsequent 3-year planning periods, as of the date of filing the application described in this subsection (m). If the Department determines that the application does not contain the applicable information described in provisions (A) through (I) of item (1) of this subsection (m), it shall notify the customer, in writing, of its determination that the application does not contain the required information and identify the information that is missing, and the customer shall provide the missing information within 15 working days after the date of receipt of the Department's notification.

(3) The Department shall have the right to audit the information provided in the customer's application and annual reports to ensure continued compliance with the requirements of this subsection. Based on the audit, if the Department determines the customer is no longer in compliance with the requirements of items (A) through (I) of item (1) of this subsection (m), as applicable, the Department shall notify the customer in writing of the noncompliance. The customer shall have 30 days to establish its compliance, and failing to do so, may have its status as a SDC or exempt customer revoked by the Department. The Department shall treat all information provided by any customer seeking SDC status or exemption from the provisions of this Section as strictly confidential.

(4) Upon request, or on its own motion, the Commission may open an investigation, no more than once every 3 years and not before October 1, 2014, to evaluate the effectiveness of the self-directing program described in this subsection (m).

(n) The applicability of this Section to customers described in subsection (m) of this Section is conditioned on the existence of the SDC program. In no event will any provision of this Section apply to such customers after January 1, 2020.

(Source: P.A. 96-33, eff. 7-10-09; revised 11-18-11.)

(220 ILCS 5/13-517)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2013)

Sec. 13-517. Provision of advanced telecommunications services.

(a) Every Incumbent Local Exchange Carrier (telecommunications carrier that offers or provides a noncompetitive telecommunications service) shall offer or provide advanced telecommunications services to not less than 80% of its customers by January 1, 2005.

(b) The Commission is authorized to grant a full or partial waiver of the requirements of this Section upon verified petition of any Incumbent Local Exchange Carrier ("ILEC") which demonstrates that full compliance with the requirements of this Section would be unduly economically burdensome or technically infeasible or otherwise impractical in exchanges with low population density. Notice of any such petition must be given to all potentially affected customers. If no potentially affected customer requests the opportunity for a hearing on the waiver petition, the Commission may, in its discretion, allow the waiver request to take effect affect without hearing. The Commission shall grant such petition to the extent that, and for such duration as, the Commission determines that such waiver:

(1) is necessary:

(A) to avoid a significant adverse economic impact on users of telecommunications services generally;

(B) to avoid imposing a requirement that is unduly economically burdensome;

(C) to avoid imposing a requirement that is technically infeasible; or

(D) to avoid imposing a requirement that is otherwise impractical to implement in exchanges with low population density; and

(2) is consistent with the public interest, convenience, and necessity.

The Commission shall act upon any petition filed under this subsection within 180 days after receiving such petition. The Commission may by rule establish standards for granting any waiver of the requirements of this Section. The Commission may, upon complaint or on its own motion, hold a hearing to reconsider its grant of a waiver in whole or in part. In the event that the Commission, following hearing, determines that the affected ILEC no longer meets the requirements of item (2) of this subsection, the Commission shall by order rescind such waiver, in whole or in part. In the event and to the degree the Commission rescinds such waiver, the Commission shall establish an implementation schedule for compliance with the requirements of this Section.

(c) As used in this Section, "advanced telecommunications services" means services capable of supporting, in at least one direction, a speed in excess of 200 kilobits per second (kbps) to the network demarcation point at the subscriber's premises.

(Source: P.A. 92-22, eff. 6-30-01; revised 11-18-11.)

(220 ILCS 5/16-111.5)

Sec. 16-111.5. Provisions relating to procurement.

(a) An electric utility that on December 31, 2005 served at least 100,000 customers in Illinois shall procure power and energy for its eligible retail customers in accordance with the applicable provisions set forth in Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and this Section. A small multi-jurisdictional electric utility that on December 31, 2005 served less than 100,000 customers in Illinois may elect to procure power and energy for all or a portion of its eligible Illinois retail customers in accordance with the applicable provisions set forth in this Section and Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act. This Section shall not apply to a small multi-jurisdictional utility until such time as a small multi-jurisdictional utility requests the Illinois Power Agency to prepare a procurement plan for its eligible retail customers. "Eligible retail customers" for the purposes of this Section means those retail customers that purchase power and energy from the electric utility under fixed-price bundled service tariffs, other than those retail customers whose service is declared or deemed competitive under Section 16-113 and those other customer groups specified in this Section, including self-generating customers, customers electing hourly pricing, or those customers who are otherwise ineligible for fixed-price bundled tariff service. Those customers that are excluded from the definition of "eligible retail customers" shall not be included in the procurement plan load requirements, and the utility shall procure any supply requirements, including capacity, ancillary services, and hourly priced energy, in the applicable markets as needed to serve those customers, provided that the utility may include in its procurement plan load requirements for the load that is associated with those retail customers whose service has been declared or deemed competitive pursuant to Section 16-113 of this Act to the extent that those customers are purchasing power and energy during one of the transition periods identified in subsection (b) of Section 16-113 of this Act.

(b) A procurement plan shall be prepared for each electric utility consistent with the applicable requirements of the Illinois Power Agency Act and this Section. For purposes of this Section, Illinois electric utilities that are affiliated by virtue of a common parent company are considered to be a single electric utility. Small multi-jurisdictional utilities may request a procurement plan for a portion of or all of its Illinois load. Each procurement plan shall analyze the projected balance of supply and demand for eligible retail customers over a 5-year period with the first planning year beginning on June 1 of the year following the year in which the plan is filed. The plan shall specifically identify the wholesale products to be procured following plan approval, and shall follow all the requirements set forth in the Public Utilities Act and all applicable State and federal laws, statutes, rules, or regulations, as well as Commission orders. Nothing in this Section precludes consideration of contracts longer than 5 years and related forecast data. Unless specified otherwise in this Section, in the procurement plan or in the implementing tariff, any procurement occurring in accordance with this plan shall be competitively bid through a request for proposals process. Approval and implementation of the procurement plan shall be subject to review and approval by the Commission according to the provisions set forth in this Section. A procurement plan shall include each of the following components:

(1) Hourly load analysis. This analysis shall include:

(i) multi-year historical analysis of hourly loads;

(ii) switching trends and competitive retail market analysis;

(iii) known or projected changes to future loads; and

(iv) growth forecasts by customer class.

(2) Analysis of the impact of any demand side and renewable energy initiatives. This analysis shall include:

(i) the impact of demand response programs and energy efficiency programs, both current and projected; for small multi-jurisdictional utilities, the impact of demand response and energy efficiency programs approved pursuant to Section 8-408 of this Act, both current and projected; and

(ii) supply side needs that are projected to be offset by purchases of renewable energy resources, if any.

(3) A plan for meeting the expected load requirements that will not be met through preexisting contracts. This plan shall include:

(i) definitions of the different Illinois retail customer classes for which supply is being purchased;

(ii) the proposed mix of demand-response products for which contracts will be executed during the next year. For small multi-jurisdictional electric utilities that on December 31, 2005 served fewer than 100,000 customers in Illinois, these shall be defined as demand-response products offered in an energy efficiency plan approved pursuant to Section 8-408 of this Act. The cost-effective demand-response measures shall be procured whenever the cost is lower than procuring comparable capacity products, provided that such products shall:

(A) be procured by a demand-response provider from eligible retail customers;

(B) at least satisfy the demand-response requirements of the regional transmission organization market in which the utility's service territory is located, including, but not limited to, any applicable capacity or dispatch requirements;

(C) provide for customers' participation in the stream of benefits produced by the demand-response products;

(D) provide for reimbursement by the demand-response provider of the utility for any costs incurred as a result of the failure of the supplier of such products to perform its obligations thereunder; and

(E) meet the same credit requirements as apply to suppliers of capacity, in the applicable regional transmission organization market;

(iii) monthly forecasted system supply requirements, including expected minimum, maximum, and average values for the planning period;

(iv) the proposed mix and selection of standard wholesale products for which contracts will be executed during the next year, separately or in combination, to meet that portion of its load requirements not met through pre-existing contracts, including but not limited to monthly 5 x 16 peak period block energy, monthly off-peak wrap energy, monthly 7 x 24 energy, annual 5 x 16 energy, annual off-peak wrap energy, annual 7 x 24 energy, monthly capacity, annual capacity, peak load capacity obligations, capacity purchase plan, and ancillary services;

(v) proposed term structures for each wholesale product type included in the proposed procurement plan portfolio of products; and

(vi) an assessment of the price risk, load uncertainty, and other factors that are associated with the proposed procurement plan; this assessment, to the extent possible, shall include an analysis of the following factors: contract terms, time frames for securing products or services, fuel costs, weather patterns, transmission costs, market conditions, and the governmental regulatory environment; the proposed procurement plan shall also identify alternatives for those portfolio measures that are identified as having significant price risk.

(4) Proposed procedures for balancing loads. The procurement plan shall include, for load requirements included in the procurement plan, the process for (i) hourly balancing of supply and demand and (ii) the criteria for portfolio re-balancing in the event of significant shifts in load.

(c) The procurement process set forth in Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and subsection (e) of this Section shall be administered by a procurement administrator and monitored by a procurement monitor.

(1) The procurement administrator shall:

(i) design the final procurement process in accordance with Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and subsection (e) of this Section following Commission approval of the procurement plan;

(ii) develop benchmarks in accordance with subsection (e)(3) to be used to evaluate bids; these benchmarks shall be submitted to the Commission for review and approval on a confidential basis prior to the procurement event;

(iii) serve as the interface between the electric utility and suppliers;

(iv) manage the bidder pre-qualification and registration process;

(v) obtain the electric utilities' agreement to the final form of all supply contracts and credit collateral agreements;

(vi) administer the request for proposals process;

(vii) have the discretion to negotiate to determine whether bidders are willing to lower the price of bids that meet the benchmarks approved by the Commission; any post-bid negotiations with bidders shall be limited to price only and shall be completed within 24 hours after opening the sealed bids and shall be conducted in a fair and unbiased manner; in conducting the negotiations, there shall be no disclosure of any information derived from proposals submitted by competing bidders; if information is disclosed to any bidder, it shall be provided to all competing bidders;

(viii) maintain confidentiality of supplier and bidding information in a manner consistent with all applicable laws, rules, regulations, and tariffs;

(ix) submit a confidential report to the Commission recommending acceptance or rejection of bids;

(x) notify the utility of contract counterparties and contract specifics; and

(xi) administer related contingency procurement events.

(2) The procurement monitor, who shall be retained by the Commission, shall:

(i) monitor interactions among the procurement administrator, suppliers, and utility;

(ii) monitor and report to the Commission on the progress of the procurement process;

(iii) provide an independent confidential report to the Commission regarding the results of the procurement event;

(iv) assess compliance with the procurement plans approved by the Commission for each utility that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to a least 100,000 customers in Illinois and for each small multi-jurisdictional utility that on December 31, 2005 served less than 100,000 customers in Illinois;

(v) preserve the confidentiality of supplier and bidding information in a manner consistent with all applicable laws, rules, regulations, and tariffs;

(vi) provide expert advice to the Commission and consult with the procurement administrator regarding issues related to procurement process design, rules, protocols, and policy-related matters; and

(vii) consult with the procurement administrator regarding the development and use of benchmark criteria, standard form contracts, credit policies, and bid documents.

(d) Except as provided in subsection (j), the planning process shall be conducted as follows:

(1) Beginning in 2008, each Illinois utility procuring power pursuant to this Section shall annually provide a range of load forecasts to the Illinois Power Agency by July 15 of each year, or such other date as may be required by the Commission or Agency. The load forecasts shall cover the 5-year procurement planning period for the next procurement plan and shall include hourly data representing a high-load, low-load and expected-load scenario for the load of the eligible retail customers. The utility shall provide supporting data and assumptions for each of the scenarios.

(2) Beginning in 2008, the Illinois Power Agency shall prepare a procurement plan by August 15th of each year, or such other date as may be required by the Commission. The procurement plan shall identify the portfolio of demand-response and power and energy products to be procured. Cost-effective demand-response measures shall be procured as set forth in item (iii) of subsection (b) of this Section. Copies of the procurement plan shall be posted and made publicly available on the Agency's and Commission's websites, and copies shall also be provided to each affected electric utility. An affected utility shall have 30 days following the date of posting to provide comment to the Agency on the procurement plan. Other interested entities also may comment on the procurement plan. All comments submitted to the Agency shall be specific, supported by data or other detailed analyses, and, if objecting to all or a portion of the procurement plan, accompanied by specific alternative wording or proposals. All comments shall be posted on the Agency's and Commission's websites. During this 30-day comment period, the Agency shall hold at least one public hearing within each utility's service area for the purpose of receiving public comment on the procurement plan. Within 14 days following the end of the 30-day review period, the Agency shall revise the procurement plan as necessary based on the comments received and file the procurement plan with the Commission and post the procurement plan on the websites.

(3) Within 5 days after the filing of the procurement plan, any person objecting to the procurement plan shall file an objection with the Commission. Within 10 days after the filing, the Commission shall determine whether a hearing is necessary. The Commission shall enter its order confirming or modifying the procurement plan within 90 days after the filing of the procurement plan by the Illinois Power Agency.

(4) The Commission shall approve the procurement plan, including expressly the forecast used in the procurement plan, if the Commission determines that it will ensure adequate, reliable, affordable, efficient, and environmentally sustainable electric service at the lowest total cost over time, taking into account any benefits of price stability.

(e) The procurement process shall include each of the following components:

(1) Solicitation, pre-qualification, and registration of bidders. The procurement administrator shall disseminate information to potential bidders to promote a procurement event, notify potential bidders that the procurement administrator may enter into a post-bid price negotiation with bidders that meet the applicable benchmarks, provide supply requirements, and otherwise explain the competitive procurement process. In addition to such other publication as the procurement administrator determines is appropriate, this information shall be posted on the Illinois Power Agency's and the Commission's websites. The procurement administrator shall also administer the prequalification process, including evaluation of credit worthiness, compliance with procurement rules, and agreement to the standard form contract developed pursuant to paragraph (2) of this subsection (e). The procurement administrator shall then identify and register bidders to participate in the procurement event.

(2) Standard contract forms and credit terms and instruments. The procurement administrator, in consultation with the utilities, the Commission, and other interested parties and subject to Commission oversight, shall develop and provide standard contract forms for the supplier contracts that meet generally accepted industry practices. Standard credit terms and instruments that meet generally accepted industry practices shall be similarly developed. The procurement administrator shall make available to the Commission all written comments it receives on the contract forms, credit terms, or instruments. If the procurement administrator cannot reach agreement with the applicable electric utility as to the contract terms and conditions, the procurement administrator must notify the Commission of any disputed terms and the Commission shall resolve the dispute. The terms of the contracts shall not be subject to negotiation by winning bidders, and the bidders must agree to the terms of the contract in advance so that winning bids are selected solely on the basis of price.

(3) Establishment of a market-based price benchmark. As part of the development of the procurement process, the procurement administrator, in consultation with the Commission staff, Agency staff, and the procurement monitor, shall establish benchmarks for evaluating the final prices in the contracts for each of the products that will be procured through the procurement process. The benchmarks shall be based on price data for similar products for the same delivery period and same delivery hub, or other delivery hubs after adjusting for that difference. The price benchmarks may also be adjusted to take into account differences between the information reflected in the underlying data sources and the specific products and procurement process being used to procure power for the Illinois utilities. The benchmarks shall be confidential but shall be provided to, and will be subject to Commission review and approval, prior to a procurement event.

(4) Request for proposals competitive procurement process. The procurement administrator shall design and issue a request for proposals to supply electricity in accordance with each utility's procurement plan, as approved by the Commission. The request for proposals shall set forth a procedure for sealed, binding commitment bidding with pay-as-bid settlement, and provision for selection of bids on the basis of price.

(5) A plan for implementing contingencies in the event of supplier default or failure of the procurement process to fully meet the expected load requirement due to insufficient supplier participation, Commission rejection of results, or any other cause.

(i) Event of supplier default: In the event of supplier default, the utility shall review the contract of the defaulting supplier to determine if the amount of supply is 200 megawatts or greater, and if there are more than 60 days remaining of the contract term. If both of these conditions are met, and the default results in termination of the contract, the utility shall immediately notify the Illinois Power Agency that a request for proposals must be issued to procure replacement power, and the procurement administrator shall run an additional procurement event. If the contracted supply of the defaulting supplier is less than 200 megawatts or there are less than 60 days remaining of the contract term, the utility shall procure power and energy from the applicable regional transmission organization market, including ancillary services, capacity, and day-ahead or real time energy, or both, for the duration of the contract term to replace the contracted supply; provided, however, that if a needed product is not available through the regional transmission organization market it shall be purchased from the wholesale market.

(ii) Failure of the procurement process to fully meet the expected load requirement: If the procurement process fails to fully meet the expected load requirement due to insufficient supplier participation or due to a Commission rejection of the procurement results, the procurement administrator, the procurement monitor, and the Commission staff shall meet within 10 days to analyze potential causes of low supplier interest or causes for the Commission decision. If changes are identified that would likely result in increased supplier participation, or that would address concerns causing the Commission to reject the results of the prior procurement event, the procurement administrator may implement those changes and rerun the request for proposals process according to a schedule determined by those parties and consistent with Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and this subsection. In any event, a new request for proposals process shall be implemented by the procurement administrator within 90 days after the determination that the procurement process has failed to fully meet the expected load requirement.

(iii) In all cases where there is insufficient supply provided under contracts awarded through the procurement process to fully meet the electric utility's load requirement, the utility shall meet the load requirement by procuring power and energy from the applicable regional transmission organization market, including ancillary services, capacity, and day-ahead or real time energy or both; provided, however, that if a needed product is not available through the regional transmission organization market it shall be purchased from the wholesale market.

(6) The procurement process described in this subsection is exempt from the requirements of the Illinois Procurement Code, pursuant to Section 20-10 of that Code.

(f) Within 2 business days after opening the sealed bids, the procurement administrator shall submit a confidential report to the Commission. The report shall contain the results of the bidding for each of the products along with the procurement administrator's recommendation for the acceptance and rejection of bids based on the price benchmark criteria and other factors observed in the process. The procurement monitor also shall submit a confidential report to the Commission within 2 business days after opening the sealed bids. The report shall contain the procurement monitor's assessment of bidder behavior in the process as well as an assessment of the procurement administrator's compliance with the procurement process and rules. The Commission shall review the confidential reports submitted by the procurement administrator and procurement monitor, and shall accept or reject the recommendations of the procurement administrator within 2 business days after receipt of the reports.

(g) Within 3 business days after the Commission decision approving the results of a procurement event, the utility shall enter into binding contractual arrangements with the winning suppliers using the standard form contracts; except that the utility shall not be required either directly or indirectly to execute the contracts if a tariff that is consistent with subsection (l) of this Section has not been approved and placed into effect for that utility.

(h) The names of the successful bidders and the load weighted average of the winning bid prices for each contract type and for each contract term shall be made available to the public at the time of Commission approval of a procurement event. The Commission, the procurement monitor, the procurement administrator, the Illinois Power Agency, and all participants in the procurement process shall maintain the confidentiality of all other supplier and bidding information in a manner consistent with all applicable laws, rules, regulations, and tariffs. Confidential information, including the confidential reports submitted by the procurement administrator and procurement monitor pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section, shall not be made publicly available and shall not be discoverable by any party in any proceeding, absent a compelling demonstration of need, nor shall those reports be admissible in any proceeding other than one for law enforcement purposes.

(i) Within 2 business days after a Commission decision approving the results of a procurement event or such other date as may be required by the Commission from time to time, the utility shall file for informational purposes with the Commission its actual or estimated retail supply charges, as applicable, by customer supply group reflecting the costs associated with the procurement and computed in accordance with the tariffs filed pursuant to subsection (l) of this Section and approved by the Commission.

(j) Within 60 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act, each electric utility that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to at least 100,000 customers in Illinois shall prepare and file with the Commission an initial procurement plan, which shall conform in all material respects to the requirements of the procurement plan set forth in subsection (b); provided, however, that the Illinois Power Agency Act shall not apply to the initial procurement plan prepared pursuant to this subsection. The initial procurement plan shall identify the portfolio of power and energy products to be procured and delivered for the period June 2008 through May 2009, and shall identify the proposed procurement administrator, who shall have the same experience and expertise as is required of a procurement administrator hired pursuant to Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act. Copies of the procurement plan shall be posted and made publicly available on the Commission's website. The initial procurement plan may include contracts for renewable resources that extend beyond May 2009.

(i) Within 14 days following filing of the initial procurement plan, any person may file a detailed objection with the Commission contesting the procurement plan submitted by the electric utility. All objections to the electric utility's plan shall be specific, supported by data or other detailed analyses. The electric utility may file a response to any objections to its procurement plan within 7 days after the date objections are due to be filed. Within 7 days after the date the utility's response is due, the Commission shall determine whether a hearing is necessary. If it determines that a hearing is necessary, it shall require the hearing to be completed and issue an order on the procurement plan within 60 days after the filing of the procurement plan by the electric utility.

(ii) The order shall approve or modify the procurement plan, approve an independent procurement administrator, and approve or modify the electric utility's tariffs that are proposed with the initial procurement plan. The Commission shall approve the procurement plan if the Commission determines that it will ensure adequate, reliable, affordable, efficient, and environmentally sustainable electric service at the lowest total cost over time, taking into account any benefits of price stability.

(k) In order to promote price stability for residential and small commercial customers during the transition to competition in Illinois, and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, each electric utility subject to this Section shall enter into one or more multi-year financial swap contracts that become effective on the effective date of this amendatory Act. These contracts may be executed with generators and power marketers, including affiliated interests of the electric utility. These contracts shall be for a term of no more than 5 years and shall, for each respective utility or for any Illinois electric utilities that are affiliated by virtue of a common parent company and that are thereby considered a single electric utility for purposes of this subsection (k), not exceed in the aggregate 3,000 megawatts for any hour of the year. The contracts shall be financial contracts and not energy sales contracts. The contracts shall be executed as transactions under a negotiated master agreement based on the form of master agreement for financial swap contracts sponsored by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. and shall be considered pre-existing contracts in the utilities' procurement plans for residential and small commercial customers. Costs incurred pursuant to a contract authorized by this subsection (k) shall be deemed prudently incurred and reasonable in amount and the electric utility shall be entitled to full cost recovery pursuant to the tariffs filed with the Commission.

(k-5) In order to promote price stability for residential and small commercial customers during the infrastructure investment program described in subsection (b) of Section 16-108.5 of this Act, and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or the Illinois Power Agency Act, for each electric utility that serves more than one million retail customers in Illinois, the Illinois Power Agency shall conduct a procurement event within 120 days after October 26, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-616) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and may procure contracts for energy and renewable energy credits for the period June 1, 2013 through December 31, 2017 that satisfy the requirements of this subsection (k-5), including the benchmarks described in this subsection. These contracts shall be entered into as the result of a competitive procurement event, and, to the extent that any provisions of this Section or the Illinois Power Agency Act do not conflict with this subsection (k-5), such provisions shall apply to the procurement event. The energy contracts shall be for 24 hour by 7 day supply over a term that runs from the first delivery year through December 31, 2017. For a utility that serves over 2 million customers, the energy contracts shall be multi-year with pricing escalating at 2.5% per annum. The energy contracts may be designed as financial swaps or may require physical delivery.

Within 30 days of October 26, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-616) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, each such utility shall submit to the Agency updated load forecasts for the period June 1, 2013 through December 31, 2017. The megawatt volume of the contracts shall be based on the updated load forecasts of the minimum monthly on-peak or off-peak average load requirements shown in the forecasts, taking into account any existing energy contracts in effect as well as the expected migration of the utility's customers to alternative retail electric suppliers. The renewable energy credit volume shall be based on the number of credits that would satisfy the requirements of subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, subject to the rate impact caps and other provisions of subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act. The evaluation of contract bids in the competitive procurement events for energy and for renewable energy credits shall incorporate price benchmarks set collaboratively by the Agency, the procurement administrator, the staff of the Commission, and the procurement monitor. If the contracts are swap contracts, then they shall be executed as transactions under a negotiated master agreement based on the form of master agreement for financial swap contracts sponsored by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. Costs incurred pursuant to a contract authorized by this subsection (k-5) shall be deemed prudently incurred and reasonable in amount and the electric utility shall be entitled to full cost recovery pursuant to the tariffs filed with the Commission.

The cost of administering the procurement event described in this subsection (k-5) shall be paid by the winning supplier or suppliers to the procurement administrator through a supplier fee. In the event that there is no winning supplier for a particular utility, such utility will pay the procurement administrator for the costs associated with the procurement event, and those costs shall not be a recoverable expense. Nothing in this subsection (k-5) is intended to alter the recovery of costs for any other procurement event.

(l) An electric utility shall recover its costs incurred under this Section, including, but not limited to, the costs of procuring power and energy demand-response resources under this Section. The utility shall file with the initial procurement plan its proposed tariffs through which its costs of procuring power that are incurred pursuant to a Commission-approved procurement plan and those other costs identified in this subsection (l), will be recovered. The tariffs shall include a formula rate or charge designed to pass through both the costs incurred by the utility in procuring a supply of electric power and energy for the applicable customer classes with no mark-up or return on the price paid by the utility for that supply, plus any just and reasonable costs that the utility incurs in arranging and providing for the supply of electric power and energy. The formula rate or charge shall also contain provisions that ensure that its application does not result in over or under recovery due to changes in customer usage and demand patterns, and that provide for the correction, on at least an annual basis, of any accounting errors that may occur. A utility shall recover through the tariff all reasonable costs incurred to implement or comply with any procurement plan that is developed and put into effect pursuant to Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and this Section, including any fees assessed by the Illinois Power Agency, costs associated with load balancing, and contingency plan costs. The electric utility shall also recover its full costs of procuring electric supply for which it contracted before the effective date of this Section in conjunction with the provision of full requirements service under fixed-price bundled service tariffs subsequent to December 31, 2006. All such costs shall be deemed to have been prudently incurred. The pass-through tariffs that are filed and approved pursuant to this Section shall not be subject to review under, or in any way limited by, Section 16-111(i) of this Act.

(m) The Commission has the authority to adopt rules to carry out the provisions of this Section. For the public interest, safety, and welfare, the Commission also has authority to adopt rules to carry out the provisions of this Section on an emergency basis immediately following the effective date of this amendatory Act.

(n) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, any affiliated electric utilities that submit a single procurement plan covering their combined needs may procure for those combined needs in conjunction with that plan, and may enter jointly into power supply contracts, purchases, and other procurement arrangements, and allocate capacity and energy and cost responsibility therefor among themselves in proportion to their requirements.

(o) On or before June 1 of each year, the Commission shall hold an informal hearing for the purpose of receiving comments on the prior year's procurement process and any recommendations for change.

(p) An electric utility subject to this Section may propose to invest, lease, own, or operate an electric generation facility as part of its procurement plan, provided the utility demonstrates that such facility is the least-cost option to provide electric service to eligible retail customers. If the facility is shown to be the least-cost option and is included in a procurement plan prepared in accordance with Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and this Section, then the electric utility shall make a filing pursuant to Section 8-406 of this Act, and may request of the Commission any statutory relief required thereunder. If the Commission grants all of the necessary approvals for the proposed facility, such supply shall thereafter be considered as a pre-existing contract under subsection (b) of this Section. The Commission shall in any order approving a proposal under this subsection specify how the utility will recover the prudently incurred costs of investing in, leasing, owning, or operating such generation facility through just and reasonable rates charged to eligible retail customers. Cost recovery for facilities included in the utility's procurement plan pursuant to this subsection shall not be subject to review under or in any way limited by the provisions of Section 16-111(i) of this Act. Nothing in this Section is intended to prohibit a utility from filing for a fuel adjustment clause as is otherwise permitted under Section 9-220 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-325, eff. 8-12-11; 97-616, eff. 10-26-11; revised 11-10-11.)

Section 390. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Sections 2.06 and 7 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/2.06) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.06)

Sec. 2.06. "Child care institution" means a child care facility where more than 7 children are received and maintained for the purpose of providing them with care or training or both. The term "child care institution" includes residential schools, primarily serving ambulatory handicapped children, and those operating a full calendar year, but does not include:

(a) Any State-operated institution for child care established by legislative action;

(b) Any juvenile detention or shelter care home established and operated by any county or child protection district established under the "Child Protection Act";

(c) Any institution, home, place or facility operating under a license pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(d) Any bona fide boarding school in which children are primarily taught branches of education corresponding to those taught in public schools, grades one through 12, or taught in public elementary schools, high schools, or both elementary and high schools, and which operates on a regular academic school year basis; or

(e) Any facility licensed as a "group home" as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(225 ILCS 10/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 2217)

Sec. 7. (a) The Department must prescribe and publish minimum standards for licensing that apply to the various types of facilities for child care defined in this Act and that are equally applicable to like institutions under the control of the Department and to foster family homes used by and under the direct supervision of the Department. The Department shall seek the advice and assistance of persons representative of the various types of child care facilities in establishing such standards. The standards prescribed and published under this Act take effect as provided in the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, and are restricted to regulations pertaining to the following matters and to any rules and regulations required or permitted by any other Section of this Act:

(1) The operation and conduct of the facility and responsibility it assumes for child care;

(2) The character, suitability and qualifications of the applicant and other persons directly responsible for the care and welfare of children served. All child day care center licensees and employees who are required to report child abuse or neglect under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act shall be required to attend training on recognizing child abuse and neglect, as prescribed by Department rules;

(3) The general financial ability and competence of the applicant to provide necessary care for children and to maintain prescribed standards;

(4) The number of individuals or staff required to insure adequate supervision and care of the children received. The standards shall provide that each child care institution, maternity center, day care center, group home, day care home, and group day care home shall have on its premises during its hours of operation at least one staff member certified in first aid, in the Heimlich maneuver and in cardiopulmonary resuscitation by the American Red Cross or other organization approved by rule of the Department. Child welfare agencies shall not be subject to such a staffing requirement. The Department may offer, or arrange for the offering, on a periodic basis in each community in this State in cooperation with the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association or other appropriate organization, voluntary programs to train operators of foster family homes and day care homes in first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation;

(5) The appropriateness, safety, cleanliness and general adequacy of the premises, including maintenance of adequate fire prevention and health standards conforming to State laws and municipal codes to provide for the physical comfort, care and well-being of children received;

(6) Provisions for food, clothing, educational opportunities, program, equipment and individual supplies to assure the healthy physical, mental and spiritual development of children served;

(7) Provisions to safeguard the legal rights of children served;

(8) Maintenance of records pertaining to the admission, progress, health and discharge of children, including, for day care centers and day care homes, records indicating each child has been immunized as required by State regulations. The Department shall require proof that children enrolled in a facility have been immunized against Haemophilus Influenzae B (HIB);

(9) Filing of reports with the Department;

(10) Discipline of children;

(11) Protection and fostering of the particular religious faith of the children served;

(12) Provisions prohibiting firearms on day care center premises except in the possession of peace officers;

(13) Provisions prohibiting handguns on day care home premises except in the possession of peace officers or other adults who must possess a handgun as a condition of employment and who reside on the premises of a day care home;

(14) Provisions requiring that any firearm permitted on day care home premises, except handguns in the possession of peace officers, shall be kept in a disassembled state, without ammunition, in locked storage, inaccessible to children and that ammunition permitted on day care home premises shall be kept in locked storage separate from that of disassembled firearms, inaccessible to children;

(15) Provisions requiring notification of parents or guardians enrolling children at a day care home of the presence in the day care home of any firearms and ammunition and of the arrangements for the separate, locked storage of such firearms and ammunition; and

(16) Provisions requiring all licensed child care facility employees who care for newborns and infants to complete training every 3 years on the nature of sudden unexpected infant death (SUID), sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), and the safe sleep recommendations of the American Academy of Pediatrics.

(b) If, in a facility for general child care, there are children diagnosed as mentally ill, intellectually disabled or physically handicapped, who are determined to be in need of special mental treatment or of nursing care, or both mental treatment and nursing care, the Department shall seek the advice and recommendation of the Department of Human Services, the Department of Public Health, or both Departments regarding the residential treatment and nursing care provided by the institution.

(c) The Department shall investigate any person applying to be licensed as a foster parent to determine whether there is any evidence of current drug or alcohol abuse in the prospective foster family. The Department shall not license a person as a foster parent if drug or alcohol abuse has been identified in the foster family or if a reasonable suspicion of such abuse exists, except that the Department may grant a foster parent license to an applicant identified with an alcohol or drug problem if the applicant has successfully participated in an alcohol or drug treatment program, self-help group, or other suitable activities.

(d) The Department, in applying standards prescribed and published, as herein provided, shall offer consultation through employed staff or other qualified persons to assist applicants and licensees in meeting and maintaining minimum requirements for a license and to help them otherwise to achieve programs of excellence related to the care of children served. Such consultation shall include providing information concerning education and training in early childhood development to providers of day care home services. The Department may provide or arrange for such education and training for those providers who request such assistance.

(e) The Department shall distribute copies of licensing standards to all licensees and applicants for a license. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall distribute copies of the appropriate licensing standards and any other information required by the Department to child care facilities under its supervision. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall maintain appropriate documentation of the distribution of the standards. Such documentation shall be part of the records of the facility and subject to inspection by authorized representatives of the Department.

(f) The Department shall prepare summaries of day care licensing standards. Each licensee or holder of a permit for a day care facility shall distribute a copy of the appropriate summary and any other information required by the Department, to the legal guardian of each child cared for in that facility at the time when the child is enrolled or initially placed in the facility. The licensee or holder of a permit for a day care facility shall secure appropriate documentation of the distribution of the summary and brochure. Such documentation shall be a part of the records of the facility and subject to inspection by an authorized representative of the Department.

(g) The Department shall distribute to each licensee and holder of a permit copies of the licensing or permit standards applicable to such person's facility. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall make available by posting at all times in a common or otherwise accessible area a complete and current set of licensing standards in order that all employees of the facility may have unrestricted access to such standards. All employees of the facility shall have reviewed the standards and any subsequent changes. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall maintain appropriate documentation of the current review of licensing standards by all employees. Such records shall be part of the records of the facility and subject to inspection by authorized representatives of the Department.

(h) Any standards involving physical examinations, immunization, or medical treatment shall include appropriate exemptions for children whose parents object thereto on the grounds that they conflict with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious organization, of which the parent is an adherent or member, and for children who should not be subjected to immunization for clinical reasons.

(i) The Department, in cooperation with the Department of Public Health, shall work to increase immunization awareness and participation among parents of children enrolled in day care centers and day care homes by publishing on the Department's website information about the benefits of immunization against vaccine preventable diseases, including influenza and pertussis. The information for vaccine preventable diseases shall include the incidence and severity of the diseases, the availability of vaccines, and the importance of immunizing children and persons who frequently have close contact with children. The website content shall be reviewed annually in collaboration with the Department of Public Health to reflect the most current recommendations of the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP). The Department shall work with day care centers and day care homes licensed under this Act to ensure that the information is annually distributed to parents in August or September.

(Source: P.A. 96-391, eff. 8-13-09; 97-83, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-494, eff. 8-22-11; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 395. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Section 23 as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/23) (from Ch. 111, par. 2323)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 23. Refusal, revocation or suspension of dental licenses. The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including fines not to exceed $10,000 per violation, with regard to any license for any one or any combination of the following causes:

1. Fraud in procuring the license.

2. Habitual intoxication or addiction to the use of drugs.

3. Willful or repeated violations of the rules of the Department of Public Health or Department of Nuclear Safety.

4. Acceptance of a fee for service as a witness, without the knowledge of the court, in addition to the fee allowed by the court.

5. Division of fees or agreeing to split or divide the fees received for dental services with any person for bringing or referring a patient, except in regard to referral services as provided for under Section 45, or assisting in the care or treatment of a patient, without the knowledge of the patient or his legal representative. Nothing in this item 5 affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this item 5 shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

6. Employing, procuring, inducing, aiding or abetting a person not licensed or registered as a dentist to engage in the practice of dentistry. The person practiced upon is not an accomplice, employer, procurer, inducer, aider, or abetter within the meaning of this Act.

7. Making any misrepresentations or false promises, directly or indirectly, to influence, persuade or induce dental patronage.

8. Professional connection or association with or lending his name to another for the illegal practice of dentistry by another, or professional connection or association with any person, firm or corporation holding himself, herself, themselves, or itself out in any manner contrary to this Act.

9. Obtaining or seeking to obtain practice, money, or any other things of value by false or fraudulent representations, but not limited to, engaging in such fraudulent practice to defraud the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid).

10. Practicing under a name other than his or her own.

11. Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

12. Conviction in this or another State of any crime which is a felony under the laws of this State or conviction of a felony in a federal court, conviction of a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or conviction of any crime which is directly related to the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene.

13. Permitting a dental hygienist, dental assistant or other person under his or her supervision to perform any operation not authorized by this Act.

14. Permitting more than 4 dental hygienists to be employed under his supervision at any one time.

15. A violation of any provision of this Act or any rules promulgated under this Act.

16. Taking impressions for or using the services of any person, firm or corporation violating this Act.

17. Violating any provision of Section 45 relating to advertising.

18. Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth within this Act.

19. Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

20. Gross or repeated malpractice resulting in injury or death of a patient.

21. The use or prescription for use of narcotics or controlled substances or designated products as listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, in any way other than for therapeutic purposes.

22. Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his practice as a dentist, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the dental assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid).

23. Professional incompetence as manifested by poor standards of care.

24. Physical or mental illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skills which results in a dentist's inability to practice dentistry with reasonable judgment, skill or safety. In enforcing this paragraph, the Department may compel a person licensed to practice under this Act to submit to a mental or physical examination pursuant to the terms and conditions of Section 23b.

25. Repeated irregularities in billing a third party for services rendered to a patient. For purposes of this paragraph 25, "irregularities in billing" shall include:

(a) Reporting excessive charges for the purpose of obtaining a total payment in excess of that usually received by the dentist for the services rendered.

(b) Reporting charges for services not rendered.

(c) Incorrectly reporting services rendered for the purpose of obtaining payment not earned.

26. Continuing the active practice of dentistry while knowingly having any infectious, communicable, or contagious disease proscribed by rule or regulation of the Department.

27. Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

28. Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

29. Abandonment of a patient.

30. Mental incompetency as declared by a court of competent jurisdiction.

31. A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

All proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 3 years after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein. Except for fraud in procuring a license, no action shall be commenced more than 5 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this Section. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(Source: P.A. 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10; 97-102, eff. 7-14-11; revised 9-15-11.)

Section 400. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 46/15)

Sec. 15. Definitions. In this Act:

"Applicant" means an individual seeking employment with a health care employer who has received a bona fide conditional offer of employment.

"Conditional offer of employment" means a bona fide offer of employment by a health care employer to an applicant, which is contingent upon the receipt of a report from the Department of Public Health indicating that the applicant does not have a record of conviction of any of the criminal offenses enumerated in Section 25.

"Direct care" means the provision of nursing care or assistance with feeding, dressing, movement, bathing, toileting, or other personal needs, including home services as defined in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act. The entity responsible for inspecting and licensing, certifying, or registering the health care employer may, by administrative rule, prescribe guidelines for interpreting this definition with regard to the health care employers that it licenses.

"Disqualifying offenses" means those offenses set forth in Section 25 of this Act.

"Employee" means any individual hired, employed, or retained to which this Act applies.

"Fingerprint-based criminal history records check" means a livescan fingerprint-based criminal history records check submitted as a fee applicant inquiry in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.

"Health care employer" means:

(1) the owner or licensee of any of the following:

(i) a community living facility, as defined in the Community Living Facilities Act;

(ii) a life care facility, as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act;

(iii) a long-term care facility;

(iv) a home health agency, home services agency, or home nursing agency as defined in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act;

(v) a hospice care program or volunteer hospice program, as defined in the Hospice Program Licensing Act;

(vi) a hospital, as defined in the Hospital Licensing Act;

(vii) (blank);

(viii) a nurse agency, as defined in the Nurse Agency Licensing Act;

(ix) a respite care provider, as defined in the Respite Program Act;

(ix-a) an establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act;

(x) a supportive living program, as defined in the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(xi) early childhood intervention programs as described in 59 Ill. Adm. Code 121;

(xii) the University of Illinois Hospital, Chicago;

(xiii) programs funded by the Department on Aging through the Community Care Program;

(xiv) programs certified to participate in the Supportive Living Program authorized pursuant to Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(xv) programs listed by the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act as Freestanding Emergency Centers;

(xvi) locations licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act;

(2) a day training program certified by the Department of Human Services;

(3) a community integrated living arrangement operated by a community mental health and developmental service agency, as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensing and Certification Act; or

(4) the State Long Term Care Ombudsman Program, including any regional long term care ombudsman programs under Section 4.04 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, only for the purpose of securing background checks.

"Initiate" means obtaining from a student, applicant, or employee his or her social security number, demographics, a disclosure statement, and an authorization for the Department of Public Health or its designee to request a fingerprint-based criminal history records check; transmitting this information electronically to the Department of Public Health; conducting Internet searches on certain web sites, including without limitation the Illinois Sex Offender Registry, the Department of Corrections' Sex Offender Search Engine, the Department of Corrections' Inmate Search Engine, the Department of Corrections Wanted Fugitives Search Engine, the National Sex Offender Public Registry, and the website of the Health and Human Services Office of Inspector General to determine if the applicant has been adjudicated a sex offender, has been a prison inmate, or has committed Medicare or Medicaid fraud, or conducting similar searches as defined by rule; and having the student, applicant, or employee's fingerprints collected and transmitted electronically to the Department of State Police.

"Livescan vendor" means an entity whose equipment has been certified by the Department of State Police to collect an individual's demographics and inkless fingerprints and, in a manner prescribed by the Department of State Police and the Department of Public Health, electronically transmit the fingerprints and required data to the Department of State Police and a daily file of required data to the Department of Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall negotiate a contract with one or more vendors that effectively demonstrate that the vendor has 2 or more years of experience transmitting fingerprints electronically to the Department of State Police and that the vendor can successfully transmit the required data in a manner prescribed by the Department of Public Health. Vendor authorization may be further defined by administrative rule.

"Long-term care facility" means a facility licensed by the State or certified under federal law as a long-term care facility, including without limitation facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, a supportive living facility, an assisted living establishment, or a shared housing establishment or registered as a board and care home.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 405. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 50-10, 65-10, and 75-15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/50-10) (was 225 ILCS 65/5-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 50-10. Definitions. Each of the following terms, when used in this Act, shall have the meaning ascribed to it in this Section, except where the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Academic year" means the customary annual schedule of courses at a college, university, or approved school, customarily regarded as the school year as distinguished from the calendar year.

"Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means a person who has met the qualifications for a (i) certified nurse midwife (CNM); (ii) certified nurse practitioner (CNP); (iii) certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA); or (iv) clinical nurse specialist (CNS) and has been licensed by the Department. All advanced practice nurses licensed and practicing in the State of Illinois shall use the title APN and may use specialty speciality credentials after their name.

"Approved program of professional nursing education" and "approved program of practical nursing education" are programs of professional or practical nursing, respectively, approved by the Department under the provisions of this Act.

"Board" means the Board of Nursing appointed by the Secretary.

"Collaboration" means a process involving 2 or more health care professionals working together, each contributing one's respective area of expertise to provide more comprehensive patient care.

"Consultation" means the process whereby an advanced practice nurse seeks the advice or opinion of another health care professional.

"Credentialed" means the process of assessing and validating the qualifications of a health care professional.

"Current nursing practice update course" means a planned nursing education curriculum approved by the Department consisting of activities that have educational objectives, instructional methods, content or subject matter, clinical practice, and evaluation methods, related to basic review and updating content and specifically planned for those nurses previously licensed in the United States or its territories and preparing for reentry into nursing practice.

"Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Impaired nurse" means a nurse licensed under this Act who is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, including loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish his or her ability to deliver competent patient care.

"License-pending advanced practice nurse" means a registered professional nurse who has completed all requirements for licensure as an advanced practice nurse except the certification examination and has applied to take the next available certification exam and received a temporary license from the Department.

"License-pending registered nurse" means a person who has passed the Department-approved registered nurse licensure exam and has applied for a license from the Department. A license-pending registered nurse shall use the title "RN lic pend" on all documentation related to nursing practice.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Podiatrist" means a person licensed to practice podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Practical nurse" or "licensed practical nurse" means a person who is licensed as a practical nurse under this Act and practices practical nursing as defined in this Act. Only a practical nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the title "licensed practical nurse" and the abbreviation "L.P.N.".

"Practical nursing" means the performance of nursing acts requiring the basic nursing knowledge, judgement, and skill acquired by means of completion of an approved practical nursing education program. Practical nursing includes assisting in the nursing process as delegated by a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice nurse. The practical nurse may work under the direction of a licensed physician, dentist, podiatrist, or other health care professional determined by the Department.

"Privileged" means the authorization granted by the governing body of a healthcare facility, agency, or organization to provide specific patient care services within well-defined limits, based on qualifications reviewed in the credentialing process.

"Registered Nurse" or "Registered Professional Nurse" means a person who is licensed as a professional nurse under this Act and practices nursing as defined in this Act. Only a registered nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the titles "registered nurse" and "registered professional nurse" and the abbreviation, "R.N.".

"Registered professional nursing practice" is a scientific process founded on a professional body of knowledge; it is a learned profession based on the understanding of the human condition across the life span and environment and includes all nursing specialties specialities and means the performance of any nursing act based upon professional knowledge, judgment, and skills acquired by means of completion of an approved professional nursing education program. A registered professional nurse provides holistic nursing care through the nursing process to individuals, groups, families, or communities, that includes but is not limited to: (1) the assessment of healthcare needs, nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation, and nursing evaluation; (2) the promotion, maintenance, and restoration of health; (3) counseling, patient education, health education, and patient advocacy; (4) the administration of medications and treatments as prescribed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a licensed dentist, a licensed podiatrist, or a licensed optometrist or as prescribed by a physician assistant in accordance with written guidelines required under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 or by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with Article 65 of this Act; (5) the coordination and management of the nursing plan of care; (6) the delegation to and supervision of individuals who assist the registered professional nurse implementing the plan of care; and (7) teaching nursing students. The foregoing shall not be deemed to include those acts of medical diagnosis or prescription of therapeutic or corrective measures.

"Professional assistance program for nurses" means a professional assistance program that meets criteria established by the Board of Nursing and approved by the Secretary, which provides a non-disciplinary treatment approach for nurses licensed under this Act whose ability to practice is compromised by alcohol or chemical substance addiction.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Unencumbered license" means a license issued in good standing.

"Written collaborative agreement" means a written agreement between an advanced practice nurse and a collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatrist pursuant to Section 65-35.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; revised 11-18-11.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-10) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-13)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-10. APN license pending status.

(a) A graduate of an advanced practice nursing program may practice in the State of Illinois in the role of certified clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse midwife, certified nurse practitioner, or certified registered nurse anesthetist for not longer than 6 months provided he or she submits all of the following:

(1) An application for licensure as an advanced practice nurse in Illinois and all fees established by rule.

(2) Proof of an application to take the national certification examination in the specialty.

(3) Proof of completion of a graduate advanced practice education program that allows the applicant to be eligible for national certification in a clinical advanced practice nursing specialty speciality and that allows the applicant to be eligible for licensure in Illinois in the area of his or her specialty.

(4) Proof that he or she is licensed in Illinois as a registered professional nurse.

(b) License pending status shall preclude delegation of prescriptive authority.

(c) A graduate practicing in accordance with this Section must use the title "license pending certified clinical nurse specialist", "license pending certified nurse midwife", "license pending certified nurse practitioner", or "license pending certified registered nurse anesthetist", whichever is applicable.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; revised 11-18-11.)

(225 ILCS 65/75-15) (was 225 ILCS 65/17-15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 75-15. Center for Nursing Advisory Board.

(a) There is created the Center for Nursing Advisory Board, which shall consist of 11 members appointed by the Governor, with 6 members of the Advisory Board being nurses representative of various nursing specialty areas. The other 5 members may include representatives of associations, health care providers, nursing educators, and consumers. The Advisory Board shall be chaired by the Nursing Act Coordinator, who shall be a voting member of the Advisory Board.

(b) The membership of the Advisory Board shall reasonably reflect representation from the geographic areas in this State.

(c) Members of the Advisory Board appointed by the Governor shall serve for terms of 4 years, with no member serving more than 10 successive years, except that, initially, 4 members shall be appointed to the Advisory Board for terms that expire on June 30, 2009, 4 members shall be appointed to the Advisory Board for terms that expire on June 30, 2008, and 3 members shall be appointed to the Advisory Board for terms that expire on June 30, 2007. A member shall serve until his or her successor is appointed and has qualified. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as original appointments, and any member so appointed shall serve during the remainder of the term for which the vacancy occurred.

(d) A quorum of the Advisory Board shall consist of a majority of Advisory Board members currently serving. A majority vote of the quorum is required for Advisory Board decisions. A vacancy in the membership of the Advisory Board shall not impair the right of a quorum to exercise all of the rights and perform all of the duties of the Advisory Board.

(e) The Governor may remove any appointed member of the Advisory Board for misconduct, incapacity, or neglect of duty and shall be the sole judge of the sufficiency of the cause for removal.

(f) Members of the Advisory Board are immune from suit in any action based upon any activities performed in good faith as members of the Advisory Board.

(g) (e) Members of the Advisory Board shall not receive compensation, but shall be reimbursed for actual traveling, incidentals, and expenses necessarily incurred in carrying out their duties as members of the Advisory Board, as approved by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 94-1020, eff. 7-11-06; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 410. The Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(225 ILCS 70/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 3654)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 4. Definitions. For purposes of this Act, the following definitions shall have the following meanings, except where the context requires otherwise:

(1) "Act" means the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

(2) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(3) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(4) "Board" means the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Board appointed by the Governor.

(5) "Nursing home administrator" means the individual licensed under this Act and directly responsible for planning, organizing, directing and supervising the operation of a nursing home, or who in fact performs such functions, whether or not such functions are delegated to one or more other persons.

(6) "Nursing home" or "facility" means any entity that is required to be licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, as amended, other than a sheltered care home as defined thereunder, and includes private homes, institutions, buildings, residences, or other places, whether operated for profit or not, irrespective of the names attributed to them, county homes for the infirm and chronically ill operated pursuant to the County Nursing Home Act, as amended, and any similar institutions operated by a political subdivision of the State of Illinois that provide, though their ownership or management, maintenance, personal care, and nursing for 3 or more persons, not related to the owner by blood or marriage, or any similar facilities in which maintenance is provided to 3 or more persons who by reason of illness of physical infirmity require personal care and nursing. The term also means any facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act.

(7) "Maintenance" means food, shelter and laundry.

(8) "Personal care" means assistance with meals, dressing, movement, bathing, or other personal needs, or general supervision of the physical and mental well-being of an individual who because of age, physical, or mental disability, emotion or behavior disorder, or an intellectual disability is incapable of managing his or her person, whether or not a guardian has been appointed for such individual. For the purposes of this Act, this definition does not include the professional services of a nurse.

(9) "Nursing" means professional nursing or practical nursing, as those terms are defined in the Nurse Practice Act, for sick or infirm persons who are under the care and supervision of licensed physicians or dentists.

(10) "Disciplinary action" means revocation, suspension, probation, supervision, reprimand, required education, fines or any other action taken by the Department against a person holding a license.

(11) "Impaired" means the inability to practice with reasonable skill and safety due to physical or mental disabilities as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence including deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, or abuse of drugs or alcohol, of sufficient degree to diminish a person's ability to administer a nursing home.

(12) "Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, and such changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 415. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/3)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act, except where otherwise limited therein:

(a) "Pharmacy" or "drugstore" means and includes every store, shop, pharmacy department, or other place where pharmacist care is provided by a pharmacist (1) where drugs, medicines, or poisons are dispensed, sold or offered for sale at retail, or displayed for sale at retail; or (2) where prescriptions of physicians, dentists, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, veterinarians, podiatrists, or optometrists, within the limits of their licenses, are compounded, filled, or dispensed; or (3) which has upon it or displayed within it, or affixed to or used in connection with it, a sign bearing the word or words "Pharmacist", "Druggist", "Pharmacy", "Pharmaceutical Care", "Apothecary", "Drugstore", "Medicine Store", "Prescriptions", "Drugs", "Dispensary", "Medicines", or any word or words of similar or like import, either in the English language or any other language; or (4) where the characteristic prescription sign (Rx) or similar design is exhibited; or (5) any store, or shop, or other place with respect to which any of the above words, objects, signs or designs are used in any advertisement.

(b) "Drugs" means and includes (l) articles recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), or any supplement thereto and being intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (2) all other articles intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (3) articles (other than food) having for their main use and intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals; and (4) articles having for their main use and intended for use as a component or any articles specified in clause (l), (2) or (3); but does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.

(c) "Medicines" means and includes all drugs intended for human or veterinary use approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(d) "Practice of pharmacy" means (1) the interpretation and the provision of assistance in the monitoring, evaluation, and implementation of prescription drug orders; (2) the dispensing of prescription drug orders; (3) participation in drug and device selection; (4) drug administration limited to the administration of oral, topical, injectable, and inhalation as follows: in the context of patient education on the proper use or delivery of medications; vaccination of patients 14 years of age and older pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (5) drug regimen review; (6) drug or drug-related research; (7) the provision of patient counseling; (8) the practice of telepharmacy; (9) the provision of those acts or services necessary to provide pharmacist care; (10) medication therapy management; and (11) the responsibility for compounding and labeling of drugs and devices (except labeling by a manufacturer, repackager, or distributor of non-prescription drugs and commercially packaged legend drugs and devices), proper and safe storage of drugs and devices, and maintenance of required records. A pharmacist who performs any of the acts defined as the practice of pharmacy in this State must be actively licensed as a pharmacist under this Act.

(e) "Prescription" means and includes any written, oral, facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for drugs or medical devices, issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, or podiatrist, or optometrist, within the limits of their licenses, by a physician assistant in accordance with subsection (f) of Section 4, or by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 4, containing the following: (l) name of the patient; (2) date when prescription was issued; (3) name and strength of drug or description of the medical device prescribed; and (4) quantity; (5) directions for use; (6) prescriber's name, address, and signature; and (7) DEA number where required, for controlled substances. The prescription may, but is not required to, list the illness, disease, or condition for which the drug or device is being prescribed. DEA numbers shall not be required on inpatient drug orders.

(f) "Person" means and includes a natural person, copartnership, association, corporation, government entity, or any other legal entity.

(g) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(h) "Board of Pharmacy" or "Board" means the State Board of Pharmacy of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(i) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(j) "Drug product selection" means the interchange for a prescribed pharmaceutical product in accordance with Section 25 of this Act and Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.

(k) "Inpatient drug order" means an order issued by an authorized prescriber for a resident or patient of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the Hospital Licensing Act, or "An Act in relation to the founding and operation of the University of Illinois Hospital and the conduct of University of Illinois health care programs", approved July 3, 1931, as amended, or a facility which is operated by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) or the Department of Corrections.

(k-5) "Pharmacist" means an individual health care professional and provider currently licensed by this State to engage in the practice of pharmacy.

(l) "Pharmacist in charge" means the licensed pharmacist whose name appears on a pharmacy license and who is responsible for all aspects of the operation related to the practice of pharmacy.

(m) "Dispense" or "dispensing" means the interpretation, evaluation, and implementation of a prescription drug order, including the preparation and delivery of a drug or device to a patient or patient's agent in a suitable container appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal laws and regulations. "Dispense" or "dispensing" does not mean the physical delivery to a patient or a patient's representative in a home or institution by a designee of a pharmacist or by common carrier. "Dispense" or "dispensing" also does not mean the physical delivery of a drug or medical device to a patient or patient's representative by a pharmacist's designee within a pharmacy or drugstore while the pharmacist is on duty and the pharmacy is open.

(n) "Nonresident pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States, other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses, or distributes, through the United States Postal Service, commercially acceptable parcel delivery service, or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(o) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if all of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(p) (Blank).

(q) (Blank).

(r) "Patient counseling" means the communication between a pharmacist or a student pharmacist under the supervision of a pharmacist and a patient or the patient's representative about the patient's medication or device for the purpose of optimizing proper use of prescription medications or devices. "Patient counseling" may include without limitation (1) obtaining a medication history; (2) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions; (3) facilitation of the patient's understanding of the intended use of the medication; (4) proper directions for use; (5) significant potential adverse events; (6) potential food-drug interactions; and (7) the need to be compliant with the medication therapy. A pharmacy technician may only participate in the following aspects of patient counseling under the supervision of a pharmacist: (1) obtaining medication history; (2) providing the offer for counseling by a pharmacist or student pharmacist; and (3) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions.

(s) "Patient profiles" or "patient drug therapy record" means the obtaining, recording, and maintenance of patient prescription information, including prescriptions for controlled substances, and personal information.

(t) (Blank).

(u) "Medical device" means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, including any component part or accessory, required under federal law to bear the label "Caution: Federal law requires dispensing by or on the order of a physician". A seller of goods and services who, only for the purpose of retail sales, compounds, sells, rents, or leases medical devices shall not, by reasons thereof, be required to be a licensed pharmacy.

(v) "Unique identifier" means an electronic signature, handwritten signature or initials, thumb print, or other acceptable biometric or electronic identification process as approved by the Department.

(w) "Current usual and customary retail price" means the price that a pharmacy charges to a non-third-party payor.

(x) "Automated pharmacy system" means a mechanical system located within the confines of the pharmacy or remote location that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or administration, relative to storage, packaging, dispensing, or distribution of medication, and which collects, controls, and maintains all transaction information.

(y) "Drug regimen review" means and includes the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient records for (1) known allergies; (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications; (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications; (4) reasonable directions for use; (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; (6) drug-drug interactions; (7) drug-food interactions; (8) drug-disease contraindications; (9) therapeutic duplication; (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available; (11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and (12) abuse and misuse.

(z) "Electronic transmission prescription" means any prescription order for which a facsimile or electronic image of the order is electronically transmitted from a licensed prescriber to a pharmacy. "Electronic transmission prescription" includes both data and image prescriptions.

(aa) "Medication therapy management services" means a distinct service or group of services offered by licensed pharmacists, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice nurses authorized in a written agreement with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistants authorized in guidelines by a supervising physician that optimize therapeutic outcomes for individual patients through improved medication use. In a retail or other non-hospital pharmacy, medication therapy management services shall consist of the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient medication records to resolve conflicts with the following:

(1) known allergies;

(2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;

(3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications;

(4) reasonable directions for use;

(5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions;

(6) drug-drug interactions;

(7) drug-food interactions;

(8) drug-disease contraindications;

(9) identification of therapeutic duplication;

(10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available;

(11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and

(12) drug abuse and misuse. "Medication therapy management services" includes the following:

(1) documenting the services delivered and communicating the information provided to patients' prescribers within an appropriate time frame, not to exceed 48 hours;

(2) providing patient counseling designed to enhance a patient's understanding and the appropriate use of his or her medications; and

(3) providing information, support services, and resources designed to enhance a patient's adherence with his or her prescribed therapeutic regimens.

"Medication therapy management services" may also include patient care functions authorized by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for his or her identified patient or groups of patients under specified conditions or limitations in a standing order from the physician. "Medication therapy management services" in a licensed hospital may also include the following:

(1) reviewing assessments of the patient's health status; and

(2) following protocols of a hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee with respect to the fulfillment of medication orders.

(bb) "Pharmacist care" means the provision by a pharmacist of medication therapy management services, with or without the dispensing of drugs or devices, intended to achieve outcomes that improve patient health, quality of life, and comfort and enhance patient safety.

(cc) "Protected health information" means individually identifiable health information that, except as otherwise provided, is:

(1) transmitted by electronic media;

(2) maintained in any medium set forth in the definition of "electronic media" in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; or

(3) transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium. "Protected health information" does not include individually identifiable health information found in:

(1) education records covered by the federal Family Educational Right and Privacy Act; or

(2) employment records held by a licensee in its role as an employer.

(dd) "Standing order" means a specific order for a patient or group of patients issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois.

(ee) "Address of record" means the address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(ff) "Home pharmacy" means the location of a pharmacy's primary operations.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-673, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1353, eff. 7-28-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 420. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 20.5, 24, and 24.2 as follows:

(225 ILCS 100/20.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 20.5. Delegation of authority to advanced practice nurses.

(a) A podiatrist in active clinical practice may collaborate with an advanced practice nurse in accordance with the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration shall be for the purpose of providing podiatric consultation and no employment relationship shall be required. A written collaborative agreement shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act. The written collaborative agreement shall be for services the collaborating podiatrist generally provides to his or her patients in the normal course of clinical podiatric practice, except as set forth in item (3) of this subsection (a). A written collaborative agreement and podiatric collaboration and consultation shall be adequate with respect to advanced practice nurses if all of the following apply:

(1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse commensurate with his or her education and experience. The agreement need not describe the exact steps that an advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each specific condition, disease, or symptom, but must specify which procedures require a podiatrist's presence as the procedures are being performed.

(2) Practice guidelines and orders are developed and approved jointly by the advanced practice nurse and collaborating podiatrist, as needed, based on the practice of the practitioners. Such guidelines and orders and the patient services provided thereunder are periodically reviewed by the collaborating podiatrist.

(3) The advance practice nurse provides services that the collaborating podiatrist generally provides to his or her patients in the normal course of clinical practice. With respect to the provision of anesthesia services by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, the collaborating podiatrist must have training and experience in the delivery of anesthesia consistent with Department rules.

(4) The collaborating podiatrist and the advanced practice nurse consult at least once a month to provide collaboration and consultation.

(5) Methods of communication are available with the collaborating podiatrist in person or through telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and referral as needed to address patient care needs.

(6) With respect to the provision of anesthesia services by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, physician, or podiatrist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. The anesthesiologist or operating podiatrist must agree with the anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of services.

(7) The agreement contains provisions detailing notice for termination or change of status involving a written collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given for just cause.

(b) The collaborating podiatrist shall have access to the records of all patients attended to by an advanced practice nurse.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a podiatrist to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other appropriately trained persons.

(d) A podiatrist shall not be liable for the acts or omissions of an advanced practice nurse solely on the basis of having signed guidelines or a collaborative agreement, an order, a standing order, a standing delegation order, or other order or guideline authorizing an advanced practice nurse to perform acts, unless the podiatrist has reason to believe the advanced practice nurse lacked the competency to perform the act or acts or commits willful or wanton misconduct.

(e) (f) A podiatrist, may, but is not required to delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-618, eff. 1-1-10; 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; revised 11-18-11.)

(225 ILCS 100/24) (from Ch. 111, par. 4824)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 24. Grounds for disciplinary action. The Department may refuse to issue, may refuse to renew, may refuse to restore, may suspend, or may revoke any license, or may place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation upon anyone licensed under this Act for any of the following reasons:

(1) Making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violations of this Act, or of the rules or regulations promulgated hereunder.

(3) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United States or any state or territory of the United States that is a misdemeanor, of which an essential element is dishonesty, or of any crime that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licenses, or violating any provision of this Act or the rules promulgated thereunder pertaining to advertising.

(5) Professional incompetence.

(6) Gross or repeated malpractice or negligence.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

(8) Failing, within 30 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(10) Habitual or excessive use of alcohol, narcotics, stimulants or other chemical agent or drug that results in the inability to practice podiatric medicine with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(11) Discipline by another United States jurisdiction if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(12) Violation of the prohibition against fee splitting in Section 24.2 of this Act. , Nothing in this paragraph (12) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (12) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(13) A finding by the Podiatric Medical Licensing Board that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(14) Abandonment of a patient.

(15) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including but not limited to false records filed with state agencies or departments.

(16) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Report Act.

(17) Physical illness, mental illness, or other impairment, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(18) Solicitation of professional services other than permitted advertising.

(19) The determination by a circuit court that a licensed podiatric physician is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Podiatric Medical Licensing Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(20) Holding oneself out to treat human ailments under any name other than his or her own, or the impersonation of any other physician.

(21) Revocation or suspension or other action taken with respect to a podiatric medical license in another jurisdiction that would constitute disciplinary action under this Act.

(22) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances or goods provided for a patient in such manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the podiatric physician.

(23) Gross, willful, and continued overcharging for professional services including filing false statements for collection of fees for those services, including, but not limited to, filing false statement for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code or other private or public third party payor.

(24) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(25) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice of podiatric medicine, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(26) (Blank).

(27) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act including, sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice.

(28) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(29) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against him or her by another licensing jurisdiction (another state or a territory of the United States or a foreign state or country) by a peer review body, by any health care institution, by a professional society or association related to practice under this Act, by a governmental agency, by a law enforcement agency, or by a court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

Upon receipt of a written communication from the Secretary of Human Services, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Director of Public Aid), or the Director of Public Health that continuation of practice of a person licensed under this Act constitutes an immediate danger to the public, the Secretary may immediately suspend the license of such person without a hearing. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay, such hearing held to determine whether to recommend to the Secretary that the person's license be revoked, suspended, placed on probationary status or reinstated, or such person be subject to other disciplinary action. In such hearing, the written communication and any other evidence submitted therewith may be introduced as evidence against such person; provided, however, the person or his counsel shall have the opportunity to discredit or impeach such evidence and submit evidence rebutting the same.

Except for fraud in procuring a license, all proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described in this Section. Except for the grounds set forth in items (8), (9), (26), and (29) of this Section, no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have been a violation of this Section. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such claim, cause of action, or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of 2 years from the date of notification to the Department under Section 26 of this Act of such settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 24 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 95-235, eff. 8-17-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1158, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10; revised 1-3-11.)

(225 ILCS 100/24.2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 24.2. Prohibition against fee splitting.

(a) A licensee under this Act may not directly or indirectly divide, share, or split any professional fee or other form of compensation for professional services with anyone in exchange for a referral or otherwise, other than as provided in this Section 24.2.

(b) Nothing contained in this Section abrogates the right of 2 or more licensed health care workers as defined in the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act to each receive adequate compensation for concurrently rendering services to a patient and to divide the fee for such service, whether or not the worker is employed, provided that the patient has full knowledge of the division and the division is made in proportion to the actual services personally performed and responsibility assumed by each licensee consistent with his or her license, except as prohibited by law.

(c) Nothing contained in this Section prohibits a licensee under this Act from practicing podiatry through or within any form of legal entity authorized to conduct business in this State or from pooling, sharing, dividing, or apportioning the professional fees and other revenues in accordance with the agreements and policies of the entity provided:

(1) each owner of the entity is licensed under this Act; or

(2) the entity is organized under the Professional Services Corporation Act, the Professional Association Act, or the Limited Liability Company Act; or

(3) the entity is allowed by Illinois law to provide podiatry services or employ podiatrists such as a licensed hospital or hospital affiliate or licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center owned in full or in part by Illinois-licensed physicians; or

(4) the entity is a combination or joint venture of the entities authorized under this subsection (c).

(d) Nothing contained in this Section prohibits a licensee under this Act from paying a fair market value fee to any person or entity whose purpose is to perform billing, administrative preparation, or collection services based upon a percentage of professional service fees billed or collected, a flat fee, or any other arrangement that directly or indirectly divides professional fees, for the administrative preparation of the licensee's claims or the collection of the licensee's charges for professional services, provided that:

(1) the licensee or the licensee's practice under subsection (c) of this Section at all times controls the amount of fees charged and collected; and

(2) all charges collected are paid directly to the licensee or the licensee's practice or are deposited directly into an account in the name of and under the sole control of the licensee or the licensee's practice or deposited into a "Trust Account" by a licensed collection agency in accordance with the requirements of Section 8(c) of the Illinois Collection Agency Act.

(e) Nothing contained in this Section prohibits the granting of a security interest in the accounts receivable or fees of a licensee under this Act or the licensee's practice for bona fide advances made to the licensee or licensee's practice provided the licensee retains control and responsibility for the collection of the accounts receivable and fees.

(f) Excluding payments that may be made to the owners of or licensees in the licensee's practice under subsection (c) of this Section, a licensee under this Act may not divide, share or split a professional service fee with, or otherwise directly or indirectly pay a percentage of the licensee's professional service fees, revenues or profits to anyone for: (i) the marketing or management of the licensee's practice, (ii) including the licensee or the licensee's practice on any preferred provider list, (iii) allowing the licensee to participate in any network of health care providers, (iv) negotiating fees, charges or terms of service or payment on behalf of the licensee, or (v) including the licensee in a program whereby patients or beneficiaries are provided an incentive to use the services of the licensee.

(g) Nothing contained in this Section prohibits the payment of rent or other remunerations paid to an individual, partnership, or corporation by a licensee for the lease, rental, or use of space, owned or controlled by the individual, partnership, corporation, or association.

(h) Nothing contained in this Section prohibits the payment, at no more than fair market value, to an individual, partnership, or corporation by a licensee for the use of staff, administrative services, franchise agreements, marketing required by franchise agreements, or equipment owned or controlled by the individual, partnership, or corporation, or the receipt thereof by a licensee.

(i) Nothing in this Section affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(Source: P.A. 96-1158, eff. 1-1-11; incorporates P.A. 96-1482, eff. 11-29-11; revised 1-3-11.)

Section 425. The Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act is amended by changing Section 13 as follows:

(225 ILCS 105/13) (from Ch. 111, par. 5013)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 13. Tickets; tax. Tickets to professional or amateur contests, or a combination of both, shall be printed in such form as the Department shall prescribe. A certified inventory of all tickets printed for any professional or amateur contest, or a combination of both, shall be mailed to the Department by the promoter not less than 7 days before the contest. The total number of tickets printed shall not exceed the total seating capacity of the premises in which the professional or amateur contest, or a combination of both, is to be held. No tickets of admission to any professional or amateur contest, or a combination of both, shall be sold except those declared on an official ticket inventory as described in this Section.

(a) A promoter who conducts a professional or a combination of a professional and amateur contest under this Act shall, within 24 hours after such a contest:

(1) furnish to the Department a written report verified by the promoter or his authorized designee showing the number of tickets sold for such a contest or the actual ticket stubs of tickets sold and the amount of the gross proceeds thereof; and

(2) pay to the Department a tax of 5% of gross receipts from the sale of admission tickets, not to exceed $52,500, to be collected by the Department and placed in the Athletics Supervision and Regulation Fund, a special fund created in the State Treasury to be administered by the Department.

Moneys in the Athletics Supervision and Regulation Fund shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, for expenses incurred in administering this Act. Moneys in the Fund may be transferred to the Professions Indirect Cost Fund, as authorized under Section 2105-300 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law.

In addition to the payment of any other taxes and money due under this Section subsection (a), every promoter of a professional or a combination of a professional and amateur contest shall pay to the Department 3% of the first $500,000 and 4% thereafter, which shall not exceed $35,000 in total from the total gross receipts from the sale, lease, or other exploitation of broadcasting, including, but not limited to, Internet, cable, television, and motion picture rights for that professional or professional and amateur combination contest or exhibition without any deductions for commissions, brokerage fees, distribution fees, advertising, professional contestants' purses, or any other expenses or charges. These fees shall be paid to the Department within 72 hours after the broadcast of the contest and placed in the Athletics Supervision and Regulation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 430. The Wholesale Drug Distribution Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 55 as follows:

(225 ILCS 120/55) (from Ch. 111, par. 8301-55)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2013)

Sec. 55. Discipline; grounds.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, restore, or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper for any of the following reasons:

(1) Violation of this Act or its rules.

(2) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(3) Failing, within 60 days, to respond to a written requirement made by the Department for information.

(4) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public. This includes violations of "good faith" as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and applies to all prescription drugs.

(5) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act.

(6) Selling or engaging in the sale of drug samples provided at no cost by drug manufacturers.

(7) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere by the applicant or licensee, or any officer, director, manager or shareholder who owns more than 5% of stock, to any crime under the laws of the United States or any state or territory of the United States that is a felony or a misdemeanor, of which an essential element is dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the practice of this profession .

(8) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in the inability to function with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue, restore, or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper property including fines not to exceed $10,000 per offense for any of the following reasons:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license.

(3) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(4) A finding that licensure or registration has been applied for or obtained by fraudulent means.

(5) Willfully making or filing false records or reports.

(6) A finding of a substantial discrepancy in a Department audit of a prescription drug, including a controlled substance as that term is defined in this Act or in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(c) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license or registration of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until the time the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied.

(d) The Department shall revoke the license or certificate of registration issued under this Act or any prior Act of this State of any person who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license or certificate of registration issued under this Act or any prior Act of this State is revoked under this subsection (c) shall be prohibited from engaging in the practice of pharmacy in this State.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 435. The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act is amended by changing Section 50 as follows:

(225 ILCS 130/50)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 50. Registration requirements; surgical technologist. A person shall qualify for registration as a surgical technologist if he or she has applied in writing on the prescribed form, has paid the required fees, and meets all of the following requirements:

(1) Is at least 18 years of age.

(2) Has not violated a provision of Section 95 of this Act. In addition the Department may take into consideration any felony conviction of the applicant, but a conviction shall not operate as an absolute bar to registration.

(3) Has completed a surgical technologist program approved by the Department.

(4) Has successfully completed the surgical technologist national certification examination provided by the Liaison Council on Certification for the Surgical Technologist or its successor agency.

(5) (Blank).

(6) Is currently certified by the Liaison Council on Certification for the Surgical Technologist or its successor agency and has met the requirements set forth for certification.

(Source: P.A. 93-280, eff. 7-1-04; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 440. The Genetic Counselor Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 95 as follows:

(225 ILCS 135/95)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2015)

Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary action as the Department deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $1,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or more of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or to any other State agency.

(2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard of this Act, or any of its rules.

(3) Conviction of any crime under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof that is a felony, a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or a crime that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(5) Gross negligence in the rendering of genetic counseling services.

(6) Failure to provide genetic testing results and any requested information to a referring physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or any rules.

(8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Department.

(10) Failing to maintain the confidentiality of any information received from a client, unless otherwise authorized or required by law.

(10.5) Failure to maintain client records of services provided and provide copies to clients upon request.

(11) Exploiting a client for personal advantage, profit, or interest.

(12) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in inability to practice with reasonable skill, judgment, or safety.

(13) Discipline by another jurisdiction, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(14) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional service not actually rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (14) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (14) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(15) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having the license placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation.

(16) Failing to refer a client to other health care professionals when the licensee is unable or unwilling to adequately support or serve the client.

(17) Willfully filing false reports relating to a licensee's practice, including but not limited to false records filed with federal or State agencies or departments.

(18) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(19) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(20) Physical or mental disability, including deterioration through the aging process or loss of abilities and skills which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(21) Solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising.

(22) Failure to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty of interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue or any successor agency or the Internal Revenue Service or any successor agency.

(23) A finding that licensure has been applied for or obtained by fraudulent means.

(24) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name other than the full name as shown on the license or any other legally authorized name.

(25) Gross overcharging for professional services, including filing statements for collection of fees or monies for which services are not rendered.

(26) Providing genetic counseling services to individuals, couples, groups, or families without a referral from either a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make referrals to a genetic counselor, or a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to make referrals to genetic counselors.

(b) The Department shall deny, without hearing, any application or renewal for a license under this Act to any person who has defaulted on an educational loan guaranteed by the Illinois State Assistance Commission; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the person in default has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission.

(c) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code will result in an automatic suspension of his or her license. The suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the determination of the Director that the licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.

(Source: P.A. 96-1313, eff. 7-27-10; 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10; revised 12-17-10.)

Section 445. The Pyrotechnic Distributor and Operator Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 95 as follows:

(225 ILCS 227/95)

Sec. 95. Display Reports. A lead pyrotechnic operator shall file an Illinois Display Report, which shall include the names and signatures of all lead pyrotechnic operators and assistants participating in the pyrotechnic display or pyrotechnic service and the name, department, and signature of the fire protection jurisdiction, with the Office within 30 days following any pyrotechnic display or pyrotechnic service. The fire protection jurisdiction shall sign the Illinois Ilinois Display Report if the information therein is true and correct.

(Source: P.A. 96-708, eff. 8-25-09; 97-164, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 450. The Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989 is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 330/5) (from Ch. 111, par. 3255)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 5. Practice of land surveying defined. Any person who practices in Illinois as a professional land surveyor who renders, offers to render, or holds himself or herself out as able to render, or perform any service, the adequate performance of which involves the special knowledge of the art and application of the principles of the accurate and precise measurement of length, angle, elevation or volume, mathematics, the related physical and applied sciences, and the relevant requirements of law, all of which are acquired by education, training, experience, and examination. Any one or combination of the following practices constitutes the practice of land surveying:

(a) Establishing or reestablishing, locating, defining, and making or monumenting land boundaries or title or real property lines and the platting of lands and subdivisions;

(b) Establishing the area or volume of any portion of the earth's surface, subsurface, or airspace with respect to boundary lines, determining the configuration or contours of any portion of the earth's surface, subsurface, or airspace or the location of fixed objects thereon, except as performed by photogrammetric methods or except when the level of accuracy required is less than the level of accuracy required by the National Society of Professional Surveyors Model Standards and Practice;

(c) Preparing descriptions for the determination of title or real property rights to any portion or volume of the earth's surface, subsurface, or airspace involving the lengths and direction of boundary lines, areas, parts of platted parcels or the contours of the earth's surface, subsurface, or airspace;

(d) Labeling, designating, naming, or otherwise identifying legal lines or land title lines of the United States Rectangular System or any subdivision thereof on any plat, map, exhibit, photograph, photographic composite, or mosaic or photogrammetric map of any portion of the earth's surface for the purpose of recording the same in the Office of Recorder in any county;

(e) Any act or combination of acts that would be viewed as offering professional land surveying services including:

(1) setting monuments which have the appearance of or for the express purpose of marking land boundaries, either directly or as an accessory;

(2) providing any sketch, map, plat, report, monument record, or other document which indicates land boundaries and monuments, or accessory monuments thereto, except that if the sketch, map, plat, report, monument record, or other document is a copy of an original prepared by a Professional Land Surveyor, and if proper reference to that fact be made on that document;

(3) performing topographic surveys, with the exception of a licensed professional engineer knowledgeable in topographical surveys that performs a topographical survey specific to his or her design project. A licensed professional engineer may not, however, offer topographic surveying services that are independent of his or her specific design project; or

(4) locating, relocating, establishing, re-establishing, retracing, laying out, or staking of the location, alignment, or elevation of any proposed improvements whose location is dependent upon property lines;

(f) Determining the horizontal or vertical position or state plane coordinates for any monument or reference point that marks a title or real property line, boundary, or corner, or to set, reset, or replace any monument or reference point on any title or real property;

(g) Creating, preparing, or modifying electronic or computerized data or maps, including land information systems and geographic information systems, relative to the performance of activities in items (a), (b), (d), (e), (f), and (h) of this Section, except where electronic means or computerized data is otherwise utilized to integrate, display, represent, or assess the created, prepared, or modified data;

(h) Establishing or adjusting any control network or any geodetic control network or cadastral data as it pertains to items (a) through (g) of this Section together with the assignment of measured values to any United States Rectangular System corners, title or real property corner monuments or geodetic monuments;

(i) Preparing and attesting to the accuracy of a map or plat showing the land boundaries or lines and marks and monuments of the boundaries or of a map or plat showing the boundaries of surface, subsurface, or air rights;

(j) Executing and issuing certificates, endorsements, reports, or plats that portray the horizontal or vertical relationship between existing physical objects or structures and one or more corners, datums, or boundaries of any portion of the earth's surface, subsurface, or airspace;

(k) Acting in direct supervision and control of land surveying activities or acting as a manager in any place of business that solicits, performs, or practices land surveying;

(l) Offering or soliciting to perform any of the services set forth in this Section. ;

In the performance of any of the foregoing functions, a licensee shall adhere to the standards of professional conduct enumerated in 68 Ill. Adm. Code 1270.57. Nothing contained in this Section imposes upon a person licensed under this Act the responsibility for the performance of any of the foregoing functions unless such person specifically contracts to perform such functions.

(Source: P.A. 96-626, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 455. The Real Estate License Act of 2000 is amended by changing Section 20-20 as follows:

(225 ILCS 454/20-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 20-20. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, may place on probation, suspend, or revoke any license, reprimand, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper or impose a fine not to exceed $25,000 upon any licensee under this Act or against a licensee in handling his or her own property, whether held by deed, option, or otherwise, for any one or any combination of the following causes:

(1) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(2) The conviction of, plea of guilty or plea of nolo contendere contendre to a felony or misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty or fraud or larceny, embezzlement, or obtaining money, property, or credit by false pretenses or by means of a confidence game, in this State, or any other jurisdiction.

(3) Inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of a physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, or a mental illness or disability.

(4) Practice under this Act as a licensee in a retail sales establishment from an office, desk, or space that is not separated from the main retail business by a separate and distinct area within the establishment.

(5) Disciplinary action of another state or jurisdiction against the license or other authorization to practice as a managing broker, broker, salesperson, or leasing agent if at least one of the grounds for that discipline is the same as or the equivalent of one of the grounds for discipline set forth in this Act. A certified copy of the record of the action by the other state or jurisdiction shall be prima facie evidence thereof.

(6) Engaging in the practice of real estate brokerage without a license or after the licensee's license was expired or while the license was inoperative.

(7) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the Real Estate License Exam or continuing education exam.

(8) Aiding or abetting an applicant to subvert or cheat on the Real Estate License Exam or continuing education exam administered pursuant to this Act.

(9) Advertising that is inaccurate, misleading, or contrary to the provisions of the Act.

(10) Making any substantial misrepresentation or untruthful advertising.

(11) Making any false promises of a character likely to influence, persuade, or induce.

(12) Pursuing a continued and flagrant course of misrepresentation or the making of false promises through licensees, employees, agents, advertising, or otherwise.

(13) Any misleading or untruthful advertising, or using any trade name or insignia of membership in any real estate organization of which the licensee is not a member.

(14) Acting for more than one party in a transaction without providing written notice to all parties for whom the licensee acts.

(15) Representing or attempting to represent a broker other than the sponsoring broker.

(16) Failure to account for or to remit any moneys or documents coming into his or her possession that belong to others.

