HB2917eng 97TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

HB2917 Engrossed LRB097 06471 RLC 50343 b

AN ACT concerning controlled substances.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 5. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 100, 102, 201, 202, 203, 204, 205, 206, 207, 208, 209, 210, 211, 212, 301, 302, 303, 303.05, 303.1, 304, 305, 306, 309, 312, 313, 316, 317, 318, 319, 320, 405, 405.1, 406, 408, 410, 411.2, 413, 501, 501.1, 503, 504, 505, 507, and 510 and by adding Sections 311.5, 314.5, and 507.2 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/100) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1100)

Sec. 100. Legislative intent. It is the intent of the General Assembly, recognizing the rising incidence in the abuse of drugs and other dangerous substances and its resultant damage to the peace, health, and welfare of the citizens of Illinois, to provide a system of control over the distribution and use of controlled substances which will more effectively: (1) limit access of such substances only to those persons who have demonstrated an appropriate sense of responsibility and have a lawful and legitimate reason to possess them; (2) deter the unlawful and destructive abuse of controlled substances; (3) penalize most heavily the illicit traffickers or profiteers of controlled substances, who propagate and perpetuate the abuse of such substances with reckless disregard for its consumptive consequences upon every element of society; (4) acknowledge the functional and consequential differences between the various types of controlled substances and provide for correspondingly different degrees of control over each of the various types; (5) unify where feasible and codify the efforts of this State to conform with the regulatory systems of the Federal government and other states to establish national coordination of efforts to control the abuse of controlled substances; and (6) provide law enforcement authorities with the necessary resources to make this system efficacious.

It is not the intent of the General Assembly to treat the unlawful user or occasional petty distributor of controlled substances with the same severity as the large-scale, unlawful purveyors and traffickers of controlled substances. However, it is recognized that persons who violate this Act with respect to the manufacture, delivery, possession with intent to deliver, or possession of more than one type of controlled substance listed herein may accordingly receive multiple convictions and sentences under each Section of this Act. To this end, guidelines have been provided, along with a wide latitude in sentencing discretion, to enable the sentencing court to order penalties in each case which are appropriate for the purposes of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 89-404, eff. 8-20-95; 90-593, eff. 6-19-98.)

(720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)

Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self control with reference to his or her addiction.

(b) "Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient, research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:

(1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his or her authorized agent),

(2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an order at the lawful direction of the practitioner, or

(3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.

(c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.

(c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, and corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone) that promotes muscle growth, and includes:

(i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,

(iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(vi) 4-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),

(vii) 5-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),

(viii) 1-androstenedione

([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),

(ix) 4-androstenedione

(androst-4-en-3,17-dione),

(x) 5-androstenedione

(androst-5-en-3,17-dione),

(xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

1,4,-diene-3-one),

(xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-

diene-3,17-dione),

(xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17

[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-

17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-

androst-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]

-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),

(xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.

'1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-

androstan-3-one),

(xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-

5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-

1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),

(xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one)

(xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-

androst-4-en-3-one),

(xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-

dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),

(xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),

(xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

[5a]-androstan-3-one),

(xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),

(xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxy-5a-androstane),

(xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy

-5a-androstane),

(xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),

(xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-

methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),

(xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),

(xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone

(17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-

androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-

1-testosterone'),

(xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione

(estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),

(xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-

en-3,17-dione),

(xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-

en-3,17-dione),

(l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),

(li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-

17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

(5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),

(lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-

(5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-

secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-

oic acid lactone),

(lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

4-en-3-one),

(lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-

diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-

4,9,11-trien-3-one),

(lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,

11-trien-3-one).

(i) boldenone,

(ii) chlorotestosterone,

(iii) chostebol,

(iv) dehydrochlormethyltestosterone,

(v) dihydrotestosterone,

(vi) drostanolone,

(vii) ethylestrenol,

(viii) fluoxymesterone,

(ix) formebulone,

(x) mesterolone,

(xi) methandienone,

(xii) methandranone,

(xiii) methandriol,

(xiv) methandrostenolone,

(xv) methenolone,

(xvi) methyltestosterone,

(xvii) mibolerone,

(xviii) nandrolone,

(xix) norethandrolone,

(xx) oxandrolone,

(xxi) oxymesterone,

(xxii) oxymetholone,

(xxiii) stanolone,

(xxiv) stanozolol,

(xxv) testolactone,

(xxvi) testosterone,

(xxvii) trenbolone, and

(xxviii) any salt, ester, or isomer of a drug or substance described or listed in this paragraph, if that salt, ester, or isomer promotes muscle growth.

Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, and which the person intends to administer or have administered through such implants, shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for purposes of this Act.

(d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.

(d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" means a Department of Human Services administrative employee licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription Information Library.

(d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, to a Schedule under Article II of this Act whether by transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.

(f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or immediate precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by the Department through administrative rule. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act and the Tobacco Products Tax Act.

(f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:

(1) the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;

(2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or

(3) with respect to a particular person, which such person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II.

(g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.

(h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.

(j) (Blank). "Department of State Police" means the Department of State Police of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(m) "Depressant" or "stimulant substance" means any drug that (i) causes an overall depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics. :

(1) a drug which contains any quantity of (i) barbituric acid or any of the salts of barbituric acid which has been designated as habit forming under section 502 (d) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 352 (d)); or

(2) a drug which contains any quantity of (i) amphetamine or methamphetamine and any of their optical isomers; (ii) any salt of amphetamine or methamphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer of amphetamine; or (iii) any substance which the Department, after investigation, has found to be, and by rule designated as, habit forming because of its depressant or stimulant effect on the central nervous system; or

(3) lysergic acid diethylamide; or

(4) any drug which contains any quantity of a substance which the Department, after investigation, has found to have, and by rule designated as having, a potential for abuse because of its depressant or stimulant effect on the central nervous system or its hallucinogenic effect.

(n) (Blank).

(o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of State Police or the Department of Professional Regulation or his or her designated agents.

(p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.

(q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.

(r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.

(s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.

(t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

(t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase, store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.

(t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.

(u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by accepted professional standards including, but not limited to the following, in making the judgment:

(1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient doctor-patient relationship,

(2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one prescriber for large numbers of patients,

(3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,

(4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual dose may be used legitimately),

(5) unusual geographic distances between patient, pharmacist and prescriber,

(6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.

(u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any type.

(u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.

(u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the State of Illinois, or its successor agency.

(v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:

(1) which the Department has found to be and by rule designated as being a principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;

(2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled substance; and

(3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled substance.

(w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled substances within educational facilities approved by the State Board of Education or its successor agency.

(x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, County or Municipal peace unit or police force.

(y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether the representations made or the circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the following factors in addition to any other factor that may be relevant:

(a) statements made by the owner or person in control of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;

(b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the substance may be resold for profit;

(c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled substances;

(d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable retail market value of the substance.

Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.

Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances involved were controlled substances.

Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).

(y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state of the United States, other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include:

(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or

(2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent under his or her supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance:

(a) as an incident to his or her administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice; or

(b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or chemical analysis and not for sale.

(z-1) (Blank).

(z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatrist, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, or (iii) an animal euthanasia agency.

(aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; however the term "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium and opiate, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiate;

(2) (blank); any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in clause (1), but not including the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;

(4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have been removed; and any salts, compound, isomer, salt of an isomer, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves including cocaine or ecgonine, and any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, but not including decocainized coca leaves or extractions of coca leaves which do not contain cocaine or ecgonine (for the purpose of this paragraph, the term "isomer" includes optical, positional and geometric isomers).

(5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

(6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers;

(7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subparagraphs (1) through (6).

(bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(cc) (Blank).

(dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability.

(ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.

(ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or solution or other liquid form of medication intended for administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal administration.

(ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.

(hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.

(kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatrist, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.

(ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written prescription that is individually generated by machine or computer in the prescriber's office.

(mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatrist or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(nn) "Prescription" means a lawful written, facsimile, or oral verbal order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatrist or veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist for a Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substance in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act when required by law.

(nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an electronic library that contains reported controlled substance data.

(nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.

(oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine.

(pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to register under Section 302 of this Act.

(qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each person authorized to handle controlled substances under the laws of the United States and of this State.

(qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Secretary's designated agents.

(rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.

(rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine and its analogs.

(ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.

(Source: P.A. 95-242, eff. 1-1-08; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-189, eff. 8-10-09; 96-268, eff. 8-11-09.)

(720 ILCS 570/201) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1201)

Sec. 201. (a) The Department shall carry out the provisions of this Article. The Department or its successor agency may, by administrative rule, add additional substances to or delete or reschedule all controlled substances in the Schedules of Sections 204, 206, 208, 210 and 212 of this Act. In making a determination regarding the addition, deletion, or rescheduling of a substance, the Department shall consider the following:

(1) the actual or relative potential for abuse;

(2) the scientific evidence of its pharmacological effect, if known;

(3) the state of current scientific knowledge regarding the substance;

(4) the history and current pattern of abuse;

(5) the scope, duration, and significance of abuse;

(6) the risk to the public health;

(7) the potential of the substance to produce psychological or physiological dependence;

(8) whether the substance is an immediate precursor of a substance already controlled under this Article;

(9) the immediate harmful effect in terms of potentially fatal dosage; and

(10) the long-range effects in terms of permanent health impairment.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) If any substance is scheduled, rescheduled, or deleted as a controlled substance under Federal law and notice thereof is given to the Department, the Department shall similarly control the substance under this Act after the expiration of 30 days from publication in the Federal Register of a final order scheduling a substance as a controlled substance or rescheduling or deleting a substance, unless within that 30 day period the Department objects, or a party adversely affected files with the Department substantial written objections objecting to inclusion, rescheduling, or deletion. In that case, the Department shall publish the reasons for objection or the substantial written objections and afford all interested parties an opportunity to be heard. At the conclusion of the hearing, the Department shall publish its decision, by means of a rule, which shall be final unless altered by statute. Upon publication of objections by the Department, similar control under this Act whether by inclusion, rescheduling or deletion is stayed until the Department publishes its ruling.

(e) (Blank). The Department shall by rule exclude any non-narcotic substances from a schedule if such substance may, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, be lawfully sold over the counter without a prescription.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Authority to control under this Section section does not extend to distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act and the Tobacco Products Tax Act.

(h) Persons registered with the Drug Enforcement Administration to manufacture or distribute controlled substances shall maintain adequate security and provide effective controls and procedures to guard against theft and diversion, but shall not otherwise be required to meet the physical security control requirements (such as cage or vault) for Schedule V controlled substances containing pseudoephedrine or Schedule II controlled substances containing dextromethorphan.

(Source: P.A. 94-800, eff. 1-1-07; 94-1087, eff. 1-19-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(720 ILCS 570/202) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1202)

Sec. 202. The controlled substances listed or to be listed in the schedules in Sections sections 204, 206, 208, 210 and 212, including any substances added to any of those schedules by the Department by administrative rule, may be are included by whatever official, common, usual, chemical, or trade name designated.

(Source: P.A. 77-757.)

(720 ILCS 570/203) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1203)

Sec. 203. The Department, taking into consideration the recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee, may shall issue a rule scheduling a substance in Schedule I if it finds that:

(1) the substance has high potential for abuse; and

(2) the substance has no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States or lacks accepted safety for use in treatment under medical supervision.

(Source: P.A. 83-969.)

(720 ILCS 570/204) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1204)

Sec. 204. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule I.

(b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetylmethadol;

(1.1) Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl

(N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide);

(2) Allylprodine;

(3) Alphacetylmethadol, except

levo-alphacetylmethadol (also known as levo-alpha-

acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM);

(4) Alphameprodine;

(5) Alphamethadol;

(6) Alpha-methylfentanyl

(N-(1-alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl) ethyl-4-piperidyl)

propionanilide; 1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-

propanilido) piperidine;

(6.1) Alpha-methylthiofentanyl

(N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(7) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine (MPPP);

(7.1) PEPAP

(1-(2-phenethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine);

(8) Benzethidine;

(9) Betacetylmethadol;

(9.1) Beta-hydroxyfentanyl

(N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(10) Betameprodine;

(11) Betamethadol;

(12) Betaprodine;

(13) Clonitazene;

(14) Dextromoramide;

(15) Diampromide;

(16) Diethylthiambutene;

(17) Difenoxin;

(18) Dimenoxadol;

(19) Dimepheptanol;

(20) Dimethylthiambutene;

(21) Dioxaphetylbutyrate;

(22) Dipipanone;

(23) Ethylmethylthiambutene;

(24) Etonitazene;

(25) Etoxeridine;

(26) Furethidine;

(27) Hydroxpethidine;

(28) Ketobemidone;

(29) Levomoramide;

(30) Levophenacylmorphan;

(31) 3-Methylfentanyl

(N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-

4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(31.1) 3-Methylthiofentanyl

(N-[(3-methyl-1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(32) Morpheridine;

(33) Noracymethadol;

(34) Norlevorphanol;

(35) Normethadone;

(36) Norpipanone;

(36.1) Para-fluorofentanyl

(N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]propanamide);

(37) Phenadoxone;

(38) Phenampromide;

(39) Phenomorphan;

(40) Phenoperidine;

(41) Piritramide;

(42) Proheptazine;

(43) Properidine;

(44) Propiram;

(45) Racemoramide;

(45.1) Thiofentanyl

(N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-propanamide);

(46) Tilidine;

(47) Trimeperidine;

(48) Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl (other name:

N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-

N-phenylpropanamide).

