SB1228ham001 97TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

Rep. Dennis M. Reboletti

Filed: 5/26/2011

09700SB1228ham001 LRB097 06225 RLC 56352 a

AMENDMENT TO SENATE BILL 1228

AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend Senate Bill 1228 by replacing everything after the enacting clause with the following:

"Section 5. The Criminal Code of 1961 is amended by adding the headings of Subdivisions 1, 5, 10, 15, and 20 of Article 16 and Sections 16-0.1, 16-25, 16-26, 16-27, 16-28, 16-30, 16-31, 16-32, 16-33, 16-34, 16-35, 16-36, 16-37, 16-40, 16-45, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, and 26-1.1 and by changing Sections 2-15, 3-6, 12-3.05, 16-1, 16-2, 16-3, 16-5, 16-6, 16-7, 16-14, 16-17, 16-18, 17-0.5, and 17-2 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/2-15) (from Ch. 38, par. 2-15)

Sec. 2-15. "Person".

"Person" means an individual, natural person, public or private corporation, government, partnership, or unincorporated association, or other entity.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

(720 ILCS 5/3-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 3-6)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-1551)

Sec. 3-6. Extended limitations. The period within which a prosecution must be commenced under the provisions of Section 3-5 or other applicable statute is extended under the following conditions:

(a) A prosecution for theft involving a breach of a fiduciary obligation to the aggrieved person may be commenced as follows:

(1) If the aggrieved person is a minor or a person under legal disability, then during the minority or legal disability or within one year after the termination thereof.

(2) In any other instance, within one year after the discovery of the offense by an aggrieved person, or by a person who has legal capacity to represent an aggrieved person or has a legal duty to report the offense, and is not himself or herself a party to the offense; or in the absence of such discovery, within one year after the proper prosecuting officer becomes aware of the offense. However, in no such case is the period of limitation so extended more than 3 years beyond the expiration of the period otherwise applicable.

(b) A prosecution for any offense based upon misconduct in office by a public officer or employee may be commenced within one year after discovery of the offense by a person having a legal duty to report such offense, or in the absence of such discovery, within one year after the proper prosecuting officer becomes aware of the offense. However, in no such case is the period of limitation so extended more than 3 years beyond the expiration of the period otherwise applicable.

(c) (Blank).

(d) A prosecution for child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, juvenile pimping, exploitation of a child, or promoting juvenile prostitution except for keeping a place of juvenile prostitution may be commenced within one year of the victim attaining the age of 18 years. However, in no such case shall the time period for prosecution expire sooner than 3 years after the commission of the offense. When the victim is under 18 years of age, a prosecution for criminal sexual abuse may be commenced within one year of the victim attaining the age of 18 years. However, in no such case shall the time period for prosecution expire sooner than 3 years after the commission of the offense.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (j), a prosecution for any offense involving sexual conduct or sexual penetration, as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code, where the defendant was within a professional or fiduciary relationship or a purported professional or fiduciary relationship with the victim at the time of the commission of the offense may be commenced within one year after the discovery of the offense by the victim.

(f) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section 44 of the "Environmental Protection Act", approved June 29, 1970, as amended, may be commenced within 5 years after the discovery of such an offense by a person or agency having the legal duty to report the offense or in the absence of such discovery, within 5 years after the proper prosecuting officer becomes aware of the offense.

(f-5) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section 16-30 16G-15 or 16G-20 of this Code may be commenced within 5 years after the discovery of the offense by the victim of that offense.

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(i) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (j), a prosecution for criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse may be commenced within 10 years of the commission of the offense if the victim reported the offense to law enforcement authorities within 3 years after the commission of the offense.

Nothing in this subdivision (i) shall be construed to shorten a period within which a prosecution must be commenced under any other provision of this Section.

(j) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or felony criminal sexual abuse, or a prosecution for failure of a person who is required to report an alleged or suspected commission of any of these offenses under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act may be commenced within 20 years after the child victim attains 18 years of age. When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for misdemeanor criminal sexual abuse may be commenced within 10 years after the child victim attains 18 years of age.

Nothing in this subdivision (j) shall be construed to shorten a period within which a prosecution must be commenced under any other provision of this Section.

(k) A prosecution for theft involving real property exceeding $100,000 in value under Section 16-1, identity theft under subsection (a) of Section 16-30 16G-15, aggravated identity theft under subsection (b) of Section 16-30 16G-20, or any offense set forth in Article 16H or Section 17-10.6 may be commenced within 7 years of the last act committed in furtherance of the crime.

(Source: P.A. 95-548, eff. 8-30-07; 96-233, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1035, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-140, eff. 7-1-11; revised 4-14-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.05) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-4)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 12-3.05. Aggravated battery.

(a) Offense based on injury. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement.

(2) Causes severe and permanent disability, great bodily harm, or disfigurement by means of a caustic or flammable substance, a poisonous gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant or agent, a radioactive substance, or a bomb or explosive compound.

(3) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an individual whom the person knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an individual 60 years of age or older.

(5) Strangles another individual.

(b) Offense based on injury to a child or mentally retarded person. A person who is at least 18 years of age commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly and without legal justification by any means:

(1) causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years, or to any severely or profoundly mentally retarded person; or

(2) causes bodily harm or disability or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years or to any severely or profoundly mentally retarded person.

(c) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she is or the person battered is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of accommodation or amusement, a sports venue, or a domestic violence shelter.

(d) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she knows the individual battered to be any of the following:

(1) A person 60 years of age or older.

(2) A person who is pregnant or physically handicapped.

(3) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(5) A judge, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, or utility worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(6) An officer or employee of the State of Illinois, a unit of local government, or a school district, while performing his or her official duties.

(7) A transit employee performing his or her official duties, or a transit passenger.

(8) A taxi driver on duty.

(9) A merchant who detains the person for an alleged commission of retail theft under Section 16-26 16A-5 of this Code and the person without legal justification by any means causes bodily harm to the merchant.

(e) Offense based on use of a firearm. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(2) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(3) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician employed by a municipality or other governmental unit:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4) Discharges a firearm and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher, a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(5) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(6) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician employed by a municipality or other governmental unit:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(8) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher, or a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(f) Offense based on use of a weapon or device. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon other than by discharge of a firearm, or uses an air rifle as defined in the Air Rifle Act.

(2) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her identity.

(3) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device attached to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes upon or against the person of another.

(g) Offense based on certain conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Violates Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act by unlawfully delivering a controlled substance to another and any user experiences great bodily harm or permanent disability as a result of the injection, inhalation, or ingestion of any amount of the controlled substance.

(2) Knowingly administers to an individual or causes him or her to take, without his or her consent or by threat or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any intoxicating, poisonous, stupefying, narcotic, anesthetic, or controlled substance, or gives to another person any food containing any substance or object intended to cause physical injury if eaten.

(3) Knowingly causes or attempts to cause a correctional institution employee or Department of Human Services employee to come into contact with blood, seminal fluid, urine, or feces by throwing, tossing, or expelling the fluid or material, and the person is an inmate of a penal institution or is a sexually dangerous person or sexually violent person in the custody of the Department of Human Services.

(h) Sentence. Unless otherwise provided, aggravated battery is a Class 3 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(4), (d)(4), or (g)(3) is a Class 2 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(3) or (g)(1) is a Class 1 felony.

Aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(5) is a Class 1 felony if:

(A) the person used or attempted to use a dangerous instrument while committing the offense; or

(B) the person caused great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to the other person while committing the offense; or

(C) the person has been previously convicted of a violation of subdivision (a)(5) under the laws of this State or laws similar to subdivision (a)(5) of any other state.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(1) is a Class X felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(2) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 6 years and a maximum of 45 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(5) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 12 years and a maximum of 45 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 15 years and a maximum of 60 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(6), (e)(7), or (e)(8) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 20 years and a maximum of 60 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (b)(1) is a Class X felony, except that:

(1) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(2) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(3) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(i) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

"Building or other structure used to provide shelter" has the meaning ascribed to "shelter" in Section 1 of the Domestic Violence Shelters Act.

"Domestic violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Domestic violence shelter" means any building or other structure used to provide shelter or other services to victims or to the dependent children of victims of domestic violence pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or the Domestic Violence Shelters Act, or any place within 500 feet of such a building or other structure in the case of a person who is going to or from such a building or other structure.

"Firearm" has the meaning provided under Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, and does not include an air rifle as defined by Section 1 of the Air Rifle Act.

"Machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

"Merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 16A-2.4 of this Code.

"Strangle" means intentionally impeding the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by applying pressure on the throat or neck of that individual or by blocking the nose or mouth of that individual.

(Source: P.A. 95-236, eff. 1-1-08; 95-256, eff. 1-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-429, eff. 1-1-08; 95-748, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-201, eff. 8-10-09; 96-363, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 1 heading new)

SUBDIVISION 1. DEFINITIONS

(720 ILCS 5/16-0.1 new)

Sec. 16-0.1. Definitions. In this Article, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the following terms are defined as indicated:

"Access" means to use, instruct, communicate with, store data in, retrieve or intercept data from, or otherwise utilize any services of a computer.

"Coin-operated machine" includes any automatic vending machine or any part thereof, parking meter, coin telephone, coin-operated transit turnstile, transit fare box, coin laundry machine, coin dry cleaning machine, amusement machine, music machine, vending machine dispensing goods or services, or money changer.

"Communication device" means any type of instrument, device, machine, or equipment which is capable of transmitting, acquiring, decrypting, or receiving any telephonic, electronic, data, Internet access, audio, video, microwave, or radio transmissions, signals, communications, or services, including the receipt, acquisition, transmission, or decryption of all such communications, transmissions, signals, or services provided by or through any cable television, fiber optic, telephone, satellite, microwave, radio, Internet-based, data transmission, or wireless distribution network, system or facility; or any part, accessory, or component thereof, including any computer circuit, security module, smart card, software, computer chip, electronic mechanism or other component, accessory or part of any communication device which is capable of facilitating the transmission, decryption, acquisition or reception of all such communications, transmissions, signals, or services.

"Communication service" means any service lawfully provided for a charge or compensation to facilitate the lawful origination, transmission, emission, or reception of signs, signals, data, writings, images, and sounds or intelligence of any nature by telephone, including cellular telephones or a wire, wireless, radio, electromagnetic, photo-electronic or photo-optical system; and also any service lawfully provided by any radio, telephone, cable television, fiber optic, satellite, microwave, Internet-based or wireless distribution network, system, facility or technology, including, but not limited to, any and all electronic, data, video, audio, Internet access, telephonic, microwave and radio communications, transmissions, signals and services, and any such communications, transmissions, signals and services lawfully provided directly or indirectly by or through any of those networks, systems, facilities or technologies.

"Communication service provider" means: (1) any person or entity providing any communication service, whether directly or indirectly, as a reseller, including, but not limited to, a cellular, paging or other wireless communications company or other person or entity which, for a fee, supplies the facility, cell site, mobile telephone switching office or other equipment or communication service; (2) any person or entity owning or operating any cable television, fiber optic, satellite, telephone, wireless, microwave, radio, data transmission or Internet-based distribution network, system or facility; and (3) any person or entity providing any communication service directly or indirectly by or through any such distribution system, network or facility.

"Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores, retrieves or outputs data, and includes but is not limited to auxiliary storage and telecommunications devices connected to computers.

"Continuing course of conduct" means a series of acts, and the accompanying mental state necessary for the crime in question, irrespective of whether the series of acts are continuous or intermittent.

"Delivery container" means any bakery basket of wire or plastic used to transport or store bread or bakery products, any dairy case of wire or plastic used to transport or store dairy products, and any dolly or cart of 2 or 4 wheels used to transport or store any bakery or dairy product.

"Document-making implement" means any implement, impression, template, computer file, computer disc, electronic device, computer hardware, computer software, instrument, or device that is used to make a real or fictitious or fraudulent personal identification document.

"Financial transaction device" means any of the following:

(1) An electronic funds transfer card.

(2) A credit card.

(3) A debit card.

(4) A point-of-sale card.

(5) Any instrument, device, card, plate, code, account number, personal identification number, or a record or copy of a code, account number, or personal identification number or other means of access to a credit account or deposit account, or a driver's license or State identification card used to access a proprietary account, other than access originated solely by a paper instrument, that can be used alone or in conjunction with another access device, for any of the following purposes:

(A) Obtaining money, cash refund or credit account, credit, goods, services, or any other thing of value.

(B) Certifying or guaranteeing to a person or business the availability to the device holder of funds on deposit to honor a draft or check payable to the order of that person or business.

(C) Providing the device holder access to a deposit account for the purpose of making deposits, withdrawing funds, transferring funds between deposit accounts, obtaining information pertaining to a deposit account, or making an electronic funds transfer.

"Full retail value" means the merchant's stated or advertised price of the merchandise. "Full retail value" includes the aggregate value of property obtained from retail thefts committed by the same person as part of a continuing course of conduct from one or more mercantile establishments in a single transaction or in separate transactions over a period of one year.

"Internet" means an interactive computer service or system or an information service, system, or access software provider that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an information service, system, or access software provider that provides access to a network system commonly known as the Internet, or any comparable system or service and also includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page, newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any interactive computer service or system or other online service.

"Library card" means a card or plate issued by a library facility for purposes of identifying the person to whom the library card was issued as authorized to borrow library material, subject to all limitations and conditions imposed on the borrowing by the library facility issuing such card.

"Library facility" includes any public library or museum, or any library or museum of an educational, historical or eleemosynary institution, organization or society.

"Library material" includes any book, plate, picture, photograph, engraving, painting, sculpture, statue, artifact, drawing, map, newspaper, pamphlet, broadside, magazine, manuscript, document, letter, microfilm, sound recording, audiovisual material, magnetic or other tape, electronic data processing record or other documentary, written or printed material regardless of physical form or characteristics, or any part thereof, belonging to, or on loan to or otherwise in the custody of a library facility.

"Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful access device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful access device or to modify, alter, program or re-program any instrument, device, machine, equipment or software so that it is capable of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or software used by the provider, owner or licensee of a communication service or of any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect any such communication, data, audio or video services, programs or transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, disclosure, receipt, decryption, communication, transmission or re-transmission.

"Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful communication device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful communication or wireless device or to modify, alter, program or reprogram a communication or wireless device to be capable of acquiring, disrupting, receiving, transmitting, decrypting, or facilitating the acquisition, disruption, receipt, transmission or decryption of, a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, or to knowingly assist others in those activities.

"Master sound recording" means the original physical object on which a given set of sounds were first recorded and which the original object from which all subsequent sound recordings embodying the same set of sounds are directly or indirectly derived.

"Merchandise" means any item of tangible personal property, including motor fuel.

"Merchant" means an owner or operator of any retail mercantile establishment or any agent, employee, lessee, consignee, officer, director, franchisee, or independent contractor of the owner or operator. "Merchant" also means a person who receives from an authorized user of a payment card, or someone the person believes to be an authorized user, a payment card or information from a payment card, or what the person believes to be a payment card or information from a payment card, as the instrument for obtaining, purchasing or receiving goods, services, money, or anything else of value from the person.

"Motor fuel" means a liquid, regardless of its properties, used to propel a vehicle, including gasoline and diesel.

"Online" means the use of any electronic or wireless device to access the Internet.

