SB1559ham001 103RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY

Rep. La Shawn K. Ford

Filed: 5/19/2023

10300SB1559ham001 LRB103 29878 BMS 62285 a

AMENDMENT TO SENATE BILL 1559

AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend Senate Bill 1559 by replacing everything after the enacting clause with the following:

"Article 1.

Section 1-5. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Section 1-10 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Adult Use Cultivation Center License" means a license issued by the Department of Agriculture that permits a person to act as a cultivation center under this Act and any administrative rule made in furtherance of this Act.

"Adult Use Dispensing Organization License" means a license issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that permits a person to act as a dispensing organization under this Act and any administrative rule made in furtherance of this Act.

"Advertise" means to engage in promotional activities including, but not limited to: newspaper, radio, Internet and electronic media, and television advertising; the distribution of fliers and circulars; billboard advertising; and the display of window and interior signs. "Advertise" does not mean exterior signage displaying only the name of the licensed cannabis business establishment.

"Application points" means the number of points a Dispensary Applicant receives on an application for a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

"BLS Region" means a region in Illinois used by the United States Bureau of Labor Statistics to gather and categorize certain employment and wage data. The 17 such regions in Illinois are: Bloomington (DeWitt County; McLean County), Cape Girardeau (Alexander County), Carbondale-Marion (Jackson County; Williamson County), Champaign-Urbana (Champaign County; Ford County; Piatt County), Chicago-Naperville-Elgin (Cook County; DeKalb County; DuPage County; Grundy County; Kane County; Kendall County; Lake County; McHenry County; Will County), Danville (Vermilion County), Davenport-Moline-Rock Island (Henry County; Mercer County; Rock Island County), Decatur (Macon County), Kankakee (Kankakee County), Peoria (Marshall County; Peoria County; Stark County; Tazewell County; Woodford County), Rockford (Boone County; Winnebago County), St. Louis (Bond County; Calhoun County; Clinton County; Jersey County; Madison County; Macoupin County; Monroe County; St. Clair County), Springfield (Menard County; Sangamon County), Northwest Illinois nonmetropolitan area (Bureau County; Carroll County; Jo Daviess County; LaSalle County; Lee County; Ogle County; Putnam County; Stephenson County; Whiteside County), West Central Illinois nonmetropolitan area (Adams County; Brown County; Cass County; Christian County; Fulton County; Greene County; Hancock County; Henderson County; Knox County; Livingston County; Logan County; Mason County; McDonough County; Montgomery County; Morgan County; Moultrie County; Pike County; Schuyler County; Scott County; Shelby County; Warren County), East Central Illinois nonmetropolitan area (Clark County; Clay County; Coles County; Crawford County; Cumberland County; Douglas County; Edgar County; Effingham County; Fayette County; Iroquois County; Jasper County; Lawrence County; Marion County; Richland County), and South Illinois nonmetropolitan area (Edwards County; Franklin County; Gallatin County; Hamilton County; Hardin County; Jefferson County; Johnson County; Massac County; Perry County; Pope County; Pulaski County; Randolph County; Saline County; Union County; Wabash County; Washington County; Wayne County; White County).

"By lot" means a randomized method of choosing between 2 or more Eligible Tied Applicants or 2 or more Qualifying Applicants.

"Cannabis" means marijuana, hashish, and other substances that are identified as including any parts of the plant Cannabis sativa and including derivatives or subspecies, such as indica, of all strains of cannabis, whether growing or not; the seeds thereof, the resin extracted from any part of the plant; and any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds, or resin, including tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) and all other naturally produced cannabinol derivatives, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction; however, "cannabis" does not include the mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the mature stalks (except the resin extracted from it), fiber, oil or cake, or the sterilized seed of the plant that is incapable of germination. "Cannabis" does not include industrial hemp as defined and authorized under the Industrial Hemp Act. "Cannabis" also means cannabis flower, concentrate, and cannabis-infused products.

"Cannabis business establishment" means a cultivation center, craft grower, processing organization, infuser organization, dispensing organization, or transporting organization.

"Cannabis concentrate" means a product derived from cannabis that is produced by extracting cannabinoids, including tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), from the plant through the use of propylene glycol, glycerin, butter, olive oil, or other typical cooking fats; water, ice, or dry ice; or butane, propane, CO₂, ethanol, or isopropanol and with the intended use of smoking or making a cannabis-infused product. The use of any other solvent is expressly prohibited unless and until it is approved by the Department of Agriculture.

"Cannabis container" means a sealed or resealable, traceable, container, or package used for the purpose of containment of cannabis or cannabis-infused product during transportation.

"Cannabis flower" means marijuana, hashish, and other substances that are identified as including any parts of the plant Cannabis sativa and including derivatives or subspecies, such as indica, of all strains of cannabis; including raw kief, leaves, and buds, but not resin that has been extracted from any part of such plant; nor any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds, or resin.

"Cannabis-infused product" means a beverage, food, oil, ointment, tincture, topical formulation, or another product containing cannabis or cannabis concentrate that is not intended to be smoked.

"Cannabis paraphernalia" means equipment, products, or materials intended to be used for planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, ingesting, or otherwise introducing cannabis into the human body.

"Cannabis plant monitoring system" or "plant monitoring system" means a system that includes, but is not limited to, testing and data collection established and maintained by the cultivation center, craft grower, or processing organization and that is available to the Department of Revenue, the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Illinois State Police for the purposes of documenting each cannabis plant and monitoring plant development throughout the life cycle of a cannabis plant cultivated for the intended use by a customer from seed planting to final packaging.

"Cannabis testing facility" means an entity registered by the Department of Agriculture to test cannabis for potency and contaminants.

"Clone" means a plant section from a female cannabis plant not yet rootbound, growing in a water solution or other propagation matrix, that is capable of developing into a new plant.

"Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program faculty participant" means a person who is 21 years of age or older, licensed by the Department of Agriculture, and is employed or contracted by an Illinois community college to provide student instruction using cannabis plants at an Illinois Community College.

"Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program faculty participant Agent Identification Card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program faculty participant.

"Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License" means a contingent license awarded to applicants for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License that reserves the right to an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License if the applicant meets certain conditions described in this Act, but does not entitle the recipient to begin purchasing or selling cannabis or cannabis-infused products.

"Conditional Adult Use Cultivation Center License" means a license awarded to top-scoring applicants for an Adult Use Cultivation Center License that reserves the right to an Adult Use Cultivation Center License if the applicant meets certain conditions as determined by the Department of Agriculture by rule, but does not entitle the recipient to begin growing, processing, or selling cannabis or cannabis-infused products.

"Craft grower" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to cultivate, dry, cure, and package cannabis and perform other necessary activities to make cannabis available for sale at a dispensing organization or use at a processing organization. A craft grower may contain up to 14,000 5,000 square feet of canopy space on its premises for plants in the flowering state. The Department of Agriculture may authorize an increase or decrease of flowering stage cultivation space in increments of 3,000 square feet by rule based on market need, craft grower capacity, and the licensee's history of compliance or noncompliance, with a maximum space of 14,000 square feet for cultivating plants in the flowering stage, which must be cultivated in all stages of growth in an enclosed and secure area. A craft grower may share premises with a processing organization or a dispensing organization, or both, provided each licensee stores currency and cannabis or cannabis-infused products in a separate secured vault to which the other licensee does not have access or all licensees sharing a vault share more than 50% of the same ownership.

"Craft grower agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or other agent of a craft grower who is 21 years of age or older.

"Craft Grower Agent Identification Card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a craft grower agent.

"Cultivation center" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to cultivate, process, transport (unless otherwise limited by this Act), and perform other necessary activities to provide cannabis and cannabis-infused products to cannabis business establishments.

"Cultivation center agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or other agent of a cultivation center who is 21 years of age or older.

"Cultivation Center Agent Identification Card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a cultivation center agent.

"Currency" means currency and coin of the United States.

"Dispensary" means a facility operated by a dispensing organization at which activities licensed by this Act may occur.

"Dispensary Applicant" means the Proposed Dispensing Organization Name as stated on an application for a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

"Dispensing organization" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation to acquire cannabis from a cultivation center, craft grower, processing organization, or another dispensary for the purpose of selling or dispensing cannabis, cannabis-infused products, cannabis seeds, paraphernalia, or related supplies under this Act to purchasers or to qualified registered medical cannabis patients and caregivers. As used in this Act, "dispensing organization" includes a registered medical cannabis organization as defined in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act or its successor Act that has obtained an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

"Dispensing organization agent" means a principal officer, employee, or agent of a dispensing organization who is 21 years of age or older.

"Dispensing organization agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that identifies a person as a dispensing organization agent.

"Disproportionately Impacted Area" means a census tract or comparable geographic area that satisfies the following criteria as determined by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, that:

(1) meets at least one of the following criteria:

(A) the area has a poverty rate of at least 20% according to the latest federal decennial census; or

(B) 75% or more of the children in the area participate in the federal free lunch program according to reported statistics from the State Board of Education; or

(C) at least 20% of the households in the area receive assistance under the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program; or

(D) the area has an average unemployment rate, as determined by the Illinois Department of Employment Security, that is more than 120% of the national unemployment average, as determined by the United States Department of Labor, for a period of at least 2 consecutive calendar years preceding the date of the application; and

(2) has high rates of arrest, conviction, and incarceration related to the sale, possession, use, cultivation, manufacture, or transport of cannabis.

"Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License" means a license that permits a medical cannabis cultivation center licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act as of the effective date of this Act to begin cultivating, infusing, packaging, transporting (unless otherwise provided in this Act), processing, and selling cannabis or cannabis-infused product to cannabis business establishments for resale to purchasers as permitted by this Act as of January 1, 2020.

"Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License" means a license that permits a medical cannabis dispensing organization licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act as of the effective date of this Act to begin selling cannabis or cannabis-infused product to purchasers as permitted by this Act as of January 1, 2020.

"Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization at a secondary site" means a license that permits a medical cannabis dispensing organization licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act as of the effective date of this Act to begin selling cannabis or cannabis-infused product to purchasers as permitted by this Act on January 1, 2020 at a different dispensary location from its existing registered medical dispensary location.

"Eligible Tied Applicant" means a Tied Applicant that is eligible to participate in the process by which a remaining available license is distributed by lot pursuant to a Tied Applicant Lottery.

"Enclosed, locked facility" means a room, greenhouse, building, or other enclosed area equipped with locks or other security devices that permit access only by cannabis business establishment agents working for the licensed cannabis business establishment or acting pursuant to this Act to cultivate, process, store, or distribute cannabis.