(c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opium derivatives, its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetorphine;

(2) Acetyldihydrocodeine;

(3) Benzylmorphine;

(4) Codeine methylbromide;

(5) Codeine-N-Oxide;

(6) Cyprenorphine;

(7) Desomorphine;

(8) Diacetyldihydromorphine (Dihydroheroin);

(9) Dihydromorphine;

(10) Drotebanol;

(11) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt);

(12) Heroin;

(13) Hydromorphinol;

(14) Methyldesorphine;

(15) Methyldihydromorphine;

(16) Morphine methylbromide;

(17) Morphine methylsulfonate;

(18) Morphine-N-Oxide;

(19) Myrophine;

(20) Nicocodeine;

(21) Nicomorphine;

(22) Normorphine;

(23) Pholcodine;

(24) Thebacon.

(d) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, or which contains any of its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation (for the purposes of this paragraph only, the term "isomer" includes the optical, position and geometric isomers):

(1) 3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine (alpha-methyl,3,4-methylenedioxyphenethylamine, methylenedioxyamphetamine, MDA);

(1.1) Alpha-ethyltryptamine (some trade or other names: etryptamine; MONASE; alpha-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-(2-aminobutyl)indole; a-ET; and AET);

(2) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA);

(2.1) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (also known as: N-ethyl-alpha-methyl- 3,4(methylenedioxy) Phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, and MDEA);

(2.2) N-Benzylpiperazine (BZP);

(3) 3-methoxy-4,5-methylenedioxyamphetamine, (MMDA);

(4) 3,4,5-trimethoxyamphetamine (TMA);

(5) (Blank);

(6) Diethyltryptamine (DET);

(7) Dimethyltryptamine (DMT);

(8) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOM, STP);

(9) Ibogaine (some trade and other names:

7-ethyl-6,6,beta,7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-

6,9-methano-5H-pyrido [1',2':1,2] azepino [5,4-b]

indole; Tabernanthe iboga);

(10) Lysergic acid diethylamide;

(10.1) Salvinorin A;

(10.5) Salvia divinorum (meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Salvia divinorum, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds or extracts);

(11) 3,4,5-trimethoxyphenethylamine (Mescaline);

(12) Peyote (meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds or extracts);

(13) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate (JB 318);

(14) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

(14.1) N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine

(also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-

3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine and N-hydroxy MDA);

(15) Parahexyl; some trade or other names: 3-hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H- dibenzo (b,d) pyran; Synhexyl;

(16) Psilocybin;

(17) Psilocyn;

(18) Alpha-methyltryptamine (AMT);

(19) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine

(2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA);

(20) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine

(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;

4-bromo-2,5-DMA);

(20.1) 4-Bromo-2,5 dimethoxyphenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2-(4-bromo- 2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-1-aminoethane; alpha-desmethyl DOB, 2CB, Nexus;

(21) 4-methoxyamphetamine

(4-methoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;

paramethoxyamphetamine; PMA);

(22) (Blank);

(23) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine. Some trade or other names: N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine, (1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE;

(24) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine. Some trade or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine, PCPy, PHP;

(25) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine;

(26) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine

(another name: DOET);

(27) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl] pyrrolidine

(another name: TCPy);

(28) (Blank);

(29) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine (some trade or other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine; 2-thienyl analog of phencyclidine; TPCP; TCP);

(30) Bufotenine (some trade or other names:

3-(Beta-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole;

3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol;

5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine;

N,N-dimethylserotonin; mappine);

(31) 1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole

Some trade or other names: JWH-018;

(32) 1-Butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole

Some trade or other names: JWH-073; .

(33) 2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-5-

(2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenol), where side chain n=5;

and homologues where side chain n=4, 6, or 7; Some

trade or other names: CP 47,497;

(34) (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-

dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-

tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol, its isomers,

salts, and salts of isomers; Some trade or other

names: HU-210, Dexanabinol;

(35) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthio-

phenethylamine;

(36) 5-Methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine.

(e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) mecloqualone;

(2) methaqualone; and

(3) gamma hydroxybutyric acid.

(f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:

(1) Fenethylline;

(2) N-ethylamphetamine;

(3) Aminorex (some other names:

2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; aminoxaphen;

4-5-dihydro-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine) and its

salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;

(4) Methcathinone (some other names:

2-methylamino-1-phenylpropan-1-one;

Ephedrone; 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone;

alpha-(methylamino)propiophenone; N-methylcathinone;

methycathinone; Monomethylpropion; UR 1431) and its

salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;

(5) Cathinone (some trade or other names:

2-aminopropiophenone; alpha-aminopropiophenone;

2-amino-1-phenyl-propanone; norephedrone);

(6) N,N-dimethylamphetamine (also known as:

N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine;

N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine);

(7) (+ or -) cis-4-methylaminorex ((+ or -) cis-

4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-4-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine).

(g) Temporary listing of substances subject to emergency scheduling. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances:

(1) N-[1-benzyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (benzylfentanyl), its optical isomers, isomers, salts, and salts of isomers;

(2) N-[1(2-thienyl) methyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (thenylfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

(Source: P.A. 95-239, eff. 1-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-347, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1285, eff. 1-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 570/205) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1205)

Sec. 205. The Department, taking into consideration the recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee, may shall issue a rule scheduling a substance in Schedule II if it finds that:

(1) the substance has high potential for abuse;

(2) the substance has currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States, or currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions; and

(3) the abuse of the substance may lead to severe psychological or physiological dependence.

(Source: P.A. 83-969.)

(720 ILCS 570/206) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1206)

Sec. 206. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule II.

(b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following substances whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(1) Opium and opiates, and any salt, compound, derivative or preparation of opium or opiate, excluding apomorphine, dextrorphan, levopropoxyphene, nalbuphine, nalmefene, naloxone, and naltrexone, and their respective salts, but including the following:

(i) Raw Opium;

(ii) Opium extracts;

(iii) Opium fluid extracts;

(iv) Powdered opium;

(v) Granulated opium;

(vi) Tincture of opium;

(vii) Codeine;

(viii) Ethylmorphine;

(ix) Etorphine Hydrochloride;

(x) Hydrocodone;

(xi) Hydromorphone;

(xii) Metopon;

(xiii) Morphine;

(xiv) Oxycodone;

(xv) Oxymorphone;

(xv.5) Tapentadol;

(xvi) Thebaine;

(xvii) Thebaine-derived butorphanol.

(xviii) Dextromethorphan, except drug products that may be dispensed pursuant to a prescription order of a practitioner and are sold in compliance with the safety and labeling standards as set forth by the United States Food and Drug Administration, or drug products containing dextromethorphan that are sold in solid, tablet, liquid, capsule, powder, thin film, or gel form and which are formulated, packaged, and sold in dosages and concentrations for use as an over-the-counter drug product. For the purposes of this Section, "over-the-counter drug product" means a drug that is available to consumers without a prescription and sold in compliance with the safety and labeling standards as set forth by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(2) Any salt, compound, isomer, derivative or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in subparagraph (1), but not including the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

(3) Opium poppy and poppy straw;

(4) Coca leaves and any salt, compound, isomer, salt of an isomer, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves including cocaine or ecgonine, and any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, but not including decocainized coca leaves or extractions of coca leaves which do not contain cocaine or ecgonine (for the purpose of this paragraph, the term "isomer" includes optical, positional and geometric isomers);

(5) Concentrate of poppy straw (the crude extract of poppy straw in either liquid, solid or powder form which contains the phenanthrine alkaloids of the opium poppy).

(c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation, dextrorphan excepted:

(1) Alfentanil;

(1.1) Carfentanil;

(2) Alphaprodine;

(3) Anileridine;

(4) Bezitramide;

(5) Bulk Dextropropoxyphene (non-dosage forms);

(6) Dihydrocodeine;

(7) Diphenoxylate;

(8) Fentanyl;

(9) Sufentanil;

(9.5) Remifentanil;

(10) Isomethadone;

(11) Levomethorphan;

(12) Levorphanol (Levorphan);

(13) Metazocine;

(14) Methadone;

(15) Methadone-Intermediate,

4-cyano-2-dimethylamino-4,4-diphenyl-1-butane;

(16) Moramide-Intermediate,

2-methyl-3-morpholino-1,1-diphenylpropane-carboxylic

acid;

(17) Pethidine (meperidine);

(18) Pethidine-Intermediate-A,

4-cyano-1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine;

(19) Pethidine-Intermediate-B,

ethyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylate;

(20) Pethidine-Intermediate-C,

1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylic acid;

(21) Phenazocine;

(22) Piminodine;

(23) Racemethorphan;

(24) Racemorphan;

(25) Levo-alphacetylmethadol (some other names: levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, LAAM).

(d) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system:

(1) Amphetamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of its optical isomers;

(2) Methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers;

(3) Phenmetrazine and its salts;

(4) Methylphenidate; .

(5) Lisdexamfetamine.

(e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Amobarbital;

(2) Secobarbital;

(3) Pentobarbital;

(4) Pentazocine;

(5) Phencyclidine;

(6) Gluthethimide;

(7) (Blank).

(f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances:

(1) Immediate precursor to amphetamine and methamphetamine:

(i) Phenylacetone

Some trade or other names: phenyl-2-propanone;

P2P; benzyl methyl ketone; methyl benzyl ketone.

(2) Immediate precursors to phencyclidine:

(i) 1-phenylcyclohexylamine;

(ii) 1-piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile (PCC).

(3) Nabilone.

(Source: P.A. 94-800, eff. 1-1-07; 94-1087, eff. 1-19-07.)

(720 ILCS 570/207) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1207)

Sec. 207. The Department, taking into consideration the recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee, may shall issue a rule scheduling a substance in Schedule III if it finds that:

(1) the substance has a potential for abuse less than the substances listed in Schedule I and II;

(2) the substance has currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States; and

(3) abuse of the substance may lead to moderate or low physiological dependence or high psychological dependence.

(Source: P.A. 83-969.)

(720 ILCS 570/208) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1208)

Sec. 208. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule III.

(b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical position, or geometric), and salts of such isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation;

(1) Those compounds, mixtures, or preparations in dosage unit form containing any stimulant substances listed in Schedule II which compounds, mixtures, or preparations were listed on August 25, 1971, as excepted compounds under Title 21, Code of Federal Regulations, Section 308.32, and any other drug of the quantitative composition shown in that list for those drugs or which is the same except that it contains a lesser quantity of controlled substances;

(2) Benzphetamine;

(3) Chlorphentermine;

(4) Clortermine;

(5) Phendimetrazine.

(c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a potential for abuse associated with a depressant effect on the central nervous system:

(1) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital or any salt thereof and one or more other active medicinal ingredients which are not listed in any schedule;

(2) Any suppository dosage form containing amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital or any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the Federal Food and Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository;

(3) Any substance which contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid, or any salt thereof:

(3.1) Aprobarbital;

(3.2) Butabarbital (secbutabarbital);

(3.3) Butalbital;

(3.4) Butobarbital (butethal);

(4) Chlorhexadol;

(5) Methyprylon;

(6) Sulfondiethylmethane;

(7) Sulfonethylmethane;

(8) Sulfonmethane;

(9) Lysergic acid;

(10) Lysergic acid amide;

(10.1) Tiletamine or zolazepam or both, or any salt of either of them.

Some trade or other names for a tiletamine-zolazepam

combination product: Telazol.

Some trade or other names for Tiletamine:

2-(ethylamino)-2-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexanone.

Some trade or other names for zolazepam:

4-(2-fluorophenyl)-6,8-dihydro-1,3,8-trimethylpyrazolo-

[3,4-e], [1,4]-diazepin-7(1H)-one, and flupyrazapon.

(11) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing not more than 12.5 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts, per 325 milligrams of aspirin;

(12) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing not more than 12.5 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts, per 325 milligrams of acetaminophen;

(13) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing not more than 50 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts plus naloxone HCl USP 0.5 milligrams, per dosage unit;

(14) Ketamine; .

(15) Thiopental.

(d) Nalorphine.

(d.5) Buprenorphine.