(17) Failure to maintain and deposit in a special account, separate and apart from personal and other business accounts, all escrow moneys belonging to others entrusted to a licensee while acting as a real estate broker, escrow agent, or temporary custodian of the funds of others or failure to maintain all escrow moneys on deposit in the account until the transactions are consummated or terminated, except to the extent that the moneys, or any part thereof, shall be:

(A) disbursed prior to the consummation or termination (i) in accordance with the written direction of the principals to the transaction or their duly authorized agents, (ii) in accordance with directions providing for the release, payment, or distribution of escrow moneys contained in any written contract signed by the principals to the transaction or their duly authorized agents, or (iii) pursuant to an order of a court of competent jurisdiction; or

(B) deemed abandoned and transferred to the Office of the State Treasurer to be handled as unclaimed property pursuant to the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act. Escrow moneys may be deemed abandoned under this subparagraph (B) only: (i) in the absence of disbursement under subparagraph (A); (ii) in the absence of notice of the filing of any claim in a court of competent jurisdiction; and (iii) if 6 months have elapsed after the receipt of a written demand for the escrow moneys from one of the principals to the transaction or the principal's duly authorized agent.

The account shall be noninterest bearing, unless the character of the deposit is such that payment of interest thereon is otherwise required by law or unless the principals to the transaction specifically require, in writing, that the deposit be placed in an interest bearing account.

(18) Failure to make available to the Department all escrow records and related documents maintained in connection with the practice of real estate within 24 hours of a request for those documents by Department personnel.

(19) Failing to furnish copies upon request of documents relating to a real estate transaction to a party who has executed that document.

(20) Failure of a sponsoring broker to timely provide information, sponsor cards, or termination of licenses to the Department.

(21) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(22) Commingling the money or property of others with his or her own money or property.

(23) Employing any person on a purely temporary or single deal basis as a means of evading the law regarding payment of commission to nonlicensees on some contemplated transactions.

(24) Permitting the use of his or her license as a broker to enable a salesperson or unlicensed person to operate a real estate business without actual participation therein and control thereof by the broker.

(25) Any other conduct, whether of the same or a different character from that specified in this Section, that constitutes dishonest dealing.

(26) Displaying a "for rent" or "for sale" sign on any property without the written consent of an owner or his or her duly authorized agent or advertising by any means that any property is for sale or for rent without the written consent of the owner or his or her authorized agent.

(27) Failing to provide information requested by the Department, or otherwise respond to that request, within 30 days of the request.

(28) Advertising by means of a blind advertisement, except as otherwise permitted in Section 10-30 of this Act.

(29) Offering guaranteed sales plans, as defined in clause (A) of this subdivision (29), except to the extent hereinafter set forth:

(A) A "guaranteed sales plan" is any real estate purchase or sales plan whereby a licensee enters into a conditional or unconditional written contract with a seller, prior to entering into a brokerage agreement with the seller, by the terms of which a licensee agrees to purchase a property of the seller within a specified period of time at a specific price in the event the property is not sold in accordance with the terms of a brokerage agreement to be entered into between the sponsoring broker and the seller.

(B) A licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan shall provide the details and conditions of the plan in writing to the party to whom the plan is offered.

(C) A licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan shall provide to the party to whom the plan is offered evidence of sufficient financial resources to satisfy the commitment to purchase undertaken by the broker in the plan.

(D) Any licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan shall undertake to market the property of the seller subject to the plan in the same manner in which the broker would market any other property, unless the agreement with the seller provides otherwise.

(E) The licensee cannot purchase seller's property until the brokerage agreement has ended according to its terms or is otherwise terminated.

(F) Any licensee who fails to perform on a guaranteed sales plan in strict accordance with its terms shall be subject to all the penalties provided in this Act for violations thereof and, in addition, shall be subject to a civil fine payable to the party injured by the default in an amount of up to $25,000.

(30) Influencing or attempting to influence, by any words or acts, a prospective seller, purchaser, occupant, landlord, or tenant of real estate, in connection with viewing, buying, or leasing real estate, so as to promote or tend to promote the continuance or maintenance of racially and religiously segregated housing or so as to retard, obstruct, or discourage racially integrated housing on or in any street, block, neighborhood, or community.

(31) Engaging in any act that constitutes a violation of any provision of Article 3 of the Illinois Human Rights Act, whether or not a complaint has been filed with or adjudicated by the Human Rights Commission.

(32) Inducing any party to a contract of sale or lease or brokerage agreement to break the contract of sale or lease or brokerage agreement for the purpose of substituting, in lieu thereof, a new contract for sale or lease or brokerage agreement with a third party.

(33) Negotiating a sale, exchange, or lease of real estate directly with any person if the licensee knows that the person has an exclusive brokerage agreement with another broker, unless specifically authorized by that broker.

(34) When a licensee is also an attorney, acting as the attorney for either the buyer or the seller in the same transaction in which the licensee is acting or has acted as a broker or salesperson.

(35) Advertising or offering merchandise or services as free if any conditions or obligations necessary for receiving the merchandise or services are not disclosed in the same advertisement or offer. These conditions or obligations include without limitation the requirement that the recipient attend a promotional activity or visit a real estate site. As used in this subdivision (35), "free" includes terms such as "award", "prize", "no charge", "free of charge", "without charge", and similar words or phrases that reasonably lead a person to believe that he or she may receive or has been selected to receive something of value, without any conditions or obligations on the part of the recipient.

(36) Disregarding or violating any provision of the Land Sales Registration Act of 1989, the Illinois Real Estate Time-Share Act, or the published rules promulgated by the Department to enforce those Acts.

(37) Violating the terms of a disciplinary order issued by the Department.

(38) Paying or failing to disclose compensation in violation of Article 10 of this Act.

(39) Requiring a party to a transaction who is not a client of the licensee to allow the licensee to retain a portion of the escrow moneys for payment of the licensee's commission or expenses as a condition for release of the escrow moneys to that party.

(40) Disregarding or violating any provision of this Act or the published rules promulgated by the Department to enforce this Act or aiding or abetting any individual, partnership, registered limited liability partnership, limited liability company, or corporation in disregarding any provision of this Act or the published rules promulgated by the Department to enforce this Act.

(41) Failing to provide the minimum services required by Section 15-75 of this Act when acting under an exclusive brokerage agreement.

(42) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in a managing broker, broker, salesperson, or leasing agent's inability to practice with reasonable skill or safety.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of that tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 95-851, eff. 1-1-09; 96-856, eff. 12-31-09; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 460. The Nurse Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(225 ILCS 510/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 953)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Certified nurse aide" means an individual certified as defined in Section 3-206 of the Nursing Home Care Act, Section 3-206 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or Section 3-206 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, as now or hereafter amended.

(b) "Department" means the Department of Labor.

(c) "Director" means the Director of Labor.

(d) "Health care facility" is defined as in Section 3 of the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act, as now or hereafter amended.

(e) "Licensee" means any nursing agency which is properly licensed under this Act.

(f) "Nurse" means a registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse as defined in the Nurse Practice Act.

(g) "Nurse agency" means any individual, firm, corporation, partnership or other legal entity that employs, assigns or refers nurses or certified nurse aides to a health care facility for a fee. The term "nurse agency" includes nurses registries. The term "nurse agency" does not include services provided by home health agencies licensed and operated under the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act or a licensed or certified individual who provides his or her own services as a regular employee of a health care facility, nor does it apply to a health care facility's organizing nonsalaried employees to provide services only in that facility.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 465. The Private Employment Agency Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 515/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 904)

Sec. 4. It shall be unlawful for any person to act as an employment counsellor, or to advertise, or assume to act as an employment counsellor, without first obtaining a license as such employment counsellor, from the Department of Labor. It shall be unlawful for any person to engage in, operate or carry on the business of an employment agency unless each employee of such agency, who furnishes information to any person as to where employees or employment may be obtained or found, is a licensed employment counsellor. Where the license to conduct an employment agency is issued to a corporation and any officer of the corporation performs any function defined as those to be performed by an employment counsellor, he shall be considered an employee of the corporation and shall be required to secure a license as an employment counsellor.

Every person who desires to obtain a license, as employment counsellor, shall apply therefor to the Department of Labor, in writing, upon application blanks prepared and furnished by the Department of Labor. Each applicant shall set out in said application blanks such information as the Department may require, and said applications shall be accompanied by a permit fee of $50 and the affidavits of two persons of business or professional integrity. Such affiants shall state that they have known the applicant for a period of two years and that the applicant is a person of good moral character.

The Department shall issue to such person a temporary permit to act as an employment counsellor which permit shall be valid for 90 days pending examination of such person when:

(a) the applicant is employed by an employment agency, and the application states the name and address of such employment agency; and

(b) the applicant declares under oath his intention that he will complete the examination for the employment agency counsellor's license on a date scheduled for such examination by the Department of Labor within 60 days of the date of application.

Commencing January 1, 1974 the Department shall not issue a license to act as an employment counsellor counselor to any person not previously licensed as such employment counsellor counselor on such date unless he has taken and successfully completed a written examination based upon this Act. The Department of Labor shall conduct such examination at such times and places as it shall determine, but not less than once each month. The examination shall test the applicant's knowledge of the employment agency law, pertinent labor laws and laws against discrimination in employment. Upon successful completion of the written examination and providing the requirements of this Section are met, the Department shall issue a license to act as an employment counsellor and no additional licensing fee shall be required.

In the event of failure to appear for the examination as scheduled or if the applicant appears and fails to pass, such person shall pay a fee of $10 for rescheduling at a later date. No person may be rescheduled for examination more than twice in any calendar year except in the event that he has failed to appear for examination and such failure to appear was not willful but was the result of illness of the applicant or a member of his immediate family or of some other emergency.

The Department of Labor may require such other proof as to the honesty, truthfulness and integrity of the applicant, as may be deemed necessary and desirable. If the applicant is shown to be honest, truthful and of known integrity, and has successfully completed the written examination required under this Section, the Department of Labor shall issue a license, which license shall set out the true name and address of the applicant, the name of the Employment agency by whom he is employed, and such additional information as the Department may prescribe. The license issued shall authorize the person named therein to act as an employment counsellor. Such license may be renewed at the end of each year by the payment of a renewal fee of $25.

The applicant must furnish satisfactory proof to the Department that he has never been a party to any fraud, has no jail record, belongs to no subversive societies and is of good moral character and business integrity.

In determining honesty, truthfulness, integrity, moral character and business integrity under this Section, the Department may take into consideration any felony conviction of the applicant, but such a conviction shall not operate as a bar to licensing.

The license of the employment counsellor shall be mailed to the employment agency by which he is employed, and shall be kept in the office of such agency and produced for inspection by any agent of the Department of Labor, at any time during business hours.

The Department of Labor, upon its own motion, or upon the filing of a verified complaint with the department, by any person, accompanied by such evidence, documentary or otherwise, as makes out a prima facie case that the licensee is unworthy to hold a license, shall notify the employment counsellor in writing that the question of his honesty, truthfulness, integrity, moral character, business integrity or felony conviction is to be reopened and determined, de novo. This notice shall be served by delivering a copy to the licensed person, or by mailing a copy to him, by registered mail, at his last known business address. Thereupon, the Department of Labor shall require further proof of the licensee's honesty, truthfulness, integrity, moral character and business integrity, and if the proof is not satisfactory to the Department of Labor, it shall revoke his license.

If any employment counsellor is discharged or terminates his employment with the agency by which he is employed, such agency shall immediately deliver, or forward by mail, the employment counsellor's license, to the Department of Labor, together with the reasons for his discharge, if he was discharged. Failure to state that the employment counsellor was discharged will be conclusively presumed to indicate that he terminated his services voluntarily. Thereafter, it shall be unlawful for the employment counsellor to exercise any rights or privileges under such license, unless the Department of Labor transfers his license to another employment agency.

Each employment counsellor shall notify the Department of Labor of any change in his residence address. Failure to give such notice shall automatically work a revocation of his license.

The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

Any person who violates any provisions of this section or who testifies falsely as to any matter required by the provisions of this section or of this Act, is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 85-1408; revised 11-18-11.)

(225 ILCS 515/5) (from Ch. 111, par. 905)

Sec. 5. No such licensee shall charge a registration fee without having first obtained a permit to charge such registration fee from the Department of Labor. Any such licensee desiring to charge a registration fee shall make application in writing to the Department of Labor, and shall set out in the application the type of applicants from whom they intend to accept a registration fee, the amount of the fee to be charged, and shall furnish any other information on the subject that the Department of Labor may deem necessary to enable it to determine whether the agency's business methods and past record entitle the agency to a permit.

It is the duty of the Department of Labor to make an investigation, upon receipt of the application, as to the truthfulness of the application and the necessity of the charge of a registration fee; and if it is shown that the agency's method of doing business is of such a nature that a permit to charge a registration fee is necessary, and that the agency's record has been reasonable and fair, then the Department of Labor shall grant a permit to such agency. Such permit shall remain in force until revoked for cause. No permit shall be granted until after 10 days from the date of filing of the application.

When a permit is granted, such licensed person may charge a registration fee not to exceed $4. In all such cases a complete record of all such registration fees and references of applicants shall be kept on file, which record shall, during all business hours, be open for the inspection of the Department of Labor. It is the duty of such licensee to communicate in writing with at least 2 of the persons mentioned as reference by every applicant from whom a registration fee is accepted. Failure on the part of a licensee to make such investigation shall be deemed cause to revoke the permit to charge a registration fee. For such registration fee a receipt shall be given to the applicant for employees or employment, and shall state therein the name of such applicant, date and amount of payment, the character of position or employee applied for, and the name and address of such agency. If no position has been furnished by the licensed agency to the applicant, then the registration fee shall be returned to the applicant on demand after 30 days and within 6 months from the date of receipt thereof, less the amount that has been actually expended by the licensee in checking the references of the applicant, and an itemized account of such expenditures shall be presented to the applicant on request at the time of returning the unused portion of such registration fee.

Any such permit granted by the Department of Labor may be revoked by it upon due notice to the holder of said permit and due cause shown and hearing thereon.

No such licensee shall, as a condition to registering or obtaining employment for such applicant, require such applicant to subscribe to any publication or to any postal card service, or advertisement, or exact any other fees, compensation or reward, (except that in the case of applicants for positions paying salaries of $5,000 or more per annum, where the agency has secured from the Department of Labor a permit to furnish a letter service in accordance with regulations of the department governing the furnishing of such service, a special fee not to exceed $250, to be credited on the fee charged for any placement resulting from such letter service, may be charged for furnishing such letter service) other than the aforesaid registration fee and a further fee, called a placement fee, the amount of which shall be agreed upon between such applicant and such licensee to be payable at such time as may be agreed upon in writing. The employment agency shall furnish to each applicant a copy of any contract or any form he signs with the agency regarding the method of payment of the placement or employment service fee. Such contract or form shall contain the name and address of such agency, and such other information as the Department of Labor may deem proper. The contract or form or copy thereof furnished the applicant must state immediately above, below or close to the place provided for the signature of the applicant that he has received a copy of the contract or form and his signature shall acknowledge receipt thereof. The placement or employment service fee shall not be received by such licensee before the applicant has accepted a position tendered by the employer. A copy of each contract or other form to which the applicant becomes a party with the licensee shall be given to the applicant by the licensee at the time of executing such contract or document and on any such form on which the word acceptance appears, and such contract or other form shall have the definition of acceptance as defined by this Act printed in not less than 10 point type immediately following the word acceptance. In the event the position so tendered is not accepted by or given to such applicant, the licensee shall refund all fees paid other than the registration fee and special fee aforesaid, within 3 days of demand therefor. The fee charged for placing an applicant in domestic service shall be a single fee for each placement and shall be based upon the applicant's compensation or salary for a period not to exceed one year.

No such licensee shall send out any applicant for employment unless the licensee has a bona fide job order for such employment and the job order is valid in accordance with the renewal requirements of Section 3 of this Act. If no position of the kind applied for was open at the place where the applicant was directed, then the licensee shall refund to such applicant on demand any sum paid or expended by the applicant for transportation in going to and returning from the place, and all fees paid by the applicant. However, in the event a substitute position is taken, the fee to be charged shall be computed on the salary agreed upon for such position.

In addition to the receipt herein provided to be given for a registration fee, it shall be the duty of such licensee to give to every applicant for employment or employees from whom other fee, or fees shall be received, an additional receipt in which shall be stated the name of the applicant, the amount paid and the date of payment. All such receipts shall be in duplicate, numbered consecutively, shall contain the name and address of such agency, and such other information as the Department of Labor may deem proper. The duplicate receipt shall be kept on file in the agency for at least one year.

Every such licensee shall give to every applicant, who is sent out for a job or for an interview with a prospective employer, a card or printed paper or letter of introduction which shall be called a "referral slip" containing the name of the applicant, the name and address of the employer to whom the applicant is sent for employment, the name and address of the agency, the name of the person referring the applicant, and the probable duration of the work, whether temporary or permanent. The referral slip shall contain a blank space in which the employment counsellor counselor shall insert and specify in a prominent and legible manner whether the employment service fee is to be paid by the applicant or by the employer, or in the case of a split-fee, the percentage of the fee to be paid by the applicant and the percentage of the fee to be paid by the employer, or shall state whether the fee is to be negotiable between the employer and the employee. A duplicate of all such referral slips shall be kept on file in the agency for a period of one year. In the event that the applicant is referred to a job or to a prospective employer by telephone or telegraph, the referral slip shall be mailed to the applicant and to the prospective employer before the close of the business day on which the telephoned or telegraphed referral was given. No person shall be sent out for a job or to interview a prospective employer unless he has been personally interviewed by the agency or has corresponded with the agency with the purpose of securing employment.

If the employer pays the fee, and the employee fails to remain in the position for a period of 30 days, such licensee shall refund to the employer all fees, less an amount equal to 25% of the total salary or wages paid such employee during the period of such employment, within 3 days after the licensed person has been notified of the employee's failure to remain in the employment, provided such 25% does not exceed the amount charged for a permanent position of like nature.

If the employee pays the fee and is discharged at any time within 30 days for any reason other than intoxication, dishonesty, unexcused tardiness, unexcused absenteeism or insubordination, or otherwise fails to remain in the position for a period of 30 days, thru no fault of his own, such licensee shall refund to the employee all fees less an amount equal to 25% of the total salary or wages paid such employee during the period of such employment within 3 days of the time such licensee has been notified of the employee's failure to remain in the employment, provided the 25% does not exceed the charge for a permanent position of like nature. All refunds shall be in cash or negotiable check.

If the employee has promised his prospective employer to report to work at a definite time and place and then fails to report to work, such circumstances shall be considered prima facie evidence that the employee has accepted the employment offered.

Where a dispute concerning a fee exists, the department may conduct a hearing to determine all facts concerning the dispute and shall after such hearing make such recommendations concerning such dispute as shall be reasonable.

Every such licensee shall post in a conspicuous place in the main room of the agency sections of this Act as required by the Department of Labor, to be supplied by the Department of Labor, and shall also post his license in the main room of the agency.

Every such licensee shall furnish the Department of Labor, under rules to be prescribed by such Department, annual statements showing the number and character of placements made.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 470. The Illinois Livestock Dealer Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 19.1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 645/19.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 420.1)

Sec. 19.1. All persons licensed under this Act must also comply with all the provisions of the "Illinois Bovine Brucellosis Eradication Act" and the rules adopted pursuant to that law, the "Illinois Bovidae and Cervidae Tuberculosis Eradication Act" and the rules adopted pursuant to that law, the "Illinois Diseased Animals Act" and the rules adopted pursuant to that law, the "Humane Care for Animals Act" and the rules adopted pursuant to that law, the "Livestock Auction Market Law" and the rules adopted pursuant to that law, and the "Illinois Swine Brucellosis Eradication Act" and the rules adopted pursuant to that law, and the "Illinois Pseudorabies Control Act ct" and the rules adopted pursuant to that law.

(Source: P.A. 90-192, eff. 7-24-97; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 475. The Surface Coal Mining Land Conservation and Reclamation Act is amended by changing Section 1.03 as follows:

(225 ILCS 720/1.03) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 7901.03)

Sec. 1.03. Definitions.

(a) Whenever used or referred to in this Act, unless a different meaning clearly appears from the context:

(1) "Affected land" means:

(A) in the context of surface mining operations, the areas described in Section 1.03(a)(24)(B), and

(B) in the context of underground mining operations, surface areas on which such operations occur or where such activities disturb the natural land surface.

(2) "Approximate original contour" means that surface configuration achieved by backfilling and grading of the mined area so that the reclaimed area, including any terracing or access roads, closely resembles the general surface configuration of the land prior to mining and blends into and complements compliments the drainage pattern of the surrounding terrain, with all highwalls and spoil piles eliminated.

(3) "Article" means an Article of this Act.

(4) "Department" means the Department of Natural Resources, or such department, bureau, or commission as may lawfully succeed to the powers and duties of such Department.

(5) "Director" means the Director of the Department or such officer, bureau or commission as may lawfully succeed to the powers and duties of such Director.

(6) "Federal Act" means the Federal Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (Public Law 95-87).

(7) "Imminent danger to the health and safety of the public" means the existence of any condition or practice, or any violation of a permit or other requirement of this Act in a mining and reclamation operation, which condition, practice, or violation could reasonably be expected to cause substantial physical harm to persons outside the permit area before such condition, practice, or violation can be abated. A reasonable expectation of death or serious injury before abatement exists if a rational person, subjected to the same conditions or practices giving rise to the peril, would not expose himself to the danger during the time necessary for abatement.

(8) (Blank).

(9) "Interagency Committee" means the Interagency Committee on Surface Mining Control and Reclamation created by Section 1.05.

(9-a) "Lands eligible for remining" means those lands that would otherwise be eligible for expenditures under the Abandoned Mined Lands and Water Reclamation Act.

(10) "Mining and reclamation operations" means mining operations and all activities necessary and incident to the reclamation of such operations.

(11) "Mining operations" means both surface mining operations and underground mining operations.

(12) "Operator" means any person engaged in coal mining, and includes political subdivisions, units of local government and instrumentalities of the State of Illinois, and public utilities.

(13) "Permit" means a permit or a revised permit to conduct mining operations and reclamation issued by the Department under this Act.

(14) "Permit applicant" or "applicant" means a person applying for a permit.

(15) "Permit application" or "application" means an application for a permit under this Act.

(16) "Permit area" means the land described in the permit.

(17) "Permittee" means a person holding a permit.

(18) "Permit term" means the period during which the permittee may engage in mining operations under a permit.

(19) "Person" means an individual, partnership, copartnership, firm, joint venture, company, corporation, association, joint stock company, trust, estate, political subdivision, or any other public or private legal entity, or their legal representative, agent or assigns.

(20) "Reclamation" means conditioning areas affected by mining operations to achieve the purposes of this Act.

(21) "Reclamation plan" means a plan described in Section 2.03.

(22) "Regulations" means regulations promulgated under the Federal Act.

(23) "Section" means a section of this Act.

(24) "Surface mining operations" means (A) activities conducted on the surface of lands in connection with a surface coal mine or surface operations. Such activities include excavation for the purpose of obtaining coal including such common methods as contour, strip, auger, mountaintop removal, box cut, open pit, and area mining, coal recovery from coal waste disposal areas, the uses of explosives and blasting, and in situ distillation or retorting, leaching or other chemical or physical processing, and the cleaning, concentrating, or other processing or preparation, loading of coal at or near the mine site; and (B) the areas on which such activities occur or where such activities disturb the natural land surface. Such areas include any adjacent land the use of which is incidental to any such activities, all lands affected by the construction of new roads or the improvement or use of existing roads to gain access to the site of such activities and for haulage, and excavations, workings, impoundments, dams, refuse banks, dumps, stockpiles, overburden piles, spoil banks, culm banks, tailings, holes or depressions, repair areas, storage areas, processing areas, shipping areas and other areas upon which are sited structures, facilities, or other property or materials on the surface, resulting from or incident to such activities.

(25) "Toxic conditions" and "toxic materials" mean any conditions and materials that will not support higher forms of plant or animal life in any place in connection with or as a result of the completion of mining operations.

(26) "Underground mining operations" means the underground excavation of coal and (A) surface operations incident to the underground extraction of coal, such as construction, use, maintenance, and reclamation of roads, above-ground repair areas, storage areas, processing areas, shipping areas, areas on which are sited support facilities including hoist and ventilation ducts, areas used for the storage and disposal of waste, and areas on which materials incident to underground mining operations are placed, and (B) underground operations incident to underground excavation of coal, such as underground construction, operation, and reclamation of shafts, adits, underground support facilities, in situ processing, and underground mining, hauling, storage, or blasting.

(27) "Unwarranted failure to comply" means the failure of a permittee to prevent the occurrence of or to abate any violation of his permit or any requirement of this Act due to indifference, lack of diligence, or lack of reasonable care.

(b) The Department shall by rule define other terms used in this Act if necessary or desirable to achieve the purposes of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 90-490, eff. 8-17-97; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 480. The Illinois Oil and Gas Act is amended by changing Section 18 as follows:

(225 ILCS 725/18) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 5424)

Sec. 18. In no event shall any high explosive be exploded in any well until twenty-four hours' notice of the intention intension has been given to the owner of any working coal seam.

(Source: Laws 1941, vol. 1, p. 934; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 485. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Sections 5-1 and 6-15 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/5-1) (from Ch. 43, par. 115)

Sec. 5-1. Licenses issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall be of the following classes:

(a) Manufacturer's license - Class 1. Distiller, Class 2. Rectifier, Class 3. Brewer, Class 4. First Class Wine Manufacturer, Class 5. Second Class Wine Manufacturer, Class 6. First Class Winemaker, Class 7. Second Class Winemaker, Class 8. Limited Wine Manufacturer, Class 9. Craft Distiller, Class 10. Craft Brewer,

(b) Distributor's license,

(c) Importing Distributor's license,

(d) Retailer's license,

(e) Special Event Retailer's license (not-for-profit),

(f) Railroad license,

(g) Boat license,

(h) Non-Beverage User's license,

(i) Wine-maker's premises license,

(j) Airplane license,

(k) Foreign importer's license,

(l) Broker's license,

(m) Non-resident dealer's license,

(n) Brew Pub license,

(o) Auction liquor license,

(p) Caterer retailer license,

(q) Special use permit license,

(r) Winery shipper's license.

No person, firm, partnership, corporation, or other legal business entity that is engaged in the manufacturing of wine may concurrently obtain and hold a wine-maker's license and a wine manufacturer's license.

(a) A manufacturer's license shall allow the manufacture, importation in bulk, storage, distribution and sale of alcoholic liquor to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law and to licensees in this State as follows:

Class 1. A Distiller may make sales and deliveries of alcoholic liquor to distillers, rectifiers, importing distributors, distributors and non-beverage users and to no other licensees.

Class 2. A Rectifier, who is not a distiller, as defined herein, may make sales and deliveries of alcoholic liquor to rectifiers, importing distributors, distributors, retailers and non-beverage users and to no other licensees.

Class 3. A Brewer may make sales and deliveries of beer to importing distributors and distributors and may make sales as authorized under subsection (e) of Section 6-4 of this Act.

Class 4. A first class wine-manufacturer may make sales and deliveries of up to 50,000 gallons of wine to manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors, and to no other licensees.

Class 5. A second class Wine manufacturer may make sales and deliveries of more than 50,000 gallons of wine to manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors and to no other licensees.

Class 6. A first-class wine-maker's license shall allow the manufacture of up to 50,000 gallons of wine per year, and the storage and sale of such wine to distributors in the State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. A person who, prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, is a holder of a first-class wine-maker's license and annually produces more than 25,000 gallons of its own wine and who distributes its wine to licensed retailers shall cease this practice on or before July 1, 2008 in compliance with this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

Class 7. A second-class wine-maker's license shall allow the manufacture of between 50,000 and 150,000 gallons of wine per year, and the storage and sale of such wine to distributors in this State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. A person who, prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, is a holder of a second-class wine-maker's license and annually produces more than 25,000 gallons of its own wine and who distributes its wine to licensed retailers shall cease this practice on or before July 1, 2008 in compliance with this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

Class 8. A limited wine-manufacturer may make sales and deliveries not to exceed 40,000 gallons of wine per year to distributors, and to non-licensees in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

Class 9. A craft distiller license shall allow the manufacture of up to 15,000 gallons of spirits by distillation per year and the storage of such spirits. If a craft distiller licensee is not affiliated with any other manufacturer, then the craft distiller licensee may sell such spirits to distributors in this State and non-licensees to the extent permitted by any exemption approved by the Commission pursuant to Section 6-4 of this Act.

Any craft distiller licensed under this Act who on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly was licensed as a distiller and manufactured no more spirits than permitted by this Section shall not be required to pay the initial licensing fee.

Class 10. A craft brewer's license, which may only be issued to a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer, shall allow the manufacture of up to 465,000 gallons of beer per year. A craft brewer licensee may make sales and deliveries to importing distributors and distributors and to retail licensees in accordance with the conditions set forth in paragraph (18) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12 of this Act.

(a-1) A manufacturer which is licensed in this State to make sales or deliveries of alcoholic liquor and which enlists agents, representatives, or individuals acting on its behalf who contact licensed retailers on a regular and continual basis in this State must register those agents, representatives, or persons acting on its behalf with the State Commission.

Registration of agents, representatives, or persons acting on behalf of a manufacturer is fulfilled by submitting a form to the Commission. The form shall be developed by the Commission and shall include the name and address of the applicant, the name and address of the manufacturer he or she represents, the territory or areas assigned to sell to or discuss pricing terms of alcoholic liquor, and any other questions deemed appropriate and necessary. All statements in the forms required to be made by law or by rule shall be deemed material, and any person who knowingly misstates any material fact under oath in an application is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Fraud, misrepresentation, false statements, misleading statements, evasions, or suppression of material facts in the securing of a registration are grounds for suspension or revocation of the registration.

(b) A distributor's license shall allow the wholesale purchase and storage of alcoholic liquors and sale of alcoholic liquors to licensees in this State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law.

(c) An importing distributor's license may be issued to and held by those only who are duly licensed distributors, upon the filing of an application by a duly licensed distributor, with the Commission and the Commission shall, without the payment of any fee, immediately issue such importing distributor's license to the applicant, which shall allow the importation of alcoholic liquor by the licensee into this State from any point in the United States outside this State, and the purchase of alcoholic liquor in barrels, casks or other bulk containers and the bottling of such alcoholic liquors before resale thereof, but all bottles or containers so filled shall be sealed, labeled, stamped and otherwise made to comply with all provisions, rules and regulations governing manufacturers in the preparation and bottling of alcoholic liquors. The importing distributor's license shall permit such licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed non-resident dealers and foreign importers only.

(d) A retailer's license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in the license, alcoholic liquor for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. Nothing in this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall deny, limit, remove, or restrict the ability of a holder of a retailer's license to transfer, deliver, or ship alcoholic liquor to the purchaser for use or consumption subject to any applicable local law or ordinance. Any retail license issued to a manufacturer shall only permit the manufacturer to sell beer at retail on the premises actually occupied by the manufacturer. For the purpose of further describing the type of business conducted at a retail licensed premises, a retailer's licensee may be designated by the State Commission as (i) an on premise consumption retailer, (ii) an off premise sale retailer, or (iii) a combined on premise consumption and off premise sale retailer.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (d), a retail licensee may sell alcoholic liquors to a special event retailer licensee for resale to the extent permitted under subsection (e).

(e) A special event retailer's license (not-for-profit) shall permit the licensee to purchase alcoholic liquors from an Illinois licensed distributor (unless the licensee purchases less than $500 of alcoholic liquors for the special event, in which case the licensee may purchase the alcoholic liquors from a licensed retailer) and shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale, at retail, alcoholic liquors for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form and only at the location and on the specific dates designated for the special event in the license. An applicant for a special event retailer license must (i) furnish with the application: (A) a resale number issued under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or evidence that the applicant is registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, (B) a current, valid exemption identification number issued under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and a certification to the Commission that the purchase of alcoholic liquors will be a tax-exempt purchase, or (C) a statement that the applicant is not registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, does not hold a resale number under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and does not hold an exemption number under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, in which event the Commission shall set forth on the special event retailer's license a statement to that effect; (ii) submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance in the maximum limits; and (iii) show proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant has obtained local authority approval.

(f) A railroad license shall permit the licensee to import alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors and importing distributors from within or outside this State; and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be sold or dispensed on a club, buffet, lounge or dining car operated on an electric, gas or steam railway in this State; and provided further, that railroad licensees exercising the above powers shall be subject to all provisions of Article VIII of this Act as applied to importing distributors. A railroad license shall also permit the licensee to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors on any club, buffet, lounge or dining car operated on an electric, gas or steam railway regularly operated by a common carrier in this State, but shall not permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic liquors to any licensee within this State. A license shall be obtained for each car in which such sales are made.

(g) A boat license shall allow the sale of alcoholic liquor in individual drinks, on any passenger boat regularly operated as a common carrier on navigable waters in this State or on any riverboat operated under the Riverboat Gambling Act, which boat or riverboat maintains a public dining room or restaurant thereon.

(h) A non-beverage user's license shall allow the licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from a licensed manufacturer or importing distributor, without the imposition of any tax upon the business of such licensed manufacturer or importing distributor as to such alcoholic liquor to be used by such licensee solely for the non-beverage purposes set forth in subsection (a) of Section 8-1 of this Act, and such licenses shall be divided and classified and shall permit the purchase, possession and use of limited and stated quantities of alcoholic liquor as follows: Class 1, not to exceed ......................... 500 gallons Class 2, not to exceed ....................... 1,000 gallons Class 3, not to exceed ....................... 5,000 gallons Class 4, not to exceed ...................... 10,000 gallons Class 5, not to exceed ....................... 50,000 gallons

(i) A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee that concurrently holds a first-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises specified in such license not more than 50,000 gallons of the first-class wine-maker's wine that is made at the first-class wine-maker's licensed premises per year for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee who concurrently holds a second-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises specified in such license up to 100,000 gallons of the second-class wine-maker's wine that is made at the second-class wine-maker's licensed premises per year for use or consumption but not for resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee that concurrently holds a first-class wine-maker's license or a second-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail at the premises specified in the wine-maker's premises license, for use or consumption but not for resale in any form, any beer, wine, and spirits purchased from a licensed distributor. Upon approval from the State Commission, a wine-maker's premises license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at (i) the wine-maker's licensed premises and (ii) at up to 2 additional locations for use and consumption and not for resale. Each location shall require additional licensing per location as specified in Section 5-3 of this Act. A wine-maker's premises licensee shall secure liquor liability insurance coverage in an amount at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set forth in subsection (a) of Section 6-21 of this Act.

(j) An airplane license shall permit the licensee to import alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors and importing distributors from within or outside this State; and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be sold or dispensed on an airplane; and provided further, that airplane licensees exercising the above powers shall be subject to all provisions of Article VIII of this Act as applied to importing distributors. An airplane licensee shall also permit the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors on any passenger airplane regularly operated by a common carrier in this State, but shall not permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic liquors to any licensee within this State. A single airplane license shall be required of an airline company if liquor service is provided on board aircraft in this State. The annual fee for such license shall be as determined in Section 5-3.

(k) A foreign importer's license shall permit such licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed non-resident dealers only, and to import alcoholic liquor other than in bulk from any point outside the United States and to sell such alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed importing distributors and to no one else in Illinois; provided that (i) the foreign importer registers with the State Commission every brand of alcoholic liquor that it proposes to sell to Illinois licensees during the license period, (ii) the foreign importer complies with all of the provisions of Section 6-9 of this Act with respect to registration of such Illinois licensees as may be granted the right to sell such brands at wholesale, and (iii) the foreign importer complies with the provisions of Sections 6-5 and 6-6 of this Act to the same extent that these provisions apply to manufacturers.

(l) (i) A broker's license shall be required of all persons who solicit orders for, offer to sell or offer to supply alcoholic liquor to retailers in the State of Illinois, or who offer to retailers to ship or cause to be shipped or to make contact with distillers, rectifiers, brewers or manufacturers or any other party within or without the State of Illinois in order that alcoholic liquors be shipped to a distributor, importing distributor or foreign importer, whether such solicitation or offer is consummated within or without the State of Illinois.

No holder of a retailer's license issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall purchase or receive any alcoholic liquor, the order for which was solicited or offered for sale to such retailer by a broker unless the broker is the holder of a valid broker's license.

The broker shall, upon the acceptance by a retailer of the broker's solicitation of an order or offer to sell or supply or deliver or have delivered alcoholic liquors, promptly forward to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission a notification of said transaction in such form as the Commission may by regulations prescribe.

(ii) A broker's license shall be required of a person within this State, other than a retail licensee, who, for a fee or commission, promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for alcoholic liquor, for use or consumption and not for resale, to be shipped from this State and delivered to residents outside of this State by an express company, common carrier, or contract carrier. This Section does not apply to any person who promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for wine as specifically authorized in Section 6-29 of this Act.

A broker's license under this subsection (l) shall not entitle the holder to buy or sell any alcoholic liquors for his own account or to take or deliver title to such alcoholic liquors.

This subsection (l) shall not apply to distributors, employees of distributors, or employees of a manufacturer who has registered the trademark, brand or name of the alcoholic liquor pursuant to Section 6-9 of this Act, and who regularly sells such alcoholic liquor in the State of Illinois only to its registrants thereunder.

Any agent, representative, or person subject to registration pursuant to subsection (a-1) of this Section shall not be eligible to receive a broker's license.

(m) A non-resident dealer's license shall permit such licensee to ship into and warehouse alcoholic liquor into this State from any point outside of this State, and to sell such alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed foreign importers and importing distributors and to no one else in this State; provided that (i) said non-resident dealer shall register with the Illinois Liquor Control Commission each and every brand of alcoholic liquor which it proposes to sell to Illinois licensees during the license period, (ii) it shall comply with all of the provisions of Section 6-9 hereof with respect to registration of such Illinois licensees as may be granted the right to sell such brands at wholesale, and (iii) the non-resident dealer shall comply with the provisions of Sections 6-5 and 6-6 of this Act to the same extent that these provisions apply to manufacturers.

(n) A brew pub license shall allow the licensee (i) to manufacture beer only on the premises specified in the license, (ii) to make sales of the beer manufactured on the premises or, with the approval of the Commission, beer manufactured on another brew pub licensed premises that is substantially owned and operated by the same licensee to importing distributors, distributors, and to non-licensees for use and consumption, (iii) to store the beer upon the premises, and (iv) to sell and offer for sale at retail from the licensed premises, provided that a brew pub licensee shall not sell for off-premises consumption more than 50,000 gallons per year. A person who holds a brew pub license may simultaneously hold a craft brewer license if he or she otherwise qualifies for the craft brewer license and the craft brewer license is for a location separate from the brew pub's licensed premises. A brew pub license shall permit a person who has received prior approval from the Commission to annually transfer no more than a total of 50,000 gallons of beer manufactured on premises to all other licensed brew pubs that are substantially owned and operated by the same person.

(o) A caterer retailer license shall allow the holder to serve alcoholic liquors as an incidental part of a food service that serves prepared meals which excludes the serving of snacks as the primary meal, either on or off-site whether licensed or unlicensed.

(p) An auction liquor license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at auction wine and spirits for use or consumption, or for resale by an Illinois liquor licensee in accordance with provisions of this Act. An auction liquor license will be issued to a person and it will permit the auction liquor licensee to hold the auction anywhere in the State. An auction liquor license must be obtained for each auction at least 14 days in advance of the auction date.

(q) A special use permit license shall allow an Illinois licensed retailer to transfer a portion of its alcoholic liquor inventory from its retail licensed premises to the premises specified in the license hereby created, and to sell or offer for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in the license hereby created, the transferred alcoholic liquor for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. A special use permit license may be granted for the following time periods: one day or less; 2 or more days to a maximum of 15 days per location in any 12 month period. An applicant for the special use permit license must also submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance to the maximum limits and have local authority approval.

(r) A winery shipper's license shall allow a person with a first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's license, a first-class or second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited wine manufacturer's license or who is licensed to make wine under the laws of another state to ship wine made by that licensee directly to a resident of this State who is 21 years of age or older for that resident's personal use and not for resale. Prior to receiving a winery shipper's license, an applicant for the license must provide the Commission with a true copy of its current license in any state in which it is licensed as a manufacturer of wine. An applicant for a winery shipper's license must also complete an application form that provides any other information the Commission deems necessary. The application form shall include an acknowledgement consenting to the jurisdiction of the Commission, the Illinois Department of Revenue, and the courts of this State concerning the enforcement of this Act and any related laws, rules, and regulations, including authorizing the Department of Revenue and the Commission to conduct audits for the purpose of ensuring compliance with this amendatory Act.

A winery shipper licensee must pay to the Department of Revenue the State liquor gallonage tax under Section 8-1 for all wine that is sold by the licensee and shipped to a person in this State. For the purposes of Section 8-1, a winery shipper licensee shall be taxed in the same manner as a manufacturer of wine. A licensee who is not otherwise required to register under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act must register under the Use Tax Act to collect and remit use tax to the Department of Revenue for all gallons of wine that are sold by the licensee and shipped to persons in this State. If a licensee fails to remit the tax imposed under this Act in accordance with the provisions of Article VIII of this Act, the winery shipper's license shall be revoked in accordance with the provisions of Article VII of this Act. If a licensee fails to properly register and remit tax under the Use Tax Act or the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act for all wine that is sold by the winery shipper and shipped to persons in this State, the winery shipper's license shall be revoked in accordance with the provisions of Article VII of this Act.

A winery shipper licensee must collect, maintain, and submit to the Commission on a semi-annual basis the total number of cases per resident of wine shipped to residents of this State. A winery shipper licensed under this subsection (r) must comply with the requirements of Section 6-29 of this amendatory Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1367, eff. 7-28-10; 97-5, eff. 6-1-11; 97-455, eff. 8-19-11; revised 9-16-11.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-15) (from Ch. 43, par. 130)

Sec. 6-15. No alcoholic liquors shall be sold or delivered in any building belonging to or under the control of the State or any political subdivision thereof except as provided in this Act. The corporate authorities of any city, village, incorporated town, or township, or county may provide by ordinance, however, that alcoholic liquor may be sold or delivered in any specifically designated building belonging to or under the control of the municipality, township, or county, or in any building located on land under the control of the municipality, township, or county; provided that such township or county complies with all applicable local ordinances in any incorporated area of the township or county. Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold under the authority of a special use permit on any property owned by a conservation district organized under the Conservation District Act, provided that (i) the alcoholic liquor is sold only at an event authorized by the governing board of the conservation district, (ii) the issuance of the special use permit is authorized by the local liquor control commissioner of the territory in which the property is located, and (iii) the special use permit authorizes the sale of alcoholic liquor for one day or less. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at any airport belonging to or under the control of a municipality of more than 25,000 inhabitants, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a park district organized under the Park District Code, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or on the grounds within 500 feet of any building owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act during times when food is dispensed for consumption within 500 feet of the building from which the food is dispensed, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in a building owned by a Local Mass Transit District organized under the Local Mass Transit District Act, subject to the approval of the governing Board of the District, or in Bicentennial Park, or on the premises of the City of Mendota Lake Park located adjacent to Route 51 in Mendota, Illinois, or on the premises of Camden Park in Milan, Illinois, or in the community center owned by the City of Loves Park that is located at 1000 River Park Drive in Loves Park, Illinois, or, in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption on the premises, and at the following aquarium and museums located in public parks: Art Institute of Chicago, Chicago Academy of Sciences, Chicago Historical Society, Field Museum of Natural History, Museum of Science and Industry, DuSable Museum of African American History, John G. Shedd Aquarium and Adler Planetarium, or at Lakeview Museum of Arts and Sciences in Peoria, or in connection with the operation of the facilities of the Chicago Zoological Society or the Chicago Horticultural Society on land owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, subject to the control of the Forest Preserve District Board of Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage, and harm, or in any building located on land owned by the Chicago Park District if approved by the Park District Commissioners, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes and owned by the Illinois International Port District if approved by the District's governing board, or at any airport, golf course, faculty center, or facility in which conference and convention type activities take place belonging to or under control of any State university or public community college district, provided that with respect to a facility for conference and convention type activities alcoholic liquors shall be limited to the use of the convention or conference participants or participants in cultural, political or educational activities held in such facilities, and provided further that the faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district, or members of an organization of students, alumni, faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district are active participants in the conference or convention, or in Memorial Stadium on the campus of the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign during games in which the Chicago Bears professional football team is playing in that stadium during the renovation of Soldier Field, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the Chicago Storm professional soccer team is playing in that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the WNBA professional women's basketball team is playing in that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the 10-minute mark of the second half of the game, or by a catering establishment which has rented facilities from a board of trustees of a public community college district, or in a restaurant that is operated by a commercial tenant in the North Campus Parking Deck building that (1) is located at 1201 West University Avenue, Urbana, Illinois and (2) is owned by the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, or, if approved by the District board, on land owned by the Metropolitan Sanitary District of Greater Chicago and leased to others for a term of at least 20 years. Nothing in this Section precludes the sale or delivery of alcoholic liquor in the form of original packaged goods in premises located at 500 S. Racine in Chicago belonging to the University of Illinois and used primarily as a grocery store by a commercial tenant during the term of a lease that predates the University's acquisition of the premises; but the University shall have no power or authority to renew, transfer, or extend the lease with terms allowing the sale of alcoholic liquor; and the sale of alcoholic liquor shall be subject to all local laws and regulations. After the acquisition by Winnebago County of the property located at 404 Elm Street in Rockford, a commercial tenant who sold alcoholic liquor at retail on a portion of the property under a valid license at the time of the acquisition may continue to do so for so long as the tenant and the County may agree under existing or future leases, subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Memorial Hall, located at 211 North Main Street, Rockford, under conditions approved by Winnebago County and subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Each facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save harmless the State, municipality, State university, airport, golf course, faculty center, facility in which conference and convention type activities take place, park district, Forest Preserve District, public community college district, aquarium, museum, or sanitary district from all financial loss, damage or harm. Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings of golf courses owned by municipalities or Illinois State University in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption upon the premises. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by a fire protection district organized under the Fire Protection District Act, provided that such delivery and sale is approved by the board of trustees of the district, and provided further that such delivery and sale is limited to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois for events that the Board may determine are public events and not related student activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, among other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) regarding the anticipated attendees at the event, the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue. In addition, any policy submitted by the Board of Trustees to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission must require that any event at which alcoholic liquors are served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees shall require the prior written approval of the Office of the Chancellor for the University campus where the event is located. The Board of Trustees shall submit its policy, and any subsequently revised, updated, new, or amended policies, to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission, and any University event, or location for an event, exempted under such policies shall apply for a license under the applicable Sections of this Act.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after June 28, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-45) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Dorchester Senior Business Center owned by the Village of Dolton if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons, and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Village of Dolton and the State from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building used as an Illinois State Armory provided:

(i) the Adjutant General's written consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquor in such building is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons; and

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to save harmless the facility and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Chicago Civic Center, provided that:

(i) the written consent of the Public Building Commission which administers the Chicago Civic Center is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons;

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Civic Center, the City of Chicago and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm; and

(v) all applicable local ordinances are complied with.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered or sold in any building belonging to or under the control of any city, village or incorporated town where more than 75% of the physical properties of the building is used for commercial or recreational purposes, and the building is located upon a pier extending into or over the waters of a navigable lake or stream or on the shore of a navigable lake or stream. In accordance with a license issued under this Act, alcoholic liquor may be sold, served, or delivered in buildings and facilities under the control of the Department of Natural Resources during events or activities lasting no more than 7 continuous days upon the written approval of the Director of Natural Resources acting as the controlling government authority. The Director of Natural Resources may specify conditions on that approval, including but not limited to requirements for insurance and hours of operation. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by a United States Army Corps of Engineers or Department of Natural Resources concessionaire who was operating on June 1, 1991 for on-premises consumption only is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX. Beer and wine may be sold on the premises of the Joliet Park District Stadium owned by the Joliet Park District when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such premises is filed with the local liquor commissioner by the Joliet Park District. Beer and wine may be sold in buildings on the grounds of State veterans' homes when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such buildings is filed with the Commission by the Department of Veterans' Affairs, and the facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save the facility harmless from all financial loss, damage or harm. Such liquors may be delivered to and sold at any property owned or held under lease by a Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority or Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority.

Beer and wine may be sold and dispensed at professional sporting events and at professional concerts and other entertainment events conducted on premises owned by the Forest Preserve District of Kane County, subject to the control of the District Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Nothing in this Section shall preclude the sale or delivery of beer and wine at a State or county fair or the sale or delivery of beer or wine at a city fair in any otherwise lawful manner.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in State parks under the control of the Department of Natural Resources, provided:

a. the State park has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the commission by the Department of Natural Resources, and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the State park lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by the State park or restaurant concessionaire is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings on properties under the control of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum provided:

a. the property has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the commission by the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum, and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight.

The sale of alcoholic liquors pursuant to this Section does not authorize the establishment and operation of facilities commonly called taverns, saloons, bars, cocktail lounges, and the like except as a part of lodge and restaurant facilities in State parks or golf courses owned by Forest Preserve Districts with a population of less than 3,000,000 or municipalities or park districts.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in the Springfield Administration Building of the Department of Transportation and the Illinois State Armory in Springfield; provided, that the controlling government authority may consent to such sales only if

a. the request is from a not-for-profit organization;

b. such sales would not impede normal operations of the departments involved;

c. the not-for-profit organization provides dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits and agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm;

d. no such sale shall be made during normal working hours of the State of Illinois; and

e. the consent is in writing.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in recreational areas of river conservancy districts under the control of, or leased from, the river conservancy districts. Such sales are subject to reasonable local regulations as provided in Article IV; however, no such regulations may prohibit or substantially impair the sale of alcoholic liquors on Sundays or Holidays.

Alcoholic liquors may be provided in long term care facilities owned or operated by a county under Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, when approved by the facility operator and not in conflict with the regulations of the Illinois Department of Public Health, to residents of the facility who have had their consumption of the alcoholic liquors provided approved in writing by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and dispensed in State housing assigned to employees of the Department of Corrections. No person shall furnish or allow to be furnished any alcoholic liquors to any prisoner confined in any jail, reformatory, prison or house of correction except upon a physician's prescription for medicinal purposes.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Willard Ice Building in Springfield, at the State Library in Springfield, and at Illinois State Museum facilities by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the controlling government authority, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at authorized functions.

The controlling government authority for the Willard Ice Building in Springfield shall be the Director of the Department of Revenue. The controlling government authority for Illinois State Museum facilities shall be the Director of the Illinois State Museum. The controlling government authority for the State Library in Springfield shall be the Secretary of State.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed at any facility, property or building under the jurisdiction of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum where the delivery, sale or dispensing is by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from a controlling government authority, or by (2) an individual or organization provided that such individual or organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal workings of State offices or operations located at the facility, property or building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity of the individual or organization in the facility, property or building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

The controlling government authority for the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency shall be the Director of the Historic Sites and Preservation, and the controlling government authority for the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum shall be the Director of the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed for consumption at the Michael Bilandic Building at 160 North LaSalle Street, Chicago IL 60601, after the normal business hours of any day care or child care facility located in the building, by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who accepts delivery of, sells, or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify, and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the delivery, sale, or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial, or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to accept delivery of and sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building; and

d. provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless, and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the James R. Thompson Center in Chicago, subject to the provisions of Section 7.4 of the State Property Control Act, and 222 South College Street in Springfield, Illinois by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease or sublease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered at any facility owned by the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority provided that dram shop liability insurance has been made available in a form, with such coverage and in such amounts as the Authority reasonably determines is necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Rockford State Office Building by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Department of Central Management Services, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Department of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county in the City of Bloomington, and used by the McLean County Historical Society if the sale or delivery is approved by an ordinance adopted by the county board, and the municipality in which the building is located may not prohibit that sale or delivery, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section. The regulation of the sale and delivery of alcoholic liquor in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county, and used by the McLean County Historical Society as provided in this paragraph is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of the power of a home rule municipality to regulate that sale and delivery.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in any building situated on land held in trust for any school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code, if the building is not used for school purposes and if the sale or delivery is approved by the board of education.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in buildings owned by the Community Building Complex Committee of Boone County, Illinois if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance with coverage and in amounts that the Committee reasonably determines are necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in the building located at 1200 Centerville Avenue in Belleville, Illinois and occupied by either the Belleville Area Special Education District or the Belleville Area Special Services Cooperative.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Louis Joliet Renaissance Center, City Center Campus, located at 214 N. Ottawa Street, Joliet, and the Food Services/Culinary Arts Department facilities, Main Campus, located at 1215 Houbolt Road, Joliet, owned by or under the control of Joliet Junior College, Illinois Community College District No. 525.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Triton College, Illinois Community College District No. 504.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the College of DuPage, Illinois Community College District No. 502.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the building located at 446 East Hickory Avenue in Apple River, Illinois, owned by the Apple River Fire Protection District, and occupied by the Apple River Community Association if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions approved by the Apple River Community Association for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Apple River Fire Protection District, the Village of Apple River, and the Apple River Community Association from all financial loss, damage, and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Sikia Restaurant, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago, and at the Food Services in the Great Hall/Washburne Culinary Institute Department facility, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago, owned by or under the control of City Colleges of Chicago, Illinois Community College District No. 508.

(Source: P.A. 97-33, eff. 6-28-11; 97-45, eff. 6-28-11; 97-51, eff. 6-28-11; 97-167, eff. 7-22-11; 97-250, eff. 8-4-11; 97-395, eff. 8-16-11; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 490. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 4-1, 5-2, 5-5.4, 5-5.7, 5-5.12, 5-6, 5B-1, 5B-4, 5B-5, 5E-5, 8A-11, and 12-4.42 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/4-1) (from Ch. 23, par. 4-1)

Sec. 4-1. Eligibility requirements. Financial aid in meeting basic maintenance requirements for a livelihood compatible with health and well-being shall be given under this Article to or in behalf of families with dependent children who meet the eligibility conditions of Sections 4-1.1 through 4-1.12 4-1.11. It shall be the policy of the Illinois Department to provide aid under this Article to all qualified persons who seek assistance and to conduct outreach efforts to educate the public about the program. The Department shall provide timely, accurate, and fair service to all applicants for assistance. Persons who meet the eligibility criteria authorized under this Article shall be treated equally, provided that nothing in this Article shall be construed to create an entitlement to a particular grant or service level or to aid in amounts not authorized under this Code, nor construed to limit the authority of the General Assembly to change the eligibility requirements or provisions respecting assistance amounts. The General Assembly recognizes that the need for aid will fluctuate with the economic situation in Illinois and that at times the number of people receiving aid under this Article will increase.

The Illinois Department shall advise every applicant for and recipient of aid under this Article of (i) the requirement that all recipients move toward self-sufficiency and (ii) the value and benefits of employment. As a condition of eligibility for that aid, every person who applies for aid under this Article on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1995 shall prepare and submit, as part of the application or subsequent redetermination, a personal plan for achieving employment and self-sufficiency. The plan shall incorporate the individualized assessment and employability plan set out in subsections (d), (f), and (g) of Section 9A-8. The plan may be amended as the recipient's needs change. The assessment process to develop the plan shall include questions that screen for domestic violence issues and steps needed to address these issues may be part of the plan. If the individual indicates that he or she is a victim of domestic violence, he or she may also be referred to an available domestic violence program. Failure of the client to follow through on the personal plan for employment and self-sufficiency may be a basis for sanction under Section 4-21.

(Source: P.A. 96-866, eff. 7-1-10; revised 11-18-11.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-2)

Sec. 5-2. Classes of Persons Eligible. Medical assistance under this Article shall be available to any of the following classes of persons in respect to whom a plan for coverage has been submitted to the Governor by the Illinois Department and approved by him:

1. Recipients of basic maintenance grants under Articles III and IV.

2. Persons otherwise eligible for basic maintenance under Articles III and IV, excluding any eligibility requirements that are inconsistent with any federal law or federal regulation, as interpreted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, but who fail to qualify thereunder on the basis of need or who qualify but are not receiving basic maintenance under Article IV, and who have insufficient income and resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care, including but not limited to the following:

(a) All persons otherwise eligible for basic maintenance under Article III but who fail to qualify under that Article on the basis of need and who meet either of the following requirements:

(i) their income, as determined by the Illinois Department in accordance with any federal requirements, is equal to or less than 70% in fiscal year 2001, equal to or less than 85% in fiscal year 2002 and until a date to be determined by the Department by rule, and equal to or less than 100% beginning on the date determined by the Department by rule, of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget and revised annually in accordance with Section 673(2) of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, applicable to families of the same size; or

(ii) their income, after the deduction of costs incurred for medical care and for other types of remedial care, is equal to or less than 70% in fiscal year 2001, equal to or less than 85% in fiscal year 2002 and until a date to be determined by the Department by rule, and equal to or less than 100% beginning on the date determined by the Department by rule, of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined in item (i) of this subparagraph (a).

(b) All persons who, excluding any eligibility requirements that are inconsistent with any federal law or federal regulation, as interpreted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, would be determined eligible for such basic maintenance under Article IV by disregarding the maximum earned income permitted by federal law.

3. Persons who would otherwise qualify for Aid to the Medically Indigent under Article VII.

4. Persons not eligible under any of the preceding paragraphs who fall sick, are injured, or die, not having sufficient money, property or other resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care or funeral and burial expenses.

5.(a) Women during pregnancy, after the fact of pregnancy has been determined by medical diagnosis, and during the 60-day period beginning on the last day of the pregnancy, together with their infants and children born after September 30, 1983, whose income and resources are insufficient to meet the costs of necessary medical care to the maximum extent possible under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

(b) The Illinois Department and the Governor shall provide a plan for coverage of the persons eligible under paragraph 5(a) by April 1, 1990. Such plan shall provide ambulatory prenatal care to pregnant women during a presumptive eligibility period and establish an income eligibility standard that is equal to 133% of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget and revised annually in accordance with Section 673(2) of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, applicable to families of the same size, provided that costs incurred for medical care are not taken into account in determining such income eligibility.

(c) The Illinois Department may conduct a demonstration in at least one county that will provide medical assistance to pregnant women, together with their infants and children up to one year of age, where the income eligibility standard is set up to 185% of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget. The Illinois Department shall seek and obtain necessary authorization provided under federal law to implement such a demonstration. Such demonstration may establish resource standards that are not more restrictive than those established under Article IV of this Code.

6. Persons under the age of 18 who fail to qualify as dependent under Article IV and who have insufficient income and resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care to the maximum extent permitted under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

7. Persons who are under 21 years of age and would qualify as disabled as defined under the Federal Supplemental Security Income Program, provided medical service for such persons would be eligible for Federal Financial Participation, and provided the Illinois Department determines that:

(a) the person requires a level of care provided by a hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches;

(b) it is appropriate to provide such care outside of an institution, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches;

(c) the estimated amount which would be expended for care outside the institution is not greater than the estimated amount which would be expended in an institution.

8. Persons who become ineligible for basic maintenance assistance under Article IV of this Code in programs administered by the Illinois Department due to employment earnings and persons in assistance units comprised of adults and children who become ineligible for basic maintenance assistance under Article VI of this Code due to employment earnings. The plan for coverage for this class of persons shall:

(a) extend the medical assistance coverage for up to 12 months following termination of basic maintenance assistance; and

(b) offer persons who have initially received 6 months of the coverage provided in paragraph (a) above, the option of receiving an additional 6 months of coverage, subject to the following:

(i) such coverage shall be pursuant to provisions of the federal Social Security Act;

(ii) such coverage shall include all services covered while the person was eligible for basic maintenance assistance;

(iii) no premium shall be charged for such coverage; and

(iv) such coverage shall be suspended in the event of a person's failure without good cause to file in a timely fashion reports required for this coverage under the Social Security Act and coverage shall be reinstated upon the filing of such reports if the person remains otherwise eligible.

9. Persons with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or with AIDS-related conditions with respect to whom there has been a determination that but for home or community-based services such individuals would require the level of care provided in an inpatient hospital, skilled nursing facility or intermediate care facility the cost of which is reimbursed under this Article. Assistance shall be provided to such persons to the maximum extent permitted under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

10. Participants in the long-term care insurance partnership program established under the Illinois Long-Term Care Partnership Program Act who meet the qualifications for protection of resources described in Section 15 of that Act.

11. Persons with disabilities who are employed and eligible for Medicaid, pursuant to Section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(xv) of the Social Security Act, and, subject to federal approval, persons with a medically improved disability who are employed and eligible for Medicaid pursuant to Section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(xvi) of the Social Security Act, as provided by the Illinois Department by rule. In establishing eligibility standards under this paragraph 11, the Department shall, subject to federal approval:

(a) set the income eligibility standard at not lower than 350% of the federal poverty level;

(b) exempt retirement accounts that the person cannot access without penalty before the age of 59 1/2, and medical savings accounts established pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 220;

(c) allow non-exempt assets up to $25,000 as to those assets accumulated during periods of eligibility under this paragraph 11; and

(d) continue to apply subparagraphs (b) and (c) in determining the eligibility of the person under this Article even if the person loses eligibility under this paragraph 11.

12. Subject to federal approval, persons who are eligible for medical assistance coverage under applicable provisions of the federal Social Security Act and the federal Breast and Cervical Cancer Prevention and Treatment Act of 2000. Those eligible persons are defined to include, but not be limited to, the following persons:

(1) persons who have been screened for breast or cervical cancer under the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Breast and Cervical Cancer Program established under Title XV of the federal Public Health Services Act in accordance with the requirements of Section 1504 of that Act as administered by the Illinois Department of Public Health; and

(2) persons whose screenings under the above program were funded in whole or in part by funds appropriated to the Illinois Department of Public Health for breast or cervical cancer screening.

"Medical assistance" under this paragraph 12 shall be identical to the benefits provided under the State's approved plan under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. The Department must request federal approval of the coverage under this paragraph 12 within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

In addition to the persons who are eligible for medical assistance pursuant to subparagraphs (1) and (2) of this paragraph 12, and to be paid from funds appropriated to the Department for its medical programs, any uninsured person as defined by the Department in rules residing in Illinois who is younger than 65 years of age, who has been screened for breast and cervical cancer in accordance with standards and procedures adopted by the Department of Public Health for screening, and who is referred to the Department by the Department of Public Health as being in need of treatment for breast or cervical cancer is eligible for medical assistance benefits that are consistent with the benefits provided to those persons described in subparagraphs (1) and (2). Medical assistance coverage for the persons who are eligible under the preceding sentence is not dependent on federal approval, but federal moneys may be used to pay for services provided under that coverage upon federal approval.

13. Subject to appropriation and to federal approval, persons living with HIV/AIDS who are not otherwise eligible under this Article and who qualify for services covered under Section 5-5.04 as provided by the Illinois Department by rule.

14. Subject to the availability of funds for this purpose, the Department may provide coverage under this Article to persons who reside in Illinois who are not eligible under any of the preceding paragraphs and who meet the income guidelines of paragraph 2(a) of this Section and (i) have an application for asylum pending before the federal Department of Homeland Security or on appeal before a court of competent jurisdiction and are represented either by counsel or by an advocate accredited by the federal Department of Homeland Security and employed by a not-for-profit organization in regard to that application or appeal, or (ii) are receiving services through a federally funded torture treatment center. Medical coverage under this paragraph 14 may be provided for up to 24 continuous months from the initial eligibility date so long as an individual continues to satisfy the criteria of this paragraph 14. If an individual has an appeal pending regarding an application for asylum before the Department of Homeland Security, eligibility under this paragraph 14 may be extended until a final decision is rendered on the appeal. The Department may adopt rules governing the implementation of this paragraph 14.

15. Family Care Eligibility.

(a) Through December 31, 2013, a caretaker relative who is 19 years of age or older when countable income is at or below 185% of the Federal Poverty Level Guidelines, as published annually in the Federal Register, for the appropriate family size. Beginning January 1, 2014, a caretaker relative who is 19 years of age or older when countable income is at or below 133% of the Federal Poverty Level Guidelines, as published annually in the Federal Register, for the appropriate family size. A person may not spend down to become eligible under this paragraph 15.

(b) Eligibility shall be reviewed annually.

(c) Caretaker relatives enrolled under this paragraph 15 in families with countable income above 150% and at or below 185% of the Federal Poverty Level Guidelines shall be counted as family members and pay premiums as established under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act.

(d) Premiums shall be billed by and payable to the Department or its authorized agent, on a monthly basis.

(e) The premium due date is the last day of the month preceding the month of coverage.

(f) Individuals shall have a grace period through 60 days of coverage to pay the premium.

(g) Failure to pay the full monthly premium by the last day of the grace period shall result in termination of coverage.

(h) Partial premium payments shall not be refunded.

(i) Following termination of an individual's coverage under this paragraph 15, the following action is required before the individual can be re-enrolled:

(1) A new application must be completed and the individual must be determined otherwise eligible.

(2) There must be full payment of premiums due under this Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, or any other healthcare program administered by the Department for periods in which a premium was owed and not paid for the individual.

(3) The first month's premium must be paid if there was an unpaid premium on the date the individual's previous coverage was canceled.

The Department is authorized to implement the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly by adopting the medical assistance rules in effect as of October 1, 2007, at 89 Ill. Admin. Code 125, and at 89 Ill. Admin. Code 120.32 along with only those changes necessary to conform to federal Medicaid requirements, federal laws, and federal regulations, including but not limited to Section 1931 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396u-1), as interpreted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, and the countable income eligibility standard authorized by this paragraph 15. The Department may not otherwise adopt any rule to implement this increase except as authorized by law, to meet the eligibility standards authorized by the federal government in the Medicaid State Plan or the Title XXI Plan, or to meet an order from the federal government or any court.

16. Subject to appropriation, uninsured persons who are not otherwise eligible under this Section who have been certified and referred by the Department of Public Health as having been screened and found to need diagnostic evaluation or treatment, or both diagnostic evaluation and treatment, for prostate or testicular cancer. For the purposes of this paragraph 16, uninsured persons are those who do not have creditable coverage, as defined under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, or have otherwise exhausted any insurance benefits they may have had, for prostate or testicular cancer diagnostic evaluation or treatment, or both diagnostic evaluation and treatment. To be eligible, a person must furnish a Social Security number. A person's assets are exempt from consideration in determining eligibility under this paragraph 16. Such persons shall be eligible for medical assistance under this paragraph 16 for so long as they need treatment for the cancer. A person shall be considered to need treatment if, in the opinion of the person's treating physician, the person requires therapy directed toward cure or palliation of prostate or testicular cancer, including recurrent metastatic cancer that is a known or presumed complication of prostate or testicular cancer and complications resulting from the treatment modalities themselves. Persons who require only routine monitoring services are not considered to need treatment. "Medical assistance" under this paragraph 16 shall be identical to the benefits provided under the State's approved plan under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Department (i) does not have a claim against the estate of a deceased recipient of services under this paragraph 16 and (ii) does not have a lien against any homestead property or other legal or equitable real property interest owned by a recipient of services under this paragraph 16.

In implementing the provisions of Public Act 96-20, the Department is authorized to adopt only those rules necessary, including emergency rules. Nothing in Public Act 96-20 permits the Department to adopt rules or issue a decision that expands eligibility for the FamilyCare Program to a person whose income exceeds 185% of the Federal Poverty Level as determined from time to time by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, unless the Department is provided with express statutory authority.

The Illinois Department and the Governor shall provide a plan for coverage of the persons eligible under paragraph 7 as soon as possible after July 1, 1984.

The eligibility of any such person for medical assistance under this Article is not affected by the payment of any grant under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act or any distributions or items of income described under subparagraph (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The Department shall by rule establish the amounts of assets to be disregarded in determining eligibility for medical assistance, which shall at a minimum equal the amounts to be disregarded under the Federal Supplemental Security Income Program. The amount of assets of a single person to be disregarded shall not be less than $2,000, and the amount of assets of a married couple to be disregarded shall not be less than $3,000.

To the extent permitted under federal law, any person found guilty of a second violation of Article VIIIA shall be ineligible for medical assistance under this Article, as provided in Section 8A-8.

The eligibility of any person for medical assistance under this Article shall not be affected by the receipt by the person of donations or benefits from fundraisers held for the person in cases of serious illness, as long as neither the person nor members of the person's family have actual control over the donations or benefits or the disbursement of the donations or benefits.

(Source: P.A. 96-20, eff. 6-30-09; 96-181, eff. 8-10-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-567, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1123, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1270, eff. 7-26-10; 97-48, eff. 6-28-11; 97-74, eff. 6-30-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 10-4-11.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.4) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.4)

Sec. 5-5.4. Standards of Payment - Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop standards of payment of nursing facility and ICF/DD services in facilities providing such services under this Article which:

(1) Provide for the determination of a facility's payment for nursing facility or ICF/DD services on a prospective basis. The amount of the payment rate for all nursing facilities certified by the Department of Public Health under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities, Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, Skilled Nursing facilities, or Intermediate Care facilities under the medical assistance program shall be prospectively established annually on the basis of historical, financial, and statistical data reflecting actual costs from prior years, which shall be applied to the current rate year and updated for inflation, except that the capital cost element for newly constructed facilities shall be based upon projected budgets. The annually established payment rate shall take effect on July 1 in 1984 and subsequent years. No rate increase and no update for inflation shall be provided on or after July 1, 1994 and before July 1, 2012, unless specifically provided for in this Section. The changes made by Public Act 93-841 extending the duration of the prohibition against a rate increase or update for inflation are effective retroactive to July 1, 2004.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an increase of 3% plus $1.10 per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care Facilities for the Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2006 shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care Facilities for the Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2009 shall include an increase sufficient to provide a $0.50 per hour wage increase for non-executive staff.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an increase of 1.6% plus $3.00 per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an increase of 1.6% and, for services provided on or after October 1, 1999, shall be increased by $4.00 per resident-day, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, a new payment methodology must be implemented for the nursing component of the rate effective July 1, 2003. The Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services) shall develop the new payment methodology using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) as the instrument to collect information concerning nursing home resident condition necessary to compute the rate. The Department shall develop the new payment methodology to meet the unique needs of Illinois nursing home residents while remaining subject to the appropriations provided by the General Assembly. A transition period from the payment methodology in effect on June 30, 2003 to the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 shall be provided for a period not exceeding 3 years and 184 days after implementation of the new payment methodology as follows:

(A) For a facility that would receive a lower nursing component rate per patient day under the new system than the facility received effective on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be held at the level in effect on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology until a higher nursing component rate of reimbursement is achieved by that facility.

(B) For a facility that would receive a higher nursing component rate per patient day under the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 than the facility received effective on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be adjusted.

(C) Notwithstanding paragraphs (A) and (B), the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be adjusted subject to appropriations provided by the General Assembly.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on March 1, 2001 shall include a statewide increase of 7.85%, as defined by the Department.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, except facilities participating in the Department's demonstration program pursuant to the provisions of Title 77, Part 300, Subpart T of the Illinois Administrative Code, the numerator of the ratio used by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services to compute the rate payable under this Section using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) methodology shall incorporate the following annual amounts as the additional funds appropriated to the Department specifically to pay for rates based on the MDS nursing component methodology in excess of the funding in effect on December 31, 2006:

(i) For rates taking effect January 1, 2007, $60,000,000.

(ii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2008, $110,000,000.

(iii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2009, $194,000,000.

(iv) For rates taking effect April 1, 2011, or the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, $416,500,000 or an amount as may be necessary to complete the transition to the MDS methodology for the nursing component of the rate. Increased payments under this item (iv) are not due and payable, however, until (i) the methodologies described in this paragraph are approved by the federal government in an appropriate State Plan amendment and (ii) the assessment imposed by Section 5B-2 of this Code is determined to be a permissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the support component of the rates taking effect on January 1, 2008 shall be computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services no later than April 1, 2005, updated for inflation to January 1, 2006.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on April 1, 2002 shall include a statewide increase of 2.0%, as defined by the Department. This increase terminates on July 1, 2002; beginning July 1, 2002 these rates are reduced to the level of the rates in effect on March 31, 2002, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2001 shall be computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Public Aid no later than April 1, 2000, updated for inflation to January 1, 2001. For rates effective July 1, 2001 only, rates shall be the greater of the rate computed for July 1, 2001 or the rate effective on June 30, 2001.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the Illinois Department shall determine by rule the rates taking effect on July 1, 2002, which shall be 5.9% less than the rates in effect on June 30, 2002.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, if the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12 and the waiver granted under 42 CFR 433.68 are approved by the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2004 shall be 3.0% greater than the rates in effect on June 30, 2004. These rates shall take effect only upon approval and implementation of the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2005 shall be 3% more than the rates in effect on December 31, 2004.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2009, the per diem support component of the rates effective on January 1, 2008, computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services no later than April 1, 2005, updated for inflation to January 1, 2006, shall be increased to the amount that would have been derived using standard Department of Healthcare and Family Services methods, procedures, and inflators.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as intermediate care facilities that are federally defined as Institutions for Mental Disease, or facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Facilities Act, a socio-development component rate equal to 6.6% of the facility's nursing component rate as of January 1, 2006 shall be established and paid effective July 1, 2006. The socio-development component of the rate shall be increased by a factor of 2.53 on the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707). As of August 1, 2008, the socio-development component rate shall be equal to 6.6% of the facility's nursing component rate as of January 1, 2006, multiplied by a factor of 3.53. For services provided on or after April 1, 2011, or the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, whichever is later, the Illinois Department may by rule adjust these socio-development component rates, and may use different adjustment methodologies for those facilities participating, and those not participating, in the Illinois Department's demonstration program pursuant to the provisions of Title 77, Part 300, Subpart T of the Illinois Administrative Code, but in no case may such rates be diminished below those in effect on August 1, 2008.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or as long-term care facilities for residents under 22 years of age, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2003 shall include a statewide increase of 4%, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall include a statewide increase of 2.5%, as defined by the Department.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2005, facility rates shall be increased by the difference between (i) a facility's per diem property, liability, and malpractice insurance costs as reported in the cost report filed with the Department of Public Aid and used to establish rates effective July 1, 2001 and (ii) those same costs as reported in the facility's 2002 cost report. These costs shall be passed through to the facility without caps or limitations, except for adjustments required under normal auditing procedures.

Rates established effective each July 1 shall govern payment for services rendered throughout that fiscal year, except that rates established on July 1, 1996 shall be increased by 6.8% for services provided on or after January 1, 1997. Such rates will be based upon the rates calculated for the year beginning July 1, 1990, and for subsequent years thereafter until June 30, 2001 shall be based on the facility cost reports for the facility fiscal year ending at any point in time during the previous calendar year, updated to the midpoint of the rate year. The cost report shall be on file with the Department no later than April 1 of the current rate year. Should the cost report not be on file by April 1, the Department shall base the rate on the latest cost report filed by each skilled care facility and intermediate care facility, updated to the midpoint of the current rate year. In determining rates for services rendered on and after July 1, 1985, fixed time shall not be computed at less than zero. The Department shall not make any alterations of regulations which would reduce any component of the Medicaid rate to a level below what that component would have been utilizing in the rate effective on July 1, 1984.

(2) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by facilities in providing services for recipients of skilled nursing and intermediate care services under the medical assistance program.

(3) Shall take into account the medical and psycho-social characteristics and needs of the patients.

(4) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by facilities in meeting licensing and certification standards imposed and prescribed by the State of Illinois, any of its political subdivisions or municipalities and by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop precise standards for payments to reimburse nursing facilities for any utilization of appropriate rehabilitative personnel for the provision of rehabilitative services which is authorized by federal regulations, including reimbursement for services provided by qualified therapists or qualified assistants, and which is in accordance with accepted professional practices. Reimbursement also may be made for utilization of other supportive personnel under appropriate supervision.

The Department shall develop enhanced payments to offset the additional costs incurred by a facility serving exceptional need residents and shall allocate at least $8,000,000 of the funds collected from the assessment established by Section 5B-2 of this Code for such payments. For the purpose of this Section, "exceptional needs" means, but need not be limited to, ventilator care, tracheotomy care, bariatric care, complex wound care, and traumatic brain injury care. The enhanced payments for exceptional need residents under this paragraph are not due and payable, however, until (i) the methodologies described in this paragraph are approved by the federal government in an appropriate State Plan amendment and (ii) the assessment imposed by Section 5B-2 of this Code is determined to be a permissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

(5) Beginning July 1, 2012 the methodologies for reimbursement of nursing facility services as provided under this Section 5-5.4 shall no longer be applicable for bills payable for State fiscal years 2012 and thereafter.

(6) No payment increase under this Section for the MDS methodology, exceptional care residents, or the socio-development component rate established by Public Act 96-1530 of the 96th General Assembly and funded by the assessment imposed under Section 5B-2 of this Code shall be due and payable until after the Department notifies the long-term care providers, in writing, that the payment methodologies to long-term care providers required under this Section have been approved by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and the waivers under 42 CFR 433.68 for the assessment imposed by this Section, if necessary, have been granted by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Upon notification to the Department of approval of the payment methodologies required under this Section and the waivers granted under 42 CFR 433.68, all increased payments otherwise due under this Section prior to the date of notification shall be due and payable within 90 days of the date federal approval is received.

(Source: P.A. 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-959, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11; 97-10, eff. 6-14-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-584, eff. 8-26-11; revised 10-4-11.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.7) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.7)

Sec. 5-5.7. Cost Reports - Audits. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall work with the Department of Public Health to use cost report information currently being collected under provisions of the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, and the ID/DD Community Care Act. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services may, in conjunction with the Department of Public Health, develop in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles a uniform chart of accounts which each facility providing services under the medical assistance program shall adopt, after a reasonable period.

Facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, Act or the ID/DD Community Care Act and providers of adult developmental training services certified by the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 15.2 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act which provide services to clients eligible for medical assistance under this Article are responsible for submitting the required annual cost report to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall audit the financial and statistical records of each provider participating in the medical assistance program as a nursing facility, a specialized mental health rehabilitation facility, or an ICF/DD over a 3 year period, beginning with the close of the first cost reporting year. Following the end of this 3-year term, audits of the financial and statistical records will be performed each year in at least 20% of the facilities participating in the medical assistance program with at least 10% being selected on a random sample basis, and the remainder selected on the basis of exceptional profiles. All audits shall be conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall establish prospective payment rates for categories or levels of services within each licensure class, in order to more appropriately recognize the individual needs of patients in nursing facilities.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall provide, during the process of establishing the payment rate for nursing facility, specialized mental health rehabilitation facility, or ICF/DD services, or when a substantial change in rates is proposed, an opportunity for public review and comment on the proposed rates prior to their becoming effective.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.12) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.12)

Sec. 5-5.12. Pharmacy payments.

(a) Every request submitted by a pharmacy for reimbursement under this Article for prescription drugs provided to a recipient of aid under this Article shall include the name of the prescriber or an acceptable identification number as established by the Department.

(b) Pharmacies providing prescription drugs under this Article shall be reimbursed at a rate which shall include a professional dispensing fee as determined by the Illinois Department, plus the current acquisition cost of the prescription drug dispensed. The Illinois Department shall update its information on the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs no less frequently than every 30 days. However, the Illinois Department may set the rate of reimbursement for the acquisition cost, by rule, at a percentage of the current average wholesale acquisition cost.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The Department shall not impose requirements for prior approval based on a preferred drug list for anti-retroviral, anti-hemophilic factor concentrates, or any atypical antipsychotics, conventional antipsychotics, or anticonvulsants used for the treatment of serious mental illnesses until 30 days after it has conducted a study of the impact of such requirements on patient care and submitted a report to the Speaker of the House of Representatives and the President of the Senate. The Department shall review utilization of narcotic medications in the medical assistance program and impose utilization controls that protect against abuse.

(e) When making determinations as to which drugs shall be on a prior approval list, the Department shall include as part of the analysis for this determination, the degree to which a drug may affect individuals in different ways based on factors including the gender of the person taking the medication.

(f) The Department shall cooperate with the Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health in identifying psychotropic medications that, when given in a particular form, manner, duration, or frequency (including "as needed") in a dosage, or in conjunction with other psychotropic medications to a nursing home resident or to a resident of a facility licensed under the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, may constitute a chemical restraint or an "unnecessary drug" as defined by the Nursing Home Care Act or Titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act and the implementing rules and regulations. The Department shall require prior approval for any such medication prescribed for a nursing home resident or to a resident of a facility licensed under the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, that appears to be a chemical restraint or an unnecessary drug. The Department shall consult with the Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health in developing a protocol and criteria for deciding whether to grant such prior approval.

(g) The Department may by rule provide for reimbursement of the dispensing of a 90-day supply of a generic or brand name, non-narcotic maintenance medication in circumstances where it is cost effective.

(h) Effective July 1, 2011, the Department shall discontinue coverage of select over-the-counter drugs, including analgesics and cough and cold and allergy medications.

(i) The Department shall seek any necessary waiver from the federal government in order to establish a program limiting the pharmacies eligible to dispense specialty drugs and shall issue a Request for Proposals in order to maximize savings on these drugs. The Department shall by rule establish the drugs required to be dispensed in this program.

(Source: P.A. 96-1269, eff. 7-26-10; 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; 96-1501, eff. 1-25-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-74, eff. 6-30-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-426, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-6) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-6)

Sec. 5-6. Obligations incurred prior to death of a recipient. Obligations incurred but not paid for at the time of a recipient's death for services authorized under Section 5-5, including medical and other care in facilities as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or in like facilities not required to be licensed under that Act, may be paid, subject to the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department, after the death of the recipient.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(305 ILCS 5/5B-1) (from Ch. 23, par. 5B-1)

Sec. 5B-1. Definitions. As used in this Article, unless the context requires otherwise:

"Fund" means the Long-Term Care Provider Fund.

"Long-term care facility" means (i) a nursing facility, whether public or private and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit, that is subject to licensure by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD Community Care Act, including a county nursing home directed and maintained under Section 5-1005 of the Counties Code, and (ii) a part of a hospital in which skilled or intermediate long-term care services within the meaning of Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act are provided; except that the term "long-term care facility" does not include a facility operated by a State agency or operated solely as an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

"Long-term care provider" means (i) a person licensed by the Department of Public Health to operate and maintain a skilled nursing or intermediate long-term care facility or (ii) a hospital provider that provides skilled or intermediate long-term care services within the meaning of Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act. For purposes of this paragraph, "person" means any political subdivision of the State, municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, limited liability company, association, joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court. "Hospital provider" means a person licensed by the Department of Public Health to conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital.