"Payment card" means a credit card, charge card, debit card, or any other card that is issued to an authorized card user and that allows the user to obtain, purchase, or receive goods, services, money, or anything else of value from a merchant.

"Person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder or congenital condition that impairs the individual's mental or physical ability to independently manage his or her property or financial resources, or both.

"Personal identification document" means a birth certificate, a drivers license, a State identification card, a public, government, or private employment identification card, a social security card, a firearm owner's identification card, a credit card, a debit card, or a passport issued to or on behalf of a person other than the offender, or any document made or issued, or falsely purported to have been made or issued, by or under the authority of the United States Government, the State of Illinois, or any other state political subdivision of any state, or any other governmental or quasi-governmental organization that is of a type intended for the purpose of identification of an individual, or any such document made or altered in a manner that it falsely purports to have been made on behalf of or issued to another person or by the authority of one who did not give that authority.

"Personal identifying information" means any of the following information:

(1) A person's name.

(2) A person's address.

(3) A person's date of birth.

(4) A person's telephone number.

(5) A person's drivers license number or State of Illinois identification card as assigned by the Secretary of State of the State of Illinois or a similar agency of another state.

(6) A person's social security number.

(7) A person's public, private, or government employer, place of employment, or employment identification number.

(8) The maiden name of a person's mother.

(9) The number assigned to a person's depository account, savings account, or brokerage account.

(10) The number assigned to a person's credit or debit card, commonly known as a "Visa Card", "Master Card", "American Express Card", "Discover Card", or other similar cards whether issued by a financial institution, corporation, or business entity.

(11) Personal identification numbers.

(12) Electronic identification numbers.

(13) Digital signals.

(14) User names, passwords, and any other word, number, character or combination of the same usable in whole or part to access information relating to a specific individual, or to the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of a specific individual.

(15) Any other numbers or information which can be used to access a person's financial resources, or to identify a specific individual, or the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of a specific individual.

"Premises of a retail mercantile establishment" includes, but is not limited to, the retail mercantile establishment; any common use areas in shopping centers; and all parking areas set aside by a merchant or on behalf of a merchant for the parking of vehicles for the convenience of the patrons of such retail mercantile establishment.

"Public water, gas, or power supply, or other public services" mean any service subject to regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission; any service furnished by a public utility that is owned and operated by any political subdivision, public institution of higher education or municipal corporation of this State; any service furnished by any public utility that is owned by such political subdivision, public institution of higher education, or municipal corporation and operated by any of its lessees or operating agents; any service furnished by an electric cooperative as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act; or wireless service or other service regulated by the Federal Communications Commission.

"Publish" means to communicate or disseminate information to any one or more persons, either orally, in person, or by telephone, radio or television or in writing of any kind, including, without limitation, a letter or memorandum, circular or handbill, newspaper or magazine article or book.

"Reencoder" means an electronic device that places encoded information from the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card onto the magnetic strip or stripe of a different payment card.

"Retail mercantile establishment" means any place where merchandise is displayed, held, stored or offered for sale to the public.

"Scanning device" means a scanner, reader, or any other electronic device that is used to access, read, scan, obtain, memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card.

"Shopping cart" means those push carts of the type or types which are commonly provided by grocery stores, drug stores or other retail mercantile establishments for the use of the public in transporting commodities in stores and markets and, incidentally, from the stores to a place outside the store.

"Sound or audio visual recording" means any sound or audio visual phonograph record, disc, pre-recorded tape, film, wire, magnetic tape or other object, device or medium, now known or hereafter invented, by which sounds or images may be reproduced with or without the use of any additional machine, equipment or device.

"Theft detection device remover" means any tool or device specifically designed and intended to be used to remove any theft detection device from any merchandise.

"Under-ring" means to cause the cash register or other sales recording device to reflect less than the full retail value of the merchandise.

"Unidentified sound or audio visual recording" means a sound or audio visual recording without the actual name and full and correct street address of the manufacturer, and the name of the actual performers or groups prominently and legibly printed on the outside cover or jacket and on the label of such sound or audio visual recording.

"Unlawful access device" means any type of instrument, device, machine, equipment, technology, or software which is primarily possessed, used, designed, assembled, manufactured, sold, distributed or offered, promoted or advertised for the purpose of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or software, or any component or part thereof, used by the provider, owner or licensee of any communication service or of any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect any such communication, audio or video services, programs or transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, receipt, decryption, disclosure, communication, transmission or re-transmission.

"Unlawful communication device" means any electronic serial number, mobile identification number, personal identification number or any communication or wireless device that is capable of acquiring or facilitating the acquisition of a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, or that has been altered, modified, programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another communication or wireless device or other equipment, to so acquire or facilitate the unauthorized acquisition of a communication service. "Unlawful communication device" also means:

(1) any phone altered to obtain service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, tumbler phone, counterfeit or clone phone, tumbler microchip, counterfeit or clone microchip, scanning receiver of wireless communication service or other instrument capable of disguising its identity or location or of gaining unauthorized access to a communications or wireless system operated by a communication service provider; and

(2) any communication or wireless device which is capable of, or has been altered, designed, modified, programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another communication or wireless device or devices, so as to be capable of, facilitating the disruption, acquisition, receipt, transmission or decryption of a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, including, but not limited to, any device, technology, product, service, equipment, computer software or component or part thereof, primarily distributed, sold, designed, assembled, manufactured, modified, programmed, reprogrammed or used for the purpose of providing the unauthorized receipt of, transmission of, disruption of, decryption of, access to or acquisition of any communication service provided by any communication service provider.

"Vehicle" means a motor vehicle, motorcycle, or farm implement that is self-propelled and that uses motor fuel for propulsion.

"Wireless device" includes any type of instrument, device, machine, or equipment that is capable of transmitting or receiving telephonic, electronic or radio communications, or any part of such instrument, device, machine, or equipment, or any computer circuit, computer chip, electronic mechanism, or other component that is capable of facilitating the transmission or reception of telephonic, electronic, or radio communications.

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 5 heading new)

SUBDIVISION 5. GENERAL THEFT

(720 ILCS 5/16-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-1)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-1532)

Sec. 16-1. Theft.

(a) A person commits theft when he or she knowingly:

(1) Obtains or exerts unauthorized control over property of the owner; or

(2) Obtains by deception control over property of the owner; or

(3) Obtains by threat control over property of the owner; or

(4) Obtains control over stolen property knowing the property to have been stolen or under such circumstances as would reasonably induce him or her to believe that the property was stolen; or

(5) Obtains or exerts control over property in the custody of any law enforcement agency which any law enforcement officer or any individual acting in behalf of a law enforcement agency explicitly represents to the person as being stolen or represents to the person such circumstances as would reasonably induce the person to believe that the property was stolen, and

(A) Intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property; or

(B) Knowingly uses, conceals or abandons the property in such manner as to deprive the owner permanently of such use or benefit; or

(C) Uses, conceals, or abandons the property knowing such use, concealment or abandonment probably will deprive the owner permanently of such use or benefit.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Theft of property not from the person and not exceeding $500 in value is a Class A misdemeanor.

(1.1) Theft of property not from the person and not exceeding $500 in value is a Class 4 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(2) A person who has been convicted of theft of property not from the person and not exceeding $500 in value who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, forgery, a violation of Section 4-103, 4-103.1, 4-103.2, or 4-103.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code relating to the possession of a stolen or converted motor vehicle, or a violation of Section 17-36 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or Section 8 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act is guilty of a Class 4 felony. When a person has any such prior conviction, the information or indictment charging that person shall state such prior conviction so as to give notice of the State's intention to treat the charge as a felony. The fact of such prior conviction is not an element of the offense and may not be disclosed to the jury during trial unless otherwise permitted by issues properly raised during such trial.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Theft of property from the person not exceeding $500 in value, or theft of property exceeding $500 and not exceeding $10,000 in value, is a Class 3 felony.

(4.1) Theft of property from the person not exceeding $500 in value, or theft of property exceeding $500 and not exceeding $10,000 in value, is a Class 2 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(5) Theft of property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 2 felony.

(5.1) Theft of property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(6) Theft of property exceeding $100,000 and not exceeding $500,000 in value is a Class 1 felony.

(6.1) Theft of property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(6.2) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not exceeding $1,000,000 in value is a Class 1 non-probationable felony.

(6.3) Theft of property exceeding $1,000,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(7) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender obtained money or property valued at $5,000 or more from a victim 60 years of age or older is a Class 2 felony.

(8) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 3 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained does not exceed $500.

(9) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 2 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $500 and does not exceed $10,000.

(10) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 1 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $10,000 and does not exceed $100,000.

(11) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class X felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $100,000.

(c) When a charge of theft of property exceeding a specified value is brought, the value of the property involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.

(d) Theft by lessee; permissive inference. The trier of fact may infer evidence that a person intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property (1) if a lessee of the personal property of another fails to return it to the owner within 10 days after written demand from the owner for its return or (2) if a lessee of the personal property of another fails to return it to the owner within 24 hours after written demand from the owner for its return and the lessee had presented identification to the owner that contained a materially fictitious name, address, or telephone number. A notice in writing, given after the expiration of the leasing agreement, addressed and mailed, by registered mail, to the lessee at the address given by him and shown on the leasing agreement shall constitute proper demand.

(e) Permissive inference; evidence of intent that a person obtains by deception control over property. The trier of fact may infer that a person "knowingly obtains by deception control over property of the owner" when he or she fails to return, within 45 days after written demand from the owner, the downpayment and any additional payments accepted under a promise, oral or in writing, to perform services for the owner for consideration of $3,000 or more, and the promisor knowingly without good cause failed to substantially perform pursuant to the agreement after taking a downpayment of 10% or more of the agreed upon consideration. This provision shall not apply where the owner initiated the suspension of performance under the agreement, or where the promisor responds to the notice within the 45-day notice period. A notice in writing, addressed and mailed, by registered mail, to the promisor at the last known address of the promisor, shall constitute proper demand.

(f) Offender's interest in the property.

(1) It is no defense to a charge of theft of property that the offender has an interest therein, when the owner also has an interest to which the offender is not entitled.

(2) Where the property involved is that of the offender's spouse, no prosecution for theft may be maintained unless the parties were not living together as man and wife and were living in separate abodes at the time of the alleged theft.

(Source: P.A. 96-496, eff. 1-1-10; 96-534, eff. 8-14-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1301, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1532, eff. 1-1-12; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; revised 4-22-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-2)

Sec. 16-2. Theft of lost or mislaid property.

A person commits theft of who obtains control over lost or mislaid property commits theft when he or she obtains control over the property and:

(a) Knows or learns the identity of the owner or knows, or is aware of, or learns of a reasonable method of identifying the owner, and

(b) Fails to take reasonable measures to restore the property to the owner, and

(c) Intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property.

(d) Sentence.

Theft of lost or mislaid property where:

(1) the value does not exceed $500 is a Class B misdemeanor;

(2) the value exceeds $500 but does not exceed $10,000 is a Class A misdemeanor; and

(3) the value exceeds $10,000 is a Class 4 felony is a petty offense.

(Source: P.A. 78-255.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-3)

Sec. 16-3. Theft of labor or services or use of property.

(a) A person commits theft when he or she knowingly obtains the temporary use of property, labor or services of another which are available only for hire, by means of threat or deception or knowing that such use is without the consent of the person providing the property, labor or services. For the purposes of this subsection, library material is available for hire.

(b) A person commits theft when after renting or leasing a motor vehicle, obtaining a motor vehicle through a "driveaway" service mode of transportation or renting or leasing any other type of personal property exceeding $500 in value, under an agreement in writing which provides for the return of the vehicle or other personal property to a particular place at a particular time, he or she without good cause knowingly wilfully fails to return the vehicle or other personal property to that place within the time specified, and is thereafter served or sent a written demand mailed to the last known address, made by certified mail return receipt requested, to return such vehicle or other personal property within 3 days from the mailing of the written demand, and who without good cause knowingly wilfully fails to return the vehicle or any other personal property to any place of business of the lessor within such period.

(c) A person commits theft when he or she borrows from a library facility library material which has an aggregate value of $50 or more pursuant to an agreement with or procedure established by the library facility for the return of such library material, and knowingly without good cause fails to return the library material so borrowed in accordance with such agreement or procedure, and further knowingly without good cause fails to return such library material within 30 days after receiving written notice by certified mail from the library facility demanding the return of such library material.

(d) (c) Sentence.

A person convicted of theft under subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, except that the theft of library material where the aggregate value exceeds $300 is a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of theft under subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person convicted of theft under subsection (c) is guilty of a petty offense for which the offender may be fined an amount not to exceed $500 and shall be ordered to reimburse the library for postage costs, attorney's fees, and actual replacement costs of the materials not returned, except that theft under subsection (c) where the aggregate value exceeds $300 is a Class 3 felony.

For the purpose of sentencing on theft of library material, separate transactions totalling more than $300 within a 90 day period shall constitute a single offense.

(Source: P.A. 84-800.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-5)

Sec. 16-5. Theft from coin-operated machine machines.

(a) A person commits theft from a coin-operated machine when he or she knowingly and without authority and with intent to commit a theft from such machine opens, breaks into, tampers with, triggers, or damages a coin-operated machine either:

(1) to operate or use the machine; or

(2) with the intent to commit a theft from the machine.

(b) As used in this Section, the term "coin-operated machine" shall include any automatic vending machine or any part thereof, parking meter, coin telephone, coin laundry machine, coin dry cleaning machine, amusement machine, music machine, vending machine dispensing goods or services, or money changer.

(b) (c) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subdivision (a)(1) is a Class B misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of subdivision (a)(2) is A person convicted of theft from a coin-operated machine shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(3) A person who has been convicted of theft from a coin-operated machine in violation of subdivision (a)(2) and who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, or home invasion is guilty of a Class 4 felony. When a person has any such prior conviction, the information or indictment charging that person shall state such prior conviction so as to give notice of the State's intention to treat the charge as a felony. The fact of such prior conviction is not an element of the offense and may not be disclosed to the jury during trial unless otherwise permitted by issues properly raised during such trial.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-6)

Sec. 16-6. Theft-related devices Coin-operated machines; possession of a key or device.

(a) (1) A person commits unlawful possession of a key or device for a coin-operated machine when he or she who possesses a key, a tool, an instrument, an explosive, a device, a substance, or a drawing, print, or mold of a key, a tool, an instrument, an explosive, a device, or a substance designed to open, break into, tamper with, or damage a coin-operated machine as defined in paragraph (b) of Section 16-5 of this Act, with intent to commit a theft from the machine, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A person commits unlawful use of a key or device for a coin-operated machine when he or she using any of the devices or substances listed in this subsection (a) with the intent to commit a theft from a coin-operated machine uses a key, drawing, print, mold of a key, device, or substance and who causes damage or loss to the coin-operated machine of more than $300 is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(b)(1) A person commits unlawful use of a theft detection shielding device when he or she knowingly manufactures, sells, offers for sale or distributes any theft detection shielding device.

(2) A person commits unlawful possession of a theft detection shielding device when he or she knowingly possesses a theft detection shielding device with the intent to commit theft or retail theft.

(3) A person commits unlawful possession of a theft detection device remover when he or she knowingly possesses a theft detection device remover with the intent to use such tool to remove any theft detection device from any merchandise without the permission of the merchant or person owning or holding the merchandise.