(e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing limited quantities of any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, as set forth below:

(1) not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;

(2) not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(3) not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with a fourfold or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;

(4) not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(5) not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(6) not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(7) not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams, or not more than 25 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(8) not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

(f) Anabolic steroids, except the following anabolic steroids that are exempt:

(1) Androgyn L.A.;

(2) Andro-Estro 90-4;

(3) depANDROGYN;

(4) DEPO-T.E.;

(5) depTESTROGEN;

(6) Duomone;

(7) DURATESTRIN;

(8) DUO-SPAN II;

(9) Estratest;

(10) Estratest H.S.;

(11) PAN ESTRA TEST;

(12) Premarin with Methyltestosterone;

(13) TEST-ESTRO Cypionates;

(14) Testosterone Cyp 50 Estradiol Cyp 2;

(15) Testosterone Cypionate-Estradiol Cypionate injection; and

(16) Testosterone Enanthate-Estradiol Valerate injection.

(g) Hallucinogenic substances.

(1) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product. Some other names for dronabinol: (6aR-trans)-6a,7,8,10a-tetrahydro- 6,6,9-trimethyl-3-pentyl-6H-dibenzo (b,d) pyran-1-ol) or (-)-delta-9-(trans)-tetrahydrocannabinol .

(2) (Reserved).

(h) The Department may except by rule any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any stimulant or depressant substance listed in subsection (b) from the application of all or any part of this Act if the compound, mixture, or preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the admixtures are included therein in combinations, quantity, proportion, or concentration that vitiate the potential for abuse of the substances which have a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

(720 ILCS 570/209) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1209)

Sec. 209. The Department, taking into consideration the recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee, may shall issue a rule scheduling a substance in Schedule IV if it finds that:

(1) the substance has a low potential for abuse relative to substances in Schedule III;

(2) the substance has currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States; and

(3) abuse of the substance may lead to limited physiological dependence or psychological dependence relative to the substances in Schedule III.

(Source: P.A. 83-969.)

(720 ILCS 570/210) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1210)

Sec. 210. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule IV.

(b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing limited quantities of any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, as set forth below:

(1) Not more than 1 milligram of difenoxin (DEA Drug Code No. 9618) and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.

(2) Dextropropoxyphene (Alpha-(+)-4-dimethylamino-1, 2-diphenyl-3-methyl-2-propionoxybutane).

(c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a potential for abuse associated with a depressant effect on the central nervous system:

(1) Alprazolam;

(2) Barbital;

(2.1) Bromazepam;

(2.2) Camazepam;

(2.3) Carisoprodol;

(3) Chloral Betaine;

(4) Chloral Hydrate;

(5) Chlordiazepoxide;

(5.1) Clobazam;

(6) Clonazepam;

(7) Clorazepate;

(7.1) Clotiazepam;

(7.2) Cloxazolam;

(7.3) Delorazepam;

(8) Diazepam;

(8.05) Dichloralphenazone;

(8.1) Estazolam;

(9) Ethchlorvynol;

(10) Ethinamate;

(10.1) Ethyl loflazepate;

(10.2) Fludiazepam;

(10.3) Flunitrazepam;

(11) Flurazepam;

(11.1) Fospropofol;

(12) Halazepam;

(12.1) Haloxazolam;

(12.2) Ketazolam;

(12.3) Loprazolam;

(13) Lorazepam;

(13.1) Lormetazepam;

(14) Mebutamate;

(14.1) Medazepam;

(15) Meprobamate;

(16) Methohexital;

(17) Methylphenobarbital (Mephobarbital);

(17.1) Midazolam;

(17.2) Nimetazepam;

(17.3) Nitrazepam;

(17.4) Nordiazepam;

(18) Oxazepam;

(18.1) Oxazolam;

(19) Paraldehyde;

(20) Petrichloral;

(21) Phenobarbital;

(21.1) Pinazepam;

(22) Prazepam;

(22.1) Quazepam;

(23) Temazepam;

(23.1) Tetrazepam;

(23.2) Tramadol;

(24) Triazolam;

(24.5) Zaleplon;

(25) Zolpidem; .

(26) Zopiclone.

(d) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, including its salts, isomers (whether optical, position, or geometric), and salts of such isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible:

(1) Fenfluramine.

(e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical, position or geometric), and salts of such isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Cathine ((+)-norpseudoephedrine);

(1.1) Diethylpropion;

(1.2) Fencamfamin;

(1.3) Fenproporex;

(2) Mazindol;

(2.1) Mefenorex;

(3) Phentermine;

(4) Pemoline (including organometallic complexes and chelates thereof);

(5) Pipradrol;

(6) SPA ((-)-1-dimethylamino-1, 2-diphenylethane);

(7) Modafinil;

(8) Sibutramine.

(f) Other Substances. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substance, including its salts:

(1) Butorphanol (including its optical isomers).

(g) The Department may except by rule any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any depressant substance listed in subsection (b) from the application of all or any part of this Act if the compound, mixture, or preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the admixtures are included therein in combinations, quantity, proportion, or concentration that vitiate the potential for abuse of the substances which have a depressant effect on the central nervous system.

(h) Except as otherwise provided in Section 216, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substance having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, enantiomers (optical isomers) and salts of enantiomers (optical isomers):

(1) Ephedrine, its salts, optical isomers and salts of optical isomers.

(Source: P.A. 90-775, eff. 1-1-99; 91-714, eff. 6-2-00.)

(720 ILCS 570/211) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1211)

Sec. 211. The Department, taking into consideration the recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee, may shall issue a rule scheduling a substance in Schedule V if it finds that:

(1) the substance has low potential for abuse relative to the controlled substances listed in Schedule IV;

(2) the substance has currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States; and

(3) abuse of the substance may lead to limited physiological dependence or psychological dependence relative to the substances in Schedule IV, or the substance is a targeted methamphetamine precursor as defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-694, eff. 1-15-06.)

(720 ILCS 570/212) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1212)

Sec. 212. (a) The controlled substances listed in this section are included in Schedule V.

(b) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing limited quantities of any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid which also contains one or more non-narcotic active medicinal ingredients in sufficient proportion to confer upon the compound, mixture, or preparation, valuable medicinal qualities other than those possessed by the narcotic drug alone as set forth below:

(1) not more than 200 milligrams of codeine, or any of its salts, per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;

(2) not more than 10 100 milligrams of dihydrocodeine; or any of its salts, per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;

(3) not more than 100 milligrams of ethylmorphine, or any of its salts, per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;

(4) not more than 2.5 milligrams of diphenoxylate and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit;

(5) not more than 100 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;

(6) not more than 0.5 milligram of difenoxin (DEA Drug Code No. 9618) and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.

(c) (Blank). Buprenorphine.

(c-1) Lacosamide.

(c-2) Pregabalin.

(d) Pyrovalerone.

(d-5) Any targeted methamphetamine precursor as defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.

(e) Any compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of any controlled substance when such compound, mixture or preparation is not otherwise controlled in Schedules I, II, III or IV.

(Source: P.A. 94-694, eff. 1-15-06.)

(720 ILCS 570/301) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1301)

Sec. 301. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall promulgate rules and charge reasonable fees and fines relating to the registration and control of the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of controlled substances within this State. All moneys received by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation under this Act shall be deposited into the respective professional dedicated funds in like manner as the primary professional licenses.

A pharmacy, manufacturer of controlled substances, or wholesale distributor of controlled substances that is regulated under this Act and owned and operated by the State is exempt from fees required under this Act. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians working in facilities owned and operated by the State are not exempt from the payment of fees required by this Act and any rules adopted under this Act. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation from imposing any fine or other penalty allowed under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-689, eff. 10-29-07.)

(720 ILCS 570/302) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1302)

Sec. 302. (a) Every person who manufactures, distributes, or dispenses any controlled substances, or engages in chemical analysis, and instructional activities which utilize controlled substances, or who purchases, stores, or administers euthanasia drugs, within this State or who proposes to engage in the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of any controlled substance, or to engage in chemical analysis, and instructional activities which utilize controlled substances, or to engage in purchasing, storing, or administering euthanasia drugs, within this State, must obtain a registration issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in accordance with its rules. The rules shall include, but not be limited to, setting the expiration date and renewal period for each registration under this Act. The Department, any facility or service licensed by the Department, and any veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 or maintained by a State-supported or publicly funded university or college shall be exempt from the regulation requirements of this Section.

(b) Persons registered by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation under this Act to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances, or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, may possess, manufacture, distribute, or dispense those substances, or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, to the extent authorized by their registration and in conformity with the other provisions of this Article.

(c) The following persons need not register and may lawfully possess controlled substances under this Act:

(1) an agent or employee of any registered manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser of any controlled substance if he or she is acting in the usual course of his or her employer's lawful business or employment;

(2) a common or contract carrier or warehouseman, or an agent or employee thereof, whose possession of any controlled substance is in the usual lawful course of such business or employment;

(3) an ultimate user or a person in possession of any controlled substance pursuant to a lawful prescription of a practitioner or in lawful possession of a Schedule V substance;

(4) officers and employees of this State or of the United States while acting in the lawful course of their official duties which requires possession of controlled substances;

(5) a registered pharmacist who is employed in, or the owner of, a pharmacy licensed under this Act and the Federal Controlled Substances Act, at the licensed location, or if he or she is acting in the usual course of his or her lawful profession, business, or employment.

(d) A separate registration is required at each place of business or professional practice where the applicant manufactures, distributes, or dispenses controlled substances, or purchases, stores, or administers euthanasia drugs. Persons are required to obtain a separate registration for each place of business or professional practice where controlled substances are located or stored. A separate registration is not required for every location at which a controlled substance may be prescribed.

(e) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Illinois Department of State Police may inspect the controlled premises, as defined in Section 502 of this Act, of a registrant or applicant for registration in accordance with this Act and the rules promulgated hereunder and with regard to persons licensed by the Department, in accordance with subsection (bb) of Section 30-5 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.

(Source: P.A. 96-219, eff. 8-10-09.)

(720 ILCS 570/303) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1303)

Sec. 303. (a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall license an applicant to manufacture, distribute or dispense controlled substances included in Sections 202, 204, 206, 208, 210 and 212 of this Act or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs unless it determines that the issuance of that license would be inconsistent with the public interest. In determining the public interest, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall consider the following:

(1) maintenance of effective controls against diversion of controlled substances into other than lawful medical, scientific, or industrial channels;

(2) compliance with applicable Federal, State and local law;

(3) any convictions of the applicant, or the designated agent of the applicant where applicable, under any law of the United States or of any State relating to any controlled substance;

(4) past experience in the manufacture or distribution of controlled substances, and the existence in the applicant's establishment of effective controls against diversion;

(5) furnishing by the applicant of false or fraudulent material in any application filed under this Act;

(6) suspension or revocation of the applicant's Federal registration to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances, or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, as authorized by Federal law;

(7) whether the applicant is suitably equipped with the facilities appropriate to carry on the operation described in his or her application;

(8) whether the applicant is of good moral character or, if the applicant is a partnership, association, corporation or other organization, whether the partners, directors, governing committee and managing officers are of good moral character;

(9) any other factors relevant to and consistent with the public health and safety; and

(10) evidence from court, medical disciplinary and pharmacy board records and those of State and Federal investigatory bodies that the applicant has not or does not prescribe controlled substances within the provisions of this Act.

(b) No license shall be granted to or renewed for any person who has within 5 years been convicted of a wilful violation of any law of the United States or any law of any State relating to controlled substances, or who is found to be deficient in any of the matters enumerated in subsections (a)(1) through (a)(8).

(c) Licensure under subsection (a) does not entitle a registrant to manufacture, distribute or dispense controlled substances in Schedules I or II other than those specified in the registration.

(d) Practitioners who are licensed to dispense any controlled substances in Schedules II through V are authorized to conduct instructional activities with controlled substances in Schedules II through V under the law of this State.

(e) If an applicant for registration is registered under the Federal law to manufacture, distribute or dispense controlled substances, or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, upon filing a completed application for licensure in this State and payment of all fees due hereunder, he or she shall be licensed in this State to the same extent as his or her Federal registration, unless, within 30 days after completing his or her application in this State, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation notifies the applicant that his or her application has not been granted. A practitioner who is in compliance with the Federal law with respect to registration to dispense controlled substances in Schedules II through V need only send a current copy of that Federal registration to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and he or she shall be deemed in compliance with the registration provisions of this State.

(e-5) All Beginning July 1, 2003, all of the fees and fines collected under this Section 303 shall be deposited into the Illinois State Pharmacy Disciplinary Fund.

(f) The fee for registration as a manufacturer or wholesale distributor of controlled substances shall be $50.00 per year, except that the fee for registration as a manufacturer or wholesale distributor of controlled substances that may be dispensed without a prescription under this Act shall be $15.00 per year. The expiration date and renewal period for each controlled substance license issued under this Act shall be set by rule.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 7-1-03; 93-626, eff. 12-23-03.)