"Occupied bed days" shall be computed separately for each long-term care facility operated or maintained by a long-term care provider, and means the sum for all beds of the number of days during the month on which each bed was occupied by a resident, other than a resident for whom Medicare Part A is the primary payer.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(305 ILCS 5/5B-4) (from Ch. 23, par. 5B-4)

Sec. 5B-4. Payment of assessment; penalty.

(a) The assessment imposed by Section 5B-2 shall be due and payable monthly, on the last State business day of the month for occupied bed days reported for the preceding third month prior to the month in which the tax is payable and due. A facility that has delayed payment due to the State's failure to reimburse for services rendered may request an extension on the due date for payment pursuant to subsection (b) and shall pay the assessment within 30 days of reimbursement by the Department. The Illinois Department may provide that county nursing homes directed and maintained pursuant to Section 5-1005 of the Counties Code may meet their assessment obligation by certifying to the Illinois Department that county expenditures have been obligated for the operation of the county nursing home in an amount at least equal to the amount of the assessment.

(a-5) The Illinois Department shall provide for an electronic submission process for each long-term care facility to report at a minimum the number of occupied bed days of the long-term care facility for the reporting period and other reasonable information the Illinois Department requires for the administration of its responsibilities under this Code. Beginning July 1, 2013, a separate electronic submission shall be completed for each long-term care facility in this State operated by a long-term care provider. The Illinois Department shall prepare an assessment bill stating the amount due and payable each month and submit it to each long-term care facility via an electronic process. Each assessment payment shall be accompanied by a copy of the assessment bill sent to the long-term care facility by the Illinois Department. To the extent practicable, the Department shall coordinate the assessment reporting requirements with other reporting required of long-term care facilities.

(b) The Illinois Department is authorized to establish delayed payment schedules for long-term care providers that are unable to make assessment payments when due under this Section due to financial difficulties, as determined by the Illinois Department. The Illinois Department may not deny a request for delay of payment of the assessment imposed under this Article if the long-term care provider has not been paid for services provided during the month on which the assessment is levied.

(c) If a long-term care provider fails to pay the full amount of an assessment payment when due (including any extensions granted under subsection (b)), there shall, unless waived by the Illinois Department for reasonable cause, be added to the assessment imposed by Section 5B-2 a penalty assessment equal to the lesser of (i) 5% of the amount of the assessment payment not paid on or before the due date plus 5% of the portion thereof remaining unpaid on the last day of each month thereafter or (ii) 100% of the assessment payment amount not paid on or before the due date. For purposes of this subsection, payments will be credited first to unpaid assessment payment amounts (rather than to penalty or interest), beginning with the most delinquent assessment payments. Payment cycles of longer than 60 days shall be one factor the Director takes into account in granting a waiver under this Section.

(c-5) If a long-term care facility fails to file its assessment bill with payment, there shall, unless waived by the Illinois Department for reasonable cause, be added to the assessment due a penalty assessment equal to 25% of the assessment due. After July 1, 2013, no penalty shall be assessed under this Section if the Illinois Department does not provide a process for the electronic submission of the information required by subsection (a-5).

(d) Nothing in this amendatory Act of 1993 shall be construed to prevent the Illinois Department from collecting all amounts due under this Article pursuant to an assessment imposed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1993.

(e) Nothing in this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be construed to prevent the Illinois Department from collecting all amounts due under this Code pursuant to an assessment, tax, fee, or penalty imposed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(f) No installment of the assessment imposed by Section 5B-2 shall be due and payable until after the Department notifies the long-term care providers, in writing, that the payment methodologies to long-term care providers required under Section 5-5.4 of this Code have been approved by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and the waivers under 42 CFR 433.68 for the assessment imposed by this Section, if necessary, have been granted by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Upon notification to the Department of approval of the payment methodologies required under Section 5-5.4 of this Code and the waivers granted under 42 CFR 433.68, all installments otherwise due under Section 5B-4 prior to the date of notification shall be due and payable to the Department upon written direction from the Department within 90 days after issuance by the Comptroller of the payments required under Section 5-5.4 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-444, eff. 8-14-09; 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11; 97-10, eff. 6-14-11; 97-403, eff. 1-1-12; 97-584, eff. 8-26-11; revised 10-4-11.)

(305 ILCS 5/5B-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5B-5)

Sec. 5B-5. Annual reporting; penalty; maintenance of records.

(a) After December 31 of each year, and on or before March 31 of the succeeding year, every long-term care provider subject to assessment under this Article shall file a report with the Illinois Department. The report shall be in a form and manner prescribed by the Illinois Department and shall state the revenue received by the long-term care provider, reported in such categories as may be required by the Illinois Department, and other reasonable information the Illinois Department requires for the administration of its responsibilities under this Code.

(b) If a long-term care provider operates or maintains more than one long-term care facility in this State, the provider may not file a single return covering all those long-term care facilities, but shall file a separate return for each long-term care facility and shall compute and pay the assessment for each long-term care facility separately.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, in the case of a person who ceases to operate or maintain a long-term care facility in respect of which the person is subject to assessment under this Article as a long-term care provider, the person shall file a final, amended return with the Illinois Department not more than 90 days after the cessation reflecting the adjustment and shall pay with the final return the assessment for the year as so adjusted (to the extent not previously paid). If a person fails to file a final amended return on a timely basis, there shall, unless waived by the Illinois Department for reasonable cause, be added to the assessment due a penalty assessment equal to 25% of the assessment due.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, a provider who commences operating or maintaining a long-term care facility that was under a prior ownership and remained licensed by the Department of Public Health shall notify the Illinois Department of the change in ownership and shall be responsible to immediately pay any prior amounts owed by the facility.

(e) The Department shall develop a procedure for sharing with a potential buyer of a facility information regarding outstanding assessments and penalties owed by that facility.

(f) In the case of a long-term care provider existing as a corporation or legal entity other than an individual, the return filed by it shall be signed by its president, vice-president, secretary, or treasurer or by its properly authorized agent.

(g) If a long-term care provider fails to file its return on or before the due date of the return, there shall, unless waived by the Illinois Department for reasonable cause, be added to the assessment imposed by Section 5B-2 a penalty assessment equal to 25% of the assessment imposed for the year. After July 1, 2013, no penalty shall be assessed if the Illinois Department has not established a process for the electronic submission of information.

(h) Every long-term care provider subject to assessment under this Article shall keep records and books that will permit the determination of occupied bed days on a calendar year basis. All such books and records shall be kept in the English language and shall, at all times during business hours of the day, be subject to inspection by the Illinois Department or its duly authorized agents and employees.

(i) The Illinois Department shall establish a process for long-term care providers to electronically submit all information required by this Section no later than that July 1, 2013.

(Source: P.A. 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11; 97-403, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-18-11.)

(305 ILCS 5/5E-5)

Sec. 5E-5. Definitions. As used in this Article, unless the context requires otherwise:

"Nursing home" means (i) a skilled nursing or intermediate long-term care facility, whether public or private and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit, that is subject to licensure by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD Community Care Act, including a county nursing home directed and maintained under Section 5-1005 of the Counties Code, and (ii) a part of a hospital in which skilled or intermediate long-term care services within the meaning of Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act are provided; except that the term "nursing home" does not include a facility operated solely as an intermediate care facility for the intellectually disabled within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act or a specialized mental health rehabilitation facility.

"Nursing home provider" means (i) a person licensed by the Department of Public Health to operate and maintain a skilled nursing or intermediate long-term care facility which charges its residents, a third party payor, Medicaid, or Medicare for skilled nursing or intermediate long-term care services, or (ii) a hospital provider that provides skilled or intermediate long-term care services within the meaning of Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act. "Nursing home provider" does not include a person who operates or a provider who provides services within a specialized mental health rehabilitation facility. For purposes of this paragraph, "person" means any political subdivision of the State, municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, limited liability company, association, joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court. "Hospital provider" means a person licensed by the Department of Public Health to conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital.

"Licensed bed days" shall be computed separately for each nursing home operated or maintained by a nursing home provider and means, with respect to a nursing home provider, the sum for all nursing home beds of the number of days during a calendar quarter on which each bed is covered by a license issued to that provider under the Nursing Home Care Act or the Hospital Licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(305 ILCS 5/8A-11) (from Ch. 23, par. 8A-11)

Sec. 8A-11. (a) No person shall:

(1) Knowingly charge a resident of a nursing home for any services provided pursuant to Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code, money or other consideration at a rate in excess of the rates established for covered services by the Illinois Department pursuant to Article V of The Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(2) Knowingly charge, solicit, accept or receive, in addition to any amount otherwise authorized or required to be paid pursuant to Article V of The Illinois Public Aid Code, any gift, money, donation or other consideration:

(i) As a precondition to admitting or expediting the admission of a recipient or applicant, pursuant to Article V of The Illinois Public Aid Code, to a long-term care facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act or a facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or Section 1-113 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act; and

(ii) As a requirement for the recipient's or applicant's continued stay in such facility when the cost of the services provided therein to the recipient is paid for, in whole or in part, pursuant to Article V of The Illinois Public Aid Code.

(b) Nothing herein shall prohibit a person from making a voluntary contribution, gift or donation to a long-term care facility.

(c) This paragraph shall not apply to agreements to provide continuing care or life care between a life care facility as defined by the Life Care Facilities Act, and a person financially eligible for benefits pursuant to Article V of The Illinois Public Aid Code.

(d) Any person who violates this Section shall be guilty of a business offense and fined not less than $5,000 nor more than $25,000.

(e) "Person", as used in this Section, means an individual, corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association.

(f) The State's Attorney of the county in which the facility is located and the Attorney General shall be notified by the Illinois Department of any alleged violations of this Section known to the Department.

(g) The Illinois Department shall adopt rules and regulations to carry out the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.42)

Sec. 12-4.42. Medicaid Revenue Maximization.

(a) Purpose. The General Assembly finds that there is a need to make changes to the administration of services provided by State and local governments in order to maximize federal financial participation.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Community Medicaid mental health services" means all mental health services outlined in Section 132 of Title 59 of the Illinois Administrative Code that are funded through DHS, eligible for federal financial participation, and provided by a community-based provider.

"Community-based provider" means an entity enrolled as a provider pursuant to Sections 140.11 and 140.12 of Title 89 of the Illinois Administrative Code and certified to provide community Medicaid mental health services in accordance with Section 132 of Title 59 of the Illinois Administrative Code.

"DCFS" means the Department of Children and Family Services.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

"Developmentally disabled care facility" means an intermediate care facility for the intellectually disabled within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act, whether public or private and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit, but shall not include any facility operated by the State.

"Developmentally disabled care provider" means a person conducting, operating, or maintaining a developmentally disabled care facility. For purposes of this definition, "person" means any political subdivision of the State, municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, limited liability company, association, joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"DHS" means the Illinois Department of Human Services.

"Hospital" means an institution, place, building, or agency located in this State that is licensed as a general acute hospital by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Hospital Licensing Act, whether public or private and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit.

"Long term care facility" means (i) a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility, whether public or private and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit, that is subject to licensure by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, including a county nursing home directed and maintained under Section 5-1005 of the Counties Code, and (ii) a part of a hospital in which skilled or intermediate long term care services within the meaning of Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act are provided; except that the term "long term care facility" does not include a facility operated solely as an intermediate care facility for the intellectually disabled within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

"Long term care provider" means (i) a person licensed by the Department of Public Health to operate and maintain a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility or (ii) a hospital provider that provides skilled or intermediate long term care services within the meaning of Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act. For purposes of this definition, "person" means any political subdivision of the State, municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, limited liability company, association, joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"State-operated developmentally disabled care facility" means an intermediate care facility for the intellectually disabled within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act operated by the State.

(c) Administration and deposit of Revenues. The Department shall coordinate the implementation of changes required by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly amongst the various State and local government bodies that administer programs referred to in this Section.

Revenues generated by program changes mandated by any provision in this Section, less reasonable administrative costs associated with the implementation of these program changes, which would otherwise be deposited into the General Revenue Fund shall be deposited into the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund.

The Department shall issue a report to the General Assembly detailing the implementation progress of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly as a part of the Department's Medical Programs annual report for fiscal years 2010 and 2011.

(d) Acceleration of payment vouchers. To the extent practicable and permissible under federal law, the Department shall create all vouchers for long term care facilities and developmentally disabled care facilities for dates of service in the month in which the enhanced federal medical assistance percentage (FMAP) originally set forth in the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act (ARRA) expires and for dates of service in the month prior to that month and shall, no later than the 15th of the month in which the enhanced FMAP expires, submit these vouchers to the Comptroller for payment.

The Department of Human Services shall create the necessary documentation for State-operated developmentally disabled care facilities so that the necessary data for all dates of service before the expiration of the enhanced FMAP originally set forth in the ARRA can be adjudicated by the Department no later than the 15th of the month in which the enhanced FMAP expires.

(e) Billing of DHS community Medicaid mental health services. No later than July 1, 2011, community Medicaid mental health services provided by a community-based provider must be billed directly to the Department.

(f) DCFS Medicaid services. The Department shall work with DCFS to identify existing programs, pending qualifying services, that can be converted in an economically feasible manner to Medicaid in order to secure federal financial revenue.

(g) Third Party Liability recoveries. The Department shall contract with a vendor to support the Department in coordinating benefits for Medicaid enrollees. The scope of work shall include, at a minimum, the identification of other insurance for Medicaid enrollees and the recovery of funds paid by the Department when another payer was liable. The vendor may be paid a percentage of actual cash recovered when practical and subject to federal law.

(h) Public health departments. The Department shall identify unreimbursed costs for persons covered by Medicaid who are served by the Chicago Department of Public Health.

The Department shall assist the Chicago Department of Public Health in determining total unreimbursed costs associated with the provision of healthcare services to Medicaid enrollees.

The Department shall determine and draw the maximum allowable federal matching dollars associated with the cost of Chicago Department of Public Health services provided to Medicaid enrollees.

(i) Acceleration of hospital-based payments. The Department shall, by the 10th day of the month in which the enhanced FMAP originally set forth in the ARRA expires, create vouchers for all State fiscal year 2011 hospital payments exempt from the prompt payment requirements of the ARRA. The Department shall submit these vouchers to the Comptroller for payment.

(Source: P.A. 96-1405, eff. 7-29-10; 97-48, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 495. The Elder Abuse and Neglect Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(320 ILCS 20/2) (from Ch. 23, par. 6602)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Abuse" means causing any physical, mental or sexual injury to an eligible adult, including exploitation of such adult's financial resources.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse, neglect, or self-neglect for the sole reason that he or she is being furnished with or relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(a-5) "Abuser" means a person who abuses, neglects, or financially exploits an eligible adult.

(a-7) "Caregiver" means a person who either as a result of a family relationship, voluntarily, or in exchange for compensation has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of an eligible adult who needs assistance with activities of daily living.

(b) "Department" means the Department on Aging of the State of Illinois.

(c) "Director" means the Director of the Department.

(d) "Domestic living situation" means a residence where the eligible adult at the time of the report lives alone or with his or her family or a caregiver, or others, or a board and care home or other community-based unlicensed facility, but is not:

(1) A licensed facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act;

(1.5) A facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(1.7) A facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act;

(2) A "life care facility" as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act;

(3) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof or by the State of Illinois;

(4) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation of organized facilities therefor, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(5) A "community living facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(6) (Blank);

(7) A "community-integrated living arrangement" as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(8) An assisted living or shared housing establishment as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; or

(9) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(e) "Eligible adult" means a person 60 years of age or older who resides in a domestic living situation and is, or is alleged to be, abused, neglected, or financially exploited by another individual or who neglects himself or herself.

(f) "Emergency" means a situation in which an eligible adult is living in conditions presenting a risk of death or physical, mental or sexual injury and the provider agency has reason to believe the eligible adult is unable to consent to services which would alleviate that risk.

(f-5) "Mandated reporter" means any of the following persons while engaged in carrying out their professional duties:

(1) a professional or professional's delegate while engaged in: (i) social services, (ii) law enforcement, (iii) education, (iv) the care of an eligible adult or eligible adults, or (v) any of the occupations required to be licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, the Illinois Dental Practice Act, the Dietetic and Nutrition Services Practice Act, the Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Naprapathic Practice Act, the Nurse Practice Act, the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act, the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, the Pharmacy Practice Act, the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Respiratory Care Practice Act, the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing Act, the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act, the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004, and the Illinois Public Accounting Act;

(2) an employee of a vocational rehabilitation facility prescribed or supervised by the Department of Human Services;

(3) an administrator, employee, or person providing services in or through an unlicensed community based facility;

(4) any religious practitioner who provides treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination, except as to information received in any confession or sacred communication enjoined by the discipline of the religious denomination to be held confidential;

(5) field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Department of Public Health, and Department of Human Services, and any county or municipal health department;

(6) personnel of the Department of Human Services, the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the State Fire Marshal, local fire departments, the Department on Aging and its subsidiary Area Agencies on Aging and provider agencies, and the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman;

(7) any employee of the State of Illinois not otherwise specified herein who is involved in providing services to eligible adults, including professionals providing medical or rehabilitation services and all other persons having direct contact with eligible adults;

(8) a person who performs the duties of a coroner or medical examiner; or

(9) a person who performs the duties of a paramedic or an emergency medical technician.

(g) "Neglect" means another individual's failure to provide an eligible adult with or willful withholding from an eligible adult the necessities of life including, but not limited to, food, clothing, shelter or health care. This subsection does not create any new affirmative duty to provide support to eligible adults. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of neglect because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(h) "Provider agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area appointed by the regional administrative agency with prior approval by the Department on Aging to receive and assess reports of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

(i) "Regional administrative agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area so designated by the Department, provided that the designated Area Agency on Aging shall be designated the regional administrative agency if it so requests. The Department shall assume the functions of the regional administrative agency for any planning and service area where another agency is not so designated.

(i-5) "Self-neglect" means a condition that is the result of an eligible adult's inability, due to physical or mental impairments, or both, or a diminished capacity, to perform essential self-care tasks that substantially threaten his or her own health, including: providing essential food, clothing, shelter, and health care; and obtaining goods and services necessary to maintain physical health, mental health, emotional well-being, and general safety. The term includes compulsive hoarding, which is characterized by the acquisition and retention of large quantities of items and materials that produce an extensively cluttered living space, which significantly impairs the performance of essential self-care tasks or otherwise substantially threatens life or safety.

(j) "Substantiated case" means a reported case of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect in which a provider agency, after assessment, determines that there is reason to believe abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-526, eff. 1-1-10; 96-572, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-300, eff. 8-11-11; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 500. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 7 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/4) (from Ch. 23, par. 2054)

Sec. 4. Persons required to report; privileged communications; transmitting false report. Any physician, resident, intern, hospital, hospital administrator and personnel engaged in examination, care and treatment of persons, surgeon, dentist, dentist hygienist, osteopath, chiropractor, podiatrist, physician assistant, substance abuse treatment personnel, funeral home director or employee, coroner, medical examiner, emergency medical technician, acupuncturist, crisis line or hotline personnel, school personnel (including administrators and both certified and non-certified school employees), educational advocate assigned to a child pursuant to the School Code, member of a school board or the Chicago Board of Education or the governing body of a private school (but only to the extent required in accordance with other provisions of this Section expressly concerning the duty of school board members to report suspected child abuse), truant officers, social worker, social services administrator, domestic violence program personnel, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, genetic counselor, respiratory care practitioner, advanced practice nurse, home health aide, director or staff assistant of a nursery school or a child day care center, recreational program or facility personnel, law enforcement officer, licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical professional counselor, registered psychologist and assistants working under the direct supervision of a psychologist, psychiatrist, or field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Juvenile Justice, Public Health, Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities, Rehabilitation Services, or Public Aid), Corrections, Human Rights, or Children and Family Services, supervisor and administrator of general assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code, probation officer, animal control officer or Illinois Department of Agriculture Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare field investigator, or any other foster parent, homemaker or child care worker having reasonable cause to believe a child known to them in their professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Any member of the clergy having reasonable cause to believe that a child known to that member of the clergy in his or her professional capacity may be an abused child as defined in item (c) of the definition of "abused child" in Section 3 of this Act shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Any physician, physician's assistant, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, medical technician, certified nursing assistant, social worker, or licensed professional counselor of any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives having reasonable cause to believe a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

If an allegation is raised to a school board member during the course of an open or closed school board meeting that a child who is enrolled in the school district of which he or she is a board member is an abused child as defined in Section 3 of this Act, the member shall direct or cause the school board to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse. For purposes of this paragraph, a school board member is granted the authority in his or her individual capacity to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, if an employee of a school district has made a report or caused a report to be made to the Department under this Act involving the conduct of a current or former employee of the school district and a request is made by another school district for the provision of information concerning the job performance or qualifications of the current or former employee because he or she is an applicant for employment with the requesting school district, the general superintendent of the school district to which the request is being made must disclose to the requesting school district the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department, as required under this Act. Only the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department may be disclosed by the general superintendent of the school district to which the request for information concerning the applicant is made, and this fact may be disclosed only in cases where the employee and the general superintendent have not been informed by the Department that the allegations were unfounded. An employee of a school district who is or has been the subject of a report made pursuant to this Act during his or her employment with the school district must be informed by that school district that if he or she applies for employment with another school district, the general superintendent of the former school district, upon the request of the school district to which the employee applies, shall notify that requesting school district that the employee is or was the subject of such a report.

Whenever such person is required to report under this Act in his capacity as a member of the staff of a medical or other public or private institution, school, facility or agency, or as a member of the clergy, he shall make report immediately to the Department in accordance with the provisions of this Act and may also notify the person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent that such report has been made. Under no circumstances shall any person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent to whom such notification has been made, exercise any control, restraint, modification or other change in the report or the forwarding of such report to the Department.

The privileged quality of communication between any professional person required to report and his patient or client shall not apply to situations involving abused or neglected children and shall not constitute grounds for failure to report as required by this Act or constitute grounds for failure to share information or documents with the Department during the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation. If requested by the professional, the Department shall confirm in writing that the information or documents disclosed by the professional were gathered in the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation.

A member of the clergy may claim the privilege under Section 8-803 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives shall provide to all office personnel copies of written information and training materials about abuse and neglect and the requirements of this Act that are provided to employees of the office, clinic, or physical location who are required to make reports to the Department under this Act, and instruct such office personnel to bring to the attention of an employee of the office, clinic, or physical location who is required to make reports to the Department under this Act any reasonable suspicion that a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child. In addition to the above persons required to report suspected cases of abused or neglected children, any other person may make a report if such person has reasonable cause to believe a child may be an abused child or a neglected child.

Any person who enters into employment on and after July 1, 1986 and is mandated by virtue of that employment to report under this Act, shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the Department, to the effect that the employee has knowledge and understanding of the reporting requirements of this Act. The statement shall be signed prior to commencement of the employment. The signed statement shall be retained by the employer. The cost of printing, distribution, and filing of the statement shall be borne by the employer.

The Department shall provide copies of this Act, upon request, to all employers employing persons who shall be required under the provisions of this Section to report under this Act.

Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the "Criminal Code of 1961". A violation of this provision is a Class 4 felony.

Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any provision of this Section other than a second or subsequent violation of transmitting a false report as described in the preceding paragraph, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation; except that if the person acted as part of a plan or scheme having as its object the prevention of discovery of an abused or neglected child by lawful authorities for the purpose of protecting or insulating any person or entity from arrest or prosecution, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense (regardless of whether the second or subsequent offense involves any of the same facts or persons as the first or other prior offense).

A child whose parent, guardian or custodian in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care may be considered neglected or abused, but not for the sole reason that his parent, guardian or custodian accepts and practices such beliefs.

A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely because the child is not attending school in accordance with the requirements of Article 26 of the School Code, as amended.

Nothing in this Act prohibits a mandated reporter who reasonably believes that an animal is being abused or neglected in violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act from reporting animal abuse or neglect to the Department of Agriculture's Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare.

A home rule unit may not regulate the reporting of child abuse or neglect in a manner inconsistent with the provisions of this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

For purposes of this Section "child abuse or neglect" includes abuse or neglect of an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-494, eff. 8-14-09; 96-1446, eff. 8-20-10; 97-189, eff. 7-22-11; 97-254, eff. 1-1-12; 97-387, eff. 8-15-11; revised 10-4-11.)

(325 ILCS 5/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057)

Sec. 7. Time and manner of making reports. All reports of suspected child abuse or neglect made under this Act shall be made immediately by telephone to the central register established under Section 7.7 on the single, State-wide, toll-free telephone number established in Section 7.6, or in person or by telephone through the nearest Department office. The Department shall, in cooperation with school officials, distribute appropriate materials in school buildings listing the toll-free telephone number established in Section 7.6, including methods of making a report under this Act. The Department may, in cooperation with appropriate members of the clergy, distribute appropriate materials in churches, synagogues, temples, mosques, or other religious buildings listing the toll-free telephone number established in Section 7.6, including methods of making a report under this Act.

Wherever the Statewide number is posted, there shall also be posted the following notice:

"Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961. A violation of this subsection is a Class 4 felony."

The report required by this Act shall include, if known, the name and address of the child and his parents or other persons having his custody; the child's age; the nature of the child's condition including any evidence of previous injuries or disabilities; and any other information that the person filing the report believes might be helpful in establishing the cause of such abuse or neglect and the identity of the person believed to have caused such abuse or neglect. Reports made to the central register through the State-wide, toll-free telephone number shall be immediately transmitted by the Department to the appropriate Child Protective Service Unit. All such reports alleging the death of a child, serious injury to a child including, but not limited to, brain damage, skull fractures, subdural hematomas, and internal injuries, torture of a child, malnutrition of a child, and sexual abuse to a child, including, but not limited to, sexual intercourse, sexual exploitation, sexual molestation, and sexually transmitted disease in a child age 12 and under, shall also be immediately transmitted by the Department to the appropriate local law enforcement agency. The Department shall within 24 hours orally notify local law enforcement personnel and the office of the State's Attorney of the involved county of the receipt of any report alleging the death of a child, serious injury to a child including, but not limited to, brain damage, skull fractures, subdural hematomas, and, internal injuries, torture of a child, malnutrition of a child, and sexual abuse to a child, including, but not limited to, sexual intercourse, sexual exploitation, sexual molestation, and sexually transmitted disease in a child age twelve and under. All oral reports made by the Department to local law enforcement personnel and the office of the State's Attorney of the involved county shall be confirmed in writing within 24 hours of the oral report. All reports by persons mandated to report under this Act shall be confirmed in writing to the appropriate Child Protective Service Unit, which may be on forms supplied by the Department, within 48 hours of any initial report.

Written confirmation reports from persons not required to report by this Act may be made to the appropriate Child Protective Service Unit. Written reports from persons required by this Act to report shall be admissible in evidence in any judicial proceeding or administrative hearing relating to child abuse or neglect. Reports involving known or suspected child abuse or neglect in public or private residential agencies or institutions shall be made and received in the same manner as all other reports made under this Act.

For purposes of this Section "child" includes an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1446, eff. 8-20-10; 97-189, eff. 7-22-11; 97-387, eff. 8-15-11; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 505. The Early Intervention Services System Act is amended by changing Section 13.15 as follows:

(325 ILCS 20/13.15)

Sec. 13.15. Billing of insurance carrier.

(a) Subject to the restrictions against private insurance use on the basis of material risk of loss of coverage, as determined under Section 13.25, each enrolled provider who is providing a family with early intervention services shall bill the child's insurance carrier for each unit of early intervention service for which coverage may be available. The lead agency may exempt from the requirement of this paragraph any early intervention service that it has deemed not to be covered by insurance plans. When the service is not exempted, providers who receive a denial of payment on the basis that the service is not covered under any circumstance under the plan are not required to bill that carrier for that service again until the following insurance benefit year. That explanation of benefits denying the claim, once submitted to the central billing office, shall be sufficient to meet the requirements of this paragraph as to subsequent services billed under the same billing code provided to that child during that insurance benefit year. Any time limit on a provider's filing of a claim for payment with the central billing office that is imposed through a policy, procedure, or rule of the lead agency shall be suspended until the provider receives an explanation of benefits or other final determination of the claim it files with the child's insurance carrier.

(b) In all instances when an insurance carrier has been billed for early intervention services, whether paid in full, paid in part, or denied by the carrier, the provider must provide the central billing office, within 90 days after receipt, with a copy of the explanation of benefits form and other information in the manner prescribed by the lead agency.

(c) When the insurance carrier has denied the claim or paid an amount for the early intervention service billed that is less than that the current State rate for early intervention services, the provider shall submit the explanation of benefits with a claim for payment, and the lead agency shall pay the provider the difference between the sum actually paid by the insurance carrier for each unit of service provided under the individualized family service plan and the current State rate for early intervention services. The State shall also pay the family's co-payment or co-insurance under its plan, but only to the extent that those payments plus the balance of the claim do not exceed the current State rate for early intervention services. The provider may under no circumstances bill the family for the difference between its charge for services and that which has been paid by the insurance carrier or by the State.

(Source: P.A. 92-307, eff. 8-9-01; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 510. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code is amended by changing Sections 1-106 and 2-107 as follows:

(405 ILCS 5/1-106) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1-106)

Sec. 1-106. "Developmental disability" means a disability which is attributable to: (a) an intellectual disability, cerebral palsy, epilepsy or autism; or to (b) any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by intellectually disabled persons. Such disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial handicap.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-18-11.)

(405 ILCS 5/2-107) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 2-107)

Sec. 2-107. Refusal of services; informing of risks.

(a) An adult recipient of services or the recipient's guardian, if the recipient is under guardianship, and the recipient's substitute decision maker, if any, must be informed of the recipient's right to refuse medication or electroconvulsive therapy. The recipient and the recipient's guardian or substitute decision maker shall be given the opportunity to refuse generally accepted mental health or developmental disability services, including but not limited to medication or electroconvulsive therapy. If such services are refused, they shall not be given unless such services are necessary to prevent the recipient from causing serious and imminent physical harm to the recipient or others and no less restrictive alternative is available. The facility director shall inform a recipient, guardian, or substitute decision maker, if any, who refuses such services of alternate services available and the risks of such alternate services, as well as the possible consequences to the recipient of refusal of such services.

(b) Psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy may be administered under this Section for up to 24 hours only if the circumstances leading up to the need for emergency treatment are set forth in writing in the recipient's record.

(c) Administration of medication or electroconvulsive therapy may not be continued unless the need for such treatment is redetermined at least every 24 hours based upon a personal examination of the recipient by a physician or a nurse under the supervision of a physician and the circumstances demonstrating that need are set forth in writing in the recipient's record.

(d) Neither psychotropic medication nor electroconvulsive therapy may be administered under this Section for a period in excess of 72 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays, unless a petition is filed under Section 2-107.1 and the treatment continues to be necessary under subsection (a) of this Section. Once the petition has been filed, treatment may continue in compliance with subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section until the final outcome of the hearing on the petition.

(e) The Department shall issue rules designed to insure that in State-operated mental health facilities psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive therapy are administered in accordance with this Section and only when appropriately authorized and monitored by a physician or a nurse under the supervision of a physician in accordance with accepted medical practice. The facility director of each mental health facility not operated by the State shall issue rules designed to insure that in that facility psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive therapy are administered in accordance with this Section and only when appropriately authorized and monitored by a physician or a nurse under the supervision of a physician in accordance with accepted medical practice. Such rules shall be available for public inspection and copying during normal business hours.

(f) The provisions of this Section with respect to the emergency administration of psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive therapy do not apply to facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act.

(g) Under no circumstances may long-acting psychotropic medications be administered under this Section.

(h) Whenever psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy is refused pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section at least once that day, the physician shall determine and state in writing the reasons why the recipient did not meet the criteria for administration of medication or electroconvulsive therapy under subsection (a) and whether the recipient meets the standard for administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy under Section 2-107.1 of this Code. If the physician determines that the recipient meets the standard for administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy under Section 2-107.1, the facility director or his or her designee shall petition the court for administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy pursuant to that Section unless the facility director or his or her designee states in writing in the recipient's record why the filing of such a petition is not warranted. This subsection (h) applies only to State-operated mental health facilities.

(i) The Department shall conduct annual trainings for all physicians and registered nurses working in State-operated mental health facilities on the appropriate use of emergency administration of psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive therapy, standards for their use, and the methods of authorization under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 515. The Community Mental Health Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(405 ILCS 20/1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 301)

Sec. 1. As used in this Act:

"Direct recipient services" means only those services required to carry out a completed individualized treatment plan that is is signed by a service recipient or legal guardian. Crisis assessment and stabilization services are excluded, although these services may be anticipated in a treatment plan.

"Governmental unit" means any county, city, village, incorporated town, or township.

"Person with a developmental disability" means any person or persons so diagnosed and as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. Community mental health boards operating under this Act may in their jurisdiction, by a majority vote, add to the definition of "person with a developmental disability".

"Mental illness" has the meaning ascribed to that term in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. Community mental health boards operating under this Act may in their jurisdiction, by a majority vote, add to the definition of "mental illness".

"Substance use disorder" encompasses substance abuse, dependence, and addiction, not inconsistent with federal or State definitions.

(Source: P.A. 95-336, eff. 8-21-07; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 520. The Community Expanded Mental Health Services Act is amended by changing Sections 20 and 25 as follows:

(405 ILCS 22/20)

Sec. 20. Duties and functions of Governing Commission. The duties and functions of the Governing Commission of an Expanded Mental Health Services Program shall include the following:

(1) To, immediately after appointment, meet and organize, by the election of one of its number as president and one as secretary and such other officers as it may deem necessary. It shall establish policies, rules, regulations, bylaws, and procedures for both the Governing Commission and the Program concerning the rendition or operation of services and facilities which it directs, supervises, or funds, not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act. No policies, rules, regulations, or bylaws shall be adopted by the Governing Commission without prior notice to the residents of the territory of a Program and an opportunity for such residents to be heard.

(2) To hold meetings at least quarterly, and to hold special meetings upon a written request signed by at least 2 commissioners and filed with the secretary of the Governing Commission.

(3) To provide annual status reports on the Program to the Governor, the Mayor of the municipality, and the voters of the territory within 120 days after the end of the fiscal year, such report to show the condition of the expanded mental health services fund for that year, the sums of money received from all sources, how all monies have been expended and for what purposes, how the Program has conformed with the mental health needs assessment conducted in the territory, and such other statistics and Program information in regard to the work of the Governing Commission as it may deem of general interest.

(4) To manage, administer, and invest the financial resources contained in the expanded mental health services fund.

(5) To employ necessary personnel, acquire necessary office space, enter into contractual relationships, and disburse funds in accordance with the provisions of this Act. In this regard, to the extent the Governing Commission chooses to retain the services of another public or private agency with respect to the provision of expanded mental health services under this Act, such selection shall be based upon receipt of a comprehensive plan addressing the following factors: the conducting of a thorough mental health needs assessment for the territory; the development of specific mental health programs and services tailored to this assessment; and the percentage of the proposed budget devoted to responding to these demonstrated needs. Within 14 days of the selection of any individual or organization, the Governing Commission shall provide a written report of its decision, with specific reference to the factors used in reaching its decision, to the Mayor of the municipality, the Governor, and the voters of the territory. Subsequent decisions by the Governing Commission to retain or terminate the services of a provider shall be based upon the provider's success in achieving its stated goals, especially with regards to servicing the maximum number of residents of the territory identified as needing mental health services in the initial needs assessment and subsequent updates to it.

(6) To disburse the funds collected annually from tax revenue in such a way that no less than that 85% of those funds are expended on direct mental and emotional health services provided by licensed mental health professionals or by mental health interns or persons with a bachelor's degree in social work supervised by those professionals.

(7) To establish criteria and standards necessary for hiring the licensed mental health professionals to be employed to provide the direct services of the Program.

(8) To identify the mental and emotional health needs within the Program territory and determine the programs for meeting those needs annually as well as the eligible persons whom the Program may serve.

(9) To obtain errors and omissions insurance for all commissioners in an amount of no less than $1,000,000.

(10) To perform such other functions in connection with the Program and the expanded mental health services fund as required under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1548, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-18-11.)

(405 ILCS 22/25)

Sec. 25. Expanded mental health services fund.

(a) The Governing Commission shall maintain the expanded mental health services fund for the purposes of paying the costs of administering the Program and carrying out its duties under this Act, subject to the limitations and procedures set forth in this Act.

(b) The expanded mental health services fund shall be raised by means of an annual tax levied on each property within the territory of the Program. The rate of this tax may be changed from year to year by majority vote of the Governing Commission but in no case shall it exceed the ceiling rate established by the voters in the territory of the Program in the binding referendum to approve the creation of the Expanded Mental Health Services Program. The ceiling rate must be set within the range of .004 to .007 on each property in the territory of the Program. A higher ceiling rate for a territory may be established within that range only by the voters in a binding referendum from time to time to be held in a manner as set forth in this legislation. The commissioners shall cause the amount to be raised by taxation in each year to be certified to the county clerk in the manner provided by law, and any tax so levied and certified shall be collected and enforced in the same manner and by the same officers as those taxes for the purposes of the county and city within which the territory of the Governing Commission is located. Any such tax, when collected, shall be paid over to the proper officer of the Governing Commission who is authorized to receive and receipt for such tax. The Governing Commission may issue tax anticipation warrants against the taxes to be assessed for a calendar year.

(c) The moneys deposited in the expanded mental health services fund shall, as nearly as practicable, be fully and continuously invested or reinvested by the Governing Commission in investment obligations which shall be in such amounts, and shall mature at such times, that the maturity or date of redemption at the option of the holder of such investment obligations shall coincide, as nearly as practicable, with the times at which monies will be required for the purposes of the Program. For the purposes of this Section, "investment obligation" means direct general municipal, state, or federal obligations which at the time are legal investments under the laws of this State and the payment of principal of and interest on which are unconditionally guaranteed by the governing body issuing them.

(d) The fund shall be used solely and exclusively for the purpose of providing expanded mental health services and no more than that 15% of the annual levy may be used for reasonable salaries, expenses, bills, and fees incurred in administering the Program.

(e) The fund shall be maintained, invested, and expended exclusively by the Governing Commission of the Program for whose purposes it was created. Under no circumstances shall the fund be used by any person or persons, governmental body, or public or private agency or concern other than the Governing Commission of the Program for whose purposes it was created. Under no circumstances shall the fund be commingled with other funds or investments.

(f) No commissioner or family member of a commissioner, or employee or family member of an employee, may receive any financial benefit, either directly or indirectly, from the fund. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prohibit payment of expenses to a commissioner in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 15.

(g) Annually, the Governing Commission shall prepare for informational purposes in the appropriations process: (1) an annual budget showing the estimated receipts and intended disbursements pursuant to this Act for the fiscal year immediately following the date the budget is submitted, which date must be at least 30 days prior to the start of the fiscal year; and (2) an independent financial audit of the fund and the management of the Program detailing the income received and disbursements made pursuant to this Act during the fiscal year just preceding the date the annual report is submitted, which date must be within 90 days of the close of that fiscal year. These reports shall be made available to the public through any office of the Governing Commission or a public facility such as a local public library located within the territory of the Program. In addition, and in an effort to increase transparency of public programming, the Governing Commission shall effectively create and operate a publicly accessible website, which shall publish results of all audits for a period of no less than six months after the initial disclosure of the results and findings of each audit.

(Source: P.A. 96-1548, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 525. The Community Services Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(405 ILCS 30/4) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 904)

Sec. 4. Financing for Community Services.

(a) The Department of Human Services is authorized to provide financial reimbursement to eligible private service providers, corporations, local government entities or voluntary associations for the provision of services to persons with mental illness, persons with a developmental disability and alcohol and drug dependent persons living in the community for the purpose of achieving the goals of this Act.

The Department shall utilize the following funding mechanisms for community services:

(1) Purchase of Care Contracts: services purchased on a predetermined fee per unit of service basis from private providers or governmental entities. Fee per service rates are set by an established formula which covers some portion of personnel, supplies, and other allowable costs, and which makes some allowance for geographic variations in costs as well as for additional program components.

(2) Grants: sums of money which the Department grants to private providers or governmental entities pursuant to the grant recipient's agreement to provide certain services, as defined by departmental grant guidelines, to an approximate number of service recipients. Grant levels are set through consideration of personnel, supply and other allowable costs, as well as other funds available to the program.

(3) Other Funding Arrangements: funding mechanisms may be established on a pilot basis in order to examine the feasibility of alternative financing arrangements for the provision of community services.

The Department shall establish and maintain an equitable system of payment which allows providers to improve persons with disabilities' capabilities for independence and reduces their reliance on State-operated services.

For services classified as entitlement services under federal law or guidelines, caps may not be placed on the total amount of payment a provider may receive in a fiscal year and the Department shall not require that a portion of the payments due be made in a subsequent fiscal year based on a yearly payment cap.

(b) The Governor shall create a commission by September 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as possible, to review funding methodologies, identify gaps in funding, identify revenue, and prioritize use of that revenue for community developmental disability services, mental health services, alcohol and substance abuse services, rehabilitation services, and early intervention services. The Office of the Governor shall provide staff support for the commission.

(c) The first meeting of the commission shall be held within the first month after the creation and appointment of the commission, and a final report summarizing the commission's recommendations must be issued within 12 months after the first meeting, and no later than September 1, 2010, to the Governor and the General Assembly.

(d) The commission shall have the following 13 voting members:

(A) one member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(B) one member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the House Minority Leader;

(C) one member of the Senate, appointed by the President of the Senate;

(D) one member of the Senate, appointed by the Senate Minority Leader;

(E) one person with a developmental disability, or a family member or guardian of such a person, appointed by the Governor;

(F) one person with a mental illness, or a family member or guardian of such a person, appointed by the Governor;

(G) two persons from unions that represent employees of community providers that serve people with developmental disabilities, mental illness, and alcohol and substance abuse disorders, appointed by the Governor; and

(H) five persons from statewide associations that represent community providers that provide residential, day training, and other developmental disability services, mental health services, alcohol and substance abuse services, rehabilitation services, or early intervention services, or any combination of those, appointed by the Governor.

The commission shall also have the following ex-officio, nonvoting members:

(I) the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget or his or her designee;

(J) the Chief Financial Officer of the Department of Human Services or his or her designee;

(K) the Administrator of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Division of Finance or his or her designee;

(L) the Director of the Department of Human Services Division of Developmental Disabilities or his or her designee;

(M) the Director of the Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health or his or her designee; and

(N) the Director of the Department of Human Services Division of Alcoholism Alcohol and Substance Abuse or his or her designee.

(e) The funding methodologies must reflect economic factors inherent in providing services and supports, recognize individual disability needs, and consider geographic differences, transportation costs, required staffing ratios, and mandates not currently funded.

(f) In accepting Department funds, providers shall recognize their responsibility to be accountable to the Department and the State for the delivery of services which are consistent with the philosophies and goals of this Act and the rules and regulations promulgated under it.

(Source: P.A. 95-682, eff. 10-11-07; 96-652, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1472, eff. 8-23-10; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 530. The Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Persons Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(405 ILCS 45/3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1353)

Sec. 3. Powers and Duties.

(A) In order to properly exercise its powers and duties, the agency shall have the authority to:

(1) Investigate incidents of abuse and neglect of mentally ill persons if the incidents are reported to the agency or if there is probable cause to believe that the incidents occurred. In case of conflict with provisions of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or the Nursing Home Care Act, the provisions of those Acts shall apply.

(2) Pursue administrative, legal and other appropriate remedies to ensure the protection of the rights of mentally ill persons who are receiving care and treatment in this State.

(3) Pursue administrative, legal and other remedies on behalf of an individual who:

(a) was a mentally ill individual; and

(b) is a resident of this State, but only with respect to matters which occur within 90 days after the date of the discharge of such individual from a facility providing care and treatment.

(4) Establish a board which shall:

(a) advise the protection and advocacy system on policies and priorities to be carried out in protecting and advocating the rights of mentally ill individuals; and

(b) include attorneys, mental health professionals, individuals from the public who are knowledgeable about mental illness, a provider of mental health services, individuals who have received or are receiving mental health services and family members of such individuals. At least one-half the members of the board shall be individuals who have received or are receiving mental health services or who are family members of such individuals.

(5) On January 1, 1988, and on January 1 of each succeeding year, prepare and transmit to the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services and to the Illinois Secretary of Human Services a report describing the activities, accomplishments and expenditures of the protection and advocacy system during the most recently completed fiscal year.

(B) The agency shall have access to all mental health facilities as defined in Sections 1-107 and 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, all facilities as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act, all facilities as defined in Section 1-113 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, all facilities as defined in Section 1-113 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, all facilities as defined in Section 2.06 of the Child Care Act of 1969, as now or hereafter amended, and all other facilities providing care or treatment to mentally ill persons. Such access shall be granted for the purposes of meeting with residents and staff, informing them of services available from the agency, distributing written information about the agency and the rights of persons who are mentally ill, conducting scheduled and unscheduled visits, and performing other activities designed to protect the rights of mentally ill persons.

(C) The agency shall have access to all records of mentally ill persons who are receiving care or treatment from a facility, subject to the limitations of this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, the Nursing Home Care Act and the Child Care Act of 1969, as now or hereafter amended. If the mentally ill person has a legal guardian other than the State or a designee of the State, the facility director shall disclose the guardian's name, address and telephone number to the agency upon its request. In cases of conflict with provisions of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and the Nursing Home Care Act, the provisions of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and the Nursing Home Care Act shall apply. The agency shall also have access, for the purpose of inspection and copying, to the records of a mentally ill person (i) who by reason of his or her mental or physical condition is unable to authorize the agency to have such access; (ii) who does not have a legal guardian or for whom the State or a designee of the State is the legal guardian; and (iii) with respect to whom a complaint has been received by the agency or with respect to whom there is probable cause to believe that such person has been subjected to abuse or neglect.

The agency shall provide written notice to the mentally ill person and the State guardian of the nature of the complaint based upon which the agency has gained access to the records. No record or the contents of the record shall be redisclosed by the agency unless the person who is mentally ill and the State guardian are provided 7 days advance written notice, except in emergency situations, of the agency's intent to redisclose such record. Within such 7-day period, the mentally ill person or the State guardian may seek an injunction prohibiting the agency's redisclosure of such record on the grounds that such redisclosure is contrary to the interests of the mentally ill person.

Upon request, the authorized agency shall be entitled to inspect and copy any clinical or trust fund records of mentally ill persons which may further the agency's investigation of alleged problems affecting numbers of mentally ill persons. When required by law, any personally identifiable information of mentally ill persons shall be removed from the records. However, the agency may not inspect or copy any records or other materials when the removal of personally identifiable information imposes an unreasonable burden on any facility as defined by the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or any other facility providing care or treatment to mentally ill persons.

(D) Prior to instituting any legal action in a federal or State court on behalf of a mentally ill individual, an eligible protection and advocacy system, or a State agency or nonprofit organization which entered into a contract with such an eligible system under Section 104(a) of the federal Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Individuals Act of 1986, shall exhaust in a timely manner all administrative remedies where appropriate. If, in pursuing administrative remedies, the system, State agency or organization determines that any matter with respect to such individual will not be resolved within a reasonable time, the system, State agency or organization may pursue alternative remedies, including the initiation of appropriate legal action.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 535. The Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act is amended by changing Sections 2-3 and 5-1 as follows:

(405 ILCS 80/2-3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-3)

Sec. 2-3. As used in this Article, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Agency" means an agency or entity licensed by the Department pursuant to this Article or pursuant to the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act.

(b) "Department" means the Department of Human Services, as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities.

(c) "Home-based services" means services provided to a mentally disabled adult who lives in his or her own home. These services include but are not limited to:

(1) home health services;

(2) case management;

(3) crisis management;

(4) training and assistance in self-care;

(5) personal care services;

(6) habilitation and rehabilitation services;

(7) employment-related services;

(8) respite care; and

(9) other skill training that enables a person to become self-supporting.

(d) "Legal guardian" means a person appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction to exercise certain powers on behalf of a mentally disabled adult.

(e) "Mentally disabled adult" means a person over the age of 18 years who lives in his or her own home; who needs home-based services, but does not require 24-hour-a-day supervision; and who has one of the following conditions: severe autism, severe mental illness, a severe or profound intellectual disability, or severe and multiple impairments.

(f) In one's "own home" means that a mentally disabled adult lives alone; or that a mentally disabled adult is in full-time residence with his or her parents, legal guardian, or other relatives; or that a mentally disabled adult is in full-time residence in a setting not subject to licensure under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the Child Care Act of 1969, as now or hereafter amended, with 3 or fewer other adults unrelated to the mentally disabled adult who do not provide home-based services to the mentally disabled adult.

(g) "Parent" means the biological or adoptive parent of a mentally disabled adult, or a person licensed as a foster parent under the laws of this State who acts as a mentally disabled adult's foster parent.

(h) "Relative" means any of the following relationships by blood, marriage or adoption: parent, son, daughter, brother, sister, grandparent, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, great grandparent, great uncle, great aunt, stepbrother, stepsister, stepson, stepdaughter, stepparent or first cousin.

(i) "Severe autism" means a lifelong developmental disability which is typically manifested before 30 months of age and is characterized by severe disturbances in reciprocal social interactions; verbal and nonverbal communication and imaginative activity; and repertoire of activities and interests. A person shall be determined severely autistic, for purposes of this Article, if both of the following are present:

(1) Diagnosis consistent with the criteria for autistic disorder in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.

(2) Severe disturbances in reciprocal social interactions; verbal and nonverbal communication and imaginative activity; repertoire of activities and interests. A determination of severe autism shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist. A determination of severe autism shall not be based solely on behaviors relating to environmental, cultural or economic differences.

(j) "Severe mental illness" means the manifestation of all of the following characteristics:

(1) A primary diagnosis of one of the major mental disorders in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders listed below:

(A) Schizophrenia disorder.

(B) Delusional disorder.

(C) Schizo-affective disorder.

(D) Bipolar affective disorder.

(E) Atypical psychosis.

(F) Major depression, recurrent.

(2) The individual's mental illness must substantially impair his or her functioning in at least 2 of the following areas:

(A) Self-maintenance.

(B) Social functioning.

(C) Activities of community living.

(D) Work skills.

(3) Disability must be present or expected to be present for at least one year.

A determination of severe mental illness shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist, and shall not be based solely on behaviors relating to environmental, cultural or economic differences.

(k) "Severe or profound intellectual disability" means a manifestation of all of the following characteristics:

(1) A diagnosis which meets Classification in Mental Retardation or criteria in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders for severe or profound mental retardation (an IQ of 40 or below). This must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intellectual functioning.

(2) A severe or profound level of disturbed adaptive behavior. This must be measured by a standardized adaptive behavior scale or informal appraisal by the professional in keeping with illustrations in Classification in Mental Retardation, 1983.

(3) Disability diagnosed before age of 18.

A determination of a severe or profound intellectual disability shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or certified school psychologist or a psychiatrist, and shall not be based solely on behaviors relating to environmental, cultural or economic differences.

(l) "Severe and multiple impairments" means the manifestation of all of the following characteristics:

(1) The evaluation determines the presence of a developmental disability which is expected to continue indefinitely, constitutes a substantial handicap and is attributable to any of the following:

(A) Intellectual disability, which is defined as general intellectual functioning that is 2 or more standard deviations below the mean concurrent with impairment of adaptive behavior which is 2 or more standard deviations below the mean. Assessment of the individual's intellectual functioning must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intellectual functioning.

(B) Cerebral palsy.

(C) Epilepsy.

(D) Autism.

(E) Any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by intellectually disabled persons.

(2) The evaluation determines multiple handicaps in physical, sensory, behavioral or cognitive functioning which constitute a severe or profound impairment attributable to one or more of the following:

(A) Physical functioning, which severely impairs the individual's motor performance that may be due to:

(i) Neurological, psychological or physical involvement resulting in a variety of disabling conditions such as hemiplegia, quadriplegia or ataxia,

(ii) Severe organ systems involvement such as congenital heart defect,

(iii) Physical abnormalities resulting in the individual being non-mobile and non-ambulatory or confined to bed and receiving assistance in transferring, or

(iv) The need for regular medical or nursing supervision such as gastrostomy care and feeding.

Assessment of physical functioning must be based on clinical medical assessment by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, using the appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of measurement required by the professional.

(B) Sensory, which involves severe restriction due to hearing or visual impairment limiting the individual's movement and creating dependence in completing most daily activities. Hearing impairment is defined as a loss of 70 decibels aided or speech discrimination of less than 50% aided. Visual impairment is defined as 20/200 corrected in the better eye or a visual field of 20 degrees or less. Sensory functioning must be based on clinical medical assessment by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches using the appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of measurement required by the professional.

(C) Behavioral, which involves behavior that is maladaptive and presents a danger to self or others, is destructive to property by deliberately breaking, destroying or defacing objects, is disruptive by fighting, or has other socially offensive behaviors in sufficient frequency or severity to seriously limit social integration. Assessment of behavioral functioning may be measured by a standardized scale or informal appraisal by a clinical psychologist or psychiatrist.

(D) Cognitive, which involves intellectual functioning at a measured IQ of 70 or below. Assessment of cognitive functioning must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intelligence.

(3) The evaluation determines that development is substantially less than expected for the age in cognitive, affective or psychomotor behavior as follows:

(A) Cognitive, which involves intellectual functioning at a measured IQ of 70 or below. Assessment of cognitive functioning must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intelligence.

(B) Affective behavior, which involves over and under responding to stimuli in the environment and may be observed in mood, attention to awareness, or in behaviors such as euphoria, anger or sadness that seriously limit integration into society. Affective behavior must be based on clinical assessment using the appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of measurement required by the professional.

(C) Psychomotor, which includes a severe developmental delay in fine or gross motor skills so that development in self-care, social interaction, communication or physical activity will be greatly delayed or restricted.

(4) A determination that the disability originated before the age of 18 years.

A determination of severe and multiple impairments shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist.

If the examiner is a licensed clinical psychologist, ancillary evaluation of physical impairment, cerebral palsy or epilepsy must be made by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

Regardless of the discipline of the examiner, ancillary evaluation of visual impairment must be made by an ophthalmologist or a licensed optometrist.

Regardless of the discipline of the examiner, ancillary evaluation of hearing impairment must be made by an otolaryngologist or an audiologist with a certificate of clinical competency.

The only exception to the above is in the case of a person with cerebral palsy or epilepsy who, according to the eligibility criteria listed below, has multiple impairments which are only physical and sensory. In such a case, a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may serve as the examiner.

(m) "Twenty-four-hour-a-day supervision" means 24-hour-a-day care by a trained mental health or developmental disability professional on an ongoing basis.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(405 ILCS 80/5-1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1805-1)

Sec. 5-1. As the mental health and developmental disabilities or intellectual disabilities authority for the State of Illinois, the Department of Human Services shall have the authority to license, certify and prescribe standards governing the programs and services provided under this Act, as well as all other agencies or programs which provide home-based or community-based services to the mentally disabled, except those services, programs or agencies established under or otherwise subject to the Child Care Act of 1969, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, as now or hereafter amended, and this Act shall not be construed to limit the application of those Acts.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 540. The Crematory Regulation Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(410 ILCS 18/10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-863)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 10. Establishment of crematory and licensing of crematory authority.

(a) Any person doing business in this State, or any cemetery, funeral establishment, corporation, partnership, joint venture, voluntary organization or any other entity, may erect, maintain, and operate a crematory in this State and provide the necessary appliances and facilities for the cremation of human remains in accordance with this Act.

(b) A crematory shall be subject to all local, State, and federal health and environmental protection requirements and shall obtain all necessary licenses and permits from the Department, the federal Department of Health and Human Services, and the Illinois and federal Environmental Protection Agencies, or such other appropriate local, State, or federal agencies.

(c) A crematory may be constructed on or adjacent to any cemetery, on or adjacent to any funeral establishment, or at any other location consistent with local zoning regulations.

(d) An application for licensure as a crematory authority shall be in writing on forms furnished by the Comptroller. Applications shall be accompanied by a fee of $50 and shall contain all of the following:

(1) The full name and address, both residence and business, of the applicant if the applicant is an individual; the full name and address of every member if the applicant is a partnership; the full name and address of every member of the board of directors if the applicant is an association; and the name and address of every officer, director, and shareholder holding more than 25% of the corporate stock if the applicant is a corporation.

(2) The address and location of the crematory.

(3) A description of the type of structure and equipment to be used in the operation of the crematory, including the operating permit number issued to the cremation device by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency.

(3.5) Attestation by the owner that cremation services shall be by a person trained in accordance with the requirements of Section 22 of this Act.

(3.10) A copy of the certification or certifications issued by the certification program to the person or persons who will operate the cremation device.

(4) Any further information that the Comptroller reasonably may require.

(e) Each crematory authority shall file an annual report with the Comptroller, accompanied with a $25 fee, providing (i) an affidavit signed by the owner of the crematory authority that at the time of the report the cremation device was in proper operating condition, (ii) the total number of all cremations performed at the crematory during the past year, (iii) attestation by the licensee that all applicable permits and certifications are valid, and (iv) either (A) any changes required in the information provided under subsection (d) or (B) an indication that no changes have occurred. The annual report shall be filed by a crematory authority on or before March 15 of each calendar year, in the Office of the Comptroller. If the fiscal year of a crematory authority is other than on a calendar year basis, then the crematory authority shall file the report required by this Section within 75 days after the end of its fiscal year. The Comptroller shall, for good cause shown, grant an extension for the filing of the annual report upon the written request of the crematory authority. An extension shall not exceed 60 days. If a crematory authority fails to submit an annual report to the Comptroller within the time specified in this Section, the Comptroller shall impose upon the crematory authority a penalty of $5 for each and every day the crematory authority remains delinquent in submitting the annual report. The Comptroller may abate all or part of the $5 daily penalty for good cause shown.

(f) All records required to be maintained under this Act, including but not limited to those relating to the license and annual report of the crematory authority required to be filed under this Section, shall be subject to inspection by the Comptroller upon reasonable notice.

(g) The Comptroller may inspect crematory records at the crematory authority's place of business to review the licensee's compliance with this Act. The inspection must include verification that:

(1) the crematory authority has complied with record-keeping requirements of this Act;

(2) a crematory device operator's certification of training is conspicuously displayed at the crematory;

(3) the cremation device has a current operating permit issued by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency and the permit is conspicuously displayed in the crematory;

(4) the crematory authority is in compliance with local zoning requirements; and

(5) the crematory authority license issued by the Comptroller is conspicuously displayed at the crematory.

(h) The Comptroller shall issue licenses under this Act to the crematories that are registered with the Comptroller as of July 1, 2003 without requiring the previously registered crematories to complete license applications.

(Source: P.A. 92-419, eff. 1-1-02; 92-675, eff. 7-1-03.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-863)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 10. Establishment of crematory and licensing of crematory authority.

(a) Any person doing business in this State, or any cemetery, funeral establishment, corporation, partnership, joint venture, voluntary organization or any other entity, may erect, maintain, and operate a crematory in this State and provide the necessary appliances and facilities for the cremation of human remains in accordance with this Act.

(b) A crematory shall be subject to all local, State, and federal health and environmental protection requirements and shall obtain all necessary licenses and permits from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Public Health, the federal Department of Health and Human Services, and the Illinois and federal Environmental Protection Agencies, or such other appropriate local, State, or federal agencies.

(c) A crematory may be constructed on or adjacent to any cemetery, on or adjacent to any funeral establishment, or at any other location consistent with local zoning regulations.

(d) An application for licensure as a crematory authority shall be in writing on forms furnished by the Department. Applications shall be accompanied by a reasonable fee determined by rule and shall contain all of the following:

(1) The full name and address, both residence and business, of the applicant if the applicant is an individual; the full name and address of every member if the applicant is a partnership; the full name and address of every member of the board of directors if the applicant is an association; and the name and address of every officer, director, and shareholder holding more than 25% of the corporate stock if the applicant is a corporation.

(2) The address and location of the crematory.

(3) A description of the type of structure and equipment to be used in the operation of the crematory, including the operating permit number issued to the cremation device by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency.

(4) Any further information that the Department reasonably may require as established by rule.

(e) Each crematory authority shall file an annual report with the Department, accompanied with a reasonable fee determined by rule, providing (i) an affidavit signed by the owner of the crematory authority that at the time of the report the cremation device was in proper operating condition, (ii) the total number of all cremations performed at the crematory during the past year, (iii) attestation by the licensee that all applicable permits and certifications are valid, (iv) either (A) any changes required in the information provided under subsection (d) or (B) an indication that no changes have occurred, and (v) any other information that the Department may require as established by rule. The annual report shall be filed by a crematory authority on or before March 15 of each calendar year. If the fiscal year of a crematory authority is other than on a calendar year basis, then the crematory authority shall file the report required by this Section within 75 days after the end of its fiscal year. If a crematory authority fails to submit an annual report to the Department within the time specified in this Section, the Department shall impose upon the crematory authority a penalty as provided for by rule for each and every day the crematory authority remains delinquent in submitting the annual report. The Department may abate all or part of the penalty for good cause shown.

(f) All records required to be maintained under this Act, including but not limited to those relating to the license and annual report of the crematory authority required to be filed under this Section, shall be subject to inspection by the Comptroller upon reasonable notice.

(g) The Department may inspect crematory records at the crematory authority's place of business to review the licensee's compliance with this Act. The inspection must include verification that:

(1) the crematory authority has complied with record-keeping requirements of this Act;

(2) a crematory device operator's certification of training is conspicuously displayed at the crematory;

(3) the cremation device has a current operating permit issued by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency and the permit is conspicuously displayed in the crematory;

(4) the crematory authority is in compliance with local zoning requirements; and

(5) the crematory authority license issued by the Department is conspicuously displayed at the crematory; and .

(6) other details as determined by rule.

(h) The Department shall issue licenses under this Act to the crematories that are registered with the Comptroller as of on March 1, 2012 without requiring the previously registered crematories to complete license applications.

(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-12; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 545. The Newborn Metabolic Screening Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(410 ILCS 240/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4904)

Sec. 2. The Department of Public Health shall administer the provisions of this Act and shall:

(a) Institute and carry on an intensive educational program among physicians, hospitals, public health nurses and the public concerning the diseases phenylketonuria, hypothyroidism, galactosemia and other metabolic diseases. This educational program shall include information about the nature of the diseases and examinations for the detection of the diseases in early infancy in order that measures may be taken to prevent the intellectual disabilities resulting from the diseases.

(a-5) Beginning July 1, 2002, provide all newborns with expanded screening tests for the presence of genetic, endocrine, or other metabolic disorders, including phenylketonuria, galactosemia, hypothyroidism, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, biotinidase deficiency, and sickling disorders, as well as other amino acid disorders, organic acid disorders, fatty acid oxidation disorders, and other abnormalities detectable through the use of a tandem mass spectrometer. If by July 1, 2002, the Department is unable to provide expanded screening using the State Laboratory, it shall temporarily provide such screening through an accredited laboratory selected by the Department until the Department has the capacity to provide screening through the State Laboratory. If expanded screening is provided on a temporary basis through an accredited laboratory, the Department shall substitute the fee charged by the accredited laboratory, plus a 5% surcharge for documentation and handling, for the fee authorized in subsection (e) of this Section.

(a-6) In accordance with the timetable specified in this subsection, provide all newborns with expanded screening tests for the presence of certain Lysosomal Storage Disorders known as Krabbe, Pompe, Gaucher, Fabry, and Niemann-Pick. The testing shall begin within 6 months following the occurrence of all of the following:

(i) the establishment and verification of relevant and appropriate performance specifications as defined under the federal Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments and regulations thereunder for Federal Drug Administration-cleared or in-house developed methods, performed under an institutional review board approved protocol, if required;

(ii) the availability of quality assurance testing methodology for these processes;

(iii) the acquisition and installment by the Department of the equipment necessary to implement the expanded screening tests;

(iv) establishment of precise threshold values ensuring defined disorder identification for each screening test;

(v) authentication of pilot testing achieving each milestone described in items (i) through (iv) of this subsection (a-6) for each disorder screening test; and

(vi) authentication achieving potentiality of high throughput standards for statewide volume of each disorder screening test concomitant with each milestone described in items (i) through (iv) of this subsection (a-6).

It is the goal of Public Act 97-532 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that the expanded screening for the specified Lysosomal Storage Disorders begins within 2 years after August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-532) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. The Department is authorized to implement an additional fee for the screening prior to beginning the testing in order to accumulate the resources for start-up and other costs associated with implementation of the screening and thereafter to support the costs associated with screening and follow-up programs for the specified Lysosomal Storage Disorders.

(a-7) In accordance with the timetable specified in this subsection (a-7), provide all newborns with expanded screening tests for the presence of Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID). The testing shall begin within 12 months following the occurrence of all of the following:

(i) the establishment and verification of relevant and appropriate performance specifications as defined under the federal Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments and regulations thereunder for Federal Drug Administration-cleared or in-house developed methods, performed under an institutional review board approved protocol, if required;

(ii) the availability of quality assurance testing and comparative threshold values for SCID;

(iii) the acquisition and installment by the Department of the equipment necessary to implement the initial pilot and expanded statewide volume of screening tests for SCID;

(iv) establishment of precise threshold values ensuring defined disorder identification for SCID;

(v) authentication of pilot testing achieving each milestone described in items (i) through (iv) of this subsection (a-7) for SCID; and

(vi) authentication achieving potentiality of high throughput standards for statewide volume of the SCID screening test concomitant with each milestone described in items (i) through (iv) of this subsection (a-7).

It is the goal of Public Act 97-532 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that the expanded screening for Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease begins within 2 years after August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-532) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. The Department is authorized to implement an additional fee for the screening prior to beginning the testing in order to accumulate the resources for start-up and other costs associated with implementation of the screening and thereafter to support the costs associated with screening and follow-up programs for Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease.

(a-8) In accordance with the timetable specified in this subsection (a-8), provide all newborns with expanded screening tests for the presence of certain Lysosomal Storage Disorders known as Mucopolysaccharidosis I (Hurlers) and Mucopolysaccharidosis II (Hunters). The testing shall begin within 12 months following the occurrence of all of the following:

(i) the establishment and verification of relevant and appropriate performance specifications as defined under the federal Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments and regulations thereunder for Federal Drug Administration-cleared or in-house developed methods, performed under an institutional review board approved protocol, if required;

(ii) the availability of quality assurance testing and comparative threshold values for each screening test and accompanying disorder;

(iii) the acquisition and installment by the Department of the equipment necessary to implement the initial pilot and expanded statewide volume of screening tests for each disorder;

(iv) establishment of precise threshold values ensuring defined disorder identification for each screening test;

(v) authentication of pilot testing achieving each milestone described in items (i) through (iv) of this subsection (a-8) for each disorder screening test; and

(vi) authentication achieving potentiality of high throughput standards for statewide volume of each disorder screening test concomitant with each milestone described in items (i) through (iv) of this subsection (a-8).

It is the goal of Public Act 97-532 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that the expanded screening for the specified Lysosomal Storage Disorders begins within 3 years after August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-532) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. The Department is authorized to implement an additional fee for the screening prior to beginning the testing in order to accumulate the resources for start-up and other costs associated with implementation of the screening and thereafter to support the costs associated with screening and follow-up programs for the specified Lysosomal Storage Disorders.

(b) Maintain a registry of cases including information of importance for the purpose of follow-up services to prevent intellectual disabilities.

(c) Supply the necessary metabolic treatment formulas where practicable for diagnosed cases of amino acid metabolism disorders, including phenylketonuria, organic acid disorders, and fatty acid oxidation disorders for as long as medically indicated, when the product is not available through other State agencies.

(d) Arrange for or provide public health nursing, nutrition and social services and clinical consultation as indicated.

(e) Require that all specimens collected pursuant to this Act or the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder be submitted for testing to the nearest Department of Public Health laboratory designated to perform such tests. The Department may develop a reasonable fee structure and may levy fees according to such structure to cover the cost of providing this testing service. Fees collected from the provision of this testing service shall be placed in a special fund in the State Treasury, hereafter known as the Metabolic Screening and Treatment Fund. Other State and federal funds for expenses related to metabolic screening, follow-up and treatment programs may also be placed in such Fund. Moneys shall be appropriated from such Fund to the Department of Public Health solely for the purposes of providing metabolic screening, follow-up and treatment programs. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit any licensed medical facility from collecting additional specimens for testing for metabolic or neonatal diseases or any other diseases or conditions, as it deems fit. Any person violating the provisions of this subsection (e) is guilty of a petty offense.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-532, eff. 8-23-11; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 550. The Sanitary Food Preparation Act is amended by changing Section 11 as follows:

(410 ILCS 650/11) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 77)

Sec. 11. Except as hereinafter provided and as provided in Sections Section 3.3 and 4 of the Food Handling Regulation Enforcement Act, the Department of Public Health shall enforce this Act, and for that purpose it may at all times enter every such building, room, basement, inclosure or premises occupied or used or suspected of being occupied or used for the production, preparation or manufacture for sale, or the storage, sale, distribution or transportation of such food, to inspect the premises and all utensils, fixtures, furniture and machinery used as aforesaid; and if upon inspection any such food producing or distribution establishment, conveyance, or employer, employee, clerk, driver or other person is found to be violating any of the provisions of this Act, or if the production, preparation, manufacture, packing, storage, sale, distribution or transportation of such food is being conducted in a manner detrimental to the health of the employees and operatives, or to the character or quality of the food therein being produced, manufactured, packed, stored, sold, distributed or conveyed, the officer or inspector making the inspection or examination shall report such conditions and violations to the Department. The Department of Agriculture shall have exclusive jurisdiction for the enforcement of this Act insofar as it relates to establishments defined by Section 2.5 of "The Meat and Poultry Inspection Act", approved July 22, 1959, as heretofore or hereafter amended. The Department of Agriculture or Department of Public Health, as the case may be, shall thereupon issue a written order to the person, firm or corporation responsible for the violation or condition aforesaid to abate such condition or violation or to make such changes or improvements as may be necessary to abate them, within such reasonable time as may be required. Notice of the order may be served by delivering a copy thereof to the person, firm or corporation, or by sending a copy thereof by registered mail, and the receipt thereof through the post office shall be prima facie evidence that notice of the order has been received. Such person, firm or corporation may appear in person or by attorney before the Department of Agriculture or the Department of Public Health, as the case may be, within the time limited in the order, and shall be given an opportunity to be heard and to show why such order or instructions should not be obeyed. The hearing shall be under such rules and regulations as may be prescribed by the Department of Agriculture or the Department of Public Health, as the case may be. If after such hearing it appears that this Act has not been violated, the order shall be rescinded. If it appears that this Act is being violated, and that the person, firm or corporation notified is responsible therefor, the previous order shall be confirmed or amended, as the facts shall warrant, and shall thereupon be final, but such additional time as is necessary may be granted within which to comply with the final order. If such person, firm or corporation is not present or represented when such final order is made, notice thereof shall be given as above provided. On failure of the party or parties to comply with the first order of the Department of Agriculture or the Department of Public Health, as the case may be, within the time prescribed, when no hearing is demanded, or upon failure to comply with the final order within the time specified, the Department shall certify the facts to the State's Attorney of the county in which such violation occurred, and such State's Attorney shall proceed against the party or parties for the fines and penalties provided by this Act, and also for the abatement of the nuisance: Provided, that the proceedings herein prescribed for the abatement of nuisances as defined in this Act shall not in any manner relieve the violator from prosecution in the first instance for every such violation, nor from the penalties for such violation prescribed by Section 13.

(Source: P.A. 97-393, eff. 1-1-12; 97-394, eff. 8-16-11; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 555. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 22.38 and 44 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/22.38)

Sec. 22.38. Facilities accepting exclusively general construction or demolition debris for transfer, storage, or treatment.

(a) Facilities accepting exclusively general construction or demolition debris for transfer, storage, or treatment shall be subject to local zoning, ordinance, and land use requirements. Those facilities shall be located in accordance with local zoning requirements or, in the absence of local zoning requirements, shall be located so that no part of the facility boundary is closer than 1,320 feet from the nearest property zoned for primarily residential use.

(b) An owner or operator of a facility accepting exclusively general construction or demolition debris for transfer, storage, or treatment shall:

(1) Within 48 hours after receipt of the general construction or demolition debris at the facility, sort the general construction or demolition debris to separate the recyclable general construction or demolition debris, recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel, and general construction or demolition debris that is processed for use at a landfill from the non-recyclable general construction or demolition debris that is to be disposed of or discarded.

(2) Transport off site for disposal, in accordance with all applicable federal, State, and local requirements within 72 hours after its receipt at the facility, all non-usable or non-recyclable general construction or demolition debris that is not recyclable general construction or demolition debris, recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel, or general construction or demolition debris that is processed for use at a landfill.

(3) Limit the percentage of incoming non-recyclable general construction or demolition debris to 25% or less of the total incoming general construction or demolition debris, so that 75% or more of the general construction or demolition debris accepted, as calculated monthly on a rolling 12-month average, consists of recyclable general construction or demolition debris, recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel, or general construction or demolition debris that is processed for use at a landfill except that general construction or demolition debris processed for use at a landfill shall not exceed 35% of the general construction or demolition debris accepted on a rolling 12-month average basis. The percentages in this paragraph (3) of subsection (b) shall be calculated by weight, using scales located at the facility that are certified under the Weights and Measures Act.

(4) Within 6 months after its receipt at the facility, transport:

(A) all non-putrescible recyclable general construction or demolition debris for recycling or disposal; and

(B) all non-putrescible general construction or demolition debris that is processed for use at a landfill to a MSWLF unit for use or disposal.

(5) Within 45 days after its receipt at the facility, transport:

(A) all putrescible or combustible recyclable general construction or demolition debris (excluding recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel) for recycling or disposal;

(B) all recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel to an intermediate processing facility for sizing, to a combustion facility for use as fuel, or to a disposal facility; and

(C) all putrescible general construction or demolition debris that is processed for use at a landfill to a MSWLF unit for use or disposal.

(6) Employ tagging and recordkeeping procedures to (i) demonstrate compliance with this Section and (ii) identify the source and transporter of material accepted by the facility.

(7) Control odor, noise, combustion of materials, disease vectors, dust, and litter.

(8) Control, manage, and dispose of any storm water runoff and leachate generated at the facility in accordance with applicable federal, State, and local requirements.

(9) Control access to the facility.

(10) Comply with all applicable federal, State, or local requirements for the handling, storage, transportation, or disposal of asbestos-containing material or other material accepted at the facility that is not general construction or demolition debris.

(11) Prior to August 24, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-611), submit to the Agency at least 30 days prior to the initial acceptance of general construction or demolition debris at the facility, on forms provided by the Agency, the following information:

(A) the name, address, and telephone number of both the facility owner and operator;

(B) the street address and location of the facility;

(C) a description of facility operations;

(D) a description of the tagging and recordkeeping procedures the facility will employ to (i) demonstrate compliance with this Section and (ii) identify the source and transporter of any material accepted by the facility;

(E) the name and location of the disposal sites to be used for the disposal of any general construction or demolition debris received at the facility that must be disposed of;

(F) the name and location of an individual, facility, or business to which recyclable materials will be transported;

(G) the name and location of intermediate processing facilities or combustion facilities to which recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel will be transported; and

(H) other information as specified on the form provided by the Agency.

(12) On or after August 24, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-611), obtain a permit issued by the Agency prior to the initial acceptance of general construction or demolition debris at the facility.

When any of the information contained or processes described in the initial notification form submitted to the Agency under paragraph (11) of subsection (b) of this Section changes, the owner and operator shall submit an updated form within 14 days of the change.

(c) For purposes of this Section, the term "recyclable general construction or demolition debris" means general construction or demolition debris that has been rendered reusable and is reused or that would otherwise be disposed of or discarded but is collected, separated, or processed and returned to the economic mainstream in the form of raw materials or products. "Recyclable general construction or demolition debris" does not include (i) general construction or demolition debris processed for use as fuel, incinerated, burned, buried, or otherwise used as fill material or (ii) general construction or demolition debris that is processed for use at a landfill.

(d) For purposes of this Section, "treatment" means processing designed to alter the physical nature of the general construction or demolition debris, including but not limited to size reduction, crushing, grinding, or homogenization, but does not include processing designed to change the chemical nature of the general construction or demolition debris.

(e) For purposes of this Section, "recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel" means wood that has been salvaged from general construction or demolition debris and processed for use as fuel, as authorized by the applicable state or federal environmental regulatory authority, and supplied only to intermediate processing facilities for sizing, or to combustion facilities for use as fuel, that have obtained all necessary waste management and air permits for handling and combustion of the fuel.

(f) For purposes of this Section, "non-recyclable general construction or demolition debris" does not include "recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel" or general construction or demolition debris that is processed for use at a landfill.

(g) Recyclable general construction or demolition debris, recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel, and general construction or demolition debris that is processed for use at a landfill shall not be considered as meeting the 75% diversion requirement for purposes of subdivision (b)(3) of this Section if sent for disposal at the end of the applicable retention period.

(h) For the purposes of this Section, "general construction or demolition debris that is processed for use at a landfill" means general construction or demolition debris that is processed for use at a MSWLF unit as alternative daily cover, road building material, or drainage structure building material in accordance with the MSWLF unit's waste disposal permit issued by the Agency under this Act.

(i) (h) For purposes of the 75% diversion requirement under subdivision (b)(3) of this Section, owners and operators of facilities accepting exclusively general construction or demolition debris for transfer, storage, or treatment may multiply by 2 the amount of accepted asphalt roofing shingles that are transferred to a facility for recycling in accordance with a beneficial use determination issued under Section 22.54 of this Act. The owner or operator of the facility accepting exclusively general construction or demolition debris for transfer, storage, or treatment must maintain receipts from the shingle recycling facility that document the amounts of asphalt roofing shingles transferred for recycling in accordance with the beneficial use determination. All receipts must be maintained for a minimum of 3 years and must be made available to the Agency for inspection and copying during normal business hours.

(Source: P.A. 96-235, eff. 8-11-09; 96-611, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-230, eff. 7-28-11; 97-314, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(415 ILCS 5/44) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1044)

Sec. 44. Criminal acts; penalties.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, it shall be a Class A misdemeanor to violate this Act or regulations thereunder, or any permit or term or condition thereof, or knowingly to submit any false information under this Act or regulations adopted thereunder, or under any permit or term or condition thereof. A court may, in addition to any other penalty herein imposed, order a person convicted of any violation of this Act to perform community service for not less than 100 hours and not more than 300 hours if community service is available in the jurisdiction. It shall be the duty of all State and local law-enforcement officers to enforce such Act and regulations, and all such officers shall have authority to issue citations for such violations.

(b) Calculated Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste.

(1) A person commits the offense of Calculated Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste when, without lawful justification, he knowingly disposes of hazardous waste while knowing that he thereby places another person in danger of great bodily harm or creates an immediate or long-term danger to the public health or the environment.

(2) Calculated Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste is a Class 2 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Calculated Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste is subject to a fine not to exceed $500,000 for each day of such offense.

(c) Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste.

(1) A person commits the offense of Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste when, without lawful justification, he knowingly disposes of hazardous waste.

(2) Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste is a Class 3 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste is subject to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for each day of such offense.

(d) Unauthorized Use of Hazardous Waste.

(1) A person commits the offense of Unauthorized Use of Hazardous Waste when he, being required to have a permit, registration, or license under this Act or any other law regulating the treatment, transportation, or storage of hazardous waste, knowingly:

(A) treats, transports, or stores any hazardous waste without such permit, registration, or license;

(B) treats, transports, or stores any hazardous waste in violation of the terms and conditions of such permit or license;

(C) transports any hazardous waste to a facility which does not have a permit or license required under this Act; or

(D) transports by vehicle any hazardous waste without having in each vehicle credentials issued to the transporter by the transporter's base state pursuant to procedures established under the Uniform Program.

(2) A person who is convicted of a violation of subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person who is convicted of a violation of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of violating subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is subject to a fine not to exceed $100,000 for each day of such violation, and a person who is convicted of violating subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is subject to a fine not to exceed $1,000.

(e) Unlawful Delivery of Hazardous Waste.

(1) Except as authorized by this Act or the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, and the regulations promulgated thereunder, it is unlawful for any person to knowingly deliver hazardous waste.

(2) Unlawful Delivery of Hazardous Waste is a Class 3 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Unlawful Delivery of Hazardous Waste is subject to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for each such violation.

(3) For purposes of this Section, "deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer of possession of hazardous waste, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(f) Reckless Disposal of Hazardous Waste.

(1) A person commits Reckless Disposal of Hazardous Waste if he disposes of hazardous waste, and his acts which cause the hazardous waste to be disposed of, whether or not those acts are undertaken pursuant to or under color of any permit or license, are performed with a conscious disregard of a substantial and unjustifiable risk that such disposing of hazardous waste is a gross deviation from the standard of care which a reasonable person would exercise in the situation.

(2) Reckless Disposal of Hazardous Waste is a Class 4 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Reckless Disposal of Hazardous Waste is subject to a fine not to exceed $50,000 for each day of such offense.

(g) Concealment of Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste.

(1) A person commits the offense of Concealment of Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste when he conceals, without lawful justification, the disposal of hazardous waste with the knowledge that such hazardous waste has been disposed of in violation of this Act.

(2) Concealment of Criminal Disposal of a Hazardous Waste is a Class 4 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Concealment of Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste is subject to a fine not to exceed $50,000 for each day of such offense.

(h) Violations; False Statements.

(1) Any person who knowingly makes a false material statement in an application for a permit or license required by this Act to treat, transport, store, or dispose of hazardous waste commits the offense of perjury and shall be subject to the penalties set forth in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(2) Any person who knowingly makes a false material statement or representation in any label, manifest, record, report, permit or license, or other document filed, maintained, or used for the purpose of compliance with this Act in connection with the generation, disposal, treatment, storage, or transportation of hazardous waste commits a Class 4 felony. A second or any subsequent offense after conviction hereunder is a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any person who knowingly destroys, alters, or conceals any record required to be made by this Act in connection with the disposal, treatment, storage, or transportation of hazardous waste commits a Class 4 felony. A second or any subsequent offense after a conviction hereunder is a Class 3 felony.

(4) Any person who knowingly makes a false material statement or representation in any application, bill, invoice, or other document filed, maintained, or used for the purpose of receiving money from the Underground Storage Tank Fund commits a Class 4 felony. A second or any subsequent offense after conviction hereunder is a Class 3 felony.