(c) A person commits use of a scanning device or reencoder to defraud when the person knowingly uses:

(1) a scanning device to access, read, obtain, memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card without the permission of the authorized user of the payment card and with the intent to defraud the authorized user, the issuer of the authorized user's payment card, or a merchant; or

(2) a reencoder to place information encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card onto the magnetic strip or stripe of a different card without the permission of the authorized user of the card from which the information is being reencoded and with the intent to defraud the authorized user, the issuer of the authorized user's payment card, or a merchant.

(d) Sentence. A violation of subdivision (a)(1), (b)(1), (b)(2), or (b)(3) is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of subdivision (b)(1), (b)(2), or (b)(3) is a Class 4 felony. A violation of subdivision (a)(2), (c)(1), or (c)(2) is a Class 4 felony. A second or subsequent violation of subdivision (c)(1) or (c)(2) is a Class 3 felony.

(e) (b) The owner of a coin-operated machine may maintain a civil cause of action against a person engaged in the activities covered in subdivision (a)(1) and (a)(2) this Section and may recover treble actual damages, reasonable attorney's fees, and costs.

(f) (c) As used in this Section, "substance" means a corrosive or acidic liquid or solid but does not include items purchased through a coin-operated machine at the location or acquired as condiments at the location of the coin-operated machine.

(g) For the purposes of this Section, "theft detection shielding device" means any laminated or coated bag or device peculiar to and marketed for shielding and intended to shield merchandise from detection by an electronic or magnetic theft alarm sensor.

(Source: P.A. 89-32, eff. 1-1-96.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-7)

Sec. 16-7. Unlawful use of recorded sounds or images.

(a) A person commits unlawful use of recorded sounds or images when he or she knowingly or recklessly:

(1) Intentionally, knowingly or recklessly transfers or causes to be transferred without the consent of the owner, any sounds or images recorded on any sound or audio visual recording with the intent purpose of selling or causing to be sold, or using or causing to be used for profit the article to which such sounds or recordings of sound are transferred; .

(2) Intentionally, knowingly or recklessly sells, offers for sale, advertises for sale, uses or causes to be used for profit any such article described in subdivision (a)(1) subsection 16-7(a)(1) without consent of the owner; .

(3) Intentionally, knowingly or recklessly offers or makes available for a fee, rental or any other form of compensation, directly or indirectly, any equipment or machinery for the purpose of use by another to reproduce or transfer, without the consent of the owner, any sounds or images recorded on any sound or audio visual recording to another sound or audio visual recording or for the purpose of use by another to manufacture any sound or audio visual recording in violation of subsection (b); or Section 16-8.

(4) Intentionally, knowingly or recklessly transfers or causes to be transferred without the consent of the owner, any live performance with the intent purpose of selling or causing to be sold, or using or causing to be used for profit the sound or audio visual recording to which the performance is transferred.

(b) A person commits unlawful use of unidentified sound or audio visual recordings when he or she knowingly, recklessly, or negligently for profit manufacturers, sells, distributes, vends, circulates, performs, leases, possesses, or otherwise deals in and with unidentified sound or audio visual recordings or causes the manufacture, sale, distribution, vending, circulation, performance, lease, or other dealing in and with unidentified sound or audio visual recordings.

(c) For the purposes of this Section, "owner" means the person who owns the master sound recording on which sound is recorded and from which the transferred recorded sounds are directly or indirectly derived, or the person who owns the rights to record or authorize the recording of a live performance.

For the purposes of this Section, "manufacturer" means the person who actually makes or causes to be made a sound or audio visual recording. "Manufacturer" does not include a person who manufactures the medium upon which sounds or visual images can be recorded or stored, or who manufactures the cartridge or casing itself.

(b) As used in this Section and Section 16-8:

(1) "Person" means any individual, partnership, corporation, association or other entity.

(2) "Owner" means the person who owns the master sound recording on which sound is recorded and from which the transferred recorded sounds are directly or indirectly derived, or the person who owns the rights to record or authorize the recording of a live performance.

(3) "Sound or audio visual recording" means any sound or audio visual phonograph record, disc, pre-recorded tape, film, wire, magnetic tape or other object, device or medium, now known or hereafter invented, by which sounds or images may be reproduced with or without the use of any additional machine, equipment or device.

(4) "Master sound recording" means the original physical object on which a given set of sounds were first recorded and which the original object from which all subsequent sound recordings embodying the same set of sounds are directly or indirectly derived.

(5) "Unidentified sound or audio visual recording" means a sound or audio visual recording without the actual name and full and correct street address of the manufacturer, and the name of the actual performers or groups prominently and legibly printed on the outside cover or jacket and on the label of such sound or audio visual recording.

(6) "Manufacturer" means the person who actually makes or causes to be made a sound or audio visual recording. The term manufacturer does not include a person who manufactures the medium upon which sounds or visual images can be recorded or stored, or who manufactures the cartridge or casing itself.

(d) Sentence. (c) Unlawful use of recorded sounds or images or unidentified sound or audio visual recordings is a Class 4 felony; however:

(1) If the offense involves more than 100 but not exceeding 1000 unidentified sound recordings or more than 7 but not exceeding 65 unidentified audio visual recordings during any 180 day period the authorized fine is up to $100,000; and

(2) If the offense involves more than 1,000 unidentified sound recordings or more than 65 unidentified audio visual recordings during any 180 day period the authorized fine is up to $250,000.

(e) Upon conviction of any violation of subsection (b), the offender shall be sentenced to make restitution to any owner or lawful producer of a master sound or audio visual recording, or to the trade association representing such owner or lawful producer, that has suffered injury resulting from the crime. The order of restitution shall be based on the aggregate wholesale value of lawfully manufactured and authorized sound or audio visual recordings corresponding to the non-conforming recorded devices involved in the offense, and shall include investigative costs relating to the offense.

(f) Subsection (a) of this (d) This Section shall neither enlarge nor diminish the rights of parties in private litigation.

(g) Subsection (a) of this (e) This Section does not apply to any person engaged in the business of radio or television broadcasting who transfers, or causes to be transferred, any sounds (other than from the sound track of a motion picture) solely for the purpose of broadcast transmission.

(f) If any provision or item of this Section or the application thereof is held invalid, such invalidity shall not affect other provisions, items or applications of this Section which can be given effect without the invalid provisions, items or applications and to this end the provisions of this Section are hereby declared severable.

(h) (g) Each and every individual manufacture, distribution or sale or transfer for a consideration of such recorded devices in contravention of subsection (a) of this Section constitutes a separate violation of this Section. Each individual manufacture, sale, distribution, vending, circulation, performance, lease, possession, or other dealing in and with an unidentified sound or audio visual recording under subsection (b) of this Section constitutes a separate violation of this Section.

(i) (h) Any sound or audio visual recordings containing transferred sounds or a performance whose transfer was not authorized by the owner of the master sound recording or performance, or any unidentified sound or audio visual recording used, in violation of this Section, or in the attempt to commit such violation as defined in Section 8-4, or in a conspiracy to commit such violation as defined in Section 8-2, or in a solicitation to commit such offense as defined in Section 8-1, may be confiscated and destroyed upon conclusion of the case or cases to which they are relevant, except that the court Court may enter an order preserving them as evidence for use in other cases or pending the final determination of an appeal.

(j) (i) It is an affirmative defense to any charge of unlawful use of recorded sounds or images that the recorded sounds or images so used are public domain material. For purposes of this Section, recorded sounds are deemed to be in the public domain if the recorded sounds were copyrighted pursuant to the copyright laws of the United States, as the same may be amended from time to time, and the term of the copyright and any extensions or renewals thereof has expired.

(Source: P.A. 95-485, eff. 1-1-08.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-14)

Sec. 16-14. Theft of utility services.

(a) A person commits theft of the offense of unlawful interference with public utility services when he or she knowingly, without authority, diverts or interferes with the consent of the owner of the services, impairs or interrupts any public water, gas, or power supply, telecommunications service, wireless service, or other public services, or diverts, or causes to be diverted in whole or in part, any public water, gas, or power supply, telecommunications service, wireless service, or other public services, or installs or removes any device with the intent to divert or interfere with any public water, gas, power supply, or other public services without the authority of the owner or entity furnishing or transmitting such product or for the purpose of such diversion, or knowingly delays restoration of such public services, as a result of the person's theft of wire used for such services.

(b) The terms "public water, gas, or power supply, or other public services" mean any service subject to regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission; any service furnished by a public utility that is owned and operated by any political subdivision, public institution of higher education or municipal corporation of this State; any service furnished by any public utility that is owned by such political subdivision, public institution of higher education, or municipal corporation and operated by any of its lessees or operating agents; any service furnished by an electric cooperative as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act; or wireless service or other service regulated by the Federal Communications Commission.

(c) Any instrument, apparatus, or device used in obtaining utility services without paying the full charge therefore or any meter that has been altered, tampered with, or bypassed so as to cause a lack of measurement or inaccurate measurement of utility services on premises controlled by the customer or by the person using or receiving the direct benefit of utility service at that location shall raise a rebuttable presumption of the commission of the offense described in subparagraph (a) by such person.

(b) Sentence. (d) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a violation of this Section is A person convicted of unlawful interference with public utility services is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor unless the offense was committed for remuneration, in which case it is a Class 4 felony.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a second or subsequent violation of this Section is After a first conviction of unlawful interference with public utility services any subsequent conviction shall be a Class 4 felony.

(3) If the offense causes disruption of the public utility services or the delay in the restoration of the public utility services occurs to 10 or more customers or affects an area of more than one square mile, a violation of this Section unlawful interference with public utility services is a Class 2 felony.

(c) This Section does not apply to the theft of telecommunication services.

(Source: P.A. 95-323, eff. 1-1-08.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-17)

Sec. 16-17. Theft of advertising services.

(a) In this Section, "unauthorized advertisement" means any form of representation or communication, including any handbill, newsletter, pamphlet, or notice that contains any letters, words, or pictorial representation that is attached to or inserted in a newspaper or periodical without a contractual agreement between the publisher and an advertiser.

(a) A (b) Any person commits theft of advertising services when he or she who knowingly attaches or inserts an unauthorized advertisement in a newspaper or periodical, and who redistributes it to the public or who has the intent to redistribute it to the public, is guilty of the offense of theft of advertising services.

(c) Sentence. Theft of advertising services is a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) (d) This Section applies to any newspaper or periodical that is offered for retail sale or is distributed without charge.

(c) (e) This Section does not apply if the publisher or authorized distributor of the newspaper or periodical consents to the attachment or insertion of the advertisement.

(d) In this Section, "unauthorized advertisement" means any form of representation or communication, including any handbill, newsletter, pamphlet, or notice that contains any letters, words, or pictorial representation that is attached to or inserted in a newspaper or periodical without a contractual agreement between the publisher and an advertiser.

(e) Sentence. Theft of advertising services is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 92-428, eff. 8-17-01.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-18)

Sec. 16-18. Tampering with communication services; theft of communication services Unlawful communication and access devices; definitions.

(a) Injury to wires or obtaining service with intent to defraud. A person commits injury to wires or obtaining service with intent to defraud when he or she knowingly:

(1) displaces, removes, injures or destroys any telegraph or telephone line, wire, cable, pole or conduit, belonging to another, or the material or property appurtenant thereto; or

(2) cuts, breaks, taps, or makes any connection with any telegraph or telephone line, wire, cable or instrument belonging to another; or

(3) reads, takes or copies any message, communication or report intended for another passing over any such telegraph line, wire or cable in this State; or

(4) prevents, obstructs or delays by any means or contrivance whatsoever, the sending, transmission, conveyance or delivery in this State of any message, communication or report by or through any telegraph or telephone line, wire or cable; or

(5) uses any apparatus to unlawfully do or cause to be done any of the acts described in subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this Section; or

(6) obtains, or attempts to obtain, any telecommunications service with the intent to deprive any person of the lawful charge, in whole or in part, for any telecommunications service:

(A) by charging such service to an existing telephone number without the authority of the subscriber thereto; or

(B) by charging such service to a nonexistent, false, fictitious, or counterfeit telephone number or to a suspended, terminated, expired, cancelled, or revoked telephone number; or

(C) by use of a code, prearranged scheme, or other similar stratagem or device whereby said person, in effect, sends or receives information; or

(D) by publishing the number or code of an existing, canceled, revoked or nonexistent telephone number, credit number or other credit device or method of numbering or coding which is employed in the issuance of telephone numbers, credit numbers or other credit devices which may be used to avoid the payment of any lawful telephone toll charge; or

(E) by any other trick, stratagem, impersonation, false pretense, false representation, false statement, contrivance, device, or means.

(b) Theft of communication services. A person commits theft of communication services when he or she knowingly:

(1) obtains or uses a communication service without the authorization of, or compensation paid to, the communication service provider;

(2) possesses, uses, manufactures, assembles, distributes, leases, transfers, or sells, or offers, promotes or advertises for sale, lease, use, or distribution, an unlawful communication device:

(A) for the commission of a theft of a communication service or to receive, disrupt, transmit, decrypt, or acquire, or facilitate the receipt, disruption, transmission, decryption or acquisition, of any communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider; or

(B) to conceal or to assist another to conceal from any communication service provider or from any lawful authority the existence or place of origin or destination of any communication;

(3) modifies, alters, programs or reprograms a communication device for the purposes described in subdivision (2)(A) or (2)(B);

(4) possesses, uses, manufactures, assembles, leases, distributes, sells, or transfers, or offers, promotes or advertises for sale, use or distribution, any unlawful access device; or

(5) possesses, uses, prepares, distributes, gives or otherwise transfers to another or offers, promotes, or advertises for sale, use or distribution, any:

(A) plans or instructions for making or assembling an unlawful communication or access device, with the intent to use or employ the unlawful communication or access device, or to allow the same to be used or employed, for a purpose prohibited by this subsection (b), or knowing or having reason to know that the plans or instructions are intended to be used for manufacturing or assembling the unlawful communication or access device for a purpose prohibited by this subsection (b); or

(B) material, including hardware, cables, tools, data, computer software or other information or equipment, knowing that the purchaser or a third person intends to use the material in the manufacture or assembly of an unlawful communication or access device for a purpose prohibited by this subsection (b).

(c) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor; provided, however, that any of the following is a Class 4 felony:

(A) a second or subsequent conviction for a violation of subsection (a); or

(B) an offense committed for remuneration; or

(C) an offense involving damage or destruction of property in an amount in excess of $300 or defrauding of services in excess of $500.

(2) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class A misdemeanor, except that:

(A) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 4 felony if:

(i) the violation of subsection (b) involves at least 10, but not more than 50, unlawful communication or access devices; or

(ii) the defendant engages in conduct identified in subdivision (b)(3) of this Section with the intention of substantially disrupting and impairing the ability of a communication service provider to deliver communication services to its lawful customers or subscribers; or

(iii) the defendant at the time of the commission of the offense is a pre-trial detainee at a penal institution or is serving a sentence at a penal institution; or

(iv) the defendant at the time of the commission of the offense is a pre-trial detainee at a penal institution or is serving a sentence at a penal institution and uses any means of electronic communication as defined in the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act for fraud, theft, theft by deception, identity theft, or any other unlawful purpose; or

(v) the aggregate value of the service obtained is $300 or more; or

(vi) the violation is for a wired communication service or device and the defendant has been convicted previously for an offense under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction.