"Enclosed, locked space" means a closet, room, greenhouse, building, or other enclosed area equipped with locks or other security devices that permit access only by authorized individuals under this Act. "Enclosed, locked space" may include:

(1) a space within a residential building that (i) is the primary residence of the individual cultivating 5 or fewer cannabis plants that are more than 5 inches tall and (ii) includes sleeping quarters and indoor plumbing. The space must only be accessible by a key or code that is different from any key or code that can be used to access the residential building from the exterior; or

(2) a structure, such as a shed or greenhouse, that lies on the same plot of land as a residential building that (i) includes sleeping quarters and indoor plumbing and (ii) is used as a primary residence by the person cultivating 5 or fewer cannabis plants that are more than 5 inches tall, such as a shed or greenhouse. The structure must remain locked when it is unoccupied by people.

"Financial institution" has the same meaning as "financial organization" as defined in Section 1501 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, and also includes the holding companies, subsidiaries, and affiliates of such financial organizations.

"Flowering stage" means the stage of cultivation where and when a cannabis plant is cultivated to produce plant material for cannabis products. This includes mature plants as follows:

(1) if greater than 2 stigmas are visible at each internode of the plant; or

(2) if the cannabis plant is in an area that has been intentionally deprived of light for a period of time intended to produce flower buds and induce maturation, from the moment the light deprivation began through the remainder of the marijuana plant growth cycle.

"Individual" means a natural person.

"Infuser organization" or "infuser" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to directly incorporate cannabis or cannabis concentrate into a product formulation to produce a cannabis-infused product.

"Kief" means the resinous crystal-like trichomes that are found on cannabis and that are accumulated, resulting in a higher concentration of cannabinoids, untreated by heat or pressure, or extracted using a solvent.

"Labor peace agreement" means an agreement between a cannabis business establishment and any labor organization recognized under the National Labor Relations Act, referred to in this Act as a bona fide labor organization, that prohibits labor organizations and members from engaging in picketing, work stoppages, boycotts, and any other economic interference with the cannabis business establishment. This agreement means that the cannabis business establishment has agreed not to disrupt efforts by the bona fide labor organization to communicate with, and attempt to organize and represent, the cannabis business establishment's employees. The agreement shall provide a bona fide labor organization access at reasonable times to areas in which the cannabis business establishment's employees work, for the purpose of meeting with employees to discuss their right to representation, employment rights under State law, and terms and conditions of employment. This type of agreement shall not mandate a particular method of election or certification of the bona fide labor organization.

"Limited access area" means a room or other area under the control of a cannabis dispensing organization licensed under this Act and upon the licensed premises where cannabis sales occur with access limited to purchasers, dispensing organization owners and other dispensing organization agents, or service professionals conducting business with the dispensing organization, or, if sales to registered qualifying patients, caregivers, provisional patients, and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants licensed pursuant to the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act are also permitted at the dispensary, registered qualifying patients, caregivers, provisional patients, and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants.

"Member of an impacted family" means an individual who has a parent, legal guardian, child, spouse, or dependent, or was a dependent of an individual who, prior to the effective date of this Act, was arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement under this Act.

"Mother plant" means a cannabis plant that is cultivated or maintained for the purpose of generating clones, and that will not be used to produce plant material for sale to an infuser or dispensing organization.

"Ordinary public view" means within the sight line with normal visual range of a person, unassisted by visual aids, from a public street or sidewalk adjacent to real property, or from within an adjacent property.

"Ownership and control" means ownership of at least 51% of the business, including corporate stock if a corporation, and control over the management and day-to-day operations of the business and an interest in the capital, assets, and profits and losses of the business proportionate to percentage of ownership.

"Person" means a natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint venture, public or private corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Possession limit" means the amount of cannabis under Section 10-10 that may be possessed at any one time by a person 21 years of age or older or who is a registered qualifying medical cannabis patient or caregiver under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

"Principal officer" includes a cannabis business establishment applicant or licensed cannabis business establishment's board member, owner with more than 1% interest of the total cannabis business establishment or more than 5% interest of the total cannabis business establishment of a publicly traded company, president, vice president, secretary, treasurer, partner, officer, member, manager member, or person with a profit sharing, financial interest, or revenue sharing arrangement. The definition includes a person with authority to control the cannabis business establishment, a person who assumes responsibility for the debts of the cannabis business establishment and who is further defined in this Act.

"Primary residence" means a dwelling where a person usually stays or stays more often than other locations. It may be determined by, without limitation, presence, tax filings; address on an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card; or voter registration. No person may have more than one primary residence.

"Processing organization" or "processor" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to either extract constituent chemicals or compounds to produce cannabis concentrate or incorporate cannabis or cannabis concentrate into a product formulation to produce a cannabis product.

"Processing organization agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or agent of a processing organization.

"Processing organization agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a processing organization agent.

"Purchaser" means a person 21 years of age or older who acquires cannabis for a valuable consideration. "Purchaser" does not include a cardholder under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

"Qualifying Applicant" means an applicant that submitted an application pursuant to Section 15-30 that received at least 85% of 250 application points available under Section 15-30 as the applicant's final score and meets the definition of "Social Equity Applicant" as set forth under this Section.

"Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant" means an applicant that submitted an application pursuant to Section 15-30 that received at least 85% of 250 application points available under Section 15-30 as the applicant's final score and meets the criteria of either paragraph (1) or (2) of the definition of "Social Equity Applicant" as set forth under this Section.

"Qualified Social Equity Applicant" means a Social Equity Applicant who has been awarded a conditional license under this Act to operate a cannabis business establishment.

"Resided" means an individual's primary residence was located within the relevant geographic area as established by 2 of the following:

(1) a signed lease agreement that includes the applicant's name;

(2) a property deed that includes the applicant's name;

(3) school records;

(4) a voter registration card;

(5) an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card;

(6) a paycheck stub;

(7) a utility bill;

(8) tax records; or

(9) any other proof of residency or other information necessary to establish residence as provided by rule.

"Smoking" means the inhalation of smoke caused by the combustion of cannabis.

"Social Equity Applicant" means an applicant that is an Illinois resident that meets one of the following criteria:

(1) an applicant with at least 51% ownership and control by one or more individuals who have resided for at least 5 of the preceding 10 years in a Disproportionately Impacted Area;

(2) an applicant with at least 51% ownership and control by one or more individuals who:

(i) have been arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement under this Act; or

(ii) is a member of an impacted family;

(3) for applicants with a minimum of 10 full-time employees, an applicant with at least 51% of current employees who:

(i) currently reside in a Disproportionately Impacted Area; or

(ii) have been arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement under this Act or member of an impacted family.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to preempt or limit the duties of any employer under the Job Opportunities for Qualified Applicants Act. Nothing in this Act shall permit an employer to require an employee to disclose sealed or expunged offenses, unless otherwise required by law.

"Tied Applicant" means an application submitted by a Dispensary Applicant pursuant to Section 15-30 that received the same number of application points under Section 15-30 as the Dispensary Applicant's final score as one or more top-scoring applications in the same BLS Region and would have been awarded a license but for the one or more other top-scoring applications that received the same number of application points. Each application for which a Dispensary Applicant was required to pay a required application fee for the application period ending January 2, 2020 shall be considered an application of a separate Tied Applicant.

"Tied Applicant Lottery" means the process established under 68 Ill. Adm. Code 1291.50 for awarding Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses pursuant to Sections 15-25 and 15-30 among Eligible Tied Applicants.

"Tincture" means a cannabis-infused solution, typically comprised of alcohol, glycerin, or vegetable oils, derived either directly from the cannabis plant or from a processed cannabis extract. A tincture is not an alcoholic liquor as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934. A tincture shall include a calibrated dropper or other similar device capable of accurately measuring servings.

"Transporting organization" or "transporter" means an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to transport cannabis or cannabis-infused product on behalf of a cannabis business establishment or a community college licensed under the Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program.

"Transporting organization agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or agent of a transporting organization.

"Transporting organization agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a transporting organization agent.

"Unit of local government" means any county, city, village, or incorporated town.

"Vegetative stage" means the stage of cultivation in which a cannabis plant is propagated to produce additional cannabis plants or reach a sufficient size for production. This includes seedlings, clones, mothers, and other immature cannabis plants as follows:

(1) if the cannabis plant is in an area that has not been intentionally deprived of light for a period of time intended to produce flower buds and induce maturation, it has no more than 2 stigmas visible at each internode of the cannabis plant; or

(2) any cannabis plant that is cultivated solely for the purpose of propagating clones and is never used to produce cannabis.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

Article 3.

Section 3-5. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act is amended by adding Section 136 as follows:

(410 ILCS 130/136 new)

Sec. 136. Pickup or drive-through locations. Registered qualifying patients and designated caregivers under this Act may use pickup or drive-through locations, as authorized under subsection (d) of Section 15-85 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.

Section 3-10. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 15-15, 15-20, 15-70, 15-85, and 15-100 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/15-15)

Sec. 15-15. Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

(a) Any medical cannabis dispensing organization holding a valid registration under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act as of the effective date of this Act may, within 60 days of the effective date of this Act, apply to the Department for an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License to serve purchasers at any medical cannabis dispensing location in operation on the effective date of this Act, pursuant to this Section.

(b) A medical cannabis dispensing organization seeking issuance of an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License to serve purchasers at any medical cannabis dispensing location in operation as of the effective date of this Act shall submit an application on forms provided by the Department. The application must be submitted by the same person or entity that holds the medical cannabis dispensing organization registration and include the following:

(1) Payment of a nonrefundable fee of $30,000 to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) Proof of registration as a medical cannabis dispensing organization that is in good standing;

(3) Certification that the applicant will comply with the requirements contained in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act except as provided in this Act;

(4) The legal name of the dispensing organization;

(5) The physical address of the dispensing organization;

(6) The name, address, social security number, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the dispensing organization, each of whom must be at least 21 years of age;

(7) A nonrefundable Cannabis Business Development Fee equal to 3% of the dispensing organization's total sales between June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019, or $100,000, whichever is less, to be deposited into the Cannabis Business Development Fund; and

(8) Identification of one of the following Social Equity Inclusion Plans to be completed by March 31, 2021:

(A) Make a contribution of 3% of total sales from June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019, or $100,000, whichever is less, to the Cannabis Business Development Fund. This is in addition to the fee required by item (7) of this subsection (b);

(B) Make a grant of 3% of total sales from June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019, or $100,000, whichever is less, to a cannabis industry training or education program at an Illinois community college as defined in the Public Community College Act;

(C) Make a donation of $100,000 or more to a program that provides job training services to persons recently incarcerated or that operates in a Disproportionately Impacted Area;

(D) Participate as a host in a cannabis business establishment incubator program approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and in which an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder agrees to provide a loan of at least $100,000 and mentorship to incubate, for at least a year, a Social Equity Applicant intending to seek a license or a licensee that qualifies as a Social Equity Applicant. As used in this Section, "incubate" means providing direct financial assistance and training necessary to engage in licensed cannabis industry activity similar to that of the host licensee. The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder or the same entity holding any other licenses issued pursuant to this Act shall not take an ownership stake of greater than 10% in any business receiving incubation services to comply with this subsection. If an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder fails to find a business to incubate to comply with this subsection before its Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License expires, it may opt to meet the requirement of this subsection by completing another item from this subsection; or

(E) Participate in a sponsorship program for at least 2 years approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity in which an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder agrees to provide an interest-free loan of at least $200,000 to a Social Equity Applicant. The sponsor shall not take an ownership stake in any cannabis business establishment receiving sponsorship services to comply with this subsection.