(5) Any person who knowingly destroys, alters, or conceals any record required to be made or maintained by this Act or required to be made or maintained by Board or Agency rules for the purpose of receiving money from the Underground Storage Tank Fund commits a Class 4 felony. A second or any subsequent offense after a conviction hereunder is a Class 3 felony.

(6) A person who knowingly and falsely certifies under Section 22.48 that an industrial process waste or pollution control waste is not special waste commits a Class 4 felony for a first offense and commits a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(7) In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of violating this subsection (h) is subject to a fine not to exceed $50,000 for each day of such violation.

(8) Any person who knowingly makes a false, fictitious, or fraudulent material statement, orally or in writing, to the Agency, or to a unit of local government to which the Agency has delegated authority under subsection (r) of Section 4 of this Act, related to or required by this Act, a regulation adopted under this Act, any federal law or regulation for which the Agency has responsibility, or any permit, term, or condition thereof, commits a Class 4 felony, and each such statement or writing shall be considered a separate Class 4 felony. A person who, after being convicted under this paragraph (8), violates this paragraph (8) a second or subsequent time, commits a Class 3 felony.

(i) Verification.

(1) Each application for a permit or license to dispose of, transport, treat, store, or generate hazardous waste under this Act shall contain an affirmation that the facts are true and are made under penalty of perjury as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961. It is perjury for a person to sign any such application for a permit or license which contains a false material statement, which he does not believe to be true.

(2) Each request for money from the Underground Storage Tank Fund shall contain an affirmation that the facts are true and are made under penalty of perjury as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961. It is perjury for a person to sign any request that contains a false material statement that he does not believe to be true.

(j) Violations of Other Provisions.

(1) It is unlawful for a person knowingly to violate:

(A) subsection (f) of Section 12 of this Act;

(B) subsection (g) of Section 12 of this Act;

(C) any term or condition of any Underground Injection Control (UIC) permit;

(D) any filing requirement, regulation, or order relating to the State Underground Injection Control (UIC) program;

(E) any provision of any regulation, standard, or filing requirement under subsection (b) of Section 13 of this Act;

(F) any provision of any regulation, standard, or filing requirement under subsection (b) of Section 39 of this Act;

(G) any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit issued under this Act or any term or condition of such permit;

(H) subsection (h) of Section 12 of this Act;

(I) subsection 6 of Section 39.5 of this Act;

(J) any provision of any regulation, standard or filing requirement under Section 39.5 of this Act;

(K) a provision of the Procedures for Asbestos Emission Control in subsection (c) of Section 61.145 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations; or

(L) the standard for waste disposal for manufacturing, fabricating, demolition, renovation, and spraying operations in Section 61.150 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations.

(2) A person convicted of a violation of subdivision (1) of this subsection commits a Class 4 felony, and in addition to any other penalty prescribed by law is subject to a fine not to exceed $25,000 for each day of such violation.

(3) A person who negligently violates the following shall be subject to a fine not to exceed $10,000 for each day of such violation:

(A) subsection (f) of Section 12 of this Act;

(B) subsection (g) of Section 12 of this Act;

(C) any provision of any regulation, standard, or filing requirement under subsection (b) of Section 13 of this Act;

(D) any provision of any regulation, standard, or filing requirement under subsection (b) of Section 39 of this Act;

(E) any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit issued under this Act;

(F) subsection 6 of Section 39.5 of this Act; or

(G) any provision of any regulation, standard, or filing requirement under Section 39.5 of this Act.

(4) It is unlawful for a person knowingly to:

(A) make any false statement, representation, or certification in an application form, or form pertaining to, a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit;

(B) render inaccurate any monitoring device or record required by the Agency or Board in connection with any such permit or with any discharge which is subject to the provisions of subsection (f) of Section 12 of this Act;

(C) make any false statement, representation, or certification in any form, notice, or report pertaining to a CAAPP permit under Section 39.5 of this Act;

(D) render inaccurate any monitoring device or record required by the Agency or Board in connection with any CAAPP permit or with any emission which is subject to the provisions of Section 39.5 of this Act; or

(E) violate subsection 6 of Section 39.5 of this Act or any CAAPP permit, or term or condition thereof, or any fee or filing requirement.

(5) A person convicted of a violation of paragraph (4) of this subsection commits a Class A misdemeanor, and in addition to any other penalties provided by law is subject to a fine not to exceed $10,000 for each day of violation.

(k) Criminal operation of a hazardous waste or PCB incinerator.

(1) A person commits the offense of criminal operation of a hazardous waste or PCB incinerator when, in the course of operating a hazardous waste or PCB incinerator, he knowingly and without justification operates the incinerator (i) without an Agency permit, or in knowing violation of the terms of an Agency permit, and (ii) as a result of such violation, knowingly places any person in danger of great bodily harm or knowingly creates an immediate or long term material danger to the public health or the environment.

(2) Any person who commits the offense of criminal operation of a hazardous waste or PCB incinerator for the first time commits a Class 4 felony and, in addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, shall be subject to a fine not to exceed $100,000 for each day of the offense.

Any person who commits the offense of criminal operation of a hazardous waste or PCB incinerator for a second or subsequent time commits a Class 3 felony and, in addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, shall be subject to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for each day of the offense.

(3) For the purpose of this subsection (k), the term "hazardous waste or PCB incinerator" means a pollution control facility at which either hazardous waste or PCBs, or both, are incinerated. "PCBs" means any substance or mixture of substances that contains one or more polychlorinated biphenyls in detectable amounts.

(l) It shall be the duty of all State and local law enforcement officers to enforce this Act and the regulations adopted hereunder, and all such officers shall have authority to issue citations for such violations.

(m) Any action brought under this Section shall be brought by the State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or by the Attorney General, and shall be conducted in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(n) For an offense described in this Section, the period for commencing prosecution prescribed by the statute of limitations shall not begin to run until the offense is discovered by or reported to a State or local agency having the authority to investigate violations of this Act.

(o) In addition to any other penalties provided under this Act, if a person is convicted of (or agrees to a settlement in an enforcement action over) illegal dumping of waste on the person's own property, the Attorney General, the Agency, or local prosecuting authority shall file notice of the conviction, finding, or agreement in the office of the Recorder in the county in which the landowner lives.

(p) Criminal Disposal of Waste.

(1) A person commits the offense of Criminal Disposal of Waste when he or she:

(A) if required to have a permit under subsection (d) of Section 21 of this Act, knowingly conducts a waste-storage, waste-treatment, or waste-disposal operation in a quantity that exceeds 250 cubic feet of waste without a permit; or

(B) knowingly conducts open dumping of waste in violation of subsection (a) of Section 21 of this Act.

(2) (A) A person who is convicted of a violation of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first offense and, in addition to any other penalties provided by law, is subject to a fine not to exceed $25,000 for each day of violation. A person who is convicted of a violation of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is guilty of a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense and, in addition to any other penalties provided by law, is subject to a fine not to exceed $50,000 for each day of violation.

(B) A person who is convicted of a violation of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. However, a person who is convicted of a violation of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection for the open dumping of waste in a quantity that exceeds 250 cubic feet or that exceeds 50 waste tires is guilty of a Class 4 felony and, in addition to any other penalties provided by law, is subject to a fine not to exceed $25,000 for each day of violation.

(q) Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply.

(1) A person commits the offense of Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply when, without lawful justification, he knowingly alters, damages, or otherwise tampers with the equipment or property of a public water supply, or knowingly introduces a contaminant into the distribution system of a public water supply so as to cause, threaten, or allow the distribution of water from any public water supply of such quality or quantity as to be injurious to human health or the environment.

(2) Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply is a Class 4 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply is subject to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for each day of such offense.

(r) Aggravated Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply.

(1) A person commits the offense of Aggravated Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply when, without lawful justification, he commits Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply while knowing that he thereby places another person in danger of serious illness or great bodily harm, or creates an immediate or long-term danger to public health or the environment.

(2) Aggravated Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply is a Class 2 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Aggravated Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply is subject to a fine not to exceed $500,000 for each day of such offense.

(Source: P.A. 96-603, eff. 8-24-09; 97-220, eff. 7-28-11; 97-286, eff. 8-10-11; revised 9-2-11.)

Section 560. The Drycleaner Environmental Response Trust Fund Act is amended by changing Section 60 as follows:

(415 ILCS 135/60)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 60. Drycleaning facility license.

(a) On and after January 1, 1998, no person shall operate a drycleaning facility in this State without a license issued by the Council.

(b) The Council shall issue an initial or renewal license to a drycleaning facility on submission by an applicant of a completed form prescribed by the Council, proof of payment of the required fee to the Department of Revenue, and, if the drycleaning facility has previously received or is currently receiving reimbursement for the costs of a remedial action, as defined in this Act, proof of compliance with subsection (j) of Section 40.

(c) On or after January 1, 2004, the annual fees for licensure are as follows:

(1) $500 for a facility that uses (i) 50 gallons or less of chlorine-based or green drycleaning solvents annually, (ii) 250 or less gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer, or (iii) 500 gallons or less annually of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents in a drycleaning machine without a solvent reclaimer.

(2) $500 for a facility that uses (i) more than 50 gallons but not more than 100 gallons of chlorine-based or green drycleaning solvents annually, (ii) more than 250 gallons but not more 500 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer, or (iii) more than 500 gallons but not more than 1,000 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents in a drycleaning machine without a solvent reclaimer.

(3) $500 for a facility that uses (i) more than 100 gallons but not more than 150 gallons of chlorine-based or green drycleaning solvents annually, (ii) more than 500 gallons but not more than 750 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer, or (iii) more than 1,000 gallons but not more than 1,500 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents in a drycleaning machine without a solvent reclaimer.

(4) $1,000 for a facility that uses (i) more than 150 gallons but not more than 200 gallons of chlorine-based or green drycleaning solvents annually, (ii) more than 750 gallons but not more than 1,000 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer, or (iii) more than 1,500 gallons but not more than 2,000 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents in a drycleaning machine without a solvent reclaimer.

(5) $1,000 for a facility that uses (i) more than 200 gallons but not more than 250 gallons of chlorine-based or green drycleaning solvents annually, (ii) more than 1,000 gallons but not more than 1,250 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer, or (iii) more than 2,000 gallons but not more than 2,500 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents in a drycleaning machine without a solvent reclaimer.

(6) $1,000 for a facility that uses (i) more than 250 gallons but not more than 300 gallons of chlorine-based or green drycleaning solvents annually, (ii) more than 1,250 gallons but not more than 1,500 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer, or (iii) more than 2,500 gallons but not more than 3,000 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents in a drycleaning machine without a solvent reclaimer.

(7) $1,000 for a facility that uses (i) more than 300 gallons but not more than 350 gallons of chlorine-based or green drycleaning solvents annually, (ii) more than 1,500 gallons but not more than 1,750 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer, or (iii) more than 3,000 gallons but not more than 3,500 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents in a drycleaning machine without a solvent reclaimer.

(8) $1,500 for a facility that uses (i) more than 350 gallons but not more than 400 gallons of chlorine-based or green drycleaning solvents annually, (ii) more than 1,750 gallons but not more than 2,000 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer, or (iii) more than 3,500 gallons but not more than 4,000 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents in a drycleaning machine without a solvent reclaimer.

(9) $1,500 for a facility that uses (i) more than 400 gallons but not more than 450 gallons of chlorine-based or green drycleaning solvents annually, (ii) more than 2,000 gallons but not more than 2,250 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer, or (iii) more than 4,000 gallons but not more than 4,500 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents in a drycleaning machine without a solvent reclaimer.

(10) $1,500 for a facility that uses (i) more than 450 gallons but not more than 500 gallons of chlorine-based or green drycleaning solvents annually, (ii) more than 2,250 gallons but not more than 2,500 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents used in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer, or (iii) more than 4,500 gallons but not more than 5,000 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents in a drycleaning machine without a solvent reclaimer.

(11) $1,500 for a facility that uses (i) more than 500 gallons but not more than 550 gallons of chlorine-based or green drycleaning solvents annually, (ii) more than 2,500 gallons but not more than 2,750 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer, or (iii) more than 5,000 gallons but not more than 5,500 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents in a drycleaning machine without a solvent reclaimer.

(12) $1,500 for a facility that uses (i) more than 550 gallons but not more than 600 gallons of chlorine-based or green drycleaning solvents annually, (ii) more than 2,750 gallons but not more than 3,000 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer, or (iii) more than 5,500 gallons but not more than 6,000 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents in a drycleaning machine without a solvent reclaimer.

(13) $1,500 for a facility that uses (i) more than 600 gallons of chlorine-based or green drycleaning solvents annually, (ii) more than 3,000 gallons but not more than 3,250 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer, or (iii) more than 6,000 gallons of hydrocarbon-based drycleaning solvents annually in a drycleaning machine equipped without a solvent reclaimer.

(14) $1,500 for a facility that uses more than 3,250 gallons but not more than 3,500 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer.

(15) $1,500 for a facility that uses more than 3,500 gallons but not more than 3,750 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents used in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer.

(16) $1,500 for a facility that uses more than 3,750 gallons but not more than 4,000 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer.

(17) $1,500 for a facility that uses more than 4,000 gallons annually of hydrocarbon-based solvents in a drycleaning machine equipped with a solvent reclaimer.

For purpose of this subsection, the quantity of drycleaning solvents used annually shall be determined as follows:

(1) in the case of an initial applicant, the quantity of drycleaning solvents that the applicant estimates will be used during his or her initial license year. A fee assessed under this subdivision is subject to audited adjustment for that year; or

(2) in the case of a renewal applicant, the quantity of drycleaning solvents actually purchased in the preceding license year.

The Council may adjust licensing fees annually based on the published Consumer Price Index - All Urban Consumers ("CPI-U") or as otherwise determined by the Council.

(d) A license issued under this Section shall expire one year after the date of issuance and may be renewed on reapplication to the Council and submission of proof of payment of the appropriate fee to the Department of Revenue in accordance with subsections (c) and (e). At least 30 days before payment of a renewal licensing fee is due, the Council shall attempt to:

(1) notify the operator of each licensed drycleaning facility concerning the requirements of this Section; and

(2) submit a license fee payment form to the licensed operator of each drycleaning facility.

(e) An operator of a drycleaning facility shall submit the appropriate application form provided by the Council with the license fee in the form of cash, credit card, business check, or guaranteed remittance, or credit card to the Department of Revenue. The license fee payment form and the actual license fee payment shall be administered by the Department of Revenue under rules adopted by that Department.

(f) The Department of Revenue shall issue a proof of payment receipt to each operator of a drycleaning facility who has paid the appropriate fee in cash or by guaranteed remittance, or credit card, or business check. However, the Department of Revenue shall not issue a proof of payment receipt to a drycleaning facility that is liable to the Department of Revenue for a tax imposed under this Act. The original receipt shall be presented to the Council by the operator of a drycleaning facility.

(g) (Blank).

(h) The Council and the Department of Revenue may adopt rules as necessary to administer the licensing requirements of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-774, eff. 1-1-10; 97-332, eff. 8-12-11; 97-377, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 565. The Facilities Requiring Smoke Detectors Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(425 ILCS 10/1) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 821)

Sec. 1. For purposes of this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Facility" means:

(1) Any long-term care facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act or any facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, as amended;

(2) Any community residential alternative as defined in paragraph (4) of Section 3 of the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act, as amended; and

(3) Any child care facility as defined in Section 2.05 of the Child Care Act of 1969, as amended.

(b) "Approved smoke detector" or "detector" means a smoke detector of the ionization or photoelectric type which complies with all the requirements of the rules and regulations of the Illinois State Fire Marshal.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 570. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 8 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-4)

Sec. 4. (a) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card must:

(1) Make application on blank forms prepared and furnished at convenient locations throughout the State by the Department of State Police, or by electronic means, if and when made available by the Department of State Police; and

(2) Submit evidence to the Department of State Police that:

(i) He or she is 21 years of age or over, or if he or she is under 21 years of age that he or she has the written consent of his or her parent or legal guardian to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition and that he or she has never been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent, provided, however, that such parent or legal guardian is not an individual prohibited from having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and files an affidavit with the Department as prescribed by the Department stating that he or she is not an individual prohibited from having a Card;

(ii) He or she has not been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;

(iii) He or she is not addicted to narcotics;

(iv) He or she has not been a patient in a mental institution within the past 5 years and he or she has not been adjudicated as a mental defective;

(v) He or she is not intellectually disabled;

(vi) He or she is not an alien who is unlawfully present in the United States under the laws of the United States;

(vii) He or she is not subject to an existing order of protection prohibiting him or her from possessing a firearm;

(viii) He or she has not been convicted within the past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;

(ix) He or she has not been convicted of domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly;

(x) (Blank);

(xi) He or she is not an alien who has been admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), or that he or she is an alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign government who is:

(A) accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to which that alien is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);

(xii) He or she is not a minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony; and

(xiii) He or she is not an adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony; and

(3) Upon request by the Department of State Police, sign a release on a form prescribed by the Department of State Police waiving any right to confidentiality and requesting the disclosure to the Department of State Police of limited mental health institution admission information from another state, the District of Columbia, any other territory of the United States, or a foreign nation concerning the applicant for the sole purpose of determining whether the applicant is or was a patient in a mental health institution and disqualified because of that status from receiving a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. No mental health care or treatment records may be requested. The information received shall be destroyed within one year of receipt.

(a-5) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card who is over the age of 18 shall furnish to the Department of State Police either his or her driver's license number or Illinois Identification Card number.

(a-10) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, who is employed as an armed security officer at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission and who is not an Illinois resident, shall furnish to the Department of State Police his or her driver's license number or state identification card number from his or her state of residence. The Department of State Police may promulgate rules to enforce the provisions of this subsection (a-10).

(b) Each application form shall include the following statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on an application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is punishable as a Class 2 felony in accordance with subsection (d-5) of Section 14 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.".

(c) Upon such written consent, pursuant to Section 4, paragraph (a)(2)(i), the parent or legal guardian giving the consent shall be liable for any damages resulting from the applicant's use of firearms or firearm ammunition.

(Source: P.A. 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(430 ILCS 65/8) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8)

Sec. 8. The Department of State Police has authority to deny an application for or to revoke and seize a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued under this Act only if the Department finds that the applicant or the person to whom such card was issued is or was at the time of issuance:

(a) A person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent;

(b) A person under 21 years of age who does not have the written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire and possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;

(d) A person addicted to narcotics;

(e) A person who has been a patient of a mental institution within the past 5 years or has been adjudicated as a mental defective;

(f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant, any other person or persons or the community;

For the purposes of this Section, "mental condition" means a state of mind manifested by violent, suicidal, threatening or assaultive behavior.

(g) A person who is intellectually disabled;

(h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement in the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;

(i) An alien who is unlawfully present in the United States under the laws of the United States;

(i-5) An alien who has been admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), except that this subsection (i-5) does not apply to any alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign government who is:

(A) accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to which that alien is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);

(j) (Blank);

(k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;

(l) A person who has been convicted of domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly;

(m) (Blank);

(n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or possessing firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois State statute or by federal law;

(o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony; or

(p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 575. The Illinois Commercial Feed Act of 1961 is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(505 ILCS 30/14) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 66.14)

Sec. 14. Constitutionality. If any clause, sentence, paragraph or part of this Act shall for any reason be adjudged invalid by any court of competent jurisdiction, such judgment shall not affect effect, impair or invalidate the remainder thereof but shall be confined in its operation to the cause, sentence, paragraph or part thereof directly involved in the controversy in which such judgement shall have been rendered.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 2289; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 580. The Illinois Corn Marketing Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(505 ILCS 40/10) (from Ch. 5, par. 710)

Sec. 10. The corn marketing program established by this Act shall remain in effect for 5 years. Thereafter, the program shall automatically be extended from year to year unless a referendum for continued approval is required by written petition of no less than that 10% of the affected producers from each respective district. The referendum shall be in accordance with Section 9 of this Act to determine the continued approval of such corn marketing program. Continuation or termination shall be determined by the same voting requirements for adoption of the corn marketing program set forth in Section 7.

(Source: P.A. 81-189; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 585. The Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act is amended by changing Section 65 as follows:

(510 ILCS 72/65)

Sec. 65. Refused issuance, suspension, or revocation of certification. The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or restore a certification or may revoke or suspend a certification, or place on probation, reprimand, impose a fine not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with regard to a certified euthanasia agency or a certified euthanasia technician for any one or combination of the following reasons:

(1) in the case of a certified euthanasia technician, failing to carry out the duties of a euthanasia technician set forth in this Act or rules adopted under this Act;

(2) abusing the use of any controlled substance or euthanasia drug;

(3) selling, stealing, or giving controlled substances or euthanasia drugs away;

(4) abetting anyone in violating item (1) or (2) of this Section;

(5) violating any provision of this Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the federal Controlled Substances Act, the rules adopted under these Acts, or any rules adopted by the Department of Professional Regulation concerning the euthanizing of animals;

(6) in the case of a euthanasia technician, acting as a euthanasia technician outside of the scope of his or her employment with a certified euthanasia agency; and

(7) in the case of a euthanasia technician, being convicted of or entering a plea of guilty guily or nolo contendere to any crime that is (i) a felony under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof, (ii) a misdemeanor under the laws of the United States or any state or territory an essential element of which is dishonesty, or (iii) directly related to the practice of the profession.

(Source: P.A. 96-780, eff. 8-28-09; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 590. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Sections 2.33a and 2.37 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.33a) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.33a)

Sec. 2.33a. Trapping.

(a) It is unlawful to fail to visit and remove all animals from traps staked out, set, used, tended, placed or maintained at least once each calendar day.

(b) It is unlawful for any person to place, set, use, or maintain a leghold trap or one of similar construction on land, that has a jaw spread of larger than 6 1/2 inches (16.6 CM), or a body-gripping trap or one of similar construction having a jaw spread larger than 7 inches (17.8 CM) on a side if square and 8 inches (20.4 CM) if round. ;

(c) It is unlawful for any person to place, set, use, or maintain a leghold trap or one of similar construction in water, that has a jaw spread of larger than 7 1/2 inches (19.1 CM), or a body-gripping trap or one of similar construction having a jaw spread larger than 10 inches (25.4 CM) on a side if square and 12 inches (30.5 CM) if round. ;

(d) It is unlawful to use any trap with saw-toothed, spiked, or toothed jaws. ;

(e) It is unlawful to destroy, disturb or in any manner interfere with dams, lodges, burrows or feed beds of beaver while trapping for beaver or to set a trap inside a muskrat house or beaver lodge, except that this shall not apply to Drainage Districts who are acting pursuant to the provisions of Section 2.37. ;

(f) It is unlawful to trap beaver or river otter with: (1) a leghold trap or one of similar construction having a jaw spread of less than 5 1/2 inches (13.9 CM) or more than 7 1/2 inches (19.1 CM), or (2) a body-gripping trap or one of similar construction having a jaw spread of less than 7 inches (17.7 CM) or more than 10 inches (25.4 CM) on a side if square and 12 inches (30.5 CM) if round, except that these restrictions shall not apply during the open season for trapping raccoons. ;

(g) It is unlawful to set traps closer than 10 feet (3.05 M) from any hole or den which may be occupied by a game mammal or fur-bearing mammal except that this restriction shall not apply to water sets.

(h) It is unlawful to trap or attempt to trap any fur-bearing mammal with any colony, cage, box, or stove-pipe trap designed to take more than one mammal at a single setting.

(i) It is unlawful for any person to set or place any trap designed to take any fur-bearing mammal protected by this Act during the closed trapping season. Proof that any trap was placed during the closed trapping season shall be deemed prima facie evidence of a violation of this provision.

(j) It is unlawful to place, set, or maintain any leghold trap or one of similar construction within thirty (30) feet (9.14 m) of bait placed in such a manner or position that it is not completely covered and concealed from sight, except that this shall not apply to underwater sets. Bait shall mean and include any bait composed of mammal, bird, or fish flesh, fur, hide, entrails or feathers.

(k) It shall be unlawful for hunters or trappers to have the green hides of fur-bearing mammals, protected by this Act, in their possession except during the open season and for an additional period of 10 days succeeding such open season.

(l) It is unlawful for any person to place, set, use or maintain a snare trap or one of similar construction in water, that has a loop diameter exceeding 15 inches (38.1 CM) or a cable or wire diameter of more than 1/8 inch (3.2 MM) or less than 5/64 inch (2.0 MM), that is constructed of stainless steel metal cable or wire, and that does not have a mechanical lock, anchor swivel and stop device to prevent the mechanical lock from closing the noose loop to a diameter of less than 2 1/2 inches (6.4 CM).

(m) It is unlawful to trap muskrat or mink with (1) a leghold trap or one of similar construction or (2) a body-gripping trap or one of similar construction unless the body-gripping trap or similar trap is completely submerged underwater when set. These restrictions shall not apply during the open season for trapping raccoons.

(Source: P.A. 97-19, eff. 6-28-11; 97-31, eff. 6-28-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(520 ILCS 5/2.37) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.37)

Sec. 2.37. Authority to kill wildlife responsible for damage. Subject to federal regulations and Section 3 of the Illinois Endangered Species Act, the Department may authorize owners and tenants of lands or their agents to remove or destroy any wild bird or wild mammal when the wild bird or wild mammal is known to be destroying property or causing a risk to human health or safety upon his or her land.

Upon receipt by the Department of information from the owner, tenant, or sharecropper that any one or more species of wildlife is damaging dams, levees, ditches, or other property on the land on which he resides or controls, together with a statement regarding location of the property damages, the nature and extent of the damage, and the particular species of wildlife committing the damage, the Department shall make an investigation.

If, after investigation, the Department finds that damage does exist and can be abated only by removing or destroying that wildlife, a permit shall be issued by the Department to remove or destroy the species responsible for causing the damage.

A permit to control the damage shall be for a period of up to 90 days, shall specify the means and methods by which and the person or persons by whom the wildlife may be removed or destroyed, and shall set forth the disposition procedure to be made of all wildlife taken and other restrictions the Director considers necessary and appropriate in the circumstances of the particular case. Whenever possible, the specimens destroyed shall be given to a bona-fide public or State scientific, educational, or zoological institution.

The permittee shall advise the Department in writing, within 10 days after the expiration date of the permit, of the number of individual species of wildlife taken, disposition made of them, and any other information which the Department may consider necessary.

Subject to federal regulations and Section 3 of the Illinois Endangered Species Act, the Department may grant to an individual, corporation, association or a governmental body the authority to control species protected by this Code. The Department shall set forth applicable regulations in an Administrative Order and may require periodic reports listing species taken, numbers of each species taken, dates when taken, and other pertinent information.

Drainage Districts shall have the authority to control beaver provided that they must notify the Department in writing that a problem exists and of their intention to trap the animals at least 7 days before the trapping begins. The District must identify traps used in beaver control outside the dates of the furbearer trapping season with metal tags with the district's name legibly inscribed upon them. During the furtrapping season, traps must be identified as prescribed by law. Conibear traps at least size 330 shall be used except during the statewide furbearer trapping season. During that time trappers may use any device that is legal according to the Wildlife Code. Except during the statewide furbearer trapping season, beaver traps must be set in water at least 10 inches deep. Except during the statewide furbearer trapping season, traps must be set within 10 feet of an inhabited bank burrow or house and within 10 feet of a dam maintained by a beaver. No beaver or other furbearer taken outside of the dates for the furbearer trapping season may be sold. All animals must be given to the nearest conservation officer or other Department of Natural Resources representative within 48 hours after they are caught. Furbearers taken during the fur trapping season may be sold provided that they are taken by persons who have valid trapping licenses in their possession and are lawfully taken. The District must submit an annual report showing the species and numbers of animals caught. The report must indicate all species which were taken.

(Source: P.A. 91-654, eff. 12-15-99; revised 11-18-11.)

Section 595. The Illinois Highway Code is amended by changing Sections 9-119.5 and 9-119.6 as follows:

(605 ILCS 5/9-119.5)

Sec. 9-119.5. Hay harvesting permit.

(a) The Department may issue a hay harvesting permit authorizing the mowing and harvesting of hay on a specified right-of-way in this State. An owner or owner's designee has priority until July 30 of each year to receive a permit for the portion of right-of-way that is adjacent to the owner's land. After July 30 of each year, a permit may be issued to an applicant that is not the owner of the land adjacent to the right-of-way for a maximum distance of 5 miles each year. A permit issued under this subsection may be valid from July 15 of each year until September 15 of each year, and the Department must include the timeframe that the permit is valid on every permit issued under this subsection. Commencement of harvesting activity notice instructions must be included on every permit under this subsection in accordance with paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section. The non-refundable application fee for every permit under this subsection is $40, and all fees collected by the Department shall be deposited into the Road Fund.

(b) An applicant for a permit in subsection (a) must:

(1) sign a release acknowledging that the applicant (i) assumes all risk for the quality of the hay harvested under the permit, (ii) assumes all liability for accidents or injury that results from the activities permitted by the Department, (iii) is liable for any damage to the right-of-way described in paragraphs (5) and (6) of subsection (c), and (iv) understands that the State or any instrumentality thereof assumes no risk or liability for the activities permitted by the Department;

(2) demonstrate proof that a liability insurance policy in the amount of not less than $1,000,000 is in force to cover any accident, damage, or loss that may occur to persons or property as a result of the activities permitted by the Department; and

(3) pay a non-refundable application fee of $40.

(c) The usage of a permit in subsection (a) is subject to the following limitations:

(1) The permittee must give the Department 48 hours notice prior to commencing any activities permitted by the Department;

(2) The permittee must identify the location of noxious weeds pursuant to the Noxious Weed Law. Noxious weeds may be mowed but may not be windrowed or baled;

(3) The permittee may use the permit only during the timeframes specified on the permit;

(4) The permittee must carry a copy of the permit at all times while performing the activities permitted by the Department;

(5) The permittee may use the permit only when soil in the right-of-way is dry enough to prevent rutting or other similar type of damage to the right-of-way; and

(6) The permittee permitee may not alter, damage, or remove any right-of-way markers, land monuments, fences, signs, trees, shrubbery or similar landscape vegetation, or other highway features or structures.

(d) The Department may immediately terminate a permit in subsection (a) issued to a permittee for failure to comply with the use limitations of subsection (c).

(e) The Department or the permittee may cancel the permit at any time upon 3 days written notice.

(f) The Department may promulgate rules for the administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-415, eff. 8-13-09; revised 11-21-11.)

(605 ILCS 5/9-119.6)

Sec. 9-119.6. Switchgrass production permit.

(a) The Department may issue a switchgrass production permit authorizing the planting and harvesting of switchgrass on a specified right-of-way in this State. An owner or owner's designee has priority until March 1 of each year to receive a permit for the portion of right-of-way that is adjacent to the owner's land and for which no permit is in effect. After March 1 of each year, a permit may be issued to an applicant that is not the owner of the land adjacent to the right-of-way for a maximum distance of 5 miles. A permit issued under this subsection may be valid for a period of 5 years, and the Department must include the timeframe that the permit is valid on every permit issued under this subsection. Commencement of harvesting activity notice instructions must be included on every permit under this subsection in accordance with paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section. The non-refundable application fee for every permit under this subsection is $200, and all fees collected by the Department shall be deposited into the Road Fund.

(b) An applicant for a permit in subsection (a) must:

(1) sign a release acknowledging that the applicant (i) assumes all risk for the quality of the switchgrass produced under the permit, (ii) assumes all liability for accidents or injury that results from the activities permitted by the Department, (iii) is liable for any damage to the right-of-way described in paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (c), and (iv) understands that the State or any instrumentality thereof assumes no risk or liability for the activities permitted by the Department;

(2) demonstrate proof that a liability insurance policy in the amount of not less than $1,000,000 is in force to cover any accident, damage, or loss that may occur to persons or property as a result of the activities permitted by the Department; and

(3) pay a non-refundable application fee of $200.

(c) The usage of a permit in subsection (a) is subject to the following limitations:

(1) The permittee must give the Department 48 hours notice prior to commencing any activities permitted by the Department;

(2) The permittee must carry a copy of the permit at all times while performing the activities permitted by the Department;

(3) The permittee may use the permit only when soil in the right-of-way is dry enough to prevent rutting or other similar type of damage to the right-of-way; and

(4) The permittee permitee may not alter, damage, or remove any right-of-way markers, land monuments, fences, signs, trees, shrubbery or similar landscape vegetation, or other highway features or structures.

(d) The Department may immediately terminate a permit in subsection (a) issued to a permittee for failure to comply with the use limitations of subsection (c).

(e) The Department or the permittee may cancel the permit at any time upon 3 days written notice.

(f) The Department may promulgate rules for the administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-134, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 600. The O'Hare Modernization Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(620 ILCS 65/25)

Sec. 25. Jurisdiction over airport property. Airport property shall not be subject to the the laws of any unit of local government except as provided by ordinance of the City. Plans of all public agencies that may affect the O'Hare Modernization Program shall be consistent with the O'Hare Modernization Program, and to the extent that any plan of any public agency or unit or division of State or local government is inconsistent with the O'Hare Modernization Program, that plan is and shall be void and of no effect.

(Source: P.A. 93-450, eff. 8-6-03; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 605. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 3-651, 6-201, 6-206.1, 6-507, 11-212, 11-501.2, 11-1505, 12-215, 13-101, 13C-15, 15-301, 18a-405, and 18a-407 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 3-694 and 3-696 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/3-651)

Sec. 3-651. U.S. Marine Corps license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates designated as U.S. Marine Corps license plates to residents of Illinois who meet eligibility requirements prescribed by the Secretary of State. The special plate issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds, and recreational vehicles as defined by Section 1-169 of this Code. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the staggered multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State, except that the U.S. Marine Corps emblem shall appear on the plates. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land Of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe the eligibility requirements and, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant shall be charged a $5 fee for original issuance in addition to the applicable registration fee. This additional fee shall be deposited into the Marine Corps Scholarship Fund. For each registration renewal period, an $18 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. This additional fee shall be deposited into the Marine Corps Scholarship Fund.

(d) The Marine Corps Scholarship Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Marine Corps Scholarship Fund shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, be used by the Marine Corps Scholarship Foundation, Inc., a recognized charitable organization that meets the requirements of Title 26, Section 501(c)(3) of the United States Code, to provide grants for scholarships for higher education. The scholarship recipients must be the children of current or former members of the United States Marine Corps who meet the academic, financial, and other requirements established by the Marine Corps Scholarship Foundation. In addition, the recipients must be Illinois residents and must attend a college or university located within the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 97-306, eff. 1-1-12; 97-409; eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-694)

Sec. 3-694. 4-H license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as 4-H license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany the application. The Secretary, in his or her discretion, may allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the 4-H Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $12 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the 4-H Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The 4-H Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the 4-H Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary of State, as grants to the Illinois 4-H Foundation, a tax exempt entity under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, for the funding of 4-H programs in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 96-1449, eff. 1-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-409, eff. 1-1-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-696)

Sec. 3-696. Corporate-sponsored license plate study. The Secretary of State shall complete a feasibility study for the implementation of a program for corporate-sponsored license plates. The study shall include, but not be limited to, findings on how to maximize profits to the State, how to provide for a discounted registration fee for Illinois residents who display a corporate-sponsored license plate; public interest in such a program; and the cost to the State for implementation of such a program. The Secretary of State shall report the findings of the feasibility study to the General Assembly no later than January 1, 2012.

(Source: P.A. 97-221, eff. 7-28-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-697)

Sec. 3-697 3-694. Chicago Police Memorial Foundation license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Chicago Police Memorial Foundation license plates to active or retired law enforcement officers and their family members, surviving family members of deceased law enforcement officers, and members of or donors to the Chicago Police Memorial Foundation.

The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the Chicago Police Memorial Foundation Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Chicago Police Memorial Foundation Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Chicago Police Memorial Foundation Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Chicago Police Memorial Foundation Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, as grants to the Chicago Police Memorial Foundation for maintenance of a memorial and park, holding an annual memorial commemoration, giving scholarships to children of police officers killed or catastrophically injured in the line of duty, providing financial assistance to police officers and their families when a police officer is killed or injured in the line of duty, and paying the insurance premiums for police officers who are terminally ill.

(Source: P.A. 96-1547, eff. 3-10-11; revised 10-6-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-698)

Sec. 3-698 3-696. U.S. Air Force License Plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates designated as U.S. Air Force license plates to residents of Illinois who meet eligibility requirements prescribed by the Secretary of State. The special plate issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds, and recreational vehicles as defined by Section 1-169 of this Code. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State, except that the U.S. Air Force emblem shall appear on the plates. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land Of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe the eligibility requirements and, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant shall be charged a $20 fee for original issuance in addition to the applicable registration fee. Of this additional fee, $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund and $5 shall be deposited into the Octave Chanute Aerospace Heritage Fund. For each registration renewal period, a $20 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this additional fee, $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund and $18 shall be deposited into the Octave Chanute Aerospace Heritage Fund.

(d) The Octave Chanute Aerospace Heritage Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Octave Chanute Aerospace Heritage Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, as grants to the Octave Chanute Aerospace Heritage Foundation of Illinois for operational and program expenses of the Chanute Air Museum.

(Source: P.A. 97-243, eff. 8-4-11; revised 10-6-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-201)

Sec. 6-201. Authority to cancel licenses and permits.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel any license or permit upon determining that the holder thereof:

1. was not entitled to the issuance thereof hereunder; or

2. failed to give the required or correct information in his application; or

3. failed to pay any fees, civil penalties owed to the Illinois Commerce Commission, or taxes due under this Act and upon reasonable notice and demand; or

4. committed any fraud in the making of such application; or

5. is ineligible therefor under the provisions of Section 6-103 of this Act, as amended; or

6. has refused or neglected to submit an alcohol, drug, and intoxicating compound evaluation or to submit to examination or re-examination as required under this Act; or

7. has been convicted of violating the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act while that individual was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. After the cancellation, the Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year after the date of cancellation. However, upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety, or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow transportation for the petitioner or a household member of the petitioner's family for the receipt of necessary medical care, or provide transportation for the petitioner to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or for the petitioner to attend classes, as a student, in an accredited educational institution. The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship, as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State, would result from a failure to issue such restricted driving permit. In each case the Secretary of State may issue such restricted driving permit for such period as he deems appropriate, except that such permit shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued hereunder shall be subject to cancellation, revocation and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued hereunder may be cancelled, revoked or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial or rehabilitative program. In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been revoked, suspended, cancelled, or disqualified under this Code; or

8. failed to submit a report as required by Section 6-116.5 of this Code; or

9. has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act. The driver's license shall remain cancelled until the driver registers as a sex offender as required by the Sex Offender Registration Act, proof of the registration is furnished to the Secretary of State and the sex offender provides proof of current address to the Secretary; or

10. is ineligible for a license or permit under Section 6-107, 6-107.1, or 6-108 of this Code; or

11. refused or neglected to appear at a Driver Services facility to have the license or permit corrected and a new license or permit issued or to present documentation for verification of identity; or

12. failed to submit a medical examiner's certificate or medical variance as required by 49 C.F.R. 383.71 or submitted a fraudulent medical examiner's certificate or medical variance.

(b) Upon such cancellation the licensee or permittee must surrender the license or permit so cancelled to the Secretary of State.

(c) Except as provided in Sections 6-206.1 and 7-702.1, the Secretary of State shall have exclusive authority to grant, issue, deny, cancel, suspend and revoke driving privileges, drivers' licenses and restricted driving permits.

(d) The Secretary of State may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-208, eff. 1-1-12; 97-229; eff. 7-28-11; revised 10-4-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-206.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-206.1)

Sec. 6-206.1. Monitoring Device Driving Permit. Declaration of Policy. It is hereby declared a policy of the State of Illinois that the driver who is impaired by alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds is a threat to the public safety and welfare. Therefore, to provide a deterrent to such practice, a statutory summary driver's license suspension is appropriate. It is also recognized that driving is a privilege and therefore, that the granting of driving privileges, in a manner consistent with public safety, is warranted during the period of suspension in the form of a monitoring device driving permit. A person who drives and fails to comply with the requirements of the monitoring device driving permit commits a violation of Section 6-303 of this Code.

The following procedures shall apply whenever a first offender, as defined in Section 11-500 of this Code, is arrested for any offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance and is subject to the provisions of Section 11-501.1:

(a) Upon mailing of the notice of suspension of driving privileges as provided in subsection (h) of Section 11-501.1 of this Code, the Secretary shall also send written notice informing the person that he or she will be issued a monitoring device driving permit (MDDP). The notice shall include, at minimum, information summarizing the procedure to be followed for issuance of the MDDP, installation of the breath alcohol ignition installation device (BAIID), as provided in this Section, exemption from BAIID installation requirements, and procedures to be followed by those seeking indigent status, as provided in this Section. The notice shall also include information summarizing the procedure to be followed if the person wishes to decline issuance of the MDDP. A copy of the notice shall also be sent to the court of venue together with the notice of suspension of driving privileges, as provided in subsection (h) of Section 11-501. However, a MDDP shall not be issued if the Secretary finds that:

(1) The offender's driver's license is otherwise invalid;

(2) Death or great bodily harm resulted from the arrest for Section 11-501;

(3) The offender has been previously convicted of reckless homicide or aggravated driving under the influence involving death; or

(4) The offender is less than 18 years of age.

Any offender participating in the MDDP program must pay the Secretary a MDDP Administration Fee in an amount not to exceed $30 per month, to be deposited into the Monitoring Device Driving Permit Administration Fee Fund. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees. The offender must have an ignition interlock device installed within 14 days of the date the Secretary issues the MDDP. The ignition interlock device provider must notify the Secretary, in a manner and form prescribed by the Secretary, of the installation. If the Secretary does not receive notice of installation, the Secretary shall cancel the MDDP.

A MDDP shall not become effective prior to the 31st day of the original statutory summary suspension.

Upon receipt of the notice, as provided in paragraph (a) of this Section, the person may file a petition to decline issuance of the MDDP with the court of venue. The court shall admonish the offender of all consequences of declining issuance of the MDDP including, but not limited to, the enhanced penalties for driving while suspended. After being so admonished, the offender shall be permitted, in writing, to execute a notice declining issuance of the MDDP. This notice shall be filed with the court and forwarded by the clerk of the court to the Secretary. The offender may, at any time thereafter, apply to the Secretary for issuance of a MDDP.

(a-1) A person issued a MDDP may drive for any purpose and at any time, subject to the rules adopted by the Secretary under subsection (g). The person must, at his or her own expense, drive only vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1, but in no event shall such person drive a commercial motor vehicle.

(a-2) Persons who are issued a MDDP and must drive employer-owned vehicles in the course of their employment duties may seek permission to drive an employer-owned vehicle that does not have an ignition interlock device. The employer shall provide to the Secretary a form, as prescribed by the Secretary, completed by the employer verifying that the employee must drive an employer-owned vehicle in the course of employment. If approved by the Secretary, the form must be in the driver's possession while operating an employer-owner vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device. No person may use this exemption to drive a school bus, school vehicle, or a vehicle designed to transport more than 15 passengers. No person may use this exemption to drive an employer-owned motor vehicle that is owned by an entity that is wholly or partially owned by the person holding the MDDP, or by a family member of the person holding the MDDP. No person may use this exemption to drive an employer-owned vehicle that is made available to the employee for personal use. No person may drive the exempted vehicle more than 12 hours per day, 6 days per week.

(a-3) Persons who are issued a MDDP and who must drive a farm tractor to and from a farm, within 50 air miles from the originating farm are exempt from installation of a BAIID on the farm tractor, so long as the farm tractor is being used for the exclusive purpose of conducting farm operations.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(c-1) If the holder of the MDDP is convicted of or receives court supervision for a violation of Section 6-206.2, 6-303, 11-204, 11-204.1, 11-401, 11-501, 11-503, 11-506 or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or is convicted of or receives court supervision for any offense for which alcohol or drugs is an element of the offense and in which a motor vehicle was involved (for an arrest other than the one for which the MDDP is issued), or de-installs the BAIID without prior authorization from the Secretary, the MDDP shall be cancelled.

(c-5) If the Secretary determines that the person seeking the MDDP is indigent, the Secretary shall provide the person with a written document as evidence of that determination, and the person shall provide that written document to an ignition interlock device provider. The provider shall install an ignition interlock device on that person's vehicle without charge to the person, and seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID Fund. If the Secretary has deemed an offender indigent, the BAIID provider shall also provide the normal monthly monitoring services and the de-installation without charge to the offender and seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID Fund. Any other monetary charges, such as a lockout fee or reset fee, shall be the responsibility of the MDDP holder. A BAIID provider may not seek a security deposit from the Indigent BAIID Fund.

(d) MDDP information shall be available only to the courts, police officers, and the Secretary, except during the actual period the MDDP is valid, during which time it shall be a public record.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Secretary shall adopt rules for implementing this Section. The rules adopted shall address issues including, but not limited to: compliance with the requirements of the MDDP; methods for determining compliance with those requirements; the consequences of noncompliance with those requirements; what constitutes a violation of the MDDP; methods for determining indigency; and the duties of a person or entity that supplies the ignition interlock device.

(h) The rules adopted under subsection (g) shall provide, at a minimum, that the person is not in compliance with the requirements of the MDDP if he or she:

(1) tampers or attempts to tamper with or circumvent the proper operation of the ignition interlock device;

(2) provides valid breath samples that register blood alcohol levels in excess of the number of times allowed under the rules;

(3) fails to provide evidence sufficient to satisfy the Secretary that the ignition interlock device has been installed in the designated vehicle or vehicles; or

(4) fails to follow any other applicable rules adopted by the Secretary.

(i) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition interlock device as provided under this Section shall, in addition to supplying only those devices which fully comply with all the rules adopted under subsection (g), provide the Secretary, within 7 days of inspection, all monitoring reports of each person who has had an ignition interlock device installed. These reports shall be furnished in a manner or form as prescribed by the Secretary.

(j) Upon making a determination that a violation of the requirements of the MDDP has occurred, the Secretary shall extend the summary suspension period for an additional 3 months beyond the originally imposed summary suspension period, during which time the person shall only be allowed to drive vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device; provided further there are no limitations on the total number of times the summary suspension may be extended. The Secretary may, however, limit the number of extensions imposed for violations occurring during any one monitoring period, as set forth by rule. Any person whose summary suspension is extended pursuant to this Section shall have the right to contest the extension through a hearing with the Secretary, pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. If the summary suspension has already terminated prior to the Secretary receiving the monitoring report that shows a violation, the Secretary shall be authorized to suspend the person's driving privileges for 3 months, provided that the Secretary may, by rule, limit the number of suspensions to be entered pursuant to this paragraph for violations occurring during any one monitoring period. Any person whose license is suspended pursuant to this paragraph, after the summary suspension had already terminated, shall have the right to contest the suspension through a hearing with the Secretary, pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. The only permit the person shall be eligible for during this new suspension period is a MDDP.

(k) A person who has had his or her summary suspension extended for the third time, or has any combination of 3 extensions and new suspensions, entered as a result of a violation that occurred while holding the MDDP, so long as the extensions and new suspensions relate to the same summary suspension, shall have his or her vehicle impounded for a period of 30 days, at the person's own expense. A person who has his or her summary suspension extended for the fourth time, or has any combination of 4 extensions and new suspensions, entered as a result of a violation that occurred while holding the MDDP, so long as the extensions and new suspensions relate to the same summary suspension, shall have his or her vehicle subject to seizure and forfeiture. The Secretary shall notify the prosecuting authority of any third or fourth extensions or new suspension entered as a result of a violation that occurred while the person held a MDDP. Upon receipt of the notification, the prosecuting authority shall impound or forfeit the vehicle. The impoundment or forfeiture of a vehicle shall be conducted pursuant to the procedure specified in Article 36 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(l) A person whose driving privileges have been suspended under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and who had a MDDP that was cancelled, or would have been cancelled had notification of a violation been received prior to expiration of the MDDP, pursuant to subsection (c-1) of this Section, shall not be eligible for reinstatement when the summary suspension is scheduled to terminate. Instead, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for a period of not less than twice the original summary suspension period, or for the length of any extensions entered under subsection (j), whichever is longer. During the period of suspension, the person shall be eligible only to apply for a restricted driving permit. If a restricted driving permit is granted, the offender may only operate vehicles equipped with a BAIID in accordance with this Section.

(m) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition interlock device under this Section shall, for each ignition interlock device installed, pay 5% of the total gross revenue received for the device, including monthly monitoring fees, into the Indigent BAIID Fund. This 5% shall be clearly indicated as a separate surcharge on each invoice that is issued. The Secretary shall conduct an annual review of the fund to determine whether the surcharge is sufficient to provide for indigent users. The Secretary may increase or decrease this surcharge requirement as needed.

(n) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition interlock device under this Section that is requested to provide an ignition interlock device to a person who presents written documentation of indigency from the Secretary, as provided in subsection (c-5) of this Section, shall install the device on the person's vehicle without charge to the person and shall seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID Fund.

(o) The Indigent BAIID Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Secretary shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, use all money in the Indigent BAIID Fund to reimburse ignition interlock device providers who have installed devices in vehicles of indigent persons. The Secretary shall make payments to such providers every 3 months. If the amount of money in the fund at the time payments are made is not sufficient to pay all requests for reimbursement submitted during that 3 month period, the Secretary shall make payments on a pro-rata basis, and those payments shall be considered payment in full for the requests submitted.

(p) The Monitoring Device Driving Permit Administration Fee Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Secretary shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, use the money paid into this fund to offset its administrative costs for administering MDDPs.

(q) The Secretary is authorized to prescribe such forms as it deems necessary to carry out the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-184, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1526, eff. 2-14-11; 97-229; eff. 7-28-11; revised 10-4-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-507) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-507)

Sec. 6-507. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) Required.

(a) Except as expressly permitted by this UCDLA, or when driving pursuant to the issuance of a commercial driver instruction permit and accompanied by the holder of a CDL valid for the vehicle being driven; no person shall drive a commercial motor vehicle on the highways without:

(1) a CDL in the driver's possession;

(2) having obtained a CDL;

(3) the proper class of CDL or endorsements or both for the specific vehicle group being operated or for the passengers or type of cargo being transported; or

(4) a copy of a medical variance document, if one exists, such as an exemption letter or a skill performance evaluation certificate.

(b) Except as otherwise provided by this Code, no person may drive a commercial motor vehicle on the highways while such person's driving privilege, license, or permit is:

(1) Suspended, revoked, cancelled, or subject to disqualification. Any person convicted of violating this provision or a similar provision of this or any other state shall have their driving privileges revoked under paragraph 12 of subsection (a) of Section 6-205 of this Code.

(2) Subject to or in violation of an "out-of-service" order. Any person who has been issued a CDL and is convicted of violating this provision or a similar provision of any other state shall be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle under subsection (i) of Section 6-514 of this Code.

(3) Subject to or in violation of a driver or vehicle "out of service" order while operating a vehicle designed to transport 16 or more passengers, including the driver, or transporting hazardous materials required to be placarded. Any person who has been issued a CDL and is convicted of violating this provision or a similar provision of this or any other state shall be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle under subsection (i) of Section 6-514 of this Code.

(b-3) Except as otherwise provided by this Code, no person may drive a commercial motor vehicle on the highways during a period which the commercial motor vehicle or the motor carrier operation is subject to an "out-of-service" order. Any person who is convicted of violating this provision or a similar provision of any other state shall be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle under subsection (i) of Section 6-514 of this Code.

(b-5) Except as otherwise provided by this Code, no person may operate a vehicle designed to transport 16 or more passengers including the driver or hazardous materials of a type or quantity that requires the vehicle to be placarded during a period in which the commercial motor vehicle or the motor carrier operation is subject to an "out-of-service" order. Any person who is convicted of violating this provision or a similar provision of any other state shall be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle under subsection (i) of Section 6-514 of this Code.

(c) Pursuant to the options provided to the States by FHWA Docket No. MC-88-8, the driver of any motor vehicle controlled or operated by or for a farmer is waived from the requirements of this Section, when such motor vehicle is being used to transport: agricultural products; implements of husbandry; or farm supplies; to and from a farm, as long as such movement is not over 150 air miles from the originating farm. This waiver does not apply to the driver of any motor vehicle being used in a common or contract carrier type operation. However, for those drivers of any truck-tractor semitrailer combination or combinations registered under subsection (c) of Section 3-815 of this Code, this waiver shall apply only when the driver is a farmer or a member of the farmer's family and the driver is 21 years of age or more and has successfully completed any tests the Secretary of State deems necessary.

In addition, the farmer or a member of the farmer's family who operates a truck-tractor semitrailer combination or combinations pursuant to this waiver shall be granted all of the rights and shall be subject to all of the duties and restrictions with respect to Sections 6-514 and 6-515 of this Code applicable to the driver who possesses a commercial driver's license issued under this Code, except that the driver shall not be subject to any additional duties or restrictions contained in Part 382 of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations that are not otherwise imposed under Section 6-514 or 6-515 of this Code.

For purposes of this subsection (c), a member of the farmer's family is a natural or in-law spouse, child, parent, or sibling.

(c-5) An employee of a township or road district with a population of less than 3,000 operating a vehicle within the boundaries of the township or road district for the purpose of removing snow or ice from a roadway by plowing, sanding, or salting is waived from the requirements of this Section when the employee is needed to operate the vehicle because the employee of the township or road district who ordinarily operates the vehicle and who has a commercial driver's license is unable to operate the vehicle or is in need of additional assistance due to a snow emergency.

(c-10) A driver of a commercial motor vehicle used primarily in the transportation of propane winter heating fuel or a driver of a motor vehicle used to respond to a pipeline emergency is waived from the requirements of this Section if such requirements would prevent the driver from responding to an emergency condition requiring immediate response as defined in 49 C.F.R. Part 390.5.

(d) Any person convicted of violating this Section, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(e) Any person convicted of violating paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section, shall have all driving privileges revoked by the Secretary of State.

(f) This Section shall not apply to:

(1) A person who currently holds a valid Illinois driver's license, for the type of vehicle being operated, until the expiration of such license or April 1, 1992, whichever is earlier; or

(2) A non-Illinois domiciliary who is properly licensed in another State, until April 1, 1992. A non-Illinois domiciliary, if such domiciliary is properly licensed in another State or foreign jurisdiction, until April 1, 1992.

(Source: P.A. 96-544, eff. 1-1-10; 97-208, eff. 1-1-12; 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; revised 10-4-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-212)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-469)

Sec. 11-212. Traffic stop statistical study.

(a) Whenever a State or local law enforcement officer issues a uniform traffic citation or warning citation for an alleged violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code, he or she shall record at least the following:

(1) the name, address, gender, and the officer's subjective determination of the race of the person stopped; the person's race shall be selected from the following list: American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Hispanic or Latino, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or White;

(2) the alleged traffic violation that led to the stop of the motorist;

(3) the make and year of the vehicle stopped;

(4) the date and time of the stop, beginning when the vehicle was stopped and ending when the driver is free to leave or taken into physical custody;

(5) the location of the traffic stop;

(5.5) whether or not a consent search contemporaneous to the stop was requested of the vehicle, driver, passenger, or passengers; and, if so, whether consent was given or denied;

(6) whether or not a search contemporaneous to the stop was conducted of the vehicle, driver, passenger, or passengers; and, if so, whether it was with consent or by other means;

(6.5) whether or not contraband was found during a search; and, if so, the type and amount of contraband seized; and

(7) the name and badge number of the issuing officer.

(b) Whenever a State or local law enforcement officer stops a motorist for an alleged violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code and does not issue a uniform traffic citation or warning citation for an alleged violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code, he or she shall complete a uniform stop card, which includes field contact cards, or any other existing form currently used by law enforcement containing information required pursuant to this Act, that records at least the following:

(1) the name, address, gender, and the officer's subjective determination of the race of the person stopped; the person's race shall be selected from the following list: American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Hispanic or Latino, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or White;

(2) the reason that led to the stop of the motorist;

(3) the make and year of the vehicle stopped;

(4) the date and time of the stop, beginning when the vehicle was stopped and ending when the driver is free to leave or taken into physical custody;

(5) the location of the traffic stop;

(5.5) whether or not a consent search contemporaneous to the stop was requested of the vehicle, driver, passenger, or passengers; and, if so, whether consent was given or denied;

(6) whether or not a search contemporaneous to the stop was conducted of the vehicle, driver, passenger, or passengers; and, if so, whether it was with consent or by other means;

(6.5) whether or not contraband was found during a search; and, if so, the type and amount of contraband seized; and

(7) the name and badge number of the issuing officer.

(c) The Illinois Department of Transportation shall provide a standardized law enforcement data compilation form on its website.

(d) Every law enforcement agency shall, by March 1 with regard to data collected during July through December of the previous calendar year and by August 1 with regard to data collected during January through June of the current calendar year, compile the data described in subsections (a) and (b) on the standardized law enforcement data compilation form provided by the Illinois Department of Transportation and transmit the data to the Department.

(e) The Illinois Department of Transportation shall analyze the data provided by law enforcement agencies required by this Section and submit a report of the previous year's findings to the Governor, the General Assembly, the Racial Profiling Prevention and Data Oversight Board, and each law enforcement agency no later than July 1 of each year. The Illinois Department of Transportation may contract with an outside entity for the analysis of the data provided. In analyzing the data collected under this Section, the analyzing entity shall scrutinize the data for evidence of statistically significant aberrations. The following list, which is illustrative, and not exclusive, contains examples of areas in which statistically significant aberrations may be found:

(1) The percentage of minority drivers or passengers being stopped in a given area is substantially higher than the proportion of the overall population in or traveling through the area that the minority constitutes.

(2) A substantial number of false stops including stops not resulting in the issuance of a traffic ticket or the making of an arrest.

(3) A disparity between the proportion of citations issued to minorities and proportion of minorities in the population.

(4) A disparity among the officers of the same law enforcement agency with regard to the number of minority drivers or passengers being stopped in a given area.

(5) A disparity between the frequency of searches performed on minority drivers and the frequency of searches performed on non-minority drivers.

(f) Any law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information that is compiled by any law enforcement agency or the Illinois Department of Transportation pursuant to this Act for the purposes of fulfilling the requirements of this Section shall be confidential and exempt from public inspection and copying, as provided under Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act, and the information shall not be transmitted to anyone except as needed to comply with this Section. This Section shall not exempt those materials that, prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, were available under the Freedom of Information Act. This subsection (f) shall not preclude law enforcement agencies from reviewing data to perform internal reviews.

(g) Funding to implement this Section shall come from federal highway safety funds available to Illinois, as directed by the Governor.

(h) The Illinois Department of Transportation, in consultation with law enforcement agencies, officials, and organizations, including Illinois chiefs of police, the Department of State Police, the Illinois Sheriffs Association, and the Chicago Police Department, and community groups and other experts, shall undertake a study to determine the best use of technology to collect, compile, and analyze the traffic stop statistical study data required by this Section. The Department shall report its findings and recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly by March 1, 2004.

(h-5) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "American Indian or Alaska Native" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment.

(2) "Asian" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam.

(3) "Black or African American" means a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa. Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(4) "Hispanic or Latino" means a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race.

(5) "Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands.

(6) "White" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Europe, the Middle East, or North Africa.

(i) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2015.

(Source: P.A. 96-658, eff. 1-1-10; 97-396, eff. 1-1-12.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-469)

Sec. 11-212. Traffic stop statistical study.

(a) Whenever a State or local law enforcement officer issues a uniform traffic citation or warning citation for an alleged violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code, he or she shall record at least the following:

(1) the name, address, gender, and the officer's subjective determination of the race of the person stopped; the person's race shall be selected from the following list: American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Hispanic or Latino, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or White;

(2) the alleged traffic violation that led to the stop of the motorist;

(3) the make and year of the vehicle stopped;

(4) the date and time of the stop, beginning when the vehicle was stopped and ending when the driver is free to leave or taken into physical custody;

(5) the location of the traffic stop;

(5.5) whether or not a consent search contemporaneous to the stop was requested of the vehicle, driver, passenger, or passengers; and, if so, whether consent was given or denied;

(6) whether or not a search contemporaneous to the stop was conducted of the vehicle, driver, passenger, or passengers; and, if so, whether it was with consent or by other means;

(6.2) whether or not a police dog performed a sniff of the vehicle; and, if so, whether or not the dog alerted to the presence of contraband; and, if so, whether or not an officer searched the vehicle; and, if so, whether or not contraband was discovered; and, if so, the type and amount of contraband;

(6.5) whether or not contraband was found during a search; and, if so, the type and amount of contraband seized; and

(7) the name and badge number of the issuing officer.

(b) Whenever a State or local law enforcement officer stops a motorist for an alleged violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code and does not issue a uniform traffic citation or warning citation for an alleged violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code, he or she shall complete a uniform stop card, which includes field contact cards, or any other existing form currently used by law enforcement containing information required pursuant to this Act, that records at least the following:

(1) the name, address, gender, and the officer's subjective determination of the race of the person stopped; the person's race shall be selected from the following list: American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Hispanic or Latino, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or White;

(2) the reason that led to the stop of the motorist;

(3) the make and year of the vehicle stopped;

(4) the date and time of the stop, beginning when the vehicle was stopped and ending when the driver is free to leave or taken into physical custody;

(5) the location of the traffic stop;

(5.5) whether or not a consent search contemporaneous to the stop was requested of the vehicle, driver, passenger, or passengers; and, if so, whether consent was given or denied;

(6) whether or not a search contemporaneous to the stop was conducted of the vehicle, driver, passenger, or passengers; and, if so, whether it was with consent or by other means;

(6.2) whether or not a police dog performed a sniff of the vehicle; and, if so, whether or not the dog alerted to the presence of contraband; and, if so, whether or not an officer searched the vehicle; and, if so, whether or not contraband was discovered; and, if so, the type and amount of contraband;

(6.5) whether or not contraband was found during a search; and, if so, the type and amount of contraband seized; and

(7) the name and badge number of the issuing officer.

(c) The Illinois Department of Transportation shall provide a standardized law enforcement data compilation form on its website.

(d) Every law enforcement agency shall, by March 1 with regard to data collected during July through December of the previous calendar year and by August 1 with regard to data collected during January through June of the current calendar year, compile the data described in subsections (a) and (b) on the standardized law enforcement data compilation form provided by the Illinois Department of Transportation and transmit the data to the Department.

(e) The Illinois Department of Transportation shall analyze the data provided by law enforcement agencies required by this Section and submit a report of the previous year's findings to the Governor, the General Assembly, the Racial Profiling Prevention and Data Oversight Board, and each law enforcement agency no later than July 1 of each year. The Illinois Department of Transportation may contract with an outside entity for the analysis of the data provided. In analyzing the data collected under this Section, the analyzing entity shall scrutinize the data for evidence of statistically significant aberrations. The following list, which is illustrative, and not exclusive, contains examples of areas in which statistically significant aberrations may be found:

(1) The percentage of minority drivers or passengers being stopped in a given area is substantially higher than the proportion of the overall population in or traveling through the area that the minority constitutes.

(2) A substantial number of false stops including stops not resulting in the issuance of a traffic ticket or the making of an arrest.

(3) A disparity between the proportion of citations issued to minorities and proportion of minorities in the population.

(4) A disparity among the officers of the same law enforcement agency with regard to the number of minority drivers or passengers being stopped in a given area.

(5) A disparity between the frequency of searches performed on minority drivers and the frequency of searches performed on non-minority drivers.

(f) Any law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information that is compiled by any law enforcement agency or the Illinois Department of Transportation pursuant to this Act for the purposes of fulfilling the requirements of this Section shall be confidential and exempt from public inspection and copying, as provided under Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act, and the information shall not be transmitted to anyone except as needed to comply with this Section. This Section shall not exempt those materials that, prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, were available under the Freedom of Information Act. This subsection (f) shall not preclude law enforcement agencies from reviewing data to perform internal reviews.

(g) Funding to implement this Section shall come from federal highway safety funds available to Illinois, as directed by the Governor.

(h) The Illinois Department of Transportation, in consultation with law enforcement agencies, officials, and organizations, including Illinois chiefs of police, the Department of State Police, the Illinois Sheriffs Association, and the Chicago Police Department, and community groups and other experts, shall undertake a study to determine the best use of technology to collect, compile, and analyze the traffic stop statistical study data required by this Section. The Department shall report its findings and recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly by March 1, 2004.

(h-5) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "American Indian or Alaska Native" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment.

(2) "Asian" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam.

(3) "Black or African American" means a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa. Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(4) "Hispanic or Latino" means a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race.

(5) "Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands.

(6) "White" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Europe, the Middle East, or North Africa.

(i) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2015.

(Source: P.A. 96-658, eff. 1-1-10; 97-396, eff. 1-1-12; 97-469, eff. 7-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.2) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501.2)

Sec. 11-501.2. Chemical and other tests.

(a) Upon the trial of any civil or criminal action or proceeding arising out of an arrest for an offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a similar local ordinance or proceedings pursuant to Section 2-118.1, evidence of the concentration of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof in a person's blood or breath at the time alleged, as determined by analysis of the person's blood, urine, breath or other bodily substance, shall be admissible. Where such test is made the following provisions shall apply:

1. Chemical analyses of the person's blood, urine, breath or other bodily substance to be considered valid under the provisions of this Section shall have been performed according to standards promulgated by the Department of State Police by a licensed physician, registered nurse, trained phlebotomist, certified paramedic, or other individual possessing a valid permit issued by that Department for this purpose. The Director of State Police is authorized to approve satisfactory techniques or methods, to ascertain the qualifications and competence of individuals to conduct such analyses, to issue permits which shall be subject to termination or revocation at the discretion of that Department and to certify the accuracy of breath testing equipment. The Department of State Police shall prescribe regulations as necessary to implement this Section.

2. When a person in this State shall submit to a blood test at the request of a law enforcement officer under the provisions of Section 11-501.1, only a physician authorized to practice medicine, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed advanced practice nurse, a registered nurse, trained phlebotomist, or certified paramedic, or other qualified person approved by the Department of State Police may withdraw blood for the purpose of determining the alcohol, drug, or alcohol and drug content therein. This limitation shall not apply to the taking of breath or urine specimens.

When a blood test of a person who has been taken to an adjoining state for medical treatment is requested by an Illinois law enforcement officer, the blood may be withdrawn only by a physician authorized to practice medicine in the adjoining state, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed advanced practice nurse, a registered nurse, a trained phlebotomist acting under the direction of the physician, or certified paramedic. The law enforcement officer requesting the test shall take custody of the blood sample, and the blood sample shall be analyzed by a laboratory certified by the Department of State Police for that purpose.

3. The person tested may have a physician, or a qualified technician, chemist, registered nurse, or other qualified person of their own choosing administer a chemical test or tests in addition to any administered at the direction of a law enforcement officer. The failure or inability to obtain an additional test by a person shall not preclude the admission of evidence relating to the test or tests taken at the direction of a law enforcement officer.

4. Upon the request of the person who shall submit to a chemical test or tests at the request of a law enforcement officer, full information concerning the test or tests shall be made available to the person or such person's attorney.

5. Alcohol concentration shall mean either grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood or grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath.

(b) Upon the trial of any civil or criminal action or proceeding arising out of acts alleged to have been committed by any person while driving or in actual physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, the concentration of alcohol in the person's blood or breath at the time alleged as shown by analysis of the person's blood, urine, breath, or other bodily substance shall give rise to the following presumptions:

1. If there was at that time an alcohol concentration of 0.05 or less, it shall be presumed that the person was not under the influence of alcohol.

2. If there was at that time an alcohol concentration in excess of 0.05 but less than 0.08, such facts shall not give rise to any presumption that the person was or was not under the influence of alcohol, but such fact may be considered with other competent evidence in determining whether the person was under the influence of alcohol.

3. If there was at that time an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, it shall be presumed that the person was under the influence of alcohol.

4. The foregoing provisions of this Section shall not be construed as limiting the introduction of any other relevant evidence bearing upon the question whether the person was under the influence of alcohol.

(c) 1. If a person under arrest refuses to submit to a chemical test under the provisions of Section 11-501.1, evidence of refusal shall be admissible in any civil or criminal action or proceeding arising out of acts alleged to have been committed while the person under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof was driving or in actual physical control of a motor vehicle.

2. Notwithstanding any ability to refuse under this Code to submit to these tests or any ability to revoke the implied consent to these tests, if a law enforcement officer has probable cause to believe that a motor vehicle driven by or in actual physical control of a person under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof has caused the death or personal injury to another, the law enforcement officer shall request, and that person shall submit, upon the request of a law enforcement officer, to a chemical test or tests of his or her blood, breath or urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol content thereof or the presence of any other drug or combination of both.

This provision does not affect the applicability of or imposition of driver's license sanctions under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

3. For purposes of this Section, a personal injury includes any Type A injury as indicated on the traffic accident report completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate professional attention in either a doctor's office or a medical facility. A Type A injury includes severe bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene.

(Source: P.A. 96-289, eff. 8-11-09; 97-450, eff. 8-19-11; 97-471, eff. 8-22-11; revised 10-4-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1505) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1505)

Sec. 11-1505. Position of bicycles and motorized pedal cycles on roadways - Riding on roadways and bicycle paths.

(a) Any person operating a bicycle or motorized pedal cycle upon a roadway at less than the normal speed of traffic at the time and place and under the conditions then existing shall ride as close as practicable and safe to the right-hand curb or edge of the roadway except under the following situations:

1. When overtaking and passing another bicycle, motorized pedal cycle or vehicle proceeding in the same direction; or

2. When preparing for a left turn at an intersection or into a private road or driveway; or

3. When reasonably necessary to avoid conditions including, but not limited to, fixed or moving objects, parked or moving vehicles, bicycles, motorized pedal cycles, pedestrians, animals, surface hazards, or substandard width lanes that make it unsafe to continue along the right-hand curb or edge. For purposes of this subsection, a "substandard width lane" means a lane that is too narrow for a bicycle or motorized pedal cycle and a vehicle to travel safely side by side within the lane; or .

4. When approaching a place where a right turn is authorized.

(b) Any person operating a bicycle or motorized pedal cycle upon a one-way highway with two or more marked traffic lanes may ride as near the left-hand curb or edge of such roadway as practicable.

(Source: P.A. 95-231, eff. 1-1-08; revised 11-21-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-215) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-215)

Sec. 12-215. Oscillating, rotating or flashing lights on motor vehicles. Except as otherwise provided in this Code:

(a) The use of red or white oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Law enforcement vehicles of State, Federal or local authorities;

2. A vehicle operated by a police officer or county coroner and designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, as a law enforcement vehicle; however, such designation or authorization must be carried in the vehicle;

2.1. A vehicle operated by a fire chief who has completed an emergency vehicle operation training course approved by the Office of the State Fire Marshal and designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, as a fire department, fire protection district, or township fire department vehicle; however, the designation or authorization must be carried in the vehicle, and the lights may be visible or activated only when responding to a bona fide emergency;

3. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or federal firefighting vehicles;

4. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as ambulances or rescue vehicles; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call for and while actually conveying the sick or injured;

5. Tow trucks licensed in a state that requires such lights; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on any such tow truck while the tow truck is operating in the State of Illinois;

6. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public Health, and vehicles of the Department of Nuclear Safety;

7. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act;

8. School buses operating alternately flashing head lamps as permitted under Section 12-805 of this Code;

9. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as organ transplant vehicles when used in combination with blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights; furthermore, these lights shall be lighted only when the transportation is declared an emergency by a member of the transplant team or a representative of the organ procurement organization; and

10. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives emergency response.

(b) The use of amber oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Second division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except as required in this paragraph 1; such lights shall be lighted when such vehicles are actually being used at the scene of an accident or disablement; if the towing vehicle is equipped with a flat bed that supports all wheels of the vehicle being transported, the lights shall not be lighted while the vehicle is engaged in towing on a highway; if the towing vehicle is not equipped with a flat bed that supports all wheels of a vehicle being transported, the lights shall be lighted while the towing vehicle is engaged in towing on a highway during all times when the use of headlights is required under Section 12-201 of this Code;

2. Motor vehicles or equipment of the State of Illinois, local authorities and contractors; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except while such vehicles are engaged in maintenance or construction operations within the limits of construction projects;

3. Vehicles or equipment used by engineering or survey crews; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except while such vehicles are actually engaged in work on a highway;

4. Vehicles of public utilities, municipalities, or other construction, maintenance or automotive service vehicles except that such lights shall be lighted only as a means for indicating the presence of a vehicular traffic hazard requiring unusual care in approaching, overtaking or passing while such vehicles are engaged in maintenance, service or construction on a highway;

5. Oversized vehicle or load; however, such lights shall only be lighted when moving under permit issued by the Department under Section 15-301 of this Code;

6. The front and rear of motorized equipment owned and operated by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof, which is designed and used for removal of snow and ice from highways;

(6.1) The front and rear of motorized equipment or vehicles that (i) are not owned by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State, (ii) are designed and used for removal of snow and ice from highways and parking lots, and (iii) are equipped with a snow plow that is 12 feet in width; these lights may not be lighted except when the motorized equipment or vehicle is actually being used for those purposes on behalf of a unit of government;

7. Fleet safety vehicles registered in another state, furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except as provided for in Section 12-212 of this Code;

8. Such other vehicles as may be authorized by local authorities;

9. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local authorities when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights;

9.5. Propane delivery trucks;

10. Vehicles used for collecting or delivering mail for the United States Postal Service provided that such lights shall not be lighted except when such vehicles are actually being used for such purposes;

10.5. Vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, provided that such lights shall not be lighted except for when such vehicles are engaged in work for the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal;

11. Any vehicle displaying a slow-moving vehicle emblem as provided in Section 12-205.1;

12. All trucks equipped with self-compactors or roll-off hoists and roll-on containers for garbage or refuse hauling. Such lights shall not be lighted except when such vehicles are actually being used for such purposes;

13. Vehicles used by a security company, alarm responder, or control agency;

14. Security vehicles of the Department of Human Services; however, the lights shall not be lighted except when being used for security related purposes under the direction of the superintendent of the facility where the vehicle is located; and

15. Vehicles of union representatives, except that the lights shall be lighted only while the vehicle is within the limits of a construction project.

(c) The use of blue oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Rescue squad vehicles not owned by a fire department and vehicles owned or operated by a:

voluntary firefighter;

paid firefighter;

part-paid firefighter;

call firefighter;

member of the board of trustees of a fire protection district;

paid or unpaid member of a rescue squad;

paid or unpaid member of a voluntary ambulance unit; or

paid or unpaid members of a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, and carrying that designation or authorization in the vehicle.

However, such lights are not to be lighted except when responding to a bona fide emergency or when parked or stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance call, or motor vehicle accident.

Any person using these lights in accordance with this subdivision (c)1 must carry on his or her person an identification card or letter identifying the bona fide member of a fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency that owns or operates that vehicle. The card or letter must include:

(A) the name of the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency;

(B) the member's position within the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency;

(C) the member's term of service; and

(D) the name of a person within the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency to contact to verify the information provided.

2. Police department vehicles in cities having a population of 500,000 or more inhabitants.

3. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local authorities when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights.

4. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or federal firefighting vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights.

5. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as ambulances or rescue vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call.

6. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as organ transport vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights; furthermore, these lights shall only be lighted when the transportation is declared an emergency by a member of the transplant team or a representative of the organ procurement organization.

7. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public Health, and vehicles of the Department of Nuclear Safety, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

8. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

9. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives emergency response, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

(c-1) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a voluntary firefighter, a voluntary member of a rescue squad, or a member of a voluntary ambulance unit may be equipped with flashing white headlights and blue grill lights, which may be used only in responding to an emergency call or when parked or stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance call, or motor vehicle accident.

(c-2) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a paid or unpaid member of a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, may be equipped with white oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights to be used in combination with blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights, if authorization by local authorities is in writing and carried in the vehicle.

(d) The use of a combination of amber and white oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except motor vehicles or equipment of the State of Illinois, local authorities, contractors, and union representatives may be so equipped; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on vehicles of the State of Illinois, local authorities, and contractors except while such vehicles are engaged in highway maintenance or construction operations within the limits of highway construction projects, and shall not be lighted on the vehicles of union representatives except when those vehicles are within the limits of a construction project.

(e) All oscillating, rotating or flashing lights referred to in this Section shall be of sufficient intensity, when illuminated, to be visible at 500 feet in normal sunlight.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a manufacturer of oscillating, rotating or flashing lights or his representative from temporarily mounting such lights on a vehicle for demonstration purposes only.

(g) Any person violating the provisions of subsections (a), (b), (c) or (d) of this Section who without lawful authority stops or detains or attempts to stop or detain another person shall be guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(h) Except as provided in subsection (g) above, any person violating the provisions of subsections (a) or (c) of this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-214, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1190, eff. 7-22-10; 97-39, eff. 1-1-12; 97-149, eff. 7-14-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/13-101) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 13-101)

Sec. 13-101. Submission to safety test; Certificate of safety. To promote the safety of the general public, every owner of a second division vehicle, medical transport vehicle, tow truck, first division vehicle including a taxi which is used for a purpose that requires a school bus driver permit, or contract carrier transporting employees in the course of their employment on a highway of this State in a vehicle designed to carry 15 or fewer passengers shall, before operating the vehicle upon the highways of Illinois, submit it to a "safety test" and secure a certificate of safety furnished by the Department as set forth in Section 13-109. Each second division motor vehicle that pulls or draws a trailer, semitrailer or pole trailer, with a gross weight of more than 8,000 lbs or is registered for a gross weight of more than 8,000 lbs, motor bus, religious organization bus, school bus, senior citizen transportation vehicle, and limousine shall be subject to inspection by the Department and the Department is authorized to establish rules and regulations for the implementation of such inspections.

The owners of each salvage vehicle shall submit it to a "safety test" and secure a certificate of safety furnished by the Department prior to its salvage vehicle inspection pursuant to Section 3-308 of this Code. In implementing and enforcing the provisions of this Section, the Department and other authorized State agencies shall do so in a manner that is not inconsistent with any applicable federal law or regulation so that no federal funding or support is jeopardized by the enactment or application of these provisions.

However, none of the provisions of Chapter 13 requiring safety tests or a certificate of safety shall apply to:

(a) farm tractors, machinery and implements, wagons, wagon-trailers or like farm vehicles used primarily in agricultural pursuits;

(b) vehicles other than school buses, tow trucks and medical transport vehicles owned or operated by a municipal corporation or political subdivision having a population of 1,000,000 or more inhabitants and which are subject to safety tests imposed by local ordinance or resolution;

(c) a semitrailer or trailer having a gross weight of 5,000 pounds or less including vehicle weight and maximum load;

(d) recreational vehicles;

(e) vehicles registered as and displaying Illinois antique vehicle plates and vehicles registered as expanded-use antique vehicles and displaying expanded-use antique vehicle plates;

(f) house trailers equipped and used for living quarters;

(g) vehicles registered as and displaying Illinois permanently mounted equipment plates or similar vehicles eligible therefor but registered as governmental vehicles provided that if said vehicle is reclassified from a permanently mounted equipment plate so as to lose the exemption of not requiring a certificate of safety, such vehicle must be safety tested within 30 days of the reclassification;

(h) vehicles owned or operated by a manufacturer, dealer or transporter displaying a special plate or plates as described in Chapter 3 of this Code while such vehicle is being delivered from the manufacturing or assembly plant directly to the purchasing dealership or distributor, or being temporarily road driven for quality control testing, or from one dealer or distributor to another, or are being moved by the most direct route from one location to another for the purpose of installing special bodies or equipment, or driven for purposes of demonstration by a prospective buyer with the dealer or his agent present in the cab of the vehicle during the demonstration;

(i) pole trailers and auxiliary axles;

(j) special mobile equipment;

(k) vehicles properly registered in another State pursuant to law and displaying a valid registration plate, except vehicles of contract carriers transporting employees in the course of their employment on a highway of this State in a vehicle designed to carry 15 or fewer passengers are only exempted to the extent that the safety testing requirements applicable to such vehicles in the state of registration are no less stringent than the safety testing requirements applicable to contract carriers that are lawfully registered in Illinois;

(l) water-well boring apparatuses or rigs;

(m) any vehicle which is owned and operated by the federal government and externally displays evidence of such ownership; and

(n) second division vehicles registered for a gross weight of 8,000 pounds or less, except when such second division motor vehicles pull or draw a trailer, semi-trailer or pole trailer having a gross weight of or registered for a gross weight of more than 8,000 pounds; motor buses; religious organization buses; school buses; senior citizen transportation vehicles; medical transport vehicles and tow trucks.

The safety test shall include the testing and inspection of brakes, lights, horns, reflectors, rear vision mirrors, mufflers, safety chains, windshields and windshield wipers, warning flags and flares, frame, axle, cab and body, or cab or body, wheels, steering apparatus, and other safety devices and appliances required by this Code and such other safety tests as the Department may by rule or regulation require, for second division vehicles, school buses, medical transport vehicles, tow trucks, first division vehicles including taxis which are used for a purpose that requires a school bus driver permit, vehicles designed to carry 15 or fewer passengers operated by a contract carrier transporting employees in the course of their employment on a highway of this State, trailers, and semitrailers subject to inspection.

For tow trucks, the safety test and inspection shall also include the inspection of winch mountings, body panels, body mounts, wheel lift swivel points, and sling straps, and other tests and inspections the Department by rule requires for tow trucks.

For trucks, truck tractors, trailers, semi-trailers, buses, and first division vehicles including taxis which are used for a purpose that requires a school bus driver permit, the safety test shall be conducted in accordance with the Minimum Periodic Inspection Standards promulgated by the Federal Highway Administration of the U.S. Department of Transportation and contained in Appendix G to Subchapter B of Chapter III of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations. Those standards, as now in effect, are made a part of this Code, in the same manner as though they were set out in full in this Code.

The passing of the safety test shall not be a bar at any time to prosecution for operating a second division vehicle, medical transport vehicle, or vehicle designed to carry 15 or fewer passengers operated by a contract carrier as provided in this Section which is unsafe as determined by the standards prescribed in this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-224, eff. 7-28-11; 97-412, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/13C-15)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-106)

Sec. 13C-15. Inspections.

(a) Computer-Matched Inspections and Notification.