(B) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 3 felony if:

(i) the violation of subsection (b) involves more than 50 unlawful communication or access devices; or

(ii) the defendant at the time of the commission of the offense is a pre-trial detainee at a penal institution or is serving a sentence at a penal institution and has been convicted previously of an offense under subsection (b) committed by the defendant while serving as a pre-trial detainee in a penal institution or while serving a sentence at a penal institution; or

(iii) the defendant at the time of the commission of the offense is a pre-trial detainee at a penal institution or is serving a sentence at a penal institution and has been convicted previously of an offense under subsection (b) committed by the defendant while serving as a pre-trial detainee in a penal institution or while serving a sentence at a penal institution and uses any means of electronic communication as defined in the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act for fraud, theft, theft by deception, identity theft, or any other unlawful purpose; or

(iv) the violation is for a wired communication service or device and the defendant has been convicted previously on 2 or more occasions for offenses under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction.

(C) A violation of subsection (b) is a Class 2 felony if the violation is for a wireless communication service or device and the defendant has been convicted previously for an offense under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction.

(3) Restitution. The court shall, in addition to any other sentence authorized by law, sentence a person convicted of violating subsection (b) to make restitution in the manner provided in Article 5 of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(d) Grading of offense based on prior convictions. For purposes of grading an offense based upon a prior conviction for an offense under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction under subdivisions (c)(2)(a)(i) and (c)(2)(b)(i) of this Section, a prior conviction shall consist of convictions upon separate indictments or criminal complaints for offenses under subsection (b) or for any other type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, or fraud, including violations of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 in this or any federal or other state jurisdiction.

(e) Separate offenses. For purposes of all criminal penalties or fines established for violations of subsection (b), the prohibited activity established in subsection (b) as it applies to each unlawful communication or access device shall be deemed a separate offense.

(f) Forfeiture of unlawful communication or access devices. Upon conviction of a defendant under subsection (b), the court may, in addition to any other sentence authorized by law, direct that the defendant forfeit any unlawful communication or access devices in the defendant's possession or control which were involved in the violation for which the defendant was convicted.

(g) Venue. An offense under subsection (b) may be deemed to have been committed at either the place where the defendant manufactured or assembled an unlawful communication or access device, or assisted others in doing so, or the place where the unlawful communication or access device was sold or delivered to a purchaser or recipient. It is not a defense to a violation of subsection (b) that some of the acts constituting the offense occurred outside of the State of Illinois.

(h) Civil action. For purposes of subsection (b):

(1) Bringing a civil action. Any person aggrieved by a violation may bring a civil action in any court of competent jurisdiction.

(2) Powers of the court. The court may:

(A) grant preliminary and final injunctions to prevent or restrain violations without a showing by the plaintiff of special damages, irreparable harm or inadequacy of other legal remedies;

(B) at any time while an action is pending, order the impounding, on such terms as it deems reasonable, of any unlawful communication or access device that is in the custody or control of the violator and that the court has reasonable cause to believe was involved in the alleged violation;

(C) award damages as described in subdivision (h)(3);

(D) award punitive damages;

(E) in its discretion, award reasonable attorney's fees and costs, including, but not limited to, costs for investigation, testing and expert witness fees, to an aggrieved party who prevails; and

(F) as part of a final judgment or decree finding a violation, order the remedial modification or destruction of any unlawful communication or access device involved in the violation that is in the custody or control of the violator or has been impounded under subdivision (h)(2)(B).

(3) Types of damages recoverable. Damages awarded by a court under this Section shall be computed as either of the following:

(A) Upon his or her election of such damages at any time before final judgment is entered, the complaining party may recover the actual damages suffered by him or her as a result of the violation and any profits of the violator that are attributable to the violation and are not taken into account in computing the actual damages; in determining the violator's profits, the complaining party shall be required to prove only the violator's gross revenue, and the violator shall be required to prove his or her deductible expenses and the elements of profit attributable to factors other than the violation; or

(B) Upon election by the complaining party at any time before final judgment is entered, that party may recover in lieu of actual damages an award of statutory damages of not less than $250 and not more than $10,000 for each unlawful communication or access device involved in the action, with the amount of statutory damages to be determined by the court, as the court considers just. In any case, if the court finds that any of the violations were committed with the intent to obtain commercial advantage or private financial gain, the court in its discretion may increase the award of statutory damages by an amount of not more than $50,000 for each unlawful communication or access device involved in the action.

(4) Separate violations. For purposes of all civil remedies established for violations, the prohibited activity established in this Section applies to each unlawful communication or access device and shall be deemed a separate violation. As used in Sections 16-19, 16-20, and 16-21, unless the context otherwise indicates:

"Communication device" means any type of instrument, device, machine, or equipment which is capable of transmitting, acquiring, decrypting, or receiving any telephonic, electronic, data, Internet access, audio, video, microwave, or radio transmissions, signals, communications, or services, including the receipt, acquisition, transmission, or decryption of all such communications, transmissions, signals, or services provided by or through any cable television, fiber optic, telephone, satellite, microwave, radio, Internet-based, data transmission, or wireless distribution network, system or facility; or any part, accessory, or component thereof, including any computer circuit, security module, smart card, software, computer chip, electronic mechanism or other component, accessory or part of any communication device which is capable of facilitating the transmission, decryption, acquisition or reception of all such communications, transmissions, signals, or services.

"Communication service" means any service lawfully provided for a charge or compensation to facilitate the lawful origination, transmission, emission, or reception of signs, signals, data, writings, images, and sounds or intelligence of any nature by telephone, including cellular telephones or a wire, wireless, radio, electromagnetic, photo-electronic or photo-optical system; and also any service lawfully provided by any radio, telephone, cable television, fiber optic, satellite, microwave, Internet-based or wireless distribution network, system, facility or technology, including, but not limited to, any and all electronic, data, video, audio, Internet access, telephonic, microwave and radio communications, transmissions, signals and services, and any such communications, transmissions, signals and services lawfully provided directly or indirectly by or through any of those networks, systems, facilities or technologies.

"Communication service provider" means: (1) any person or entity providing any communication service, whether directly or indirectly, as a reseller, including, but not limited to, a cellular, paging or other wireless communications company or other person or entity which, for a fee, supplies the facility, cell site, mobile telephone switching office or other equipment or communication service; (2) any person or entity owning or operating any cable television, fiber optic, satellite, telephone, wireless, microwave, radio, data transmission or Internet-based distribution network, system or facility; and (3) any person or entity providing any communication service directly or indirectly by or through any such distribution system, network or facility.

"Unlawful communication device" means any electronic serial number, mobile identification number, personal identification number or any communication device that is capable of acquiring or facilitating the acquisition of a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, or that has been altered, modified, programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another communication device or other equipment, to so acquire or facilitate the unauthorized acquisition of a communication service. "Unlawful communication device" also means:

(1) any phone altered to obtain service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, tumbler phone, counterfeit or clone phone, tumbler microchip, counterfeit or clone microchip or other instrument capable of disguising its identity or location or of gaining unauthorized access to a communications system operated by a communication service provider; and

(2) any communication device which is capable of, or has been altered, designed, modified, programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another communication device or devices, so as to be capable of, facilitating the disruption, acquisition, receipt, transmission or decryption of a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, including, but not limited to, any device, technology, product, service, equipment, computer software or component or part thereof, primarily distributed, sold, designed, assembled, manufactured, modified, programmed, reprogrammed or used for the purpose of providing the unauthorized receipt of, transmission of, disruption of, decryption of, access to or acquisition of any communication service provided by any communication service provider.

"Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful communication device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful communication device or to modify, alter, program or reprogram a communication device to be capable of acquiring, disrupting, receiving, transmitting, decrypting, or facilitating the acquisition, disruption, receipt, transmission or decryption of, a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, or to knowingly assist others in those activities.

"Unlawful access device" means any type of instrument, device, machine, equipment, technology, or software which is primarily possessed, used, designed, assembled, manufactured, sold, distributed or offered, promoted or advertised for the purpose of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or software, or any component or part thereof, used by the provider, owner or licensee of any communication service or of any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect any such communication, audio or video services, programs or transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, receipt, decryption, disclosure, communication, transmission or re-transmission.

"Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful access device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful access device or to modify, alter, program or re-program any instrument, device, machine, equipment or software so that it is capable of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or software used by the provider, owner or licensee of a communication service or of any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect any such communication, data, audio or video services, programs or transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, disclosure, receipt, decryption, communication, transmission or re-transmission.

(Source: P.A. 92-728, eff. 1-1-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 10 heading new)

SUBDIVISION 10. RETAIL THEFT

(720 ILCS 5/16-25 new)

Sec. 16-25. Retail theft.

(a) A person commits retail theft when he or she knowingly:

(1) Takes possession of, carries away, transfers or causes to be carried away or transferred any merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment with the intention of retaining such merchandise or with the intention of depriving the merchant permanently of the possession, use or benefit of such merchandise without paying the full retail value of such merchandise; or

(2) Alters, transfers, or removes any label, price tag, marking, indicia of value or any other markings which aid in determining value affixed to any merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment and attempts to purchase such merchandise at less than the full retail value with the intention of depriving the merchant of the full retail value of such merchandise; or

(3) Transfers any merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment from the container in or on which such merchandise is displayed to any other container with the intention of depriving the merchant of the full retail value of such merchandise; or

(4) Under-rings with the intention of depriving the merchant of the full retail value of the merchandise; or

(5) Removes a shopping cart from the premises of a retail mercantile establishment without the consent of the merchant given at the time of such removal with the intention of depriving the merchant permanently of the possession, use or benefit of such cart; or

(6) Represents to a merchant that he, she, or another is the lawful owner of property, knowing that such representation is false, and conveys or attempts to convey that property to a merchant who is the owner of the property in exchange for money, merchandise credit or other property of the merchant; or

(7) Uses or possesses any theft detection shielding device or theft detection device remover with the intention of using such device to deprive the merchant permanently of the possession, use or benefit of any merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment without paying the full retail value of such merchandise; or

(8) Obtains or exerts unauthorized control over property of the owner and thereby intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property when a lessee of the personal property of another fails to return it to the owner, or if the lessee fails to pay the full retail value of such property to the lessor in satisfaction of any contractual provision requiring such, within 10 days after written demand from the owner for its return. A notice in writing, given after the expiration of the leasing agreement, by registered mail, to the lessee at the address given by the lessee and shown on the leasing agreement shall constitute proper demand.

(b) Theft by emergency exit. A person commits theft by emergency exit when he or she commits a retail theft as defined in subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(8) of this Section and to facilitate the theft he or she leaves the retail mercantile establishment by use of a designated emergency exit.

(c) Permissive inference. If any person:

(1) conceals upon his or her person or among his or her belongings unpurchased merchandise displayed, held, stored or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment; and

(2) removes that merchandise beyond the last known station for receiving payments for that merchandise in that retail mercantile establishment, then the trier of fact may infer that the person possessed, carried away or transferred such merchandise with the intention of retaining it or with the intention of depriving the merchant permanently of the possession, use or benefit of such merchandise without paying the full retail value of such merchandise.

To "conceal" merchandise means that, although there may be some notice of its presence, that merchandise is not visible through ordinary observation.

(d) Venue. Multiple thefts committed by the same person as part of a continuing course of conduct in different jurisdictions that have been aggregated in one jurisdiction may be prosecuted in any jurisdiction in which one or more of the thefts occurred.

(e) For the purposes of this Section, "theft detection shielding device" means any laminated or coated bag or device designed and intended to shield merchandise from detection by an electronic or magnetic theft alarm sensor.

(f) Sentence.

(1) A violation of any of subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(6) and (a)(8) of this Section, the full retail value of which does not exceed $300 for property other than motor fuel or $150 for motor fuel, is a Class A misdemeanor. A violation of subdivision (a)(7) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense. Theft by emergency exit of property, the full retail value of which does not exceed $300, is a Class 4 felony.

(2) A person who has been convicted of retail theft of property under any of subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(6) and (a)(8) of this Section, the full retail value of which does not exceed $300 for property other than motor fuel or $150 for motor fuel, and who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, unlawful use of a credit card, or forgery is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person who has been convicted of theft by emergency exit of property, the full retail value of which does not exceed $300, and who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, unlawful use of a credit card, or forgery is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any retail theft of property under any of subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(6) and (a)(8) of this Section, the full retail value of which exceeds $300 for property other than motor fuel or $150 for motor fuel in a single transaction, or in separate transactions committed by the same person as part of a continuing course of conduct from one or more mercantile establishments over a period of one year, is a Class 3 felony. Theft by emergency exit of property, the full retail value of which exceeds $300 in a single transaction, or in separate transactions committed by the same person as part of a continuing course of conduct from one or more mercantile establishments over a period of one year, is a Class 2 felony. When a charge of retail theft of property or theft by emergency exit of property, the full value of which exceeds $300, is brought, the value of the property involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding $300.

(720 ILCS 5/16-26 new)

Sec. 16-26. Detention; affirmative defense.

(a) Detention. Any merchant who has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed retail theft may detain the person, on or off the premises of a retail mercantile establishment, in a reasonable manner and for a reasonable length of time for all or any of the following purposes:

(1) To request identification;

(2) To verify such identification;

(3) To make reasonable inquiry as to whether such person has in his possession unpurchased merchandise and to make reasonable investigation of the ownership of such merchandise;

(4) To inform a peace officer of the detention of the person and surrender that person to the custody of a peace officer;

(5) In the case of a minor, to immediately make a reasonable attempt to inform the parents, guardian or other private person interested in the welfare of that minor and, at the merchant's discretion, a peace officer, of this detention and to surrender custody of such minor to such person.

A merchant may make a detention as permitted in this Section off the premises of a retail mercantile establishment only if such detention is pursuant to an immediate pursuit of such person.

A merchant shall be deemed to have reasonable grounds to make a detention for the purposes of this Section if the merchant detains a person because such person has in his or her possession either a theft detection shielding device or a theft detection device remover.

(b) Affirmative defense. A detention as permitted in this Section does not constitute an arrest or an unlawful restraint, as defined in Section 10-3 of this Code, nor shall it render the merchant liable to the person so detained.

(c) For the purposes of this Section, "minor" means a person who is less than 19 years of age, is unemancipated, and resides with his or her parent or parents or legal guardian.

(720 ILCS 5/16-27 new)

Sec. 16-27. Civil liability.

(a) A person who commits the offense of retail theft as defined in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), or (a)(8) of Section 16-25 shall be civilly liable to the merchant of the merchandise in an amount consisting of:

(i) actual damages equal to the full retail value of the merchandise; plus

(ii) an amount not less than $100 nor more than $1,000; plus

(iii) attorney's fees and court costs.

(b) If a minor commits the offense of retail theft, the parents or guardian of the minor shall be civilly liable as provided in this Section; however, a guardian appointed pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall not be liable under this Section. Total recovery under this Section shall not exceed the maximum recovery permitted under Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law. For the purposes of this Section, "minor" means a person who is less than 19 years of age, is unemancipated, and resides with his or her parent or parents or legal guardian.

(c) A conviction or a plea of guilty to the offense of retail theft is not a prerequisite to the bringing of a civil suit under this Section.