(720 ILCS 570/303.05)

Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.

(a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall register licensed physician assistants and licensed advanced practice nurses to prescribe and dispense controlled substances under Section 303 and euthanasia agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia drugs under the following circumstances:

(1) with respect to physician assistants,

(A) the physician assistant has been delegated written authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987; and the physician assistant has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the physician assistant has been delegated authority by a supervising physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) no more than 5 Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage may be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the supervising physician;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day oral dosage, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the supervising physician;

(iv) the physician assistant must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician; and

(v) the physician assistant must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;

(2) with respect to advanced practice nurses,

(A) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a podiatrist in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. The advanced practice nurse has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated authority by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) no more than 5 Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage may be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the collaborating physician;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day oral dosage, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician;

(iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician or in the course of review as required by Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act; and

(v) the advanced practice nurse must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the euthanasia agency has obtained a license from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and obtained a registration number from the Department.

(b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to prescribe those schedules of controlled substances for which a licensed physician or licensed podiatrist has delegated prescriptive authority, except that an animal euthanasia agency does not have any prescriptive authority. A physician assistant and an advanced practice nurse are prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled substances not set forth in the required written delegation of authority.

(c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, physician assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal euthanasia agencies may shall be issued a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license for Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 96-189, eff. 8-10-09; 96-268, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

(720 ILCS 570/303.1) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1303.1)

Sec. 303.1. Any person who delivers a check or other payment to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that is returned to the Department unpaid by the financial institution upon which it is drawn shall pay to the Department, in addition to the amount already owed to the Department, a fine of $50. If the check or other payment was for a renewal or issuance fee and that person practices without paying the renewal fee or issuance fee and the fine due, an additional fine of $100 shall be imposed. The fines imposed by this Section are in addition to any other discipline provided under this Act for unlicensed practice or practice on a nonrenewed license. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall notify the person that payment of fees and fines shall be paid to the Department by certified check or money order within 30 calendar days of the notification. If, after the expiration of 30 days from the date of the notification, the person has failed to submit the necessary remittance, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall automatically terminate the license or certificate or deny the application, without hearing. If, after termination or denial, the person seeks a license or certificate, he or she shall apply to the Department for restoration or issuance of the license or certificate and pay all fees and fines due to the Department. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may establish a fee for the processing of an application for restoration of a license or certificate to pay all expenses of processing this application. The Secretary Director may waive the fines due under this Section in individual cases where the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation Director finds that the fines would be unreasonable or unnecessarily burdensome.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

(720 ILCS 570/304) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1304)

Sec. 304. (a) A registration under Section 303 to manufacture, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs may be denied, refused renewal, suspended, or revoked by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and a fine of no more than $10,000 per violation may be imposed on the applicant or regstrant, upon a finding that the applicant or registrant:

(1) has furnished any false or fraudulent material information in any application filed under this Act; or

(2) has been convicted of a felony under any law of the United States or any State relating to any controlled substance; or

(3) has had suspended or revoked his or her Federal registration to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs; or

(4) has been convicted of bribery, perjury, or other infamous crime under the laws of the United States or of any State; or

(5) has violated any provision of this Act or any rules promulgated hereunder, or any provision of the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act or rules promulgated thereunder, whether or not he or she has been convicted of such violation; or

(6) has failed to provide effective controls against the diversion of controlled substances in other than legitimate medical, scientific or industrial channels.

(b) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may limit revocation or suspension of a registration to the particular controlled substance with respect to which grounds for revocation or suspension exist.

(c) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall promptly notify the Administration, the Department and the Illinois Department of State Police or their successor agencies, of all orders denying, suspending or revoking registration, all forfeitures of controlled substances, and all final court dispositions, if any, of such denials, suspensions, revocations or forfeitures.

(d) If Federal registration of any registrant is suspended, revoked, refused renewal or refused issuance, then the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall issue a notice and conduct a hearing in accordance with Section 305 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-626, eff. 12-23-03; 94-694, eff. 1-15-06.)

(720 ILCS 570/305) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1305)

Sec. 305. (a) Before denying, refusing renewal of, suspending, or revoking a registration, or imposing a fine on an applicant or registrant, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall serve upon the applicant or registrant, by registered mail at the address in the application or registration or by any other means authorized under the Civil Practice Law or Rules of the Illinois Supreme Court for the service of summons or subpoenas, a notice of hearing to determine why registration should not be denied, refused renewal, suspended or revoked. The notice shall contain a statement of the basis therefor and shall call upon the applicant or registrant to appear before the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation at a reasonable time and place. These proceedings shall be conducted in accordance with Sections 2105-5, 2105-15, 2105-100, 2105-105, 2105-110, 2105-115, 2105-120, 2105-125, 2105-175, and 2105-325 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law (20 ILCS 2105/2105-5, 2105/2105-15, 2105/2105-100, 2105/2105-105, 2105/2105-110, 2105/2105-115, 2105/2105-120, 2105/2105-125, 2105/2105-175, and 2105/2105-325), without regard to any criminal prosecution or other proceeding. Except as authorized in subsection (c), proceedings to refuse renewal or suspend or revoke registration shall not abate the existing registration, which shall remain in effect until the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation has held the hearing called for in the notice and found, with input from the appropriate licensure or disciplinary board, that the registration shall no longer remain in effect.

(b) The Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation Director may appoint an attorney duly licensed to practice law in the State of Illinois to serve as the hearing officer in any action to deny, refuse to renew, suspend, or revoke, or take any other disciplinary action with regard to a registration. The hearing officer shall have full authority to conduct the hearing. The hearing officer shall report his or her findings and recommendations to the appropriate licensure or disciplinary board within 30 days after receiving the record. The Disciplinary Board shall have 60 days from receipt of the report to review the report of the hearing officer and present its findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations to the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation Director.

(c) If the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation finds that there is an imminent danger to the public health or safety by the continued manufacture, distribution or dispensing of controlled substances by the registrant, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may, upon the issuance of a written ruling stating the reasons for such finding and without notice or hearing, suspend such registrant. The suspension shall continue in effect for not more than 15 14 days during which time the registrant shall be given a hearing on the issues involved in the suspension. If after the hearing, and after input from the appropriate licensure or disciplinary board, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation finds that the public health or safety requires the suspension to remain in effect it shall so remain until the ruling is terminated by its own terms or subsequent ruling or is dissolved by a circuit court upon determination that the suspension was wholly without basis in fact and law.

(d) If, after a hearing as provided in subsection (a), the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation finds that a registration should be refused renewal, suspended or revoked, a written ruling to that effect shall be entered. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation's ruling shall remain in effect until the ruling is terminated by its own terms or subsequent ruling or is dissolved by a circuit court upon a determination that the refusal to renew suspension or revocation was wholly without basis in fact and law.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00.)

(720 ILCS 570/306) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1306)

Sec. 306. Every practitioner and person who is required under this Act to be registered to manufacture, distribute or dispense controlled substances or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs under this Act shall keep records and maintain inventories in conformance with the recordkeeping and inventory requirements of the laws of the United States and with any additional rules and forms issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(Source: P.A. 93-626, eff. 12-23-03.)

(720 ILCS 570/309) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1309)

Sec. 309. On or after April 1, 2000, no person shall issue a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance, which is a narcotic drug listed in Section 206 of this Act; or which contains any quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers or salts of optical isomers; phenmetrazine and its salts; gluthethimide; and pentazocine, other than on a written prescription; provided that in the case of an emergency, epidemic or a sudden or unforeseen accident or calamity, the prescriber may issue a lawful oral prescription where failure to issue such a prescription might result in loss of life or intense suffering, but such oral prescription shall include a statement by the prescriber concerning the accident or calamity, or circumstances constituting the emergency, the cause for which an oral prescription was used. Within 7 days after issuing an emergency prescription, the prescriber shall cause a written prescription for the emergency quantity prescribed to be delivered to the dispensing pharmacist. The prescription shall have written on its face "Authorization for Emergency Dispensing", and the date of the emergency prescription. The written prescription may be delivered to the pharmacist in person, or by mail, but if delivered by mail it must be postmarked within the 7-day period. Upon receipt, the dispensing pharmacist shall attach this prescription to the emergency oral prescription earlier received and reduced to writing. The dispensing pharmacist shall notify the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation Human Services if the prescriber fails to deliver the authorization for emergency dispensing on the prescription to him or her. Failure of the dispensing pharmacist to do so shall void the authority conferred by this paragraph to dispense without a written prescription of a prescriber. All prescriptions issued for Schedule II controlled substances shall include both a written and numerical notation of quantity on the face of the prescription. No prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance may be refilled. The Department shall provide, at no cost, audit reviews and necessary information to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in conjunction with ongoing investigations being conducted in whole or part by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(Source: P.A. 95-689, eff. 10-29-07.)

(720 ILCS 570/311.5 new)

Sec. 311.5. Electronic prescriptions for controlled substances. Notwithstanding any other Section in this Act, a prescriber who is otherwise authorized to prescribe controlled substances in Illinois may issue an electronic prescription for Schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled substances if done in accordance with the federal rules for electronic prescriptions for controlled substances, as set forth in 21 C.F.R. Parts 1300, 1304, 1306, and 1311, as amended.

(720 ILCS 570/312) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1312)

Sec. 312. Requirements for dispensing controlled substances.

(a) A practitioner, in good faith, may dispense a Schedule II controlled substance, which is a narcotic drug listed in Section 206 of this Act; or which contains any quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers or salts of optical isomers; phenmetrazine and its salts; or pentazocine; and Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substances to any person upon a written or electronic prescription of any prescriber, dated and signed by the person prescribing (or electronically validated in compliance with Section 311.5) on the day when issued and bearing the name and address of the patient for whom, or the owner of the animal for which the controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address and registry number under the laws of the United States relating to controlled substances of the prescriber, if he or she is required by those laws to be registered. If the prescription is for an animal it shall state the species of animal for which it is ordered. The practitioner filling the prescription shall, unless otherwise permitted, write the date of filling and his or her own signature on the face of the written prescription or, alternatively, shall indicate such filling using a unique identifier as defined in paragraph (v) of Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act. The written prescription shall be retained on file by the practitioner who filled it or pharmacy in which the prescription was filled for a period of 2 years, so as to be readily accessible for inspection or removal by any officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act. Whenever the practitioner's or pharmacy's copy of any prescription is removed by an officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act, for the purpose of investigation or as evidence, such officer or employee shall give to the practitioner or pharmacy a receipt in lieu thereof. If the specific prescription is machine or computer generated and printed at the prescriber's office, the date does not need to be handwritten. A prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance shall not be issued for filled more than a 30 day supply, except as provided in subsection (a-5), and shall be valid for up to 90 days after the date of issuance. A written prescription for Schedule III, IV or V controlled substances shall not be filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date thereof or refilled more than 5 times unless renewed, in writing, by the prescriber.

(a-5) Physicians may issue multiple prescriptions (3 sequential 30-day supplies) for the same Schedule II controlled substance, authorizing up to a 90-day supply. Before authorizing a 90-day supply of a Schedule II controlled substance, the physician must meet both of the following conditions:

(1) Each separate prescription must be issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual physician acting in the usual course of professional practice.

(2) The individual physician must provide written instructions on each prescription (other than the first prescription, if the prescribing physician intends for the prescription to be filled immediately) indicating the earliest date on which a pharmacy may fill that prescription.

(b) In lieu of a written prescription required by this Section, a pharmacist, in good faith, may dispense Schedule III, IV, or V substances to any person either upon receiving a facsimile of a written, signed prescription transmitted by the prescriber or the prescriber's agent or upon a lawful oral prescription of a prescriber which oral prescription shall be reduced promptly to writing by the pharmacist and such written memorandum thereof shall be dated on the day when such oral prescription is received by the pharmacist and shall bear the full name and address of the ultimate user for whom, or of the owner of the animal for which the controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address, and registry number under the law of the United States relating to controlled substances of the prescriber prescribing if he or she is required by those laws to be so registered, and the pharmacist filling such oral prescription shall write the date of filling and his or her own signature on the face of such written memorandum thereof. The facsimile copy of the prescription or written memorandum of the oral prescription shall be retained on file by the proprietor of the pharmacy in which it is filled for a period of not less than two years, so as to be readily accessible for inspection by any officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act in the same manner as a written prescription. The facsimile copy of the prescription or oral prescription and the written memorandum thereof shall not be filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date thereof or be refilled more than 5 times, unless renewed, in writing, by the prescriber.

(c) Except for any non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, a controlled substance included in Schedule V shall not be distributed or dispensed other than for a medical purpose and not for the purpose of evading this Act, and then:

(1) only personally by a person registered to dispense a Schedule V controlled substance and then only to his or her patients, or

(2) only personally by a pharmacist, and then only to a person over 21 years of age who has identified himself or herself to the pharmacist by means of 2 positive documents of identification.