(1) The provisions of this subsection (a) are operative until the implementation of the registration denial inspection and notification mechanisms required by subsection (b). Beginning with the implementation of the program required by this Chapter, every motor vehicle that is owned by a resident of an affected county, other than a vehicle that is exempt under paragraph (a)(6) or (a)(7), is subject to inspection under the program.

The Agency shall send notice of the assigned inspection month, at least 15 days before the beginning of the assigned month, to the owner of each vehicle subject to the program. An initial emission inspection sticker or initial inspection certificate, as the case may be, expires on the last day of the third month following the month assigned by the Agency for the first inspection of the vehicle. A renewal inspection sticker or certificate expires on the last day of the third month following the month assigned for inspection in the year in which the vehicle's next inspection is required.

The Agency or its agent may issue an interim emission inspection sticker or certificate for any vehicle subject to inspection that does not have a currently valid emission inspection sticker or certificate at the time the Agency is notified by the Secretary of State of its registration by a new owner, and for which an initial emission inspection sticker or certificate has already been issued. An interim emission inspection sticker or certificate expires no later than the last day of the sixth complete calendar month after the date the Agency issued the interim emission inspection sticker or certificate.

The owner of each vehicle subject to inspection shall obtain an emission inspection sticker or certificate for the vehicle in accordance with this paragraph (1). Before the expiration of the emission inspection sticker or certificate, the owner shall have the vehicle inspected and, upon demonstration of compliance, obtain a renewal emission inspection sticker or certificate. A renewal emission inspection sticker or certificate shall not be issued more than 5 months before the expiration date of the previous inspection sticker or certificate.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3), vehicles shall be inspected every 2 years on a schedule that begins either in the second, fourth, or later calendar year after the vehicle model year. The beginning test schedule shall be set by the Agency and shall be consistent with the State's requirements for emission reductions as determined by the applicable United States Environmental Protection Agency vehicle emissions estimation model and applicable guidance and rules.

(3) A vehicle may be inspected at a time outside of its normal 2-year inspection schedule, if (i) the vehicle was acquired by a new owner and (ii) the vehicle was required to be in compliance with this Act at the time the vehicle was acquired by the new owner, but it was not then in compliance.

(4) The owner of a vehicle subject to inspection shall have the vehicle inspected and shall obtain and display on the vehicle or carry within the vehicle, in a manner specified by the Agency, a valid unexpired emission inspection sticker or certificate in the manner specified by the Agency. A person who violates this paragraph (4) is guilty of a petty offense, except that a third or subsequent violation within one year of the first violation is a Class C misdemeanor. The fine imposed for a violation of this paragraph (4) shall be not less than $50 if the violation occurred within 60 days following the date by which a new or renewal emission inspection sticker or certificate was required to be obtained for the vehicle, and not less than $300 if the violation occurred more than 60 days after that date.

(5) For a $20 fee, to be paid into the Vehicle Inspection Fund, the Agency may inspect:

(A) A vehicle registered in and subject to the emission inspections requirements of another state.

(B) A vehicle presented for inspection on a voluntary basis.

Any fees collected under this paragraph (5) shall not offset Motor Fuel Tax Funds normally appropriated for the program.

(6) The following vehicles are not subject to inspection:

(A) Vehicles not subject to registration under Article IV of Chapter 3 of this Code, other than vehicles owned by the federal government.

(B) Motorcycles, motor driven cycles, and motorized pedalcycles.

(C) Farm vehicles and implements of husbandry.

(D) Implements of warfare owned by the State or federal government.

(E) Antique vehicles, expanded-use antique vehicles, custom vehicles, street rods, and vehicles of model year 1967 or before.

(F) Vehicles operated exclusively for parade or ceremonial purposes by any veterans, fraternal, or civic organization, organized on a not-for-profit basis.

(G) Vehicles for which the Secretary of State, under Section 3-117 of this Code, has issued a Junking Certificate.

(H) Diesel powered vehicles and vehicles that are powered exclusively by electricity.

(I) Vehicles operated exclusively in organized amateur or professional sporting activities, as defined in Section 3.310 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(J) Vehicles registered in, subject to, and in compliance with the emission inspection requirements of another state.

(K) Vehicles participating in an OBD continuous monitoring program operated in accordance with procedures adopted by the Agency.

(L) Vehicles of model year 1995 or earlier that do not have an expired emissions test sticker or certificate on February 1, 2007.

The Agency may issue temporary or permanent exemption stickers or certificates for vehicles temporarily or permanently exempt from inspection under this paragraph (6). An exemption sticker or certificate does not need to be displayed.

(7) According to criteria that the Agency may adopt, a motor vehicle may be exempted from the inspection requirements of this Section by the Agency on the basis of an Agency determination that the vehicle is located and primarily used outside of the affected counties or in other jurisdictions where vehicle emission inspections are not required. The Agency may issue an annual exemption sticker or certificate without inspection for any vehicle exempted from inspection under this paragraph (7).

(8) Any owner or lessee of a fleet of 15 or more motor vehicles that are subject to inspection under this Section may apply to the Agency for a permit to establish and operate a private official inspection station in accordance with rules adopted by the Agency.

(9) Pursuant to Title 40, Section 51.371 of the Code of Federal Regulations, the Agency may establish a program of on-road testing of in-use vehicles through the use of remote sensing devices. In any such program, the Agency shall evaluate the emission performance of 0.5% of the subject fleet or 20,000 vehicles, whichever is less. Under no circumstances shall on-road testing include any sort of roadblock or roadside pullover or cause any type of traffic delay. If, during the course of an on-road inspection, a vehicle is found to exceed the on-road emissions standards established for the model year and type of vehicle, the Agency shall send a notice to the vehicle owner. The notice shall document the occurrence and the results of the on-road exceedance. The notice of a second on-road exceedance shall indicate that the vehicle has been reassigned and is subject to an out-of-cycle follow-up inspection at an official inspection station. In no case shall the Agency send a notice of an on-road exceedance to the owner of a vehicle that was found to exceed the on-road emission standards established for the model year and type of vehicle, if the vehicle is registered outside of the affected counties.

(b) Registration Denial Inspection and Notification.

(1) No later than January 1, 2008, every motor vehicle that is owned by a resident of an affected county, other than a vehicle that is exempt under paragraph (b)(8) or (b)(9), is subject to inspection under the program.

The owner of a vehicle subject to inspection shall have the vehicle inspected and obtain proof of compliance from the Agency in order to obtain or renew a vehicle registration for a subject vehicle.

The Secretary of State shall notify the owner of a vehicle subject to inspection of the requirement to have the vehicle tested at least 30 days prior to the beginning of the month in which the vehicle's registration is due to expire. Notwithstanding the preceding, vehicles with permanent registration plates shall be notified at least 30 days prior to the month corresponding to the date the vehicle was originally registered. This notification shall clearly state the vehicle's test status, based upon the vehicle type, model year and registration address.

The owner of each vehicle subject to inspection shall have the vehicle inspected and, upon demonstration of compliance, obtain an emissions compliance certificate for the vehicle.

(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3), (b)(4), and (b)(5), vehicles shall be inspected every 2 years on a schedule that begins in the fourth calendar year after the vehicle model year. Even model year vehicles shall be inspected and comply in order to renew registrations expiring in even calendar years and odd model year vehicles shall be inspected and comply in order to renew registrations expiring in odd calendar years.

(3) A vehicle shall be inspected and comply at a time outside of its normal 2-year inspection schedule if (i) the vehicle was acquired by a new owner and (ii) the vehicle had not been issued a Compliance Certificate within one year of the date of application for the title or registration, or both, for the vehicle.

(4) Vehicles with 2-year registrations shall be inspected every 2 years at the time of registration issuance or renewal on a schedule that begins in the fourth year after the vehicle model year.

(5) Vehicles with permanent vehicle registration plates shall be inspected every 2 years on a schedule that begins in the fourth calendar year after the vehicle model year in the month corresponding to the date the vehicle was originally registered. Even model year vehicles shall be inspected and comply in even calendar years, and odd model year vehicles shall be inspected and comply in odd calendar years.

(6) The Agency and the Secretary of State shall endeavor to ensure a smooth transition from test scheduling from the provisions of subsection (a) to subsection (b). Passing tests and waivers issued prior to the implementation of this subsection (b) may be utilized to establish compliance for a period of one year from the date of the emissions or waiver inspection.

(7) For a $20 fee, to be paid into the Vehicle Inspection Fund, the Agency may inspect:

(A) A vehicle registered in and subject to the emissions inspections requirements of another state.

(B) A vehicle presented for inspection on a voluntary basis.

Any fees collected under this paragraph (7) shall not offset Motor Fuel Tax Funds normally appropriated for the program.

(8) The following vehicles are not subject to inspection:

(A) Vehicles not subject to registration under Article IV of Chapter 3 of this Code, other than vehicles owned by the federal government.

(B) Motorcycles, motor driven cycles, and motorized pedalcycles.

(C) Farm vehicles and implements of husbandry.

(D) Implements of warfare owned by the State or federal government.

(E) Antique vehicles, expanded-use antique vehicles, custom vehicles, street rods, and vehicles of model year 1967 or before.

(F) Vehicles operated exclusively for parade or ceremonial purposes by any veterans, fraternal, or civic organization, organized on a not-for-profit basis.

(G) Vehicles for which the Secretary of State, under Section 3-117 of this Code, has issued a Junking Certificate.

(H) Diesel powered vehicles and vehicles that are powered exclusively by electricity.

(I) Vehicles operated exclusively in organized amateur or professional sporting activities, as defined in Section 3.310 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(J) Vehicles registered in, subject to, and in compliance with the emission inspection requirements of another state.

(K) Vehicles participating in an OBD continuous monitoring program operated in accordance with procedures adopted by the Agency.

(L) Vehicles of model year 1995 or earlier that do not have an expired emissions test sticker or certificate on February 1, 2007.

The Agency may issue temporary or permanent exemption certificates for vehicles temporarily or permanently exempt from inspection under this paragraph (8). An exemption sticker or certificate does not need to be displayed.

(9) According to criteria that the Agency may adopt, a motor vehicle may be exempted from the inspection requirements of this Section by the Agency on the basis of an Agency determination that the vehicle is located and primarily used outside of the affected counties or in other jurisdictions where vehicle emissions inspections are not required. The Agency may issue an annual exemption certificate without inspection for any vehicle exempted from inspection under this paragraph (9).

(10) Any owner or lessee of a fleet of 15 or more motor vehicles that are subject to inspection under this Section may apply to the Agency for a permit to establish and operate a private official inspection station in accordance with rules adopted by the Agency.

(11) Pursuant to Title 40, Section 51.371 of the Code of Federal Regulations, the Agency may establish a program of on-road testing of in-use vehicles through the use of remote sensing devices. In any such program, the Agency shall evaluate the emission performance of 0.5% of the subject fleet or 20,000 vehicles, whichever is less. Under no circumstances shall on-road testing include any sort of roadblock or roadside pullover or cause any type of traffic delay. If, during the course of an on-road inspection, a vehicle is found to exceed the on-road emissions standards established for the model year and type of vehicle, the Agency shall send a notice to the vehicle owner. The notice shall document the occurrence and the results of the on-road exceedance. The notice of a second on-road exceedance shall indicate that the vehicle has been reassigned and is subject to an out-of-cycle follow-up inspection at an official inspection station. In no case shall the Agency send a notice of an on-road exceedance to the owner of a vehicle that was found to exceed the on-road emissions standards established for the model year and type of vehicle, if the vehicle is registered outside of the affected counties.

(Source: P.A. 97-412, eff. 1-1-12.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-106)

Sec. 13C-15. Inspections.

(a) Computer-Matched Inspections and Notification.

(1) The provisions of this subsection (a) are operative until the implementation of the registration denial inspection and notification mechanisms required by subsection (b). Beginning with the implementation of the program required by this Chapter, every motor vehicle that is owned by a resident of an affected county, other than a vehicle that is exempt under paragraph (a)(6) or (a)(7), is subject to inspection under the program.

The Agency shall send notice of the assigned inspection month, at least 15 days before the beginning of the assigned month, to the owner of each vehicle subject to the program. An initial emission inspection sticker or initial inspection certificate, as the case may be, expires on the last day of the third month following the month assigned by the Agency for the first inspection of the vehicle. A renewal inspection sticker or certificate expires on the last day of the third month following the month assigned for inspection in the year in which the vehicle's next inspection is required.

The Agency or its agent may issue an interim emission inspection sticker or certificate for any vehicle subject to inspection that does not have a currently valid emission inspection sticker or certificate at the time the Agency is notified by the Secretary of State of its registration by a new owner, and for which an initial emission inspection sticker or certificate has already been issued. An interim emission inspection sticker or certificate expires no later than the last day of the sixth complete calendar month after the date the Agency issued the interim emission inspection sticker or certificate.

The owner of each vehicle subject to inspection shall obtain an emission inspection sticker or certificate for the vehicle in accordance with this paragraph (1). Before the expiration of the emission inspection sticker or certificate, the owner shall have the vehicle inspected and, upon demonstration of compliance, obtain a renewal emission inspection sticker or certificate. A renewal emission inspection sticker or certificate shall not be issued more than 5 months before the expiration date of the previous inspection sticker or certificate.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3), vehicles shall be inspected every 2 years on a schedule that begins either in the second, fourth, or later calendar year after the vehicle model year. The beginning test schedule shall be set by the Agency and shall be consistent with the State's requirements for emission reductions as determined by the applicable United States Environmental Protection Agency vehicle emissions estimation model and applicable guidance and rules.

(3) A vehicle may be inspected at a time outside of its normal 2-year inspection schedule, if (i) the vehicle was acquired by a new owner and (ii) the vehicle was required to be in compliance with this Act at the time the vehicle was acquired by the new owner, but it was not then in compliance.

(4) The owner of a vehicle subject to inspection shall have the vehicle inspected and shall obtain and display on the vehicle or carry within the vehicle, in a manner specified by the Agency, a valid unexpired emission inspection sticker or certificate in the manner specified by the Agency. A person who violates this paragraph (4) is guilty of a petty offense, except that a third or subsequent violation within one year of the first violation is a Class C misdemeanor. The fine imposed for a violation of this paragraph (4) shall be not less than $50 if the violation occurred within 60 days following the date by which a new or renewal emission inspection sticker or certificate was required to be obtained for the vehicle, and not less than $300 if the violation occurred more than 60 days after that date.

(5) For a $20 fee, to be paid into the Vehicle Inspection Fund, the Agency may inspect:

(A) A vehicle registered in and subject to the emission inspections requirements of another state.

(B) A vehicle presented for inspection on a voluntary basis.

Any fees collected under this paragraph (5) shall not offset Motor Fuel Tax Funds normally appropriated for the program.

(6) The following vehicles are not subject to inspection:

(A) Vehicles not subject to registration under Article IV of Chapter 3 of this Code, other than vehicles owned by the federal government.

(B) Motorcycles, motor driven cycles, and motorized pedalcycles.

(C) Farm vehicles and implements of husbandry.

(D) Implements of warfare owned by the State or federal government.

(E) Antique vehicles, expanded-use antique vehicles, custom vehicles, street rods, and vehicles of model year 1967 or before.

(F) Vehicles operated exclusively for parade or ceremonial purposes by any veterans, fraternal, or civic organization, organized on a not-for-profit basis.

(G) Vehicles for which the Secretary of State, under Section 3-117 of this Code, has issued a Junking Certificate.

(H) Diesel powered vehicles and vehicles that are powered exclusively by electricity.

(I) Vehicles operated exclusively in organized amateur or professional sporting activities, as defined in Section 3.310 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(J) Vehicles registered in, subject to, and in compliance with the emission inspection requirements of another state.

(K) Vehicles participating in an OBD continuous monitoring program operated in accordance with procedures adopted by the Agency.

(L) Vehicles of model year 1995 or earlier that do not have an expired emissions test sticker or certificate on February 1, 2007.

The Agency may issue temporary or permanent exemption stickers or certificates for vehicles temporarily or permanently exempt from inspection under this paragraph (6). An exemption sticker or certificate does not need to be displayed.

(7) According to criteria that the Agency may adopt, a motor vehicle may be exempted from the inspection requirements of this Section by the Agency on the basis of an Agency determination that the vehicle is located and primarily used outside of the affected counties or in other jurisdictions where vehicle emission inspections are not required. The Agency may issue an annual exemption sticker or certificate without inspection for any vehicle exempted from inspection under this paragraph (7).

(8) Any owner or lessee of a fleet of 15 or more motor vehicles that are subject to inspection under this Section may apply to the Agency for a permit to establish and operate a private official inspection station in accordance with rules adopted by the Agency.

(9) Pursuant to Title 40, Section 51.371 of the Code of Federal Regulations, the Agency may establish a program of on-road testing of in-use vehicles through the use of remote sensing devices. In any such program, the Agency shall evaluate the emission performance of 0.5% of the subject fleet or 20,000 vehicles, whichever is less. Under no circumstances shall on-road testing include any sort of roadblock or roadside pullover or cause any type of traffic delay. If, during the course of an on-road inspection, a vehicle is found to exceed the on-road emissions standards established for the model year and type of vehicle, the Agency shall send a notice to the vehicle owner. The notice shall document the occurrence and the results of the on-road exceedance. The notice of a second on-road exceedance shall indicate that the vehicle has been reassigned and is subject to an out-of-cycle follow-up inspection at an official inspection station. In no case shall the Agency send a notice of an on-road exceedance to the owner of a vehicle that was found to exceed the on-road emission standards established for the model year and type of vehicle, if the vehicle is registered outside of the affected counties.

(b) Registration Denial Inspection and Notification.

(1) No later than January 1, 2008, every motor vehicle that is owned by a resident of an affected county, other than a vehicle that is exempt under paragraph (b)(8) or (b)(9), is subject to inspection under the program.

The owner of a vehicle subject to inspection shall have the vehicle inspected and obtain proof of compliance from the Agency in order to obtain or renew a vehicle registration for a subject vehicle.

The Secretary of State shall notify the owner of a vehicle subject to inspection of the requirement to have the vehicle tested at least 30 days prior to the beginning of the month in which the vehicle's registration is due to expire. Notwithstanding the preceding, vehicles with permanent registration plates shall be notified at least 30 days prior to the month corresponding to the date the vehicle was originally registered. This notification shall clearly state the vehicle's test status, based upon the vehicle type, model year and registration address.

The owner of each vehicle subject to inspection shall have the vehicle inspected and, upon demonstration of compliance, obtain an emissions compliance certificate for the vehicle.

(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3), (b)(4), and (b)(5), vehicles shall be inspected every 2 years on a schedule that begins in the fourth calendar year after the vehicle model year. Even model year vehicles shall be inspected and comply in order to renew registrations expiring in even calendar years and odd model year vehicles shall be inspected and comply in order to renew registrations expiring in odd calendar years.

(3) A vehicle shall be inspected and comply at a time outside of its normal 2-year inspection schedule if (i) the vehicle was acquired by a new owner and (ii) the vehicle had not been issued a Compliance Certificate within one year of the date of application for the title or registration, or both, for the vehicle.

(4) Vehicles with 2-year registrations shall be inspected every 2 years at the time of registration issuance or renewal on a schedule that begins in the fourth year after the vehicle model year.

(5) Vehicles with permanent vehicle registration plates shall be inspected every 2 years on a schedule that begins in the fourth calendar year after the vehicle model year in the month corresponding to the date the vehicle was originally registered. Even model year vehicles shall be inspected and comply in even calendar years, and odd model year vehicles shall be inspected and comply in odd calendar years.

(6) The Agency and the Secretary of State shall endeavor to ensure a smooth transition from test scheduling from the provisions of subsection (a) to subsection (b). Passing tests and waivers issued prior to the implementation of this subsection (b) may be utilized to establish compliance for a period of one year from the date of the emissions or waiver inspection.

(7) For a $20 fee, to be paid into the Vehicle Inspection Fund, the Agency may inspect:

(A) A vehicle registered in and subject to the emissions inspections requirements of another state.

(B) A vehicle presented for inspection on a voluntary basis.

Any fees collected under this paragraph (7) shall not offset Motor Fuel Tax Funds normally appropriated for the program.

(8) The following vehicles are not subject to inspection:

(A) Vehicles not subject to registration under Article IV of Chapter 3 of this Code, other than vehicles owned by the federal government.

(B) Motorcycles, motor driven cycles, and motorized pedalcycles.

(C) Farm vehicles and implements of husbandry.

(D) Implements of warfare owned by the State or federal government.

(E) Antique vehicles, expanded-use antique vehicles, custom vehicles, street rods, and vehicles of model year 1967 or before.

(F) Vehicles operated exclusively for parade or ceremonial purposes by any veterans, fraternal, or civic organization, organized on a not-for-profit basis.

(G) Vehicles for which the Secretary of State, under Section 3-117 of this Code, has issued a Junking Certificate.

(H) Diesel powered vehicles and vehicles that are powered exclusively by electricity.

(I) Vehicles operated exclusively in organized amateur or professional sporting activities, as defined in Section 3.310 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(J) Vehicles registered in, subject to, and in compliance with the emission inspection requirements of another state.

(K) Vehicles participating in an OBD continuous monitoring program operated in accordance with procedures adopted by the Agency.

(L) Vehicles of model year 1995 or earlier that do not have an expired emissions test sticker or certificate on February 1, 2007.

(M) Vehicles of model year 2006 or earlier with a manufacturer gross vehicle weight rating between 8,501 and 14,000 pounds.

(N) Vehicles with a manufacturer gross vehicle weight rating greater than 14,000 pounds.

The Agency may issue temporary or permanent exemption certificates for vehicles temporarily or permanently exempt from inspection under this paragraph (8). An exemption sticker or certificate does not need to be displayed.

(9) According to criteria that the Agency may adopt, a motor vehicle may be exempted from the inspection requirements of this Section by the Agency on the basis of an Agency determination that the vehicle is located and primarily used outside of the affected counties and in other jurisdictions where vehicle emissions inspections are not required. The Agency may issue an annual exemption certificate without inspection for any vehicle exempted from inspection under this paragraph (9).

(10) Any owner or lessee of a fleet of 15 or more motor vehicles that are subject to inspection under this Section may apply to the Agency for a permit to establish and operate a private official inspection station in accordance with rules adopted by the Agency.

(11) Pursuant to Title 40, Section 51.371 of the Code of Federal Regulations, the Agency may establish a program of on-road testing of in-use vehicles through the use of remote sensing devices. In any such program, the Agency shall evaluate the emission performance of 0.5% of the subject fleet or 20,000 vehicles, whichever is less. Under no circumstances shall on-road testing include any sort of roadblock or roadside pullover or cause any type of traffic delay. If, during the course of an on-road inspection, a vehicle is found to exceed the on-road emissions standards established for the model year and type of vehicle, the Agency shall send a notice to the vehicle owner. The notice shall document the occurrence and the results of the on-road exceedance. The notice of a second on-road exceedance shall indicate that the vehicle has been reassigned and is subject to an out-of-cycle follow-up inspection at an official inspection station. In no case shall the Agency send a notice of an on-road exceedance to the owner of a vehicle that was found to exceed the on-road emissions standards established for the model year and type of vehicle, if the vehicle is registered outside of the affected counties.

(Source: P.A. 97-106, eff. 2-1-12; 97-412, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-301) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-301)

Sec. 15-301. Permits for excess size and weight.

(a) The Department with respect to highways under its jurisdiction and local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction may, in their discretion, upon application and good cause being shown therefor, issue a special permit authorizing the applicant to operate or move a vehicle or combination of vehicles of a size or weight of vehicle or load exceeding the maximum specified in this Act or otherwise not in conformity with this Act upon any highway under the jurisdiction of the party granting such permit and for the maintenance of which the party is responsible. Applications and permits other than those in written or printed form may only be accepted from and issued to the company or individual making the movement. Except for an application to move directly across a highway, it shall be the duty of the applicant to establish in the application that the load to be moved by such vehicle or combination cannot reasonably be dismantled or disassembled, the reasonableness of which shall be determined by the Secretary of the Department. For the purpose of over length movements, more than one object may be carried side by side as long as the height, width, and weight laws are not exceeded and the cause for the over length is not due to multiple objects. For the purpose of over height movements, more than one object may be carried as long as the cause for the over height is not due to multiple objects and the length, width, and weight laws are not exceeded. For the purpose of an over width movement, more than one object may be carried as long as the cause for the over width is not due to multiple objects and length, height, and weight laws are not exceeded. No state or local agency shall authorize the issuance of excess size or weight permits for vehicles and loads that are divisible and that can be carried, when divided, within the existing size or weight maximums specified in this Chapter. Any excess size or weight permit issued in violation of the provisions of this Section shall be void at issue and any movement made thereunder shall not be authorized under the terms of the void permit. In any prosecution for a violation of this Chapter when the authorization of an excess size or weight permit is at issue, it is the burden of the defendant to establish that the permit was valid because the load to be moved could not reasonably be dismantled or disassembled, or was otherwise nondivisible.

(b) The application for any such permit shall: (1) state whether such permit is requested for a single trip or for limited continuous operation; (2) state if the applicant is an authorized carrier under the Illinois Motor Carrier of Property Law, if so, his certificate, registration or permit number issued by the Illinois Commerce Commission; (3) specifically describe and identify the vehicle or vehicles and load to be operated or moved except that for vehicles or vehicle combinations registered by the Department as provided in Section 15-319 of this Chapter, only the Illinois Department of Transportation's (IDT) registration number or classification need be given; (4) state the routing requested including the points of origin and destination, and may identify and include a request for routing to the nearest certified scale in accordance with the Department's rules and regulations, provided the applicant has approval to travel on local roads; and (5) state if the vehicles or loads are being transported for hire. No permits for the movement of a vehicle or load for hire shall be issued to any applicant who is required under the Illinois Motor Carrier of Property Law to have a certificate, registration or permit and does not have such certificate, registration or permit.

(c) The Department or local authority when not inconsistent with traffic safety is authorized to issue or withhold such permit at its discretion; or, if such permit is issued at its discretion to prescribe the route or routes to be traveled, to limit the number of trips, to establish seasonal or other time limitations within which the vehicles described may be operated on the highways indicated, or otherwise to limit or prescribe conditions of operations of such vehicle or vehicles, when necessary to assure against undue damage to the road foundations, surfaces or structures, and may require such undertaking or other security as may be deemed necessary to compensate for any injury to any roadway or road structure. The Department shall maintain a daily record of each permit issued along with the fee and the stipulated dimensions, weights, conditions and restrictions authorized and this record shall be presumed correct in any case of questions or dispute. The Department shall install an automatic device for recording applications received and permits issued by telephone. In making application by telephone, the Department and applicant waive all objections to the recording of the conversation.

(d) The Department shall, upon application in writing from any local authority, issue an annual permit authorizing the local authority to move oversize highway construction, transportation, utility and maintenance equipment over roads under the jurisdiction of the Department. The permit shall be applicable only to equipment and vehicles owned by or registered in the name of the local authority, and no fee shall be charged for the issuance of such permits.

(e) As an exception to paragraph (a) of this Section, the Department and local authorities, with respect to highways under their respective jurisdictions, in their discretion and upon application in writing may issue a special permit for limited continuous operation, authorizing the applicant to move loads of agricultural commodities on a 2 axle single vehicle registered by the Secretary of State with axle loads not to exceed 35%, on a 3 or 4 axle vehicle registered by the Secretary of State with axle loads not to exceed 20%, and on a 5 axle vehicle registered by the Secretary of State not to exceed 10% above those provided in Section 15-111. The total gross weight of the vehicle, however, may not exceed the maximum gross weight of the registration class of the vehicle allowed under Section 3-815 or 3-818 of this Code.

As used in this Section, "agricultural commodities" means:

(1) cultivated plants or agricultural produce grown including, but is not limited to, corn, soybeans, wheat, oats, grain sorghum, canola, and rice;

(2) livestock, including but not limited to hogs, equine, sheep, and poultry;

(3) ensilage; and

(4) fruits and vegetables.

Permits may be issued for a period not to exceed 40 days and moves may be made of a distance not to exceed 50 miles from a field, an on-farm grain storage facility, a warehouse as defined in the Illinois Grain Code, or a livestock management facility as defined in the Livestock Management Facilities Act over any highway except the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways. The operator of the vehicle, however, must abide by posted bridge and posted highway weight limits. All implements of husbandry operating under this Section between sunset and sunrise shall be equipped as prescribed in Section 12-205.1.

(e-1) Upon a declaration by the Governor that an emergency harvest situation exists, a special permit issued by the Department under this Section shall not be required from September 1 through December 31 during harvest season emergencies, provided that the weight does not exceed 20% above the limits provided in Section 15-111. All other restrictions that apply to permits issued under this Section shall apply during the declared time period. With respect to highways under the jurisdiction of local authorities, the local authorities may, at their discretion, waive special permit requirements during harvest season emergencies. This permit exemption shall apply to all vehicles eligible to obtain permits under this Section, including commercial vehicles in use during the declared time period.

(f) The form and content of the permit shall be determined by the Department with respect to highways under its jurisdiction and by local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction. Every permit shall be in written form and carried in the vehicle or combination of vehicles to which it refers and shall be open to inspection by any police officer or authorized agent of any authority granting the permit and no person shall violate any of the terms or conditions of such special permit. Violation of the terms and conditions of the permit shall not be deemed a revocation of the permit; however, any vehicle and load found to be off the route prescribed in the permit shall be held to be operating without a permit. Any off route vehicle and load shall be required to obtain a new permit or permits, as necessary, to authorize the movement back onto the original permit routing. No rule or regulation, nor anything herein shall be construed to authorize any police officer, court, or authorized agent of any authority granting the permit to remove the permit from the possession of the permittee unless the permittee is charged with a fraudulent permit violation as provided in paragraph (i). However, upon arrest for an offense of violation of permit, operating without a permit when the vehicle is off route, or any size or weight offense under this Chapter when the permittee plans to raise the issuance of the permit as a defense, the permittee, or his agent, must produce the permit at any court hearing concerning the alleged offense.

If the permit designates and includes a routing to a certified scale, the permittee permitee, while enroute to the designated scale, shall be deemed in compliance with the weight provisions of the permit provided the axle or gross weights do not exceed any of the permitted limits by more than the following amounts:

Single axle 2000 pounds

Tandem axle 3000 pounds

Gross 5000 pounds

(g) The Department is authorized to adopt, amend, and to make available to interested persons a policy concerning reasonable rules, limitations and conditions or provisions of operation upon highways under its jurisdiction in addition to those contained in this Section for the movement by special permit of vehicles, combinations, or loads which cannot reasonably be dismantled or disassembled, including manufactured and modular home sections and portions thereof. All rules, limitations and conditions or provisions adopted in the policy shall have due regard for the safety of the traveling public and the protection of the highway system and shall have been promulgated in conformity with the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The requirements of the policy for flagmen and escort vehicles shall be the same for all moves of comparable size and weight. When escort vehicles are required, they shall meet the following requirements:

(1) All operators shall be 18 years of age or over and properly licensed to operate the vehicle.

(2) Vehicles escorting oversized loads more than 12-feet wide must be equipped with a rotating or flashing amber light mounted on top as specified under Section 12-215.

The Department shall establish reasonable rules and regulations regarding liability insurance or self insurance for vehicles with oversized loads promulgated under The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Police vehicles may be required for escort under circumstances as required by rules and regulations of the Department.

(h) Violation of any rule, limitation or condition or provision of any permit issued in accordance with the provisions of this Section shall not render the entire permit null and void but the violator shall be deemed guilty of violation of permit and guilty of exceeding any size, weight or load limitations in excess of those authorized by the permit. The prescribed route or routes on the permit are not mere rules, limitations, conditions, or provisions of the permit, but are also the sole extent of the authorization granted by the permit. If a vehicle and load are found to be off the route or routes prescribed by any permit authorizing movement, the vehicle and load are operating without a permit. Any off route movement shall be subject to the size and weight maximums, under the applicable provisions of this Chapter, as determined by the type or class highway upon which the vehicle and load are being operated.

(i) Whenever any vehicle is operated or movement made under a fraudulent permit the permit shall be void, and the person, firm, or corporation to whom such permit was granted, the driver of such vehicle in addition to the person who issued such permit and any accessory, shall be guilty of fraud and either one or all persons may be prosecuted for such violation. Any person, firm, or corporation committing such violation shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and the Department shall not issue permits to the person, firm or corporation convicted of such violation for a period of one year after the date of conviction. Penalties for violations of this Section shall be in addition to any penalties imposed for violation of other Sections of this Act.

(j) Whenever any vehicle is operated or movement made in violation of a permit issued in accordance with this Section, the person to whom such permit was granted, or the driver of such vehicle, is guilty of such violation and either, but not both, persons may be prosecuted for such violation as stated in this subsection (j). Any person, firm or corporation convicted of such violation shall be guilty of a petty offense and shall be fined for the first offense, not less than $50 nor more than $200 and, for the second offense by the same person, firm or corporation within a period of one year, not less than $200 nor more than $300 and, for the third offense by the same person, firm or corporation within a period of one year after the date of the first offense, not less than $300 nor more than $500 and the Department shall not issue permits to the person, firm or corporation convicted of a third offense during a period of one year after the date of conviction for such third offense.

(k) Whenever any vehicle is operated on local roads under permits for excess width or length issued by local authorities, such vehicle may be moved upon a State highway for a distance not to exceed one-half mile without a permit for the purpose of crossing the State highway.

(l) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the Department, with respect to highways under its jurisdiction, and local authorities, with respect to highways under their jurisdiction, may at their discretion authorize the movement of a vehicle in violation of any size or weight requirement, or both, that would not ordinarily be eligible for a permit, when there is a showing of extreme necessity that the vehicle and load should be moved without unnecessary delay.

For the purpose of this subsection, showing of extreme necessity shall be limited to the following: shipments of livestock, hazardous materials, liquid concrete being hauled in a mobile cement mixer, or hot asphalt.

(m) Penalties for violations of this Section shall be in addition to any penalties imposed for violating any other Section of this Code.

(n) The Department with respect to highways under its jurisdiction and local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction, in their discretion and upon application in writing, may issue a special permit for continuous limited operation, authorizing the applicant to operate a tow-truck that exceeds the weight limits provided for in subsection (a) of Section 15-111, provided:

(1) no rear single axle of the tow-truck exceeds 26,000 pounds;

(2) no rear tandem axle of the tow-truck exceeds 50,000 pounds;

(2.1) no triple rear axle on a manufactured recovery unit exceeds 60,000 pounds;

(3) neither the disabled vehicle nor the disabled combination of vehicles exceed the weight restrictions imposed by this Chapter 15, or the weight limits imposed under a permit issued by the Department prior to hookup;

(4) the tow-truck prior to hookup does not exceed the weight restrictions imposed by this Chapter 15;

(5) during the tow operation the tow-truck does not violate any weight restriction sign;

(6) the tow-truck is equipped with flashing, rotating, or oscillating amber lights, visible for at least 500 feet in all directions;

(7) the tow-truck is specifically designed and licensed as a tow-truck;

(8) the tow-truck has a gross vehicle weight rating of sufficient capacity to safely handle the load;

(9) the tow-truck is equipped with air brakes;

(10) the tow-truck is capable of utilizing the lighting and braking systems of the disabled vehicle or combination of vehicles;

(11) the tow commences at the initial point of wreck or disablement and terminates at a point where the repairs are actually to occur;

(12) the permit issued to the tow-truck is carried in the tow-truck and exhibited on demand by a police officer; and

(13) the movement shall be valid only on state routes approved by the Department.

(o) The Department, with respect to highways under its jurisdiction, and local authorities, with respect to highways under their jurisdiction, in their discretion and upon application in writing, may issue a special permit for continuous limited operation, authorizing the applicant to transport raw milk that exceeds the weight limits provided for in subsection (a) of Section 15-111 of this Code, provided:

(1) no single axle exceeds 20,000 pounds;

(2) no gross weight exceeds 80,000 pounds;

(3) permits issued by the State are good only for federal and State highways and are not applicable to interstate highways; and

(4) all road and bridge postings must be obeyed.

(p) In determining whether a load may be reasonably dismantled or disassembled for the purpose of paragraph (a), the Department shall consider whether there is a significant negative impact on the condition of the pavement and structures along the proposed route, whether the load or vehicle as proposed causes a safety hazard to the traveling public, whether dismantling or disassembling the load promotes or stifles economic development and whether the proposed route travels less than 5 miles. A load is not required to be dismantled or disassembled for the purposes of paragraph (a) if the Secretary of the Department determines there will be no significant negative impact to pavement or structures along the proposed route, the proposed load or vehicle causes no safety hazard to the traveling public, dismantling or disassembling the load does not promote economic development and the proposed route travels less than 5 miles. The Department may promulgate rules for the purpose of establishing the divisibility of a load pursuant to paragraph (a). Any load determined by the Secretary to be nondivisible shall otherwise comply with the existing size or weight maximums specified in this Chapter.

(Source: P.A. 97-201, eff. 1-1-12; 97-479, eff. 8-22-11; revised 10-4-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/18a-405) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 18a-405)

Sec. 18a-405. Operator's employment permits - Expiration and renewal. All operator's employment permits shall expire 2 years from the date of issuance by the Commission. The Commission may temporarily extend the duration of an employment permit for the pendency of a renewal application until formally approved or denied. Upon filing, no earlier than 90 nor later than 45 days prior to such expiration, of written application for renewal, acknowledged before a notary public, in such form and containing such information as the Commission shall by regulation require, and accompanied by the required fee and proof of possession of a valid driver's license issued by the Secretary of State, the Commission shall, unless it has received information of cause not to do so, renew the applicant's operator's employment permit. If the Commission does not renew such employment permit, it shall issue an order setting forth the grounds for denial. The Commission may at any time during the term of the employment permit make inquiry into the conduct of the permittee permitee to determine that the provisions of this Chapter 18A and the regulations of the Commission promulgated thereunder are being adhered to.

(Source: P.A. 85-923; revised 11-21-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/18a-407) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 18a-407)

Sec. 18a-407. Dispatcher's employment permits, expiration and renewal. All dispatcher's employment permits shall expire 2 years from the date of issuance by the Commission. The Commission may temporarily extend the duration of an employment permit for the pendency of a renewal application until formally approved or denied. Upon filing, no earlier than 90 nor later than 45 days prior to such expiration, of written application for renewal, acknowledged before a notary public, in such form and containing such information as the Commission shall by regulation require, and accompanied by the required fee, the Commission shall, unless it has received information of cause not to do so, renew the applicant's dispatcher's employment permit. If the Commission does not renew such employment permit, it shall issue an order setting forth the grounds for denial. The Commission may at any time during the term of the employment permit make inquiry into the conduct of the permittee permitee to determine that the provisions of this Chapter 18A and the regulations of the Commission promulgated thereunder are being observed.

(Source: P.A. 85-923; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 610. The Clerks of Courts Act is amended by changing Section 27.3a as follows:

(705 ILCS 105/27.3a)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-46)

Sec. 27.3a. Fees for automated record keeping and State Police operations.

1. The expense of establishing and maintaining automated record keeping systems in the offices of the clerks of the circuit court shall be borne by the county. To defray such expense in any county having established such an automated system or which elects to establish such a system, the county board may require the clerk of the circuit court in their county to charge and collect a court automation fee of not less than $1 nor more than $15 to be charged and collected by the clerk of the court. Such fee shall be paid at the time of filing the first pleading, paper or other appearance filed by each party in all civil cases or by the defendant in any felony, traffic, misdemeanor, municipal ordinance, or conservation case upon a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision, provided that the record keeping system which processes the case category for which the fee is charged is automated or has been approved for automation by the county board, and provided further that no additional fee shall be required if more than one party is presented in a single pleading, paper or other appearance. Such fee shall be collected in the manner in which all other fees or costs are collected.

1.5. Starting on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, a clerk of the circuit court in any county that imposes a fee pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section, shall charge and collect an additional fee in an amount equal to the amount of the fee imposed pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section. This additional fee shall be paid by the defendant in any felony, traffic, misdemeanor, local ordinance, or conservation case upon a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision.

2. With respect to the fee imposed under subsection 1 of this Section, each clerk shall commence such charges and collections upon receipt of written notice from the chairman of the county board together with a certified copy of the board's resolution, which the clerk shall file of record in his office.

3. With respect to the fee imposed under subsection 1 of this Section, such fees shall be in addition to all other fees and charges of such clerks, and assessable as costs, and may be waived only if the judge specifically provides for the waiver of the court automation fee. The fees shall be remitted monthly by such clerk to the county treasurer, to be retained by him in a special fund designated as the court automation fund. The fund shall be audited by the county auditor, and the board shall make expenditure from the fund in payment of any cost related to the automation of court records, including hardware, software, research and development costs and personnel related thereto, provided that the expenditure is approved by the clerk of the court and by the chief judge of the circuit court or his designate.

4. With respect to the fee imposed under subsection 1 of this Section, such fees shall not be charged in any matter coming to any such clerk on change of venue, nor in any proceeding to review the decision of any administrative officer, agency or body.

5. With respect to the additional fee imposed under subsection 1.5 of this Section, the fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk to the State Treasurer within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police Operations Assistance Fund.

6. With respect to the additional fees imposed under subsection 1.5 of this Section, the Director of State Police may direct the use of these fees for homeland security purposes by transferring these fees on a quarterly basis from the State Police Operations Assistance Fund into the Illinois Law Enforcement Alarm Systems (ILEAS) Fund for homeland security initiatives programs. The transferred fees shall be allocated, subject to the approval of the ILEAS Executive Board, as follows: (i) 66.6% shall be used for homeland security initiatives and (ii) 33.3% shall be used for airborne operations. The ILEAS Executive Board shall annually supply the Director of State Police with a report of the use of these fees.

(Source: P.A. 96-1029, eff. 7-13-10; 97-453, eff. 8-19-11.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-46)

Sec. 27.3a. Fees for automated record keeping and State and Conservation Police operations.

1. The expense of establishing and maintaining automated record keeping systems in the offices of the clerks of the circuit court shall be borne by the county. To defray such expense in any county having established such an automated system or which elects to establish such a system, the county board may require the clerk of the circuit court in their county to charge and collect a court automation fee of not less than $1 nor more than $15 to be charged and collected by the clerk of the court. Such fee shall be paid at the time of filing the first pleading, paper or other appearance filed by each party in all civil cases or by the defendant in any felony, traffic, misdemeanor, municipal ordinance, or conservation case upon a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision, provided that the record keeping system which processes the case category for which the fee is charged is automated or has been approved for automation by the county board, and provided further that no additional fee shall be required if more than one party is presented in a single pleading, paper or other appearance. Such fee shall be collected in the manner in which all other fees or costs are collected.

1.5. Starting on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, a clerk of the circuit court in any county that imposes a fee pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section, shall charge and collect an additional fee in an amount equal to the amount of the fee imposed pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section. This additional fee shall be paid by the defendant in any felony, traffic, misdemeanor, or local ordinance case upon a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision. This fee shall not be paid by the defendant for any conservation violation listed in subsection 1.6 of this Section.

1.6. Starting on July 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-46) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, a clerk of the circuit court in any county that imposes a fee pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section shall charge and collect an additional fee in an amount equal to the amount of the fee imposed pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section. This additional fee shall be paid by the defendant upon a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision for a conservation violation under the State Parks Act, the Recreational Trails of Illinois Act, the Illinois Explosives Act, the Timber Buyers Licensing Act, the Forest Products Transportation Act, the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Environmental Protection Act, the Fish and Aquatic Life Code, the Wildlife Code, the Cave Protection Act, the Illinois Exotic Weed Act, the Illinois Forestry Development Act, the Ginseng Harvesting Act, the Illinois Lake Management Program Act, the Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act, the Illinois Open Land Trust Act, the Open Space Lands Acquisition and Development Act, the Illinois Prescribed Burning Act, the State Forest Act, the Water Use Act of 1983, the Illinois Youth and Young Adult Employment Act of 1986, the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, the Boat Registration and Safety Act, the Illinois Dangerous Animals Act, the Hunter and Fishermen Interference Prohibition Act, the Wrongful Tree Cutting Act, or Section 11-1426.1, 11-1426.2, 11-1427, 11-1427.1, 11-1427.2, 11-1427.3, 11-1427.4, or 11-1427.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

2. With respect to the fee imposed under subsection 1 of this Section, each clerk shall commence such charges and collections upon receipt of written notice from the chairman of the county board together with a certified copy of the board's resolution, which the clerk shall file of record in his office.

3. With respect to the fee imposed under subsection 1 of this Section, such fees shall be in addition to all other fees and charges of such clerks, and assessable as costs, and may be waived only if the judge specifically provides for the waiver of the court automation fee. The fees shall be remitted monthly by such clerk to the county treasurer, to be retained by him in a special fund designated as the court automation fund. The fund shall be audited by the county auditor, and the board shall make expenditure from the fund in payment of any cost related to the automation of court records, including hardware, software, research and development costs and personnel related thereto, provided that the expenditure is approved by the clerk of the court and by the chief judge of the circuit court or his designate.

4. With respect to the fee imposed under subsection 1 of this Section, such fees shall not be charged in any matter coming to any such clerk on change of venue, nor in any proceeding to review the decision of any administrative officer, agency or body.

5. With respect to the additional fee imposed under subsection 1.5 of this Section, the fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk to the State Treasurer within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police Operations Assistance Fund.

6. With respect to the additional fees imposed under subsection 1.5 of this Section, the Director of State Police may direct the use of these fees for homeland security purposes by transferring these fees on a quarterly basis from the State Police Operations Assistance Fund into the Illinois Law Enforcement Alarm Systems (ILEAS) Fund for homeland security initiatives programs. The transferred fees shall be allocated, subject to the approval of the ILEAS Executive Board, as follows: (i) 66.6% shall be used for homeland security initiatives and (ii) 33.3% shall be used for airborne operations. The ILEAS Executive Board shall annually supply the Director of State Police with a report of the use of these fees.

7. 6. With respect to the additional fee imposed under subsection 1.6 of this Section, the fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk to the State Treasurer within one month after receipt for deposit into the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-1029, eff. 7-13-10; 97-46, eff. 7-1-12; 97-453, eff. 8-19-11; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 615. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 1-8 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/1-8) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-8)

Sec. 1-8. Confidentiality and accessibility of juvenile court records.

(A) Inspection and copying of juvenile court records relating to a minor who is the subject of a proceeding under this Act shall be restricted to the following:

(1) The minor who is the subject of record, his parents, guardian and counsel.

(2) Law enforcement officers and law enforcement agencies when such information is essential to executing an arrest or search warrant or other compulsory process, or to conducting an ongoing investigation or relating to a minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by a criminal street gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" means any ongoing organization, association, or group of 3 or more persons, whether formal or informal, having as one of its primary activities the commission of one or more criminal acts and that has a common name or common identifying sign, symbol or specific color apparel displayed, and whose members individually or collectively engage in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal activity.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(3) Judges, hearing officers, prosecutors, probation officers, social workers or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or predisposition investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for minors pursuant to the order of the juvenile court when essential to performing their responsibilities.

(4) Judges, prosecutors and probation officers:

(a) in the course of a trial when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805; or

(b) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the amount of bail; or

(c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence investigation or fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation; or

(d) when a minor becomes 17 years of age or older, and is the subject of criminal proceedings, including a hearing to determine the amount of bail, a pre-trial investigation, a pre-sentence investigation, a fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation.

(5) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Boards.

(6) Authorized military personnel.

(7) Victims, their subrogees and legal representatives; however, such persons shall have access only to the name and address of the minor and information pertaining to the disposition or alternative adjustment plan of the juvenile court.

(8) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court and the chief executive of the agency that prepared the particular records; provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the record.

(9) The Secretary of State to whom the Clerk of the Court shall report the disposition of all cases, as required in Section 6-204 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. However, information reported relative to these offenses shall be privileged and available only to the Secretary of State, courts, and police officers.

(10) The administrator of a bonafide substance abuse student assistance program with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court.

(11) Mental health professionals on behalf of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating, prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of juvenile court records or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act, who is the subject of juvenile court records sought. Any records and any information obtained from those records under this paragraph (11) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(A-1) Findings and exclusions of paternity entered in proceedings occurring under Article II of this Act shall be disclosed, in a manner and form approved by the Presiding Judge of the Juvenile Court, to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services when necessary to discharge the duties of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(B) A minor who is the victim in a juvenile proceeding shall be provided the same confidentiality regarding disclosure of identity as the minor who is the subject of record.

(C) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (C), juvenile court records shall not be made available to the general public but may be inspected by representatives of agencies, associations and news media or other properly interested persons by general or special order of the court presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(0.1) In cases where the records concern a pending juvenile court case, the party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor whose records are sought.

(0.2) In cases where the records concern a juvenile court case that is no longer pending, the party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(0.3) In determining whether the records should be available for inspection, the court shall consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation over the moving party's interest in obtaining the information. The State's Attorney, the minor, and the minor's parents, guardian, and counsel shall at all times have the right to examine court files and records. For purposes of obtaining documents pursuant to this Section, a civil subpoena is not an order of the court.

(0.4) Any records obtained in violation of this subsection (C) shall not be admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from subsequently holding public office, or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or right to receive any license granted by public authority.

(1) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is adjudicated a delinquent minor under this Act under either of the following circumstances:

(A) The adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault; or

(B) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the act was committed and the adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of: (i) an act in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (ii) an act involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (iii) an act that would be a Class X felony offense under or the minor's second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act if committed by an adult, (iv) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, (v) an act that would be an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, (vi) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 60 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or (vii) an act that would be an offense under another Section of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(2) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is at least 13 years of age at the time the offense is committed and who is convicted, in criminal proceedings permitted or required under Section 5-4, under either of the following circumstances:

(A) The minor has been convicted of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault,

(B) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the offense was committed and the conviction was based upon the minor's commission of: (i) an offense in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (ii) an offense involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (iii) a Class X felony offense under or a second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act, (iv) a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, (v) an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, (vi) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 60 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or (vii) an act that would be an offense under another Section of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(D) Pending or following any adjudication of delinquency for any offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961, the victim of any such offense shall receive the rights set out in Sections 4 and 6 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act; and the juvenile who is the subject of the adjudication, notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, shall be treated as an adult for the purpose of affording such rights to the victim.

(E) Nothing in this Section shall affect the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of any state, county or municipality examining the character and fitness of an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency, correctional institution, or fire department to ascertain whether that applicant was ever adjudicated to be a delinquent minor and, if so, to examine the records of disposition or evidence which were made in proceedings under this Act.

(F) Following any adjudication of delinquency for a crime which would be a felony if committed by an adult, or following any adjudication of delinquency for a violation of Section 24-1, 24-3, 24-3.1, or 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961, the State's Attorney shall ascertain whether the minor respondent is enrolled in school and, if so, shall provide a copy of the dispositional order to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school. Access to such juvenile records shall be limited to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any guidance counselor designated by him.

(G) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is used to assist in the early identification and treatment of habitual juvenile offenders.

(H) When a Court hearing a proceeding under Article II of this Act becomes aware that an earlier proceeding under Article II had been heard in a different county, that Court shall request, and the Court in which the earlier proceedings were initiated shall transmit, an authenticated copy of the Court record, including all documents, petitions, and orders filed therein and the minute orders, transcript of proceedings, and docket entries of the Court.

(I) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall report to the Department of State Police, in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police, the final disposition of each minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 17th birthday for those offenses required to be reported under Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department under this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-123, eff. 8-13-07; 96-212, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 620. The Criminal Code of 1961 is amended by changing Sections 10-5, 21-3, 24-3, 26-1, and 26-4 and the heading of Article 24.6 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/10-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-5)

Sec. 10-5. Child abduction.

(a) For purposes of this Section, the following terms have the following meanings:

(1) "Child" means a person who, at the time the alleged violation occurred, was under the age of 18 or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled.

(2) "Detains" means taking or retaining physical custody of a child, whether or not the child resists or objects.

(2.1) "Express consent" means oral or written permission that is positive, direct, and unequivocal, requiring no inference or implication to supply its meaning.

(2.2) "Luring" means any knowing act to solicit, entice, tempt, or attempt to attract the minor.

(3) "Lawful custodian" means a person or persons granted legal custody of a child or entitled to physical possession of a child pursuant to a court order. It is presumed that, when the parties have never been married to each other, the mother has legal custody of the child unless a valid court order states otherwise. If an adjudication of paternity has been completed and the father has been assigned support obligations or visitation rights, such a paternity order should, for the purposes of this Section, be considered a valid court order granting custody to the mother.

(4) "Putative father" means a man who has a reasonable belief that he is the father of a child born of a woman who is not his wife.

(5) "Unlawful purpose" means any misdemeanor or felony violation of State law or a similar federal or sister state law or local ordinance.

(b) A person commits the offense of child abduction when he or she does any one of the following:

(1) Intentionally violates any terms of a valid court order granting sole or joint custody, care, or possession to another by concealing or detaining the child or removing the child from the jurisdiction of the court.

(2) Intentionally violates a court order prohibiting the person from concealing or detaining the child or removing the child from the jurisdiction of the court.

(3) Intentionally conceals, detains, or removes the child without the consent of the mother or lawful custodian of the child if the person is a putative father and either: (A) the paternity of the child has not been legally established or (B) the paternity of the child has been legally established but no orders relating to custody have been entered. Notwithstanding the presumption created by paragraph (3) of subsection (a), however, a mother commits child abduction when she intentionally conceals or removes a child, whom she has abandoned or relinquished custody of, from an unadjudicated father who has provided sole ongoing care and custody of the child in her absence.

(4) Intentionally conceals or removes the child from a parent after filing a petition or being served with process in an action affecting marriage or paternity but prior to the issuance of a temporary or final order determining custody.

(5) At the expiration of visitation rights outside the State, intentionally fails or refuses to return or impedes the return of the child to the lawful custodian in Illinois.

(6) Being a parent of the child, and if the parents of that child are or have been married and there has been no court order of custody, knowingly conceals the child for 15 days, and fails to make reasonable attempts within the 15-day period to notify the other parent as to the specific whereabouts of the child, including a means by which to contact the child, or to arrange reasonable visitation or contact with the child. It is not a violation of this Section for a person fleeing domestic violence to take the child with him or her to housing provided by a domestic violence program.

(7) Being a parent of the child, and if the parents of the child are or have been married and there has been no court order of custody, knowingly conceals, detains, or removes the child with physical force or threat of physical force.

(8) Knowingly conceals, detains, or removes the child for payment or promise of payment at the instruction of a person who has no legal right to custody.

(9) Knowingly retains in this State for 30 days a child removed from another state without the consent of the lawful custodian or in violation of a valid court order of custody.

(10) Intentionally lures or attempts to lure a child under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, housetrailer, or dwelling place without the consent of the child's parent or lawful custodian for other than a lawful purpose. For the purposes of this item (10), the trier of fact may infer that luring or attempted luring of a child under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, housetrailer, or dwelling place without the express consent of the child's parent or lawful custodian or with the intent to avoid the express consent of the child's parent or lawful custodian was for other than a lawful purpose.

(11) With the intent to obstruct or prevent efforts to locate the child victim of a child abduction, knowingly destroys, alters, conceals, or disguises physical evidence or furnishes false information.

(c) It is an affirmative defense to subsections (b)(1) through (b)(10) of this Section that:

(1) the person had custody of the child pursuant to a court order granting legal custody or visitation rights that existed at the time of the alleged violation;

(2) the person had physical custody of the child pursuant to a court order granting legal custody or visitation rights and failed to return the child as a result of circumstances beyond his or her control, and the person notified and disclosed to the other parent or legal custodian the specific whereabouts of the child and a means by which the child could be contacted or made a reasonable attempt to notify the other parent or lawful custodian of the child of those circumstances and made the disclosure within 24 hours after the visitation period had expired and returned the child as soon as possible;

(3) the person was fleeing an incidence or pattern of domestic violence; or

(4) the person lured or attempted to lure a child under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, housetrailer, or dwelling place for a lawful purpose in prosecutions under paragraph (10) of subsection (b).

(d) A person convicted of child abduction under this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person convicted of child abduction under subsection (b)(10) shall undergo a sex offender evaluation prior to a sentence being imposed. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of paragraph (10) of subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of child abduction under subsection (b)(10) when the person has a prior conviction of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign government offense is guilty of a Class 2 felony. It is a factor in aggravation under subsections (b)(1) through (b)(10) of this Section for which a court may impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) or Article 4.5 of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections if, upon sentencing, the court finds evidence of any of the following aggravating factors:

(1) that the defendant abused or neglected the child following the concealment, detention, or removal of the child;

(2) that the defendant inflicted or threatened to inflict physical harm on a parent or lawful custodian of the child or on the child with intent to cause that parent or lawful custodian to discontinue criminal prosecution of the defendant under this Section;

(3) that the defendant demanded payment in exchange for return of the child or demanded that he or she be relieved of the financial or legal obligation to support the child in exchange for return of the child;

(4) that the defendant has previously been convicted of child abduction;

(5) that the defendant committed the abduction while armed with a deadly weapon or the taking of the child resulted in serious bodily injury to another; or

(6) that the defendant committed the abduction while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; in a playground; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school or playground. For purposes of this paragraph (6), "playground" means a piece of land owned or controlled by a unit of local government that is designated by the unit of local government for use solely or primarily for children's recreation; and "school" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(e) The court may order the child to be returned to the parent or lawful custodian from whom the child was concealed, detained, or removed. In addition to any sentence imposed, the court may assess any reasonable expense incurred in searching for or returning the child against any person convicted of violating this Section.

(f) Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to limit the court's contempt power.

(g) Every law enforcement officer investigating an alleged incident of child abduction shall make a written police report of any bona fide allegation and the disposition of that investigation. Every police report completed pursuant to this Section shall be compiled and recorded within the meaning of Section 5.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(h) Whenever a law enforcement officer has reasons to believe a child abduction has occurred, she or he shall provide the lawful custodian a summary of her or his rights under this Code, including the procedures and relief available to her or him.

(i) If during the course of an investigation under this Section the child is found in the physical custody of the defendant or another, the law enforcement officer shall return the child to the parent or lawful custodian from whom the child was concealed, detained, or removed, unless there is good cause for the law enforcement officer or the Department of Children and Family Services to retain temporary protective custody of the child pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-160, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-3)

Sec. 21-3. Criminal trespass to real property.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (a-5), whoever:

(1) knowingly and without lawful authority enters or remains within or on a building; or

(2) enters upon the land of another, after receiving, prior to such entry, notice from the owner or occupant that such entry is forbidden; or

(3) remains upon the land of another, after receiving notice from the owner or occupant to depart; or

(3.5) presents false documents or falsely represents his or her identity orally to the owner or occupant of a building or land in order to obtain permission from the owner or occupant to enter or remain in the building or on the land; commits a Class B misdemeanor.

For purposes of item (1) of this subsection, this Section shall not apply to being in a building which is open to the public while the building is open to the public during its normal hours of operation; nor shall this Section apply to a person who enters a public building under the reasonable belief that the building is still open to the public.

(a-5) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, whoever enters upon any of the following areas in or on a motor vehicle (including an off-road vehicle, motorcycle, moped, or any other powered two-wheel vehicle) after receiving, prior to that entry, notice from the owner or occupant that the entry is forbidden or remains upon or in the area after receiving notice from the owner or occupant to depart commits a Class A misdemeanor:

(1) A field that is used for growing crops or that is capable of being used for growing crops.

(2) An enclosed area containing livestock.

(3) An orchard.

(4) A barn or other agricultural building containing livestock.

(b) A person has received notice from the owner or occupant within the meaning of Subsection (a) if he has been notified personally, either orally or in writing including a valid court order as defined by subsection (7) of Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 granting remedy (2) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of that Code, or if a printed or written notice forbidding such entry has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at the main entrance to such land or the forbidden part thereof.

(b-5) Subject to the provisions of subsection (b-10), as an alternative to the posting of real property as set forth in subsection (b), the owner or lessee of any real property may post the property by placing identifying purple marks on trees or posts around the area to be posted. Each purple mark shall be:

(1) A vertical line of at least 8 inches in length and the bottom of the mark shall be no less than 3 feet nor more than 5 feet high. Such marks shall be placed no more than 100 feet apart and shall be readily visible to any person approaching the property; or

(2) A post capped or otherwise marked on at least its top 2 inches. The bottom of the cap or mark shall be not less than 3 feet but not more than 5 feet 6 inches high. Posts so marked shall be placed not more than 36 feet apart and shall be readily visible to any person approaching the property. Prior to applying a cap or mark which is visible from both sides of a fence shared by different property owners or lessees, all such owners or lessees shall concur in the decision to post their own property.

Nothing in this subsection (b-5) shall be construed to authorize the owner or lessee of any real property to place any purple marks on any tree or post or to install any post or fence if doing so would violate any applicable law, rule, ordinance, order, covenant, bylaw, declaration, regulation, restriction, contract, or instrument.

(b-10) Any owner or lessee who marks his or her real property using the method described in subsection (b-5) must also provide notice as described in subsection (b) of this Section. The public of this State shall be informed of the provisions of subsection (b-5) of this Section by the Illinois Department of Agriculture and the Illinois Department of Natural Resources. These Departments shall conduct an information campaign for the general public concerning the interpretation and implementation of subsection (b-5). The information shall inform the public about the marking requirements and the applicability of subsection (b-5) including information regarding the size requirements of the markings as well as the manner in which the markings shall be displayed. The Departments shall also include information regarding the requirement that, until the date this subsection becomes inoperative, any owner or lessee who chooses to mark his or her property using paint, must also comply with one of the notice requirements listed in subsection (b). The Departments may prepare a brochure or may disseminate the information through agency websites. Non-governmental organizations including, but not limited to, the Illinois Forestry Association, Illinois Tree Farm and the Walnut Council may help to disseminate the information regarding the requirements and applicability of subsection (b-5) based on materials provided by the Departments. This subsection (b-10) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2013.

(b-15) Subsections (b-5) and (b-10) do not apply to real property located in a municipality of over 2,000,000 inhabitants.

(c) This Section does not apply to any person, whether a migrant worker or otherwise, living on the land with permission of the owner or of his agent having apparent authority to hire workers on such land and assign them living quarters or a place of accommodations for living thereon, nor to anyone living on such land at the request of, or by occupancy, leasing or other agreement or arrangement with the owner or his agent, nor to anyone invited by such migrant worker or other person so living on such land to visit him at the place he is so living upon the land.

(d) A person shall be exempt from prosecution under this Section if he beautifies unoccupied and abandoned residential and industrial properties located within any municipality. For the purpose of this subsection, "unoccupied and abandoned residential and industrial property" means any real estate (1) in which the taxes have not been paid for a period of at least 2 years; and (2) which has been left unoccupied and abandoned for a period of at least one year; and "beautifies" means to landscape, clean up litter, or to repair dilapidated conditions on or to board up windows and doors.

(e) No person shall be liable in any civil action for money damages to the owner of unoccupied and abandoned residential and industrial property which that person beautifies pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section.

(f) This Section does not prohibit a person from entering a building or upon the land of another for emergency purposes. For purposes of this subsection (f), "emergency" means a condition or circumstance in which an individual is or is reasonably believed by the person to be in imminent danger of serious bodily harm or in which property is or is reasonably believed to be in imminent danger of damage or destruction.

(g) Paragraph (3.5) of subsection (a) does not apply to a peace officer or other official of a unit of government who enters a building or land in the performance of his or her official duties.

(h) A person may be liable in any civil action for money damages to the owner of the land he or she entered upon with a motor vehicle as prohibited under subsection (a-5) of this Section. A person may also be liable to the owner for court costs and reasonable attorney's fees. The measure of damages shall be: (i) the actual damages, but not less than $250, if the vehicle is operated in a nature preserve or registered area as defined in Sections 3.11 and 3.14 of the Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act; (ii) twice the actual damages if the owner has previously notified the person to cease trespassing; or (iii) in any other case, the actual damages, but not less than $50. If the person operating the vehicle is under the age of 16, the owner of the vehicle and the parent or legal guardian of the minor are jointly and severally liable. For the purposes of this subsection (h):

"Land" includes, but is not limited to, land used for crop land, fallow land, orchard, pasture, feed lot, timber land, prairie land, mine spoil nature preserves and registered areas. "Land" does not include driveways or private roadways upon which the owner allows the public to drive.

"Owner" means the person who has the right to possession of the land, including the owner, operator or tenant.

"Vehicle" has the same meaning as provided under Section 1-217 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(i) This Section does not apply to the following persons while serving process:

(1) a person authorized to serve process under Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure; or

(2) a special process server appointed by the circuit court.

(Source: P.A. 97-184, eff. 7-22-11; 97-477, eff. 8-22-11; revised 9-14-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)

Sec. 24-3. Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms.

(A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of age.

(b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.

(c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.

(d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

(e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been a patient in a mental hospital within the past 5 years.

(f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is intellectually disabled.

(g) Delivers any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such firearm for at least 72 hours after application for its purchase has been made, or delivers any rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g) does not apply to: (1) the sale of a firearm to a law enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in promoting the public interest incident to his or her employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment; (2) a mail order sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois under which the firearm is mailed to a point outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) the sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois while at a firearm showing or display recognized by the Illinois Department of State Police; or (4) the sale of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). For purposes of this paragraph (g), "application" means when the buyer and seller reach an agreement to purchase a firearm.

(h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer, manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2) "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a combination of parts from which such a firearm can be assembled.

(i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). In this paragraph (j):

A person "engaged in the business" means a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the activity as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms.

"With the principal objective of livelihood and profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes or terrorism.

(k) Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a person who does not display to the seller or transferor of the firearm a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. This paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card means (i) a Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has not expired or (ii) if the transferor is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923), an approval number issued in accordance with Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act shall be proof that the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was valid.

(l) Not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. It may be inferred that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act 78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973), nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months after the enactment of that Public Act.

(C) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony.

(4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15 years.

(5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.

(6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(7) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.

(8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, not to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm.

(9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (d) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(10) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one firearm. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years if the delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms at the same time or within a 3 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years if the delivery is of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the same time or within a 4 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the same time or within a 5 year period.

(D) For purposes of this Section:

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years after the commission of the offense defined in the particular paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 96-190, eff. 1-1-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 24.6 heading)

ARTICLE 24.6. LASERS LASER AND LASER POINTERS

(Source: P.A. 97-153, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-21-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 26-1)

Sec. 26-1. Elements of the Offense.

(a) A person commits disorderly conduct when he knowingly:

(1) Does any act in such unreasonable manner as to alarm or disturb another and to provoke a breach of the peace; or

(2) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to the fire department of any city, town, village or fire protection district a false alarm of fire, knowing at the time of such transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that such fire exists; or

(3) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to another a false alarm to the effect that a bomb or other explosive of any nature or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in such place that its explosion or release would endanger human life, knowing at the time of such transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that such bomb, explosive or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in such place; or

(4) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to any peace officer, public officer or public employee a report to the effect that an offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed, knowing at the time of such transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that such an offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed; or

(5) Enters upon the property of another and for a lewd or unlawful purpose deliberately looks into a dwelling on the property through any window or other opening in it; or

(6) While acting as a collection agency as defined in the "Collection Agency Act" or as an employee of such collection agency, and while attempting to collect an alleged debt, makes a telephone call to the alleged debtor which is designed to harass, annoy or intimidate the alleged debtor; or

(7) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 4 of the "Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act"; or

(8) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act; or

(9) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to the police department or fire department of any municipality or fire protection district, or any privately owned and operated ambulance service, a false request for an ambulance, emergency medical technician-ambulance or emergency medical technician-paramedic knowing at the time there is no reasonable ground for believing that such assistance is required; or

(10) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report under Article II of "An Act in relation to victims of violence and abuse", approved September 16, 1984, as amended; or

(11) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to any public safety agency without the reasonable grounds necessary to believe that transmitting such a report is necessary for the safety and welfare of the public; or

(12) Calls the number "911" for the purpose of making or transmitting a false alarm or complaint and reporting information when, at the time the call or transmission is made, the person knows there is no reasonable ground for making the call or transmission and further knows that the call or transmission could result in the emergency response of any public safety agency; or

(13) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a threat of destruction of a school building or school property, or a threat of violence, death, or bodily harm directed against persons at a school, school function, or school event, whether or not school is in session.

(b) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a)(1) of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(5) or (a)(11) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(8) or (a)(10) of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(2), (a)(4), (a)(7), (a)(9), (a)(12), or (a)(13) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3) of this Section is a Class 3 felony, for which a fine of not less than $3,000 and no more than $10,000 shall be assessed in addition to any other penalty imposed.

A violation of subsection (a)(6) of this Section is a Business Offense and shall be punished by a fine not to exceed $3,000. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(7) or (a)(11) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A third or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(5) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(c) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

This subsection does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(d) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) involving a false alarm of a threat that a bomb or explosive device has been placed in a school to reimburse the unit of government that employs the emergency response officer or officers that were dispatched to the school for the cost of the search for a bomb or explosive device. For the purposes of this Section, "emergency response" means any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter, a State Fire Marshal employee, or an ambulance.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-413, eff. 8-13-09; 96-772, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1261, eff. 1-1-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 26-4)

Sec. 26-4. Unauthorized video recording and live video transmission.

(a) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly make a video record or transmit live video of another person without that person's consent in a restroom, tanning bed, tanning salon, locker room, changing room, or hotel bedroom.

(a-5) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly make a video record or transmit live video of another person in that other person's residence without that person's consent.

(a-6) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly make a video record or transmit live video of another person in that other person's residence without that person's consent when the recording or transmission is made outside that person's residence by use of an audio or video device that records or transmits from a remote location.

(a-10) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly make a video record or transmit live video of another person under or through the clothing worn by that other person for the purpose of viewing the body of or the undergarments worn by that other person without that person's consent.

(a-15) It is unlawful for any person to place or cause to be placed a device that makes a video record or transmits a live video in a restroom, tanning bed, tanning salon, locker room, changing room, or hotel bedroom with the intent to make a video record or transmit live video of another person without that person's consent.

(a-20) It is unlawful for any person to place or cause to be placed a device that makes a video record or transmits a live video with the intent to make a video record or transmit live video of another person in that other person's residence without that person's consent.

(a-25) It is unlawful for any person to, by any means, knowingly disseminate, or permit to be disseminated, a video record or live video that he or she knows to have been made or transmitted in violation of (a), (a-5), (a-6), (a-10), (a-15), or (a-20).

(b) Exemptions. The following activities shall be exempt from the provisions of this Section:

(1) The making of a video record or transmission of live video by law enforcement officers pursuant to a criminal investigation, which is otherwise lawful;

(2) The making of a video record or transmission of live video by correctional officials for security reasons or for investigation of alleged misconduct involving a person committed to the Department of Corrections; and .

(3) The making of a video record or transmission of live video in a locker room by a reporter or news medium, as those terms are defined in Section 8-902 of the Code of Civil Procedure, where the reporter or news medium has been granted access to the locker room by an appropriate authority for the purpose of conducting interviews.

(c) The provisions of this Section do not apply to any sound recording or transmission of an oral conversation made as the result of the making of a video record or transmission of live video, and to which Article 14 of this Code applies.

(d) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subsection (a-10), (a-15), or (a-20) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of subsection (a), (a-5), or (a-6) is a Class 4 felony.

(3) A violation of subsection (a-25) is a Class 3 felony.

(4) A violation of subsection (a), (a-5), (a-6), (a-10), (a-15) or (a-20) is a Class 3 felony if the victim is a person under 18 years of age or if the violation is committed by an individual who is required to register as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(5) A violation of subsection (a-25) is a Class 2 felony if the victim is a person under 18 years of age or if the violation is committed by an individual who is required to register as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(e) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Residence" includes a rental dwelling, but does not include stairwells, corridors, laundry facilities, or additional areas in which the general public has access.

(2) "Video record" means and includes any videotape, photograph, film, or other electronic or digital recording of a still or moving visual image; and "live video" means and includes any real-time or contemporaneous electronic or digital transmission of a still or moving visual image.

(Source: P.A. 95-178, eff. 8-14-07; 95-265, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-416, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 625. The Cannabis Control Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(720 ILCS 550/12) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 712)

Sec. 12. (a) The following are subject to forfeiture:

(1) all substances containing cannabis which have been produced, manufactured, delivered, or possessed in violation of this Act;

(2) all raw materials, products and equipment of any kind which are produced, delivered, or possessed in connection with any substance containing cannabis in violation of this Act;

(3) all conveyances, including aircraft, vehicles or vessels, which are used, or intended for use, to transport, or in any manner to facilitate the transportation, sale, receipt, possession, or concealment of property described in paragraph (1) or (2) that constitutes a felony violation of the Act, but:

(i) no conveyance used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this Section unless it appears that the owner or other person in charge of the conveyance is a consenting party or privy to a violation of this Act;

(ii) no conveyance is subject to forfeiture under this Section by reason of any act or omission which the owner proves to have been committed or omitted without his knowledge or consent;

(iii) a forfeiture of a conveyance encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party if he neither had knowledge of nor consented to the act or omission;

(4) all money, things of value, books, records, and research products and materials including formulas, microfilm, tapes, and data which are used, or intended for use in a felony violation of this Act;

(5) everything of value furnished or intended to be furnished by any person in exchange for a substance in violation of this Act, all proceeds traceable to such an exchange, and all moneys, negotiable instruments, and securities used, or intended to be used, to commit or in any manner to facilitate any felony violation of this Act;

(6) all real property, including any right, title, and interest including, but not limited to, any leasehold interest or the beneficial interest to a land trust, in the whole of any lot or tract of land and any appurtenances or improvements, that is used or intended to be used to facilitate the manufacture, distribution, sale, receipt, or concealment of property described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection (a) that constitutes a felony violation of more than 2,000 grams of a substance containing cannabis or that is the proceeds of any felony violation of this Act.

(b) Property subject to forfeiture under this Act may be seized by the Director or any peace officer upon process or seizure warrant issued by any court having jurisdiction over the property. Seizure by the Director or any peace officer without process may be made:

(1) if the property subject to seizure has been the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a criminal proceeding or in an injunction or forfeiture proceeding based upon this Act or the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act;

(2) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health or safety;

(3) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is subject to forfeiture under this Act and the property is seized under circumstances in which a warrantless seizure or arrest would be reasonable; or

(4) in accordance with the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(c) In the event of seizure pursuant to subsection (b), notice shall be given forthwith to all known interest holders that forfeiture proceedings, including a preliminary review, shall be instituted in accordance with the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act and such proceedings shall thereafter be instituted in accordance with that Act. Upon a showing of good cause, the notice required for a preliminary review under this Section may be postponed.

(c-1) In the event the State's Attorney is of the opinion that real property is subject to forfeiture under this Act, forfeiture proceedings shall be instituted in accordance with the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act. The exemptions from forfeiture provisions of Section 8 of the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act are applicable.

(d) Property taken or detained under this Section shall not be subject to replevin, but is deemed to be in the custody of the Director subject only to the order and judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the forfeiture proceedings and the decisions of the State's Attorney under the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act. When property is seized under this Act, the seizing agency shall promptly conduct an inventory of the seized property, estimate the property's value, and shall forward a copy of the inventory of seized property and the estimate of the property's value to the Director. Upon receiving notice of seizure, the Director may:

(1) place the property under seal;

(2) remove the property to a place designated by him;

(3) keep the property in the possession of the seizing agency;

(4) remove the property to a storage area for safekeeping or, if the property is a negotiable instrument or money and is not needed for evidentiary purposes, deposit it in an interest bearing account;

(5) place the property under constructive seizure by posting notice of pending forfeiture on it, by giving notice of pending forfeiture to its owners and interest holders, or by filing notice of pending forfeiture in any appropriate public record relating to the property; or

(6) provide for another agency or custodian, including an owner, secured party, or lienholder, to take custody of the property upon the terms and conditions set by the Director.

(e) No disposition may be made of property under seal until the time for taking an appeal has elapsed or until all appeals have been concluded unless a court, upon application therefor, orders the sale of perishable substances and the deposit of the proceeds of the sale with the court.

(f) When property is forfeited under this Act the Director shall sell all such property unless such property is required by law to be destroyed or is harmful to the public, and shall distribute the proceeds of the sale, together with any moneys forfeited or seized, in accordance with subsection (g). However, upon the application of the seizing agency or prosecutor who was responsible for the investigation, arrest or arrests and prosecution which lead to the forfeiture, the Director may return any item of forfeited property to the seizing agency or prosecutor for official use in the enforcement of laws relating to cannabis or controlled substances, if the agency or prosecutor can demonstrate that the item requested would be useful to the agency or prosecutor in their enforcement efforts. When any forfeited conveyance, including an aircraft, vehicle, or vessel, is returned to the seizing agency or prosecutor, the conveyance may be used immediately in the enforcement of the criminal laws of this State. Upon disposal, all proceeds from the sale of the conveyance must be used for drug enforcement purposes. When any real property returned to the seizing agency is sold by the agency or its unit of government, the proceeds of the sale shall be delivered to the Director and distributed in accordance with subsection (g).

(g) All monies and the sale proceeds of all other property forfeited and seized under this Act shall be distributed as follows:

(1) 65% shall be distributed to the metropolitan enforcement group, local, municipal, county, or state law enforcement agency or agencies which conducted or participated in the investigation resulting in the forfeiture. The distribution shall bear a reasonable relationship to the degree of direct participation of the law enforcement agency in the effort resulting in the forfeiture, taking into account the total value of the property forfeited and the total law enforcement effort with respect to the violation of the law upon which the forfeiture is based. Amounts distributed to the agency or agencies shall be used for the enforcement of laws governing cannabis and controlled substances or for security cameras used for the prevention or detection of violence, except that amounts distributed to the Secretary of State shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Evidence Fund to be used as provided in Section 2-115 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(2)(i) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney of the county in which the prosecution resulting in the forfeiture was instituted, deposited in a special fund in the county treasury and appropriated to the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws governing cannabis and controlled substances, or at the discretion of the State's Attorney, in addition to other authorized purposes, to make grants to local substance abuse treatment facilities and half-way houses. In counties over 3,000,000 population, 25% will be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws governing cannabis and controlled substances, or at the discretion of the State's Attorney, in addition to other authorized purposes, to make grants to local substance abuse treatment facilities and half-way houses. If the prosecution is undertaken solely by the Attorney General, the portion provided hereunder shall be distributed to the Attorney General for use in the enforcement of laws governing cannabis and controlled substances.

(ii) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and deposited in the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Fund of that Office to be used for additional expenses incurred in the investigation, prosecution and appeal of cases arising under laws governing cannabis and controlled substances. The Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall not receive distribution from cases brought in counties with over 3,000,000 population.

(3) 10% shall be retained by the Department of State Police for expenses related to the administration and sale of seized and forfeited property.

(Source: P.A. 97-253, eff. 1-1-12; 97-544, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

Section 630. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 204, 302, 303.05, 304, 318, and 505 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/204) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1204)

Sec. 204. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule I.

(b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetylmethadol;

(1.1) Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl

(N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide);

(2) Allylprodine;

(3) Alphacetylmethadol, except

levo-alphacetylmethadol (also known as levo-alpha-

acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM);

(4) Alphameprodine;

(5) Alphamethadol;

(6) Alpha-methylfentanyl

(N-(1-alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl) ethyl-4-piperidyl)

propionanilide; 1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-

propanilido) piperidine;

(6.1) Alpha-methylthiofentanyl

(N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(7) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine (MPPP);

(7.1) PEPAP

(1-(2-phenethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine);

(8) Benzethidine;

(9) Betacetylmethadol;

(9.1) Beta-hydroxyfentanyl

(N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(10) Betameprodine;

(11) Betamethadol;

(12) Betaprodine;

(13) Clonitazene;

(14) Dextromoramide;

(15) Diampromide;

(16) Diethylthiambutene;

(17) Difenoxin;

(18) Dimenoxadol;

(19) Dimepheptanol;

(20) Dimethylthiambutene;

(21) Dioxaphetylbutyrate;

(22) Dipipanone;

(23) Ethylmethylthiambutene;

(24) Etonitazene;

(25) Etoxeridine;

(26) Furethidine;

(27) Hydroxpethidine;

(28) Ketobemidone;

(29) Levomoramide;

(30) Levophenacylmorphan;

(31) 3-Methylfentanyl

(N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-

4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(31.1) 3-Methylthiofentanyl

(N-[(3-methyl-1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(32) Morpheridine;

(33) Noracymethadol;

(34) Norlevorphanol;

(35) Normethadone;

(36) Norpipanone;

(36.1) Para-fluorofentanyl

(N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]propanamide);

(37) Phenadoxone;

(38) Phenampromide;

(39) Phenomorphan;

(40) Phenoperidine;

(41) Piritramide;

(42) Proheptazine;

(43) Properidine;

(44) Propiram;

(45) Racemoramide;

(45.1) Thiofentanyl

(N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-propanamide);

(46) Tilidine;

(47) Trimeperidine;

(48) Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl (other name:

N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-

N-phenylpropanamide).

(c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opium derivatives, its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetorphine;

(2) Acetyldihydrocodeine;

(3) Benzylmorphine;

(4) Codeine methylbromide;

(5) Codeine-N-Oxide;

(6) Cyprenorphine;

(7) Desomorphine;

(8) Diacetyldihydromorphine (Dihydroheroin);

(9) Dihydromorphine;

(10) Drotebanol;

(11) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt);

(12) Heroin;

(13) Hydromorphinol;

(14) Methyldesorphine;

(15) Methyldihydromorphine;

(16) Morphine methylbromide;

(17) Morphine methylsulfonate;

(18) Morphine-N-Oxide;

(19) Myrophine;

(20) Nicocodeine;

(21) Nicomorphine;

(22) Normorphine;

(23) Pholcodine;

(24) Thebacon.