(d) Judgments arising under this Section may be assigned.

(720 ILCS 5/16-28 new)

Sec. 16-28. Delivery container theft.

(a) A person commits delivery container theft when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Uses for any purpose, when not on the premises of the owner or an adjacent parking area, a delivery container of another person which is marked by a name or mark unless the use is authorized by the owner.

(2) Sells, or offers for sale, a delivery container of another person which is marked by a name or mark unless the sale is authorized by the owner.

(3) Defaces, obliterates, destroys, covers up or otherwise removes or conceals a name or mark on a delivery container of another person without the written consent of the owner.

(4) Removes the delivery container of another person from the premises, parking area or any other area under the control of any processor, distributor or retail establishment, or from any delivery vehicle, without the consent of the owner of the delivery container. If a person possesses any marked or named delivery container without the consent of the owner and while not on the premises, parking area or other area under control of a processor, distributor or retail establishment doing business with the owner, the trier of fact may infer that the person removed the delivery container in violation of this paragraph.

(b) Any common carrier or private carrier for hire, except those engaged in transporting bakery or dairy products to and from the places where they are produced, that receives or transports any delivery container marked with a name or mark without having in its possession a bill of lading or invoice for that delivery container commits the offense of delivery container theft.

(c) Sentence. Delivery container theft is a Class B misdemeanor. An offender may be sentenced to pay a fine of $150 for the first offense and $500 for a second or subsequent offense.

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 15 heading new)

SUBDIVISION 15. IDENTITY THEFT

(720 ILCS 5/16-30 new)

Sec. 16-30. Identity theft; aggravated identity theft.

(a) A person commits identity theft when he or she knowingly:

(1) uses any personal identifying information or personal identification document of another person to fraudulently obtain credit, money, goods, services, or other property; or

(2) uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another with intent to commit any felony not set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a); or

(3) obtains, records, possesses, sells, transfers, purchases, or manufactures any personal identification information or personal identification document of another with intent to commit any felony; or

(4) uses, obtains, records, possesses, sells, transfers, purchases, or manufactures any personal identification information or personal identification document of another knowing that such personal identification information or personal identification documents were stolen or produced without lawful authority; or

(5) uses, transfers, or possesses document-making implements to produce false identification or false documents with knowledge that they will be used by the person or another to commit any felony; or

(6) uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another to portray himself or herself as that person, or otherwise, for the purpose of gaining access to any personal identification information or personal identification document of that person, without the prior express permission of that person; or

(7) uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another for the purpose of gaining access to any record of the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of that person, without the prior express permission of that person; or

(8) in the course of applying for a building permit with a unit of local government, provides the license number of a roofing or fire sprinkler contractor whom he or she does not intend to have perform the work on the roofing or fire sprinkler portion of the project; it is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this paragraph (8) that the building permit applicant promptly informed the unit of local government that issued the building permit of any change in the roofing or fire sprinkler contractor.

(b) Aggravated identity theft. A person commits aggravated identity theft when he or she commits identity theft as set forth in subsection (a) of this Section:

(1) against a person 60 years of age or older or a person with a disability; or

(2) in furtherance of the activities of an organized gang.

A defense to aggravated identity theft does not exist merely because the accused reasonably believed the victim to be a person less than 60 years of age. For the purposes of this subsection, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) Knowledge shall be determined by an evaluation of all circumstances surrounding the use of the other person's identifying information or document.

(d) When a charge of identity theft or aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding a specified value is brought, the value of the credit, money, goods, services, or other property is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.

(e) Sentence.

(1) Identity theft.

(A) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) shall be sentenced as follows:

(i) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value is a Class 4 felony. A person who has been previously convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of identity theft of less than $300 is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person who has been convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, home repair fraud, aggravated home repair fraud, or financial exploitation of an elderly or disabled person is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 3 felony. A person who has been previously convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of identity theft of less than $300 when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person who has been convicted of identity theft of less than $300 when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, home repair fraud, aggravated home repair fraud, or financial exploitation of an elderly or disabled person is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(ii) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $2,000 in value is a Class 3 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $2,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 2 felony.

(iii) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $2,000 and not exceeding $10,000 in value is a Class 2 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $2,000 and not exceeding $10,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 1 felony.

(iv) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class X felony.

(v) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(B) A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7) of subsection (a) is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7) of subsection (a) when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(C) A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (5) of subsection (a) a second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (5) of subsection (a) a second or subsequent time when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(D) A person who, within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7) of subsection (a) with respect to the identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person who, within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7) of subsection (a) with respect to the identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(E) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) who uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another to purchase methamphetamine manufacturing material as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to unlawfully manufacture methamphetamine is guilty of a Class 2 felony for a first offense and a Class 1 felony for a second or subsequent offense. A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) who uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another to purchase methamphetamine manufacturing material as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to unlawfully manufacture methamphetamine when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony for a first offense and a Class X felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(F) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (8) of subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(2) Aggravated identity theft.

(A) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value is a Class 3 felony.

(B) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $10,000 in value is a Class 2 felony.

(C) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 in value and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony.

(D) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(E) Aggravated identity theft for a violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 2 felony.

(F) Aggravated identity theft when a person who, within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7) of subsection (a) of this Section with identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, is a Class 1 felony.

(G) A person who has been previously convicted of aggravated identity theft regardless of the value of the property involved who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of aggravated identity theft regardless of the value of the property involved is guilty of a Class X felony.

(720 ILCS 5/16-31 new)

Sec. 16-31. Transmission of personal identifying information.

(a) A person commits transmission of personal identifying information if he or she is not a party to a transaction that involves the use of a financial transaction device and knowingly: (i) secretly or surreptitiously photographs, or otherwise captures or records, electronically or by any other means, personal identifying information from the transaction without the consent of the person whose information is photographed or otherwise captured, recorded, distributed, disseminated, or transmitted, or (ii) distributes, disseminates, or transmits, electronically or by any other means, personal identifying information from the transaction without the consent of the person whose information is photographed, or otherwise captured, recorded, distributed, disseminated, or transmitted.

(b) This Section does not:

(1) prohibit the capture or transmission of personal identifying information in the ordinary and lawful course of business;

(2) apply to a peace officer of this State, or of the federal government, or the officer's agent, while in the lawful performance of the officer's duties;

(3) prohibit a person from being charged with, convicted of, or punished for any other violation of law committed by that person while violating or attempting to violate this Section.

(c) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(720 ILCS 5/16-32 new)

Sec. 16-32. Facilitating identity theft.

(a) A person commits facilitating identity theft when he or she, in the course of his or her employment or official duties, has access to the personal information of another person in the possession of the State of Illinois, whether written, recorded, or on computer disk, and knowingly, with the intent of committing identity theft, aggravated identity theft, or any violation of the Illinois Financial Crime Law, disposes of that written, recorded, or computerized information in any receptacle, trash can, or other container that the public could gain access to, without shredding that information, destroying the recording, or wiping the computer disk so that the information is either unintelligible or destroyed.

(b) Sentence. Facilitating identity theft is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(c) For purposes of this Section, "personal information" has the meaning provided in the Personal Information Protection Act.

(720 ILCS 5/16-33 new)

Sec. 16-33. Civil remedies. A person who is convicted of facilitating identity theft, identity theft, or aggravated identity theft is liable in a civil action to the person who suffered damages as a result of the violation. The person suffering damages may recover court costs, attorney's fees, lost wages, and actual damages. Where a person has been convicted of identity theft in violation of subdivision (a)(6) or subdivision (a)(7) of Section 16-30, in the absence of proof of actual damages, the person whose personal identification information or personal identification documents were used in the violation in question may recover damages of $2,000.

(720 ILCS 5/16-34 new)

Sec. 16-34. Offender's interest in the property; consent.

(a) It is no defense to a charge of aggravated identity theft or identity theft that the offender has an interest in the credit, money, goods, services, or other property.

(b) It is no defense to a charge of aggravated identity theft or identity theft that the offender received the consent of any person to access any personal identification information or personal identification document, other than the person described by the personal identification information or personal identification document used by the offender.

(720 ILCS 5/16-35 new)

Sec. 16-35. Mandating law enforcement agencies to accept and provide reports; judicial factual determination.

(a) A person who has learned or reasonably suspects that his or her personal identifying information has been unlawfully used by another may initiate a law enforcement investigation by contacting the local law enforcement agency that has jurisdiction over his or her actual residence, which shall take a police report of the matter, provide the complainant with a copy of that report, and begin an investigation of the facts, or, if the suspected crime was committed in a different jurisdiction, refer the matter to the law enforcement agency where the suspected crime was committed for an investigation of the facts.

(b) A person who reasonably believes that he or she is the victim of financial identity theft may petition a court, or upon application of the prosecuting attorney or on its own motion, the court may move for an expedited judicial determination of his or her factual innocence, where the perpetrator of the financial identity theft was arrested for, cited for, or convicted of a crime under the victim's identity, or where a criminal complaint has been filed against the perpetrator in the victim's name, or where the victim's identity has been mistakenly associated with a criminal conviction. Any judicial determination of factual innocence made pursuant to this subsection may be heard and determined upon declarations, affidavits, police reports, or other material, relevant, and reliable information submitted by the parties or ordered to be part of the record by the court. If the court determines that the petition or motion is meritorious and that there is no reasonable cause to believe that the victim committed the offense for which the perpetrator of the identity theft was arrested, cited, convicted, or subject to a criminal complaint in the victim's name, or that the victim's identity has been mistakenly associated with a record of criminal conviction, the court shall find the victim factually innocent of that offense. If the victim is found factually innocent, the court shall issue an order certifying this determination.

(c) After a court has issued a determination of factual innocence under this Section, the court may order the name and associated personal identifying information contained in the court records, files, and indexes accessible by the public sealed, deleted, or labeled to show that the data is impersonated and does not reflect the defendant's identity.

(d) A court that has issued a determination of factual innocence under this Section may at any time vacate that determination if the petition, or any information submitted in support of the petition, is found to contain any material misrepresentation or fraud.

(e) Except for criminal and civil actions provided for by Sections 16-30 through 16-36, or for disciplinary or licensure-related proceedings involving the violation of Sections 16-30 through 16-36, no information acquired by, or as a result of, any violation of Section 16-30 shall be discoverable or admissible in any court or other proceeding, or otherwise subject to disclosure without the express permission of any person or persons identified in that information.

(720 ILCS 5/16-36 new)

Sec. 16-36. Venue. In addition to any other venues provided for by statute or otherwise, venue for any criminal prosecution or civil recovery action under Sections 16-30 through 16-36 shall be proper in any county where the person described in the personal identification information or personal identification document in question resides or has his or her principal place of business. Where a criminal prosecution or civil recovery action under Sections 16-30 through 16-36 involves the personal identification information or personal identification documents of more than one person, venue shall be proper in any county where one or more of the persons described in the personal identification information or personal identification documents in question resides or has his or her principal place of business.

(720 ILCS 5/16-37 new)

Sec. 16-37. Exemptions; relation to other laws.

(a) Sections 16-30 through 16-36 do not:

(1) prohibit the capture or transmission of personal identifying information in the ordinary and lawful course of business;

(2) apply to a peace officer of this State, or of the federal government, or the officer's agent, while in the lawful performance of the officer's duties;

(3) prohibit a licensed private detective or licensed private detective agency from representing himself, herself, or itself as any another person, provided that he, she, or it may not portray himself, herself, or itself as the person whose information he, she, or it is seeking except as provided under Sections 16-30 through 16-36;

(4) apply to activities authorized under any other statute.

(b) No criminal prosecution or civil action brought under Sections 16-30 through 16-36 shall prohibit a person from being charged with, convicted of, or punished for any other violation of law committed by that person while violating or attempting to violate Sections 16-30 through 16-36.

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16, Subdiv. 20 heading new)

SUBDIVISION 20. MISCELLANEOUS THEFT-RELATED OFFENSES

(720 ILCS 5/16-40 new)

Sec. 16-40. Internet offenses.

(a) Online sale of stolen property. A person commits online sale of stolen property when he or she uses or accesses the Internet with the intent of selling property gained through unlawful means.

(b) Online theft by deception. A person commits online theft by deception when he or she uses the Internet to purchase or attempt to purchase property from a seller with a mode of payment that he or she knows is fictitious, stolen, or lacking the consent of the valid account holder.

(c) Electronic fencing. A person commits electronic fencing when he or she sells stolen property using the Internet, knowing that the property was stolen. A person who unknowingly purchases stolen property over the Internet does not violate this Section.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony if the full retail value of the stolen property or property obtained by deception does not exceed $300. A violation of this Section is a Class 2 felony if the full retail value of the stolen property or property obtained by deception exceeds $300.

(720 ILCS 5/17-0.5)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 17-0.5. Definitions. In this Article:

"Altered credit card or debit card" means any instrument or device, whether known as a credit card or debit card, which has been changed in any respect by addition or deletion of any material, except for the signature by the person to whom the card is issued.

"Cardholder" means the person or organization named on the face of a credit card or debit card to whom or for whose benefit the credit card or debit card is issued by an issuer.

"Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores, retrieves, or outputs data and includes, but is not limited to, auxiliary storage and telecommunications devices connected to computers.

"Computer network" means a set of related, remotely connected devices and any communications facilities including more than one computer with the capability to transmit data between them through the communications facilities.

"Computer program" or "program" means a series of coded instructions or statements in a form acceptable to a computer which causes the computer to process data and supply the results of the data processing.

"Computer services" means computer time or services, including data processing services, Internet services, electronic mail services, electronic message services, or information or data stored in connection therewith.

"Counterfeit" means to manufacture, produce or create, by any means, a credit card or debit card without the purported issuer's consent or authorization.

"Credit card" means any instrument or device, whether known as a credit card, credit plate, charge plate or any other name, issued with or without fee by an issuer for the use of the cardholder in obtaining money, goods, services or anything else of value on credit or in consideration or an undertaking or guaranty by the issuer of the payment of a check drawn by the cardholder.

"Data" means a representation in any form of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions, including program documentation, which is prepared or has been prepared in a formalized manner and is stored or processed in or transmitted by a computer or in a system or network. Data is considered property and may be in any form, including, but not limited to, printouts, magnetic or optical storage media, punch cards, or data stored internally in the memory of the computer.

"Debit card" means any instrument or device, known by any name, issued with or without fee by an issuer for the use of the cardholder in obtaining money, goods, services, and anything else of value, payment of which is made against funds previously deposited by the cardholder. A debit card which also can be used to obtain money, goods, services and anything else of value on credit shall not be considered a debit card when it is being used to obtain money, goods, services or anything else of value on credit.

"Document" includes, but is not limited to, any document, representation, or image produced manually, electronically, or by computer.

"Electronic fund transfer terminal" means any machine or device that, when properly activated, will perform any of the following services:

(1) Dispense money as a debit to the cardholder's account; or

(2) Print the cardholder's account balances on a statement; or

(3) Transfer funds between a cardholder's accounts; or

(4) Accept payments on a cardholder's loan; or

(5) Dispense cash advances on an open end credit or a revolving charge agreement; or

(6) Accept deposits to a customer's account; or

(7) Receive inquiries of verification of checks and dispense information that verifies that funds are available to cover such checks; or

(8) Cause money to be transferred electronically from a cardholder's account to an account held by any business, firm, retail merchant, corporation, or any other organization.