(b-5) Beginning 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization licensee whose license was issued pursuant to this Section may apply to relocate within the same geographic district where its existing associated medical cannabis dispensing organization dispensary licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Act is authorized to operate. A request to relocate under this subsection is subject to approval by the Department. An Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization's application to relocate its license under this subsection shall be deemed approved 30 days following the submission of a complete application to relocate, unless sooner approved or denied in writing by the Department. If an application to relocate is denied, the Department shall provide, in writing, the specific reason for denial.

An Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization may request to relocate under this subsection if:

(1) its existing location is within the boundaries of a unit of local government that prohibits the sale of adult use cannabis; or

(2) the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization has obtained the approval of the municipality or, if outside the boundaries of a municipality in an unincorporated area of the county, the approval of the county where the existing license is located to move to another location within that unit of local government.

At no time may an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization dispensary licensed under this Section operate in a separate facility from its associated medical cannabis dispensing organization dispensary licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Act. The relocation of an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this subsection shall be subject to Sections 55-25 and 55-28 of this Act.

(c) The license fee required by paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section shall be in addition to any license fee required for the renewal of a registered medical cannabis dispensing organization license.

(d) Applicants must submit all required information, including the requirements in subsection (b) of this Section, to the Department. Failure by an applicant to submit all required information may result in the application being disqualified.

(e) If the Department receives an application that fails to provide the required elements contained in subsection (b), the Department shall issue a deficiency notice to the applicant. The applicant shall have 10 calendar days from the date of the deficiency notice to submit complete information. Applications that are still incomplete after this opportunity to cure may be disqualified.

(f) If an applicant meets all the requirements of subsection (b) of this Section, the Department shall issue the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License within 14 days of receiving a completed application unless:

(1) The licensee or a principal officer is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois;

(2) The Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation determines there is reason, based on documented compliance violations, the licensee is not entitled to an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License; or

(3) Any principal officer fails to register and remain in compliance with this Act or the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(g) A registered medical cannabis dispensing organization that obtains an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License may begin selling cannabis, cannabis-infused products, paraphernalia, and related items to purchasers under the rules of this Act no sooner than January 1, 2020.

(h) A dispensing organization holding a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act must maintain an adequate supply of cannabis and cannabis-infused products for purchase by qualifying patients, caregivers, provisional patients, and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants. For the purposes of this subsection, "adequate supply" means a monthly inventory level that is comparable in type and quantity to those medical cannabis products provided to patients and caregivers on an average monthly basis for the 6 months before the effective date of this Act.

(i) If there is a shortage of cannabis or cannabis-infused products or availability of pickup or drive-through options is offered under Section 15-85, a dispensing organization holding both a dispensing organization license under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act and this Act shall prioritize serving qualifying patients, caregivers, provisional patients, and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants before serving purchasers, including by offering dedicated parking or time slots for qualifying patients.

(j) Notwithstanding any law or rule to the contrary, a person that holds a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act and an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License may permit purchasers into a limited access area as that term is defined in administrative rules made under the authority in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(k) An Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License is valid until March 31, 2021. A dispensing organization that obtains an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License shall receive written or electronic notice 90 days before the expiration of the license that the license will expire, and that informs the license holder that it may apply to renew its Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License on forms provided by the Department. The Department shall renew the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License within 60 days of the renewal application being deemed complete if:

(1) the dispensing organization submits an application and the required nonrefundable renewal fee of $30,000, to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) the Department has not suspended or permanently revoked the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license on the same premises for violations of this Act, the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, or rules adopted pursuant to those Acts;

(3) the dispensing organization has completed a Social Equity Inclusion Plan as provided by parts (A), (B), and (C) of paragraph (8) of subsection (b) of this Section or has made substantial progress toward completing a Social Equity Inclusion Plan as provided by parts (D) and (E) of paragraph (8) of subsection (b) of this Section; and

(4) the dispensing organization is in compliance with this Act and rules.

(l) The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License renewed pursuant to subsection (k) of this Section shall expire March 31, 2022. The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licensee shall receive written or electronic notice 90 days before the expiration of the license that the license will expire, and that informs the license holder that it may apply for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License on forms provided by the Department. The Department shall grant an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License within 60 days of an application being deemed complete if the applicant has met all of the criteria in Section 15-36.

(m) If a dispensing organization fails to submit an application for renewal of an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License or for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License before the expiration dates provided in subsections (k) and (l) of this Section, the dispensing organization shall cease serving purchasers and cease all operations until it receives a renewal or an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, as the case may be.

(n) A dispensing organization agent who holds a valid dispensing organization agent identification card issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act and is an officer, director, manager, or employee of the dispensing organization licensed under this Section may engage in all activities authorized by this Article to be performed by a dispensing organization agent.

(o) If the Department suspends, permanently revokes, or otherwise disciplines the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License of a dispensing organization that also holds a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, the Department may consider the suspension, permanent revocation, or other discipline of the medical cannabis dispensing organization license.

(p) All fees collected pursuant to this Section shall be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund, unless otherwise specified.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-20)

Sec. 15-20. Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License; secondary site.

(a) Any medical cannabis dispensing organization holding a valid registration under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act as of the effective date of this Act may, within 60 days of the effective date of this Act, apply to the Department for an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License to operate a dispensing organization to serve purchasers at a secondary site not within 1,500 feet of another medical cannabis dispensing organization or adult use dispensing organization. The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization secondary site shall be within any BLS Region that shares territory with the dispensing organization district to which the medical cannabis dispensing organization is assigned under the administrative rules for dispensing organizations under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(a-5) If, within 360 days of the effective date of this Act, a dispensing organization is unable to find a location within the BLS Regions prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section in which to operate an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization at a secondary site because no jurisdiction within the prescribed area allows the operation of an Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may waive the geographic restrictions of subsection (a) of this Section and specify another BLS Region into which the dispensary may be placed.

(b) (Blank).

(c) A medical cannabis dispensing organization seeking issuance of an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site to serve purchasers at a secondary site as prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section shall submit an application on forms provided by the Department. The application must meet or include the following qualifications:

(1) a payment of a nonrefundable application fee of $30,000;

(2) proof of registration as a medical cannabis dispensing organization that is in good standing;

(3) submission of the application by the same person or entity that holds the medical cannabis dispensing organization registration;

(4) the legal name of the medical cannabis dispensing organization;

(5) the physical address of the medical cannabis dispensing organization and the proposed physical address of the secondary site;

(6) a copy of the current local zoning ordinance Sections relevant to dispensary operations and documentation of the approval, the conditional approval or the status of a request for zoning approval from the local zoning office that the proposed dispensary location is in compliance with the local zoning rules;

(7) a plot plan of the dispensary drawn to scale. The applicant shall submit general specifications of the building exterior and interior layout;

(8) a statement that the dispensing organization agrees to respond to the Department's supplemental requests for information;

(9) for the building or land to be used as the proposed dispensary:

(A) if the property is not owned by the applicant, a written statement from the property owner and landlord, if any, certifying consent that the applicant may operate a dispensary on the premises; or

(B) if the property is owned by the applicant, confirmation of ownership;

(10) a copy of the proposed operating bylaws;

(11) a copy of the proposed business plan that complies with the requirements in this Act, including, at a minimum, the following:

(A) a description of services to be offered; and

(B) a description of the process of dispensing cannabis;

(12) a copy of the proposed security plan that complies with the requirements in this Article, including:

(A) a description of the delivery process by which cannabis will be received from a transporting organization, including receipt of manifests and protocols that will be used to avoid diversion, theft, or loss at the dispensary acceptance point; and

(B) the process or controls that will be implemented to monitor the dispensary, secure the premises, agents, patients, and currency, and prevent the diversion, theft, or loss of cannabis; and

(C) the process to ensure that access to the restricted access areas is restricted to, registered agents, service professionals, transporting organization agents, Department inspectors, and security personnel;

(13) a proposed inventory control plan that complies with this Section;

(14) the name, address, social security number, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the dispensing organization; each of those individuals shall be at least 21 years of age;

(15) a nonrefundable Cannabis Business Development Fee equal to $200,000, to be deposited into the Cannabis Business Development Fund; and

(16) a commitment to completing one of the following Social Equity Inclusion Plans in subsection (d).

(d) Before receiving an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site, a dispensing organization shall indicate the Social Equity Inclusion Plan that the applicant plans to achieve before the expiration of the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License from the list below:

(1) make a contribution of 3% of total sales from June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019, or $100,000, whichever is less, to the Cannabis Business Development Fund. This is in addition to the fee required by paragraph (16) of subsection (c) of this Section;

(2) make a grant of 3% of total sales from June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019, or $100,000, whichever is less, to a cannabis industry training or education program at an Illinois community college as defined in the Public Community College Act;

(3) make a donation of $100,000 or more to a program that provides job training services to persons recently incarcerated or that operates in a Disproportionately Impacted Area;

(4) participate as a host in a cannabis business establishment incubator program approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and in which an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site holder agrees to provide a loan of at least $100,000 and mentorship to incubate, for at least a year, a Social Equity Applicant intending to seek a license or a licensee that qualifies as a Social Equity Applicant. In this paragraph (4), "incubate" means providing direct financial assistance and training necessary to engage in licensed cannabis industry activity similar to that of the host licensee. The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder or the same entity holding any other licenses issued under this Act shall not take an ownership stake of greater than 10% in any business receiving incubation services to comply with this subsection. If an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site holder fails to find a business to incubate in order to comply with this subsection before its Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site expires, it may opt to meet the requirement of this subsection by completing another item from this subsection before the expiration of its Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site to avoid a penalty; or

(5) participate in a sponsorship program for at least 2 years approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity in which an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site holder agrees to provide an interest-free loan of at least $200,000 to a Social Equity Applicant. The sponsor shall not take an ownership stake of greater than 10% in any business receiving sponsorship services to comply with this subsection.

(e) The license fee required by paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section is in addition to any license fee required for the renewal of a registered medical cannabis dispensing organization license.

(f) Applicants must submit all required information, including the requirements in subsection (c) of this Section, to the Department. Failure by an applicant to submit all required information may result in the application being disqualified. Principal officers shall not be required to submit to the fingerprint and background check requirements of Section 5-20.

(g) If the Department receives an application that fails to provide the required elements contained in subsection (c), the Department shall issue a deficiency notice to the applicant. The applicant shall have 10 calendar days from the date of the deficiency notice to submit complete information. Applications that are still incomplete after this opportunity to cure may be disqualified.