(d) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, or which contains any of its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation (for the purposes of this paragraph only, the term "isomer" includes the optical, position and geometric isomers):

(1) 3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine (alpha-methyl,3,4-methylenedioxyphenethylamine, methylenedioxyamphetamine, MDA);

(1.1) Alpha-ethyltryptamine (some trade or other names: etryptamine; MONASE; alpha-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-(2-aminobutyl)indole; a-ET; and AET);

(2) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA);

(2.1) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (also known as: N-ethyl-alpha-methyl- 3,4(methylenedioxy) Phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, and MDEA);

(2.2) N-Benzylpiperazine (BZP);

(3) 3-methoxy-4,5-methylenedioxyamphetamine, (MMDA);

(4) 3,4,5-trimethoxyamphetamine (TMA);

(5) (Blank);

(6) Diethyltryptamine (DET);

(7) Dimethyltryptamine (DMT);

(8) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOM, STP);

(9) Ibogaine (some trade and other names:

7-ethyl-6,6,beta,7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-

6,9-methano-5H-pyrido [1',2':1,2] azepino [5,4-b]

indole; Tabernanthe iboga);

(10) Lysergic acid diethylamide;

(10.1) Salvinorin A;

(10.5) Salvia divinorum (meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Salvia divinorum, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds or extracts);

(11) 3,4,5-trimethoxyphenethylamine (Mescaline);

(12) Peyote (meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds or extracts);

(13) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate (JB 318);

(14) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

(14.1) N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine

(also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-

3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine and N-hydroxy MDA);

(15) Parahexyl; some trade or other names: 3-hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H- dibenzo (b,d) pyran; Synhexyl;

(16) Psilocybin;

(17) Psilocyn;

(18) Alpha-methyltryptamine (AMT);

(19) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine

(2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA);

(20) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine

(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;

4-bromo-2,5-DMA);

(20.1) 4-Bromo-2,5 dimethoxyphenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2-(4-bromo- 2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-1-aminoethane; alpha-desmethyl DOB, 2CB, Nexus;

(21) 4-methoxyamphetamine

(4-methoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;

paramethoxyamphetamine; PMA);

(22) (Blank);

(23) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine. Some trade or other names: N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine, (1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE;

(24) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine. Some trade or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine, PCPy, PHP;

(25) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine;

(26) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine

(another name: DOET);

(27) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl] pyrrolidine

(another name: TCPy);

(28) (Blank);

(29) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine (some trade or other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine; 2-thienyl analog of phencyclidine; TPCP; TCP);

(30) Bufotenine (some trade or other names:

3-(Beta-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole;

3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol;

5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine;

N,N-dimethylserotonin; mappine);

(31) 1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole

Some trade or other names: JWH-018;

(32) 1-Butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole

Some trade or other names: JWH-073;

(33) 1-[(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-

(2-iodophenyl)methanone

Some trade or other names: AM-694;

(34) 2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-5-

(2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenol

Some trade or other names: CP 47,497 47, 497

and its C6, C8 and C9 homologs;

(34.5) (33) 2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-5-

(2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenol), where side chain n=5;

and homologues where side chain n=4, 6, or 7; Some

trade or other names: CP 47,497;

(35) (6aR,10aR)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-

(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,

10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol

Some trade or other names: HU-210;

(35.5) (34) (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-

dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-

tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol, its isomers,

salts, and salts of isomers; Some trade or other

names: HU-210, Dexanabinol;

(36) Dexanabinol, (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-

6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-

6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol

Some trade or other names: HU-211;

(37) (2-methyl-1-propyl-1H-indol-

3-yl)-1-naphthalenyl-methanone

Some trade or other names: JWH-015;

(38) 4-methoxynaphthalen-1-yl-

(1-pentylindol-3-yl)methanone

Some trade or other names: JWH-081;

(39) (1-Pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole

Some trade or other names: JWH-122;

(40) 2-(2-methylphenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-

1H-indol-3-yl)-ethanone

Some trade or other names: JWH-251;

(41) 1-(2-cyclohexylethyl)-3-

(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole

Some trade or other names: RCS-8, BTW-8 and SR-18; .

(42) (33) Any compound structurally derived from

3-(1-naphthoyl)indole or 1H-indol-3-yl-

(1-naphthyl)methane by substitution at the

nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl,

alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl or

2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl whether or not further

substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether

or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent;

(43) (34) Any compound structurally derived from

3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole by substitution at the nitrogen

atom of the pyrrole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl or

2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further

substituted in the pyrrole ring to any extent, whether

or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent;

(44) (35) Any compound structurally derived from

1-(1-naphthylmethyl)indene by substitution

at the 3-position of the indene ring by alkyl, haloalkyl,

alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl or

2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl whether or not further

substituted in the indene ring to any extent, whether

or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent;

(45) (36) Any compound structurally derived from

3-phenylacetylindole by substitution at the

nitrogen atom of the indole ring with alkyl, haloalkyl,

alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl or

2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further

substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether

or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent;

(46) (37) Any compound structurally derived from

2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol by substitution

at the 5-position of the phenolic ring by alkyl,

haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl

or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not substituted

in the cyclohexyl ring to any extent; .

(47) (33) 3,4-Methylenedioxymethcathinone

Some trade or other names: Methylone;

(48) (34) 3,4-Methyenedioxypyrovalerone

Some trade or other names: MDPV;

(49) (35) 4-Methylmethcathinone

Some trade or other names: Mephedrone;

(50) (36) 4-methoxymethcathinone;

(51) (37) 4-Fluoromethcathinone;

(52) (38) 3-Fluoromethcathinone; .

(53) (35) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthio-

phenethylamine;

(54) (36) 5-Methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine.

(e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) mecloqualone;

(2) methaqualone; and

(3) gamma hydroxybutyric acid.

(f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:

(1) Fenethylline;

(2) N-ethylamphetamine;

(3) Aminorex (some other names:

2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; aminoxaphen;

4-5-dihydro-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine) and its

salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;

(4) Methcathinone (some other names:

2-methylamino-1-phenylpropan-1-one;

Ephedrone; 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone;

alpha-(methylamino)propiophenone; N-methylcathinone;

methycathinone; Monomethylpropion; UR 1431) and its

salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;

(5) Cathinone (some trade or other names:

2-aminopropiophenone; alpha-aminopropiophenone;

2-amino-1-phenyl-propanone; norephedrone);

(6) N,N-dimethylamphetamine (also known as:

N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine;

N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine);

(7) (+ or -) cis-4-methylaminorex ((+ or -) cis-

4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-4-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine);

(8) 3,4-Methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV).

(g) Temporary listing of substances subject to emergency scheduling. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances:

(1) N-[1-benzyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (benzylfentanyl), its optical isomers, isomers, salts, and salts of isomers;

(2) N-[1(2-thienyl) methyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (thenylfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

(Source: P.A. 96-347, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1285, eff. 1-1-11; 97-192, eff. 7-22-11; 97-193, eff. 1-1-12; 97-194, eff. 7-22-11; 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(720 ILCS 570/302) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1302)

Sec. 302. (a) Every person who manufactures, distributes, or dispenses any controlled substances, or engages in chemical analysis, and instructional activities which utilize controlled substances, or who purchases, stores, or administers euthanasia drugs, within this State or who proposes to engage in the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of any controlled substance, or to engage in chemical analysis, and instructional activities which utilize controlled substances, or to engage in purchasing, storing, or administering euthanasia drugs, within this State, must obtain a registration issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in accordance with its rules. The rules shall include, but not be limited to, setting the expiration date and renewal period for each registration under this Act. The Department, any facility or service licensed by the Department, and any veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 or maintained by a State-supported or publicly funded university or college shall be exempt from the regulation requirements of this Section; however, such exemption shall not operate to bar the University of Illinois from requesting, nor the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation from issuing, a registration to the University of Illinois Veterinary Teaching Hospital under this Act. Neither a request for such registration nor the issuance of such registration to the University of Illinois shall operate to otherwise waive or modify the exemption provided in this subsection (a).

(b) Persons registered by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation under this Act to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances, or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, may possess, manufacture, distribute, or dispense those substances, or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, to the extent authorized by their registration and in conformity with the other provisions of this Article.

(c) The following persons need not register and may lawfully possess controlled substances under this Act:

(1) an agent or employee of any registered manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser of any controlled substance if he or she is acting in the usual course of his or her employer's lawful business or employment;

(2) a common or contract carrier or warehouseman, or an agent or employee thereof, whose possession of any controlled substance is in the usual lawful course of such business or employment;

(3) an ultimate user or a person in possession of any controlled substance pursuant to a lawful prescription of a practitioner or in lawful possession of a Schedule V substance;

(4) officers and employees of this State or of the United States while acting in the lawful course of their official duties which requires possession of controlled substances;

(5) a registered pharmacist who is employed in, or the owner of, a pharmacy licensed under this Act and the Federal Controlled Substances Act, at the licensed location, or if he or she is acting in the usual course of his or her lawful profession, business, or employment.

(d) A separate registration is required at each place of business or professional practice where the applicant manufactures, distributes, or dispenses controlled substances, or purchases, stores, or administers euthanasia drugs. Persons are required to obtain a separate registration for each place of business or professional practice where controlled substances are located or stored. A separate registration is not required for every location at which a controlled substance may be prescribed.

(e) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Illinois State Police may inspect the controlled premises, as defined in Section 502 of this Act, of a registrant or applicant for registration in accordance with this Act and the rules promulgated hereunder and with regard to persons licensed by the Department, in accordance with subsection (bb) of Section 30-5 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.

(Source: P.A. 96-219, eff. 8-10-09; 97-126, eff. 7-14-11; 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(720 ILCS 570/303.05)

Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.

(a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall register licensed physician assistants and licensed advanced practice nurses to prescribe and dispense controlled substances under Section 303 and euthanasia agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia drugs under the following circumstances:

(1) with respect to physician assistants,

(A) the physician assistant has been delegated written authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987; and the physician assistant has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the physician assistant has been delegated authority by a supervising physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the supervising physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the supervising physician;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the supervising physician;

(iv) the physician assistant must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician;

(v) the physician assistant must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;

(vi) the physician assistant must provide evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and

(vii) the physician assistant must annually complete at least 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology.

(2) with respect to advanced practice nurses,

(A) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a collaborating podiatrist in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. The advanced practice nurse has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated authority by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or collaborating podiatrist to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician or podiatrist. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the collaborating physician or podiatrist;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician or podiatrist;

(iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician or podiatrist or in the course of review as required by Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act;

(v) the advanced practice nurse must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;

(vi) the advanced practice nurse must provide evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45 graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and

(vii) the advanced practice nurse must annually complete 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology; or

(3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the euthanasia agency has obtained a license from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and obtained a registration number from the Department.

(b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to prescribe those schedules of controlled substances for which a licensed physician or licensed podiatrist has delegated prescriptive authority, except that an animal euthanasia agency does not have any prescriptive authority. A physician assistant and an advanced practice nurse are prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled substances not set forth in the required written delegation of authority.

(c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, physician assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal euthanasia agencies may be issued a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license for Illinois.

(d) A collaborating physician or podiatrist may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(e) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit generic substitution.

(Source: P.A. 96-189, eff. 8-10-09; 96-268, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 570/304) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1304)

Sec. 304. (a) A registration under Section 303 to manufacture, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs may be denied, refused renewal, suspended, or revoked by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and a fine of no more than $10,000 per violation may be imposed on the applicant or registrant regstrant, upon a finding that the applicant or registrant:

(1) has furnished any false or fraudulent material information in any application filed under this Act; or

(2) has been convicted of a felony under any law of the United States or any State relating to any controlled substance; or

(3) has had suspended or revoked his or her Federal registration to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs; or

(4) has been convicted of bribery, perjury, or other infamous crime under the laws of the United States or of any State; or

(5) has violated any provision of this Act or any rules promulgated hereunder, or any provision of the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act or rules promulgated thereunder, whether or not he or she has been convicted of such violation; or

(6) has failed to provide effective controls against the diversion of controlled substances in other than legitimate medical, scientific or industrial channels.

(b) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may limit revocation or suspension of a registration to the particular controlled substance with respect to which grounds for revocation or suspension exist.

(c) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall promptly notify the Administration, the Department and the Illinois State Police or their successor agencies, of all orders denying, suspending or revoking registration, all forfeitures of controlled substances, and all final court dispositions, if any, of such denials, suspensions, revocations or forfeitures.

(d) If Federal registration of any registrant is suspended, revoked, refused renewal or refused issuance, then the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall issue a notice and conduct a hearing in accordance with Section 305 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-21-11.)

(720 ILCS 570/318)

Sec. 318. Confidentiality of information.

(a) Information received by the central repository under Section 316 and former Section 321 is confidential.

(b) The Department must carry out a program to protect the confidentiality of the information described in subsection (a). The Department may disclose the information to another person only under subsection (c), (d), or (f) and may charge a fee not to exceed the actual cost of furnishing the information.

(c) The Department may disclose confidential information described in subsection (a) to any person who is engaged in receiving, processing, or storing the information.

(d) The Department may release confidential information described in subsection (a) to the following persons:

(1) A governing body that licenses practitioners and is engaged in an investigation, an adjudication, or a prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.

(2) An investigator for the Consumer Protection Division of the office of the Attorney General, a prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the Attorney General, who is engaged in any of the following activities involving controlled substances:

(A) an investigation;

(B) an adjudication; or

(C) a prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.

(3) A law enforcement officer who is:

(A) authorized by the Illinois State Police or the office of a county sheriff or State's Attorney or municipal police department of Illinois to receive information of the type requested for the purpose of investigations involving controlled substances; or

(B) approved by the Department to receive information of the type requested for the purpose of investigations involving controlled substances; and

(C) engaged in the investigation or prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.

(e) Before the Department releases confidential information under subsection (d), the applicant must demonstrate in writing to the Department that:

(1) the applicant has reason to believe that a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance has occurred; and

(2) the requested information is reasonably related to the investigation, adjudication, or prosecution of the violation described in subdivision (1).

(f) The Department may receive and release prescription record information under Section 316 and former Section 321 to:

(1) a governing body that licenses practitioners;

(2) an investigator for the Consumer Protection Division of the office of the Attorney General, a prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the Attorney General;

(3) any Illinois law enforcement officer who is:

(A) authorized to receive the type of information released; and

(B) approved by the Department to receive the type of information released; or

(4) prescription monitoring entities in other states per the provisions outlined in subsection (g) and (h) below; confidential prescription record information collected under Sections 316 and 321 (now repealed) that identifies vendors or practitioners, or both, who are prescribing or dispensing large quantities of Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substances outside the scope of their practice, pharmacy, or business, as determined by the Advisory Committee created by Section 320.

(g) The information described in subsection (f) may not be released until it has been reviewed by an employee of the Department who is licensed as a prescriber or a dispenser and until that employee has certified that further investigation is warranted. However, failure to comply with this subsection (g) does not invalidate the use of any evidence that is otherwise admissible in a proceeding described in subsection (h).

(h) An investigator or a law enforcement officer receiving confidential information under subsection (c), (d), or (f) may disclose the information to a law enforcement officer or an attorney for the office of the Attorney General for use as evidence in the following:

(1) A proceeding under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.

(2) A criminal proceeding or a proceeding in juvenile court that involves a controlled substance.

(i) The Department may compile statistical reports from the information described in subsection (a). The reports must not include information that identifies, by name, license or address, any practitioner, dispenser, ultimate user, or other person administering a controlled substance.

(j) Based upon federal, initial and maintenance funding, a prescriber and dispenser inquiry system shall be developed to assist the health care community in its goal of effective clinical practice and to prevent patients from diverting or abusing medications.

(1) An inquirer shall have read-only access to a stand-alone database which shall contain records for the previous 12 months.

(2) Dispensers may, upon positive and secure identification, make an inquiry on a patient or customer solely for a medical purpose as delineated within the federal HIPAA law.

(3) The Department shall provide a one-to-one secure link and encrypted software necessary to establish the link between an inquirer and the Department. Technical assistance shall also be provided.

(4) Written inquiries are acceptable but must include the fee and the requestor's Drug Enforcement Administration license number and submitted upon the requestor's business stationery stationary.

(5) As directed by the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee and the Clinical Director for the Prescription Monitoring Program, aggregate data that does not indicate any prescriber, practitioner, dispenser, or patient may be used for clinical studies.

(6) Tracking analysis shall be established and used per administrative rule.

(7) Nothing in this Act or Illinois law shall be construed to require a prescriber or dispenser to make use of this inquiry system.

(8) If there is an adverse outcome because of a prescriber or dispenser making an inquiry, which is initiated in good faith, the prescriber or dispenser shall be held harmless from any civil liability.

(k) The Department shall establish, by rule, the process by which to evaluate possible erroneous association of prescriptions to any licensed prescriber or end user of the Illinois Prescription Information Library (PIL).

(l) The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee is authorized to evaluate the need for and method of establishing a patient specific identifier.

(m) Patients who identify prescriptions attributed to them that were not obtained by them shall be given access to their personal prescription history pursuant to the validation process as set forth by administrative rule.

(n) The Prescription Monitoring Program is authorized to develop operational push reports to entities with compatible electronic medical records. The process shall be covered within administrative rule established by the Department.

(o) Hospital emergency departments and freestanding healthcare facilities providing healthcare to walk-in patients may obtain, for the purpose of improving patient care, a unique identifier for each shift to utilize the PIL system.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-21-11.)

(720 ILCS 570/505) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1505)

Sec. 505. (a) The following are subject to forfeiture:

(1) all substances which have been manufactured, distributed, dispensed, or possessed in violation of this Act;

(2) all raw materials, products and equipment of any kind which are used, or intended for use in manufacturing, distributing, dispensing, administering or possessing any substance in violation of this Act;

(3) all conveyances, including aircraft, vehicles or vessels, which are used, or intended for use, to transport, or in any manner to facilitate the transportation, sale, receipt, possession, or concealment of property described in paragraphs (1) and (2), but:

(i) no conveyance used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this Section unless it appears that the owner or other person in charge of the conveyance is a consenting party or privy to a violation of this Act;

(ii) no conveyance is subject to forfeiture under this Section by reason of any act or omission which the owner proves to have been committed or omitted without his or her knowledge or consent;

(iii) a forfeiture of a conveyance encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party if he or she neither had knowledge of nor consented to the act or omission;

(4) all money, things of value, books, records, and research products and materials including formulas, microfilm, tapes, and data which are used, or intended to be used in violation of this Act;

(5) everything of value furnished, or intended to be furnished, in exchange for a substance in violation of this Act, all proceeds traceable to such an exchange, and all moneys, negotiable instruments, and securities used, or intended to be used, to commit or in any manner to facilitate any violation of this Act;

(6) all real property, including any right, title, and interest (including, but not limited to, any leasehold interest or the beneficial interest in a land trust) in the whole of any lot or tract of land and any appurtenances or improvements, which is used or intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, or in any manner to facilitate the commission of, any violation or act that constitutes a violation of Section 401 or 405 of this Act or that is the proceeds of any violation or act that constitutes a violation of Section 401 or 405 of this Act.

(b) Property subject to forfeiture under this Act may be seized by the Director or any peace officer upon process or seizure warrant issued by any court having jurisdiction over the property. Seizure by the Director or any peace officer without process may be made:

(1) if the seizure is incident to inspection under an administrative inspection warrant;

(2) if the property subject to seizure has been the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a criminal proceeding, or in an injunction or forfeiture proceeding based upon this Act or the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act;

(3) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health or safety;

(4) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is subject to forfeiture under this Act and the property is seized under circumstances in which a warrantless seizure or arrest would be reasonable; or

(5) in accordance with the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(c) In the event of seizure pursuant to subsection (b), notice shall be given forthwith to all known interest holders that forfeiture proceedings, including a preliminary review, shall be instituted in accordance with the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act and such proceedings shall thereafter be instituted in accordance with that Act. Upon a showing of good cause, the notice required for a preliminary review under this Section may be postponed.

(d) Property taken or detained under this Section shall not be subject to replevin, but is deemed to be in the custody of the Director subject only to the order and judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the forfeiture proceedings and the decisions of the State's Attorney under the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act. When property is seized under this Act, the seizing agency shall promptly conduct an inventory of the seized property and estimate the property's value, and shall forward a copy of the inventory of seized property and the estimate of the property's value to the Director. Upon receiving notice of seizure, the Director may:

(1) place the property under seal;

(2) remove the property to a place designated by the Director;

(3) keep the property in the possession of the seizing agency;

(4) remove the property to a storage area for safekeeping or, if the property is a negotiable instrument or money and is not needed for evidentiary purposes, deposit it in an interest bearing account;

(5) place the property under constructive seizure by posting notice of pending forfeiture on it, by giving notice of pending forfeiture to its owners and interest holders, or by filing notice of pending forfeiture in any appropriate public record relating to the property; or

(6) provide for another agency or custodian, including an owner, secured party, or lienholder, to take custody of the property upon the terms and conditions set by the Director.

(e) If the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation suspends or revokes a registration, all controlled substances owned or possessed by the registrant at the time of suspension or the effective date of the revocation order may be placed under seal by the Director. No disposition may be made of substances under seal until the time for taking an appeal has elapsed or until all appeals have been concluded unless a court, upon application therefor, orders the sale of perishable substances and the deposit of the proceeds of the sale with the court. Upon a suspension or revocation order becoming final, all substances may be forfeited to the Illinois State Police.

(f) When property is forfeited under this Act the Director shall sell all such property unless such property is required by law to be destroyed or is harmful to the public, and shall distribute the proceeds of the sale, together with any moneys forfeited or seized, in accordance with subsection (g). However, upon the application of the seizing agency or prosecutor who was responsible for the investigation, arrest or arrests and prosecution which lead to the forfeiture, the Director may return any item of forfeited property to the seizing agency or prosecutor for official use in the enforcement of laws relating to cannabis or controlled substances, if the agency or prosecutor can demonstrate that the item requested would be useful to the agency or prosecutor in their enforcement efforts. When any forfeited conveyance, including an aircraft, vehicle, or vessel, is returned to the seizing agency or prosecutor, the conveyance may be used immediately in the enforcement of the criminal laws of this State. Upon disposal, all proceeds from the sale of the conveyance must be used for drug enforcement purposes. When any real property returned to the seizing agency is sold by the agency or its unit of government, the proceeds of the sale shall be delivered to the Director and distributed in accordance with subsection (g).

(g) All monies and the sale proceeds of all other property forfeited and seized under this Act shall be distributed as follows:

(1) 65% shall be distributed to the metropolitan enforcement group, local, municipal, county, or state law enforcement agency or agencies which conducted or participated in the investigation resulting in the forfeiture. The distribution shall bear a reasonable relationship to the degree of direct participation of the law enforcement agency in the effort resulting in the forfeiture, taking into account the total value of the property forfeited and the total law enforcement effort with respect to the violation of the law upon which the forfeiture is based. Amounts distributed to the agency or agencies shall be used for the enforcement of laws governing cannabis and controlled substances or for security cameras used for the prevention or detection of violence, except that amounts distributed to the Secretary of State shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Evidence Fund to be used as provided in Section 2-115 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(2)(i) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney of the county in which the prosecution resulting in the forfeiture was instituted, deposited in a special fund in the county treasury and appropriated to the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws governing cannabis and controlled substances, or at the discretion of the State's Attorney, in addition to other authorized purposes, to make grants to local substance abuse treatment facilities and half-way houses. In counties over 3,000,000 population, 25% will be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws governing cannabis and controlled substances, or at the discretion of the State's Attorney, in addition to other authorized purposes, to make grants to local substance abuse treatment facilities and half-way houses. If the prosecution is undertaken solely by the Attorney General, the portion provided hereunder shall be distributed to the Attorney General for use in the enforcement of laws governing cannabis and controlled substances.

(ii) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and deposited in the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Fund of that office to be used for additional expenses incurred in the investigation, prosecution and appeal of cases arising under laws governing cannabis and controlled substances. The Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall not receive distribution from cases brought in counties with over 3,000,000 population.

(3) 10% shall be retained by the Department of State Police for expenses related to the administration and sale of seized and forfeited property.

(h) Species of plants from which controlled substances in Schedules I and II may be derived which have been planted or cultivated in violation of this Act, or of which the owners or cultivators are unknown, or which are wild growths, may be seized and summarily forfeited to the State. The failure, upon demand by the Director or any peace officer, of the person in occupancy or in control of land or premises upon which the species of plants are growing or being stored, to produce registration, or proof that he or she is the holder thereof, constitutes authority for the seizure and forfeiture of the plants.

(Source: P.A. 94-1004, eff. 7-3-06; 97-253, eff. 1-1-12; 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-544, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

Section 635. The Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is amended by changing Section 85 as follows:

(720 ILCS 646/85)

Sec. 85. Forfeiture.

(a) The following are subject to forfeiture:

(1) all substances containing methamphetamine which have been produced, manufactured, delivered, or possessed in violation of this Act;

(2) all methamphetamine manufacturing materials which have been produced, delivered, or possessed in connection with any substance containing methamphetamine in violation of this Act;

(3) all conveyances, including aircraft, vehicles or vessels, which are used, or intended for use, to transport, or in any manner to facilitate the transportation, sale, receipt, possession, or concealment of property described in paragraph (1) or (2) that constitutes a felony violation of the Act, but:

(i) no conveyance used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this Section unless it appears that the owner or other person in charge of the conveyance is a consenting party or privy to a violation of this Act;

(ii) no conveyance is subject to forfeiture under this Section by reason of any act or omission which the owner proves to have been committed or omitted without his or her knowledge or consent;

(iii) a forfeiture of a conveyance encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party if he or she neither had knowledge of nor consented to the act or omission;

(4) all money, things of value, books, records, and research products and materials including formulas, microfilm, tapes, and data which are used, or intended for use in a felony violation of this Act;

(5) everything of value furnished or intended to be furnished by any person in exchange for a substance in violation of this Act, all proceeds traceable to such an exchange, and all moneys, negotiable instruments, and securities used, or intended to be used, to commit or in any manner to facilitate any felony violation of this Act.

(6) all real property, including any right, title, and interest (including, but not limited to, any leasehold interest or the beneficial interest in a land trust) in the whole of any lot or tract of land and any appurtenances or improvements, which is used, or intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, or in any manner to facilitate the commission of, any violation or act that constitutes a violation of this Act or that is the proceeds of any violation or act that constitutes a violation of this Act.

(b) Property subject to forfeiture under this Act may be seized by the Director or any peace officer upon process or seizure warrant issued by any court having jurisdiction over the property. Seizure by the Director or any peace officer without process may be made:

(1) if the property subject to seizure has been the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a criminal proceeding or in an injunction or forfeiture proceeding based upon this Act or the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act;

(2) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health or safety;

(3) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is subject to forfeiture under this Act and the property is seized under circumstances in which a warrantless seizure or arrest would be reasonable; or

(4) in accordance with the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(c) In the event of seizure pursuant to subsection (b), notice shall be given forthwith to all known interest holders that forfeiture proceedings, including a preliminary review, shall be instituted in accordance with the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act and such proceedings shall thereafter be instituted in accordance with that Act. Upon a showing of good cause, the notice required for a preliminary review under this Section may be postponed.

(d) Property taken or detained under this Section is not subject to replevin, but is deemed to be in the custody of the Director subject only to the order and judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the forfeiture proceedings and the decisions of the State's Attorney under the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act. When property is seized under this Act, the seizing agency shall promptly conduct an inventory of the seized property, estimate the property's value, and forward a copy of the inventory of seized property and the estimate of the property's value to the Director. Upon receiving notice of seizure, the Director may:

(1) place the property under seal;

(2) remove the property to a place designated by him or her;

(3) keep the property in the possession of the seizing agency;

(4) remove the property to a storage area for safekeeping or, if the property is a negotiable instrument or money and is not needed for evidentiary purposes, deposit it in an interest bearing account;

(5) place the property under constructive seizure by posting notice of pending forfeiture on it, by giving notice of pending forfeiture to its owners and interest holders, or by filing notice of pending forfeiture in any appropriate public record relating to the property; or

(6) provide for another agency or custodian, including an owner, secured party, or lienholder, to take custody of the property upon the terms and conditions set by the Director.

(e) No disposition may be made of property under seal until the time for taking an appeal has elapsed or until all appeals have been concluded unless a court, upon application therefor, orders the sale of perishable substances and the deposit of the proceeds of the sale with the court.

(f) When property is forfeited under this Act, the Director shall sell the property unless the property is required by law to be destroyed or is harmful to the public, and shall distribute the proceeds of the sale, together with any moneys forfeited or seized, in accordance with subsection (g). However, upon the application of the seizing agency or prosecutor who was responsible for the investigation, arrest or arrests and prosecution which lead to the forfeiture, the Director may return any item of forfeited property to the seizing agency or prosecutor for official use in the enforcement of laws relating to methamphetamine, cannabis, or controlled substances, if the agency or prosecutor demonstrates that the item requested would be useful to the agency or prosecutor in their enforcement efforts. When any forfeited conveyance, including an aircraft, vehicle, or vessel, is returned to the seizing agency or prosecutor, the conveyance may be used immediately in the enforcement of the criminal laws of this State. Upon disposal, all proceeds from the sale of the conveyance must be used for drug enforcement purposes. When any real property returned to the seizing agency is sold by the agency or its unit of government, the proceeds of the sale shall be delivered to the Director and distributed in accordance with subsection (g).

(g) All moneys and the sale proceeds of all other property forfeited and seized under this Act shall be distributed as follows:

(1) 65% shall be distributed to the metropolitan enforcement group, local, municipal, county, or State law enforcement agency or agencies which conducted or participated in the investigation resulting in the forfeiture. The distribution shall bear a reasonable relationship to the degree of direct participation of the law enforcement agency in the effort resulting in the forfeiture, taking into account the total value of the property forfeited and the total law enforcement effort with respect to the violation of the law upon which the forfeiture is based. Amounts distributed to the agency or agencies shall be used for the enforcement of laws governing methamphetamine, cannabis, and controlled substances or for security cameras used for the prevention or detection of violence, except that amounts distributed to the Secretary of State shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Evidence Fund to be used as provided in Section 2-115 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(2)(i) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney of the county in which the prosecution resulting in the forfeiture was instituted, deposited in a special fund in the county treasury and appropriated to the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws governing methamphetamine, cannabis, and controlled substances, or at the discretion of the State's Attorney, in addition to other authorized purposes, to make grants to local substance abuse treatment facilities and half-way houses. In counties with a population over 3,000,000, 25% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws governing methamphetamine, cannabis, and controlled substances, or at the discretion of the State's Attorney, in addition to other authorized purposes, to make grants to local substance abuse treatment facilities and half-way houses. If the prosecution is undertaken solely by the Attorney General, the portion provided hereunder shall be distributed to the Attorney General for use in the enforcement of laws governing methamphetamine, cannabis, and controlled substances.

(ii) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and deposited in the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Fund of that Office to be used for additional expenses incurred in the investigation, prosecution and appeal of cases arising under laws governing methamphetamine, cannabis, and controlled substances. The Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall not receive distribution from cases brought in counties with a population over 3,000,000.

(3) 10% shall be retained by the Department of State Police for expenses related to the administration and sale of seized and forfeited property.

(Source: P.A. 97-253, eff. 1-1-12; 97-544, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

Section 640. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 109-1 and 124B-125 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/109-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 109-1)

Sec. 109-1. Person arrested.

(a) A person arrested with or without a warrant shall be taken without unnecessary delay before the nearest and most accessible judge in that county, except when such county is a participant in a regional jail authority, in which event such person may be taken to the nearest and most accessible judge, irrespective of the county where such judge presides, and a charge shall be filed. Whenever a person arrested either with or without a warrant is required to be taken before a judge, a charge may be filed against such person by way of a two-way closed circuit television system, except that a hearing to deny bail to the defendant may not be conducted by way of closed circuit television.

(b) The judge shall:

(1) Inform the defendant of the charge against him and shall provide him with a copy of the charge; .

(2) Advise the defendant of his right to counsel and if indigent shall appoint a public defender or licensed attorney at law of this State to represent him in accordance with the provisions of Section 113-3 of this Code; .

(3) Schedule a preliminary hearing in appropriate cases; and

(4) Admit the defendant to bail in accordance with the provisions of Article 110 of this Code.

(c) The court may issue an order of protection in accordance with the provisions of Article 112A of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 90-140, eff. 1-1-98; revised 11-21-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-125)

Sec. 124B-125. Real property exempt from forfeiture.

(a) An interest in real property is exempt from forfeiture under this Article if its owner or interest holder establishes by a preponderance of evidence that he or she meets all of the following requirements:

(1) He or she is not legally accountable for the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture, or did not solicit, conspire, or attempt to commit the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture.

(2) He or she had not acquired and did not stand to acquire substantial proceeds from the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture other than as an interest holder in an arms-length commercial transaction.

(3) He or she does not hold the property for the benefit of or as a nominee for any person whose conduct gave rise to the forfeiture, and, if he or she acquired the interest through any such person, he or she acquired it as a bona fide purchaser for value without knowingly taking part in the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture.

(4) He or she acquired the interest before a notice of seizure for forfeiture or a lis pendens notice with respect to the property was filed in the office of the recorder of deeds of the county in which the property is located and either:

(A) acquired the interest before the commencement of the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture, and the person whose conduct gave rise to the forfeiture did not have the authority to convey the interest to a bona fide purchaser for value at the time of the conduct; or

(B) acquired the interest after the commencement of the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture, and he or she acquired the interest as a mortgagee, secured creditor, lienholder, or bona fide purchaser for value without knowledge of the conduct that gave rise to the forfeiture.

(5) With respect to a property interest in existence at the time the illegal conduct giving rise to the forfeiture took place, he or she either:

(A) did not know of the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture; or

(B) upon learning of the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture, did all that reasonably could be expected under the circumstances to terminate that use of the property.

(6) (7) The property is not a type of property, possession of which is otherwise in violation of law.

(b) For purposes of paragraph (5) of subsection (a), ways in which a person may show that he or she did all that reasonably could be expected include demonstrating that he or she, to the extent permitted by law, did either of the following:

(1) Gave timely notice to an appropriate law enforcement agency of information that led the person to know that the conduct giving rise to a forfeiture would occur or had occurred.

(2) In a timely fashion revoked or made a good faith attempt to revoke permission for those engaging in the conduct to use the property or took reasonable actions in consultation with a law enforcement agency to discourage or prevent the illegal use of the property.

A person is not required by this subsection (b) to take steps that the person reasonably believes would be likely to subject any person (other than the person whose conduct gave rise to the forfeiture) to physical danger.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 645. The Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act is amended by changing Section 4.5 as follows:

(725 ILCS 120/4.5)

Sec. 4.5. Procedures to implement the rights of crime victims. To afford crime victims their rights, law enforcement, prosecutors, judges and corrections will provide information, as appropriate of the following procedures:

(a) At the request of the crime victim, law enforcement authorities investigating the case shall provide notice of the status of the investigation, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation, until such time as the alleged assailant is apprehended or the investigation is closed.

(a-5) When law enforcement authorities re-open a closed case to resume investigating, they shall provide notice of the re-opening of the case, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation.

(b) The office of the State's Attorney:

(1) shall provide notice of the filing of information, the return of an indictment by which a prosecution for any violent crime is commenced, or the filing of a petition to adjudicate a minor as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(2) shall provide notice of the date, time, and place of trial;

(3) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information of social services and financial assistance available for victims of crime, including information of how to apply for these services and assistance;

(3.5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information about available victim services, including referrals to programs, counselors, and agencies that assist a victim to deal with trauma, loss, and grief;

(4) shall assist in having any stolen or other personal property held by law enforcement authorities for evidentiary or other purposes returned as expeditiously as possible, pursuant to the procedures set out in Section 115-9 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide appropriate employer intercession services to ensure that employers of victims will cooperate with the criminal justice system in order to minimize an employee's loss of pay and other benefits resulting from court appearances;

(6) shall provide information whenever possible, of a secure waiting area during court proceedings that does not require victims to be in close proximity to defendant or juveniles accused of a violent crime, and their families and friends;

(7) shall provide notice to the crime victim of the right to have a translator present at all court proceedings and, in compliance with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, the right to communications access through a sign language interpreter or by other means;

(8) in the case of the death of a person, which death occurred in the same transaction or occurrence in which acts occurred for which a defendant is charged with an offense, shall notify the spouse, parent, child or sibling of the decedent of the date of the trial of the person or persons allegedly responsible for the death;

(9) shall inform the victim of the right to have present at all court proceedings, subject to the rules of evidence, an advocate or other support person of the victim's choice, and the right to retain an attorney, at the victim's own expense, who, upon written notice filed with the clerk of the court and State's Attorney, is to receive copies of all notices, motions and court orders filed thereafter in the case, in the same manner as if the victim were a named party in the case;

(10) at the sentencing hearing shall make a good faith attempt to explain the minimum amount of time during which the defendant may actually be physically imprisoned. The Office of the State's Attorney shall further notify the crime victim of the right to request from the Prisoner Review Board information concerning the release of the defendant under subparagraph (d)(1) of this Section;

(11) shall request restitution at sentencing and shall consider restitution in any plea negotiation, as provided by law; and

(12) shall, upon the court entering a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity, inform the victim of the notification services available from the Department of Human Services, including the statewide telephone number, under subparagraph (d)(2) of this Section.

(c) At the written request of the crime victim, the office of the State's Attorney shall:

(1) provide notice a reasonable time in advance of the following court proceedings: preliminary hearing, any hearing the effect of which may be the release of defendant from custody, or to alter the conditions of bond and the sentencing hearing. The crime victim shall also be notified of the cancellation of the court proceeding in sufficient time, wherever possible, to prevent an unnecessary appearance in court;

(2) provide notice within a reasonable time after receipt of notice from the custodian, of the release of the defendant on bail or personal recognizance or the release from detention of a minor who has been detained for a violent crime;

(3) explain in nontechnical language the details of any plea or verdict of a defendant, or any adjudication of a juvenile as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(4) where practical, consult with the crime victim before the Office of the State's Attorney makes an offer of a plea bargain to the defendant or enters into negotiations with the defendant concerning a possible plea agreement, and shall consider the written victim impact statement, if prepared prior to entering into a plea agreement;

(5) provide notice of the ultimate disposition of the cases arising from an indictment or an information, or a petition to have a juvenile adjudicated as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(6) provide notice of any appeal taken by the defendant and information on how to contact the appropriate agency handling the appeal;

(7) provide notice of any request for post-conviction review filed by the defendant under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and of the date, time and place of any hearing concerning the petition. Whenever possible, notice of the hearing shall be given in advance;

(8) forward a copy of any statement presented under Section 6 to the Prisoner Review Board to be considered by the Board in making its determination under subsection (b) of Section 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(d) (1) The Prisoner Review Board shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen, upon written request, of the prisoner's release on parole, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a violent crime from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall provide to a victim or any other concerned citizen a recent photograph of any person convicted of a felony, upon his or her release from custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen when feasible at least 7 days prior to the prisoner's release on furlough of the times and dates of such furlough. Upon written request by the victim or any other concerned citizen, the State's Attorney shall notify the person once of the times and dates of release of a prisoner sentenced to periodic imprisonment. Notification shall be based on the most recent information as to victim's or other concerned citizen's residence or other location available to the notifying authority.

(2) When the defendant has been committed to the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 5-2-4 or any other provision of the Unified Code of Corrections, the victim may request to be notified by the releasing authority of the defendant's furloughs, temporary release, or final discharge from State custody. The Department of Human Services shall establish and maintain a statewide telephone number to be used by victims to make notification requests under these provisions and shall publicize this telephone number on its website and to the State's Attorney of each county.

(3) In the event of an escape from State custody, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of the escape and the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim. The notification shall be based upon the most recent information as to the victim's residence or other location available to the Board. When no such information is available, the Board shall make all reasonable efforts to obtain the information and make the notification. When the escapee is apprehended, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board and the Board shall notify the victim.

(4) The victim of the crime for which the prisoner has been sentenced shall receive reasonable written notice not less than 30 days prior to the parole interview and may submit, in writing, on film, videotape or other electronic means or in the form of a recording or in person at the parole interview or if a victim of a violent crime, by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f) of this Section, information for consideration by the Prisoner Review Board. The victim shall be notified within 7 days after the prisoner has been granted parole and shall be informed of the right to inspect the registry of parole decisions, established under subsection (g) of Section 3-3-5 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The provisions of this paragraph (4) are subject to the Open Parole Hearings Act.

(5) If a statement is presented under Section 6, the Prisoner Review Board shall inform the victim of any order of discharge entered by the Board pursuant to Section 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(6) At the written request of the victim of the crime for which the prisoner was sentenced or the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole was prosecuted, the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim and the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole was prosecuted of the death of the prisoner if the prisoner died while on parole or mandatory supervised release.

(7) When a defendant who has been committed to the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, or the Department of Human Services is released or discharged and subsequently committed to the Department of Human Services as a sexually violent person and the victim had requested to be notified by the releasing authority of the defendant's discharge from State custody, the releasing authority shall provide to the Department of Human Services such information that would allow the Department of Human Services to contact the victim.

(8) When a defendant has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act and has been sentenced to the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim of the sex offense of the prisoner's eligibility for release on parole, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a sex offense from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The notification shall be made to the victim at least 30 days, whenever possible, before release of the sex offender.

(e) The officials named in this Section may satisfy some or all of their obligations to provide notices and other information through participation in a statewide victim and witness notification system established by the Attorney General under Section 8.5 of this Act.

(f) To permit a victim of a violent crime to provide information to the Prisoner Review Board for consideration by the Board at a parole hearing of a person who committed the crime against the victim in accordance with clause (d)(4) of this Section or at a proceeding to determine the conditions of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence or at a hearing on revocation of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence, the Board shall establish a toll-free number that may be accessed by the victim of a violent crime to present that information to the Board.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-875, eff. 1-22-10; 97-457, eff. 1-1-12; 97-572, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

Section 650. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-6-2, 3-8-2, 3-10-2, and 3-14-1 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-6-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-6-2)

Sec. 3-6-2. Institutions and Facility Administration.

(a) Each institution and facility of the Department shall be administered by a chief administrative officer appointed by the Director. A chief administrative officer shall be responsible for all persons assigned to the institution or facility. The chief administrative officer shall administer the programs of the Department for the custody and treatment of such persons.

(b) The chief administrative officer shall have such assistants as the Department may assign.

(c) The Director or Assistant Director shall have the emergency powers to temporarily transfer individuals without formal procedures to any State, county, municipal or regional correctional or detention institution or facility in the State, subject to the acceptance of such receiving institution or facility, or to designate any reasonably secure place in the State as such an institution or facility and to make transfers thereto. However, transfers made under emergency powers shall be reviewed as soon as practicable under Article 8, and shall be subject to Section 5-905 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. This Section shall not apply to transfers to the Department of Human Services which are provided for under Section 3-8-5 or Section 3-10-5.

(d) The Department shall provide educational programs for all committed persons so that all persons have an opportunity to attain the achievement level equivalent to the completion of the twelfth grade in the public school system in this State. Other higher levels of attainment shall be encouraged and professional instruction shall be maintained wherever possible. The Department may establish programs of mandatory education and may establish rules and regulations for the administration of such programs. A person committed to the Department who, during the period of his or her incarceration, participates in an educational program provided by or through the Department and through that program is awarded or earns the number of hours of credit required for the award of an associate, baccalaureate, or higher degree from a community college, college, or university located in Illinois shall reimburse the State, through the Department, for the costs incurred by the State in providing that person during his or her incarceration with the education that qualifies him or her for the award of that degree. The costs for which reimbursement is required under this subsection shall be determined and computed by the Department under rules and regulations that it shall establish for that purpose. However, interest at the rate of 6% per annum shall be charged on the balance of those costs from time to time remaining unpaid, from the date of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release, or release constituting a final termination of his or her commitment to the Department until paid.

(d-5) A person committed to the Department is entitled to confidential testing for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and to counseling in connection with such testing, with no copay to the committed person. A person committed to the Department who has tested positive for infection with HIV is entitled to medical care while incarcerated, counseling, and referrals to support services, in connection with that positive test result. Implementation of this subsection (d-5) is subject to appropriation.

(e) A person committed to the Department who becomes in need of medical or surgical treatment but is incapable of giving consent thereto shall receive such medical or surgical treatment by the chief administrative officer consenting on the person's behalf. Before the chief administrative officer consents, he or she shall obtain the advice of one or more physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in this State. If such physician or physicians advise:

(1) that immediate medical or surgical treatment is required relative to a condition threatening to cause death, damage or impairment to bodily functions, or disfigurement; and

(2) that the person is not capable of giving consent to such treatment; the chief administrative officer may give consent for such medical or surgical treatment, and such consent shall be deemed to be the consent of the person for all purposes, including, but not limited to, the authority of a physician to give such treatment.

(e-5) If a physician providing medical care to a committed person on behalf of the Department advises the chief administrative officer that the committed person's mental or physical health has deteriorated as a result of the cessation of ingestion of food or liquid to the point where medical or surgical treatment is required to prevent death, damage, or impairment to bodily functions, the chief administrative officer may authorize such medical or surgical treatment.

(f) In the event that the person requires medical care and treatment at a place other than the institution or facility, the person may be removed therefrom under conditions prescribed by the Department. The Department shall require the committed person receiving medical or dental services on a non-emergency basis to pay a $5 co-payment to the Department for each visit for medical or dental services. The amount of each co-payment shall be deducted from the committed person's individual account. A committed person who has a chronic illness, as defined by Department rules and regulations, shall be exempt from the $5 co-payment for treatment of the chronic illness. A committed person shall not be subject to a $5 co-payment for follow-up visits ordered by a physician, who is employed by, or contracts with, the Department. A committed person who is indigent is exempt from the $5 co-payment and is entitled to receive medical or dental services on the same basis as a committed person who is financially able to afford the co-payment. For purposes of this Section only, "indigent" means a committed person who has $20 or less in his or her Inmate Trust Fund at the time of such services or for the 30 days prior to such services. Notwithstanding any other provision in this subsection (f) to the contrary, any person committed to any facility operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice, as set forth in Section 3-2.5-15 of this Code, is exempt from the co-payment requirement for the duration of confinement in those facilities.

(g) Any person having sole custody of a child at the time of commitment or any woman giving birth to a child after her commitment, may arrange through the Department of Children and Family Services for suitable placement of the child outside of the Department of Corrections. The Director of the Department of Corrections may determine that there are special reasons why the child should continue in the custody of the mother until the child is 6 years old.

(h) The Department may provide Family Responsibility Services which may consist of, but not be limited to the following:

(1) family advocacy counseling;

(2) parent self-help group;

(3) parenting skills training;

(4) parent and child overnight program;

(5) parent and child reunification counseling, either separately or together, preceding the inmate's release; and

(6) a prerelease reunification staffing involving the family advocate, the inmate and the child's counselor, or both and the inmate.

(i) (Blank). a test approved by the Illinois Department of Public Health to determine the presence of HIV infection, based upon recommendations of United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention a reliable supplemental based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention information

(j) Any person convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to receive a sex offender evaluation prior to release into the community from the Department of Corrections. The sex offender evaluation shall be conducted in conformance with the standards and guidelines developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and by an evaluator approved by the Board.

(k) Any minor committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice for a sex offense as defined by the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to undergo sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

(l) Prior to the release of any inmate committed to a facility of the Department or the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department must provide the inmate with appropriate information verbally, in writing, by video, or other electronic means, concerning HIV and AIDS. The Department shall develop the informational materials in consultation with the Department of Public Health. At the same time, the Department must also offer the committed person the option of testing for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), with no copayment for the test. Pre-test information shall be provided to the committed person and informed consent obtained as required in subsection (d) of Section 3 and Section 5 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. The Department may conduct opt-out HIV testing as defined in Section 4 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. If the Department conducts opt-out HIV testing, the Department shall place signs in English, Spanish and other languages as needed in multiple, highly visible locations in the area where HIV testing is conducted informing inmates that they will be tested for HIV unless they refuse, and refusal or acceptance of testing shall be documented in the inmate's medical record. The Department shall follow procedures established by the Department of Public Health to conduct HIV testing and testing to confirm positive HIV test results. All testing must be conducted by medical personnel, but pre-test and other information may be provided by committed persons who have received appropriate training. The Department, in conjunction with the Department of Public Health, shall develop a plan that complies with the AIDS Confidentiality Act to deliver confidentially all positive or negative HIV test results to inmates or former inmates. Nothing in this Section shall require the Department to offer HIV testing to an inmate who is known to be infected with HIV, or who has been tested for HIV within the previous 180 days and whose documented HIV test result is available to the Department electronically. The testing provided under this subsection (l) shall consist of a test approved by the Illinois Department of Public Health to determine the presence of HIV infection, based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. If the test result is positive, a reliable supplemental test based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention shall be administered.

Prior to the release of an inmate who the Department knows has tested positive for infection with HIV, the Department in a timely manner shall offer the inmate transitional case management, including referrals to other support services.

(m) The chief administrative officer of each institution or facility of the Department shall make a room in the institution or facility available for addiction recovery services to be provided to committed persons on a voluntary basis. The services shall be provided for one hour once a week at a time specified by the chief administrative officer of the institution or facility if the following conditions are met:

(1) the addiction recovery service contacts the chief administrative officer to arrange the meeting;

(2) the committed person may attend the meeting for addiction recovery services only if the committed person uses pre-existing free time already available to the committed person;

(3) all disciplinary and other rules of the institution or facility remain in effect;

(4) the committed person is not given any additional privileges to attend addiction recovery services;

(5) if the addiction recovery service does not arrange for scheduling a meeting for that week, no addiction recovery services shall be provided to the committed person in the institution or facility for that week;

(6) the number of committed persons who may attend an addiction recovery meeting shall not exceed 40 during any session held at the correctional institution or facility;

(7) a volunteer seeking to provide addiction recovery services under this subsection (m) must submit an application to the Department of Corrections under existing Department rules and the Department must review the application within 60 days after submission of the application to the Department; and

(8) each institution and facility of the Department shall manage the addiction recovery services program according to its own processes and procedures.

For the purposes of this subsection (m), "addiction recovery services" means recovery services for alcoholics and addicts provided by volunteers of recovery support services recognized by the Department of Human Services.

(Source: P.A. 96-284, eff. 1-1-10; 97-244, eff. 8-4-11; 97-323, eff. 8-12-11; 97-562, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-8-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-8-2)

Sec. 3-8-2. Social Evaluation; physical examination; HIV/AIDS.

(a) A social evaluation shall be made of a committed person's medical, psychological, educational and vocational condition and history, including the use of alcohol and other drugs, the circumstances of his offense, and such other information as the Department may determine. The committed person shall be assigned to an institution or facility in so far as practicable in accordance with the social evaluation. Recommendations shall be made for medical, dental, psychiatric, psychological and social service treatment.

(b) A record of the social evaluation shall be entered in the committed person's master record file and shall be forwarded to the institution or facility to which the person is assigned.

(c) Upon admission to a correctional institution each committed person shall be given a physical examination. If he is suspected of having a communicable disease that in the judgment of the Department medical personnel requires medical isolation, the committed person shall remain in medical isolation until it is no longer deemed medically necessary.

(d) Upon arrival at a reception and classification center or an inmate's final destination, the Department must provide the committed person with appropriate information in writing, verbally, by video or other electronic means concerning HIV and AIDS. The Department shall develop the informational materials in consultation with the Department of Public Health. At the same time, the Department also must offer the committed person the option of being tested, with no copayment, for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Pre-test information shall be provided to the committed person and informed consent obtained as required in subsection (d) of Section 3 and Section 5 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. The Department may conduct opt-out HIV testing as defined in Section 4 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. If the Department conducts opt-out HIV testing, the Department shall place signs in English, Spanish and other languages as needed in multiple, highly visible locations in the area where HIV testing is conducted informing inmates that they will be tested for HIV unless they refuse, and refusal or acceptance of testing shall be documented in the inmate's medical record. The Department shall follow procedures established by the Department of Public Health to conduct HIV testing and testing to confirm positive HIV test results. All testing must be conducted by medical personnel, but pre-test and other information may be provided by committed persons who have received appropriate training. The Department, in conjunction with the Department of Public Health, shall develop a plan that complies with the AIDS Confidentiality Act to deliver confidentially all positive or negative HIV test results to inmates or former inmates. Nothing in this Section shall require the Department to offer HIV testing to an inmate who is known to be infected with HIV, or who has been tested for HIV within the previous 180 days and whose documented HIV test result is available to the Department electronically. The testing provided under this subsection (d) shall consist of a test approved by the Illinois Department of Public Health to determine the presence of HIV infection, based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. If the test result is positive, a reliable supplemental test based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention shall be administered.

(Source: P.A. 97-244, eff. 8-4-11; 97-323, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-21-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-10-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-10-2)

Sec. 3-10-2. Examination of Persons Committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(a) A person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice shall be examined in regard to his medical, psychological, social, educational and vocational condition and history, including the use of alcohol and other drugs, the circumstances of his offense and any other information as the Department of Juvenile Justice may determine.

(a-5) Upon admission of a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department of Juvenile Justice must provide the person with appropriate information concerning HIV and AIDS in writing, verbally, or by video or other electronic means. The Department of Juvenile Justice shall develop the informational materials in consultation with the Department of Public Health. At the same time, the Department of Juvenile Justice also must offer the person the option of being tested, at no charge to the person, for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Pre-test information shall be provided to the committed person and informed consent obtained as required in subsection (d) of Section 3 and Section 5 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. The Department of Juvenile Justice may conduct opt-out HIV testing as defined in Section 4 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. If the Department conducts opt-out HIV testing, the Department shall place signs in English, Spanish and other languages as needed in multiple, highly visible locations in the area where HIV testing is conducted informing inmates that they will be tested for HIV unless they refuse, and refusal or acceptance of testing shall be documented in the inmate's medical record. The Department shall follow procedures established by the Department of Public Health to conduct HIV testing and testing to confirm positive HIV test results. All testing must be conducted by medical personnel, but pre-test and other information may be provided by committed persons who have received appropriate training. The Department, in conjunction with the Department of Public Health, shall develop a plan that complies with the AIDS Confidentiality Act to deliver confidentially all positive or negative HIV test results to inmates or former inmates. Nothing in this Section shall require the Department to offer HIV testing to an inmate who is known to be infected with HIV, or who has been tested for HIV within the previous 180 days and whose documented HIV test result is available to the Department electronically. The testing provided under this subsection (a-5) shall consist of a test approved by the Illinois Department of Public Health to determine the presence of HIV infection, based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. If the test result is positive, a reliable supplemental test based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention shall be administered.

Also upon admission of a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department of Juvenile Justice must inform the person of the Department's obligation to provide the person with medical care.

(b) Based on its examination, the Department of Juvenile Justice may exercise the following powers in developing a treatment program of any person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice:

(1) Require participation by him in vocational, physical, educational and corrective training and activities to return him to the community.

(2) Place him in any institution or facility of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(3) Order replacement or referral to the Parole and Pardon Board as often as it deems desirable. The Department of Juvenile Justice shall refer the person to the Parole and Pardon Board as required under Section 3-3-4.

(4) Enter into agreements with the Secretary of Human Services and the Director of Children and Family Services, with courts having probation officers, and with private agencies or institutions for separate care or special treatment of persons subject to the control of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(c) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall make periodic reexamination of all persons under the control of the Department of Juvenile Justice to determine whether existing orders in individual cases should be modified or continued. This examination shall be made with respect to every person at least once annually.

(d) A record of the treatment decision including any modification thereof and the reason therefor, shall be part of the committed person's master record file.

(e) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall by certified mail, return receipt requested, notify the parent, guardian or nearest relative of any person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice of his physical location and any change thereof.

(Source: P.A. 97-244, eff. 8-4-11; 97-323, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-1-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-14-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-14-1)

Sec. 3-14-1. Release from the Institution.

(a) Upon release of a person on parole, mandatory release, final discharge or pardon the Department shall return all property held for him, provide him with suitable clothing and procure necessary transportation for him to his designated place of residence and employment. It may provide such person with a grant of money for travel and expenses which may be paid in installments. The amount of the money grant shall be determined by the Department.

(a-1) The Department shall, before a wrongfully imprisoned person, as defined in Section 3-1-2 of this Code, is discharged from the Department, provide him or her with any documents necessary after discharge, including an identification card under subsection (e) of this Section.

(a-2) The Department of Corrections may establish and maintain, in any institution it administers, revolving funds to be known as "Travel and Allowances Revolving Funds". These revolving funds shall be used for advancing travel and expense allowances to committed, paroled, and discharged prisoners. The moneys paid into such revolving funds shall be from appropriations to the Department for Committed, Paroled, and Discharged Prisoners.

(b) (Blank).

(c) Except as otherwise provided in this Code, the Department shall establish procedures to provide written notification of any release of any person who has been convicted of a felony to the State's Attorney and sheriff of the county from which the offender was committed, and the State's Attorney and sheriff of the county into which the offender is to be paroled or released. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, the Department shall establish procedures to provide written notification to the proper law enforcement agency for any municipality of any release of any person who has been convicted of a felony if the arrest of the offender or the commission of the offense took place in the municipality, if the offender is to be paroled or released into the municipality, or if the offender resided in the municipality at the time of the commission of the offense. If a person convicted of a felony who is in the custody of the Department of Corrections or on parole or mandatory supervised release informs the Department that he or she has resided, resides, or will reside at an address that is a housing facility owned, managed, operated, or leased by a public housing agency, the Department must send written notification of that information to the public housing agency that owns, manages, operates, or leases the housing facility. The written notification shall, when possible, be given at least 14 days before release of the person from custody, or as soon thereafter as possible.

(c-1) (Blank).

(c-2) The Department shall establish procedures to provide notice to the Department of State Police of the release or discharge of persons convicted of violations of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a violation of the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act. The Department of State Police shall make this information available to local, State, or federal law enforcement agencies upon request.

(c-5) If a person on parole or mandatory supervised release becomes a resident of a facility licensed or regulated by the Department of Public Health, the Illinois Department of Public Aid, or the Illinois Department of Human Services, the Department of Corrections shall provide copies of the following information to the appropriate licensing or regulating Department and the licensed or regulated facility where the person becomes a resident:

(1) The mittimus and any pre-sentence investigation reports.

(2) The social evaluation prepared pursuant to Section 3-8-2.

(3) Any pre-release evaluation conducted pursuant to subsection (j) of Section 3-6-2.

(4) Reports of disciplinary infractions and dispositions.

(5) Any parole plan, including orders issued by the Prisoner Review Board, and any violation reports and dispositions.

(6) The name and contact information for the assigned parole agent and parole supervisor.

This information shall be provided within 3 days of the person becoming a resident of the facility.

(c-10) If a person on parole or mandatory supervised release becomes a resident of a facility licensed or regulated by the Department of Public Health, the Illinois Department of Public Aid, or the Illinois Department of Human Services, the Department of Corrections shall provide written notification of such residence to the following:

(1) The Prisoner Review Board.

(2) The chief of police and sheriff in the municipality and county in which the licensed facility is located.

The notification shall be provided within 3 days of the person becoming a resident of the facility.

(d) Upon the release of a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, final discharge or pardon, the Department shall provide such person with information concerning programs and services of the Illinois Department of Public Health to ascertain whether such person has been exposed to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any identified causative agent of Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS).

(e) Upon the release of a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, final discharge, pardon, or who has been wrongfully imprisoned, the Department shall provide the person who has met the criteria established by the Department with an identification card identifying the person as being on parole, mandatory supervised release, final discharge, pardon, or wrongfully imprisoned, as the case may be. The Department, in consultation with the Office of the Secretary of State, shall prescribe the form of the identification card, which may be similar to the form of the standard Illinois Identification Card. The Department shall inform the committed person that he or she may present the identification card to the Office of the Secretary of State upon application for a standard Illinois Identification Card in accordance with the Illinois Identification Card Act. The Department shall require the committed person to pay a $1 fee for the identification card.

For purposes of a committed person receiving an identification card issued by the Department under this subsection, the Department shall establish criteria that the committed person must meet before the card is issued. It is the sole responsibility of the committed person requesting the identification card issued by the Department to meet the established criteria. The person's failure to meet the criteria is sufficient reason to deny the committed person the identification card. An identification card issued by the Department under this subsection shall be valid for a period of time not to exceed 30 calendar days from the date the card is issued. The Department shall not be held civilly or criminally liable to anyone because of any act of any person utilizing a card issued by the Department under this subsection.

The Department shall adopt rules governing the issuance of identification cards to committed persons being released on parole, mandatory supervised release, final discharge, or pardon.

(Source: P.A. 96-1550, eff. 7-1-11; 97-560, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-3-11.)

Section 655. The County Jail Act is amended by changing Section 17.10 as follows:

(730 ILCS 125/17.10)

Sec. 17.10. Requirements in connection with HIV/AIDS.

(a) In each county other than Cook, during the medical admissions exam, the warden of the jail, a correctional officer at the jail, or a member of the jail medical staff must provide the prisoner with appropriate written information concerning human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The Department of Public Health and community-based organizations certified to provide HIV/AIDS testing must provide these informational materials to the warden at no cost to the county. The warden, a correctional officer, or a member of the jail medical staff must inform the prisoner of the option of being tested for infection with HIV by a certified local community-based agency or other available medical provider at no charge to the prisoner.

(b) In Cook County, during the medical admissions exam, an employee of the Cook County Health & Hospitals System must provide the prisoner with appropriate information in writing, verbally or by video or other electronic means concerning human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and must also provide the prisoner with option of testing for infection with HIV or any other identified causative agent of AIDS, as well as counseling in connection with such testing. The Cook County Health & Hospitals System may provide the inmate with opt-out human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing, as defined in Section 4 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act, unless the inmate refuses. If opt-out HIV testing is conducted, the Cook County Health & Hospitals System shall place signs in English, Spanish, and other languages as needed in multiple, highly visible locations in the area where HIV testing is conducted informing inmates that they will be tested for HIV unless they refuse, and refusal or acceptance of testing shall be documented in the inmate's medical record. Pre-test information shall be provided to the inmate and informed consent obtained from the inmate as required in subsection (d) of Section 3 and Section 5 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. The Cook County Health & Hospitals System shall follow procedures established by the Department of Public Health to conduct HIV testing and testing to confirm positive HIV test results. All aspects of HIV testing shall comply with the requirements of the AIDS Confidentiality Act, including delivery of test results, as determined by the Cook County Health & Hospitals System in consultation with the Illinois Department of Public Health. Nothing in this Section shall require the Cook County Health & Hospitals System to offer HIV testing to inmates who are known to be infected with HIV. The Department of Public Health and community-based organizations certified to provide HIV/AIDS testing may provide these informational materials to the Bureau at no cost to the county. The testing provided under this subsection (b) shall consist of a test approved by the Illinois Department of Public Health to determine the presence of HIV infection, based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. If the test result is positive, a reliable supplemental test based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention shall be administered.

(c) In each county, the warden of the jail must make appropriate written information concerning HIV/AIDS available to every visitor to the jail. This information must include information concerning persons or entities to contact for local counseling and testing. The Department of Public Health and community-based organizations certified to provide HIV/AIDS testing must provide these informational materials to the warden at no cost to the office of the county sheriff.

(d) Implementation of this Section is subject to appropriation.

(Source: P.A. 97-244, eff. 8-4-11; 97-323, eff. 8-12-11; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 660. The Sex Offender Registration Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(730 ILCS 150/7) (from Ch. 38, par. 227)

Sec. 7. Duration of registration. A person who has been adjudicated to be sexually dangerous and is later released or found to be no longer sexually dangerous and discharged, shall register for the period of his or her natural life. A sexually violent person or sexual predator shall register for the period of his or her natural life after conviction or adjudication if not confined to a penal institution, hospital, or other institution or facility, and if confined, for the period of his or her natural life after parole, discharge, or release from any such facility. A person who becomes subject to registration under paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Article who has previously been subject to registration under this Article shall register for the period currently required for the offense for which the person was previously registered if not confined to a penal institution, hospital, or other institution or facility, and if confined, for the same period after parole, discharge, or release from any such facility. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, a person who becomes subject to registration under this Article who has previously been subject to registration under this Article or under the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act or similar registration requirements of other jurisdictions shall register for the period of his or her natural life if not confined to a penal institution, hospital, or other institution or facility, and if confined, for the period of his or her natural life after parole, discharge, or release from any such facility. Any other person who is required to register under this Article shall be required to register for a period of 10 years after conviction or adjudication if not confined to a penal institution, hospital or any other institution or facility, and if confined, for a period of 10 years after parole, discharge or release from any such facility. A sex offender who is allowed to leave a county, State, or federal facility for the purposes of work release, education, or overnight visitations shall be required to register within 3 days of beginning such a program. Liability for registration terminates at the expiration of 10 years from the date of conviction or adjudication if not confined to a penal institution, hospital or any other institution or facility and if confined, at the expiration of 10 years from the date of parole, discharge or release from any such facility, providing such person does not, during that period, again become liable to register under the provisions of this Article. Reconfinement due to a violation of parole or other circumstances that relates to the original conviction or adjudication shall extend the period of registration to 10 years after final parole, discharge, or release. Reconfinement due to a violation of parole, a conviction reviving registration, or other circumstances that do not relate to the original conviction or adjudication shall toll the running of the balance of the 10-year period of registration, which shall not commence running until after final parole, discharge, or release. The Director of State Police, consistent with administrative rules, shall extend for 10 years the registration period of any sex offender, as defined in Section 2 of this Act, who fails to comply with the provisions of this Article. The registration period for any sex offender who fails to comply with any provision of the Act shall extend the period of registration by 10 years beginning from the first date of registration after the violation. If the registration period is extended, the Department of State Police shall send a registered letter to the law enforcement agency where the sex offender resides within 3 days after the extension of the registration period. The sex offender shall report to that law enforcement agency and sign for that letter. One copy of that letter shall be kept on file with the law enforcement agency of the jurisdiction where the sex offender resides and one copy shall be returned to the Department of State Police.

(Source: P.A. 97-154, eff. 1-1-12; 97-578, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 665. The Secure Residential Youth Care Facility Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 45-10 as follows:

(730 ILCS 175/45-10)

Sec. 45-10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Corrections.

"Director" means the Director of Corrections.

"Secure residential youth care facility" means a facility (1) where youth are placed and reside for care, treatment, and custody; (2) that is designed and operated so as to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, or from a building or distinct part of a building within the facility, are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the youth has freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility or within the perimeter of a building or distinct part of a building within the facility; and (3) that uses physically restrictive construction including, but not limited to, locks, bolts, gates, doors, bars, fences, and screen barriers. This definition does not include jails, prisons, detention centers, or other such correctional facilities; State operated mental health facilities; or facilities operating as psychiatric hospitals under a license pursuant to the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Youth" means an adjudicated delinquent who is 18 years of age or under and is transferred to the Department pursuant to Section 3-10-11 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 670. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Sections 2-203, 5-105, and 8-802 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/2-203) (from Ch. 110, par. 2-203)

Sec. 2-203. Service on individuals.

(a) Except as otherwise expressly provided, service of summons upon an individual defendant shall be made (1) by leaving a copy of the summons with the defendant personally, (2) by leaving a copy at the defendant's usual place of abode, with some person of the family or a person residing there, of the age of 13 years or upwards, and informing that person of the contents of the summons, provided the officer or other person making service shall also send a copy of the summons in a sealed envelope with postage fully prepaid, addressed to the defendant at his or her usual place of abode, or (3) as provided in Section 1-2-9.2 of the Illinois Municipal Code with respect to violation of an ordinance governing parking or standing of vehicles in cities with a population over 500,000. The certificate of the officer or affidavit of the person that he or she has sent the copy in pursuance of this Section is evidence that he or she has done so. No employee of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act shall obstruct an officer or other person making service in compliance with this Section.

(b) The officer, in his or her certificate or in a record filed and maintained in the Sheriff's office, or other person making service, in his or her affidavit or in a record filed and maintained in his or her employer's office, shall (1) identify as to sex, race, and approximate age the defendant or other person with whom the summons was left and (2) state the place where (whenever possible in terms of an exact street address) and the date and time of the day when the summons was left with the defendant or other person.

(c) Any person who knowingly sets forth in the certificate or affidavit any false statement, shall be liable in civil contempt. When the court holds a person in civil contempt under this Section, it shall award such damages as it determines to be just and, when the contempt is prosecuted by a private attorney, may award reasonable attorney's fees.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

(735 ILCS 5/5-105) (from Ch. 110, par. 5-105)

Sec. 5-105. Leave to sue or defend as an indigent person.

(a) As used in this Section:

(1) "Fees, costs, and charges" means payments imposed on a party in connection with the prosecution or defense of a civil action, including, but not limited to: filing fees; appearance fees; fees for service of process and other papers served either within or outside this State, including service by publication pursuant to Section 2-206 of this Code and publication of necessary legal notices; motion fees; jury demand fees; charges for participation in, or attendance at, any mandatory process or procedure including, but not limited to, conciliation, mediation, arbitration, counseling, evaluation, "Children First", "Focus on Children" or similar programs; fees for supplementary proceedings; charges for translation services; guardian ad litem fees; charges for certified copies of court documents; and all other processes and procedures deemed by the court to be necessary to commence, prosecute, defend, or enforce relief in a civil action.

(2) "Indigent person" means any person who meets one or more of the following criteria:

(i) He or she is receiving assistance under one or more of the following public benefits programs: Supplemental Security Income (SSI), Aid to the Aged, Blind and Disabled (AABD), Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF), Food Stamps, General Assistance, State Transitional Assistance, or State Children and Family Assistance.

(ii) His or her available income is 125% or less of the current poverty level as established by the United States Department of Health and Human Services, unless the applicant's assets that are not exempt under Part 9 or 10 of Article XII of this Code are of a nature and value that the court determines that the applicant is able to pay the fees, costs, and charges.

(iii) He or she is, in the discretion of the court, unable to proceed in an action without payment of fees, costs, and charges and whose payment of those fees, costs, and charges would result in substantial hardship to the person or his or her family.

(iv) He or she is an indigent person pursuant to Section 5-105.5 of this Code.

(b) On the application of any person, before, or after the commencement of an action, a court, on finding that the applicant is an indigent person, shall grant the applicant leave to sue or defend the action without payment of the fees, costs, and charges of the action.

(c) An application for leave to sue or defend an action as an indigent person shall be in writing and supported by the affidavit of the applicant or, if the applicant is a minor or an incompetent adult, by the affidavit of another person having knowledge of the facts. The contents of the affidavit shall be established by Supreme Court Rule. The court shall provide, through the office of the clerk of the court, simplified forms consistent with the requirements of this Section and applicable Supreme Court Rules to any person seeking to sue or defend an action who indicates an inability to pay the fees, costs, and charges of the action. The application and supporting affidavit may be incorporated into one simplified form. The clerk of the court shall post in a conspicuous place in the courthouse a notice no smaller than 8.5 x 11 inches, using no smaller than 30-point typeface printed in English and in Spanish, advising the public that they may ask the court for permission to sue or defend a civil action without payment of fees, costs, and charges. The notice shall be substantially as follows:

"If you are unable to pay the fees, costs, and charges of an action you may ask the court to allow you to proceed without paying them. Ask the clerk of the court for forms."

(d) The court shall rule on applications under this Section in a timely manner based on information contained in the application unless the court, in its discretion, requires the applicant to personally appear to explain or clarify information contained in the application. If the court finds that the applicant is an indigent person, the court shall enter an order permitting the applicant to sue or defend without payment of fees, costs, or charges. If the application is denied, the court shall enter an order to that effect stating the specific reasons for the denial. The clerk of the court shall promptly mail or deliver a copy of the order to the applicant.

(e) The clerk of the court shall not refuse to accept and file any complaint, appearance, or other paper presented by the applicant if accompanied by an application to sue or defend in forma pauperis, and those papers shall be considered filed on the date the application is presented. If the application is denied, the order shall state a date certain by which the necessary fees, costs, and charges must be paid. The court, for good cause shown, may allow an applicant whose application is denied to defer payment of fees, costs, and charges, make installment payments, or make payment upon reasonable terms and conditions stated in the order. The court may dismiss the claims or defenses of any party failing to pay the fees, costs, or charges within the time and in the manner ordered by the court. A determination concerning an application to sue or defend in forma pauperis shall not be construed as a ruling on the merits.

(f) The court may order an indigent person to pay all or a portion of the fees, costs, or charges waived pursuant to this Section out of moneys recovered by the indigent person pursuant to a judgment or settlement resulting from the civil action. However, nothing in is this Section shall be construed to limit the authority of a court to order another party to the action to pay the fees, costs, or charges of the action.

(g) A court, in its discretion, may appoint counsel to represent an indigent person, and that counsel shall perform his or her duties without fees, charges, or reward.

(h) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to affect the right of a party to sue or defend an action in forma pauperis without the payment of fees, costs, or charges, or the right of a party to court-appointed counsel, as authorized by any other provision of law or by the rules of the Illinois Supreme Court.

(i) The provisions of this Section are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 91-621, eff. 8-19-99; revised 11-21-11.)

(735 ILCS 5/8-802) (from Ch. 110, par. 8-802)

Sec. 8-802. Physician and patient. No physician or surgeon shall be permitted to disclose any information he or she may have acquired in attending any patient in a professional character, necessary to enable him or her professionally to serve the patient, except only (1) in trials for homicide when the disclosure relates directly to the fact or immediate circumstances of the homicide, (2) in actions, civil or criminal, against the physician for malpractice, (3) with the expressed consent of the patient, or in case of his or her death or disability, of his or her personal representative or other person authorized to sue for personal injury or of the beneficiary of an insurance policy on his or her life, health, or physical condition, or as authorized by Section 8-2001.5, (4) in all actions brought by or against the patient, his or her personal representative, a beneficiary under a policy of insurance, or the executor or administrator of his or her estate wherein the patient's physical or mental condition is an issue, (5) upon an issue as to the validity of a document as a will of the patient, (6) in any criminal action where the charge is either first degree murder by abortion, attempted abortion or abortion, (7) in actions, civil or criminal, arising from the filing of a report in compliance with the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, (8) to any department, agency, institution or facility which has custody of the patient pursuant to State statute or any court order of commitment, (9) in prosecutions where written results of blood alcohol tests are admissible pursuant to Section 11-501.4 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, (10) in prosecutions where written results of blood alcohol tests are admissible under Section 5-11a of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, (11) in criminal actions arising from the filing of a report of suspected terrorist offense in compliance with Section 29D-10(p)(7) of the Criminal Code of 1961, or (12) upon the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 38 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987; the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 25.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act; the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 22 of the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act; or the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 25.5 of the Workers' Compensation Act.

In the event of a conflict between the application of this Section and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act to a specific situation, the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act shall control.

(Source: P.A. 97-18, eff. 6-28-11; 97-623, eff. 11-23-11; revised 11-29-11.)

Section 675. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by changing Sections 15-5-15 and 15-5-46 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 25-5-30 as follows:

(735 ILCS 30/15-5-15)

Sec. 15-5-15. Eminent domain powers in ILCS Chapters 70 through 75. The following provisions of law may include express grants of the power to acquire property by condemnation or eminent domain:

(70 ILCS 5/8.02 and 5/9); Airport Authorities Act; airport authorities; for public airport facilities.

(70 ILCS 5/8.05 and 5/9); Airport Authorities Act; airport authorities; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 5/8.06 and 5/9); Airport Authorities Act; airport authorities; for reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 10/4); Interstate Airport Authorities Act; interstate airport authorities; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 15/3); Kankakee River Valley Area Airport Authority Act; Kankakee River Valley Area Airport Authority; for acquisition of land for airports.

(70 ILCS 200/2-20); Civic Center Code; civic center authorities; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/5-35); Civic Center Code; Aledo Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/10-15); Civic Center Code; Aurora Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/15-40); Civic Center Code; Benton Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/20-15); Civic Center Code; Bloomington Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/35-35); Civic Center Code; Brownstown Park District Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/40-35); Civic Center Code; Carbondale Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/55-60); Civic Center Code; Chicago South Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/60-30); Civic Center Code; Collinsville Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/70-35); Civic Center Code; Crystal Lake Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/75-20); Civic Center Code; Decatur Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/80-15); Civic Center Code; DuPage County Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/85-35); Civic Center Code; Elgin Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/95-25); Civic Center Code; Herrin Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/110-35); Civic Center Code; Illinois Valley Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/115-35); Civic Center Code; Jasper County Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/120-25); Civic Center Code; Jefferson County Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/125-15); Civic Center Code; Jo Daviess County Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/130-30); Civic Center Code; Katherine Dunham Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/145-35); Civic Center Code; Marengo Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/150-35); Civic Center Code; Mason County Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/155-15); Civic Center Code; Matteson Metropolitan Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/160-35); Civic Center Code; Maywood Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/165-35); Civic Center Code; Melrose Park Metropolitan Exposition Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/170-20); Civic Center Code; certain Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authorities; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 200/180-35); Civic Center Code; Normal Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/185-15); Civic Center Code; Oak Park Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/195-35); Civic Center Code; Ottawa Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/200-15); Civic Center Code; Pekin Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/205-15); Civic Center Code; Peoria Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/210-35); Civic Center Code; Pontiac Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/215-15); Civic Center Code; Illinois Quad City Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/220-30); Civic Center Code; Quincy Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/225-35); Civic Center Code; Randolph County Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/230-35); Civic Center Code; River Forest Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/235-40); Civic Center Code; Riverside Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/245-35); Civic Center Code; Salem Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/255-20); Civic Center Code; Springfield Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority; for grounds, centers, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/260-35); Civic Center Code; Sterling Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/265-20); Civic Center Code; Vermilion County Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/270-35); Civic Center Code; Waukegan Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/275-35); Civic Center Code; West Frankfort Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/280-20); Civic Center Code; Will County Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority; for grounds, centers, and parking.

(70 ILCS 210/5); Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act; Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority; for general purposes, including quick-take power.

(70 ILCS 405/22.04); Soil and Water Conservation Districts Act; soil and water conservation districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 410/10 and 410/12); Conservation District Act; conservation districts; for open space, wildland, scenic roadway, pathway, outdoor recreation, or other conservation benefits.

(70 ILCS 503/25); Chanute-Rantoul National Aviation Center Redevelopment Commission Act; Chanute-Rantoul National Aviation Center Redevelopment Commission; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 507/15); Fort Sheridan Redevelopment Commission Act; Fort Sheridan Redevelopment Commission; for general purposes or to carry out comprehensive or redevelopment plans.

(70 ILCS 520/8); Southwestern Illinois Development Authority Act; Southwestern Illinois Development Authority; for general purposes, including quick-take power.

(70 ILCS 605/4-17 and 605/5-7); Illinois Drainage Code; drainage districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 615/5 and 615/6); Chicago Drainage District Act; corporate authorities; for construction and maintenance of works.

(70 ILCS 705/10); Fire Protection District Act; fire protection districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 750/20); Flood Prevention District Act; flood prevention districts; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 805/6); Downstate Forest Preserve District Act; certain forest preserve districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 805/18.8); Downstate Forest Preserve District Act; certain forest preserve districts; for recreational and cultural facilities.

(70 ILCS 810/8); Cook County Forest Preserve District Act; Forest Preserve District of Cook County; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 810/38); Cook County Forest Preserve District Act; Forest Preserve District of Cook County; for recreational facilities.

(70 ILCS 910/15 and 910/16); Hospital District Law; hospital districts; for hospitals or hospital facilities.

(70 ILCS 915/3); Illinois Medical District Act; Illinois Medical District Commission; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 915/4.5); Illinois Medical District Act; Illinois Medical District Commission; quick-take power for the Illinois State Police Forensic Science Laboratory (obsolete).

(70 ILCS 920/5); Tuberculosis Sanitarium District Act; tuberculosis sanitarium districts; for tuberculosis sanitariums.

(70 ILCS 925/20); Mid-Illinois Medical District Act; Mid-Illinois Medical District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 930/20); Mid-America Medical District Act; Mid-America Medical District Commission; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 935/20); Roseland Community Medical District Act; medical district; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1005/7); Mosquito Abatement District Act; mosquito abatement districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1105/8); Museum District Act; museum districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1205/7-1); Park District Code; park districts; for streets and other purposes.

(70 ILCS 1205/8-1); Park District Code; park districts; for parks.

(70 ILCS 1205/9-2 and 1205/9-4); Park District Code; park districts; for airports and landing fields.

(70 ILCS 1205/11-2 and 1205/11-3); Park District Code; park districts; for State land abutting public water and certain access rights.

(70 ILCS 1205/11.1-3); Park District Code; park districts; for harbors.

(70 ILCS 1225/2); Park Commissioners Land Condemnation Act; park districts; for street widening.

(70 ILCS 1230/1 and 1230/1-a); Park Commissioners Water Control Act; park districts; for parks, boulevards, driveways, parkways, viaducts, bridges, or tunnels.

(70 ILCS 1250/2); Park Commissioners Street Control (1889) Act; park districts; for boulevards or driveways.

(70 ILCS 1290/1); Park District Aquarium and Museum Act; municipalities or park districts; for aquariums or museums.

(70 ILCS 1305/2); Park District Airport Zoning Act; park districts; for restriction of the height of structures.

(70 ILCS 1310/5); Park District Elevated Highway Act; park districts; for elevated highways.

(70 ILCS 1505/15); Chicago Park District Act; Chicago Park District; for parks and other purposes.

(70 ILCS 1505/25.1); Chicago Park District Act; Chicago Park District; for parking lots or garages.

(70 ILCS 1505/26.3); Chicago Park District Act; Chicago Park District; for harbors.

(70 ILCS 1570/5); Lincoln Park Commissioners Land Condemnation Act; Lincoln Park Commissioners; for land and interests in land, including riparian rights.

(70 ILCS 1801/30); Alexander-Cairo Port District Act; Alexander-Cairo Port District; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1805/8); Havana Regional Port District Act; Havana Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1810/7); Illinois International Port District Act; Illinois International Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1815/13); Illinois Valley Regional Port District Act; Illinois Valley Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1820/4); Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port District Act; Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards or reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1820/5); Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port District Act; Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1825/4.9); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1825/4.10); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet Regional Port District; for reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1825/4.18); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet Regional Port District; for removal of hazards from ports and terminals.

(70 ILCS 1825/5); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1830/7.1); Kaskaskia Regional Port District Act; Kaskaskia Regional Port District; for removal of hazards from ports and terminals.

(70 ILCS 1830/14); Kaskaskia Regional Port District Act; Kaskaskia Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1831/30); Massac-Metropolis Port District Act; Massac-Metropolis Port District; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1835/5.10); Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act; Mt. Carmel Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1835/5.11); Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act; Mt. Carmel Regional Port District; for reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1835/6); Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act; Mt. Carmel Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1837/30); Ottawa Port District Act; Ottawa Port District; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1845/4.9); Seneca Regional Port District Act; Seneca Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1845/4.10); Seneca Regional Port District Act; Seneca Regional Port District; for reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1845/5); Seneca Regional Port District Act; Seneca Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1850/4); Shawneetown Regional Port District Act; Shawneetown Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards or reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1850/5); Shawneetown Regional Port District Act; Shawneetown Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1855/4); Southwest Regional Port District Act; Southwest Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards or reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1855/5); Southwest Regional Port District Act; Southwest Regional Port District; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1860/4); Tri-City Regional Port District Act; Tri-City Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1860/5); Tri-City Regional Port District Act; Tri-City Regional Port District; for the development of facilities.