"Electronic funds transfer system", hereafter referred to as "EFT System", means that system whereby funds are transferred electronically from a cardholder's account to any other account.

"Electronic mail service provider" means any person who (i) is an intermediary in sending or receiving electronic mail and (ii) provides to end-users of electronic mail services the ability to send or receive electronic mail.

"Expired credit card or debit card" means a credit card or debit card which is no longer valid because the term on it has elapsed.

"False academic degree" means a certificate, diploma, transcript, or other document purporting to be issued by an institution of higher learning or purporting to indicate that a person has completed an organized academic program of study at an institution of higher learning when the person has not completed the organized academic program of study indicated on the certificate, diploma, transcript, or other document.

"False claim" means any statement made to any insurer, purported insurer, servicing corporation, insurance broker, or insurance agent, or any agent or employee of one of those entities, and made as part of, or in support of, a claim for payment or other benefit under a policy of insurance, or as part of, or in support of, an application for the issuance of, or the rating of, any insurance policy, when the statement does any of the following:

(1) Contains any false, incomplete, or misleading information concerning any fact or thing material to the claim.

(2) Conceals (i) the occurrence of an event that is material to any person's initial or continued right or entitlement to any insurance benefit or payment or (ii) the amount of any benefit or payment to which the person is entitled.

"Financial institution" means any bank, savings and loan association, credit union, or other depository of money or medium of savings and collective investment.

"Governmental entity" means: each officer, board, commission, and agency created by the Constitution, whether in the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of State government; each officer, department, board, commission, agency, institution, authority, university, and body politic and corporate of the State; each administrative unit or corporate outgrowth of State government that is created by or pursuant to statute, including units of local government and their officers, school districts, and boards of election commissioners; and each administrative unit or corporate outgrowth of the foregoing items and as may be created by executive order of the Governor.

"Incomplete credit card or debit card" means a credit card or debit card which is missing part of the matter other than the signature of the cardholder which an issuer requires to appear on the credit card or debit card before it can be used by a cardholder, and this includes credit cards or debit cards which have not been stamped, embossed, imprinted or written on.

"Institution of higher learning" means a public or private college, university, or community college located in the State of Illinois that is authorized by the Board of Higher Education or the Illinois Community College Board to issue post-secondary degrees, or a public or private college, university, or community college located anywhere in the United States that is or has been legally constituted to offer degrees and instruction in its state of origin or incorporation.

"Insurance company" means "company" as defined under Section 2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

"Issuer" means the business organization or financial institution which issues a credit card or debit card, or its duly authorized agent.

"Merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 16A-2.4 of this Code.

"Person" means any individual, corporation, government, governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association or any other entity.

"Receives" or "receiving" means acquiring possession or control.

"Record of charge form" means any document submitted or intended to be submitted to an issuer as evidence of a credit transaction for which the issuer has agreed to reimburse persons providing money, goods, property, services or other things of value.

"Revoked credit card or debit card" means a credit card or debit card which is no longer valid because permission to use it has been suspended or terminated by the issuer.

"Sale" means any delivery for value.

"Scheme or artifice to defraud" includes a scheme or artifice to deprive another of the intangible right to honest services.

"Self-insured entity" means any person, business, partnership, corporation, or organization that sets aside funds to meet his, her, or its losses or to absorb fluctuations in the amount of loss, the losses being charged against the funds set aside or accumulated.

"Social networking website" means an Internet website containing profile web pages of the members of the website that include the names or nicknames of such members, photographs placed on the profile web pages by such members, or any other personal or personally identifying information about such members and links to other profile web pages on social networking websites of friends or associates of such members that can be accessed by other members or visitors to the website. A social networking website provides members of or visitors to such website the ability to leave messages or comments on the profile web page that are visible to all or some visitors to the profile web page and may also include a form of electronic mail for members of the social networking website.

"Statement" means any assertion, oral, written, or otherwise, and includes, but is not limited to: any notice, letter, or memorandum; proof of loss; bill of lading; receipt for payment; invoice, account, or other financial statement; estimate of property damage; bill for services; diagnosis or prognosis; prescription; hospital, medical, or dental chart or other record, x-ray, photograph, videotape, or movie film; test result; other evidence of loss, injury, or expense; computer-generated document; and data in any form.

"Universal Price Code Label" means a unique symbol that consists of a machine-readable code and human-readable numbers.

"With intent to defraud" means to act knowingly, and with the specific intent to deceive or cheat, for the purpose of causing financial loss to another or bringing some financial gain to oneself, regardless of whether any person was actually defrauded or deceived. This includes an intent to cause another to assume, create, transfer, alter, or terminate any right, obligation, or power with reference to any person or property.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-2)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-1551)

Sec. 17-2. False personation; solicitation.

(a) False personation; solicitation.

(1) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a member or representative of any veterans' or public safety personnel organization or a representative of any charitable organization, or when he or she knowingly exhibits or uses in any manner any decal, badge or insignia of any charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization when not authorized to do so by the charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization. "Public safety personnel organization" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1 of the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(2) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a veteran in seeking employment or public office. In this paragraph, "veteran" means a person who has served in the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States.

(3) No person shall knowingly use the words "Police", "Police Department", "Patrolman", "Sergeant", "Lieutenant", "Peace Officer", "Sheriff's Police", "Sheriff", "Officer", "Law Enforcement", "Trooper", "Deputy", "Deputy Sheriff", "State Police", or any other words to the same effect (i) in the title of any organization, magazine, or other publication without the express approval of the named public safety personnel organization's governing board or (ii) in combination with the name of any state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government without the express written authorization of that state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government.

(4) No person may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is acting on behalf of any public safety personnel organization when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements unless the chief of the police department, fire department, and the corporate or municipal authority thereof, or the sheriff has first entered into a written agreement with the person or with an organization with which the person is affiliated and the agreement permits the activity and specifies and states clearly and fully the purpose for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(5) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements may claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes "officer", "peace officer", "police", "law enforcement", "trooper", "sheriff", "deputy", "deputy sheriff", "State police", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of law enforcement personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty peace officers, retired peace officers, or injured peace officers; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the sale or the offers to sell any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, a written contract between the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization, which specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used, has been entered into.

(6) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes the term "fireman", "fire fighter", "paramedic", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of fire fighter or paramedic personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty, retired, or injured fire fighters (for the purposes of this Section, "fire fighter" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 2 of the Illinois Fire Protection Training Act) or active duty, retired, or injured emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the sale or delivery or the offers to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization have entered into a written contract that specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(7) No person may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport in order to obtain the uniform, identification card, license, or other identification paraphernalia of an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport.

(8) No person, firm, copartnership, or corporation (except corporations organized and doing business under the Pawners Societies Act) shall knowingly use a name that contains in it the words "Pawners' Society".

(b) False personation; judicial process. A person commits a false personation if he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be any of the following:

(1) An attorney authorized to practice law for purposes of compensation or consideration. This paragraph (b)(1) does not apply to a person who unintentionally fails to pay attorney registration fees established by Supreme Court Rule.

(2) A public officer or a public employee or an official or employee of the federal government.

(2.3) A public officer, a public employee, or an official or employee of the federal government, and the false representation is made in furtherance of the commission of felony.

(2.7) A public officer or a public employee, and the false representation is for the purpose of effectuating identity theft as defined in Section 16-30 16G-15 of this Code.

(3) A peace officer.

(4) A peace officer while carrying a deadly weapon.

(5) A peace officer in attempting or committing a felony.

(6) A peace officer in attempting or committing a forcible felony.

(7) The parent, legal guardian, or other relation of a minor child to any public official, public employee, or elementary or secondary school employee or administrator.

(8) A fire fighter.

(9) A fire fighter while carrying a deadly weapon.

(10) A fire fighter in attempting or committing a felony.

(11) An emergency management worker of any jurisdiction in this State.

(12) An emergency management worker of any jurisdiction in this State in attempting or committing a felony. For the purposes of this subsection (b), "emergency management worker" has the meaning provided under Section 2-6.6 of this Code.

(c) Fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name.

(1) A company, association, or individual commits fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name if he, she, or it, not being incorporated, puts forth a sign or advertisement and assumes, for the purpose of soliciting business, a corporate name.

(2) Nothing contained in this subsection (c) prohibits a corporation, company, association, or person from using a divisional designation or trade name in conjunction with its corporate name or assumed name under Section 4.05 of the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or, if it is a member of a partnership or joint venture, from doing partnership or joint venture business under the partnership or joint venture name. The name under which the joint venture or partnership does business may differ from the names of the members. Business may not be conducted or transacted under that joint venture or partnership name, however, unless all provisions of the Assumed Business Name Act have been complied with. Nothing in this subsection (c) permits a foreign corporation to do business in this State without complying with all Illinois laws regulating the doing of business by foreign corporations. No foreign corporation may conduct or transact business in this State as a member of a partnership or joint venture that violates any Illinois law regulating or pertaining to the doing of business by foreign corporations in Illinois.

(3) The provisions of this subsection (c) do not apply to limited partnerships formed under the Revised Uniform Limited Partnership Act or under the Uniform Limited Partnership Act (2001).

(d) False law enforcement badges.

(1) A person commits false law enforcement badges if he or she knowingly produces, sells, or distributes a law enforcement badge without the express written consent of the law enforcement agency represented on the badge or, in case of a reorganized or defunct law enforcement agency, its successor law enforcement agency.

(2) It is a defense to false law enforcement badges that the law enforcement badge is used or is intended to be used exclusively: (i) as a memento or in a collection or exhibit; (ii) for decorative purposes; or (iii) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production.

(e) False medals.

(1) A person commits a false personation if he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a recipient of, or wears on his or her person, any of the following medals if that medal was not awarded to that person by the United States Government, irrespective of branch of service: The Congressional Medal of Honor, The Distinguished Service Cross, The Navy Cross, The Air Force Cross, The Silver Star, The Bronze Star, or the Purple Heart.

(2) It is a defense to a prosecution under paragraph (e)(1) that the medal is used, or is intended to be used, exclusively:

(A) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production, or a historical re-enactment; or

(B) for a costume worn, or intended to be worn, by a person under 18 years of age.

(f) Sentence.

(1) A violation of paragraph (a)(8) is a petty offense subject to a fine of not less than $5 nor more than $100, and the person, firm, copartnership, or corporation commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of paragraph (c)(1) is a petty offense, and the company, association, or person commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of subsection (e) is a petty offense for which the offender shall be fined at least $100 and not more than $200.

(2) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(3) is a Class C misdemeanor.

(3) A violation of paragraph (a)(2), (a)(7), (b)(2), or (b)(7) or subsection (d) is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (d) is a Class 3 felony.

(4) A violation of paragraph (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6), (b)(1), (b)(2.3), (b)(2.7), (b)(3), (b)(8), or (b)(11) is a Class 4 felony.

(5) A violation of paragraph (b)(4), (b)(9), or (b)(12) is a Class 3 felony.

(6) A violation of paragraph (b)(5) or (b)(10) is a Class 2 felony.

(7) A violation of paragraph (b)(6) is a Class 1 felony.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.8 new)

Sec. 24-3.8. Possession of a stolen firearm.

(a) A person commits possession of a stolen firearm when he or she, not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, possesses or delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. The trier of fact may infer that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(b) Possession of a stolen firearm is a Class 2 felony.

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.9 new)

Sec. 24-3.9. Aggravated possession of a stolen firearm.

(a) A person commits aggravated possession of a stolen firearm when he or she:

(1) Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms, possesses or delivers those firearms at the same time or within a one year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(2) Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms, possesses or delivers those firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(3) Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms, possesses or delivers those firearms at the same time or within a 3 year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(4) Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms, possesses or delivers those firearms at the same time or within a 4 year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(5) Not being entitled to the possession of more than 30 firearms, possesses or delivers those firearms at the same time or within a 5 year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(b) The trier of fact may infer that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(c) Sentence.

(1) A person who violates paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class 1 felony.

(2) A person who violates paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years.

(3) A person who violates paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years.

(4) A person who violates paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years.

(5) A person who violates paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years.

(720 ILCS 5/26-1.1 new)

Sec. 26-1.1. False report of theft and other losses.

(a) A person who knowingly makes a false report of a theft, destruction, damage or conversion of any property to a law enforcement agency or other governmental agency with the intent to defraud an insurer is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) A person convicted of a violation of this Section a second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(720 ILCS 5/16-1.1 rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-1.2 rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-3.1 rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-4 rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-8 rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-15 rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-16 rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-16.1 rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-19 rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-20 rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-21 rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16A rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16B rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16E rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16F rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16G rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16J rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16K rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-25 rep.)

Section 6. The Criminal Code of 1961 is amended by repealing Sections 16-1.1, 16-1.2, 16-3.1, 16-4, 16-8, 16-15, 16-16, 16-16.1, 16-19, 16-20, 16-21, and 17-25 and Articles 16A, 16B, 16E, 16F, 16G, 16J, and 16K.

Section 910. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(225 ILCS 46/25)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-1551)

Sec. 25. Persons ineligible to be hired by health care employers and long-term care facilities.

(a) In the discretion of the Director of Public Health, as soon after January 1, 1996, January 1, 1997, January 1, 2006, or October 1, 2007, as applicable, and as is reasonably practical, no health care employer shall knowingly hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position with duties involving direct care for clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility shall knowingly hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one or more of the following offenses: those defined in Sections 8-1(b), 8-1.1, 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.1, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 9-3.4, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-7, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-9.5, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-1, 12-2, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-7.4, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-19, 12-21, 12-21.6, 12-32, 12-33, 16-1, 16-1.3, 16-25, 16A-3, 17-3, 17-56, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-1, 19-3, 19-4, 20-1, 20-1.1, 24-1, 24-1.2, 24-1.5, or 33A-2, or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4,, or in subsection (a) of Section 12-3 or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961; those provided in Section 4 of the Wrongs to Children Act; those provided in Section 53 of the Criminal Jurisprudence Act; those defined in Section 5, 5.1, 5.2, 7, or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act; those defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or those defined in Sections 401, 401.1, 404, 405, 405.1, 407, or 407.1 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, unless the applicant or employee obtains a waiver pursuant to Section 40.

(a-1) In the discretion of the Director of Public Health, as soon after January 1, 2004 or October 1, 2007, as applicable, and as is reasonably practical, no health care employer shall knowingly hire any individual in a position with duties involving direct care for clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility shall knowingly hire any individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, who has (i) been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one or more of the offenses defined in Section 12-3.3, 12-4.2-5, 16-2, 16-30, 16G-15, 16G-20, 17-33, 17-34, 17-36, 17-44, 18-5, 20-1.2, 24-1.1, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-3.2, or 24-3.3, or subsection (b) of Section 17-32, of the Criminal Code of 1961; Section 4, 5, 6, 8, or 17.02 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act; or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or Section 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act; or (ii) violated Section 50-50 of the Nurse Practice Act, unless the applicant or employee obtains a waiver pursuant to Section 40 of this Act.

A health care employer is not required to retain an individual in a position with duties involving direct care for clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility is required to retain an individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one or more of the offenses enumerated in this subsection.