(3) the dispenser shall record the name and address of the purchaser, the name and quantity of the product, the date and time of the sale, and the dispenser's signature.

(4) no person shall purchase or be dispensed more than 120 milliliters or more than 120 grams of any Schedule V substance which contains codeine, dihydrocodeine, or any salts thereof, or ethylmorphine, or any salts thereof, in any 96 hour period. The purchaser shall sign a form, approved by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, attesting that he or she has not purchased any Schedule V controlled substances within the immediately preceding 96 hours.

(5) (Blank). a copy of the records of sale, including all information required by paragraph (3), shall be forwarded to the Department of Professional Regulation at its principal office by the 15th day of the following month.

(6) all records of purchases and sales shall be maintained for not less than 2 years.

(7) no person shall obtain or attempt to obtain within any consecutive 96 hour period any Schedule V substances of more than 120 milliliters or more than 120 grams containing codeine, dihydrocodeine or any of its salts, or ethylmorphine or any of its salts. Any person obtaining any such preparations or combination of preparations in excess of this limitation shall be in unlawful possession of such controlled substance.

(8) a person qualified to dispense controlled substances under this Act and registered thereunder shall at no time maintain or keep in stock a quantity of Schedule V controlled substances defined and listed in Section 212 (b) (1), (2) or (3) in excess of 4.5 liters for each substance; a pharmacy shall at no time maintain or keep in stock a quantity of Schedule V controlled substances as defined in excess of 4.5 liters for each substance, plus the additional quantity of controlled substances necessary to fill the largest number of prescription orders filled by that pharmacy for such controlled substances in any one week in the previous year. These limitations shall not apply to Schedule V controlled substances which Federal law prohibits from being dispensed without a prescription.

(9) no person shall distribute or dispense butyl nitrite for inhalation or other introduction into the human body for euphoric or physical effect.

(d) Every practitioner shall keep a record or log of controlled substances received by him or her and a record of all such controlled substances administered, dispensed or professionally used by him or her otherwise than by prescription. It shall, however, be sufficient compliance with this paragraph if any practitioner utilizing controlled substances listed in Schedules III, IV and V shall keep a record of all those substances dispensed and distributed by him or her other than those controlled substances which are administered by the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means to the body of a patient or research subject. A practitioner who dispenses, other than by administering, a controlled substance in Schedule II, which is a narcotic drug listed in Section 206 of this Act, or which contains any quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers or salts of optical isomers, pentazocine, or methaqualone shall do so only upon the issuance of a written prescription blank or electronic prescription issued by a prescriber.

(e) Whenever a manufacturer distributes a controlled substance in a package prepared by him or her, and whenever a wholesale distributor distributes a controlled substance in a package prepared by him or her or the manufacturer, he or she shall securely affix to each package in which that substance is contained a label showing in legible English the name and address of the manufacturer, the distributor and the quantity, kind and form of controlled substance contained therein. No person except a pharmacist and only for the purposes of filling a prescription under this Act, shall alter, deface or remove any label so affixed.

(f) Whenever a practitioner dispenses any controlled substance except a non-prescription Schedule V product or a non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, he or she shall affix to the container in which such substance is sold or dispensed, a label indicating the date of initial filling, the practitioner's name and address, the name of the patient, the name of the prescriber, the directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in any prescription or required by law, the proprietary name or names or the established name of the controlled substance, and the dosage and quantity, except as otherwise authorized by regulation by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. No person shall alter, deface or remove any label so affixed as long as the specific medication remains in the container.

(g) A person to whom or for whose use any controlled substance has been prescribed or dispensed by a practitioner, or other persons authorized under this Act, and the owner of any animal for which such substance has been prescribed or dispensed by a veterinarian, may lawfully possess such substance only in the container in which it was delivered to him or her by the person dispensing such substance.

(h) The responsibility for the proper prescribing or dispensing of controlled substances that are under the prescriber's direct control is upon the prescriber. The and the responsibility for the proper filling of a prescription for controlled substance drugs rests with the pharmacist. An order purporting to be a prescription issued to any individual, which is not in the regular course of professional treatment nor part of an authorized methadone maintenance program, nor in legitimate and authorized research instituted by any accredited hospital, educational institution, charitable foundation, or federal, state or local governmental agency, and which is intended to provide that individual with controlled substances sufficient to maintain that individual's or any other individual's physical or psychological addiction, habitual or customary use, dependence, or diversion of that controlled substance is not a prescription within the meaning and intent of this Act; and the person issuing it, shall be subject to the penalties provided for violations of the law relating to controlled substances.

(i) A prescriber shall not preprint or cause to be preprinted a prescription for any controlled substance; nor shall any practitioner issue, fill or cause to be issued or filled, a preprinted prescription for any controlled substance.

(i-5) A prescriber may use a machine or electronic device to individually generate a printed prescription, but the prescriber is still required to affix his or her manual signature.

(j) No person shall manufacture, dispense, deliver, possess with intent to deliver, prescribe, or administer or cause to be administered under his or her direction any anabolic steroid, for any use in humans other than the treatment of disease in accordance with the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for a valid medical purpose in the course of professional practice. The use of anabolic steroids for the purpose of hormonal manipulation that is intended to increase muscle mass, strength or weight without a medical necessity to do so, or for the intended purpose of improving physical appearance or performance in any form of exercise, sport, or game, is not a valid medical purpose or in the course of professional practice.

(k) Controlled substances may be mailed if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The controlled substances are not outwardly dangerous and are not likely, of their own force, to cause injury to a person's life or health.

(2) The inner container of a parcel containing controlled substances must be marked and sealed as required under this Act and its rules, and be placed in a plain outer container or securely wrapped in plain paper.

(3) If the controlled substances consist of prescription medicines, the inner container must be labeled to show the name and address of the pharmacy or practitioner dispensing the prescription.

(4) The outside wrapper or container must be free of markings that would indicate the nature of the contents.

(Source: P.A. 96-166, eff. 1-1-10.)

(720 ILCS 570/313) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1313)

Sec. 313. (a) Controlled substances which are lawfully administered in hospitals or institutions licensed under the "Hospital Licensing Act" shall be exempt from the requirements of Sections 312 and 316, except that the prescription for the controlled substance shall be in writing on the patient's record, signed by the prescriber, and dated, and shall state the name, and quantity of controlled substances ordered and the quantity actually administered. The records of such prescriptions shall be maintained for two years and shall be available for inspection by officers and employees of the Illinois Department of State Police, and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

The exemption under this subsection (a) does not apply to a prescription (including an outpatient prescription from an emergency department or outpatient clinic) for more than a 72-hour supply of a discharge medication to be consumed outside of the hospital or institution.

(b) Controlled substances that can lawfully be administered or dispensed directly to a patient in a long-term care facility licensed by the Department of Public Health as a skilled nursing facility, intermediate care facility, or long-term care facility for residents under 22 years of age, are exempt from the requirements of Section 312 except that a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance must be either a written prescription signed by the prescriber or a written prescription transmitted by the prescriber or prescriber's agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The facsimile serves as the original prescription and must be maintained for 2 years from the date of issue in the same manner as a written prescription signed by the prescriber.

(c) A prescription that is generated written for a Schedule II controlled substance to be compounded for direct administration by parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice program may be transmitted by facsimile by the prescriber or the prescriber's agent to the pharmacy providing the home infusion services. The facsimile serves as the original written prescription for purposes of this paragraph (c) and it shall be maintained in the same manner as the original written prescription.

(c-1) A prescription generated written for a Schedule II controlled substance for a patient residing in a hospice certified by Medicare under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act or licensed by the State may be transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile or electronically as provided in Section 311.5. The practitioner or practitioner's agent must note on the prescription that the patient is a hospice patient. The facsimile or electronic record serves as the original written prescription for purposes of this paragraph (c-1) and it shall be maintained in the same manner as the original written prescription.

(d) Controlled substances which are lawfully administered and/or dispensed in drug abuse treatment programs licensed by the Department shall be exempt from the requirements of Sections 312 and 316, except that the prescription for such controlled substances shall be issued and authenticated on official prescription logs prepared and maintained in accordance with 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060: Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Treatment and Intervention Licenses, and in compliance with other applicable State and federal laws. The Department-licensed drug treatment program shall report applicable prescriptions via electronic record keeping software approved by the Department. This software must be compatible with the specifications of the Department. Drug abuse treatment programs shall report to the Department methadone prescriptions or medications dispensed through the use of Department-approved File Transfer Protocols (FTPs). Methadone prescription records must be maintained in accordance with the applicable requirements as set forth by the Department in accordance with 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060: Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Treatment and Intervention Licenses, and in compliance with other applicable State and federal laws.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the authority of a hospital pursuant to Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act to grant hospital clinical privileges to an individual advanced practice nurse to select, order or administer medications, including controlled substances to provide services within a hospital. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the authority of an ambulatory surgical treatment center pursuant to Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act to grant ambulatory surgical treatment center clinical privileges to an individual advanced practice nurse to select, order or administer medications, including controlled substances to provide services within an ambulatory surgical treatment center supplied by the Department. The official prescription logs issued by the Department shall be printed in triplicate on distinctively marked paper and furnished to programs at reasonable cost. The official prescription logs furnished to the programs shall contain, in preprinted form, such information as the Department may require. The official prescription logs shall be properly endorsed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches issuing the order, with his own signature and the date of ordering, and further endorsed by the practitioner actually administering or dispensing the dosage at the time of such administering or dispensing in accordance with requirements issued by the Department. The duplicate copy shall be retained by the program for a period of not less than three years nor more than seven years; the original and triplicate copy shall be returned to the Department at its principal office in accordance with requirements set forth by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 95-442, eff. 1-1-08.)

(720 ILCS 570/314.5 new)

Sec. 314.5. Medication shopping; pharmacy shopping.

(a) It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly or intentionally to fraudulently obtain or fraudulently seek to obtain any controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance from a prescriber or dispenser while being supplied with any controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance by another prescriber or dispenser, without disclosing the fact of the existing controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance to the prescriber or dispenser from whom the subsequent controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance is sought.

(b) It shall be unlawful for a person knowingly or intentionally to fraudulently obtain or fraudulently seek to obtain any controlled substance from a pharmacy while being supplied with any controlled substance by another pharmacy, without disclosing the fact of the existing controlled substance to the pharmacy from which the subsequent controlled substance is sought.

(c) A person may be in violation of Section 3.23 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act when medication shopping or pharmacy shopping, or both.

(d) When a person has been identified as having 6 or more prescribers or 6 or more pharmacies, or both, that do not utilize a common electronic file as specified in Section 20 of the Pharmacy Practice Act for controlled substances within the course of a continuous 30-day period, the Prescription Monitoring Program may issue an unsolicited report to the prescribers informing them of the potential medication shopping.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to create a requirement that any prescriber, dispenser, or pharmacist request any patient medication disclosure, report any patient activity, or prescribe or refuse to prescribe or dispense any medications.

(f) This Section shall not be construed to apply to inpatients or residents at hospitals or other institutions or to institutional pharmacies.

(720 ILCS 570/316)

Sec. 316. Prescription Schedule II controlled substance prescription monitoring program.

(a) The Department must provide for a Schedule II controlled substance prescription monitoring program for Schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled substances that includes the following components and requirements:

(1) The dispenser must transmit to the central repository, in a form and manner specified by the Department, the following information:

(A) The recipient's name.

(B) The recipient's address.

(C) The national drug code number of the Schedule II controlled substance dispensed.

(D) The date the controlled substance is dispensed.

(E) The quantity of the controlled substance dispensed.

(F) The dispenser's United States Drug Enforcement Administration registration number.

(G) The prescriber's United States Drug Enforcement Administration registration number.

(H) The dates the controlled substance prescription is filled.

(I) The payment type used to purchase the controlled substance (i.e. Medicaid, cash, third party insurance).

(J) The patient location code (i.e. home, nursing home, outpatient, etc.) for the controlled substances other than those filled at a retail pharmacy.

(K) Any additional information that may be required by the department by administrative rule, including but not limited to information required for compliance with the criteria for electronic reporting of the American Society for Automation and Pharmacy or its successor.

(2) The information required to be transmitted under this Section must be transmitted not more than 7 days after the date on which a controlled substance is dispensed, or at such other time as may be required by the Department by administrative rule.

(3) A dispenser must transmit the information required under this Section by:

(A) an electronic device compatible with the receiving device of the central repository;

(B) a computer diskette;

(C) a magnetic tape; or

(D) a pharmacy universal claim form or Pharmacy Inventory Control form;

(4) The Department may impose a civil fine of up to $100 per day for willful failure to report controlled substance dispensing to the Prescription Monitoring Program. The fine shall be calculated on no more than the number of days from the time the report was required to be made until the time the problem was resolved, and shall be payable to the Prescription Monitoring Program.

that meets specifications prescribed by the Department.