(70 ILCS 1863/11); Upper Mississippi River International Port District Act; Upper Mississippi River International Port District; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1865/4.9); Waukegan Port District Act; Waukegan Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1865/4.10); Waukegan Port District Act; Waukegan Port District; for restricting the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1865/5); Waukegan Port District Act; Waukegan Port District; for the development of facilities.

(70 ILCS 1870/8); White County Port District Act; White County Port District; for the development of facilities.

(70 ILCS 1905/16); Railroad Terminal Authority Act; Railroad Terminal Authority (Chicago); for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1915/25); Grand Avenue Railroad Relocation Authority Act; Grand Avenue Railroad Relocation Authority; for general purposes, including quick-take power (now obsolete).

(70 ILCS 2105/9b); River Conservancy Districts Act; river conservancy districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 2105/10a); River Conservancy Districts Act; river conservancy districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2205/15); Sanitary District Act of 1907; sanitary districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2205/18); Sanitary District Act of 1907; sanitary districts; for improvements and works.

(70 ILCS 2205/19); Sanitary District Act of 1907; sanitary districts; for access to property.

(70 ILCS 2305/8); North Shore Sanitary District Act; North Shore Sanitary District; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2305/15); North Shore Sanitary District Act; North Shore Sanitary District; for improvements.

(70 ILCS 2405/7.9); Sanitary District Act of 1917; Sanitary District of Decatur; for carrying out agreements to sell, convey, or disburse treated wastewater to a private entity. (70 ILCS 2405/8); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2405/15); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for improvements.

(70 ILCS 2405/16.9 and 2405/16.10); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for waterworks.

(70 ILCS 2405/17.2); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for public sewer and water utility treatment works.

(70 ILCS 2405/18); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for dams or other structures to regulate water flow.

(70 ILCS 2605/8); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2605/16); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; quick-take power for improvements.

(70 ILCS 2605/17); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; for bridges.

(70 ILCS 2605/35); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; for widening and deepening a navigable stream.

(70 ILCS 2805/10); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2805/24); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for improvements.

(70 ILCS 2805/26i and 2805/26j); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for drainage systems.

(70 ILCS 2805/27); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for dams or other structures to regulate water flow.

(70 ILCS 2805/32k); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for water supply.

(70 ILCS 2805/32l); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for waterworks.

(70 ILCS 2905/2-7); Metro-East Sanitary District Act of 1974; Metro-East Sanitary District; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2905/2-8); Metro-East Sanitary District Act of 1974; Metro-East Sanitary District; for access to property.

(70 ILCS 3010/10); Sanitary District Revenue Bond Act; sanitary districts; for sewerage systems.

(70 ILCS 3205/12); Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act; Illinois Sports Facilities Authority; quick-take power for its corporate purposes (obsolete).

(70 ILCS 3405/16); Surface Water Protection District Act; surface water protection districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 3605/7); Metropolitan Transit Authority Act; Chicago Transit Authority; for transportation systems.

(70 ILCS 3605/8); Metropolitan Transit Authority Act; Chicago Transit Authority; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 3605/10); Metropolitan Transit Authority Act; Chicago Transit Authority; for general purposes, including railroad property.

(70 ILCS 3610/3 and 3610/5); Local Mass Transit District Act; local mass transit districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 3615/2.13); Regional Transportation Authority Act; Regional Transportation Authority; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 3705/8 and 3705/12); Public Water District Act; public water districts; for waterworks.

(70 ILCS 3705/23a); Public Water District Act; public water districts; for sewerage properties.

(70 ILCS 3705/23e); Public Water District Act; public water districts; for combined waterworks and sewerage systems.

(70 ILCS 3715/6); Water Authorities Act; water authorities; for facilities to ensure adequate water supply.

(70 ILCS 3715/27); Water Authorities Act; water authorities; for access to property.

(75 ILCS 5/4-7); Illinois Local Library Act; boards of library trustees; for library buildings.

(75 ILCS 16/30-55.80); Public Library District Act of 1991; public library districts; for general purposes.

(75 ILCS 65/1 and 65/3); Libraries in Parks Act; corporate authorities of city or park district, or board of park commissioners; for free public library buildings.

(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; incorporates 96-1522, eff. 2-14-11, and 97-259, eff. 8-5-11; revised 9-21-11.)

(735 ILCS 30/15-5-46)

Sec. 15-5-46. Eminent domain powers in new Acts. The following provisions of law may include express grants of the power to acquire property by condemnation or eminent domain:

(Reserved). Ottawa Port District Act; Ottawa Port District; for general purposes.

Roseland Community Medical District Act; medical district; for general purposes.

(Source: P.A. 96-1522, eff. 2-14-11; revised 8-11-11.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-30)

Sec. 25-5-30. Quick-take; Village of Johnsburg. Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of no longer than one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, by the Village of Johnsburg, McHenry County for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of constructing a METRA rail station and rail storage yard:

LEGAL DESCRIPTION

THAT PART OF SECTION 15 AND 22, IN TOWNSHIP 45 NORTH, RANGE 8 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: BEGINNING AT THE INTERSECTION OF THE WESTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF THE UNION PACIFIC RAILROAD (FORMERLY THE CHICAGO AND NORTHWESTERN RAILWAY) AND THE NORTHEASTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF FEDERAL AID ROUTE 420 (ALSO KNOWN AS FEDERAL AID ROUTE 201); THENCE NORTH 61 DEGREES 54 MINUTES 08 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG SAID NORTHEASTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 503.21 FEET TO A BEND POINT IN SAID NORTHEASTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE; THENCE NORTH 63 DEGREES 49 MINUTES 56 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID NORTHEASTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 837.29 FEET TO A BEND POINT IN SAID NORTHEASTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE; THENCE NORTH 64 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 38 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID NORTHEASTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 81.77 FEET; THENCE NORTH 11 DEGREES 48 MINUTES 49 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 737.72 FEET; THENCE NORTH 35 DEGREES 16 MINUTES 32 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 1001.50 FEET; THENCE NORTH 33 DEGREES 34 MINUTES 33 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 1019.96 FEET TO A POINT OF CURVATURE; THENCE NORTHERLY ALONG A CURVE, CONCAVE TO THE EAST, HAVING A RADIUS OF 600.00 FEET, AN ARC LENGTH OF 346.77 FEET TO A POINT OF TANGENCY, THE CHORD OF SAID CURVE HAVING A LENGTH OF 341.97 FEET AND A BEARING OF NORTH 17 DEGREES 01 MINUTES 07 SECONDS WEST; THENCE NORTH 00 DEGREES 27 MINUTES 41 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 518.80 FEET TO THE POINT OF INTERSECTION WITH A LINE 80.00 FEET SOUTH OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE NORTH LINE OF THE SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION 15; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 04 MINUTES 23 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID LINE 80.00 FEET SOUTH OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE NORTH LINE OF THE SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION 15, A DISTANCE OF 323.79 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 00 DEGREES 27 MINUTES 41 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 545.39 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 33 DEGREES 34 MINUTES 33 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 563.07 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 86 DEGREES 02 MINUTES 35 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 289.88 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 3 DEGREES 57 MINUTES 25 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 242.15 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 51 DEGREES 02 MINUTES 02 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 159.41 FEET; THENCE NORTH 88 DEGREES 00 MINUTES 32 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 750.85 FEET TO THE POINT OF INTERSECTION WITH SAID WESTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF THE UNION PACIFIC RAILROAD; THENCE SOUTH 19 DEGREES 11 MINUTES 49 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WESTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 2677.76 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN McHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

(Source: P.A. 96-1525, eff. 2-14-11.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-35)

Sec. 25-5-35 25-5-30. Quick-take; City of Country Club Hills. Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of no longer than one year from the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly by the City of Country Club Hills for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of building streets, roadways, or other public improvements to serve the City's I-57/I-80 Tax Increment Financing District:

That part of Lots 2, 4 through 10 (both inclusive) and 16 in Gatling Country Club Hills Resubdivision being a Resubdivision of part of Gatling Country Club Hills Subdivision in the Northeast Quarter of Section 27, Township 36 North, Range 13 East of the Third Principal Meridian, South of the Indian Boundary Line, according to the plat thereof recorded June 9, 2004 as Document No. 0416145163, taken as a tract and described as follows: Beginning at the Northwesterly corner of said Lot 10; thence North 89 Degrees 58 Minutes 52 Seconds West along the North line of said Lot 16, 100.47 feet to the Northeast corner of said Lot 16; thence South 00 Degrees 01 Minute 08 Seconds West along the West line of Lot 16, 24.00 feet; thence North 89 Degrees 58 Minutes 52 Seconds West, 12.20 Feet; thence South 11 Degrees 27 Minutes 13 Seconds East, 46.94 feet; thence South 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 31 Seconds East, 132.33 feet to a point of curve; thence Southerly along a curve concave Westerly having a radius of 37.73 feet and a central angle of 50 Degrees 50 Minutes 17 Seconds a distance of 30.81 feet to a point of tangency, thence South 50 Degrees 05 Minutes 28 Seconds West, 30.65 feet; thence South 90 Degrees 00 Minutes 00 Seconds West, 1177.04 feet to the West line of said Resubdivision; thence South 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 00 Seconds West along said last described line, 45.00 feet; thence South 90 Degrees 00 Minutes 00 Seconds East, 1192.95 feet; thence South 45 Degrees 00 Minutes 00 Seconds East, 54.13 feet; thence South 00 Degrees 03 Minutes 38 Seconds East, 18.73 feet; thence North 89 Degrees 56 Minutes 22 Seconds East, 45.00 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 03 Minutes 38 Seconds West, 20.23 feet; thence North 45 Degrees 00 Minutes 00 Seconds, 43.46 feet; thence North 90 Degrees 00 Minutes 00 Seconds East, 163.27 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 00 Seconds West, 50.00 feet; thence North 89 Degrees 59 Minutes 59 Seconds West, 69.27 feet; thence North 85 Degrees 04 Minutes 24 Seconds West, 51.65 feet; thence North 74 Degrees 17 Minutes 00 Seconds West, 26.77 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 00 Seconds East, 8.29 feet; thence North 45 Degrees 00 Minutes 00 Seconds West, 43.54 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 00 Seconds East, 133.54 feet; thence North 19 Degrees 33 Minutes 58 Seconds East, 69.77 feet to the point of beginning, all in Cook County, Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 96-1537, eff. 3-4-11; revised 4-18-11.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-40)

Sec. 25-5-40 25-5-30. Quick-take; Will County. Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly by Will County for the acquisition of property to be used for the reconstruction of the Weber Road (County Highway 88) and Renwick Road (County Highway 36) intersection, as follows:

PARCEL 0001

The east 30.00 feet of that part of Lot 6 in McGilvray Acres, being a subdivision of part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded December 15, 1965, as Document No. R65-11631, lying southerly of a line described as follows: Beginning at a point on the west line of Lot 6, said point being 110.00 feet south of the north line of said lot; thence southeasterly to a point on the east line of said lot, said point being 114.00 feet south of the north line of said Lot 6

Together with

That part of the east half of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian lying south of the south line (and easterly projection thereof) of aforementioned Lot 6 in McGilvray Acres, lying northerly of the north line of McGilvray Drive, and lying east of the east line of McGilvray Acres Unit No. 3, according to the plat thereof recorded May 25, 1973, as Document No. R73-14934 bounded by a line described as follows, to wit: Beginning at the intersection of the west line of Weber Road as dedicated by Document No. R78-19275, recorded May 25, 1978 with the north line of McGilvray Drive as dedicated by Document No. R69-20184, recorded October 30, 1969; thence South 89 Degrees 25 Minutes 29 Seconds West,(on an assumed bearing) along the north line of said McGilvray Drive, 70.00 feet; thence North 44 Degrees 42 Minutes 59 Seconds East, 71.07 feet to a point in the west line of the east 70.00 feet of the Northeast Quarter of aforesaid Section 19; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East, along said west line, 46.02 to a point in the south line of aforementioned Lot 6 in McGilvray Acres; thence North 89 Degrees 39 Minutes 49 Seconds East, along said south line, 20.00 feet to a point in the aforementioned west line of Weber Road; thence South 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds West, along said west line, 95.94 feet to the point of beginning. All situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 6,686 square feet, (0.154 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0002

The east 30.00 feet of the north 114.00 feet of Lot 6 in McGilvray Acres, being a subdivision of part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded December 15, 1965, as Document No. R65-11631, in Will County, Illinois, excepting therefrom that part of the north 114.00 feet of said Lot 6 described as beginning at a point on the west line of said Lot 6, said point being 110 feet south of the north line of said lot; thence southeasterly to a point on the east line of said lot, said point being 114 feet south of the north line of said lot; thence west parallel to the north line of said lot, 290 feet to the west line of said lot; thence north 4 feet to the point of beginning. Situated in the County of Will and State of Illinois.

Said parcel containing 3,414 square feet, (0.078 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0004

The east 30.00 feet of Lot 4 in McGilvray Acres, being a subdivision of part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded December 15, 1965, as Document No. R65-11631. Situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 3,960 square feet, (0.091 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0005

The east 30.00 feet of Lot 3 in McGilvray Acres, being a subdivision of part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded December 15, 1965, as Document No. R65-11631. Situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 3,960 square feet, (0.091 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0006

The east 30.00 feet of Lot 2 in McGilvray Acres, being a subdivision of part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded December 15, 1965, as Document No. R65-11631. Situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 3,960 square feet, (0.091 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0007

The east 30.00 feet of Lot 1 in McGilvray Acres, being a subdivision of part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded December 15, 1965, as Document No. R65-11631. Situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 3,960 square feet, (0.091 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0007 T.E.

The south 50.00 feet of the north 64.00 feet of the west 10.00 feet of the east 40.00 feet of Lot 1 in McGilvray Acres, being a subdivision of part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded December 15, 1965, as Document No. R65-11631. Situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 500 square feet, (.011 Acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0008

The west 20.00 feet of the east 70.00 feet of the south 132.00 feet of the north 1,056.00 feet of the east 330.00 feet of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 2,640 square feet, (0.061 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0008 T.E.

That part of the south 132.00 feet of the north 1,056.00 feet of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, bounded by a line described as follows, to wit: Commencing at the intersection of the south line of the north 1,056.00 feet of the aforesaid Northeast Quarter with the west line of Weber Road according to Document Numbers R83-13447 and R85-05784, said line also being the west line of the east 50.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter; thence South 89 Degrees 39 Minutes 49 Seconds West, along the south line of the north 1,056.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter, 20.00 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East, parallel with the east line of said Northeast Quarter, 5.00 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence South 89 Degrees 39 Minutes 49 Seconds West, parallel with the north line of said Northeast Quarter, 10.00 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East, parallel with the east line of said Northeast Quarter, 50.00 feet; thence North 89 Degrees 39 Minutes 49 Seconds East, parallel with the north line of said Northeast Quarter, 10.00 feet; thence South 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds West, parallel with the east line of said Northeast Quarter, 50.00 feet to the Point of Beginning, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 500 square feet, (0.011 Acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0009

The west 20.00 feet of the east 70.00 feet of the south 132.00 feet of the north 924.00 feet of the east 330.00 feet of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 2,640 square feet, (0.061 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0010

The west 20.00 feet of the east 70.00 feet of the south 120.00 feet of the north 792.00 feet of the east 330.00 feet of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 2,400 square feet, (0.055 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0011

The west 20.00 feet of the east 70.00 feet of the south 132.00 feet of the north 672.00 feet of the east 330.00 feet of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 2,640 square feet, (0.061 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0012

The west 20.00 feet of the east 70.00 feet of the south 144.00 feet of the north 540.00 feet of the east 330.00 feet of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 2,880 square feet, (0.066 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0013

The west 20.00 feet of the east 70.00 feet of the south 132.00 feet of the north 396.00 feet of the east 330.00 feet of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 2,640 square feet, (0.061 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0014

That part of the North 264.00 feet of the East 330.00 feet of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, bounded by a line described as follows: Beginning at the point of intersection of the south line of the north 264.00 feet of the East 330.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter with the west line of the East 50.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter, said line being the west line of Weber Road according to Document R78-31739; thence South 89 Degrees 39 Minutes 49 Seconds West, on an assumed bearing, along the south line of the North 264.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter, 20.00 feet to a point in the west line of the East 70.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter; thence North 0 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East, along the west line of the East 70.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter, 188.23 feet; thence North 45 Degrees 12 Minutes 33 Seconds West, 37.07 feet to a point in the south line of Renwick Road, according to Document No. 538055; thence South 89 Degrees 34 Minutes 24 Seconds West, along said south line, 233.70 feet to the west line of the East 330.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter; thence North 0 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East, along said line, 49.87 feet to the north line of the Northeast Quarter of said Section 19; thence North 89 Degrees 39 Minutes 49 Seconds East, along said north line, 280.01 feet to the aforementioned west line of Weber Road; thence South 0 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds West, along said west line, 264.00 feet to the point of beginning, all in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.426 Acres of land, more or less, of which 0.319 Acres of land, more or less has been previously dedicated for roadway purposes by Document No. 538055.

PARCEL 0014 T.E.

That part of the North 264.00 feet of the East 330.00 feet of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, bounded by a line described as follows: Commencing at the intersection of the west line of the East 330.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter with the north line of said Northeast Quarter; thence, on an assumed bearing, South 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds West, along the west line of the East 330.00 of said Northeast Quarter, 49.87 feet to a point in the south line of Renwick Road according to Document No. 538055; thence North 89 Degrees 34 Minutes 24 Seconds East, along the south line of Renwick Road aforesaid, 50.00 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing North 89 Degrees 34 Minutes 24 Seconds East, along the south line of Renwick Road aforesaid, 65.00 feet; thence South 00 Degrees 25 Minutes 36 Seconds East, perpendicular to the last described course, 10.00 feet; thence South 89 Degrees 34 Minutes 24 Seconds West, parallel with the south line of Renwick Road aforesaid, 65.00 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 25 Minutes 36 Seconds West, perpendicular to the last described course, 10.00 feet to the Point of Beginning, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 650 square feet, (0.015 Acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0014 T.E.-A

That part of the North 264.00 feet of the East 330.00 feet of the Northeast Quarter of Section 19, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, bounded by a line described as follows: Beginning at the intersection of the south line of the North 264.00 feet of the East 330.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter with the west line of the East 70.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter; thence South 89 Degrees 39 Minutes 49 Seconds West, along the south line of said North 264.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter, 10.00 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East, along the west line of the East 80.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter, 65.00 feet; thence North 89 Degrees 39 Minutes 49 Seconds East, perpendicular to the last described course, 5.00 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East, along the west line of the East 75.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter, 121.18 feet; thence North 45 Degrees 12 Minutes 33 Seconds West, 39.95 feet to a point in the south line of Renwick Road according to Document No. 538055; thence North 89 Degrees 34 Minutes 24 Seconds East, along said south line of Renwick Road, 7.04 feet; thence South 45 Degrees 12 Minutes 33 Seconds East, 37.07 feet to a point in the west line of the East 70.00 feet of the aforesaid Northeast Quarter of said Section 19; thence South 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds West, along said west line, 188.23 feet to the point of beginning, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 1,454 square feet (0.033 Acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0022

The south 65.00 feet of the west 60.00 feet of the East Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 17, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian. All situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.089 acres, more or less of which 0.069 acres, more or less, has been previously dedicated for roadway purposes by Document No.'s 538058 and 538059.

PARCEL 0023

The south 65.00 feet of the east 440.00 feet of the west 500.00 feet of the East Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 17, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian. All situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.657 acres, more or less of which 0.509 acres, more or less, has been previously dedicated for roadway purposes by Document No.'s 538058 and 538059.

PARCEL 0024

That part of Lot C in Lakewood Falls Unit 7C being a subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 18, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 26, 2002 as Document Number R2002-138021 bounded by a line described as follows, to wit: Beginning at the southwest corner of said Lot C; thence North 0 Degrees 25 Minutes 36 Seconds West(assumed)(North 02 Degrees 04 Minutes 21 Seconds West, record) along the west line of said Lot C, also being the east line of Zachary Drive, 31.21 feet; thence northerly along the arc of a curve right, tangent to the last described course and having a radius of 470.00 feet, the chord of which bears North 01 Degrees 19 Minutes 45 seconds East, an arc distance of 28.81 feet; thence South 44 Degrees 54 Minutes 59 Seconds East, 70.09 feet to a point in the north line of the south 10.00 feet of said Lot C; thence North 89 Degrees 34 Minutes 24 Seconds East (North 87 Degrees 55 Minutes 39 Seconds East, record), parallel with the north line of Renwick Road, as dedicated by aforementioned Document Number R2002-138021, a distance of 225.90 feet to a point in the east line of said Lot C; thence South 0 Degrees 00 Minutes 11 Seconds East (South 1 Degree 38 Minutes 56 Seconds East, record) along said east line, 10.00 feet to the southeast corner of said Lot C, also being the north line of Renwick Road, aforesaid; thence South 89 Degrees 34 Minutes 24 Seconds West (South 87 Degrees 55 Minutes 39 Seconds West, record), along said north line of Renwick Road, 275.82 feet to the point of beginning. All situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 4,022 Sq. Ft., (0.092 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0025

That part of Lot B in Lakewood Falls Unit 7C being a subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 18, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 26, 2002 as Document Number R2002-138021 bounded by a line described as follows, to wit: Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot B; thence South 89 Degrees 34 Minutes 24 Seconds West (assumed bearing)(South 87 Degrees 55 Minutes 39 Seconds West, record), along the south line of said Lot B, also being the north line of Renwick Road, 206.11 feet; thence North 0 Degrees 25 Minutes 36 Seconds West, perpendicular to the last described course, 10.00 feet to the north line of the south 10.00 feet of said Lot B; thence North 89 Degrees 34 Minutes 24 Seconds East, parallel with the north line of Renwick Road, aforesaid, 156.11 feet; thence North 45 Degrees 01 Minutes 05 Seconds East, 71.27 feet to a point in the east line of said Lot B, also being the west line of Zachary Drive; thence southerly along the arc of a curve left, along the West line of said Zachary Drive, not tangent to the last described course, having a radius of 530.00 feet, the chord of which bears South 01 Degrees 07 Minutes 49 Seconds West, an arc distance of 28.80 feet; thence South 0 Degrees 25 Minutes 36 Seconds East, tangent to the last described curve, continuing along said west line of Zachary Drive, 31.21 feet to the point of beginning. All situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 3,299 Sq. Ft., (0.076 acres) of land, more or less

PARCEL 0026

That part of the north 258.71 feet of the west 259.71 feet of the Northwest Quarter of Section 20, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, bounded by a line described as follows: Beginning at the point intersection of the south line of Renwick Road as dedicated by Document Number 538061, recorded January 15, 1941 with the east line of the west 259.71 feet of said Northwest Quarter, said point being 49.40 feet south from the north line of said Northwest Quarter when measured along the east line of the west 259.71 feet of said Northwest Quarter; thence South 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds West, on an assumed bearing, parallel with the west line of said Northwest Quarter, along the east line of the west 259.71 feet of said Northwest Quarter, 10.60 feet to a point in the south line of the north 60.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter; thence South 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 14 Seconds West, parallel with the north line of said Northwest Quarter, along the south line of the north 60.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter, 167.59 feet; thence South 44 Degrees 45 Minutes 52 Seconds West, 31.43 feet to a point in the east line of the west 70.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter; thence South 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds West, parallel with the west line of said Northwest Quarter, along the east line of the west 70.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter, 176.59 feet to a point in the south line of the north 258.71 feet of said Northwest Quarter; thence South 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 14 Seconds West, parallel with the north line of said Northwest Quarter, along the south line of the north 258.71 feet of said Northwest Quarter, 10.00 feet to a point in the east line of the west 60.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter said line being the east line of Weber Road according to the Plat of Dedication to the Will County Highway Department recorded October 28, 1996 as Document R96-096956; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East, along said east line, 174.35 feet (173.72 feet record); thence North 44 Degrees 46 Minutes 10 Seconds East, along the southeasterly line of Weber Road according to aforementioned Document R96-0969056, a distance of 49.71 feet to a point in the south line of Renwick Road according to aforementioned Document Number 538061; thence South 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 52 Seconds West, along said line, 45.00 feet to the east line of the west 50.00 feet of said Section 20, also being the east line of Weber Road according to Condemnation Proceedings No. 81ED22 in the Circuit Court of the 12th Judicial District, Will County as adjudicated on February 18, 1983; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East, along said line, 49.36 feet to the North line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 20; thence North 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 14 Seconds West, along said north line, 209.72 feet to the east line of the west 259.71 feet of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 20; thence South 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds West, along said line, 49.40 feet to the point of beginning. All situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.324 acres of land more or less, of which 0.238 acres, more or less, has been previously dedicated for roadway purposes by Document No. 538061.

PARCEL 0026 T.E.

That part of the north 258.71 feet of the west 259.71 feet of the Northwest Quarter of Section 20, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, bounded by a line described as follows: Commencing at the point intersection of the south line of the north 258.71 feet of said Northwest Quarter with the east line of the west 70.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter, when measured perpendicular to the north and west lines thereof; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East, along the east line of the west 70.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter, 25.48 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 89 Degrees 59 Minutes 31 Seconds East, perpendicular to the last described course, 10.00 feet, thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East, along the east line of the west 80.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter, 65.00 feet; thence North 89 Degrees 59 Minutes 31 Seconds West, perpendicular to the last described course, 5.00 feet to a point in the east line of the west 75.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East, along the east line of the west 75.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter, 84.04 feet; thence North 44 Degrees 45 Minutes 52 Seconds East, 27.31 feet to a point in the south line of the north 65.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter of said Section 20; thence North 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 14 Seconds East, along said line, 45.10 feet; thence South 00 Degrees 28 Minutes 46 Seconds East, perpendicular to the last described course, 5.00 feet; thence North 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 14 Seconds East, perpendicular to the last described course, 65.00 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 28 Minutes 46 Seconds West, perpendicular to the last described course, 5.00 feet to a point in the south line of the north 65.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter of said Section 20; thence North 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 14 Seconds East, along said line, 55.38 feet to a point in the east line of the west 259.71 feet of said Northwest Quarter of said Section 20; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East, along said east line, 5.00 feet to a point in the south line of the north 60.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter of said Section 20; thence South 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 14 Seconds West, along said south line of the north 60.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter of said Section 20, a distance of 167.59 feet; thence South 44 Degrees 45 Minutes 52 Seconds West, 31.43 feet to a point in the east line of the west 70.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter of said Section 20; thence South 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds West, along said east line of the west 70.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter of said Section 20, a distance of 151.11 feet to the point of beginning. All situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 2,380 square feet, (0.055 acres) of land more or less

PARCEL 0028

The north 60.00 feet of the west 80.00 feet of the East Half of the Northwest Quarter and the north 60.00 feet of the east 20.00 feet of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 20, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian. All situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.138 acres, more or less of which 0.114 acres, more or less, has been previously dedicated for roadway purposes by Document No. 538061.

PARCEL 0029

That part of the north 60.00 feet of the East Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 20, except the west 80.00 feet thereof, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, bounded by a line described as follows: Beginning at the point intersection of the south line of north 60.00 feet of said Northwest Quarter with the east line of the west 80.00 feet of the East Half of said Northwest Quarter; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 42 Seconds West, on an assumed bearing along the east line of the west 80.00 feet of the East Half of said Northwest Quarter, a distance of 60.00 feet to the north line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 20; thence North 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 14 Seconds East, along said north line, 106.52 feet; thence South 0 Degrees 28 Minutes 46 Seconds East, perpendicular to the north line of said Northwest Quarter, 60.00 feet to a point of intersection with a line 60.00 feet south from and parallel with the north line of said Northwest Quarter when measured perpendicular thereto; thence South 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 14 Seconds West, along said parallel line, perpendicular to the last described course, 107.01 feet to the point of beginning. All situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.148 acres, more or less of which 0.122 Acres, more or less, has been previously dedicated for roadway purposes by Document No. 538061.

PARCEL 0030 T.E.

That part of Lot 6 in Crest Hill Business Center being a subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 20, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded July 25, 2005 as Document No. R2005124097, bounded by a line described as follows: Beginning at the Northeast corner of Lot 6, thence South 00 Degrees 28 Minutes 09 Seconds East (South 02 Degrees 06 Minutes 31 Seconds East record), along the east line of said Lot 6 a distance of 65.00 feet; thence South 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 14 Seconds West, parallel with the north line of said Lot 6, a distance of 44.46 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 28 Minutes 09 Seconds West, parallel with the east line of said Lot 6, a distance of 65.00 feet to the north line of said Lot 6, also being the south line of Renwick Road as dedicated by aforementioned Document No. R2005124097; thence North 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 14 Seconds East (North 87 Degrees 53 Minutes 29 Seconds East record), along the north line of said Lot 6, also being the south line of Renwick Road, 44.46 feet to the point of beginning. All situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 2,890 square feet, (0.066 acres) of land more or less

PARCEL 0031 T.E.

That part of Lot 7 in Crest Hill Business Center being a subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 20, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded July 25, 2005 as Document No. R2005124097, bounded by a line described as follows: Beginning at the Northwest corner of Lot 7, thence South 00 Degrees 28 Minutes 09 Seconds East (South 02 Degrees 06 Minutes 31 Seconds East record), along the west line of said Lot 7 a distance of 65.00 feet; thence North 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 14 Seconds East, parallel with the north line of said Lot 7, a distance of 30.54 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 28 Minutes 09 Seconds West, parallel with the west line of said Lot 7, a distance of 65.00 feet to the north line of said Lot 7, also being the south line of Renwick Road as dedicated by aforementioned Document No. R2005124097; thence South 89 Degrees 31 Minutes 14 Seconds West (South 87 Degrees 53 Minutes 29 Seconds West, record), along the north line of said Lot 7, also being the south line of Renwick Road, 30.54 feet to the point of beginning. All situated in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 1,985 square feet, (0.046 acres) of land more or less

PARCEL 0032 T.E.

That part of Outlot A of Rose Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 18, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded on March 9, 2005 as Document No. R2005040528 as corrected by Certificate of Correction recorded December 28, 2005 as Document R2005228067 as further corrected by Certificate of Correction recorded December 18, 2006 as Document R2006208515 bounded by a line described as follows: Beginning at the easterly most southeast corner of said Outlot A located on the west line of Weber Road (County Highway 88) as dedicated by Document No. R2003016054, recorded January 23, 2003; thence North 53 Degrees 23 Minutes 42 Seconds West (North 55 Degrees 02 Minutes 09 Seconds, record), along a southerly line of said Outlot A, 23.96 feet; thence South 89 Degrees 35 Minutes 27 Seconds West (South 87 Degrees 57 Minutes 00 Seconds West, record) along a south line of said Outlot A, 50.77 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds West, parallel with the east line of said Outlot A, 33.86 feet to a point on a north line of said Outlot A, thence North 89 Degrees 35 Minutes 27 Seconds East, along said north line, 50.00 feet; thence North 56 Degrees 37 Minutes 56 Seconds East (North 45 Degrees 37 Minutes 22 Seconds East, record), along a northerly line of said Outlot A, 23.95 feet to a point on an east line of said Outlot A, also being the west line of Weber Road aforesaid; thence South 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds East (South 01 Degrees 38 Minutes 56 Seconds East, record), along the west line of said Weber Road, 61.32 feet to the point of beginning, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 2,640 square feet, (0.060 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0033 T.E.

That part of Lot 2 of Rose Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lots 1 through 4 (both inclusive) along with part of Outlot A all in Rose Subdivision, being a resubdivision of the Southeast Quarter of Section 18, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Rose Resubdivision recorded on November 1, 2005 as Document No. R2005-191530 bounded by a line described as follows: Beginning at the southerly most southeast corner of said Lot 2; thence South 89 Degrees 35 Minutes 27 Seconds West (South 87 Degrees 57 Minutes 00 Seconds West, record) along the south line of said Lot 2 a distance of 50.00 feet; thence North 00 Degrees 00 Minutes 29 Seconds West, parallel with the east line of said Lot 2 a distance of 10.00 feet; thence North 89 Degrees 35 Minutes 27 Seconds East (North 87 Degrees 57 Minutes 00 Seconds East, record), parallel with the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 65.35 feet to a point in the southeasterly line of said Lot 2; thence South 56 Degrees 37 Minutes 56 Seconds West (South 55 Degrees 00 Minutes 31 Seconds West, record) along said southeasterly line, 18.38 feet to the point of beginning, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 577 square feet, (0.013 acres) of land, more or less.

PARCEL 0034DED

The west 25.00 feet of Lot 2 in E.M.S. Subdivision (being a subdivision of part of the Southwest Quarter of Section 17, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian) as per plat thereof recorded December 7, 1989 as document number R89-64001, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.034 acres more or less.

PARCEL 0035DED

The west 25.00 feet of Lot 1 in E.M.S. Subdivision (being a subdivision of part of the Southwest Quarter of Section 17, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian) as per plat thereof recorded December 7, 1989 as document number R89-64001, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.060 acres more or less.

PARCEL 0037DED

A part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 17, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, described as follows: the east 25.00 feet of the west 75.00 feet of the south 50.00 feet of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 17, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.029 acres more or less.

PARCEL 0038DED

That part of Lot 1 in Grand Haven Retail Development (being a subdivision in the Southeast Quarter of Section 18, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian) as per plat thereof recorded December 15, 2003 as document number R2003302173 described as follows: Beginning at a southeast corner of said Lot 1, said southeast corner bears South 01 degrees 38 minutes 41 seconds East (South 01 degrees 38 minutes 56 seconds East, record), 184.08 feet (184.18 feet Record) from the northeast corner of said Lot 1; thence South 43 degrees 15 minutes 40 seconds West, along the southeast line of said Lot 1, 56.66 feet, to a south line of said Lot 1; thence South 88 degrees 10 minutes 49 seconds West, along said south line, 28.32 feet, to a line 20.00 feet northwest of and parallel to the southeast line of said Lot 1; thence North 43 degrees 15 minutes 40 seconds East, along said parallel line, 96.78 feet, to the east line of said Lot 1; thence South 01 degrees 38 minutes 41 seconds East, along said east line, 28.33 feet, to the Point of Beginning, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.035 acres more or less.

PARCEL 0039DED

That part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 18, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian described as follows: Commencing at the southeast corner of said Northeast Quarter; thence North 01 degrees 40 minutes 43 seconds West, along the east line of said Section 18, a distance of 456.50 feet; thence South 68 degrees 19 minutes 17 seconds West, in a southwesterly direction at an angle of 70 degrees, 63.85 feet to the west line of the east 60.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter and the Point of Beginning; thence continuing South 68 degrees 19 minutes 17 seconds West, along the last described line, 15.96 feet to the west line of the east 75.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter; thence South 01 degrees 40 minutes 43 seconds East, along said west line, 74.54 feet; thence North 88 degrees 19 minutes 17 seconds East, at right angles to the last described line, 15.00 feet, to the west line of the east 60.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter; thence North 01 degrees 40 minutes 43 seconds West, along said west line, 80.00 feet to the Point of Beginning, all in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.027 acres more or less.

PARCEL 0039TEA

That part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 18, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian described as follows: Commencing at the southeast corner of said Northeast Quarter; thence North 01 degrees 40 minutes 43 seconds West, along the east line of said Section 18, a distance of 456.50 feet; thence South 68 degrees 19 minutes 17 seconds West, in a southwesterly direction at an angle of 70 degrees, 79.81 feet, to the west line of the east 75.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter; thence South 01 degrees 40 minutes 43 seconds East, along said west line, 74.54 feet; thence North 88 degrees 19 minutes 17 seconds East, at right angles to the last described line, 5.00 feet, to the west line of the east 70.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter, and the Point of Beginning; thence continuing North 88 degrees 19 minutes 17 seconds East, 10.00 feet, to the west line of the east 60.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter; thence South 01 degrees 40 minutes 43 seconds East, along said west line, 304.88 feet, to the north line of the south 50.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter; thence South 88 degrees 07 minutes 04 seconds West, along said north line, 10.00 feet, to the west line of the east 70.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter; thence North 01 degrees 40 minutes 43 seconds West, along said west line, 304.91 feet to the Point of Beginning, all in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.070 acres more or less.

PARCEL 0039TEB

That part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 18, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian described as follows: Commencing at the southeast corner of said Northeast Quarter; thence North 01 degrees 40 minutes 43 seconds West, along the east line of said Section 18, a distance of 456.50 feet; thence South 68 degrees 19 minutes 17 seconds West, in a southwesterly direction at an angle of 70 degrees, 79.81 feet, to the west line of the east 75.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter, and the Point of Beginning; thence continuing South 68 degrees 19 minutes 17 seconds West, along the last described line, 42.57 feet, to the west line of the east 115.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter; thence South 01 degrees 40 minutes 43 seconds East, along said west line, 48.60 feet; thence North 88 degrees 19 minutes 17 seconds East, at right angles to the last described line, 40.00 feet, to the west line of the east 75.00 feet of said Northeast Quarter; thence North 01 degrees 40 minutes 43 seconds West, along said west line, 63.16 feet, to the Point of Beginning, all in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.051 acres more or less.

PARCEL 0040TE

The south 59.00 feet of the north 328.45 feet of the east 25.00 feet of the west 100.00 feet of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 17, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.033 acres more or less.

PARCEL 0042TE

That part of Lot 3 in Grand Haven Retail Development (being a subdivision in the Southeast Quarter of Section 18, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian) as per plat thereof recorded December 15, 2003 as document number R2003302173 described as follows: Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 3; thence South 01 degrees 38 minutes 41 seconds East, along the east line of said Lot 3, 40.15 feet; thence South 88 degrees 21 minutes 19 seconds West, at right angles to the last described line, 40.00 feet; thence North 01 degrees 38 minutes 41 seconds West, at right angles to the last described line, 20.00 feet; thence South 88 degrees 21 minutes 19 seconds West, at right angles to the last described line, 25.00 feet; thence North 01 degrees 38 minutes 41 seconds West, at right angles to the last described line, 20.15 feet, to the north line of said Lot 3; thence North 88 degrees 21 minutes 19 seconds East, along said north line, 65.00 feet, to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.048 acres more or less.

PARCEL 0044DED

The West 10.00 feet of the East 70.00 feet of the South 50.00 feet of the Northeast Quarter of Section 18, Township 36 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.011 acres more or less.

(Source: P.A. 97-458, eff. 8-19-11; revised 11-4-11.)

Section 680. The Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act is amended by changing Sections 504 and 505 as follows:

(750 ILCS 5/504) (from Ch. 40, par. 504)

Sec. 504. Maintenance.

(a) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or legal separation or declaration of invalidity of marriage, or a proceeding for maintenance following dissolution of the marriage by a court which lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse, the court may grant a temporary or permanent maintenance award for either spouse in amounts and for periods of time as the court deems just, without regard to marital misconduct, in gross or for fixed or indefinite periods of time, and the maintenance may be paid from the income or property of the other spouse after consideration of all relevant factors, including:

(1) the income and property of each party, including marital property apportioned and non-marital property assigned to the party seeking maintenance;

(2) the needs of each party;

(3) the present and future earning capacity of each party;

(4) any impairment of the present and future earning capacity of the party seeking maintenance due to that party devoting time to domestic duties or having forgone or delayed education, training, employment, or career opportunities due to the marriage;

(5) the time necessary to enable the party seeking maintenance to acquire appropriate education, training, and employment, and whether that party is able to support himself or herself through appropriate employment or is the custodian of a child making it appropriate that the custodian not seek employment;

(6) the standard of living established during the marriage;

(7) the duration of the marriage;

(8) the age and the physical and emotional condition of both parties;

(9) the tax consequences of the property division upon the respective economic circumstances of the parties;

(10) contributions and services by the party seeking maintenance to the education, training, career or career potential, or license of the other spouse;

(11) any valid agreement of the parties; and

(12) any other factor that the court expressly finds to be just and equitable.

(b) (Blank).

(b-5) Any maintenance obligation including any unallocated maintenance and child support obligation, or any portion of any support obligation, that becomes due and remains unpaid shall accrue simple interest as set forth in Section 505 of this Act.

(b-7) Any new or existing maintenance order including any unallocated maintenance and child support order entered by the court under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support thereunder. Each such judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each such judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order, except no judgment shall arise as to any installment coming due after the termination of maintenance as provided by Section 510 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act or the provisions of any order for maintenance. Each such judgment shall have the full force, effect and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. Notwithstanding any other State or local law to the contrary, a lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the obligor for each installment of overdue support owed by the obligor.

(c) The court may grant and enforce the payment of maintenance during the pendency of an appeal as the court shall deem reasonable and proper.

(d) No maintenance shall accrue during the period in which a party is imprisoned for failure to comply with the court's order for the payment of such maintenance.

(e) When maintenance is to be paid through the clerk of the court in a county of 1,000,000 inhabitants or less, the order shall direct the obligor to pay to the clerk, in addition to the maintenance payments, all fees imposed by the county board under paragraph (3) of subsection (u) of Section 27.1 of the Clerks of Courts Act. Unless paid in cash or pursuant to an order for withholding, the payment of the fee shall be by a separate instrument from the support payment and shall be made to the order of the Clerk.

(f) An award ordered by a court upon entry of a dissolution judgment or upon entry of an award of maintenance following a reservation of maintenance in a dissolution judgment may be reasonably secured, in whole or in part, by life insurance on the payor's life on terms as to which the parties agree, or, if they do not agree, on such terms determined by the court, subject to the following:

(1) With respect to existing life insurance, provided the court is apprised through evidence, stipulation, or otherwise as to level of death benefits, premium, and other relevant data and makes findings relative thereto, the court may allocate death benefits, the right to assign death benefits, or the obligation for future premium payments between the parties as it deems just.

(2) To the extent the court determines that its award should be secured, in whole or in part, by new life insurance on the payor's life, the court may only order:

(i) that the payor cooperate on all appropriate steps for the payee to obtain such new life insurance; and

(ii) that the payee, at his or her sole option and expense, may obtain such new life insurance on the payor's life up to a maximum level of death benefit coverage, or descending death benefit coverage, as is set by the court, such level not to exceed a reasonable amount in light of the court's award, with the payee or the payee's designee being the beneficiary of such life insurance.

In determining the maximum level of death benefit coverage, the court shall take into account all relevant facts and circumstances, including the impact on access to life insurance by the maintenance payor. If in resolving any issues under paragraph (2) of this subsection (f) a court reviews any submitted or proposed application for new insurance on the life of a maintenance payor, the review shall be in camera.

(3) A judgment shall expressly set forth that all death benefits paid under life insurance on a payor's life maintained or obtained pursuant to this subsection to secure maintenance are designated as excludable from the gross income of the maintenance payee under Section 71(b)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code, unless an agreement or stipulation of the parties otherwise provides.

(Source: P.A. 97-186, eff. 7-22-11; 97-608, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-29-11.)

(750 ILCS 5/505) (from Ch. 40, par. 505)

Sec. 505. Child support; contempt; penalties.

(a) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage, legal separation, declaration of invalidity of marriage, a proceeding for child support following dissolution of the marriage by a court which lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse, a proceeding for modification of a previous order for child support under Section 510 of this Act, or any proceeding authorized under Section 501 or 601 of this Act, the court may order either or both parents owing a duty of support to a child of the marriage to pay an amount reasonable and necessary for his support, without regard to marital misconduct. The duty of support owed to a child includes the obligation to provide for the reasonable and necessary physical, mental and emotional health needs of the child. For purposes of this Section, the term "child" shall include any child under age 18 and any child under age 19 who is still attending high school.

(1) The Court shall determine the minimum amount of support by using the following guidelines:

(2) The above guidelines shall be applied in each case unless the court makes a finding that application of the guidelines would be inappropriate, after considering the best interests of the child in light of evidence including but not limited to one or more of the following relevant factors:

(a) the financial resources and needs of the child;

(b) the financial resources and needs of the custodial parent;

(c) the standard of living the child would have enjoyed had the marriage not been dissolved;

(d) the physical and emotional condition of the child, and his educational needs; and

(e) the financial resources and needs of the non-custodial parent.

If the court deviates from the guidelines, the court's finding shall state the amount of support that would have been required under the guidelines, if determinable. The court shall include the reason or reasons for the variance from the guidelines.

(3) "Net income" is defined as the total of all income from all sources, minus the following deductions:

(a) Federal income tax (properly calculated withholding or estimated payments);

(b) State income tax (properly calculated withholding or estimated payments);

(c) Social Security (FICA payments);

(d) Mandatory retirement contributions required by law or as a condition of employment;

(e) Union dues;

(f) Dependent and individual health/hospitalization insurance premiums and life insurance premiums for life insurance ordered by the court to reasonably secure child support or support ordered pursuant to Section 513, any such order to entail provisions on which the parties agree or, otherwise, in accordance with the limitations set forth in subsection 504(f)(1) and (2);

(g) Prior obligations of support or maintenance actually paid pursuant to a court order;

(h) Expenditures for repayment of debts that represent reasonable and necessary expenses for the production of income, medical expenditures necessary to preserve life or health, reasonable expenditures for the benefit of the child and the other parent, exclusive of gifts. The court shall reduce net income in determining the minimum amount of support to be ordered only for the period that such payments are due and shall enter an order containing provisions for its self-executing modification upon termination of such payment period;

(i) Foster care payments paid by the Department of Children and Family Services for providing licensed foster care to a foster child.

(4) In cases where the court order provides for health/hospitalization insurance coverage pursuant to Section 505.2 of this Act, the premiums for that insurance, or that portion of the premiums for which the supporting party is responsible in the case of insurance provided through an employer's health insurance plan where the employer pays a portion of the premiums, shall be subtracted from net income in determining the minimum amount of support to be ordered.

(4.5) In a proceeding for child support following dissolution of the marriage by a court that lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse, and in which the court is requiring payment of support for the period before the date an order for current support is entered, there is a rebuttable presumption that the supporting party's net income for the prior period was the same as his or her net income at the time the order for current support is entered.

(5) If the net income cannot be determined because of default or any other reason, the court shall order support in an amount considered reasonable in the particular case. The final order in all cases shall state the support level in dollar amounts. However, if the court finds that the child support amount cannot be expressed exclusively as a dollar amount because all or a portion of the payor's net income is uncertain as to source, time of payment, or amount, the court may order a percentage amount of support in addition to a specific dollar amount and enter such other orders as may be necessary to determine and enforce, on a timely basis, the applicable support ordered.

(6) If (i) the non-custodial parent was properly served with a request for discovery of financial information relating to the non-custodial parent's ability to provide child support, (ii) the non-custodial parent failed to comply with the request, despite having been ordered to do so by the court, and (iii) the non-custodial parent is not present at the hearing to determine support despite having received proper notice, then any relevant financial information concerning the non-custodial parent's ability to provide child support that was obtained pursuant to subpoena and proper notice shall be admitted into evidence without the need to establish any further foundation for its admission.

(a-5) In an action to enforce an order for support based on the respondent's failure to make support payments as required by the order, notice of proceedings to hold the respondent in contempt for that failure may be served on the respondent by personal service or by regular mail addressed to the respondent's last known address. The respondent's last known address may be determined from records of the clerk of the court, from the Federal Case Registry of Child Support Orders, or by any other reasonable means.

(b) Failure of either parent to comply with an order to pay support shall be punishable as in other cases of contempt. In addition to other penalties provided by law the Court may, after finding the parent guilty of contempt, order that the parent be:

(1) placed on probation with such conditions of probation as the Court deems advisable;

(2) sentenced to periodic imprisonment for a period not to exceed 6 months; provided, however, that the Court may permit the parent to be released for periods of time during the day or night to:

(A) work; or

(B) conduct a business or other self-employed occupation.

The Court may further order any part or all of the earnings of a parent during a sentence of periodic imprisonment paid to the Clerk of the Circuit Court or to the parent having custody or to the guardian having custody of the children of the sentenced parent for the support of said children until further order of the Court.

If there is a unity of interest and ownership sufficient to render no financial separation between a non-custodial parent and another person or persons or business entity, the court may pierce the ownership veil of the person, persons, or business entity to discover assets of the non-custodial parent held in the name of that person, those persons, or that business entity. The following circumstances are sufficient to authorize a court to order discovery of the assets of a person, persons, or business entity and to compel the application of any discovered assets toward payment on the judgment for support:

(1) the non-custodial parent and the person, persons, or business entity maintain records together.

(2) the non-custodial parent and the person, persons, or business entity fail to maintain an arms length relationship between themselves with regard to any assets.

(3) the non-custodial parent transfers assets to the person, persons, or business entity with the intent to perpetrate a fraud on the custodial parent.

With respect to assets which are real property, no order entered under this paragraph shall affect the rights of bona fide purchasers, mortgagees, judgment creditors, or other lien holders who acquire their interests in the property prior to the time a notice of lis pendens pursuant to the Code of Civil Procedure or a copy of the order is placed of record in the office of the recorder of deeds for the county in which the real property is located.

The court may also order in cases where the parent is 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support or has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days obligation or more, that the parent's Illinois driving privileges be suspended until the court determines that the parent is in compliance with the order of support. The court may also order that the parent be issued a family financial responsibility driving permit that would allow limited driving privileges for employment and medical purposes in accordance with Section 7-702.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The clerk of the circuit court shall certify the order suspending the driving privileges of the parent or granting the issuance of a family financial responsibility driving permit to the Secretary of State on forms prescribed by the Secretary. Upon receipt of the authenticated documents, the Secretary of State shall suspend the parent's driving privileges until further order of the court and shall, if ordered by the court, subject to the provisions of Section 7-702.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, issue a family financial responsibility driving permit to the parent.

In addition to the penalties or punishment that may be imposed under this Section, any person whose conduct constitutes a violation of Section 15 of the Non-Support Punishment Act may be prosecuted under that Act, and a person convicted under that Act may be sentenced in accordance with that Act. The sentence may include but need not be limited to a requirement that the person perform community service under Section 50 of that Act or participate in a work alternative program under Section 50 of that Act. A person may not be required to participate in a work alternative program under Section 50 of that Act if the person is currently participating in a work program pursuant to Section 505.1 of this Act.

A support obligation, or any portion of a support obligation, which becomes due and remains unpaid as of the end of each month, excluding the child support that was due for that month to the extent that it was not paid in that month, shall accrue simple interest as set forth in Section 12-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure. An order for support entered or modified on or after January 1, 2006 shall contain a statement that a support obligation required under the order, or any portion of a support obligation required under the order, that becomes due and remains unpaid as of the end of each month, excluding the child support that was due for that month to the extent that it was not paid in that month, shall accrue simple interest as set forth in Section 12-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the accrual of interest as provided in this Section.

(c) A one-time charge of 20% is imposable upon the amount of past-due child support owed on July 1, 1988 which has accrued under a support order entered by the court. The charge shall be imposed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10-21 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and shall be enforced by the court upon petition.

(d) Any new or existing support order entered by the court under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support thereunder, each such judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each such judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order. Each such judgment shall have the full force, effect and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. Notwithstanding any other State or local law to the contrary, a lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the noncustodial parent for each installment of overdue support owed by the noncustodial parent.

(e) When child support is to be paid through the clerk of the court in a county of 1,000,000 inhabitants or less, the order shall direct the obligor to pay to the clerk, in addition to the child support payments, all fees imposed by the county board under paragraph (3) of subsection (u) of Section 27.1 of the Clerks of Courts Act. Unless paid in cash or pursuant to an order for withholding, the payment of the fee shall be by a separate instrument from the support payment and shall be made to the order of the Clerk.

(f) All orders for support, when entered or modified, shall include a provision requiring the obligor to notify the court and, in cases in which a party is receiving child and spouse services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, within 7 days, (i) of the name and address of any new employer of the obligor, (ii) whether the obligor has access to health insurance coverage through the employer or other group coverage and, if so, the policy name and number and the names of persons covered under the policy, and (iii) of any new residential or mailing address or telephone number of the non-custodial parent. In any subsequent action to enforce a support order, upon a sufficient showing that a diligent effort has been made to ascertain the location of the non-custodial parent, service of process or provision of notice necessary in the case may be made at the last known address of the non-custodial parent in any manner expressly provided by the Code of Civil Procedure or this Act, which service shall be sufficient for purposes of due process.

(g) An order for support shall include a date on which the current support obligation terminates. The termination date shall be no earlier than the date on which the child covered by the order will attain the age of 18. However, if the child will not graduate from high school until after attaining the age of 18, then the termination date shall be no earlier than the earlier of the date on which the child's high school graduation will occur or the date on which the child will attain the age of 19. The order for support shall state that the termination date does not apply to any arrearage that may remain unpaid on that date. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prevent the court from modifying the order or terminating the order in the event the child is otherwise emancipated.

(g-5) If there is an unpaid arrearage or delinquency (as those terms are defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act) equal to at least one month's support obligation on the termination date stated in the order for support or, if there is no termination date stated in the order, on the date the child attains the age of majority or is otherwise emancipated, the periodic amount required to be paid for current support of that child immediately prior to that date shall automatically continue to be an obligation, not as current support but as periodic payment toward satisfaction of the unpaid arrearage or delinquency. That periodic payment shall be in addition to any periodic payment previously required for satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency. The total periodic amount to be paid toward satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency may be enforced and collected by any method provided by law for enforcement and collection of child support, including but not limited to income withholding under the Income Withholding for Support Act. Each order for support entered or modified on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly must contain a statement notifying the parties of the requirements of this subsection. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the operation of the provisions of this subsection with regard to the order. This subsection shall not be construed to prevent or affect the establishment or modification of an order for support of a minor child or the establishment or modification of an order for support of a non-minor child or educational expenses under Section 513 of this Act.

(h) An order entered under this Section shall include a provision requiring the obligor to report to the obligee and to the clerk of court within 10 days each time the obligor obtains new employment, and each time the obligor's employment is terminated for any reason. The report shall be in writing and shall, in the case of new employment, include the name and address of the new employer. Failure to report new employment or the termination of current employment, if coupled with nonpayment of support for a period in excess of 60 days, is indirect criminal contempt. For any obligor arrested for failure to report new employment bond shall be set in the amount of the child support that should have been paid during the period of unreported employment. An order entered under this Section shall also include a provision requiring the obligor and obligee parents to advise each other of a change in residence within 5 days of the change except when the court finds that the physical, mental, or emotional health of a party or that of a child, or both, would be seriously endangered by disclosure of the party's address.

(i) The court does not lose the powers of contempt, driver's license suspension, or other child support enforcement mechanisms, including, but not limited to, criminal prosecution as set forth in this Act, upon the emancipation of the minor child or children.

(Source: P.A. 96-1134, eff. 7-21-10; 97-186, eff. 7-22-11; 97-608, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 685. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is amended by changing Section 214 as follows:

(750 ILCS 60/214) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-14)

Sec. 214. Order of protection; remedies.

(a) Issuance of order. If the court finds that petitioner has been abused by a family or household member or that petitioner is a high-risk adult who has been abused, neglected, or exploited, as defined in this Act, an order of protection prohibiting the abuse, neglect, or exploitation shall issue; provided that petitioner must also satisfy the requirements of one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 217 on emergency orders, Section 218 on interim orders, or Section 219 on plenary orders. Petitioner shall not be denied an order of protection because petitioner or respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or not to issue an order of protection, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim. Modification and extension of prior orders of protection shall be in accordance with this Act.

(b) Remedies and standards. The remedies to be included in an order of protection shall be determined in accordance with this Section and one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 217 on emergency orders, Section 218 on interim orders, and Section 219 on plenary orders. The remedies listed in this subsection shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner.

(1) Prohibition of abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Prohibit respondent's harassment, interference with personal liberty, intimidation of a dependent, physical abuse, or willful deprivation, neglect or exploitation, as defined in this Act, or stalking of the petitioner, as defined in Section 12-7.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, if such abuse, neglect, exploitation, or stalking has occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not prohibited.

(2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence. Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any residence, household, or premises of the petitioner, including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive possession of the residence, household, or premises shall not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be limited by the standard set forth in Section 701 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any person or entity other than the opposing party that authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.

(B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and respondent each has the right to occupancy of a residence or household, the court shall balance (i) the hardships to respondent and any minor child or dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the residence or household) or from loss of possession of the residence or household (should petitioner leave to avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance of hardships, the court shall also take into account the accessibility of the residence or household. Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not have a right to occupancy.

The balance of hardships is presumed to favor possession by petitioner unless the presumption is rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing that the hardships to respondent substantially outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The court, on the request of petitioner or on its own motion, may order respondent to provide suitable, accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or household.

(3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other person protected by the order of protection, or prohibit respondent from entering or remaining present at petitioner's school, place of employment, or other specified places at times when petitioner is present, or both, if reasonable, given the balance of hardships. Hardships need not be balanced for the court to enter a stay away order or prohibit entry if respondent has no right to enter the premises.

(A) If an order of protection grants petitioner exclusive possession of the residence, or prohibits respondent from entering the residence, or orders respondent to stay away from petitioner or other protected persons, then the court may allow respondent access to the residence to remove items of clothing and personal adornment used exclusively by respondent, medications, and other items as the court directs. The right to access shall be exercised on only one occasion as the court directs and in the presence of an agreed-upon adult third party or law enforcement officer.

(B) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing an order of protection and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or change of program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. In the event the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(C) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. In the event the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, family service agency, alcohol or substance abuse program, mental health center guidance counselor, agency providing services to elders, program designed for domestic violence abusers or any other guidance service the court deems appropriate. The Court may order the respondent in any intimate partner relationship to report to an Illinois Department of Human Services protocol approved partner abuse intervention program for an assessment and to follow all recommended treatment.

(5) Physical care and possession of the minor child. In order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect, or unwarranted separation from the person who has been the minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii) order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person in loco parentis.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 103) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding physical care to respondent would not be in the minor child's best interest.

(6) Temporary legal custody. Award temporary legal custody to petitioner in accordance with this Section, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, and this State's Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 103) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding temporary legal custody to respondent would not be in the child's best interest.

(7) Visitation. Determine the visitation rights, if any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards physical care or temporary legal custody of a minor child to petitioner. The court shall restrict or deny respondent's visitation with a minor child if the court finds that respondent has done or is likely to do any of the following: (i) abuse or endanger the minor child during visitation; (ii) use the visitation as an opportunity to abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's family or household members; (iii) improperly conceal or detain the minor child; or (iv) otherwise act in a manner that is not in the best interests of the minor child. The court shall not be limited by the standards set forth in Section 607.1 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. If the court grants visitation, the order shall specify dates and times for the visitation to take place or other specific parameters or conditions that are appropriate. No order for visitation shall refer merely to the term "reasonable visitation".

Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor child if, when respondent arrives for visitation, respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving in a violent or abusive manner.

If necessary to protect any member of petitioner's family or household from future abuse, respondent shall be prohibited from coming to petitioner's residence to meet the minor child for visitation, and the parties shall submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable alternative arrangements for visitation. A person may be approved to supervise visitation only after filing an affidavit accepting that responsibility and acknowledging accountability to the court.

(8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit respondent from removing a minor child from the State or concealing the child within the State.

(9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse, neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return the child to the custody or care of the petitioner or to permit any court-ordered interview or examination of the child or the respondent.

(10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner exclusive possession of personal property and, if respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to promptly make it available to petitioner, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly; sharing it would risk abuse of petitioner by respondent or is impracticable; and the balance of hardships favors temporary possession by petitioner.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may award petitioner temporary possession thereof under the standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

No order under this provision shall affect title to property.

(11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, damaging or otherwise disposing of any real or personal property, except as explicitly authorized by the court, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly, and the balance of hardships favors granting this remedy.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may grant petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

The court may further prohibit respondent from improperly using the financial or other resources of an aged member of the family or household for the profit or advantage of respondent or of any other person.

(11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner or the respondent or a minor child residing in the residence or household of either the petitioner or the respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the animal and forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or otherwise disposing of the animal.

(12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in the petitioner's care or custody, when the respondent has a legal obligation to support that person, in accordance with the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, which shall govern, among other matters, the amount of support, payment through the clerk and withholding of income to secure payment. An order for child support may be granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care or custody of a child, or an order or agreement for physical care or custody, prior to entry of an order for legal custody. Such a support order shall expire upon entry of a valid order granting legal custody to another, unless otherwise provided in the custody order.

(13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of the abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Such losses shall include, but not be limited to, medical expenses, lost earnings or other support, repair or replacement of property damaged or taken, reasonable attorney's fees, court costs and moving or other travel expenses, including additional reasonable expenses for temporary shelter and restaurant meals.

(i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is entitled to seek maintenance, child support or property distribution from the other party under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended, the court may order respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to the extent that such reimbursement would be "appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.

(ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the court may order respondent to pay the reasonable expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for and recovery of the minor child, including but not limited to legal fees, court costs, private investigator fees, and travel costs.

(14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent from entering or remaining in the residence or household while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.

(14.5) Prohibition of firearm possession.

(a) Prohibit a respondent against whom an order of protection was issued from possessing any firearms during the duration of the order if the order:

(1) was issued after a hearing of which such person received actual notice, and at which such person had an opportunity to participate;

(2) restrains such person from harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of such person or child of such intimate partner or person, or engaging in other conduct that would place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the partner or child; and

(3)(i) includes a finding that such person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of such intimate partner or child; or (ii) by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against such intimate partner or child that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury.

Any Firearm Owner's Identification Card in the possession of the respondent, except as provided in subsection (b), shall be ordered by the court to be turned over to the local law enforcement agency for safekeeping. The court shall issue a warrant for seizure of any firearm and Firearm Owner's Identification Card in the possession of the respondent, to be kept by the local law enforcement agency for safekeeping, except as provided in subsection (b). The period of safekeeping shall be for the duration of the order of protection. The firearm or firearms and Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall be returned to the respondent at the end of the order of protection.

(b) If the respondent is a peace officer as defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 1961, the court shall order that any firearms used by the respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer be surrendered to the chief law enforcement executive of the agency in which the respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms for safekeeping for the duration of the order of protection.

(c) Upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be returned to respondent because respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency; or that the firearms be turned over to a third party who is lawfully eligible to possess firearms, and who does not reside with respondent.

(15) Prohibition of access to records. If an order of protection prohibits respondent from having contact with the minor child, or if petitioner's address is omitted under subsection (b) of Section 203, or if necessary to prevent abuse or wrongful removal or concealment of a minor child, the order shall deny respondent access to, and prohibit respondent from inspecting, obtaining, or attempting to inspect or obtain, school or any other records of the minor child who is in the care of petitioner.

(16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and deemed reasonable by the court.

(17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse of a family or household member or further abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a high-risk adult with disabilities or to effectuate one of the granted remedies, if supported by the balance of hardships. If the harm to be prevented by the injunction is abuse or any other harm that one of the remedies listed in paragraphs (1) through (16) of this subsection is designed to prevent, no further evidence is necessary that the harm is an irreparable injury.

(c) Relevant factors; findings.

(1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy, other than payment of support, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern and consequences of the respondent's past abuse, neglect or exploitation of the petitioner or any family or household member, including the concealment of his or her location in order to evade service of process or notice, and the likelihood of danger of future abuse, neglect, or exploitation to petitioner or any member of petitioner's or respondent's family or household; and

(ii) the danger that any minor child will be abused or neglected or improperly removed from the jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State or improperly separated from the child's primary caretaker.

(2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the parties from loss of possession of the family home, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety, adequacy, location and other characteristics of alternate housing for each party and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care;

(ii) the effect on the party's employment; and

(iii) the effect on the relationship of the party, and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care, to family, school, church and community.

(3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection, the court shall make its findings in an official record or in writing, and shall at a minimum set forth the following:

(i) That the court has considered the applicable relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection.

(ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent, unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm or continued abuse.

(iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the requested relief in order to protect petitioner or other alleged abused persons.

(4) For purposes of issuing an ex parte emergency order of protection, the court, as an alternative to or as a supplement to making the findings described in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (c)(3)(iii) of this subsection, may use the following procedure:

When a verified petition for an emergency order of protection in accordance with the requirements of Sections 203 and 217 is presented to the court, the court shall examine petitioner on oath or affirmation. An emergency order of protection shall be issued by the court if it appears from the contents of the petition and the examination of petitioner that the averments are sufficient to indicate abuse by respondent and to support the granting of relief under the issuance of the emergency order of protection.

(5) Never married parties. No rights or responsibilities for a minor child born outside of marriage attach to a putative father until a father and child relationship has been established under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, the Illinois Public Aid Code, Section 12 of the Vital Records Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Probate Act of 1985, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Expedited Child Support Act of 1990, any judicial, administrative, or other act of another state or territory, any other Illinois statute, or by any foreign nation establishing the father and child relationship, any other proceeding substantially in conformity with the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-193), or where both parties appeared in open court or at an administrative hearing acknowledging under oath or admitting by affirmation the existence of a father and child relationship. Absent such an adjudication, finding, or acknowledgement, no putative father shall be granted temporary custody of the minor child, visitation with the minor child, or physical care and possession of the minor child, nor shall an order of payment for support of the minor child be entered.

(d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds that the balance of hardships does not support the granting of a remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will result in hardship to respondent that would substantially outweigh the hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy. The findings shall be an official record or in writing.

(e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) Respondent has cause for any use of force, unless that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of force provided by Article VII of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(2) Respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) Petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such force was justifiable under Article VII of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(4) Petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense of another;

(5) Petitioner left the residence or household to avoid further abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent;

(6) Petitioner did not leave the residence or household to avoid further abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent;

(7) Conduct by any family or household member excused the abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent, unless that same conduct would have excused such abuse, neglect, or exploitation if the parties had not been family or household members.

(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1239, eff. 1-1-11; 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-294, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 690. The Illinois Residential Real Property Transfer on Death Instrument Act is amended by changing Section 55 as follows:

(755 ILCS 27/55)

Sec. 55. Revocation by recorded instrument authorized; revocation by act or unrecorded instrument, not authorized.

(a) An instrument is effective to revoke a recorded transfer on death instrument, or any part of it, only if:

(1) it is:

(A) another transfer on death instrument that revokes the instrument or part of the instrument expressly or by inconsistency; or

(B) an instrument of revocation that expressly revokes the instrument or part of the instrument; and

(2) it is:

(A) executed, witnessed, and acknowledged in the same manner as is required by Section 45 on a date that is after the date of the acknowledgment of the instrument being revoked; and

(B) recorded before the owner's death in the public records in the office of the recorder of the county or counties where the prior transfer on death instrument is recorded.

(b) A transfer on death instrument executed and recorded in accordance with this Act may not be revoked by a revocatory act on the instrument, by an unrecorded instrument, or by a provision in a will.

(Source: P.A. 97-555, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 695. The Charitable Trust Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(760 ILCS 55/5) (from Ch. 14, par. 55)

Sec. 5. Registration requirement.

(a) The Attorney General shall establish and maintain a register of trustees subject to this Act and of the particular trust or other relationship under which they hold property for charitable purposes and, to that end, shall conduct whatever investigation is necessary, and shall obtain from public records, court officers, taxing authorities, trustees and other sources, copies of instruments, reports and records and whatever information is needed for the establishment and maintenance of the register.

(b) A registration statement shall be signed and verified under penalty of perjury by 2 officers of a corporate charitable organization or by 2 trustees if not a corporate organization. One signature will be accepted if there is only one officer or one trustee. A registration fee of $15 shall be paid with each initial registration. If a person, trustee or organization fails to maintain a registration of a trust or organization as required by this Act, and its registration is cancelled as provided in this Act, and if that trust or organization remains in existence and by law is required to be registered, in order to re-register, a new registration must be filed accompanied by required financial reports, and in all instances where re-registration is required, submitted, and allowed, the new re-registration materials must be filed, accompanied by a re-registration fee of $200.

(c) If a person or trustee fails to register or maintain registration of a trust or organization or fails to file reports as provided in this Act, the person or trustee is subject to injunction, to removal, to account, and to appropriate other relief before a court of competent jurisdiction exercising chancery jurisdiction. In the event of such action, the court may impose a civil penalty of not less than that $500 nor more than $1,000 against the organization or trust estate that failed to register or to maintain a registration required under this Act. The collected penalty shall be used for charitable trust enforcement and for providing charitable trust information to the public.

(Source: P.A. 90-469, eff. 8-17-97; 91-444, eff. 8-6-99; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 700. The Residential Real Property Disclosure Act is amended by changing Section 74 as follows:

(765 ILCS 77/74)

Sec. 74. Counselor; required information. As part of the predatory lending database program, a counselor must submit all of the following information for inclusion in the predatory lending database:

(1) The information called for in items (1), (6), (9), (11), (12), (13), (14), (15), (16), (17), and (18) of Section 72.

(2) Any information from the borrower that confirms or contradicts the information called for under item (1) of this Section.

(3) The name of the counselor and address of the HUD-certified HUD-certifed housing counseling agency that employs the counselor.

(4) Information pertaining to the borrower's monthly expenses that assists the counselor in determining whether the borrower can afford the loans or loans for which the borrower is applying.

(5) A list of the disclosures furnished to the borrower, as seen and reviewed by the counselor, and a comparison of that list to all disclosures required by law.

(6) Whether the borrower provided tax returns to the broker or originator or to the counselor, and, if so, who prepared the tax returns.

(7) A statement of the recommendations of the counselor that indicates the counselor's response to each of the following statements:

(A) The loan should not be approved due to indicia of fraud.

(B) The loan should be approved; no material problems noted.

(C) The borrower cannot afford the loan.

(D) The borrower does not understand the transaction.

(E) The borrower does not understand the costs associated with the transaction.

(F) The borrower's monthly income and expenses have been reviewed and disclosed.

(G) The rate of the loan is above market rate.

(H) The borrower should seek a competitive bid from another broker or originator.

(I) There are discrepancies between the borrower's verbal understanding and the originator's completed form.

(J) The borrower is precipitously close to not being able to afford the loan.

(K) The borrower understands the true cost of debt consolidation and the need for credit card discipline.

(L) The information that the borrower provided the originator has been amended by the originator.

(Source: P.A. 94-280, eff. 1-1-06; 95-691, eff. 6-1-08; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 705. The Condominium Property Act is amended by changing Section 18.5 as follows:

(765 ILCS 605/18.5) (from Ch. 30, par. 318.5)

Sec. 18.5. Master Associations.

(a) If the declaration, other condominium instrument, or other duly recorded covenants provide that any of the powers of the unit owners associations are to be exercised by or may be delegated to a nonprofit corporation or unincorporated association that exercises those or other powers on behalf of one or more condominiums, or for the benefit of the unit owners of one or more condominiums, such corporation or association shall be a master association.

(b) There shall be included in the declaration, other condominium instruments, or other duly recorded covenants establishing the powers and duties of the master association the provisions set forth in subsections (c) through (h).

In interpreting subsections (c) through (h), the courts should interpret these provisions so that they are interpreted consistently with the similar parallel provisions found in other parts of this Act.

(c) Meetings and finances.

(1) Each unit owner of a condominium subject to the authority of the board of the master association shall receive, at least 30 days prior to the adoption thereof by the board of the master association, a copy of the proposed annual budget.

(2) The board of the master association shall annually supply to all unit owners of condominiums subject to the authority of the board of the master association an itemized accounting of the common expenses for the preceding year actually incurred or paid, together with a tabulation of the amounts collected pursuant to the budget or assessment, and showing the net excess or deficit of income over expenditures plus reserves.

(3) Each unit owner of a condominium subject to the authority of the board of the master association shall receive written notice mailed or delivered no less than 10 and no more than 30 days prior to any meeting of the board of the master association concerning the adoption of the proposed annual budget or any increase in the budget, or establishment of an assessment.

(4) Meetings of the board of the master association shall be open to any unit owner in a condominium subject to the authority of the board of the master association, except for the portion of any meeting held:

(A) to discuss litigation when an action against or on behalf of the particular master association has been filed and is pending in a court or administrative tribunal, or when the board of the master association finds that such an action is probable or imminent,

(B) to consider information regarding appointment, employment or dismissal of an employee, or

(C) to discuss violations of rules and regulations of the master association or unpaid common expenses owed to the master association.

Any vote on these matters shall be taken at a meeting or portion thereof open to any unit owner of a condominium subject to the authority of the master association.

Any unit owner may record the proceedings at meetings required to be open by this Act by tape, film or other means; the board may prescribe reasonable rules and regulations to govern the right to make such recordings. Notice of meetings shall be mailed or delivered at least 48 hours prior thereto, unless a written waiver of such notice is signed by the persons entitled to notice before the meeting is convened. Copies of notices of meetings of the board of the master association shall be posted in entranceways, elevators, or other conspicuous places in the condominium at least 48 hours prior to the meeting of the board of the master association. Where there is no common entranceway for 7 or more units, the board of the master association may designate one or more locations in the proximity of these units where the notices of meetings shall be posted.

(5) If the declaration provides for election by unit owners of members of the board of directors in the event of a resale of a unit in the master association, the purchaser of a unit from a seller other than the developer pursuant to an installment contract for purchase shall, during such times as he or she resides in the unit, be counted toward a quorum for purposes of election of members of the board of directors at any meeting of the unit owners called for purposes of electing members of the board, and shall have the right to vote for the election of members of the board of directors and to be elected to and serve on the board of directors unless the seller expressly retains in writing any or all of those rights. In no event may the seller and purchaser both be counted toward a quorum, be permitted to vote for a particular office, or be elected and serve on the board. Satisfactory evidence of the installment contract shall be made available to the association or its agents. For purposes of this subsection, "installment contract" shall have the same meaning as set forth in subsection (e) of Section 1 of the Dwelling Unit Installment Contract Act.

(6) The board of the master association shall have the authority to establish and maintain a system of master metering of public utility services and to collect payments in connection therewith, subject to the requirements of the Tenant Utility Payment Disclosure Act.

(7) The board of the master association or a common interest community association shall have the power, after notice and an opportunity to be heard, to levy and collect reasonable fines from members for violations of the declaration, bylaws, and rules and regulations of the master association or the common interest community association. Nothing contained in this subdivision (7) shall give rise to a statutory lien for unpaid fines.

(8) Other than attorney's fees, no fees pertaining to the collection of a unit owner's financial obligation to the Association, including fees charged by a manager or managing agent, shall be added to and deemed a part of an owner's respective share of the common expenses unless: (i) the managing agent fees relate to the costs to collect common expenses for the Association; (ii) the fees are set forth in a contract between the managing agent and the Association; and (iii) the authority to add the management fees to an owner's respective share of the common expenses is specifically stated in the declaration or bylaws of the Association.

(d) Records.

(1) The board of the master association shall maintain the following records of the association and make them available for examination and copying at convenient hours of weekdays by any unit owners in a condominium subject to the authority of the board or their mortgagees and their duly authorized agents or attorneys:

(i) Copies of the recorded declaration, other condominium instruments, other duly recorded covenants and bylaws and any amendments, articles of incorporation of the master association, annual reports and any rules and regulations adopted by the master association or its board shall be available. Prior to the organization of the master association, the developer shall maintain and make available the records set forth in this subdivision (d)(1) for examination and copying.

(ii) Detailed and accurate records in chronological order of the receipts and expenditures affecting the common areas, specifying and itemizing the maintenance and repair expenses of the common areas and any other expenses incurred, and copies of all contracts, leases, or other agreements entered into by the master association, shall be maintained.

(iii) The minutes of all meetings of the master association and the board of the master association shall be maintained for not less than 7 years.

(iv) Ballots and proxies related thereto, if any, for any election held for the board of the master association and for any other matters voted on by the unit owners shall be maintained for not less than one year.

(v) Such other records of the master association as are available for inspection by members of a not-for-profit corporation pursuant to Section 107.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 shall be maintained.

(vi) With respect to units owned by a land trust, if a trustee designates in writing a person to cast votes on behalf of the unit owner, the designation shall remain in effect until a subsequent document is filed with the association.

(2) Where a request for records under this subsection is made in writing to the board of managers or its agent, failure to provide the requested record or to respond within 30 days shall be deemed a denial by the board of directors.

(3) A reasonable fee may be charged by the master association or its board for the cost of copying.

(4) If the board of directors fails to provide records properly requested under subdivision (d)(1) within the time period provided in subdivision (d)(2), the unit owner may seek appropriate relief, including an award of attorney's fees and costs.

(e) The board of directors shall have standing and capacity to act in a representative capacity in relation to matters involving the common areas of the master association or more than one unit, on behalf of the unit owners as their interests may appear.

(f) Administration of property prior to election of the initial board of directors.

(1) Until the election, by the unit owners or the boards of managers of the underlying condominium associations, of the initial board of directors of a master association whose declaration is recorded on or after August 10, 1990, the same rights, titles, powers, privileges, trusts, duties and obligations that are vested in or imposed upon the board of directors by this Act or in the declaration or other duly recorded covenant shall be held and performed by the developer.

(2) The election of the initial board of directors of a master association whose declaration is recorded on or after August 10, 1990, by the unit owners or the boards of managers of the underlying condominium associations, shall be held not later than 60 days after the conveyance by the developer of 75% of the units, or 3 years after the recording of the declaration, whichever is earlier. The developer shall give at least 21 days notice of the meeting to elect the initial board of directors and shall upon request provide to any unit owner, within 3 working days of the request, the names, addresses, and weighted vote of each unit owner entitled to vote at the meeting. Any unit owner shall upon receipt of the request be provided with the same information, within 10 days of the request, with respect to each subsequent meeting to elect members of the board of directors.

(3) If the initial board of directors of a master association whose declaration is recorded on or after August 10, 1990 is not elected by the unit owners or the members of the underlying condominium association board of managers at the time established in subdivision (f)(2), the developer shall continue in office for a period of 30 days, whereupon written notice of his resignation shall be sent to all of the unit owners or members of the underlying condominium board of managers entitled to vote at an election for members of the board of directors.

(4) Within 60 days following the election of a majority of the board of directors, other than the developer, by unit owners, the developer shall deliver to the board of directors:

(i) All original documents as recorded or filed pertaining to the property, its administration, and the association, such as the declaration, articles of incorporation, other instruments, annual reports, minutes, rules and regulations, and contracts, leases, or other agreements entered into by the association. If any original documents are unavailable, a copy may be provided if certified by affidavit of the developer, or an officer or agent of the developer, as being a complete copy of the actual document recorded or filed.

(ii) A detailed accounting by the developer, setting forth the source and nature of receipts and expenditures in connection with the management, maintenance and operation of the property, copies of all insurance policies, and a list of any loans or advances to the association which are outstanding.

(iii) Association funds, which shall have been at all times segregated from any other moneys of the developer.

(iv) A schedule of all real or personal property, equipment and fixtures belonging to the association, including documents transferring the property, warranties, if any, for all real and personal property and equipment, deeds, title insurance policies, and all tax bills.

(v) A list of all litigation, administrative action and arbitrations involving the association, any notices of governmental bodies involving actions taken or which may be taken concerning the association, engineering and architectural drawings and specifications as approved by any governmental authority, all other documents filed with any other governmental authority, all governmental certificates, correspondence involving enforcement of any association requirements, copies of any documents relating to disputes involving unit owners, and originals of all documents relating to everything listed in this subparagraph.

(vi) If the developer fails to fully comply with this paragraph (4) within the 60 days provided and fails to fully comply within 10 days of written demand mailed by registered or certified mail to his or her last known address, the board may bring an action to compel compliance with this paragraph (4). If the court finds that any of the required deliveries were not made within the required period, the board shall be entitled to recover its reasonable attorneys' fees and costs incurred from and after the date of expiration of the 10 day demand.

(5) With respect to any master association whose declaration is recorded on or after August 10, 1990, any contract, lease, or other agreement made prior to the election of a majority of the board of directors other than the developer by or on behalf of unit owners or underlying condominium associations, the association or the board of directors, which extends for a period of more than 2 years from the recording of the declaration, shall be subject to cancellation by more than 1/2 of the votes of the unit owners, other than the developer, cast at a special meeting of members called for that purpose during a period of 90 days prior to the expiration of the 2 year period if the board of managers is elected by the unit owners, otherwise by more than 1/2 of the underlying condominium board of managers. At least 60 days prior to the expiration of the 2 year period, the board of directors, or, if the board is still under developer control, then the board of managers or the developer shall send notice to every unit owner or underlying condominium board of managers, notifying them of this provision, of what contracts, leases and other agreements are affected, and of the procedure for calling a meeting of the unit owners or for action by the underlying condominium board of managers for the purpose of acting to terminate such contracts, leases or other agreements. During the 90 day period the other party to the contract, lease, or other agreement shall also have the right of cancellation.

(6) The statute of limitations for any actions in law or equity which the master association may bring shall not begin to run until the unit owners or underlying condominium board of managers have elected a majority of the members of the board of directors.

(g) In the event of any resale of a unit in a master association by a unit owner other than the developer, the owner shall obtain from the board of directors and shall make available for inspection to the prospective purchaser, upon demand, the following:

(1) A copy of the declaration, other instruments and any rules and regulations.

(2) A statement of any liens, including a statement of the account of the unit setting forth the amounts of unpaid assessments and other charges due and owing.

(3) A statement of any capital expenditures anticipated by the association within the current or succeeding 2 fiscal years.

(4) A statement of the status and amount of any reserve for replacement fund and any portion of such fund earmarked for any specified project by the board of directors.

(5) A copy of the statement of financial condition of the association for the last fiscal year for which such a statement is available.

(6) A statement of the status of any pending suits or judgments in which the association is a party.

(7) A statement setting forth what insurance coverage is provided for all unit owners by the association.

(8) A statement that any improvements or alterations made to the unit, or any part of the common areas assigned thereto, by the prior unit owner are in good faith believed to be in compliance with the declaration of the master association.

The principal officer of the unit owner's association or such other officer as is specifically designated shall furnish the above information when requested to do so in writing, within 30 days of receiving the request.