(b) A health care employer shall not hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position with duties involving direct care of clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility shall knowingly hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, if the health care employer becomes aware that the individual has been convicted in another state of committing or attempting to commit an offense that has the same or similar elements as an offense listed in subsection (a) or (a-1), as verified by court records, records from a state agency, or an FBI criminal history record check, unless the applicant or employee obtains a waiver pursuant to Section 40 of this Act. This shall not be construed to mean that a health care employer has an obligation to conduct a criminal history records check in other states in which an employee has resided.

(Source: P.A. 95-120, eff. 8-13-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 930, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 995, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-40, eff. 7-1-11; revised 4-6-11.)

Section 915. The Fire Sprinkler Contractor Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 32 as follows:

(225 ILCS 317/32)

Sec. 32. Application for building permit; identity theft. A person who knowingly, in the course of applying for a building permit with a unit of local government, provides the license number of a fire sprinkler contractor whom he or she does not intend to have perform the work on the fire sprinkler portion of the project commits identity theft under paragraph (8) of subsection (a) of Section 16-30 16G-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Source: P.A. 96-1455, eff. 8-20-10; revised 9-22-10.)

Section 920. The Illinois Roofing Industry Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 335/5) (from Ch. 111, par. 7505)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 5. Display of license number; advertising.

(a) Each State licensed roofing contractor shall affix the roofing contractor license number and the licensee's name, as it appears on the license, to all of his or her contracts and bids. In addition, the official issuing building permits shall affix the roofing contractor license number to each application for a building permit and on each building permit issued and recorded.

(a-5) A person who knowingly, in the course of applying for a building permit with a unit of local government, provides the roofing license number of a roofing contractor whom he or she does not intend to have perform the work on the roofing portion of the project commits identity theft under paragraph (8) of subsection (a) of Section 16-30 16G-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(b) In addition, every roofing contractor shall affix the roofing contractor license number and the licensee's name, as it appears on the license, on all commercial vehicles used as part of his or her business as a roofing contractor.

(c) Every holder of a license shall display it in a conspicuous place in his or her principal office, place of business, or place of employment.

(d) No person licensed under this Act may advertise services regulated by this Act unless that person includes in the advertisement the roofing contractor license number and the licensee's name, as it appears on the license. Nothing contained in this subsection requires the publisher of advertising for roofing contractor services to investigate or verify the accuracy of the license number provided by the licensee.

(e) A person who advertises services regulated by this Act who knowingly (i) fails to display the license number and the licensee's name, as it appears on the license, in any manner required by this Section, (ii) fails to provide a publisher with the correct license number as required by subsection (d), or (iii) provides a publisher with a false license number or a license number of another person, or a person who knowingly allows his or her license number to be displayed or used by another person to circumvent any provisions of this Section, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor with a fine of $1,000, and, in addition, is subject to the administrative enforcement provisions of this Act. Each day that an advertisement runs or each day that a person knowingly allows his or her license to be displayed or used in violation of this Section constitutes a separate offense.

(Source: P.A. 96-624, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1324, eff. 7-27-10.)

Section 925. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Section 6-205.2 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/6-205.2)

Sec. 6-205.2. Suspension of driver's license of person convicted of theft of motor fuel. The driver's license of a person convicted of theft of motor fuel under Section 16-25 or 16K-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall be suspended by the Secretary for a period not to exceed 6 months for a first offense. Upon a second or subsequent conviction for theft of motor fuel, the suspension shall be for a period not to exceed one year. Upon conviction of a person for theft of motor fuel, the court shall order the person to surrender his or her driver's license to the clerk of the court who shall forward the suspended license to the Secretary.

(Source: P.A. 94-700, eff. 6-1-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(720 ILCS 235/Act rep.)

Section 930. The Coin Slug Act is repealed.

(720 ILCS 360/Act rep.)

Section 935. The Telephone Line Interference Act is repealed.

(720 ILCS 365/Act rep.)

Section 940. The Telephone Charge Fraud Act is repealed.

(720 ILCS 370/Act rep.)

Section 945. The Telephone Coin Box Tampering Act is repealed.

Section 950. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Section 111-4 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/111-4)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-1551)

Sec. 111-4. Joinder of offenses and defendants.

(a) Two or more offenses may be charged in the same indictment, information or complaint in a separate count for each offense if the offenses charged, whether felonies or misdemeanors or both, are based on the same act or on 2 or more acts which are part of the same comprehensive transaction.

(b) Two or more defendants may be charged in the same indictment, information or complaint if they are alleged to have participated in the same act or in the same comprehensive transaction out of which the offense or offenses arose. Such defendants may be charged in one or more counts together or separately and all of the defendants need not be charged in each count.

(c) Two or more acts or transactions in violation of any provision or provisions of Sections 8A-2, 8A-3, 8A-4, 8A-4A and 8A-5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, Section 14 of the Illinois Wage Payment and Collection Act, Sections 16-1, 16-1.3, 16-2, 16-3, 16-5, 16-7, 16-8, 16-10, 16-25, 16-30, 16A-3, 16B-2, 16G-15, 16G-20, 16H-15, 16H-20, 16H-25, 16H-30, 16H-45, 16H-50, 16H-55, 17-1, 17-3, 17-6, 17-30, or 17-60, or item (ii) of subsection (a) or (b) of Section 17-9, or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 17-10.5, of the Criminal Code of 1961 and Section 118 of Division I of the Criminal Jurisprudence Act, may be charged as a single offense in a single count of the same indictment, information or complaint, if such acts or transactions by one or more defendants are in furtherance of a single intention and design or if the property, labor or services obtained are of the same person or are of several persons having a common interest in such property, labor or services. In such a charge, the period between the dates of the first and the final such acts or transactions may be alleged as the date of the offense and, if any such act or transaction by any defendant was committed in the county where the prosecution was commenced, such county may be alleged as the county of the offense.

(Source: P.A. 95-384, eff. 1-1-08; 96-354, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1207, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1407, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 955. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-3-7, 5-6-1, 5-6-3, and 5-6-3.1 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-7)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-1551)

Sec. 3-3-7. Conditions of Parole or Mandatory Supervised Release.

(a) The conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release shall be such as the Prisoner Review Board deems necessary to assist the subject in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every parole and mandatory supervised release are that the subject:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the parole or release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(4) permit the agent to visit him or her at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent to discharge his or her duties;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on parole or mandatory supervised release;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department of Corrections as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody;

(7.5) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the individual shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment conducted in conformance with the standards developed by the Sex Offender Management Board Act by a treatment provider approved by the Board;

(7.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(7.7) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term and if convicted for an offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or ritualized abuse of a child committed on or after August 11, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-236) when the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the defendant used force or the threat of force in the commission of the offense wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 that has Global Positioning System (GPS) capability for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term;

(7.8) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.8), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.9) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(7.10) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(7.11) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent;

(7.12) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(7.13) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by a parole agent of the Department of Corrections;

(12) not frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her parole agent and not associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on parole or mandatory supervised release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by his or her parole agent or of the Department of Corrections;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the parole agent that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Prisoner Review Board or by law, exclusive of placement on electronic detention, to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release or to protect the public. These instructions by the parole agent may be modified at any time, as the agent deems appropriate;

(16) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter; and

(17) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(b) The Board may in addition to other conditions require that the subject:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or parole;

(4) support his dependents;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, enacted by the 84th General Assembly, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory;

(7.5) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.6) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent; and

(8) in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home.

(b-1) In addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b), persons required to register as sex offenders pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections, may be required by the Board to comply with the following specific conditions of release:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(6) be electronically monitored for a minimum of 12 months from the date of release as determined by the Board;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department of Corrections. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the person;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of his or her parole officer before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(c) The conditions under which the parole or mandatory supervised release is to be served shall be communicated to the person in writing prior to his release, and he shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection where one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the person and another copy forwarded to the officer in charge of his supervision.

(d) After a hearing under Section 3-3-9, the Prisoner Review Board may modify or enlarge the conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release.

(e) The Department shall inform all offenders committed to the Department of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist inmates in availing themselves of such optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(f) When the subject is in compliance with all conditions of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release, the subject shall receive a reduction of the period of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release of 90 days upon receiving a high school diploma or passage of the high school level Test of General Educational Development during the period of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release. This reduction in the period of a subject's term of parole or mandatory supervised release shall be available only to subjects who have not previously earned a high school diploma or who have not previously passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development.

(Source: P.A. 95-464, eff. 6-1-08; 95-539, eff. 1-1-08; 95-579, eff. 6-1-08; 95-640, eff. 6-1-08; 95-773, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 96-236, eff. 8-11-09; 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1539, eff. 3-4-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; revised 4-18-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-1)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-1551)

Sec. 5-6-1. Sentences of Probation and of Conditional Discharge and Disposition of Supervision. The General Assembly finds that in order to protect the public, the criminal justice system must compel compliance with the conditions of probation by responding to violations with swift, certain and fair punishments and intermediate sanctions. The Chief Judge of each circuit shall adopt a system of structured, intermediate sanctions for violations of the terms and conditions of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge or disposition of supervision.

(a) Except where specifically prohibited by other provisions of this Code, the court shall impose a sentence of probation or conditional discharge upon an offender unless, having regard to the nature and circumstance of the offense, and to the history, character and condition of the offender, the court is of the opinion that:

(1) his imprisonment or periodic imprisonment is necessary for the protection of the public; or

(2) probation or conditional discharge would deprecate the seriousness of the offender's conduct and would be inconsistent with the ends of justice; or

(3) a combination of imprisonment with concurrent or consecutive probation when an offender has been admitted into a drug court program under Section 20 of the Drug Court Treatment Act is necessary for the protection of the public and for the rehabilitation of the offender.

The court shall impose as a condition of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, that the probation agency may invoke any sanction from the list of intermediate sanctions adopted by the chief judge of the circuit court for violations of the terms and conditions of the sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, subject to the provisions of Section 5-6-4 of this Act.

(b) The court may impose a sentence of conditional discharge for an offense if the court is of the opinion that neither a sentence of imprisonment nor of periodic imprisonment nor of probation supervision is appropriate.

(b-1) Subsections (a) and (b) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 if the defendant within the past 12 months has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(c) The court may, upon a plea of guilty or a stipulation by the defendant of the facts supporting the charge or a finding of guilt, defer further proceedings and the imposition of a sentence, and enter an order for supervision of the defendant, if the defendant is not charged with: (i) a Class A misdemeanor, as defined by the following provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961: Sections 11-9.1; 12-3.2; 11-1.50 or 12-15; 26-5; 31-1; 31-6; 31-7; subsections (b) and (c) of Section 21-1; paragraph (1) through (5), (8), (10), and (11) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1; (ii) a Class A misdemeanor violation of Section 3.01, 3.03-1, or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act; or (iii) a felony. If the defendant is not barred from receiving an order for supervision as provided in this subsection, the court may enter an order for supervision after considering the circumstances of the offense, and the history, character and condition of the offender, if the court is of the opinion that:

(1) the offender is not likely to commit further crimes;

(2) the defendant and the public would be best served if the defendant were not to receive a criminal record; and

(3) in the best interests of justice an order of supervision is more appropriate than a sentence otherwise permitted under this Code.

(c-5) Subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit or privileges were revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(d) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the defendant has previously been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(3) pleaded guilty to or stipulated to the facts supporting a charge or a finding of guilty to a violation of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state, and the plea or stipulation was the result of a plea agreement.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(e) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 if said defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(f) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Sections 15-111, 15-112, 15-301, paragraph (b) of Section 6-104, Section 11-605, Section 11-1002.5, or Section 11-1414 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(g) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (i) of this Section, the provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(h) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with violating a serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code:

(1) unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision; or

(2) if the defendant has previously been sentenced under the provisions of paragraph (c) on or after January 1, 1998 for any serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(h-1) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision.

(i) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has been assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(j) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a violation of Section 11-501.1 or paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code if the defendant has within the last 10 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(k) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance that governs the movement of vehicles if, within the 12 months preceding the date of the defendant's arrest, the defendant has been assigned court supervision on 2 occasions for a violation that governs the movement of vehicles under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The provisions of this paragraph (k) do not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(l) A defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance who receives a disposition of supervision under subsection (c) shall pay an additional fee of $29, to be collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act. In addition to the $29 fee, the person shall also pay a fee of $6, which, if not waived by the court, shall be collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act. The $29 fee shall be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code. If the $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.

(m) Any person convicted of, pleading guilty to, or placed on supervision for a serious traffic violation, as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a violation of a similar provision of a local ordinance shall pay an additional fee of $35, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104d of that Code.

This subsection (m) becomes inoperative 7 years after October 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-154).

(n) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to any person under the age of 18 who commits an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except upon personal appearance of the defendant in court and upon the written consent of the defendant's parent or legal guardian, executed before the presiding judge. The presiding judge shall have the authority to waive this requirement upon the showing of good cause by the defendant.

(o) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and when:

(1) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the defendant failed to obtain a monitoring device driving permit; or

(2) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, had subsequently obtained a monitoring device driving permit, but was driving a vehicle not equipped with a breath alcohol ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(p) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating subsection (b) of Section 11-601.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 95-154, eff. 10-13-07; 95-302, eff. 1-1-08; 95-310, eff. 1-1-08; 95-377, eff. 1-1-08; 95-400, eff. 1-1-09; 95-428, eff. 8-24-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-253, eff. 8-11-09; 96-286, eff. 8-11-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-625, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1002, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1175, eff. 9-20-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-1551)

Sec. 5-6-3. Conditions of Probation and of Conditional Discharge.

(a) The conditions of probation and of conditional discharge shall be that the person:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report to or appear in person before such person or agency as directed by the court;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a felony or, if a misdemeanor, the offense involved the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm;

(4) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without the prior notification and approval of the person's probation officer. Transfer of a person's probation or conditional discharge supervision to another state is subject to acceptance by the other state pursuant to the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision;

(5) permit the probation officer to visit him at his home or elsewhere to the extent necessary to discharge his duties;

(6) perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, where the offense was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang and was motivated by the offender's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and similar damage to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood. For purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(7) if he or she is at least 17 years of age and has been sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony, may be required by the sentencing court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The person on probation or conditional discharge must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this clause (7). The court shall revoke the probation or conditional discharge of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this clause (7). The person on probation or conditional discharge shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or GED test, if a fee is charged for those courses or test. The court shall resentence the offender whose probation or conditional discharge has been revoked as provided in Section 5-6-4. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program;

(8) if convicted of possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act or Illinois Controlled Substances Act or after a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and upon a finding by the court that the person is addicted, undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court;

(8.5) if convicted of a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the person shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act;

(8.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders;

(8.7) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (8.7), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(8.8) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer;

(8.9) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(9) if convicted of a felony, physically surrender at a time and place designated by the court, his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card and any and all firearms in his or her possession;

(10) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter; and

(11) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses.

(b) The Court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the Court require that the person:

(1) serve a term of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 for a period not to exceed that specified in paragraph (d) of Section 5-7-1;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home;

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is convicted of a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(8) make restitution as provided in Section 5-5-6 of this Code;

(9) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(10) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to any other applicable condition of probation or conditional discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be that the offender:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his confinement during the hours designated by the court;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the court into the offender's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the offender's compliance with the conditions of his confinement; and

(iii) if further deemed necessary by the court or the Probation or Court Services Department, be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, subject to Article 8A of Chapter V;

(iv) for persons convicted of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the offender to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code; and

(v) for persons convicted of offenses other than those referenced in clause (iv) above and who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the probation officer or agency having responsibility for the case;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer, if the defendant has been placed on probation or advance approval by the court, if the defendant was placed on conditional discharge;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (17), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(18) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the subject's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer; and

(19) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a misdemeanor that did not involve the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm.