(h) Once all required information and documents have been submitted, the Department will review the application. The Department may request revisions and retains final approval over dispensary features. Once the application is complete and meets the Department's approval, the Department shall conditionally approve the license. Final approval is contingent on the build-out and Department inspection.

(i) Upon submission of the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization at a secondary site application, the applicant shall request an inspection and the Department may inspect the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization's secondary site to confirm compliance with the application and this Act.

(j) The Department shall only issue an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site after the completion of a successful inspection.

(k) If an applicant passes the inspection under this Section, the Department shall issue the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site within 10 business days unless:

(1) The licensee, any principal officer or board member of the licensee, or any person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or greater in the licensee is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois; or

(2) The Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation determines there is reason, based on documented compliance violations, the licensee is not entitled to an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at its secondary site.

(l) Once the Department has issued a license, the dispensing organization shall notify the Department of the proposed opening date.

(m) A registered medical cannabis dispensing organization that obtains an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site may begin selling cannabis, cannabis-infused products, paraphernalia, and related items to purchasers under the rules of this Act no sooner than January 1, 2020.

(n) If there is a shortage of cannabis or cannabis-infused products or availability of pickup or drive-through options is offered under Section 15-85, a dispensing organization holding both a dispensing organization license under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act and this Article shall prioritize serving qualifying patients and caregivers before serving purchasers, including by offering dedicated parking or time slots for qualifying patients.

(o) An Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site is valid until March 31, 2021. A dispensing organization that obtains an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site shall receive written or electronic notice 90 days before the expiration of the license that the license will expire, and inform the license holder that it may renew its Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site. The Department shall renew an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site within 60 days of submission of the renewal application being deemed complete if:

(1) the dispensing organization submits an application and the required nonrefundable renewal fee of $30,000, to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) the Department has not suspended or permanently revoked the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license held by the same person or entity for violating this Act or rules adopted under this Act or the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act or rules adopted under that Act; and

(3) the dispensing organization has completed a Social Equity Inclusion Plan provided by paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subsection (d) of this Section or has made substantial progress toward completing a Social Equity Inclusion Plan provided by paragraph (4) or (5) of subsection (d) of this Section.

(p) The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licensee at a secondary site renewed pursuant to subsection (o) shall receive written or electronic notice 90 days before the expiration of the license that the license will expire, and that informs the license holder that it may apply for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License on forms provided by the Department. The Department shall grant an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License within 60 days of an application being deemed complete if the applicant has meet all of the criteria in Section 15-36.

(q) If a dispensing organization fails to submit an application for renewal of an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License or for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License before the expiration dates provided in subsections (o) and (p) of this Section, the dispensing organization shall cease serving purchasers until it receives a renewal or an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

(r) A dispensing organization agent who holds a valid dispensing organization agent identification card issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act and is an officer, director, manager, or employee of the dispensing organization licensed under this Section may engage in all activities authorized by this Article to be performed by a dispensing organization agent.

(s) If the Department suspends, permanently revokes, or otherwise disciplines the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License of a dispensing organization that also holds a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, the Department may consider the suspension, permanent revocation, or other discipline as grounds to take disciplinary action against the medical cannabis dispensing organization.

(t) All fees collected pursuant to this Section shall be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund, unless otherwise specified.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-70)

Sec. 15-70. Operational requirements; prohibitions.

(a) A dispensing organization shall operate in accordance with the representations made in its application and license materials. It shall be in compliance with this Act and rules.

(b) A dispensing organization must include the legal name of the dispensary on the packaging of any cannabis product it sells.

(c) All cannabis, cannabis-infused products, and cannabis seeds must be obtained from an Illinois registered adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, or another dispensary.

(d) Dispensing organizations are prohibited from selling any product containing alcohol except tinctures, which must be limited to containers that are no larger than 100 milliliters.

(e) A dispensing organization shall inspect and count product received from a transporting organization, adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser organization, or other dispensing organization before dispensing it.

(f) A dispensing organization may only accept cannabis deliveries into a restricted access area. Deliveries may not be accepted through the public or limited access areas unless otherwise approved by the Department.

(g) A dispensing organization shall maintain compliance with State and local building, fire, and zoning requirements or regulations.

(h) A dispensing organization shall submit a list to the Department of the names of all service professionals that will work at the dispensary. The list shall include a description of the type of business or service provided. Changes to the service professional list shall be promptly provided. No service professional shall work in the dispensary until the name is provided to the Department on the service professional list.

(i) A dispensing organization's license allows for a dispensary to be operated only at a single location.

(j) A dispensary may operate between 6 a.m. and 10 p.m. local time.

(k) A dispensing organization must keep all lighting outside and inside the dispensary in good working order and wattage sufficient for security cameras.

(l) A dispensing organization must keep all air treatment systems that will be installed to reduce odors in good working order.

(m) A dispensing organization must contract with a private security contractor that is licensed under Section 10-5 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 to provide on-site security at all hours of the dispensary's operation.

(n) A dispensing organization shall ensure that any building or equipment used by a dispensing organization for the storage or sale of cannabis is maintained in a clean and sanitary condition.

(o) The dispensary shall be free from infestation by insects, rodents, or pests.

(p) A dispensing organization shall not:

(1) Produce or manufacture cannabis;

(2) Accept a cannabis product from an adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, dispensing organization, or transporting organization unless it is pre-packaged and labeled in accordance with this Act and any rules that may be adopted pursuant to this Act;

(3) Obtain cannabis or cannabis-infused products from outside the State of Illinois;

(4) Sell cannabis or cannabis-infused products to a purchaser unless the dispensing organization is licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, and the individual is registered under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program or the purchaser has been verified to be 21 years of age or older;

(5) Enter into an exclusive agreement with any adult use cultivation center, craft grower, or infuser. Dispensaries shall provide consumers an assortment of products from various cannabis business establishment licensees such that the inventory available for sale at any dispensary from any single cultivation center, craft grower, processor, transporter, or infuser entity shall not be more than 40% of the total inventory available for sale. For the purpose of this subsection, a cultivation center, craft grower, processor, or infuser shall be considered part of the same entity if the licensees share at least one principal officer. The Department may request that a dispensary diversify its products as needed or otherwise discipline a dispensing organization for violating this requirement;

(6) Refuse to conduct business with an adult use cultivation center, craft grower, transporting organization, or infuser that has the ability to properly deliver the product and is permitted by the Department of Agriculture, on the same terms as other adult use cultivation centers, craft growers, infusers, or transporters with whom it is dealing;

(7) (Blank); Operate drive-through windows;

(8) Allow for the dispensing of cannabis or cannabis-infused products in vending machines;

(9) Transport cannabis to residences or transport cannabis to other locations where purchasers may be for delivery, except for the limited circumstances provided in paragraph (5.5) of subsection (c) of Section 15-100;

(10) Enter into agreements to allow persons who are not dispensing organization agents to deliver cannabis or to transport cannabis to purchasers;

(11) Operate a dispensary if its video surveillance equipment is inoperative;

(12) Operate a dispensary if the point-of-sale equipment is inoperative;

(13) Operate a dispensary if the State's cannabis electronic verification system is inoperative;

(14) Have fewer than 2 people working at the dispensary at any time while the dispensary is open;

(15) Be located within 1,500 feet of the property line of a pre-existing dispensing organization, unless the applicant is a Social Equity Applicant or Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant located or seeking to locate within 1,500 feet of a dispensing organization licensed under Section 15-15 or Section 15-20;

(16) Sell clones or any other live plant material;

(17) Sell cannabis, cannabis concentrate, or cannabis-infused products in combination or bundled with each other or any other items for one price, and each item of cannabis, concentrate, or cannabis-infused product must be separately identified by quantity and price on the receipt;

(18) Violate any other requirements or prohibitions set by Department rules.

(q) It is unlawful for any person having an Early Approval Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act or any officer, associate, member, representative, or agent of such licensee to accept, receive, or borrow money or anything else of value or accept or receive credit (other than merchandising credit in the ordinary course of business for a period not to exceed 30 days) directly or indirectly from any adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, or transporting organization in exchange for preferential placement on the dispensing organization's shelves, display cases, or website. This includes anything received or borrowed or from any stockholders, officers, agents, or persons connected with an adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, or transporting organization.

(r) It is unlawful for any person having an Early Approval Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program to enter into any contract with any person licensed to cultivate, process, or transport cannabis whereby such dispensing organization agrees not to sell any cannabis cultivated, processed, transported, manufactured, or distributed by any other cultivator, transporter, or infuser, and any provision in any contract violative of this Section shall render the whole of such contract void and no action shall be brought thereon in any court.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-85)

Sec. 15-85. Dispensing cannabis.

(a) Before a dispensing organization agent dispenses cannabis to a purchaser, the agent shall:

(1) Verify the age of the purchaser by checking a government-issued identification card by use of an electronic reader or electronic scanning device to scan a purchaser's government-issued identification, if applicable, to determine the purchaser's age and the validity of the identification;

(2) Verify the validity of the government-issued identification card by use of an electronic reader or electronic scanning device to scan a purchaser's government-issued identification, if applicable, to determine the purchaser's age and the validity of the identification;

(3) Offer any appropriate purchaser education or support materials;

(4) Enter the following information into the State's cannabis electronic verification system:

(i) The dispensing organization agent's identification number, or if the agent's card application is pending the Department's approval, a temporary and unique identifier until the agent's card application is approved or denied by the Department;

(ii) The dispensing organization's identification number;

(iii) The amount, type (including strain, if applicable) of cannabis or cannabis-infused product dispensed;

(iv) The date and time the cannabis was dispensed.

(b) A dispensing organization shall refuse to sell cannabis or cannabis-infused products to any person unless the person produces a valid identification showing that the person is 21 years of age or older. A medical cannabis dispensing organization may sell cannabis or cannabis-infused products to a person who is under 21 years of age if the sale complies with the provisions of the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act and rules.

(c) For the purposes of this Section, valid identification must:

(1) Be valid and unexpired;

(2) Contain a photograph and the date of birth of the person.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a dispensing organization may offer pickup or drive-through locations of cannabis or cannabis-infused products in accordance with Section 15-100.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-100)

Sec. 15-100. Security.

(a) A dispensing organization shall implement security measures to deter and prevent entry into and theft of cannabis or currency.

(b) A dispensing organization shall submit any changes to the floor plan or security plan to the Department for pre-approval. All cannabis shall be maintained and stored in a restricted access area during construction.