A reasonable fee covering the direct out-of-pocket cost of copying and providing such information may be charged by the association or its board of directors to the unit seller for providing the information.

(g-1) The purchaser of a unit of a common interest community at a judicial foreclosure sale, other than a mortgagee, who takes possession of a unit of a common interest community pursuant to a court order or a purchaser who acquires title from a mortgagee shall have the duty to pay the proportionate share, if any, of the common expenses for the unit that would have become due in the absence of any assessment acceleration during the 6 months immediately preceding institution of an action to enforce the collection of assessments and the court costs incurred by the association in an action to enforce the collection that remain unpaid by the owner during whose possession the assessments accrued. If the outstanding assessments and the court costs incurred by the association in an action to enforce the collection are paid at any time during any action to enforce the collection of assessments, the purchaser shall have no obligation to pay any assessments that accrued before he or she acquired title. The notice of sale of a unit of a common interest community under subsection (c) of Section 15-1507 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall state that the purchaser of the unit other than a mortgagee shall pay the assessments and court costs required by this subsection (g-1).

(h) Errors and omissions.

(1) If there is an omission or error in the declaration or other instrument of the master association, the master association may correct the error or omission by an amendment to the declaration or other instrument, as may be required to conform it to this Act, to any other applicable statute, or to the declaration. The amendment shall be adopted by vote of two-thirds of the members of the board of directors or by a majority vote of the unit owners at a meeting called for that purpose, unless the Act or the declaration of the master association specifically provides for greater percentages or different procedures.

(2) If, through a scrivener's error, a unit has not been designated as owning an appropriate undivided share of the common areas or does not bear an appropriate share of the common expenses, or if all of the common expenses or all of the common elements in the condominium have not been distributed in the declaration, so that the sum total of the shares of common areas which have been distributed or the sum total of the shares of the common expenses fail to equal 100%, or if it appears that more than 100% of the common elements or common expenses have been distributed, the error may be corrected by operation of law by filing an amendment to the declaration, approved by vote of two-thirds of the members of the board of directors or a majority vote of the unit owners at a meeting called for that purpose, which proportionately adjusts all percentage interests so that the total is equal to 100%, unless the declaration specifically provides for a different procedure or different percentage vote by the owners of the units and the owners of mortgages thereon affected by modification being made in the undivided interest in the common areas, the number of votes in the unit owners association or the liability for common expenses appertaining to the unit.

(3) If an omission or error or a scrivener's error in the declaration or other instrument is corrected by vote of two-thirds of the members of the board of directors pursuant to the authority established in subdivisions (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this Section, the board, upon written petition by unit owners with 20% of the votes of the association or resolutions adopted by the board of managers or board of directors of the condominium and common interest community associations which select 20% of the members of the board of directors of the master association, whichever is applicable, received within 30 days of the board action, shall call a meeting of the unit owners or the boards of the condominium and common interest community associations which select members of the board of directors of the master association within 30 days of the filing of the petition or receipt of the condominium and common interest community association resolution to consider the board action. Unless a majority of the votes of the unit owners of the association are cast at the meeting to reject the action, or board of managers or board of directors of condominium and common interest community associations which select over 50% of the members of the board of the master association adopt resolutions prior to the meeting rejecting the action of the board of directors of the master association, it is ratified whether or not a quorum is present.

(4) The procedures for amendments set forth in this subsection (h) cannot be used if such an amendment would materially or adversely affect property rights of the unit owners unless the affected unit owners consent in writing. This Section does not restrict the powers of the association to otherwise amend the declaration, bylaws, or other condominium instruments, but authorizes a simple process of amendment requiring a lesser vote for the purpose of correcting defects, errors, or omissions when the property rights of the unit owners are not materially or adversely affected.

(5) If there is an omission or error in the declaration or other instruments that may not be corrected by an amendment procedure set forth in subdivision (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this Section, then the circuit court in the county in which the master association is located shall have jurisdiction to hear a petition of one or more of the unit owners thereon or of the association, to correct the error or omission, and the action may be a class action. The court may require that one or more methods of correcting the error or omission be submitted to the unit owners to determine the most acceptable correction. All unit owners in the association must be joined as parties to the action. Service of process on owners may be by publication, but the plaintiff shall furnish all unit owners not personally served with process with copies of the petition and final judgment of the court by certified mail, return receipt requested, at their last known address.

(6) Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to invalidate any provision of a declaration authorizing the developer to amend an instrument prior to the latest date on which the initial membership meeting of the unit owners must be held, whether or not it has actually been held, to bring the instrument into compliance with the legal requirements of the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, the Federal Housing Administration, the United States Veterans Administration or their respective successors and assigns.

(i) The provisions of subsections (c) through (h) are applicable to all declarations, other condominium instruments, and other duly recorded covenants establishing the powers and duties of the master association recorded under this Act. Any portion of a declaration, other condominium instrument, or other duly recorded covenant establishing the powers and duties of a master association which contains provisions contrary to the provisions of subsection (c) through (h) shall be void as against public policy and ineffective. Any declaration, other condominium instrument, or other duly recorded covenant establishing the powers and duties of the master association which fails to contain the provisions required by subsections (c) through (h) shall be deemed to incorporate such provisions by operation of law.

(j) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-1045, eff. 7-14-10; 97-535, eff. 1-1-12; 97-605, eff. 8-26-11; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 710. The Mobile Home Landlord and Tenant Rights Act is amended by changing Section 13 as follows:

(765 ILCS 745/13) (from Ch. 80, par. 213)

Sec. 13. Tenant's Duties. The tenant shall agree at all times during the tenancy to:

(a) Keep the mobile home unit, if he rents such, or the exterior premises if he rents a lot, in a clean and sanitary condition, free of garbage and rubbish;

(b) Refrain from the storage of any inoperable motor vehicle;

(c) Refrain from washing all vehicles except at an area designated by park management;

(d) Refrain from performing any major repairs of motor vehicles at any time;

(e) Refrain from the storage of any icebox, stove, building material, furniture or similar items on the exterior premises;

(f) Keep the supplied basic facilities, including plumbing fixtures, cooking and refrigeration equipment and electrical fixtures in a leased mobile home unit in a clean and sanitary condition and be responsible for the exercise of reasonable care in their proper use and operation;

(g) Not deliberately or negligently destroy, deface, damage, impair or remove any part of the premises or knowingly permit any person to do so;

(h) Conduct himself and require other persons on the premises with his consent to conduct themselves in a manner that will not affect effect or disturb his neighbors' neighbors peaceful enjoyment of the premises;

(i) Abide by all the rules or regulations concerning the use, occupation and maintenance of the premises; and

(j) Abide by any reasonable rules for guest parking which are clearly stated.

(Source: P.A. 81-637; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 715. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Sections 1-103 and 7A-102 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/1-103) (from Ch. 68, par. 1-103)

Sec. 1-103. General Definitions. When used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise, the term:

(A) Age. "Age" means the chronological age of a person who is at least 40 years old, except with regard to any practice described in Section 2-102, insofar as that practice concerns training or apprenticeship programs. In the case of training or apprenticeship programs, for the purposes of Section 2-102, "age" means the chronological age of a person who is 18 but not yet 40 years old.

(B) Aggrieved Party. "Aggrieved party" means a person who is alleged or proved to have been injured by a civil rights violation or believes he or she will be injured by a civil rights violation under Article 3 that is about to occur.

(C) Charge. "Charge" means an allegation filed with the Department by an aggrieved party or initiated by the Department under its authority.

(D) Civil Rights Violation. "Civil rights violation" includes and shall be limited to only those specific acts set forth in Sections 2-102, 2-103, 2-105, 3-102, 3-102.1, 3-103, 3-104, 3-104.1, 3-105, 3-105.1, 4-102, 4-103, 5-102, 5A-102, 6-101, and 6-102 of this Act.

(E) Commission. "Commission" means the Human Rights Commission created by this Act.

(F) Complaint. "Complaint" means the formal pleading filed by the Department with the Commission following an investigation and finding of substantial evidence of a civil rights violation.

(G) Complainant. "Complainant" means a person including the Department who files a charge of civil rights violation with the Department or the Commission.

(H) Department. "Department" means the Department of Human Rights created by this Act.

(I) Disability. "Disability" means a determinable physical or mental characteristic of a person, including, but not limited to, a determinable physical characteristic which necessitates the person's use of a guide, hearing or support dog, the history of such characteristic, or the perception of such characteristic by the person complained against, which may result from disease, injury, congenital condition of birth or functional disorder and which characteristic:

(1) For purposes of Article 2 is unrelated to the person's ability to perform the duties of a particular job or position and, pursuant to Section 2-104 of this Act, a person's illegal use of drugs or alcohol is not a disability;

(2) For purposes of Article 3, is unrelated to the person's ability to acquire, rent or maintain a housing accommodation;

(3) For purposes of Article 4, is unrelated to a person's ability to repay;

(4) For purposes of Article 5, is unrelated to a person's ability to utilize and benefit from a place of public accommodation; .

(5) For purposes of Article 5, also includes any mental, psychological, or developmental disability, including autism spectrum disorders.

(J) Marital Status. "Marital status" means the legal status of being married, single, separated, divorced or widowed.

(J-1) Military Status. "Military status" means a person's status on active duty in or status as a veteran of the armed forces of the United States, status as a current member or veteran of any reserve component of the armed forces of the United States, including the United States Army Reserve, United States Marine Corps Reserve, United States Navy Reserve, United States Air Force Reserve, and United States Coast Guard Reserve, or status as a current member or veteran of the Illinois Army National Guard or Illinois Air National Guard.

(K) National Origin. "National origin" means the place in which a person or one of his or her ancestors was born.

(K-5) "Order of protection status" means a person's status as being a person protected under an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by a court of another state.

(L) Person. "Person" includes one or more individuals, partnerships, associations or organizations, labor organizations, labor unions, joint apprenticeship committees, or union labor associations, corporations, the State of Illinois and its instrumentalities, political subdivisions, units of local government, legal representatives, trustees in bankruptcy or receivers.

(M) Public Contract. "Public contract" includes every contract to which the State, any of its political subdivisions or any municipal corporation is a party.

(N) Religion. "Religion" includes all aspects of religious observance and practice, as well as belief, except that with respect to employers, for the purposes of Article 2, "religion" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (F) of Section 2-101.

(O) Sex. "Sex" means the status of being male or female.

(O-1) Sexual orientation. "Sexual orientation" means actual or perceived heterosexuality, homosexuality, bisexuality, or gender-related identity, whether or not traditionally associated with the person's designated sex at birth. "Sexual orientation" does not include a physical or sexual attraction to a minor by an adult.

(P) Unfavorable Military Discharge. "Unfavorable military discharge" includes discharges from the Armed Forces of the United States, their Reserve components or any National Guard or Naval Militia which are classified as RE-3 or the equivalent thereof, but does not include those characterized as RE-4 or "Dishonorable".

(Q) Unlawful Discrimination. "Unlawful discrimination" means discrimination against a person because of his or her race, color, religion, national origin, ancestry, age, sex, marital status, order of protection status, disability, military status, sexual orientation, or unfavorable discharge from military service as those terms are defined in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-447, eff. 1-1-10; 97-410, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-21-11.)

(775 ILCS 5/7A-102) (from Ch. 68, par. 7A-102)

Sec. 7A-102. Procedures.

(A) Charge.

(1) Within 180 days after the date that a civil rights violation allegedly has been committed, a charge in writing under oath or affirmation may be filed with the Department by an aggrieved party or issued by the Department itself under the signature of the Director.

(2) The charge shall be in such detail as to substantially apprise any party properly concerned as to the time, place, and facts surrounding the alleged civil rights violation.

(3) Charges deemed filed with the Department pursuant to subsection (A-1) of this Section shall be deemed to be in compliance with this subsection.

(A-1) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission Charges.

(1) If a charge is filed with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) within 180 days after the date of the alleged civil rights violation, the charge shall be deemed filed with the Department on the date filed with the EEOC. If the EEOC is the governmental agency designated to investigate the charge first, the Department shall take no action until the EEOC makes a determination on the charge and after the complainant notifies the Department of the EEOC's determination. In such cases, after receiving notice from the EEOC that a charge was filed, the Department shall notify the parties that (i) a charge has been received by the EEOC and has been sent to the Department for dual filing purposes; (ii) the EEOC is the governmental agency responsible for investigating the charge and that the investigation shall be conducted pursuant to the rules and procedures adopted by the EEOC; (iii) it will take no action on the charge until the EEOC issues its determination; (iv) the complainant must submit a copy of the EEOC's determination within 30 days after service of the determination by the EEOC on complainant; and (v) that the time period to investigate the charge contained in subsection (G) of this Section is tolled from the date on which the charge is filed with the EEOC until the EEOC issues its determination.

(2) If the EEOC finds reasonable cause to believe that there has been a violation of federal law and if the Department is timely notified of the EEOC's findings by complainant, the Department shall notify complainant that the Department has adopted the EEOC's determination of reasonable cause and that complainant has the right, within 90 days after receipt of the Department's notice, to either file his or her own complaint with the Illinois Human Rights Commission or commence a civil action in the appropriate circuit court or other appropriate court of competent jurisdiction. The Department's notice to complainant that the Department has adopted the EEOC's determination of reasonable cause shall constitute the Department's Report for purposes of subparagraph (D) of this Section.

(3) For those charges alleging violations within the jurisdiction of both the EEOC and the Department and for which the EEOC either (i) does not issue a determination, but does issue the complainant a notice of a right to sue, including when the right to sue is issued at the request of the complainant, or (ii) determines that it is unable to establish that illegal discrimination has occurred and issues the complainant a right to sue notice, and if the Department is timely notified of the EEOC's determination by complainant, the Department shall notify the parties that the Department will adopt the EEOC's determination as a dismissal for lack of substantial evidence unless the complainant requests in writing within 35 days after receipt of the Department's notice that the Department review the EEOC's determination.

(a) If the complainant does not file a written request with the Department to review the EEOC's determination within 35 days after receipt of the Department's notice, the Department shall notify complainant that the decision of the EEOC has been adopted by the Department as a dismissal for lack of substantial evidence and that the complainant has the right, within 90 days after receipt of the Department's notice, to commence a civil action in the appropriate circuit court or other appropriate court of competent jurisdiction. The Department's notice to complainant that the Department has adopted the EEOC's determination shall constitute the Department's report for purposes of subparagraph (D) of this Section.

(b) If the complainant does file a written request with the Department to review the EEOC's determination, the Department shall review the EEOC's determination and any evidence obtained by the EEOC during its investigation. If, after reviewing the EEOC's determination and any evidence obtained by the EEOC, the Department determines there is no need for further investigation of the charge, the Department shall issue a report and the Director shall determine whether there is substantial evidence that the alleged civil rights violation has been committed pursuant to subsection (D) of Section 7A-102. If, after reviewing the EEOC's determination and any evidence obtained by the EEOC, the Department determines there is a need for further investigation of the charge, the Department may conduct any further investigation it deems necessary. After reviewing the EEOC's determination, the evidence obtained by the EEOC, and any additional investigation conducted by the Department, the Department shall issue a report and the Director shall determine whether there is substantial evidence that the alleged civil rights violation has been committed pursuant to subsection (D) of Section 7A-102 of this Act.

(4) Pursuant to this Section, if the EEOC dismisses the charge or a portion of the charge of discrimination because, under federal law, the EEOC lacks jurisdiction over the charge, and if, under this Act, the Department has jurisdiction over the charge of discrimination, the Department shall investigate the charge or portion of the charge dismissed by the EEOC for lack of jurisdiction pursuant to subsections (A), (A-1), (B), (B-1), (C), (D), (E), (F), (G), (H), (I), (J), and (K) of Section 7A-102 of this Act.

(5) The time limit set out in subsection (G) of this Section is tolled from the date on which the charge is filed with the EEOC to the date on which the EEOC issues its determination.

(B) Notice and Response to Charge. The Department shall, within 10 days of the date on which the charge was filed, serve a copy of the charge on the respondent. This period shall not be construed to be jurisdictional. The charging party and the respondent may each file a position statement and other materials with the Department regarding the charge of alleged discrimination within 60 days of receipt of the notice of the charge. The position statements and other materials filed shall remain confidential unless otherwise agreed to by the party providing the information and shall not be served on or made available to the other party during pendency of a charge with the Department. The Department shall require the respondent to file a verified response to the allegations contained in the charge within 60 days of receipt of the notice of the charge. The respondent shall serve a copy of its response on the complainant or his representative. All allegations contained in the charge not timely denied by the respondent shall be deemed admitted, unless the respondent states that it is without sufficient information to form a belief with respect to such allegation. The Department may issue a notice of default directed to any respondent who fails to file a verified response to a charge within 60 days of receipt of the notice of the charge, unless the respondent can demonstrate good cause as to why such notice should not issue. The term "good cause" shall be defined by rule promulgated by the Department. Within 30 days of receipt of the respondent's response, the complainant may file a reply to said response and shall serve a copy of said reply on the respondent or his representative. A party shall have the right to supplement his response or reply at any time that the investigation of the charge is pending. The Department shall, within 10 days of the date on which the charge was filed, and again no later than 335 days thereafter, send by certified or registered mail written notice to the complainant and to the respondent informing the complainant of the complainant's right to either file a complaint with the Human Rights Commission or commence a civil action in the appropriate circuit court under subparagraph (2) of paragraph (G), including in such notice the dates within which the complainant may exercise this right. In the notice the Department shall notify the complainant that the charge of civil rights violation will be dismissed with prejudice and with no right to further proceed if a written complaint is not timely filed with the Commission or with the appropriate circuit court by the complainant pursuant to subparagraph (2) of paragraph (G) or by the Department pursuant to subparagraph (1) of paragraph (G).

(B-1) Mediation. The complainant and respondent may agree to voluntarily submit the charge to mediation without waiving any rights that are otherwise available to either party pursuant to this Act and without incurring any obligation to accept the result of the mediation process. Nothing occurring in mediation shall be disclosed by the Department or admissible in evidence in any subsequent proceeding unless the complainant and the respondent agree in writing that such disclosure be made.

(C) Investigation.

(1) After the respondent has been notified, the Department shall conduct a full investigation of the allegations set forth in the charge.

(2) The Director or his or her designated representatives shall have authority to request any member of the Commission to issue subpoenas to compel the attendance of a witness or the production for examination of any books, records or documents whatsoever.

(3) If any witness whose testimony is required for any investigation resides outside the State, or through illness or any other good cause as determined by the Director is unable to be interviewed by the investigator or appear at a fact finding conference, his or her testimony or deposition may be taken, within or without the State, in the same manner as is provided for in the taking of depositions in civil cases in circuit courts.

(4) Upon reasonable notice to the complainant and the respondent, the Department shall conduct a fact finding conference, unless prior to 365 days after the date on which the charge was filed the Director has determined whether there is substantial evidence that the alleged civil rights violation has been committed, the charge has been dismissed for lack of jurisdiction, or the parties voluntarily and in writing agree to waive the fact finding conference. Any party's failure to attend the conference without good cause shall result in dismissal or default. The term "good cause" shall be defined by rule promulgated by the Department. A notice of dismissal or default shall be issued by the Director. The notice of default issued by the Director shall notify the respondent that a request for review may be filed in writing with the Commission within 30 days of receipt of notice of default. The notice of dismissal issued by the Director shall give the complainant notice of his or her right to seek review of the dismissal before the Human Rights Commission or commence a civil action in the appropriate circuit court. If the complainant chooses to have the Human Rights Commission review the dismissal order, he or she shall file a request for review with the Commission within 90 days after receipt of the Director's notice. If the complainant chooses to file a request for review with the Commission, he or she may not later commence a civil action in a circuit court. If the complainant chooses to commence a civil action in a circuit court, he or she must do so within 90 days after receipt of the Director's notice.

(D) Report.

(1) Each charge shall be the subject of a report to the Director. The report shall be a confidential document subject to review by the Director, authorized Department employees, the parties, and, where indicated by this Act, members of the Commission or their designated hearing officers.

(2) Upon review of the report, the Director shall determine whether there is substantial evidence that the alleged civil rights violation has been committed. The determination of substantial evidence is limited to determining the need for further consideration of the charge pursuant to this Act and includes, but is not limited to, findings of fact and conclusions, as well as the reasons for the determinations on all material issues. Substantial evidence is evidence which a reasonable mind accepts as sufficient to support a particular conclusion and which consists of more than a mere scintilla but may be somewhat less than a preponderance.

(3) If the Director determines that there is no substantial evidence, the charge shall be dismissed by order of the Director and the Director shall give the complainant notice of his or her right to seek review of the dismissal order before the Commission or commence a civil action in the appropriate circuit court. If the complainant chooses to have the Human Rights Commission review the dismissal order, he or she shall file a request for review with the Commission within 90 days after receipt of the Director's notice. If the complainant chooses to file a request for review with the Commission, he or she may not later commence a civil action in a circuit court. If the complainant chooses to commence a civil action in a circuit court, he or she must do so within 90 days after receipt of the Director's notice.

(4) If the Director determines that there is substantial evidence, he or she shall notify the complainant and respondent of that determination. The Director shall also notify the parties that the complainant has the right to either commence a civil action in the appropriate circuit court or request that the Department of Human Rights file a complaint with the Human Rights Commission on his or her behalf. Any such complaint shall be filed within 90 days after receipt of the Director's notice. If the complainant chooses to have the Department file a complaint with the Human Rights Commission on his or her behalf, the complainant must, within 30 days after receipt of the Director's notice, request in writing that the Department file the complaint. If the complainant timely requests that the Department file the complaint, the Department shall file the complaint on his or her behalf. If the complainant fails to timely request that the Department file the complaint, the complainant may file his or her complaint with the Commission or commence a civil action in the appropriate circuit court. If the complainant files a complaint with the Human Rights Commission, the complainant shall give notice to the Department of the filing of the complaint with the Human Rights Commission.

(E) Conciliation.

(1) When there is a finding of substantial evidence, the Department may designate a Department employee who is an attorney licensed to practice in Illinois to endeavor to eliminate the effect of the alleged civil rights violation and to prevent its repetition by means of conference and conciliation.

(2) When the Department determines that a formal conciliation conference is necessary, the complainant and respondent shall be notified of the time and place of the conference by registered or certified mail at least 10 days prior thereto and either or both parties shall appear at the conference in person or by attorney.

(3) The place fixed for the conference shall be within 35 miles of the place where the civil rights violation is alleged to have been committed.

(4) Nothing occurring at the conference shall be disclosed by the Department unless the complainant and respondent agree in writing that such disclosure be made.

(5) The Department's efforts to conciliate the matter shall not stay or extend the time for filing the complaint with the Commission or the circuit court.

(F) Complaint.

(1) When the complainant requests that the Department file a complaint with the Commission on his or her behalf, the Department shall prepare a written complaint, under oath or affirmation, stating the nature of the civil rights violation substantially as alleged in the charge previously filed and the relief sought on behalf of the aggrieved party. The Department shall file the complaint with the Commission.

(2) If the complainant chooses to commence a civil action in a circuit court, he or she must do so in the circuit court in the county wherein the civil rights violation was allegedly committed. The form of the complaint in any such civil action shall be in accordance with the Illinois Code of Civil Procedure.

(G) Time Limit.

(1) When a charge of a civil rights violation has been properly filed, the Department, within 365 days thereof or within any extension of that period agreed to in writing by all parties, shall issue its report as required by subparagraph (D). Any such report shall be duly served upon both the complainant and the respondent.

(2) If the Department has not issued its report within 365 days after the charge is filed, or any such longer period agreed to in writing by all the parties, the complainant shall have 90 days to either file his or her own complaint with the Human Rights Commission or commence a civil action in the appropriate circuit court. If the complainant files a complaint with the Commission, the form of the complaint shall be in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (F)(1). If the complainant commences a civil action in a circuit court, the form of the complaint shall be in accordance with the Illinois Code of Civil Procedure. The aggrieved party shall notify the Department that a complaint has been filed and shall serve a copy of the complaint on the Department on the same date that the complaint is filed with the Commission or in circuit court. If the complainant files a complaint with the Commission, he or she may not later commence a civil action in circuit court.

(3) If an aggrieved party files a complaint with the Human Rights Commission or commences a civil action in circuit court pursuant to paragraph (2) of this subsection, or if the time period for filing a complaint has expired, the Department shall immediately cease its investigation and dismiss the charge of civil rights violation. Any final order entered by the Commission under this Section is appealable in accordance with paragraph (B)(1) of Section 8-111. Failure to immediately cease an investigation and dismiss the charge of civil rights violation as provided in this paragraph (3) constitutes grounds for entry of an order by the circuit court permanently enjoining the investigation. The Department may also be liable for any costs and other damages incurred by the respondent as a result of the action of the Department.

(4) The Department shall stay any administrative proceedings under this Section after the filing of a civil action by or on behalf of the aggrieved party under any federal or State law seeking relief with respect to the alleged civil rights violation.

(H) This amendatory Act of 1995 applies to causes of action filed on or after January 1, 1996.

(I) This amendatory Act of 1996 applies to causes of action filed on or after January 1, 1996.

(J) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 95-243 apply to charges filed on or after the effective date of those changes.

(K) The changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly apply to charges filed on or after the effective date of those changes.

(Source: P.A. 96-876, eff. 2-2-10; 97-22, eff. 1-1-12; 97-596, eff. 8-26-11; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 720. The Limited Liability Company Act is amended by changing Section 30-10 as follows:

(805 ILCS 180/30-10)

Sec. 30-10. Rights of a transferee.

(a) A transferee of a distributional interest may become a member of a limited liability company if and to the extent that the transferor gives the transferee the right in accordance with authority described in the operating agreement or all other members consent.

(b) A transferee who has become a member, to the extent transferred, has the rights and powers, and is subject to the restrictions and liabilities, of a member under the operating agreement of a limited liability company and this Act. A transferee who becomes a member also is liable for the transferor member's obligations to make contributions under Section 20-5 and for obligations under Section 25-35 to return unlawful distributions, but the transferee is not obligated for the transferor member's liabilities unknown to the transferee at the time the transferee becomes a member.

(c) Whether or not a transferee of a distributional interest becomes a member under subsection (a) of this Section, the transferor is not released from liability to the limited liability company under the operating agreement or this Act.

(d) A transferee who does not become a member is not entitled to participate in the management or conduct of the limited liability company's business, require access to information concerning the company's transactions, or inspect or copy any of the company's records.

(e) A transferee who does not become a member is entitled to:

(1) receive, in accordance with the transfer, distributions to which the transferor would otherwise be entitled;

(2) receive, upon dissolution and winding up of the limited liability company's business:

(A) in accordance with the transfer, the net amount otherwise distributable to the transferor; and

(B) a statement of account only from the date of the latest statement of account agreed to by all the members; and

(3) seek under subdivision (5) (6) of Section 35-1 a judicial determination that it is equitable to dissolve and wind up the company's business.

(f) A limited liability company need not give effect to a transfer until it has notice of the transfer.

(Source: P.A. 90-424, eff. 1-1-98; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 725. The Uniform Limited Partnership Act (2001) is amended by changing Sections 210 and 1305 as follows:

(805 ILCS 215/210)

Sec. 210. Annual report for Secretary of State.

(a) A limited partnership or a foreign limited partnership authorized to transact business in this State shall deliver to the Secretary of State for filing an annual report that states:

(1) the name of the limited partnership or foreign limited partnership;

(2) the street and mailing address of its designated office and the name and street and mailing address of its agent for service of process in this State;

(3) in the case of a limited partnership, the street and mailing address of its principal office;

(4) in the case of a foreign limited partnership, the State or other jurisdiction under whose law the foreign limited partnership is formed and any alternate name adopted under Section 905(a);

(5) Additional information that may be necessary or appropriate in order to enable the Secretary of State to administer this Act and to verify the proper amount of fees payable by the limited partnership; and

(6) The annual report shall be made on forms prescribed and furnished by the Secretary of State, and the information therein, required by paragraphs (1) through (4) of subsection (a), both inclusive, shall be given as of the date of signing of the annual report. The annual report shall be signed by a general partner.

(b) Information in an annual report must be current as of the date the annual report is delivered to the Secretary of State for filing.

(c) The annual report, together with all fees and charges prescribed by this Act, shall be delivered to the Secretary of State within 60 days immediately preceding the first day of the anniversary month. Proof to the satisfaction of the Secretary of State that, before the first day of the anniversary month of the limited partnership or the foreign limited partnership, the report, together with all fees and charges as prescribed by this Act, was deposited in the United States mail in a sealed envelope, properly addressed, with postage prepaid, shall be deemed compliance with this requirement.

(d) If an annual report does not contain the information required in subsection (a), the Secretary of State shall promptly notify the reporting limited partnership or foreign limited partnership and return the report to it for correction. If the report is corrected to contain the information required in subsection (a) and delivered to the Secretary of State within 30 days after the effective date of the notice, it is timely delivered.

(e) If a limited partnership or foreign limited partnership fails to file its annual report and pay the requisite fee as required by this Act before the first day of the anniversary month in the year which it is due, the Secretary of State shall:

(1) declare any limited partnership or foreign limited partnership to be delinquent and not in good standing; and

(2) not file any additional documents, amendments, reports, or other papers relating to the limited partnership or foreign limited partnership organized under or subject to the provisions of this Act until the delinquency is satisfied.

(f) (e) If a limited partnership or foreign limited partnership fails to file its annual report and pay the requisite fee as required by this Act before the first day of the anniversary month in the year in which it is due, the Secretary of State may show the limited partnership or foreign limited partnership as not in good standing in response to inquiries received from any party regarding a limited partnership that is delinquent.

(Source: P.A. 95-368, eff. 8-23-07; revised 11-21-11.)

(805 ILCS 215/1305)

Sec. 1305. Federal Employers Identification Number.

(a) All documents required by this Act to be filed in the Office of the Secretary of State shall contain the Federal Employers Identification Number of the limited partnership or foreign limited partnership with respect to which the document is filed, unless the partnership has not obtained a Federal Employer Identification Number at the time of filing. In the event a limited partnership or foreign limited partnership does not have a Federal Employer Identification Number at the time of such filing, such a number shall be obtained on behalf of such partnership and shall be given to the Secretary of State within 180 days after filing its initial document with the Secretary of State.

(b) If a limited partnership or foreign limited partnership fails to provide the Federal Employer Identification Number within the time period prescribed by this Section, the Secretary of State shall:

(1) declare any limited partnership or foreign limited partnership to be delinquent and not in good standing; and

(2) not file any additional documents, amendments, reports, or other papers relating to the limited partnership or foreign limited partnership organized under or subject to the provisions of this Act until the delinquency is satisfied.

(c) (e) If a limited partnership or foreign limited partnership fails to provide the Federal Employer Identification Number within the time period prescribed by this Section, the Secretary of State may show the limited partnership or foreign limited partnership as not in good standing in response to inquiries received from any party regarding a limited partnership that is delinquent.

(Source: P.A. 95-368, eff. 8-23-07; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 730. The Uniform Commercial Code is amended by changing Sections 3-305, 4A-211, and 4A-507 as follows:

(810 ILCS 5/3-305) (from Ch. 26, par. 3-305)

Sec. 3-305. Defenses and claims in recoupment.

(a) Except as stated in subsection (b), the right to enforce the obligation of a party to pay an instrument is subject to the following:

(1) a defense of the obligor based on (i) infancy of the obligor to the extent it is a defense to a simple contract, (ii) duress, lack of legal capacity, or illegality of the transaction which, under the law, nullifies the obligation of the obligor, (iii) fraud that induced the obligor to sign the instrument with neither knowledge nor reasonable opportunity to learn of its character or its essential terms, or (iv) discharge of the obligor in insolvency proceedings;

(2) a defense of the obligor stated in another Section of this Article or a defense of the obligor that would be available if the person entitled to enforce the instrument were enforcing a right to payment under a simple contract; and

(3) a claim in recoupment of the obligor against the original payee of the instrument if the claim arose from the transaction that gave give rise to the instrument; but the claim of the obligor may be asserted against a transferee of the instrument only to reduce the amount owing on the instrument at the time the action is brought.

(b) The right of a holder in due course to enforce the obligation of a party to pay the instrument is subject to defenses of the obligor stated in subsection (a)(1), but is not subject to defenses of the obligor stated in subsection (a)(2) or claims in recoupment stated in subsection (a)(3) against a person other than the holder.

(c) Except as stated in subsection (d), in an action to enforce the obligation of a party to pay the instrument, the obligor may not assert against the person entitled to enforce the instrument a defense, claim in recoupment, or claim to the instrument (Section 3-306) of another person, but the other person's claim to the instrument may be asserted by the obligor if the other person is joined in the action and personally asserts the claim against the person entitled to enforce the instrument. An obligor is not obliged to pay the instrument if the person seeking enforcement of the instrument does not have rights of a holder in due course and the obligor proves that the instrument is a lost or stolen instrument.

(d) In an action to enforce the obligation of an accommodation party to pay an instrument, the accommodation party may assert against the person entitled to enforce the instrument any defense or claim in recoupment under subsection (a) that the accommodated party could assert against the person entitled to enforce the instrument, except the defenses of discharge in insolvency proceedings, infancy, or lack of legal capacity.

(Source: P.A. 87-582; 87-1135; revised 11-21-11.)

(810 ILCS 5/4A-211) (from Ch. 26, par. 4A-211)

Sec. 4A-211. Cancellation and amendment of payment order.

(a) A communication of the sender of a payment order cancelling or amending the order may be transmitted to the receiving bank orally, electronically, or in writing. If a security procedure is in effect between the sender and the receiving bank, the communication is not effective to cancel or amend the order unless the communication is verified pursuant to the security procedure or the bank agrees to the cancellation or amendment.

(b) Subject to subsection (a), a communication by the sender cancelling or amending a payment order is effective to cancel or amend the order if notice of the communication is received at a time and in a manner affording the receiving bank a reasonable opportunity to act on the communication before the bank accepts the payment order.

(c) After a payment order has been accepted, cancellation or amendment of the order is not effective unless the receiving bank agrees or a funds transfer system rule allows cancellation or amendment without agreement of the bank.

(1) With respect to a payment order accepted by a receiving bank other than the beneficiary's bank, cancellation or amendment is not effective unless a conforming cancellation or amendment of the payment order issued by the receiving bank is also made.

(2) With respect to a payment order accepted by the beneficiary's bank, cancellation or amendment is not effective unless the order was issued in execution of an unauthorized payment order, or because of a mistake by a sender in the funds transfer which resulted in the issuance of a payment order (i) that is a duplicate of a payment order previously issued by the sender, (ii) that orders payment to a beneficiary not entitled to receive payment from the originator, or (iii) that orders payment in an amount greater than that the amount the beneficiary was entitled to receive from the originator. If the payment order is canceled or amended, the beneficiary's bank is entitled to recover from the beneficiary any amount paid to the beneficiary to the extent allowed by the law governing mistake and restitution.

(d) An unaccepted payment order is canceled by operation of law at the close of the fifth funds transfer business day of the receiving bank after the execution date or payment date of the order.

(e) A canceled payment order cannot be accepted. If an accepted payment order is canceled, the acceptance is nullified and no person has any right or obligation based on the acceptance. Amendment of a payment order is deemed to be cancellation of the original order at the time of amendment and issue of a new payment order in the amended form at the same time.

(f) Unless otherwise provided in an agreement of the parties or in a funds transfer system rule, if the receiving bank, after accepting a payment order, agrees to cancellation or amendment of the order by the sender or is bound by a funds transfer system rule allowing cancellation or amendment without the bank's agreement, the sender, whether or not cancellation or amendment is effective, is liable to the bank for any loss and expenses, including reasonable attorney's fees, incurred by the bank as a result of the cancellation or amendment or attempted cancellation or amendment.

(g) A payment order is not revoked by the death or legal incapacity of the sender unless the receiving bank knows of the death or of an adjudication of incapacity by a court of competent jurisdiction and has reasonable opportunity to act before acceptance of the order.

(h) A funds transfer system rule is not effective to the extent it conflicts with subsection (c)(2).

(Source: P.A. 86-1291; revised 11-21-11.)

(810 ILCS 5/4A-507) (from Ch. 26, par. 4A-507)

Sec. 4A-507. Choice of law.

(a) The following rules apply unless the affected parties otherwise agree or subsection (c) applies:

(1) The rights and obligations between the sender of a payment order and the receiving bank are governed by the law of the jurisdiction in which the receiving bank is located.

(2) The rights and obligations between the beneficiary's bank and the beneficiary are governed by the law of the jurisdiction in which the beneficiary's bank is located.

(3) The issue of when payment is made pursuant to a funds transfer by the originator to the beneficiary is governed by the law of the jurisdiction in which the beneficiary's bank is located.

(b) If the parties described in each paragraph of subsection (a) have made an agreement selecting the law of a particular jurisdiction to govern rights and obligations between each other, the law of that jurisdiction governs those rights and obligations, whether or not the payment order or the funds transfer bears a reasonable relation to that jurisdiction.

(c) A funds transfer system rule may select the law of a particular jurisdiction to govern (i) rights and obligations between participating banks with respect to payment orders transmitted or processed through the system, or (ii) the rights and obligations of some or all parties to a funds transfer any part of which is carried out by means of the system. A choice of law made pursuant to clause (i) is binding on participating banks. A choice of law made pursuant to clause (ii) is binding on the originator, other sender, or a receiving bank having notice that the funds transfer system might be used in the funds transfer and of the choice of law by the system when the originator, other sender, or receiving bank issued or accepted a payment order. The beneficiary of a funds transfer is bound by the choice of law if, when the funds transfer is initiated, the beneficiary has notice that the funds transfer system might be used in the funds transfer and of the choice of law by the system. The law of a jurisdiction selected pursuant to this subsection may govern, whether or not that law bears a reasonable relation to the matter in issue.

(d) In the event of inconsistency between an agreement under subsection (b) and a choice of law rule under subsection (c), the agreement under subsection (b) prevails.

(e) If a funds transfer is made by use of more than that one funds transfer system and there is inconsistency between choice of law rules of the systems, the matter in issue is governed by the law of the selected jurisdiction that has the most significant relationship to the matter in issue.

(Source: P.A. 86-1291; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 735. The Illinois Business Brokers Act of 1995 is amended by changing Section 10-95 as follows:

(815 ILCS 307/10-95)

Sec. 10-95. Miscellaneous provisions.

(a) The rights and remedies under this Act are in addition to any other rights or remedies that may exist at law or equity.

(b) Any condition, stipulation, or provision binding any client of a business broker to waive compliance with or relieve a person from any duty or liability imposed by or any right provided by this Act or any rule or order pursuant to this Act is void.

(c) If any provision of this Act or its application to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity of that provision or application does not affect effect other provisions or applications of this Act that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.

(Source: P.A. 90-70, eff. 7-8-97; revised 11-21-11.)

Section 740. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by changing Section 2BBB as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2BBB)

Sec. 2BBB. Long term care facility, ID/DD facility, or specialized mental health rehabilitation facility; Consumer Choice Information Report. A long term care facility that fails to comply with Section 2-214 of the Nursing Home Care Act or a facility that fails to comply with Section 2-214 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or Section 2-214 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 745. The Workers' Compensation Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 8, and 11 as follows:

(820 ILCS 305/1) (from Ch. 48, par. 138.1)

Sec. 1. This Act may be cited as the Workers' Compensation Act.

(a) The term "employer" as used in this Act means:

1. The State and each county, city, town, township, incorporated village, school district, body politic, or municipal corporation therein.

2. Every person, firm, public or private corporation, including hospitals, public service, eleemosynary, religious or charitable corporations or associations who has any person in service or under any contract for hire, express or implied, oral or written, and who is engaged in any of the enterprises or businesses enumerated in Section 3 of this Act, or who at or prior to the time of the accident to the employee for which compensation under this Act may be claimed, has in the manner provided in this Act elected to become subject to the provisions of this Act, and who has not, prior to such accident, effected a withdrawal of such election in the manner provided in this Act.

3. Any one engaging in any business or enterprise referred to in subsections 1 and 2 of Section 3 of this Act who undertakes to do any work enumerated therein, is liable to pay compensation to his own immediate employees in accordance with the provisions of this Act, and in addition thereto if he directly or indirectly engages any contractor whether principal or sub-contractor to do any such work, he is liable to pay compensation to the employees of any such contractor or sub-contractor unless such contractor or sub-contractor has insured, in any company or association authorized under the laws of this State to insure the liability to pay compensation under this Act, or guaranteed his liability to pay such compensation. With respect to any time limitation on the filing of claims provided by this Act, the timely filing of a claim against a contractor or subcontractor, as the case may be, shall be deemed to be a timely filing with respect to all persons upon whom liability is imposed by this paragraph.

In the event any such person pays compensation under this subsection he may recover the amount thereof from the contractor or sub-contractor, if any, and in the event the contractor pays compensation under this subsection he may recover the amount thereof from the sub-contractor, if any.

This subsection does not apply in any case where the accident occurs elsewhere than on, in or about the immediate premises on which the principal has contracted that the work be done.

4. Where an employer operating under and subject to the provisions of this Act loans an employee to another such employer and such loaned employee sustains a compensable accidental injury in the employment of such borrowing employer and where such borrowing employer does not provide or pay the benefits or payments due such injured employee, such loaning employer is liable to provide or pay all benefits or payments due such employee under this Act and as to such employee the liability of such loaning and borrowing employers is joint and several, provided that such loaning employer is in the absence of agreement to the contrary entitled to receive from such borrowing employer full reimbursement for all sums paid or incurred pursuant to this paragraph together with reasonable attorneys' fees and expenses in any hearings before the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or in any action to secure such reimbursement. Where any benefit is provided or paid by such loaning employer the employee has the duty of rendering reasonable cooperation in any hearings, trials or proceedings in the case, including such proceedings for reimbursement.

Where an employee files an Application for Adjustment of Claim with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission alleging that his claim is covered by the provisions of the preceding paragraph, and joining both the alleged loaning and borrowing employers, they and each of them, upon written demand by the employee and within 7 days after receipt of such demand, shall have the duty of filing with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission a written admission or denial of the allegation that the claim is covered by the provisions of the preceding paragraph and in default of such filing or if any such denial be ultimately determined not to have been bona fide then the provisions of Paragraph K of Section 19 of this Act shall apply.

An employer whose business or enterprise or a substantial part thereof consists of hiring, procuring or furnishing employees to or for other employers operating under and subject to the provisions of this Act for the performance of the work of such other employers and who pays such employees their salary or wages notwithstanding that they are doing the work of such other employers shall be deemed a loaning employer within the meaning and provisions of this Section.

(b) The term "employee" as used in this Act means:

1. Every person in the service of the State, including members of the General Assembly, members of the Commerce Commission, members of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission, and all persons in the service of the University of Illinois, county, including deputy sheriffs and assistant state's attorneys, city, town, township, incorporated village or school district, body politic, or municipal corporation therein, whether by election, under appointment or contract of hire, express or implied, oral or written, including all members of the Illinois National Guard while on active duty in the service of the State, and all probation personnel of the Juvenile Court appointed pursuant to Article VI of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and including any official of the State, any county, city, town, township, incorporated village, school district, body politic or municipal corporation therein except any duly appointed member of a police department in any city whose population exceeds 500,000 according to the last Federal or State census, and except any member of a fire insurance patrol maintained by a board of underwriters in this State. A duly appointed member of a fire department in any city, the population of which exceeds 500,000 according to the last federal or State census, is an employee under this Act only with respect to claims brought under paragraph (c) of Section 8.

One employed by a contractor who has contracted with the State, or a county, city, town, township, incorporated village, school district, body politic or municipal corporation therein, through its representatives, is not considered as an employee of the State, county, city, town, township, incorporated village, school district, body politic or municipal corporation which made the contract.

2. Every person in the service of another under any contract of hire, express or implied, oral or written, including persons whose employment is outside of the State of Illinois where the contract of hire is made within the State of Illinois, persons whose employment results in fatal or non-fatal injuries within the State of Illinois where the contract of hire is made outside of the State of Illinois, and persons whose employment is principally localized within the State of Illinois, regardless of the place of the accident or the place where the contract of hire was made, and including aliens, and minors who, for the purpose of this Act are considered the same and have the same power to contract, receive payments and give quittances therefor, as adult employees.

3. Every sole proprietor and every partner of a business may elect to be covered by this Act.

An employee or his dependents under this Act who shall have a cause of action by reason of any injury, disablement or death arising out of and in the course of his employment may elect to pursue his remedy in the State where injured or disabled, or in the State where the contract of hire is made, or in the State where the employment is principally localized.

However, any employer may elect to provide and pay compensation to any employee other than those engaged in the usual course of the trade, business, profession or occupation of the employer by complying with Sections 2 and 4 of this Act. Employees are not included within the provisions of this Act when excluded by the laws of the United States relating to liability of employers to their employees for personal injuries where such laws are held to be exclusive.

The term "employee" does not include persons performing services as real estate broker, broker-salesman, or salesman when such persons are paid by commission only.

(c) "Commission" means the Industrial Commission created by Section 5 of "The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois", approved March 7, 1917, as amended, or the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission created by Section 13 of this Act.

(d) To obtain compensation under this Act, an employee bears the burden of showing, by a preponderance of the evidence, that he or she has sustained accidental injuries arising out of and in the course of the employment.

(Source: P.A. 97-18, eff. 6-28-11; 97-268, eff. 8-8-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(820 ILCS 305/8) (from Ch. 48, par. 138.8)

Sec. 8. The amount of compensation which shall be paid to the employee for an accidental injury not resulting in death is:

(a) The employer shall provide and pay the negotiated rate, if applicable, or the lesser of the health care provider's actual charges or according to a fee schedule, subject to Section 8.2, in effect at the time the service was rendered for all the necessary first aid, medical and surgical services, and all necessary medical, surgical and hospital services thereafter incurred, limited, however, to that which is reasonably required to cure or relieve from the effects of the accidental injury, even if a health care provider sells, transfers, or otherwise assigns an account receivable for procedures, treatments, or services covered under this Act. If the employer does not dispute payment of first aid, medical, surgical, and hospital services, the employer shall make such payment to the provider on behalf of the employee. The employer shall also pay for treatment, instruction and training necessary for the physical, mental and vocational rehabilitation of the employee, including all maintenance costs and expenses incidental thereto. If as a result of the injury the employee is unable to be self-sufficient the employer shall further pay for such maintenance or institutional care as shall be required.

The employee may at any time elect to secure his own physician, surgeon and hospital services at the employer's expense, or,

Upon agreement between the employer and the employees, or the employees' exclusive representative, and subject to the approval of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission, the employer shall maintain a list of physicians, to be known as a Panel of Physicians, who are accessible to the employees. The employer shall post this list in a place or places easily accessible to his employees. The employee shall have the right to make an alternative choice of physician from such Panel if he is not satisfied with the physician first selected. If, due to the nature of the injury or its occurrence away from the employer's place of business, the employee is unable to make a selection from the Panel, the selection process from the Panel shall not apply. The physician selected from the Panel may arrange for any consultation, referral or other specialized medical services outside the Panel at the employer's expense. Provided that, in the event the Commission shall find that a doctor selected by the employee is rendering improper or inadequate care, the Commission may order the employee to select another doctor certified or qualified in the medical field for which treatment is required. If the employee refuses to make such change the Commission may relieve the employer of his obligation to pay the doctor's charges from the date of refusal to the date of compliance.

Any vocational rehabilitation counselors who provide service under this Act shall have appropriate certifications which designate the counselor as qualified to render opinions relating to vocational rehabilitation. Vocational rehabilitation may include, but is not limited to, counseling for job searches, supervising a job search program, and vocational retraining including education at an accredited learning institution. The employee or employer may petition to the Commission to decide disputes relating to vocational rehabilitation and the Commission shall resolve any such dispute, including payment of the vocational rehabilitation program by the employer.

The maintenance benefit shall not be less than the temporary total disability rate determined for the employee. In addition, maintenance shall include costs and expenses incidental to the vocational rehabilitation program.

When the employee is working light duty on a part-time basis or full-time basis and earns less than he or she would be earning if employed in the full capacity of the job or jobs, then the employee shall be entitled to temporary partial disability benefits. Temporary partial disability benefits shall be equal to two-thirds of the difference between the average amount that the employee would be able to earn in the full performance of his or her duties in the occupation in which he or she was engaged at the time of accident and the gross amount which he or she is earning in the modified job provided to the employee by the employer or in any other job that the employee is working.

Every hospital, physician, surgeon or other person rendering treatment or services in accordance with the provisions of this Section shall upon written request furnish full and complete reports thereof to, and permit their records to be copied by, the employer, the employee or his dependents, as the case may be, or any other party to any proceeding for compensation before the Commission, or their attorneys.

Notwithstanding the foregoing, the employer's liability to pay for such medical services selected by the employee shall be limited to:

(1) all first aid and emergency treatment; plus

(2) all medical, surgical and hospital services provided by the physician, surgeon or hospital initially chosen by the employee or by any other physician, consultant, expert, institution or other provider of services recommended by said initial service provider or any subsequent provider of medical services in the chain of referrals from said initial service provider; plus

(3) all medical, surgical and hospital services provided by any second physician, surgeon or hospital subsequently chosen by the employee or by any other physician, consultant, expert, institution or other provider of services recommended by said second service provider or any subsequent provider of medical services in the chain of referrals from said second service provider. Thereafter the employer shall select and pay for all necessary medical, surgical and hospital treatment and the employee may not select a provider of medical services at the employer's expense unless the employer agrees to such selection. At any time the employee may obtain any medical treatment he desires at his own expense. This paragraph shall not affect the duty to pay for rehabilitation referred to above.

(4) The following shall apply for injuries occurring on or after June 28, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-18) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and only when an employer has an approved preferred provider program pursuant to Section 8.1a on the date the employee sustained his or her accidental injuries:

(A) The employer shall, in writing, on a form promulgated by the Commission, inform the employee of the preferred provider program;

(B) Subsequent to the report of an injury by an employee, the employee may choose in writing at any time to decline the preferred provider program, in which case that would constitute one of the two choices of medical providers to which the employee is entitled under subsection (a)(2) or (a)(3); and

(C) Prior to the report of an injury by an employee, when an employee chooses non-emergency treatment from a provider not within the preferred provider program, that would constitute the employee's one choice of medical providers to which the employee is entitled under subsection (a)(2) or (a)(3).

When an employer and employee so agree in writing, nothing in this Act prevents an employee whose injury or disability has been established under this Act, from relying in good faith, on treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone, in accordance with the tenets and practice of a recognized church or religious denomination, by a duly accredited practitioner thereof, and having nursing services appropriate therewith, without suffering loss or diminution of the compensation benefits under this Act. However, the employee shall submit to all physical examinations required by this Act. The cost of such treatment and nursing care shall be paid by the employee unless the employer agrees to make such payment.

Where the accidental injury results in the amputation of an arm, hand, leg or foot, or the enucleation of an eye, or the loss of any of the natural teeth, the employer shall furnish an artificial of any such members lost or damaged in accidental injury arising out of and in the course of employment, and shall also furnish the necessary braces in all proper and necessary cases. In cases of the loss of a member or members by amputation, the employer shall, whenever necessary, maintain in good repair, refit or replace the artificial limbs during the lifetime of the employee. Where the accidental injury accompanied by physical injury results in damage to a denture, eye glasses or contact eye lenses, or where the accidental injury results in damage to an artificial member, the employer shall replace or repair such denture, glasses, lenses, or artificial member.

The furnishing by the employer of any such services or appliances is not an admission of liability on the part of the employer to pay compensation.

The furnishing of any such services or appliances or the servicing thereof by the employer is not the payment of compensation.

(b) If the period of temporary total incapacity for work lasts more than 3 working days, weekly compensation as hereinafter provided shall be paid beginning on the 4th day of such temporary total incapacity and continuing as long as the total temporary incapacity lasts. In cases where the temporary total incapacity for work continues for a period of 14 days or more from the day of the accident compensation shall commence on the day after the accident.

1. The compensation rate for temporary total incapacity under this paragraph (b) of this Section shall be equal to 66 2/3% of the employee's average weekly wage computed in accordance with Section 10, provided that it shall be not less than 66 2/3% of the sum of the Federal minimum wage under the Fair Labor Standards Act, or the Illinois minimum wage under the Minimum Wage Law, whichever is more, multiplied by 40 hours. This percentage rate shall be increased by 10% for each spouse and child, not to exceed 100% of the total minimum wage calculation,

nor exceed the employee's average weekly wage computed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10, whichever is less.

2. The compensation rate in all cases other than for temporary total disability under this paragraph (b), and other than for serious and permanent disfigurement under paragraph (c) and other than for permanent partial disability under subparagraph (2) of paragraph (d) or under paragraph (e), of this Section shall be equal to 66 2/3% of the employee's average weekly wage computed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10, provided that it shall be not less than 66 2/3% of the sum of the Federal minimum wage under the Fair Labor Standards Act, or the Illinois minimum wage under the Minimum Wage Law, whichever is more, multiplied by 40 hours. This percentage rate shall be increased by 10% for each spouse and child, not to exceed 100% of the total minimum wage calculation,

nor exceed the employee's average weekly wage computed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10, whichever is less.

2.1. The compensation rate in all cases of serious and permanent disfigurement under paragraph (c) and of permanent partial disability under subparagraph (2) of paragraph (d) or under paragraph (e) of this Section shall be equal to 60% of the employee's average weekly wage computed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10, provided that it shall be not less than 66 2/3% of the sum of the Federal minimum wage under the Fair Labor Standards Act, or the Illinois minimum wage under the Minimum Wage Law, whichever is more, multiplied by 40 hours. This percentage rate shall be increased by 10% for each spouse and child, not to exceed 100% of the total minimum wage calculation,

nor exceed the employee's average weekly wage computed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10, whichever is less.

3. As used in this Section the term "child" means a child of the employee including any child legally adopted before the accident or whom at the time of the accident the employee was under legal obligation to support or to whom the employee stood in loco parentis, and who at the time of the accident was under 18 years of age and not emancipated. The term "children" means the plural of "child".

4. All weekly compensation rates provided under subparagraphs 1, 2 and 2.1 of this paragraph (b) of this Section shall be subject to the following limitations:

The maximum weekly compensation rate from July 1, 1975, except as hereinafter provided, shall be 100% of the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act, that being the wage that most closely approximates the State's average weekly wage.

The maximum weekly compensation rate, for the period July 1, 1984, through June 30, 1987, except as hereinafter provided, shall be $293.61. Effective July 1, 1987 and on July 1 of each year thereafter the maximum weekly compensation rate, except as hereinafter provided, shall be determined as follows: if during the preceding 12 month period there shall have been an increase in the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act, the weekly compensation rate shall be proportionately increased by the same percentage as the percentage of increase in the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act during such period.

The maximum weekly compensation rate, for the period January 1, 1981 through December 31, 1983, except as hereinafter provided, shall be 100% of the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act in effect on January 1, 1981. Effective January 1, 1984 and on January 1, of each year thereafter the maximum weekly compensation rate, except as hereinafter provided, shall be determined as follows: if during the preceding 12 month period there shall have been an increase in the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act, the weekly compensation rate shall be proportionately increased by the same percentage as the percentage of increase in the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act during such period.

From July 1, 1977 and thereafter such maximum weekly compensation rate in death cases under Section 7, and permanent total disability cases under paragraph (f) or subparagraph 18 of paragraph (3) of this Section and for temporary total disability under paragraph (b) of this Section and for amputation of a member or enucleation of an eye under paragraph (e) of this Section shall be increased to 133-1/3% of the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act.

For injuries occurring on or after February 1, 2006, the maximum weekly benefit under paragraph (d)1 of this Section shall be 100% of the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act.

4.1. Any provision herein to the contrary notwithstanding, the weekly compensation rate for compensation payments under subparagraph 18 of paragraph (e) of this Section and under paragraph (f) of this Section and under paragraph (a) of Section 7 and for amputation of a member or enucleation of an eye under paragraph (e) of this Section, shall in no event be less than 50% of the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act.

4.2. Any provision to the contrary notwithstanding, the total compensation payable under Section 7 shall not exceed the greater of $500,000 or 25 years.

5. For the purpose of this Section this State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act on July 1, 1975 is hereby fixed at $228.16 per week and the computation of compensation rates shall be based on the aforesaid average weekly wage until modified as hereinafter provided.

6. The Department of Employment Security of the State shall on or before the first day of December, 1977, and on or before the first day of June, 1978, and on the first day of each December and June of each year thereafter, publish the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act and the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission shall on the 15th day of January, 1978 and on the 15th day of July, 1978 and on the 15th day of each January and July of each year thereafter, post and publish the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act as last determined and published by the Department of Employment Security. The amount when so posted and published shall be conclusive and shall be applicable as the basis of computation of compensation rates until the next posting and publication as aforesaid.

7. The payment of compensation by an employer or his insurance carrier to an injured employee shall not constitute an admission of the employer's liability to pay compensation.

(c) For any serious and permanent disfigurement to the hand, head, face, neck, arm, leg below the knee or the chest above the axillary line, the employee is entitled to compensation for such disfigurement, the amount determined by agreement at any time or by arbitration under this Act, at a hearing not less than 6 months after the date of the accidental injury, which amount shall not exceed 150 weeks (if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006) or 162 weeks (if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006) at the applicable rate provided in subparagraph 2.1 of paragraph (b) of this Section.

No compensation is payable under this paragraph where compensation is payable under paragraphs (d), (e) or (f) of this Section.

A duly appointed member of a fire department in a city, the population of which exceeds 500,000 according to the last federal or State census, is eligible for compensation under this paragraph only where such serious and permanent disfigurement results from burns.

(d) 1. If, after the accidental injury has been sustained, the employee as a result thereof becomes partially incapacitated from pursuing his usual and customary line of employment, he shall, except in cases compensated under the specific schedule set forth in paragraph (e) of this Section, receive compensation for the duration of his disability, subject to the limitations as to maximum amounts fixed in paragraph (b) of this Section, equal to 66-2/3% of the difference between the average amount which he would be able to earn in the full performance of his duties in the occupation in which he was engaged at the time of the accident and the average amount which he is earning or is able to earn in some suitable employment or business after the accident. For accidental injuries that occur on or after September 1, 2011, an award for wage differential under this subsection shall be effective only until the employee reaches the age of 67 or 5 years from the date the award becomes final, whichever is later.

2. If, as a result of the accident, the employee sustains serious and permanent injuries not covered by paragraphs (c) and (e) of this Section or having sustained injuries covered by the aforesaid paragraphs (c) and (e), he shall have sustained in addition thereto other injuries which injuries do not incapacitate him from pursuing the duties of his employment but which would disable him from pursuing other suitable occupations, or which have otherwise resulted in physical impairment; or if such injuries partially incapacitate him from pursuing the duties of his usual and customary line of employment but do not result in an impairment of earning capacity, or having resulted in an impairment of earning capacity, the employee elects to waive his right to recover under the foregoing subparagraph 1 of paragraph (d) of this Section then in any of the foregoing events, he shall receive in addition to compensation for temporary total disability under paragraph (b) of this Section, compensation at the rate provided in subparagraph 2.1 of paragraph (b) of this Section for that percentage of 500 weeks that the partial disability resulting from the injuries covered by this paragraph bears to total disability. If the employee shall have sustained a fracture of one or more vertebra or fracture of the skull, the amount of compensation allowed under this Section shall be not less than 6 weeks for a fractured skull and 6 weeks for each fractured vertebra, and in the event the employee shall have sustained a fracture of any of the following facial bones: nasal, lachrymal, vomer, zygoma, maxilla, palatine or mandible, the amount of compensation allowed under this Section shall be not less than 2 weeks for each such fractured bone, and for a fracture of each transverse process not less than 3 weeks. In the event such injuries shall result in the loss of a kidney, spleen or lung, the amount of compensation allowed under this Section shall be not less than 10 weeks for each such organ. Compensation awarded under this subparagraph 2 shall not take into consideration injuries covered under paragraphs (c) and (e) of this Section and the compensation provided in this paragraph shall not affect the employee's right to compensation payable under paragraphs (b), (c) and (e) of this Section for the disabilities therein covered.

(e) For accidental injuries in the following schedule, the employee shall receive compensation for the period of temporary total incapacity for work resulting from such accidental injury, under subparagraph 1 of paragraph (b) of this Section, and shall receive in addition thereto compensation for a further period for the specific loss herein mentioned, but shall not receive any compensation under any other provisions of this Act. The following listed amounts apply to either the loss of or the permanent and complete loss of use of the member specified, such compensation for the length of time as follows:

1. Thumb-

70 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

76 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

2. First, or index finger-

40 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

43 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

3. Second, or middle finger-

35 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

38 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

4. Third, or ring finger-

25 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

27 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

5. Fourth, or little finger-

20 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

22 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

6. Great toe-

35 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

38 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

7. Each toe other than great toe-

12 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

13 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

8. The loss of the first or distal phalanx of the thumb or of any finger or toe shall be considered to be equal to the loss of one-half of such thumb, finger or toe and the compensation payable shall be one-half of the amount above specified. The loss of more than one phalanx shall be considered as the loss of the entire thumb, finger or toe. In no case shall the amount received for more than one finger exceed the amount provided in this schedule for the loss of a hand.

9. Hand-

190 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

205 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

190 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after June 28, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-18) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and if the accidental injury involves carpal tunnel syndrome due to repetitive or cumulative trauma, in which case the permanent partial disability shall not exceed 15% loss of use of the hand, except for cause shown by clear and convincing evidence and in which case the award shall not exceed 30% loss of use of the hand.

The loss of 2 or more digits, or one or more phalanges of 2 or more digits, of a hand may be compensated on the basis of partial loss of use of a hand, provided, further, that the loss of 4 digits, or the loss of use of 4 digits, in the same hand shall constitute the complete loss of a hand.

10. Arm-

235 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

253 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

Where an accidental injury results in the amputation of an arm below the elbow, such injury shall be compensated as a loss of an arm. Where an accidental injury results in the amputation of an arm above the elbow, compensation for an additional 15 weeks (if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006) or an additional 17 weeks (if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006) shall be paid, except where the accidental injury results in the amputation of an arm at the shoulder joint, or so close to shoulder joint that an artificial arm cannot be used, or results in the disarticulation of an arm at the shoulder joint, in which case compensation for an additional 65 weeks (if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006) or an additional 70 weeks (if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006) shall be paid.

11. Foot-

155 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

167 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

12. Leg-

200 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

215 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

Where an accidental injury results in the amputation of a leg below the knee, such injury shall be compensated as loss of a leg. Where an accidental injury results in the amputation of a leg above the knee, compensation for an additional 25 weeks (if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006) or an additional 27 weeks (if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006) shall be paid, except where the accidental injury results in the amputation of a leg at the hip joint, or so close to the hip joint that an artificial leg cannot be used, or results in the disarticulation of a leg at the hip joint, in which case compensation for an additional 75 weeks (if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006) or an additional 81 weeks (if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006) shall be paid.

13. Eye-

150 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

162 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

Where an accidental injury results in the enucleation of an eye, compensation for an additional 10 weeks (if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006) or an additional 11 weeks (if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006) shall be paid.

14. Loss of hearing of one ear-

50 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

54 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

Total and permanent loss of hearing of both ears-

200 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

215 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

15. Testicle-

50 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

54 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

Both testicles-

150 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but before February 1, 2006.

162 weeks if the accidental injury occurs on or after February 1, 2006.

16. For the permanent partial loss of use of a member or sight of an eye, or hearing of an ear, compensation during that proportion of the number of weeks in the foregoing schedule provided for the loss of such member or sight of an eye, or hearing of an ear, which the partial loss of use thereof bears to the total loss of use of such member, or sight of eye, or hearing of an ear.

(a) Loss of hearing for compensation purposes shall be confined to the frequencies of 1,000, 2,000 and 3,000 cycles per second. Loss of hearing ability for frequency tones above 3,000 cycles per second are not to be considered as constituting disability for hearing.

(b) The percent of hearing loss, for purposes of the determination of compensation claims for occupational deafness, shall be calculated as the average in decibels for the thresholds of hearing for the frequencies of 1,000, 2,000 and 3,000 cycles per second. Pure tone air conduction audiometric instruments, approved by nationally recognized authorities in this field, shall be used for measuring hearing loss. If the losses of hearing average 30 decibels or less in the 3 frequencies, such losses of hearing shall not then constitute any compensable hearing disability. If the losses of hearing average 85 decibels or more in the 3 frequencies, then the same shall constitute and be total or 100% compensable hearing loss.

(c) In measuring hearing impairment, the lowest measured losses in each of the 3 frequencies shall be added together and divided by 3 to determine the average decibel loss. For every decibel of loss exceeding 30 decibels an allowance of 1.82% shall be made up to the maximum of 100% which is reached at 85 decibels.

(d) If a hearing loss is established to have existed on July 1, 1975 by audiometric testing the employer shall not be liable for the previous loss so established nor shall he be liable for any loss for which compensation has been paid or awarded.

(e) No consideration shall be given to the question of whether or not the ability of an employee to understand speech is improved by the use of a hearing aid.

(f) No claim for loss of hearing due to industrial noise shall be brought against an employer or allowed unless the employee has been exposed for a period of time sufficient to cause permanent impairment to noise levels in excess of the following:

This subparagraph (f) shall not be applied in cases of hearing loss resulting from trauma or explosion.

17. In computing the compensation to be paid to any employee who, before the accident for which he claims compensation, had before that time sustained an injury resulting in the loss by amputation or partial loss by amputation of any member, including hand, arm, thumb or fingers, leg, foot or any toes, such loss or partial loss of any such member shall be deducted from any award made for the subsequent injury. For the permanent loss of use or the permanent partial loss of use of any such member or the partial loss of sight of an eye, for which compensation has been paid, then such loss shall be taken into consideration and deducted from any award for the subsequent injury.

18. The specific case of loss of both hands, both arms, or both feet, or both legs, or both eyes, or of any two thereof, or the permanent and complete loss of the use thereof, constitutes total and permanent disability, to be compensated according to the compensation fixed by paragraph (f) of this Section. These specific cases of total and permanent disability do not exclude other cases.

Any employee who has previously suffered the loss or permanent and complete loss of the use of any of such members, and in a subsequent independent accident loses another or suffers the permanent and complete loss of the use of any one of such members the employer for whom the injured employee is working at the time of the last independent accident is liable to pay compensation only for the loss or permanent and complete loss of the use of the member occasioned by the last independent accident.

19. In a case of specific loss and the subsequent death of such injured employee from other causes than such injury leaving a widow, widower, or dependents surviving before payment or payment in full for such injury, then the amount due for such injury is payable to the widow or widower and, if there be no widow or widower, then to such dependents, in the proportion which such dependency bears to total dependency.

Beginning July 1, 1980, and every 6 months thereafter, the Commission shall examine the Second Injury Fund and when, after deducting all advances or loans made to such Fund, the amount therein is $500,000 then the amount required to be paid by employers pursuant to paragraph (f) of Section 7 shall be reduced by one-half. When the Second Injury Fund reaches the sum of $600,000 then the payments shall cease entirely. However, when the Second Injury Fund has been reduced to $400,000, payment of one-half of the amounts required by paragraph (f) of Section 7 shall be resumed, in the manner herein provided, and when the Second Injury Fund has been reduced to $300,000, payment of the full amounts required by paragraph (f) of Section 7 shall be resumed, in the manner herein provided. The Commission shall make the changes in payment effective by general order, and the changes in payment become immediately effective for all cases coming before the Commission thereafter either by settlement agreement or final order, irrespective of the date of the accidental injury.

On August 1, 1996 and on February 1 and August 1 of each subsequent year, the Commission shall examine the special fund designated as the "Rate Adjustment Fund" and when, after deducting all advances or loans made to said fund, the amount therein is $4,000,000, the amount required to be paid by employers pursuant to paragraph (f) of Section 7 shall be reduced by one-half. When the Rate Adjustment Fund reaches the sum of $5,000,000 the payment therein shall cease entirely. However, when said Rate Adjustment Fund has been reduced to $3,000,000 the amounts required by paragraph (f) of Section 7 shall be resumed in the manner herein provided.

(f) In case of complete disability, which renders the employee wholly and permanently incapable of work, or in the specific case of total and permanent disability as provided in subparagraph 18 of paragraph (e) of this Section, compensation shall be payable at the rate provided in subparagraph 2 of paragraph (b) of this Section for life.

An employee entitled to benefits under paragraph (f) of this Section shall also be entitled to receive from the Rate Adjustment Fund provided in paragraph (f) of Section 7 of the supplementary benefits provided in paragraph (g) of this Section 8.

If any employee who receives an award under this paragraph afterwards returns to work or is able to do so, and earns or is able to earn as much as before the accident, payments under such award shall cease. If such employee returns to work, or is able to do so, and earns or is able to earn part but not as much as before the accident, such award shall be modified so as to conform to an award under paragraph (d) of this Section. If such award is terminated or reduced under the provisions of this paragraph, such employees have the right at any time within 30 months after the date of such termination or reduction to file petition with the Commission for the purpose of determining whether any disability exists as a result of the original accidental injury and the extent thereof.

Disability as enumerated in subdivision 18, paragraph (e) of this Section is considered complete disability.

If an employee who had previously incurred loss or the permanent and complete loss of use of one member, through the loss or the permanent and complete loss of the use of one hand, one arm, one foot, one leg, or one eye, incurs permanent and complete disability through the loss or the permanent and complete loss of the use of another member, he shall receive, in addition to the compensation payable by the employer and after such payments have ceased, an amount from the Second Injury Fund provided for in paragraph (f) of Section 7, which, together with the compensation payable from the employer in whose employ he was when the last accidental injury was incurred, will equal the amount payable for permanent and complete disability as provided in this paragraph of this Section.

The custodian of the Second Injury Fund provided for in paragraph (f) of Section 7 shall be joined with the employer as a party respondent in the application for adjustment of claim. The application for adjustment of claim shall state briefly and in general terms the approximate time and place and manner of the loss of the first member.

In its award the Commission or the Arbitrator shall specifically find the amount the injured employee shall be weekly paid, the number of weeks compensation which shall be paid by the employer, the date upon which payments begin out of the Second Injury Fund provided for in paragraph (f) of Section 7 of this Act, the length of time the weekly payments continue, the date upon which the pension payments commence and the monthly amount of the payments. The Commission shall 30 days after the date upon which payments out of the Second Injury Fund have begun as provided in the award, and every month thereafter, prepare and submit to the State Comptroller a voucher for payment for all compensation accrued to that date at the rate fixed by the Commission. The State Comptroller shall draw a warrant to the injured employee along with a receipt to be executed by the injured employee and returned to the Commission. The endorsed warrant and receipt is a full and complete acquittance to the Commission for the payment out of the Second Injury Fund. No other appropriation or warrant is necessary for payment out of the Second Injury Fund. The Second Injury Fund is appropriated for the purpose of making payments according to the terms of the awards.

As of July 1, 1980 to July 1, 1982, all claims against and obligations of the Second Injury Fund shall become claims against and obligations of the Rate Adjustment Fund to the extent there is insufficient money in the Second Injury Fund to pay such claims and obligations. In that case, all references to "Second Injury Fund" in this Section shall also include the Rate Adjustment Fund.

(g) Every award for permanent total disability entered by the Commission on and after July 1, 1965 under which compensation payments shall become due and payable after the effective date of this amendatory Act, and every award for death benefits or permanent total disability entered by the Commission on and after the effective date of this amendatory Act shall be subject to annual adjustments as to the amount of the compensation rate therein provided. Such adjustments shall first be made on July 15, 1977, and all awards made and entered prior to July 1, 1975 and on July 15 of each year thereafter. In all other cases such adjustment shall be made on July 15 of the second year next following the date of the entry of the award and shall further be made on July 15 annually thereafter. If during the intervening period from the date of the entry of the award, or the last periodic adjustment, there shall have been an increase in the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act, the weekly compensation rate shall be proportionately increased by the same percentage as the percentage of increase in the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act. The increase in the compensation rate under this paragraph shall in no event bring the total compensation rate to an amount greater than the prevailing maximum rate at the time that the annual adjustment is made. Such increase shall be paid in the same manner as herein provided for payments under the Second Injury Fund to the injured employee, or his dependents, as the case may be, out of the Rate Adjustment Fund provided in paragraph (f) of Section 7 of this Act. Payments shall be made at the same intervals as provided in the award or, at the option of the Commission, may be made in quarterly payment on the 15th day of January, April, July and October of each year. In the event of a decrease in such average weekly wage there shall be no change in the then existing compensation rate. The within paragraph shall not apply to cases where there is disputed liability and in which a compromise lump sum settlement between the employer and the injured employee, or his dependents, as the case may be, has been duly approved by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission.

Provided, that in cases of awards entered by the Commission for injuries occurring before July 1, 1975, the increases in the compensation rate adjusted under the foregoing provision of this paragraph (g) shall be limited to increases in the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act occurring after July 1, 1975.

For every accident occurring on or after July 20, 2005 but before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly (Senate Bill 1283 of the 94th General Assembly), the annual adjustments to the compensation rate in awards for death benefits or permanent total disability, as provided in this Act, shall be paid by the employer. The adjustment shall be made by the employer on July 15 of the second year next following the date of the entry of the award and shall further be made on July 15 annually thereafter. If during the intervening period from the date of the entry of the award, or the last periodic adjustment, there shall have been an increase in the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act, the employer shall increase the weekly compensation rate proportionately by the same percentage as the percentage of increase in the State's average weekly wage in covered industries under the Unemployment Insurance Act. The increase in the compensation rate under this paragraph shall in no event bring the total compensation rate to an amount greater than the prevailing maximum rate at the time that the annual adjustment is made. In the event of a decrease in such average weekly wage there shall be no change in the then existing compensation rate. Such increase shall be paid by the employer in the same manner and at the same intervals as the payment of compensation in the award. This paragraph shall not apply to cases where there is disputed liability and in which a compromise lump sum settlement between the employer and the injured employee, or his or her dependents, as the case may be, has been duly approved by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission.

The annual adjustments for every award of death benefits or permanent total disability involving accidents occurring before July 20, 2005 and accidents occurring on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly (Senate Bill 1283 of the 94th General Assembly) shall continue to be paid from the Rate Adjustment Fund pursuant to this paragraph and Section 7(f) of this Act.

(h) In case death occurs from any cause before the total compensation to which the employee would have been entitled has been paid, then in case the employee leaves any widow, widower, child, parent (or any grandchild, grandparent or other lineal heir or any collateral heir dependent at the time of the accident upon the earnings of the employee to the extent of 50% or more of total dependency) such compensation shall be paid to the beneficiaries of the deceased employee and distributed as provided in paragraph (g) of Section 7.

(h-1) In case an injured employee is under legal disability at the time when any right or privilege accrues to him or her under this Act, a guardian may be appointed pursuant to law, and may, on behalf of such person under legal disability, claim and exercise any such right or privilege with the same effect as if the employee himself or herself had claimed or exercised the right or privilege. No limitations of time provided by this Act run so long as the employee who is under legal disability is without a conservator or guardian.

(i) In case the injured employee is under 16 years of age at the time of the accident and is illegally employed, the amount of compensation payable under paragraphs (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) of this Section is increased 50%.

However, where an employer has on file an employment certificate issued pursuant to the Child Labor Law or work permit issued pursuant to the Federal Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, or a birth certificate properly and duly issued, such certificate, permit or birth certificate is conclusive evidence as to the age of the injured minor employee for the purposes of this Section.

Nothing herein contained repeals or amends the provisions of the Child Labor Law relating to the employment of minors under the age of 16 years.

(j) 1. In the event the injured employee receives benefits, including medical, surgical or hospital benefits under any group plan covering non-occupational disabilities contributed to wholly or partially by the employer, which benefits should not have been payable if any rights of recovery existed under this Act, then such amounts so paid to the employee from any such group plan as shall be consistent with, and limited to, the provisions of paragraph 2 hereof, shall be credited to or against any compensation payment for temporary total incapacity for work or any medical, surgical or hospital benefits made or to be made under this Act. In such event, the period of time for giving notice of accidental injury and filing application for adjustment of claim does not commence to run until the termination of such payments. This paragraph does not apply to payments made under any group plan which would have been payable irrespective of an accidental injury under this Act. Any employer receiving such credit shall keep such employee safe and harmless from any and all claims or liabilities that may be made against him by reason of having received such payments only to the extent of such credit.

Any excess benefits paid to or on behalf of a State employee by the State Employees' Retirement System under Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code on a death claim or disputed disability claim shall be credited against any payments made or to be made by the State of Illinois to or on behalf of such employee under this Act, except for payments for medical expenses which have already been incurred at the time of the award. The State of Illinois shall directly reimburse the State Employees' Retirement System to the extent of such credit.

2. Nothing contained in this Act shall be construed to give the employer or the insurance carrier the right to credit for any benefits or payments received by the employee other than compensation payments provided by this Act, and where the employee receives payments other than compensation payments, whether as full or partial salary, group insurance benefits, bonuses, annuities or any other payments, the employer or insurance carrier shall receive credit for each such payment only to the extent of the compensation that would have been payable during the period covered by such payment.

3. The extension of time for the filing of an Application for Adjustment of Claim as provided in paragraph 1 above shall not apply to those cases where the time for such filing had expired prior to the date on which payments or benefits enumerated herein have been initiated or resumed. Provided however that this paragraph 3 shall apply only to cases wherein the payments or benefits hereinabove enumerated shall be received after July 1, 1969.

(Source: P.A. 97-18, eff. 6-28-11; 97-268, eff. 8-8-11; revised 9-15-11.)

(820 ILCS 305/11) (from Ch. 48, par. 138.11)

Sec. 11. The compensation herein provided, together with the provisions of this Act, shall be the measure of the responsibility of any employer engaged in any of the enterprises or businesses enumerated in Section 3 of this Act, or of any employer who is not engaged in any such enterprises or businesses, but who has elected to provide and pay compensation for accidental injuries sustained by any employee arising out of and in the course of the employment according to the provisions of this Act, and whose election to continue under this Act, has not been nullified by any action of his employees as provided for in this Act.

Accidental injuries incurred while participating in voluntary recreational programs including but not limited to athletic events, parties and picnics do not arise out of and in the course of the employment even though the employer pays some or all of the cost thereof. This exclusion shall not apply in the event that the injured employee was ordered or assigned by his employer to participate in the program.

Notwithstanding any other defense, accidental injuries incurred while the employee is engaged in the active commission of and as a proximate result of the active commission of (a) a forcible felony, (b) aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, or (c) reckless homicide and for which the employee was convicted do not arise out of and in the course of employment if the commission of that forcible felony, aggravated driving under the influence, or reckless homicide caused an accident resulting in the death or severe injury of another person. If an employee is acquitted of a forcible felony, aggravated driving under the influence, or reckless homicide that caused an accident resulting in the death or severe injury of another person or if these charges are dismissed, there shall be no presumption that the employee is eligible for benefits under this Act. No employee shall be entitled to additional compensation under Sections 19(k) or 19(l) of this Act or attorney's fees under Section 16 of this Act when the employee has been charged with a forcible felony, aggravated driving under the influence, or reckless homicide that caused an accident resulting in the death or severe injury of another person and the employer terminates benefits or refuses to pay benefits to the employee until the termination of any pending criminal proceedings.

Accidental injuries incurred while participating as a patient in a drug or alcohol rehabilitation program do not arise out of and in the course of employment even though the employer pays some or all of the costs thereof.

Any injury to or disease or death of an employee arising from the administration of a vaccine, including without limitation smallpox vaccine, to prepare for, or as a response to, a threatened or potential bioterrorist incident to the employee as part of a voluntary inoculation program in connection with the person's employment or in connection with any governmental program or recommendation for the inoculation of workers in the employee's occupation, geographical area, or other category that includes the employee is deemed to arise out of and in the course of the employment for all purposes under this Act. This paragraph added by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is declarative of existing law and is not a new enactment.

No compensation shall be payable if (i) the employee's intoxication is the proximate cause of the employee's accidental injury or (ii) at the time the employee incurred the accidental injury, the employee was so intoxicated that the intoxication constituted a departure from the employment. Admissible evidence of the concentration of (1) alcohol, (2) cannabis as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, (3) a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or (4) an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act in the employee's blood, breath, or urine at the time the employee incurred the accidental injury shall be considered in any hearing under this Act to determine whether the employee was intoxicated at the time the employee incurred the accidental injuries. If at the time of the accidental injuries, there was 0.08% or more by weight of alcohol in the employee's blood, breath, or urine or if there is any evidence of impairment due to the unlawful or unauthorized use of (1) cannabis as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, (2) a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or (3) an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act or if the employee refuses to submit to testing of blood, breath, or urine, then there shall be a rebuttable presumption that the employee was intoxicated and that the intoxication was the proximate cause of the employee's injury. The employee may overcome the rebuttable presumption by the preponderance of the admissible evidence that the intoxication was not the sole proximate cause or proximate cause of the accidental injuries. Percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood shall be based on grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood. Percentage by weight of alcohol in the breath shall be based upon grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath. Any testing that has not been performed by an accredited or certified testing laboratory shall not be admissible in any hearing under this Act to determine whether the employee was intoxicated at the time the employee incurred the accidental injury.

All sample collection and testing for alcohol and drugs under this Section shall be performed in accordance with rules to be adopted by the Commission. These rules shall ensure:

(1) compliance with the National Labor Relations Act regarding collective bargaining agreements or regulations promulgated by the United States Department of Transportation;

(2) that samples are collected and tested in conformance with national and State legal and regulatory standards for the privacy of the individual being tested, and in a manner reasonably calculated to prevent substitutions or interference with the collection or testing of reliable sample;

(3) that split testing procedures are utilized;

(4) that sample collection is documented, and the documentation procedures include:

(A) the labeling of samples in a manner so as to reasonably preclude the probability of erroneous identification of test result; and

(B) an opportunity for the employee to provide notification of any information which he or she considers relevant to the test, including identification of currently or recently used prescription or nonprescription drugs and other relevant medical information;

(5) that sample collection, storage, and transportation to the place of testing is performed in a manner so as to reasonably preclude the probability of sample contamination or adulteration; and

(6) that chemical analyses of blood, urine, breath, or other bodily substance are performed according to nationally scientifically accepted analytical methods and procedures.

The changes to this Section made by Public Act 97-18 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly apply only to accidental injuries that occur on or after September 1, 2011.

(Source: P.A. 97-18, eff. 6-28-11; 97-276, eff. 8-8-11; revised 9-15-11.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.