(c) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that a person under 18 years of age found guilty of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If such person is in possession of a permit or license, the court may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating any motor vehicle during the period of probation or conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the course of the minor's lawful employment.

(d) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions thereof.

(e) Except where the offender has committed a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the court shall not require as a condition of the sentence of probation or conditional discharge that the offender be committed to a period of imprisonment in excess of 6 months. This 6 month limit shall not include periods of confinement given pursuant to a sentence of county impact incarceration under Section 5-8-1.2.

Persons committed to imprisonment as a condition of probation or conditional discharge shall not be committed to the Department of Corrections.

(f) The court may combine a sentence of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 or a sentence to a county impact incarceration program under Article 8 with a sentence of probation or conditional discharge.

(g) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge and who during the term of either undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay all costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, involved in a successful probation program for the county. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court.

(i) The court shall impose upon an offender sentenced to probation after January 1, 1989 or to conditional discharge after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of such probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of probation or conditional discharge supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person sentenced to probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon an offender who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee under this subsection (i) in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay Of the amount collected as a probation fee, up to $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

The Court may only waive probation fees based on an offender's ability to pay. The probation department may re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and, with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a probation department, or has been transferred either under subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the department supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to pay.

This amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly deletes the $10 increase in the fee under this subsection that was imposed by Public Act 93-616. This deletion is intended to control over any other Act of the 93rd General Assembly that retains or incorporates that fee increase.

(i-5) In addition to the fees imposed under subsection (i) of this Section, in the case of an offender convicted of a felony sex offense (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act) or an offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act), the court or the probation department shall assess additional fees to pay for all costs of treatment, assessment, evaluation for risk and treatment, and monitoring the offender, based on that offender's ability to pay those costs either as they occur or under a payment plan.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) Any offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act or any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(l) The court may order an offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a violation of an order of protection be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-464, eff. 6-1-08; 95-578, eff. 6-1-08; 95-696, eff. 6-1-08; 95-773, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-695, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1414, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; revised 4-21-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3.1)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-1551)

Sec. 5-6-3.1. Incidents and Conditions of Supervision.

(a) When a defendant is placed on supervision, the court shall enter an order for supervision specifying the period of such supervision, and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period.

(b) The period of supervision shall be reasonable under all of the circumstances of the case, but may not be longer than 2 years, unless the defendant has failed to pay the assessment required by Section 10.3 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 80 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the court may extend supervision beyond 2 years. Additionally, the court shall order the defendant to perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, when the offense (1) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang; or (2) is a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a disposition of supervision is not prohibited by Section 5-6-1 of this Code. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and similar damages to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. Where possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood.

For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) The court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the court require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of supervision;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(8) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home; or

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is placed on supervision for a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(9) make restitution or reparation in an amount not to exceed actual loss or damage to property and pecuniary loss or make restitution under Section 5-5-6 to a domestic violence shelter. The court shall determine the amount and conditions of payment;

(10) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. If the court has ordered the defendant to make a report and appear in person under paragraph (1) of this subsection, a copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the person or agency so designated by the court;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of person, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) refrain from operating any motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; under this condition the court may allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course and scope of the defendant's employment; and

(18) if placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter.

(d) The court shall defer entering any judgment on the charges until the conclusion of the supervision.

(e) At the conclusion of the period of supervision, if the court determines that the defendant has successfully complied with all of the conditions of supervision, the court shall discharge the defendant and enter a judgment dismissing the charges.

(f) Discharge and dismissal upon a successful conclusion of a disposition of supervision shall be deemed without adjudication of guilt and shall not be termed a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. Two years after the discharge and dismissal under this Section, unless the disposition of supervision was for a violation of Sections 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, 5-401.3, or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or for a violation of Sections 12-3.2, 16-25, or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, in which case it shall be 5 years after discharge and dismissal, a person may have his record of arrest sealed or expunged as may be provided by law. However, any defendant placed on supervision before January 1, 1980, may move for sealing or expungement of his arrest record, as provided by law, at any time after discharge and dismissal under this Section. A person placed on supervision for a sexual offense committed against a minor as defined in clause (a)(1)(L) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act or for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not have his or her record of arrest sealed or expunged.

(g) A defendant placed on supervision and who during the period of supervision undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay the costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, of all defendants placed on supervision. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) A disposition of supervision is a final order for the purposes of appeal.

(i) The court shall impose upon a defendant placed on supervision after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of supervision or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person placed on supervision or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon a defendant who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund pursuant to Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, not to exceed $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

The Court may only waive probation fees based on an offender's ability to pay. The probation department may re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and, with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a probation department, or has been transferred either under subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the department supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to pay.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is placed on supervision for a misdemeanor in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony may as a condition of his or her supervision be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The defendant placed on supervision must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this subsection (k). The defendant placed on supervision shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or GED test, if a fee is charged for those courses or test. The court shall revoke the supervision of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (k). The court shall resentence the defendant upon revocation of supervision as provided in Section 5-6-4. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(l) The court shall require a defendant placed on supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act or Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and after a finding by the court that the person is addicted, to undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court.

(m) The Secretary of State shall require anyone placed on court supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance to give proof of his or her financial responsibility as defined in Section 7-315 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The proof shall be maintained by the individual in a manner satisfactory to the Secretary of State for a minimum period of 3 years after the date the proof is first filed. The proof shall be limited to a single action per arrest and may not be affected by any post-sentence disposition. The Secretary of State shall suspend the driver's license of any person determined by the Secretary to be in violation of this subsection.

(n) Any offender placed on supervision for any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(o) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense. The provisions of this subsection (o) do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders.

(p) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (p), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(q) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall, if so ordered by the court, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (q), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(r) An offender placed on supervision for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the court, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the court;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the court.

(s) An offender placed on supervision for an offense that is a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act that is committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses.

(t) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262) shall refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Source: P.A. 95-211, eff. 1-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-464, eff. 6-1-08; 95-696, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-409, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1414, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; revised 4-18-11.)

Section 960. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by changing Sections 2MM and 2VV as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2MM)

Sec. 2MM. Verification of accuracy of consumer reporting information used to extend consumers credit and security freeze on credit reports.

(a) A credit card issuer who mails an offer or solicitation to apply for a credit card and who receives a completed application in response to the offer or solicitation which lists an address that is not substantially the same as the address on the offer or solicitation may not issue a credit card based on that application until reasonable steps have been taken to verify the applicant's change of address.

(b) Any person who uses a consumer credit report in connection with the approval of credit based on the application for an extension of credit, and who has received notification of a police report filed with a consumer reporting agency that the applicant has been a victim of financial identity theft, as defined in Section 16-30 or 16G-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961, may not lend money or extend credit without taking reasonable steps to verify the consumer's identity and confirm that the application for an extension of credit is not the result of financial identity theft.

(c) A consumer may request that a security freeze be placed on his or her credit report by sending a request in writing by certified mail to a consumer reporting agency at an address designated by the consumer reporting agency to receive such requests. This subsection (c) does not prevent a consumer reporting agency from advising a third party that a security freeze is in effect with respect to the consumer's credit report.

(d) A consumer reporting agency shall place a security freeze on a consumer's credit report no later than 5 business days after receiving a written request from the consumer:

(1) a written request described in subsection (c);

(2) proper identification; and

(3) payment of a fee, if applicable.

(e) Upon placing the security freeze on the consumer's credit report, the consumer reporting agency shall send to the consumer within 10 business days a written confirmation of the placement of the security freeze and a unique personal identification number or password or similar device, other than the consumer's Social Security number, to be used by the consumer when providing authorization for the release of his or her credit report for a specific party or period of time.

(f) If the consumer wishes to allow his or her credit report to be accessed for a specific party or period of time while a freeze is in place, he or she shall contact the consumer reporting agency using a point of contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, request that the freeze be temporarily lifted, and provide the following:

(1) Proper identification;

(2) The unique personal identification number or password or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency;

(3) The proper information regarding the third party or time period for which the report shall be available to users of the credit report; and

(4) A fee, if applicable.

(g) A consumer reporting agency shall develop a contact method to receive and process a request from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to subsection (f) in an expedited manner.

A contact method under this subsection shall include: (i) a postal address; and (ii) an electronic contact method chosen by the consumer reporting agency, which may include the use of telephone, fax, Internet, or other electronic means.

(h) A consumer reporting agency that receives a request from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to subsection (f), shall comply with the request no later than 3 business days after receiving the request.

(i) A consumer reporting agency shall remove or temporarily lift a freeze placed on a consumer's credit report only in the following cases:

(1) upon consumer request, pursuant to subsection (f) or subsection (l) of this Section; or

(2) if the consumer's credit report was frozen due to a material misrepresentation of fact by the consumer.

If a consumer reporting agency intends to remove a freeze upon a consumer's credit report pursuant to this subsection, the consumer reporting agency shall notify the consumer in writing prior to removing the freeze on the consumer's credit report.

(j) If a third party requests access to a credit report on which a security freeze is in effect, and this request is in connection with an application for credit or any other use, and the consumer does not allow his or her credit report to be accessed for that specific party or period of time, the third party may treat the application as incomplete.

(k) If a consumer requests a security freeze, the credit reporting agency shall disclose to the consumer the process of placing and temporarily lifting a security freeze, and the process for allowing access to information from the consumer's credit report for a specific party or period of time while the freeze is in place.

(l) A security freeze shall remain in place until the consumer requests, using a point of contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, that the security freeze be removed. A credit reporting agency shall remove a security freeze within 3 business days of receiving a request for removal from the consumer, who provides:

(1) Proper identification;

(2) The unique personal identification number or password or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency; and

(3) A fee, if applicable.

(m) A consumer reporting agency shall require proper identification of the person making a request to place or remove a security freeze.

(n) The provisions of subsections (c) through (m) of this Section do not apply to the use of a consumer credit report by any of the following:

(1) A person or entity, or a subsidiary, affiliate, or agent of that person or entity, or an assignee of a financial obligation owing by the consumer to that person or entity, or a prospective assignee of a financial obligation owing by the consumer to that person or entity in conjunction with the proposed purchase of the financial obligation, with which the consumer has or had prior to assignment an account or contract, including a demand deposit account, or to whom the consumer issued a negotiable instrument, for the purposes of reviewing the account or collecting the financial obligation owing for the account, contract, or negotiable instrument. For purposes of this subsection, "reviewing the account" includes activities related to account maintenance, monitoring, credit line increases, and account upgrades and enhancements.

(2) A subsidiary, affiliate, agent, assignee, or prospective assignee of a person to whom access has been granted under subsection (f) of this Section for purposes of facilitating the extension of credit or other permissible use.

(3) Any state or local agency, law enforcement agency, trial court, or private collection agency acting pursuant to a court order, warrant, or subpoena.

(4) A child support agency acting pursuant to Title IV-D of the Social Security Act.

(5) The State or its agents or assigns acting to investigate fraud.

(6) The Department of Revenue or its agents or assigns acting to investigate or collect delinquent taxes or unpaid court orders or to fulfill any of its other statutory responsibilities.

(7) The use of credit information for the purposes of prescreening as provided for by the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act.

(8) Any person or entity administering a credit file monitoring subscription or similar service to which the consumer has subscribed.

(9) Any person or entity for the purpose of providing a consumer with a copy of his or her credit report or score upon the consumer's request.

(10) Any person using the information in connection with the underwriting of insurance.

(n-5) This Section does not prevent a consumer reporting agency from charging a fee of no more than $10 to a consumer for each freeze, removal, or temporary lift of the freeze, regarding access to a consumer credit report, except that a consumer reporting agency may not charge a fee to (i) a consumer 65 years of age or over for placement and removal of a freeze, or (ii) a victim of identity theft who has submitted to the consumer reporting agency a valid copy of a police report, investigative report, or complaint that the consumer has filed with a law enforcement agency about unlawful use of his or her personal information by another person.

(o) If a security freeze is in place, a consumer reporting agency shall not change any of the following official information in a credit report without sending a written confirmation of the change to the consumer within 30 days of the change being posted to the consumer's file: (i) name, (ii) date of birth, (iii) Social Security number, and (iv) address. Written confirmation is not required for technical modifications of a consumer's official information, including name and street abbreviations, complete spellings, or transposition of numbers or letters. In the case of an address change, the written confirmation shall be sent to both the new address and to the former address.

(p) The following entities are not required to place a security freeze in a consumer report, however, pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection, a consumer reporting agency acting as a reseller shall honor any security freeze placed on a consumer credit report by another consumer reporting agency:

(1) A check services or fraud prevention services company, which issues reports on incidents of fraud or authorizations for the purpose of approving or processing negotiable instruments, electronic funds transfers, or similar methods of payment.

(2) A deposit account information service company, which issues reports regarding account closures due to fraud, substantial overdrafts, ATM abuse, or similar negative information regarding a consumer to inquiring banks or other financial institutions for use only in reviewing a consumer request for a deposit account at the inquiring bank or financial institution.

(3) A consumer reporting agency that:

(A) acts only to resell credit information by assembling and merging information contained in a database of one or more consumer reporting agencies; and

(B) does not maintain a permanent database of credit information from which new credit reports are produced.

(q) For purposes of this Section:

"Credit report" has the same meaning as "consumer report", as ascribed to it in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(d).

"Consumer reporting agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(f).

"Security freeze" means a notice placed in a consumer's credit report, at the request of the consumer and subject to certain exceptions, that prohibits the consumer reporting agency from releasing the consumer's credit report or score relating to an extension of credit, without the express authorization of the consumer.

"Extension of credit" does not include an increase in an existing open-end credit plan, as defined in Regulation Z of the Federal Reserve System (12 C.F.R. 226.2), or any change to or review of an existing credit account.

"Proper identification" means information generally deemed sufficient to identify a person. Only if the consumer is unable to reasonably identify himself or herself with the information described above, may a consumer reporting agency require additional information concerning the consumer's employment and personal or family history in order to verify his or her identity.

(r) Any person who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-74, eff. 1-1-06; 94-799, eff. 1-1-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(815 ILCS 505/2VV)

Sec. 2VV. Credit and public utility service; identity theft. It is an unlawful practice for a person to deny credit or public utility service to or reduce the credit limit of a consumer solely because the consumer has been a victim of identity theft as defined in Section 16-30 or 16G-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961, if the consumer:

(1) has provided a copy of an identity theft report as defined under the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act and implementing regulations evidencing the consumer's claim of identity theft;

(2) has provided a properly completed copy of a standardized affidavit of identity theft developed and made available by the Federal Trade Commission pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 1681g or an affidavit of fact that is acceptable to the person for that purpose;

(3) has obtained placement of an extended fraud alert in his or her file maintained by a nationwide consumer reporting agency, in accordance with the requirements of the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act; and

(4) is able to establish his or her identity and address to the satisfaction of the person providing credit or utility services.

(Source: P.A. 94-37, eff. 6-16-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect January 1, 2012.".