(c) The dispensing organization shall implement security measures to protect the premises, purchasers, and dispensing organization agents including, but not limited to the following:

(1) Establish a locked door or barrier between the facility's entrance and the limited access area;

(2) Prevent individuals from remaining on the premises if they are not engaging in activity permitted by this Act or rules;

(3) Develop a policy that addresses the maximum capacity and purchaser flow in the waiting rooms and limited access areas;

(4) Dispose of cannabis in accordance with this Act and rules;

(5) During hours of operation, store and dispense all cannabis in from the restricted access area. During operational hours, cannabis shall be stored in an enclosed locked room or cabinet and accessible only to specifically authorized dispensing organization agents;

(5.5) During hours of operation, dispense all cannabis from the restricted access area, a drive-through window of the restricted access area, or a pickup location in close proximity to the restricted access area. All orders in a pickup or drive-through location must be placed in advance. No in-person or on-site ordering is permitted for a pickup or drive-through location. Dispensing organizations shall confirm that the purchaser, registered qualifying patient, or designated caregiver complies with Section 15-85. For purposes of this paragraph, "close proximity" means an area contiguous to the real property of the dispensary, such as a sidewalk or parking lot;

(6) When the dispensary is closed, store all cannabis and currency in a reinforced vault room in the restricted access area and in a manner as to prevent diversion, theft, or loss;

(7) Keep the reinforced vault room and any other equipment or cannabis storage areas securely locked and protected from unauthorized entry;

(8) Keep an electronic daily log of dispensing organization agents with access to the reinforced vault room and knowledge of the access code or combination;

(9) Keep all locks and security equipment in good working order;

(10) Maintain an operational security and alarm system at all times;

(11) Prohibit keys, if applicable, from being left in the locks, or stored or placed in a location accessible to persons other than specifically authorized personnel;

(12) Prohibit accessibility of security measures, including combination numbers, passwords, or electronic or biometric security systems to persons other than specifically authorized dispensing organization agents;

(13) Ensure that the dispensary interior and exterior premises are sufficiently lit to facilitate surveillance;

(14) Ensure that trees, bushes, and other foliage outside of the dispensary premises do not allow for a person or persons to conceal themselves from sight;

(15) Develop emergency policies and procedures for securing all product and currency following any instance of diversion, theft, or loss of cannabis, and conduct an assessment to determine whether additional safeguards are necessary; and

(16) Develop sufficient additional safeguards in response to any special security concerns, or as required by the Department.

(d) The Department may request or approve alternative security provisions that it determines are an adequate substitute for a security requirement specified in this Article. Any additional protections may be considered by the Department in evaluating overall security measures.

(e) A dispensing organization may share premises with a craft grower or an infuser organization, or both, provided each licensee stores currency and cannabis or cannabis-infused products in a separate secured vault to which the other licensee does not have access or all licensees sharing a vault share more than 50% of the same ownership.

(f) A dispensing organization shall provide additional security as needed and in a manner appropriate for the community where it operates.

(g) Restricted access areas.

(1) All restricted access areas must be identified by the posting of a sign that is a minimum of 12 inches by 12 inches and that states "Do Not Enter - Restricted Access Area - Authorized Personnel Only" in lettering no smaller than one inch in height.

(2) All restricted access areas shall be clearly described in the floor plan of the premises, in the form and manner determined by the Department, reflecting walls, partitions, counters, and all areas of entry and exit. The floor plan shall show all storage, disposal, and retail sales areas.

(3) All restricted access areas must be secure, with locking devices that prevent access from the limited access areas.

(h) Security and alarm.

(1) A dispensing organization shall have an adequate security plan and security system to prevent and detect diversion, theft, or loss of cannabis, currency, or unauthorized intrusion using commercial grade equipment installed by an Illinois licensed private alarm contractor or private alarm contractor agency that shall, at a minimum, include:

(i) A perimeter alarm on all entry points and glass break protection on perimeter windows;

(ii) Security shatterproof tinted film on exterior windows;

(iii) A failure notification system that provides an audible, text, or visual notification of any failure in the surveillance system, including, but not limited to, panic buttons, alarms, and video monitoring system. The failure notification system shall provide an alert to designated dispensing organization agents within 5 minutes after the failure, either by telephone or text message;

(iv) A duress alarm, panic button, and alarm, or holdup alarm and after-hours intrusion detection alarm that by design and purpose will directly or indirectly notify, by the most efficient means, the Public Safety Answering Point for the law enforcement agency having primary jurisdiction;

(v) Security equipment to deter and prevent unauthorized entrance into the dispensary, including electronic door locks on the limited and restricted access areas that include devices or a series of devices to detect unauthorized intrusion that may include a signal system interconnected with a radio frequency method, cellular, private radio signals or other mechanical or electronic device.

(2) All security system equipment and recordings shall be maintained in good working order, in a secure location so as to prevent theft, loss, destruction, or alterations.

(3) Access to surveillance monitoring recording equipment shall be limited to persons who are essential to surveillance operations, law enforcement authorities acting within their jurisdiction, security system service personnel, and the Department. A current list of authorized dispensing organization agents and service personnel that have access to the surveillance equipment must be available to the Department upon request.

(4) All security equipment shall be inspected and tested at regular intervals, not to exceed one month from the previous inspection, and tested to ensure the systems remain functional.

(5) The security system shall provide protection against theft and diversion that is facilitated or hidden by tampering with computers or electronic records.

(6) The dispensary shall ensure all access doors are not solely controlled by an electronic access panel to ensure that locks are not released during a power outage.

(i) To monitor the dispensary, the dispensing organization shall incorporate continuous electronic video monitoring including the following:

(1) All monitors must be 19 inches or greater;

(2) Unobstructed video surveillance of all enclosed dispensary areas, unless prohibited by law, including all points of entry and exit that shall be appropriate for the normal lighting conditions of the area under surveillance. The cameras shall be directed so all areas are captured, including, but not limited to, safes, vaults, sales areas, and areas where cannabis is stored, handled, dispensed, or destroyed. Cameras shall be angled to allow for facial recognition, the capture of clear and certain identification of any person entering or exiting the dispensary area and in lighting sufficient during all times of night or day;

(3) Unobstructed video surveillance of outside areas, the storefront, and the parking lot, that shall be appropriate for the normal lighting conditions of the area under surveillance. Cameras shall be angled so as to allow for the capture of facial recognition, clear and certain identification of any person entering or exiting the dispensary and the immediate surrounding area, and license plates of vehicles in the parking lot;

(4) 24-hour recordings from all video cameras available for immediate viewing by the Department upon request. Recordings shall not be destroyed or altered and shall be retained for at least 90 days. Recordings shall be retained as long as necessary if the dispensing organization is aware of the loss or theft of cannabis or a pending criminal, civil, or administrative investigation or legal proceeding for which the recording may contain relevant information;

(5) The ability to immediately produce a clear, color still photo from the surveillance video, either live or recorded;

(6) A date and time stamp embedded on all video surveillance recordings. The date and time shall be synchronized and set correctly and shall not significantly obscure the picture;

(7) The ability to remain operational during a power outage and ensure all access doors are not solely controlled by an electronic access panel to ensure that locks are not released during a power outage;

(8) All video surveillance equipment shall allow for the exporting of still images in an industry standard image format, including .jpg, .bmp, and .gif. Exported video shall have the ability to be archived in a proprietary format that ensures authentication of the video and guarantees that no alteration of the recorded image has taken place. Exported video shall also have the ability to be saved in an industry standard file format that can be played on a standard computer operating system. All recordings shall be erased or destroyed before disposal;

(9) The video surveillance system shall be operational during a power outage with a 4-hour minimum battery backup;

(10) A video camera or cameras recording at each point-of-sale location allowing for the identification of the dispensing organization agent distributing the cannabis and any purchaser. The camera or cameras shall capture the sale, the individuals and the computer monitors used for the sale;

(11) A failure notification system that provides an audible and visual notification of any failure in the electronic video monitoring system; and

(12) All electronic video surveillance monitoring must record at least the equivalent of 8 frames per second and be available as recordings to the Department and the Illinois State Police 24 hours a day via a secure web-based portal with reverse functionality.

(j) The requirements contained in this Act are minimum requirements for operating a dispensing organization. The Department may establish additional requirements by rule.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

Article 4.

Section 4-5. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 85, 105, 115, and 120 and by adding Section 103 as follows:

(410 ILCS 130/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. The following terms, as used in this Act, shall have the meanings set forth in this Section:

(a) "Adequate supply" means:

(1) 2.5 ounces of usable cannabis during a period of 14 days and that is derived solely from an intrastate source.

(2) Subject to the rules of the Department of Public Health, a patient may apply for a waiver where a certifying health care professional provides a substantial medical basis in a signed, written statement asserting that, based on the patient's medical history, in the certifying health care professional's professional judgment, 2.5 ounces is an insufficient adequate supply for a 14-day period to properly alleviate the patient's debilitating medical condition or symptoms associated with the debilitating medical condition.

(3) This subsection may not be construed to authorize the possession of more than 2.5 ounces at any time without authority from the Department of Public Health.

(4) The pre-mixed weight of medical cannabis used in making a cannabis infused product shall apply toward the limit on the total amount of medical cannabis a registered qualifying patient may possess at any one time.

(a-5) "Advanced practice registered nurse" means a person who is licensed under the Nurse Practice Act as an advanced practice registered nurse and has a controlled substances license under Article III of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(b) "Cannabis" has the meaning given that term in Section 3 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(c) "Cannabis plant monitoring system" means a system that includes, but is not limited to, testing and data collection established and maintained by the registered cultivation center and available to the Department for the purposes of documenting each cannabis plant and for monitoring plant development throughout the life cycle of a cannabis plant cultivated for the intended use by a qualifying patient from seed planting to final packaging.

(d) "Cardholder" means a qualifying patient or a designated caregiver who has been issued and possesses a valid registry identification card by the Department of Public Health.

(d-5) "Certifying health care professional" means a physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant.

(e) "Cultivation center" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is registered by the Department of Agriculture to perform necessary activities to provide only registered medical cannabis dispensing organizations with usable medical cannabis.

(f) "Cultivation center agent" has the same meaning as "cultivation center agent" under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act means a principal officer, board member, employee, or agent of a registered cultivation center who is 21 years of age or older and has not been convicted of an excluded offense.

(g) "Cultivation center agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a cultivation center agent.

(h) "Debilitating medical condition" means one or more of the following:

(1) cancer, glaucoma, positive status for human immunodeficiency virus, acquired immune deficiency syndrome, hepatitis C, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, Crohn's disease (including, but not limited to, ulcerative colitis), agitation of Alzheimer's disease, cachexia/wasting syndrome, muscular dystrophy, severe fibromyalgia, spinal cord disease, including but not limited to arachnoiditis, Tarlov cysts, hydromyelia, syringomyelia, Rheumatoid arthritis, fibrous dysplasia, spinal cord injury, traumatic brain injury and post-concussion syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, Arnold-Chiari malformation and Syringomyelia, Spinocerebellar Ataxia (SCA), Parkinson's, Tourette's, Myoclonus, Dystonia, Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy, RSD (Complex Regional Pain Syndromes Type I), Causalgia, CRPS (Complex Regional Pain Syndromes Type II), Neurofibromatosis, Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy, Sjogren's syndrome, Lupus, Interstitial Cystitis, Myasthenia Gravis, Hydrocephalus, nail-patella syndrome, residual limb pain, seizures (including those characteristic of epilepsy), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), autism, chronic pain, irritable bowel syndrome, migraines, osteoarthritis, anorexia nervosa, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, Neuro-Behcet's Autoimmune Disease, neuropathy, polycystic kidney disease, superior canal dehiscence syndrome, or the treatment of these conditions;

(1.5) terminal illness with a diagnosis of 6 months or less; if the terminal illness is not one of the qualifying debilitating medical conditions, then the certifying health care professional shall on the certification form identify the cause of the terminal illness; or

(2) any other debilitating medical condition or its treatment that is added by the Department of Public Health by rule as provided in Section 45.