(b) The Department, by rule, may include in the monitoring program certain other select drugs that are not included in Schedule II, III, IV, or V. The Controlled substance prescription monitoring program does not apply to controlled substance prescriptions as exempted under Section 313.

(c) The collection of data on select drugs and scheduled substances by the Prescription Monitoring Program may be used as a tool for addressing oversight requirements of long-term care institutions as set forth by Public Act 96-1372. Long-term care pharmacies shall transmit patient medication profiles to the Prescription Monitoring Program monthly or more frequently as established by administrative rule.

(Source: P.A. 95-442, eff. 1-1-08.)

(720 ILCS 570/317)

Sec. 317. Central repository for collection of information.

(a) The Department must designate a central repository for the collection of information transmitted under Section 316 and former Section 321.

(b) The central repository must do the following:

(1) Create a database for information required to be transmitted under Section 316 in the form required under rules adopted by the Department, including search capability for the following:

(A) A recipient's name.

(B) A recipient's address.

(C) The national drug code number of a controlled substance dispensed.

(D) The dates a controlled substance is dispensed.

(E) The quantities of a controlled substance dispensed.

(F) A dispenser's United States Drug Enforcement Administration registration number.

(G) A prescriber's United States Drug Enforcement Administration registration number.

(H) The dates the controlled substance prescription is filled.

(I) The payment type used to purchase the controlled substance (i.e. Medicaid, cash, third party insurance).

(J) The patient location code (i.e. home, nursing home, outpatient, etc.) for controlled substance prescriptions other than those filled at a retail pharmacy.

(2) Provide the Department with a database maintained by the central repository. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation must provide the Department with electronic access to the license information of a prescriber or dispenser. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may charge a fee for this access not to exceed the actual cost of furnishing the information.

(3) Secure the information collected by the central repository and the database maintained by the central repository against access by unauthorized persons.

No fee shall be charged for access by a prescriber or dispenser.

(Source: P.A. 95-442, eff. 1-1-08.)

(720 ILCS 570/318)

Sec. 318. Confidentiality of information.

(a) Information received by the central repository under Section 316 and former Section 321 is confidential.

(b) The Department must carry out a program to protect the confidentiality of the information described in subsection (a). The Department may disclose the information to another person only under subsection (c), (d), or (f) and may charge a fee not to exceed the actual cost of furnishing the information.

(c) The Department may disclose confidential information described in subsection (a) to any person who is engaged in receiving, processing, or storing the information.

(d) The Department may release confidential information described in subsection (a) to the following persons:

(1) A governing body that licenses practitioners and is engaged in an investigation, an adjudication, or a prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.

(2) An investigator for the Consumer Protection Division of the office of the Attorney General, a prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the Attorney General, who is engaged in any of the following activities involving controlled substances:

(A) an investigation;

(B) an adjudication; or

(C) a prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.

(3) A law enforcement officer who is:

(A) authorized by the Illinois Department of State Police or the office of a county sheriff or State's Attorney or municipal police department of Illinois to receive information of the type requested for the purpose of investigations involving controlled substances; or

(B) approved by the Department to receive information of the type requested for the purpose of investigations involving controlled substances; and

(C) engaged in the investigation or prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.

(e) Before the Department releases confidential information under subsection (d), the applicant must demonstrate in writing to the Department that:

(1) the applicant has reason to believe that a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance has occurred; and

(2) the requested information is reasonably related to the investigation, adjudication, or prosecution of the violation described in subdivision (1).

(f) The Department may receive and release prescription record information under Section 316 and former Section 321 to:

(1) a governing body that licenses practitioners;

(2) an investigator for the Consumer Protection Division of the office of the Attorney General, a prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the Attorney General;

(3) any Illinois law enforcement officer who is:

(A) authorized to receive the type of information released; and

(B) approved by the Department to receive the type of information released; or

(4) prescription monitoring entities in other states per the provisions outlined in subsection (g) and (h) below; confidential prescription record information collected under Sections 316 and 321 (now repealed) that identifies vendors or practitioners, or both, who are prescribing or dispensing large quantities of Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substances outside the scope of their practice, pharmacy, or business, as determined by the Advisory Committee created by Section 320.

(g) The information described in subsection (f) may not be released until it has been reviewed by an employee of the Department who is licensed as a prescriber or a dispenser and until that employee has certified that further investigation is warranted. However, failure to comply with this subsection (g) does not invalidate the use of any evidence that is otherwise admissible in a proceeding described in subsection (h).

(h) An investigator or a law enforcement officer receiving confidential information under subsection (c), (d), or (f) may disclose the information to a law enforcement officer or an attorney for the office of the Attorney General for use as evidence in the following:

(1) A proceeding under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.

(2) A criminal proceeding or a proceeding in juvenile court that involves a controlled substance.

(i) The Department may compile statistical reports from the information described in subsection (a). The reports must not include information that identifies, by name, license or address, any practitioner, dispenser, ultimate user, or other person administering a controlled substance.

(j) Based upon federal, initial and maintenance funding, a prescriber and dispenser inquiry system shall be developed to assist the health care medical community in its goal of effective clinical practice and to prevent patients from diverting or abusing medications.

(1) An inquirer shall have read-only access to a stand-alone database which shall contain records for the previous 12 6 months.

(2) Dispensers may, upon positive and secure identification, make an inquiry on a patient or customer solely for a medical purpose as delineated within the federal HIPAA law.

(3) The Department shall provide a one-to-one secure link and encrypted software necessary to establish the link between an inquirer and the Department. Technical assistance shall also be provided.

(4) Written inquiries are acceptable but must include the fee and the requestor's Drug Enforcement Administration license number and submitted upon the requestor's business stationary.

(5) As directed by the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee and the Clinical Director for the Prescription Monitoring Program, aggregate data that does not indicate any prescriber, practitioner, dispenser, or patient may be used for clinical studies. No data shall be stored in the database beyond 24 months.

(6) Tracking analysis shall be established and used per administrative rule.

(7) Nothing in this Act or Illinois law shall be construed to require a prescriber or dispenser to make use of this inquiry system.

(8) If there is an adverse outcome because of a prescriber or dispenser making an inquiry, which is initiated in good faith, the prescriber or dispenser shall be held harmless from any civil liability.

(k) The Department shall establish, by rule, the process by which to evaluate possible erroneous association of prescriptions to any licensed prescriber or end user of the Illinois Prescription Information Library (PIL).

(l) The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee is authorized to evaluate the need for and method of establishing a patient specific identifier.

(m) Patients who identify prescriptions attributed to them that were not obtained by them shall be given access to their personal prescription history pursuant to the validation process as set forth by administrative rule.

(n) The Prescription Monitoring Program is authorized to develop operational push reports to entities with compatible electronic medical records. The process shall be covered within administrative rule established by the Department.

(o) Hospital emergency departments and freestanding healthcare facilities providing healthcare to walk-in patients may obtain, for the purpose of improving patient care, a unique identifier for each shift to utilize the PIL system.

(Source: P.A. 95-442, eff. 1-1-08.)

(720 ILCS 570/319)

Sec. 319. Rules. The Department must adopt rules under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act to implement Sections 316 through 321, including the following:

(1) Information collection and retrieval procedures for the central repository, including the controlled substances to be included in the program required under Section 316 and Section 321 (now repealed).

(2) Design for the creation of the database required under Section 317.

(3) Requirements for the development and installation of on-line electronic access by the Department to information collected by the central repository.

(Source: P.A. 95-442, eff. 1-1-08.)

(720 ILCS 570/320)

Sec. 320. Advisory committee.

(a) The Secretary of the Department of Human Services must appoint an advisory committee to assist the Department in implementing the controlled substance prescription monitoring program created by Section 316 and former Section 321 of this Act. The Advisory Committee consists of prescribers and dispensers.

(b) The Secretary of the Department of Human Services or his or her designee must determine the number of members to serve on the advisory committee. The Secretary must choose one of the members of the advisory committee to serve as chair of the committee.

(c) The advisory committee may appoint its other officers as it deems appropriate.

(d) The members of the advisory committee shall receive no compensation for their services as members of the advisory committee but may be reimbursed for their actual expenses incurred in serving on the advisory committee.

(e) The advisory committee shall:

(1) provide a uniform approach to reviewing this Act in order to determine whether changes should be recommended to the General Assembly.

(2) review current drug schedules in order to manage changes to the administrative rules pertaining to the utilization of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-442, eff. 1-1-08.)

(720 ILCS 570/405) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1405)

Sec. 405. (a) Any person who engages in a calculated criminal drug conspiracy, as defined in subsection (b), is guilty of a Class X felony. The fine for violation of this Section shall not be more than $500,000, and the offender shall be subject to the forfeitures prescribed in subsection (c).

(b) For purposes of this section, a person engages in a calculated criminal drug conspiracy when:

(1) he or she violates any of the provisions of subsection (a) or (c) of Section 401 or subsection (a) of Section 402; and

(2) such violation is a part of a conspiracy undertaken or carried on with two or more other persons; and

(3) he or she obtains anything of value greater than $500 from, or organizes, directs or finances such violation or conspiracy.

(c) Any person who is convicted under this section of engaging in a calculated criminal drug conspiracy shall forfeit to the State of Illinois:

(1) the receipts obtained by him or her in such conspiracy; and

(2) any of his or her interests in, claims against, receipts from, or property or rights of any kind affording a source of influence over, such conspiracy.

(d) The circuit court may enter such injunctions, restraining orders, directions or prohibitions, or to take such other actions, including the acceptance of satisfactory performance bonds, in connection with any property, claim, receipt, right or other interest subject to forfeiture under this Section, as it deems proper.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99.)

(720 ILCS 570/405.1) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1405.1)

Sec. 405.1. (a) Elements of the offense. A person commits criminal drug conspiracy when, with the intent that an offense set forth in Section 401, Section 402, or Section 407 of this Act be committed, he or she agrees with another to the commission of that offense. No person may be convicted of conspiracy to commit such an offense unless an act in furtherance of such agreement is alleged and proved to have been committed by him or her or by a co-conspirator.

(b) Co-conspirators. It shall not be a defense to conspiracy that the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have conspired:

(1) Has not been prosecuted or convicted, or

(2) Has been convicted of a different offense, or

(3) Is not amenable to justice, or

(4) Has been acquitted, or

(5) Lacked the capacity to commit an offense.

(c) Sentence. A person convicted of criminal drug conspiracy may be fined or imprisoned or both, but any term of imprisonment imposed shall be not less than the minimum nor more than the maximum provided for the offense which is the object of the conspiracy.

(Source: P.A. 89-404, eff. 8-20-95; 90-593, eff. 6-19-98.)

(720 ILCS 570/406) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1406)

Sec. 406. (a) It is unlawful for any person:

(1) who is subject to Article III knowingly to distribute or dispense a controlled substance in violation of Sections 308 through 314.5 314 of this Act; or

(2) who is a registrant, to manufacture a controlled substance not authorized by his or her registration, or to distribute or dispense a controlled substance not authorized by his or her registration to another registrant or other authorized person; or

(3) to refuse or fail to make, keep or furnish any record, notification, order form, statement, invoice or information required under this Act; or

(4) to refuse an entry into any premises for any inspection authorized by this Act; or

(5) knowingly to keep or maintain any store, shop, warehouse, dwelling, building, vehicle, boat, aircraft, or other structure or place, which is resorted to by a person unlawfully possessing controlled substances, or which is used for possessing, manufacturing, dispensing or distributing controlled substances in violation of this Act.

Any person who violates this subsection (a) is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class 4 felony for each subsequent offense. The fine for each subsequent offense shall not be more than $100,000. In addition, any practitioner who is found guilty of violating this subsection (a) is subject to suspension and revocation of his or her professional license, in accordance with such procedures as are provided by law for the taking of disciplinary action with regard to the license of said practitioner's profession.

(b) It is unlawful for any person knowingly:

(1) to distribute, as a registrant, a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II, except pursuant to an order form as required by Section 307 of this Act; or

(2) to use, in the course of the manufacture or distribution of a controlled substance, a registration number which is fictitious, revoked, suspended, or issued to another person; or

(3) to acquire or obtain possession of a controlled substance by misrepresentation, fraud, forgery, deception or subterfuge; or

(4) to furnish false or fraudulent material information in, or omit any material information from, any application, report or other document required to be kept or filed under this Act, or any record required to be kept by this Act; or

(5) to make, distribute or possess any punch, die, plate, stone or other thing designed to print, imprint or reproduce the trademark, trade name or other identifying mark, imprint or device of another, or any likeness of any of the foregoing, upon any controlled substance or container or labeling thereof so as to render the drug a counterfeit substance; or

(6) (blank); or

(7) (blank).