(i) "Designated caregiver" means a person who: (1) is at least 21 years of age; (2) has agreed to assist with a patient's medical use of cannabis; (3) has not been convicted of an excluded offense; and (4) assists no more than one registered qualifying patient with his or her medical use of cannabis.

(j) "Dispensing organization agent identification card" has the same meaning as "dispensing organization agent identification card" under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act means a document issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that identifies a person as a medical cannabis dispensing organization agent.

(k) "Enclosed, locked facility" means a room, greenhouse, building, or other enclosed area equipped with locks or other security devices that permit access only by a cultivation center's agents or a dispensing organization's agent working for the registered cultivation center or the registered dispensing organization to cultivate, store, and distribute cannabis for registered qualifying patients.

(l) (Blank). "Excluded offense" for cultivation center agents and dispensing organizations means:

(1) a violent crime defined in Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act or a substantially similar offense that was classified as a felony in the jurisdiction where the person was convicted; or

(2) a violation of a state or federal controlled substance law, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act that was classified as a felony in the jurisdiction where the person was convicted, except that the registering Department may waive this restriction if the person demonstrates to the registering Department's satisfaction that his or her conviction was for the possession, cultivation, transfer, or delivery of a reasonable amount of cannabis intended for medical use. This exception does not apply if the conviction was under state law and involved a violation of an existing medical cannabis law.

For purposes of this subsection, the Department of Public Health shall determine by emergency rule within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly what constitutes a "reasonable amount".

(l-5) (Blank).

(l-10) "Illinois Cannabis Tracking System" means a web-based system established and maintained by the Department of Public Health that is available to the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Illinois State Police, and registered medical cannabis dispensing organizations on a 24-hour basis to upload written certifications for Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants, to verify Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants, to verify Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants' available cannabis allotment and assigned dispensary, and the tracking of the date of sale, amount, and price of medical cannabis purchased by an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant.

(m) "Medical cannabis cultivation center registration" means a registration issued by the Department of Agriculture.

(n) "Medical cannabis container" means a sealed, traceable, food compliant, tamper resistant, tamper evident container, or package used for the purpose of containment of medical cannabis from a cultivation center to a dispensing organization.

(o) "Medical cannabis dispensing organization", or "dispensing organization", or "dispensary organization" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is registered by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation to acquire medical cannabis from a registered cultivation center for the purpose of dispensing cannabis, paraphernalia, or related supplies and educational materials to registered qualifying patients, individuals with a provisional registration for qualifying patient cardholder status, or an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant.

(p) "Dispensing Medical cannabis dispensing organization agent" or "dispensing organization agent" has the same meaning as "dispensing organization agent" under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act means a principal officer, board member, employee, or agent of a registered medical cannabis dispensing organization who is 21 years of age or older and has not been convicted of an excluded offense.

(q) "Medical cannabis infused product" means food, oils, ointments, or other products containing usable cannabis that are not smoked.

(r) "Medical use" means the acquisition; administration; delivery; possession; transfer; transportation; or use of cannabis to treat or alleviate a registered qualifying patient's debilitating medical condition or symptoms associated with the patient's debilitating medical condition.

(r-5) "Opioid" means a narcotic drug or substance that is a Schedule II controlled substance under paragraph (1), (2), (3), or (5) of subsection (b) or under subsection (c) of Section 206 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(r-10) "Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant" means an individual who has received a valid written certification to participate in the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program for a medical condition for which an opioid has been or could be prescribed by a certifying health care professional based on generally accepted standards of care.

(s) "Physician" means a doctor of medicine or doctor of osteopathy licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine and who has a controlled substances license under Article III of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. It does not include a licensed practitioner under any other Act including but not limited to the Illinois Dental Practice Act.

(s-1) "Physician assistant" means a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 and who has a controlled substances license under Article III of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(s-5) "Provisional registration" means a document issued by the Department of Public Health to a qualifying patient who has submitted: (1) an online application and paid a fee to participate in Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program pending approval or denial of the patient's application; or (2) a completed application for terminal illness.

(t) "Qualifying patient" means a person who has been diagnosed by a certifying health care professional as having a debilitating medical condition.

(u) "Registered" means licensed, permitted, or otherwise certified by the Department of Agriculture, Department of Public Health, or Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(v) "Registry identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Public Health that identifies a person as a registered qualifying patient or registered designated caregiver.

(w) "Usable cannabis" means the seeds, leaves, buds, and flowers of the cannabis plant and any mixture or preparation thereof, but does not include the stalks, and roots of the plant. It does not include the weight of any non-cannabis ingredients combined with cannabis, such as ingredients added to prepare a topical administration, food, or drink.

(x) "Verification system" means a Web-based system established and maintained by the Department of Public Health that is available to the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, law enforcement personnel, and registered medical cannabis dispensing organization agents on a 24-hour basis for the verification of registry identification cards, the tracking of delivery of medical cannabis to medical cannabis dispensing organizations, and the tracking of the date of sale, amount, and price of medical cannabis purchased by a registered qualifying patient.

(y) "Written certification" means a document dated and signed by a certifying health care professional, stating (1) that the qualifying patient has a debilitating medical condition and specifying the debilitating medical condition the qualifying patient has; and (2) that (A) the certifying health care professional is treating or managing treatment of the patient's debilitating medical condition; or (B) an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant has a medical condition for which opioids have been or could be prescribed. A written certification shall be made only in the course of a bona fide health care professional-patient relationship, after the certifying health care professional has completed an assessment of either a qualifying patient's medical history or Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant, reviewed relevant records related to the patient's debilitating condition, and conducted a physical examination.

(z) "Bona fide health care professional-patient relationship" means a relationship established at a hospital, certifying health care professional's office, or other health care facility in which the certifying health care professional has an ongoing responsibility for the assessment, care, and treatment of a patient's debilitating medical condition or a symptom of the patient's debilitating medical condition.

A veteran who has received treatment at a VA hospital shall be deemed to have a bona fide health care professional-patient relationship with a VA certifying health care professional if the patient has been seen for his or her debilitating medical condition at the VA Hospital in accordance with VA Hospital protocols.

A bona fide health care professional-patient relationship under this subsection is a privileged communication within the meaning of Section 8-802 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18; 101-363, eff. 8-9-19.)

(410 ILCS 130/85)

Sec. 85. Issuance and denial of medical cannabis cultivation permit.

(a) The Department of Agriculture may register up to 22 cultivation center registrations for operation. The Department of Agriculture may not issue more than one registration per each Illinois State Police District boundary as specified on the date of January 1, 2013. The Department of Agriculture may not issue less than the 22 registrations if there are qualified applicants who have applied with the Department.

(b) The registrations shall be issued and renewed annually as determined by administrative rule.

(c) The Department of Agriculture shall determine a registration fee by rule.

(d) A cultivation center may only operate if it has been issued a valid registration from the Department of Agriculture. When applying for a cultivation center registration, the applicant shall submit the following in accordance with Department of Agriculture rules:

(1) the proposed legal name of the cultivation center;

(2) the proposed physical address of the cultivation center and description of the enclosed, locked facility as it applies to cultivation centers where medical cannabis will be grown, harvested, manufactured, packaged, or otherwise prepared for distribution to a dispensing organization;

(3) the name, address, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the cultivation center, provided that all those individuals shall be at least 21 years of age;

(4) any instance in which a business that any of the prospective board members of the cultivation center had managed or served on the board of the business and was convicted, fined, censured, or had a registration or license suspended or revoked in any administrative or judicial proceeding;

(5) cultivation, inventory, and packaging plans;

(6) proposed operating by-laws that include procedures for the oversight of the cultivation center, development and implementation of a plant monitoring system, medical cannabis container tracking system, accurate record keeping, staffing plan, and security plan reviewed by the Illinois State Police that are in accordance with the rules issued by the Department of Agriculture under this Act. A physical inventory shall be performed of all plants and medical cannabis containers on a weekly basis;

(7) experience with agricultural cultivation techniques and industry standards;

(8) any academic degrees, certifications, or relevant experience with related businesses;

(9) the identity of every person, association, trust, or corporation having any direct or indirect pecuniary interest in the cultivation center operation with respect to which the registration is sought. If the disclosed entity is a trust, the application shall disclose the names and addresses of the beneficiaries; if a corporation, the names and addresses of all stockholders and directors; if a partnership, the names and addresses of all partners, both general and limited;

(10) verification from the Illinois State Police that all background checks of the principal officer, board members, and registered agents have been conducted and those individuals have not been convicted of an excluded offense;

(11) provide a copy of the current local zoning ordinance to the Department of Agriculture and verify that proposed cultivation center is in compliance with the local zoning rules issued in accordance with Section 140;

(12) an application fee set by the Department of Agriculture by rule; and

(13) any other information required by Department of Agriculture rules, including, but not limited to a cultivation center applicant's experience with the cultivation of agricultural or horticultural products, operating an agriculturally related business, or operating a horticultural business.

(e) An application for a cultivation center permit must be denied if any of the following conditions are met:

(1) the applicant failed to submit the materials required by this Section, including if the applicant's plans do not satisfy the security, oversight, inventory, or recordkeeping rules issued by the Department of Agriculture;

(2) the applicant would not be in compliance with local zoning rules issued in accordance with Section 140;

(3) (blank) one or more of the prospective principal officers or board members has been convicted of an excluded offense;

(4) one or more of the prospective principal officers or board members has served as a principal officer or board member for a registered dispensing organization or cultivation center that has had its registration revoked;

(5) one or more of the principal officers or board members is under 21 years of age;

(6) (blank) a principal officer or board member of the cultivation center has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State, any other state, or the United States;

(7) (blank) a principal officer or board member of the cultivation center has been convicted of any violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or substantially similar laws of any other jurisdiction; or

(8) the person has submitted an application for a certificate under this Act which contains false information.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(410 ILCS 130/103 new)

Sec. 103. Cultivation center agent identification cards and dispensing organization agent identification cards.

(a) The Department of Agriculture shall follow the requirements set forth in Section 20-35 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act regarding the issuance and administration of cultivation center agent identification cards under this Act.

(b) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall follow the requirements set forth in Section 15-40 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act regarding the issuance and administration of dispensing organization agent identification cards under this Act.

(410 ILCS 130/105)

Sec. 105. Requirements; prohibitions; penalties for cultivation centers.

(a) The operating documents of a registered cultivation center shall include procedures for the oversight of the cultivation center, a cannabis plant monitoring system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, a cannabis container system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, accurate record keeping, and a staffing plan.

(b) A registered cultivation center shall implement a security plan reviewed by the Illinois State Police and including but not limited to: facility access controls, perimeter intrusion detection systems, personnel identification systems, 24-hour surveillance system to monitor the interior and exterior of the registered cultivation center facility and accessible to authorized law enforcement and the Department of Agriculture in real-time.

(c) A registered cultivation center may not be located within 2,500 feet of the property line of a pre-existing public or private preschool or elementary or secondary school or day care center, day care home, group day care home, part day child care facility, or an area zoned for residential use.

(d) All cultivation of cannabis for distribution to a registered dispensing organization must take place in an enclosed, locked facility as it applies to cultivation centers at the physical address provided to the Department of Agriculture during the registration process. The cultivation center location shall only be accessed by the cultivation center agents working for the registered cultivation center, Department of Agriculture staff performing inspections, Department of Public Health staff performing inspections, law enforcement or other emergency personnel, and contractors working on jobs unrelated to medical cannabis, such as installing or maintaining security devices or performing electrical wiring.

(e) A cultivation center may not sell or distribute any cannabis to any individual or entity other than another cultivation center, a dispensing organization registered under this Act, or a laboratory licensed by the Department of Agriculture.

(f) All harvested cannabis intended for distribution to a dispensing organization must be packaged in a labeled medical cannabis container and entered into a data collection system.

(g) (Blank). No person who has been convicted of an excluded offense may be a cultivation center agent.

(h) Registered cultivation centers are subject to random inspection by the Illinois State Police.

(i) Registered cultivation centers are subject to random inspections by the Department of Agriculture and the Department of Public Health.

(j) A cultivation center agent shall notify local law enforcement, the Illinois State Police, and the Department of Agriculture within 24 hours of the discovery of any loss or theft. Notification shall be made by phone or in-person, or by written or electronic communication.

(k) A cultivation center shall comply with all State and federal rules and regulations regarding the use of pesticides.

(Source: P.A. 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(410 ILCS 130/115)

Sec. 115. Registration of dispensing organizations.

(a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may issue up to 60 dispensing organization registrations for operation. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may not issue less than the 60 registrations if there are qualified applicants who have applied with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The organizations shall be geographically dispersed throughout the State to allow all registered qualifying patients reasonable proximity and access to a dispensing organization.

(a-5) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall adopt rules to create a registration process for Social Equity Justice Involved Applicants and Qualifying Applicants, a streamlined application, and a Social Equity Justice Involved Medical Lottery under Section 115.5 to issue the remaining available 5 dispensing organization registrations for operation. For purposes of this Section:

"Disproportionately Impacted Area" means a census tract or comparable geographic area that satisfies the following criteria as determined by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, that:

(1) meets at least one of the following criteria:

(A) the area has a poverty rate of at least 20% according to the latest federal decennial census; or

(B) 75% or more of the children in the area participate in the federal free lunch program according to reported statistics from the State Board of Education; or

(C) at least 20% of the households in the area receive assistance under the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program; or

(D) the area has an average unemployment rate, as determined by the Illinois Department of Employment Security, that is more than 120% of the national unemployment average, as determined by the United States Department of Labor, for a period of at least 2 consecutive calendar years preceding the date of the application; and

(2) has high rates of arrest, conviction, and incarceration related to sale, possession, use, cultivation, manufacture, or transport of cannabis.

"Qualifying Applicant" means an applicant that: (i) submitted an application pursuant to Section 15-30 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act that received at least 85% of 250 application points available under Section 15-30 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act as the applicant's final score; (ii) received points at the conclusion of the scoring process for meeting the definition of a "Social Equity Applicant" as set forth under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act; and (iii) is an applicant that did not receive a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License through a Qualifying Applicant Lottery pursuant to Section 15-35 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or any Tied Applicant Lottery conducted under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.

"Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant" means an applicant that is an Illinois resident and one of the following:

(1) an applicant with at least 51% ownership and control by one or more individuals who have resided for at least 5 of the preceding 10 years in a Disproportionately Impacted Area;

(2) an applicant with at least 51% of ownership and control by one or more individuals who have been arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement under subsection (i) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act; or

(3) an applicant with at least 51% ownership and control by one or more members of an impacted family.

(b) A dispensing organization may only operate if it has been issued a registration from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall adopt rules establishing the procedures for applicants for dispensing organizations.

(c) When applying for a dispensing organization registration, the applicant shall submit, at a minimum, the following in accordance with Department of Financial and Professional Regulation rules:

(1) a non-refundable application fee established by rule;

(2) the proposed legal name of the dispensing organization;

(3) the proposed physical address of the dispensing organization;

(4) the name, address, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the dispensing organization, provided that all those individuals shall be at least 21 years of age;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank); and

(7) (blank).

(d) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall conduct a background check of the prospective dispensing organization agents in order to carry out this Section. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. Each person applying as a dispensing organization agent shall submit a full set of fingerprints to the Department of State Police for the purpose of obtaining a State and federal criminal records check. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter, to the extent allowed by law, filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Department of State Police shall furnish, following positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(e) A dispensing organization must pay a registration fee set by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(f) An application for a medical cannabis dispensing organization registration must be denied if any of the following conditions are met:

(1) the applicant failed to submit the materials required by this Section, including if the applicant's plans do not satisfy the security, oversight, or recordkeeping rules issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation;

(2) the applicant would not be in compliance with local zoning rules issued in accordance with Section 140;

(3) the applicant does not meet the requirements of Section 130;

(4) (blank); one or more of the prospective principal officers or board members has been convicted of an excluded offense;

(5) one or more of the prospective principal officers or board members has served as a principal officer or board member for a registered medical cannabis dispensing organization that has had its registration revoked; and

(6) one or more of the principal officers or board members is under 21 years of age.

(Source: P.A. 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21.)

(410 ILCS 130/120)

Sec. 120. Dispensing organization agent identification card.

(a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall:

(1) verify the information contained in an application or renewal for a dispensing organization agent identification card submitted under this Act, and approve or deny an application or renewal, within 30 days of receiving a completed application or renewal application and all supporting documentation required by rule;

(2) issue a dispensing organization agent identification card to a qualifying agent within 15 business days of approving the application or renewal;

(3) enter the registry identification number of the dispensing organization where the agent works; and

(4) allow for an electronic application process, and provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that an application has been submitted.

(b) A dispensing agent must keep his or her identification card visible at all times when on the property of a dispensing organization.

(c) The dispensing organization agent identification cards shall contain the following:

(1) the name of the cardholder;

(2) the date of issuance and expiration date of the dispensing organization agent identification cards;

(3) a random 10 digit alphanumeric identification number containing at least 4 numbers and at least 4 letters; that is unique to the holder; and

(4) a photograph of the cardholder.

(d) The dispensing organization agent identification cards shall be immediately returned to the dispensing organization upon termination of employment.

(e) Any card lost by a dispensing organization agent shall be reported to the Illinois State Police and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation immediately upon discovery of the loss.

(f) (Blank). An applicant shall be denied a dispensing organization agent identification card if he or she has been convicted of an excluded offense.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1172, eff. 1-12-15.)

(410 ILCS 130/100 rep.)

Section 4-10. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act is amended by repealing Section 100.

Section 4-15. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Section 15-40 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/15-40)

Sec. 15-40. Dispensing organization agent identification card; agent training.

(a) The Department shall:

(1) verify the information contained in an application or renewal for a dispensing organization agent identification card submitted under this Article, and approve or deny an application or renewal, within 30 days of receiving a completed application or renewal application and all supporting documentation required by rule;

(2) issue a dispensing organization agent identification card to a qualifying agent within 15 business days of approving the application or renewal;

(3) enter the registry identification number of the dispensing organization where the agent works;

(4) within one year from the effective date of this Act, allow for an electronic application process and provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that an application has been submitted; and

(5) collect a $100 nonrefundable fee from the applicant to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund.

(b) A dispensing organization agent must keep his or her identification card visible at all times when in the dispensary.

(c) The dispensing organization agent identification cards shall contain the following:

(1) the name of the cardholder;

(2) the date of issuance and expiration date of the dispensing organization agent identification cards;

(3) a random 10-digit alphanumeric identification number containing at least 4 numbers and at least 4 letters that is unique to the cardholder; and

(4) a photograph of the cardholder.

(d) The dispensing organization agent identification cards shall be immediately returned to the dispensing organization upon termination of employment.

(e) The Department shall not issue an agent identification card if the applicant is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois.

(f) Any card lost by a dispensing organization agent shall be reported to the Illinois State Police and the Department immediately upon discovery of the loss.

(g) An applicant shall be denied a dispensing organization agent identification card renewal if he or she fails to complete the training provided for in this Section.

(h) A dispensing organization agent shall only be required to hold one card for the same employer regardless of what type of dispensing organization license the employer holds.

(i) Cannabis retail sales training requirements.

(1) Within 90 days of September 1, 2019, or 90 days of employment, whichever is later, all owners, managers, employees, and agents involved in the handling or sale of cannabis or cannabis-infused product employed by an adult use dispensing organization or medical cannabis dispensing organization as defined in Section 10 of the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act shall attend and successfully complete a Responsible Vendor Program.

(2) Each owner, manager, employee, and agent of an adult use dispensing organization or medical cannabis dispensing organization shall successfully complete the program annually.

(3) Responsible Vendor Program Training modules shall include at least 2 hours of instruction time approved by the Department including:

(i) Health and safety concerns of cannabis use, including the responsible use of cannabis, its physical effects, onset of physiological effects, recognizing signs of impairment, and appropriate responses in the event of overconsumption.

(ii) Training on laws and regulations on driving while under the influence and operating a watercraft or snowmobile while under the influence.

(iii) Sales to minors prohibition. Training shall cover all relevant Illinois laws and rules.

(iv) Quantity limitations on sales to purchasers. Training shall cover all relevant Illinois laws and rules.

(v) Acceptable forms of identification. Training shall include:

(I) How to check identification; and

(II) Common mistakes made in verification;

(vi) Safe storage of cannabis;

(vii) Compliance with all inventory tracking system regulations;

(viii) Waste handling, management, and disposal;

(ix) Health and safety standards;

(x) Maintenance of records;

(xi) Security and surveillance requirements;

(xii) Permitting inspections by State and local licensing and enforcement authorities;

(xiii) Privacy issues;

(xiv) Packaging and labeling requirement for sales to purchasers; and

(xv) Other areas as determined by rule.

(j) Blank.

(k) Upon the successful completion of the Responsible Vendor Program, the provider shall deliver proof of completion either through mail or electronic communication to the dispensing organization, which shall retain a copy of the certificate.