Any person who violates this subsection (b) is guilty of a Class 4 felony for the first offense and a Class 3 felony for each subsequent offense. The fine for the first offense shall be not more than $100,000. The fine for each subsequent offense shall not be more than $200,000.

(c) A person who knowingly or intentionally violates Section 316, 317, 318, or 319 is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 95-487, eff. 1-1-08.)

(720 ILCS 570/408) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1408)

Sec. 408.

(a) Any person convicted of a second or subsequent offense under this Act may be sentenced to imprisonment for a term up to twice the maximum term otherwise authorized, fined an amount up to twice that otherwise authorized, or both.

(b) For purposes of this Section, an offense is considered a second or subsequent offense, if, prior to his or her conviction of the offense, the offender has at any time been convicted under this Act or under any law of the United States or of any State relating to controlled substances.

(Source: P.A. 78-255.)

(720 ILCS 570/410) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1410)

Sec. 410. (a) Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of, or placed on probation or court supervision for any offense under this Act or any law of the United States or of any State relating to cannabis or controlled substances, pleads guilty to or is found guilty of possession of a controlled or counterfeit substance under subsection (c) of Section 402 or of unauthorized possession of prescription form under Section 406.2, the court, without entering a judgment and with the consent of such person, may sentence him or her to probation.

(b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall enter an order specifying a period of probation of 24 months and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.

(c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person: (1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction; (2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon; (3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a manner as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times during the period of the probation, with the cost of the testing to be paid by the probationer; and (4) perform no less than 30 hours of community service, provided community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board.

(d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of probation;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois Department of Human Services;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his or her dependents;

(6-5) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided.

(f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of probation, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against him or her.

(g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of probation and for appeal, however, discharge and dismissal under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of this Act or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime.

(h) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under this Section, Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with respect to any person.

(i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that conviction as evidence in aggravation.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 95-487, eff. 1-1-08.)

(720 ILCS 570/411.2) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1411.2)

Sec. 411.2. (a) Every person convicted of a violation of this Act, and every person placed on probation, conditional discharge, supervision or probation under Section 410 of this Act, shall be assessed for each offense a sum fixed at:

(1) $3,000 for a Class X felony;

(2) $2,000 for a Class 1 felony;

(3) $1,000 for a Class 2 felony;

(4) $500 for a Class 3 or Class 4 felony;

(5) $300 for a Class A misdemeanor;

(6) $200 for a Class B or Class C misdemeanor.

(b) The assessment under this Section is in addition to and not in lieu of any fines, restitution costs, forfeitures or other assessments authorized or required by law.

(c) As a condition of the assessment, the court may require that payment be made in specified installments or within a specified period of time. If the assessment is not paid within the period of probation, conditional discharge or supervision to which the defendant was originally sentenced, the court may extend the period of probation, conditional discharge or supervision pursuant to Section 5-6-2 or 5-6-3.1 of the Unified Code of Corrections, as applicable, until the assessment is paid or until successful completion of public or community service set forth in subsection (e) or the successful completion of the substance abuse intervention or treatment program set forth in subsection (f). If a term of probation, conditional discharge or supervision is not imposed, the assessment shall be payable upon judgment or as directed by the court.

(d) If an assessment for a violation of this Act is imposed on an organization, it is the duty of each individual authorized to make disbursements of the assets of the organization to pay the assessment from assets of the organization.

(e) A defendant who has been ordered to pay an assessment may petition the court to convert all or part of the assessment into court-approved public or community service. One hour of public or community service shall be equivalent to $4 of assessment. The performance of this public or community service shall be a condition of the probation, conditional discharge or supervision and shall be in addition to the performance of any other period of public or community service ordered by the court or required by law.

(f) The court may suspend the collection of the assessment imposed under this Section; provided the defendant agrees to enter a substance abuse intervention or treatment program approved by the court; and further provided that the defendant agrees to pay for all or some portion of the costs associated with the intervention or treatment program. In this case, the collection of the assessment imposed under this Section shall be suspended during the defendant's participation in the approved intervention or treatment program. Upon successful completion of the program, the defendant may apply to the court to reduce the assessment imposed under this Section by any amount actually paid by the defendant for his or her participation in the program. The court shall not reduce the penalty under this subsection unless the defendant establishes to the satisfaction of the court that he or she has successfully completed the intervention or treatment program. If the defendant's participation is for any reason terminated before his or her successful completion of the intervention or treatment program, collection of the entire assessment imposed under this Section shall be enforced. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to affect or suspend any other fines, restitution costs, forfeitures or assessments imposed under this or any other Act.

(g) The court shall not impose more than one assessment per complaint, indictment or information. If the person is convicted of more than one offense in a complaint, indictment or information, the assessment shall be based on the highest class offense for which the person is convicted.

(h) In counties under 3,000,000, all moneys collected under this Section shall be forwarded by the clerk of the circuit court to the State Treasurer for deposit in the Drug Treatment Fund, which is hereby established as a special fund within the State Treasury. The Department of Human Services may make grants to persons licensed under Section 15-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act or to municipalities or counties from funds appropriated to the Department from the Drug Treatment Fund for the treatment of pregnant women who are addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances and for the needed care of minor, unemancipated children of women undergoing residential drug treatment. If the Department of Human Services grants funds to a municipality or a county that the Department determines is not experiencing a problem with pregnant women addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances, or with care for minor, unemancipated children of women undergoing residential drug treatment, or intervention, the funds shall be used for the treatment of any person addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances. The Department may adopt such rules as it deems appropriate for the administration of such grants.

(i) In counties over 3,000,000, all moneys collected under this Section shall be forwarded to the County Treasurer for deposit into the County Health Fund. The County Treasurer shall, no later than the 15th day of each month, forward to the State Treasurer 30 percent of all moneys collected under this Act and received into the County Health Fund since the prior remittance to the State Treasurer. Funds retained by the County shall be used for community-based treatment of pregnant women who are addicted to alcohol, cannabis, or controlled substances or for the needed care of minor, unemancipated children of these women. Funds forwarded to the State Treasurer shall be deposited into the State Drug Treatment Fund maintained by the State Treasurer from which the Department of Human Services may make grants to persons licensed under Section 15-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act or to municipalities or counties from funds appropriated to the Department from the Drug Treatment Fund, provided that the moneys collected from each county be returned proportionately to the counties through grants to licensees located within the county from which the assessment was received and moneys in the State Drug Treatment Fund shall not supplant other local, State or federal funds. If the Department of Human Services grants funds to a municipality or county that the Department determines is not experiencing a problem with pregnant women addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances, or with care for minor, unemancipated children or women undergoing residential drug treatment, the funds shall be used for the treatment of any person addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances. The Department may adopt such rules as it deems appropriate for the administration of such grants.

(Source: P.A. 88-670, eff. 12-2-94; 89-215, eff. 1-1-96; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

(720 ILCS 570/413) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1413)

Sec. 413. (a) Twelve and one-half percent of all amounts collected as fines pursuant to the provisions of this Article shall be paid into the Youth Drug Abuse Prevention Fund, which is hereby created in the State treasury, to be used by the Department for the funding of programs and services for drug-abuse treatment, and prevention and education services, for juveniles.

(b) Eighty-seven and one-half percent of the proceeds of all fines received under the provisions of this Article shall be transmitted to and deposited in the treasurer's office at the level of government as follows:

(1) If such seizure was made by a combination of law enforcement personnel representing differing units of local government, the court levying the fine shall equitably allocate 50% of the fine among these units of local government and shall allocate 37 1/2% to the county general corporate fund. In the event that the seizure was made by law enforcement personnel representing a unit of local government from a municipality where the number of inhabitants exceeds 2 million in population, the court levying the fine shall allocate 87 1/2% of the fine to that unit of local government. If the seizure was made by a combination of law enforcement personnel representing differing units of local government, and at least one of those units represents a municipality where the number of inhabitants exceeds 2 million in population, the court shall equitably allocate 87 1/2% of the proceeds of the fines received among the differing units of local government.

(2) If such seizure was made by State law enforcement personnel, then the court shall allocate 37 1/2% to the State treasury and 50% to the county general corporate fund.

(3) If a State law enforcement agency in combination with a law enforcement agency or agencies of a unit or units of local government conducted the seizure, the court shall equitably allocate 37 1/2% of the fines to or among the law enforcement agency or agencies of the unit or units of local government which conducted the seizure and shall allocate 50% to the county general corporate fund.

(c) The proceeds of all fines allocated to the law enforcement agency or agencies of the unit or units of local government pursuant to subsection (b) shall be made available to that law enforcement agency as expendable receipts for use in the enforcement of laws regulating cannabis, methamphetamine, and other controlled substances. The proceeds of fines awarded to the State treasury shall be deposited in a special fund known as the Drug Traffic Prevention Fund, except that amounts distributed to the Secretary of State shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Evidence Fund to be used as provided in Section 2-115 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Monies from this fund may be used by the Illinois Department of State Police or use in the enforcement of laws regulating cannabis, methamphetamine, and other controlled substances; to satisfy funding provisions of the Intergovernmental Drug Laws Enforcement Act; to defray costs and expenses associated with returning violators of the Cannabis Control Act and this Act only, as provided in those Acts, when punishment of the crime shall be confinement of the criminal in the penitentiary; and all other monies shall be paid into the general revenue fund in the State treasury.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)

(720 ILCS 570/501) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1501)

Sec. 501. (a) It is hereby made the duty of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and the Illinois Department of State Police, and their agents, officers, and investigators, to enforce all provisions of this Act, except those specifically delegated, and to cooperate with all agencies charged with the enforcement of the laws of the United States, or of any State, relating to controlled substances. Only an agent, officer, or investigator designated by the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Director of the Illinois State Police may: (1) for the purpose of inspecting, copying, and verifying the correctness of records, reports or other documents required to be kept or made under this Act and otherwise facilitating the execution of the functions of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Illinois Department of State Police, be authorized in accordance with this Section to enter controlled premises and to conduct administrative inspections thereof and of the things specified; or (2) execute and serve administrative inspection notices, warrants, subpoenas, and summonses under the authority of this State. Any inspection or administrative entry of persons licensed by the Department shall be made in accordance with subsection (bb) of Section 30-5 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.

(b) Administrative entries and inspections designated in clause (1) of subsection (a) shall be carried out through agents, officers, investigators and peace officers (hereinafter referred to as "inspectors") designated by the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation Director. Any inspector, upon stating his or her purpose and presenting to the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the premises (1) appropriate credentials and (2) a written notice of his or her inspection authority (which notice, in the case of an inspection requiring or in fact supported by an administrative inspection warrant, shall consist of that warrant), shall have the right to enter the premises and conduct the inspection at reasonable times.

Inspectors appointed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly by the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation Director under this Section 501 are conservators of the peace and as such have all the powers possessed by policemen in municipalities cities and by sheriffs, except that they may exercise such powers anywhere in the State.

A Chief of Investigations of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation's Division of Professional Regulation appointed by the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly is a conservator of the peace and as such has all the powers possessed by policemen in municipalities and by sheriffs, except that he or she may exercise such powers anywhere in the State. Any other employee of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation appointed by the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation or by the Director of Professional Regulation on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly under this Section 501 is not a conservator of the peace.

(c) Except as may otherwise be indicated in an applicable inspection warrant, the inspector shall have the right:

(1) to inspect and copy records, reports and other documents required to be kept or made under this Act;

(2) to inspect, within reasonable limits and in a reasonable manner, controlled premises and all pertinent equipment, finished and unfinished drugs and other substances or materials, containers and labeling found therein, and all other things therein (including records, files, papers, processes, controls and facilities) appropriate for verification of the records, reports and documents referred to in item (1) or otherwise bearing on the provisions of this Act; and

(3) to inventory any stock of any controlled substance.

(d) Except when the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the controlled premises so consents in writing, no inspection authorized by this Section shall extend to:

(1) financial data;

(2) sales data other than shipment data; or

(3) pricing data.

Any inspection or administrative entry of persons licensed by the Department shall be made in accordance with subsection (bb) of Section 30-5 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.

(e) Any agent, officer, investigator or peace officer designated by the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation Director may (1) make seizure of property pursuant to the provisions of this Act; and (2) perform such other law enforcement duties as the Secretary Director shall designate. It is hereby made the duty of all State's Attorneys to prosecute violations of this Act and institute legal proceedings as authorized under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 88-670, eff. 12-2-94; 89-202, eff. 10-1-95.)

(720 ILCS 570/501.1) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1501.1)

Sec. 501.1. Administrative Procedure Act. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is hereby expressly adopted and incorporated herein, but shall apply only to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, as if all of the provisions of that Act were included in this Act, except that the provision of subsection (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act which provides that at hearings the licensee has the right to show compliance with all lawful requirements for retention, continuation or renewal of the license is specifically excluded. For the purposes of this Act the notice required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is deemed sufficient when mailed to the last known address of a party.

(Source: P.A. 88-45.)

(720 ILCS 570/503) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1503)

Sec. 503. In addition to any other remedies, the Director or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation is authorized to file a complaint and apply to any circuit court for, and such circuit court may upon hearing and for cause shown, grant a temporary restraining order or a preliminary or permanent injunction, without bond, restraining any person from violating this Act whether or not there exists other judicial remedies.

(Source: P.A. 83-342.)

(720 ILCS 570/504) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1504)

Sec. 504. (a) The Director and the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall each cooperate with Federal agencies and other State agencies in discharging his or her responsibilities concerning traffic in controlled substances and in suppressing the misuse and abuse of controlled substances. To this end he or she may:

(1) arrange for the exchange of information among governmental officials concerning the use, misuse and abuse of controlled substances;

(2) coordinate and cooperate in training programs concerning controlled substance law enforcement at local and State levels;

(3) cooperate with the federal Drug Enforcement Administration or its successor agency; and

(4) conduct programs of eradication aimed at destroying wild illicit growth of plant species from which controlled substances may be extracted.

(b) Results, information, and evidence received from the Drug Enforcement Administration relating to the regulatory functions of this Act, including results of inspections conducted by it may be relied and acted upon by the Director and the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in the exercise of their his regulatory functions under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 84-874.)

(720 ILCS 570/505) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1505)

Sec. 505. (a) The following are subject to forfeiture:

(1) all substances which have been manufactured, distributed, dispensed, or possessed in violation of this Act;

(2) all raw materials, products and equipment of any kind which are used, or intended for use in manufacturing, distributing, dispensing, administering or possessing any substance in violation of this Act;

(3) all conveyances, including aircraft, vehicles or vessels, which are used, or intended for use, to transport, or in any manner to facilitate the transportation, sale, receipt, possession, or concealment of property described in paragraphs (1) and (2), but:

(i) no conveyance used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this Section unless it appears that the owner or other person in charge of the conveyance is a consenting party or privy to a violation of this Act;

(ii) no conveyance is subject to forfeiture under this Section by reason of any act or omission which the owner proves to have been committed or omitted without his or her knowledge or consent;

(iii) a forfeiture of a conveyance encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party if he or she neither had knowledge of nor consented to the act or omission;

(4) all money, things of value, books, records, and research products and materials including formulas, microfilm, tapes, and data which are used, or intended to be used in violation of this Act;

(5) everything of value furnished, or intended to be furnished, in exchange for a substance in violation of this Act, all proceeds traceable to such an exchange, and all moneys, negotiable instruments, and securities used, or intended to be used, to commit or in any manner to facilitate any violation of this Act;

(6) all real property, including any right, title, and interest (including, but not limited to, any leasehold interest or the beneficial interest in a land trust) in the whole of any lot or tract of land and any appurtenances or improvements, which is used or intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, or in any manner to facilitate the commission of, any violation or act that constitutes a violation of Section 401 or 405 of this Act or that is the proceeds of any violation or act that constitutes a violation of Section 401 or 405 of this Act.

(b) Property subject to forfeiture under this Act may be seized by the Director or any peace officer upon process or seizure warrant issued by any court having jurisdiction over the property. Seizure by the Director or any peace officer without process may be made:

(1) if the seizure is incident to inspection under an administrative inspection warrant;

(2) if the property subject to seizure has been the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a criminal proceeding, or in an injunction or forfeiture proceeding based upon this Act or the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act;

(3) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health or safety;

(4) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is subject to forfeiture under this Act and the property is seized under circumstances in which a warrantless seizure or arrest would be reasonable; or

(5) in accordance with the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(c) In the event of seizure pursuant to subsection (b), forfeiture proceedings shall be instituted in accordance with the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act.

(d) Property taken or detained under this Section shall not be subject to replevin, but is deemed to be in the custody of the Director subject only to the order and judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the forfeiture proceedings and the decisions of the State's Attorney under the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act. When property is seized under this Act, the seizing agency shall promptly conduct an inventory of the seized property and estimate the property's value, and shall forward a copy of the inventory of seized property and the estimate of the property's value to the Director. Upon receiving notice of seizure, the Director may:

(1) place the property under seal;

(2) remove the property to a place designated by the Director;

(3) keep the property in the possession of the seizing agency;

(4) remove the property to a storage area for safekeeping or, if the property is a negotiable instrument or money and is not needed for evidentiary purposes, deposit it in an interest bearing account;

(5) place the property under constructive seizure by posting notice of pending forfeiture on it, by giving notice of pending forfeiture to its owners and interest holders, or by filing notice of pending forfeiture in any appropriate public record relating to the property; or

(6) provide for another agency or custodian, including an owner, secured party, or lienholder, to take custody of the property upon the terms and conditions set by the Director.

(e) If the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation suspends or revokes a registration, all controlled substances owned or possessed by the registrant at the time of suspension or the effective date of the revocation order may be placed under seal by the Director. No disposition may be made of substances under seal until the time for taking an appeal has elapsed or until all appeals have been concluded unless a court, upon application therefor, orders the sale of perishable substances and the deposit of the proceeds of the sale with the court. Upon a suspension or revocation order rule becoming final, all substances may be forfeited to the Illinois State Police Department of Professional Regulation.

(f) When property is forfeited under this Act the Director shall sell all such property unless such property is required by law to be destroyed or is harmful to the public, and shall distribute the proceeds of the sale, together with any moneys forfeited or seized, in accordance with subsection (g). However, upon the application of the seizing agency or prosecutor who was responsible for the investigation, arrest or arrests and prosecution which lead to the forfeiture, the Director may return any item of forfeited property to the seizing agency or prosecutor for official use in the enforcement of laws relating to cannabis or controlled substances, if the agency or prosecutor can demonstrate that the item requested would be useful to the agency or prosecutor in their enforcement efforts. When any forfeited conveyance, including an aircraft, vehicle, or vessel, is returned to the seizing agency or prosecutor, the conveyance may be used immediately in the enforcement of the criminal laws of this State. Upon disposal, all proceeds from the sale of the conveyance must be used for drug enforcement purposes. When any real property returned to the seizing agency is sold by the agency or its unit of government, the proceeds of the sale shall be delivered to the Director and distributed in accordance with subsection (g).

(g) All monies and the sale proceeds of all other property forfeited and seized under this Act shall be distributed as follows:

(1) 65% shall be distributed to the metropolitan enforcement group, local, municipal, county, or state law enforcement agency or agencies which conducted or participated in the investigation resulting in the forfeiture. The distribution shall bear a reasonable relationship to the degree of direct participation of the law enforcement agency in the effort resulting in the forfeiture, taking into account the total value of the property forfeited and the total law enforcement effort with respect to the violation of the law upon which the forfeiture is based. Amounts distributed to the agency or agencies shall be used for the enforcement of laws governing cannabis and controlled substances or for security cameras used for the prevention or detection of violence, except that amounts distributed to the Secretary of State shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Evidence Fund to be used as provided in Section 2-115 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(2)(i) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney of the county in which the prosecution resulting in the forfeiture was instituted, deposited in a special fund in the county treasury and appropriated to the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws governing cannabis and controlled substances. In counties over 3,000,000 population, 25% will be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws governing cannabis and controlled substances. If the prosecution is undertaken solely by the Attorney General, the portion provided hereunder shall be distributed to the Attorney General for use in the enforcement of laws governing cannabis and controlled substances.

(ii) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and deposited in the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Fund of that office to be used for additional expenses incurred in the investigation, prosecution and appeal of cases arising under laws governing cannabis and controlled substances. The Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall not receive distribution from cases brought in counties with over 3,000,000 population.

(3) 10% shall be retained by the Department of State Police for expenses related to the administration and sale of seized and forfeited property.

(h) Species of plants from which controlled substances in Schedules I and II may be derived which have been planted or cultivated in violation of this Act, or of which the owners or cultivators are unknown, or which are wild growths, may be seized and summarily forfeited to the State. The failure, upon demand by the Director or any peace officer, of the person in occupancy or in control of land or premises upon which the species of plants are growing or being stored, to produce registration, or proof that he or she is the holder thereof, constitutes authority for the seizure and forfeiture of the plants.

(Source: P.A. 94-1004, eff. 7-3-06.)

(720 ILCS 570/507) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1507)

Sec. 507. All rulings, final determinations, findings, and conclusions of the Illinois Department of State Police, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Department of Human Services of the State of Illinois under this Act are final and conclusive decisions of the matters involved. Any person aggrieved by the decision may obtain review of the decision pursuant to the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as amended and the rules adopted pursuant thereto. Pending final decision on such review, the acts, orders and rulings of the Department shall remain in full force and effect unless modified or suspended by order of court pending final judicial decision. Pending final decision on such review, the acts, orders, sanctions and rulings of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation regarding any registration shall remain in full force and effect, unless stayed by order of court. However, no stay of any decision of the administrative agency shall issue unless the person aggrieved by the decision establishes by a preponderance of the evidence that good cause exists therefor. In determining good cause, the court shall find that the aggrieved party has established a substantial likelihood of prevailing on the merits and that granting the stay will not have an injurious effect on the general public. Good cause shall not be established solely on the basis of hardships resulting from an inability to engage in the registered activity pending a final judicial decision.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

(720 ILCS 570/507.2 new)

Sec. 507.2. Rulemaking authority. The Department of Human Services is granted rulemaking authority concerning implementation, maintenance, and compliance with the Prescription Monitoring Program.

(720 ILCS 570/510)

Sec. 510. Preservation of evidence for laboratory testing.

(a) Before or after the trial in a prosecution for a violation of any Section of Article IV of this Act, a law enforcement agency or an agent acting on behalf of the law enforcement agency must preserve, subject to a continuous chain of custody, not less than:

(1) 2 kilograms of any substance containing a detectable amount of heroin;

(2) 10 kilograms of any substance containing a detectable amount of: (A) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extract of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed; (B) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers; (C) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or (D) any combination of the substances described in subdivisions (A) through (C) of this paragraph (a)(2);

(3) 10 kilograms of a mixture of substances described in subdivision (B) of paragraph (a)(2) that contains a cocaine base;

(4) 200 grams of phencyclidine (also referred to as "PCP") or 2 kilograms of any substance containing a detectable amount of phencyclidine;

(5) 20 grams of any substance containing a detectable amount of lysergic acid diethylamide (also referred to as "LSD");

(6) 800 grams of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of fentanyl, or 2 grams of any substance containing a detectable amount of any analog of fentanyl;

with respect to the offenses enumerated in this subsection (a) and must maintain sufficient documentation to locate that evidence. Excess quantities with respect to the offenses enumerated in this subsection (a) cannot practicably be retained by a law enforcement agency because of its size, bulk, and physical character.

(b) The sheriff or seizing law enforcement agency must file a motion requesting destruction of bulk evidence before the trial judge in the courtroom where the criminal charge is pending. The sheriff or seizing law enforcement agency must give notice of the motion requesting destruction of bulk evidence to the prosecutor of the criminal charge and the defense attorney of record. The trial judge will conduct an evidentiary hearing in which all parties will be given the opportunity to present evidence and arguments relating to whether the evidence should be destroyed, whether such destruction will prejudice the prosecution of the criminal case, and whether the destruction of the evidence will prejudice the defense of the criminal charge. The court's determination whether to grant the motion for destruction of bulk evidence must be based upon the totality of all of the circumstances of the case presented at the evidentiary hearing, the effect such destruction would have upon the defendant's constitutional rights, and the prosecutor's ability to proceed with the prosecution of the criminal charge.

(c) The court may, before trial, transfer excess quantities of any substance containing any of the controlled substances enumerated in subsection (a) with respect to a prosecution for any offense enumerated in subsection (a) to the sheriff of the county, or may, in its discretion, transfer such evidence to the Illinois Department of State Police, for destruction after notice is given to the defendant's attorney of record or to the defendant if the defendant is proceeding pro se.

(d) After a judgment of conviction is entered and the charged quantity is no longer needed for evidentiary purposes with respect to a prosecution for any offense enumerated in subsection (a), the court may transfer any substance containing any of the controlled substances enumerated in subsection (a) to the sheriff of the county, or may, in its discretion, transfer such evidence to the Illinois Department of State Police, for destruction after notice is given to the defendant's attorney of record or to the defendant if the defendant is proceeding pro se. No evidence shall be disposed of until 30 days after the judgment is entered, and if a notice of appeal is filed, no evidence shall be disposed of until the mandate has been received by the circuit court from the Appellate Court.

(Source: P.A. 95-993, eff. 10-3-08.)

(720 ILCS 570/217 rep.)

(720 ILCS 570/314 rep.)

(720 ILCS 570/315 rep.)

(720 ILCS 570/321 rep.)

Section 10. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by repealing Sections 217, 314, 315, and 321.

Section 99. Effective date. This Act takes effect January 1, 2012.