(l) The license of a dispensing organization or medical cannabis dispensing organization whose owners, managers, employees, or agents fail to comply with this Section may be suspended or permanently revoked under Section 15-145 or may face other disciplinary action.

(m) The regulation of dispensing organization and medical cannabis dispensing employer and employee training is an exclusive function of the State, and regulation by a unit of local government, including a home rule unit, is prohibited. This subsection (m) is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(n) Persons seeking Department approval to offer the training required by paragraph (3) of subsection (i) may apply for such approval between August 1 and August 15 of each odd-numbered year in a manner prescribed by the Department.

(o) Persons seeking Department approval to offer the training required by paragraph (3) of subsection (i) shall submit a nonrefundable application fee of $2,000 to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund or a fee as may be set by rule. Any changes made to the training module shall be approved by the Department.

(p) The Department shall not unreasonably deny approval of a training module that meets all the requirements of paragraph (3) of subsection (i). A denial of approval shall include a detailed description of the reasons for the denial.

(q) Any person approved to provide the training required by paragraph (3) of subsection (i) shall submit an application for re-approval between August 1 and August 15 of each odd-numbered year and include a nonrefundable application fee of $2,000 to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund or a fee as may be set by rule.

(r) All persons applying to become or renewing their registrations to be agents, including agents-in-charge and principal officers, shall disclose any disciplinary action taken against them that may have occurred in Illinois, another state, or another country in relation to their employment at a cannabis business establishment or at any cannabis cultivation center, processor, infuser, dispensary, or other cannabis business establishment.

(s) An agent applicant may begin employment at a dispensing organization while the agent applicant's identification card application is pending. Upon approval, the Department shall issue the agent's identification card to the agent. If denied, the dispensing organization and the agent applicant shall be notified and the agent applicant must cease all activity at the dispensing organization immediately.

(t) All notifications of acceptance or denial for applications under this Section shall be sent electronically to the agent applicant within 30 days after the submission of a completed application.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

Article 5.

Section 5-5. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(410 ILCS 130/35)

Sec. 35. Certifying health care professional requirements.

(a) A certifying health care professional who certifies a debilitating medical condition for a qualifying patient shall comply with all of the following requirements:

(1) The certifying health care professional shall be currently licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all its branches, the Nurse Practice Act, or the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, shall be in good standing, and must hold a controlled substances license under Article III of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(2) A certifying health care professional certifying a patient's condition shall comply with generally accepted standards of medical practice, the provisions of the Act under which he or she is licensed and all applicable rules.

(3) The physical examination required by this Act may not be performed by remote means, including telemedicine.

(4) The certifying health care professional shall maintain a record-keeping system for all patients for whom the certifying health care professional has certified the patient's medical condition. These records shall be accessible to and subject to review by the Department of Public Health and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation upon request.

(b) A certifying health care professional may not:

(1) accept, solicit, or offer any form of remuneration from or to a qualifying patient, primary caregiver, cultivation center, or dispensing organization, including each principal officer, board member, agent, and employee, to certify a patient, other than accepting payment from a patient for the fee associated with the required examination, except for the limited purpose of performing a medical cannabis-related research study;

(1.5) accept, solicit, or offer any form of remuneration from or to a medical cannabis cultivation center or dispensary organization for the purposes of referring a patient to a specific dispensary organization;

(1.10) engage in any activity that is prohibited under Section 22.2 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, regardless of whether the certifying health care professional is a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant;

(2) offer a discount of any other item of value to a qualifying patient who uses or agrees to use a particular primary caregiver or dispensing organization to obtain medical cannabis;

(3) conduct a personal physical examination of a patient for purposes of diagnosing a debilitating medical condition at a location where medical cannabis is sold or distributed or at the address of a principal officer, agent, or employee or a medical cannabis organization;

(4) hold a direct or indirect economic interest in a cultivation center or dispensing organization if he or she recommends the use of medical cannabis to qualified patients or is in a partnership or other fee or profit-sharing relationship with a certifying health care professional who recommends medical cannabis, except for the limited purpose of performing a medical cannabis-related research study;

(5) serve on the board of directors or as an employee of a cultivation center or dispensing organization;

(6) refer patients to a cultivation center, a dispensing organization, or a registered designated caregiver; or

(7) advertise in a cultivation center or a dispensing organization.

(c) The Department of Public Health may with reasonable cause refer a certifying health care professional, who has certified a debilitating medical condition of a patient, to the Illinois Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for potential violations of this Section.

(d) Any violation of this Section or any other provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act is a violation of the certifying health care professional's licensure act.

(e) A certifying health care professional who certifies a debilitating medical condition for a qualifying patient may notify the Department of Public Health in writing: (1) if the certifying health care professional has reason to believe either that the registered qualifying patient has ceased to suffer from a debilitating medical condition; (2) that the bona fide health care professional-patient relationship has terminated; or (3) that continued use of medical cannabis would result in contraindication with the patient's other medication. The registered qualifying patient's registry identification card shall be revoked by the Department of Public Health after receiving the certifying health care professional's notification.

(f) Nothing in this Act shall preclude a certifying health care professional from referring a patient for health services, except when the referral is limited to certification purposes only, under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

Article 6.

Section 6-5. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 1-10 and 50-5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Adult Use Cultivation Center License" means a license issued by the Department of Agriculture that permits a person to act as a cultivation center under this Act and any administrative rule made in furtherance of this Act.

"Adult Use Dispensing Organization License" means a license issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that permits a person to act as a dispensing organization under this Act and any administrative rule made in furtherance of this Act.

"Advertise" means to engage in promotional activities including, but not limited to: newspaper, radio, Internet and electronic media, and television advertising; the distribution of fliers and circulars; billboard advertising; and the display of window and interior signs. "Advertise" does not mean exterior signage displaying only the name of the licensed cannabis business establishment.

"Application points" means the number of points a Dispensary Applicant receives on an application for a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

"BLS Region" means a region in Illinois used by the United States Bureau of Labor Statistics to gather and categorize certain employment and wage data. The 17 such regions in Illinois are: Bloomington, Cape Girardeau, Carbondale-Marion, Champaign-Urbana, Chicago-Naperville-Elgin, Danville, Davenport-Moline-Rock Island, Decatur, Kankakee, Peoria, Rockford, St. Louis, Springfield, Northwest Illinois nonmetropolitan area, West Central Illinois nonmetropolitan area, East Central Illinois nonmetropolitan area, and South Illinois nonmetropolitan area.

"By lot" means a randomized method of choosing between 2 or more Eligible Tied Applicants or 2 or more Qualifying Applicants.

"Cannabis" means marijuana, hashish, and other substances that are identified as including any parts of the plant Cannabis sativa and including derivatives or subspecies, such as indica, of all strains of cannabis, whether growing or not; the seeds thereof, the resin extracted from any part of the plant; and any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds, or resin, including tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) and all other naturally produced cannabinol derivatives, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction; however, "cannabis" does not include the mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the mature stalks (except the resin extracted from it), fiber, oil or cake, or the sterilized seed of the plant that is incapable of germination. "Cannabis" does not include industrial hemp as defined and authorized under the Industrial Hemp Act. "Cannabis" also means cannabis flower, concentrate, and cannabis-infused products.

"Cannabis business establishment" means a cultivation center, craft grower, processing organization, infuser organization, dispensing organization, or transporting organization.

"Cannabis concentrate" means a product derived from cannabis that is produced by extracting cannabinoids, including tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), from the plant through the use of propylene glycol, glycerin, butter, olive oil, or other typical cooking fats; water, ice, or dry ice; or butane, propane, CO₂, ethanol, or isopropanol and with the intended use of smoking or making a cannabis-infused product. The use of any other solvent is expressly prohibited unless and until it is approved by the Department of Agriculture.

"Cannabis container" means a sealed or resealable, traceable, container, or package used for the purpose of containment of cannabis or cannabis-infused product during transportation.

"Cannabis flower" means marijuana, hashish, and other substances that are identified as including any parts of the plant Cannabis sativa and including derivatives or subspecies, such as indica, of all strains of cannabis; including raw kief, leaves, and buds, but not resin that has been extracted from any part of such plant; nor any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds, or resin.

"Cannabis-infused product" means a beverage, food, oil, ointment, tincture, topical formulation, or another product containing cannabis or cannabis concentrate that is not intended to be smoked.

"Cannabis paraphernalia" means equipment, products, or materials intended to be used for planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, ingesting, or otherwise introducing cannabis into the human body.

"Cannabis plant monitoring system" or "plant monitoring system" means a system that includes, but is not limited to, testing and data collection established and maintained by the cultivation center, craft grower, or processing organization and that is available to the Department of Revenue, the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Illinois State Police for the purposes of documenting each cannabis plant and monitoring plant development throughout the life cycle of a cannabis plant cultivated for the intended use by a customer from seed planting to final packaging.

"Cannabis testing facility" means an entity licensed registered by the Department of Agriculture to test cannabis for potency and contaminants. Licensed cannabis testing facilities are authorized under this Act to transport cannabis from licensed cannabis business establishments to the licensed cannabis testing facility and are exempt from the transporting organization license requirements.

"Clone" means a plant section from a female cannabis plant not yet rootbound, growing in a water solution or other propagation matrix, that is capable of developing into a new plant.

"Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program faculty participant" means a person who is 21 years of age or older, licensed by the Department of Agriculture, and is employed or contracted by an Illinois community college to provide student instruction using cannabis plants at an Illinois Community College.

"Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program faculty participant Agent Identification Card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program faculty participant.

"Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License" means a contingent license awarded to applicants for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License that reserves the right to an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License if the applicant meets certain conditions described in this Act, but does not entitle the recipient to begin purchasing or selling cannabis or cannabis-infused products.

"Conditional Adult Use Cultivation Center License" means a license awarded to top-scoring applicants for an Adult Use Cultivation Center License that reserves the right to an Adult Use Cultivation Center License if the applicant meets certain conditions as determined by the Department of Agriculture by rule, but does not entitle the recipient to begin growing, processing, or selling cannabis or cannabis-infused products.

"Craft grower" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to cultivate, dry, cure, and package cannabis and perform other necessary activities to make cannabis available for sale at a dispensing organization or use at a processing organization. A craft grower may contain up to 5,000 square feet of canopy space on its premises for plants in the flowering state. The Department of Agriculture may authorize an increase or decrease of flowering stage cultivation space in increments of 3,000 square feet by rule based on market need, craft grower capacity, and the licensee's history of compliance or noncompliance, with a maximum space of 14,000 square feet for cultivating plants in the flowering stage, which must be cultivated in all stages of growth in an enclosed and secure area. A craft grower may share premises with a processing organization or a dispensing organization, or both, provided each licensee stores currency and cannabis or cannabis-infused products in a separate secured vault to which the other licensee does not have access or all licensees sharing a vault share more than 50% of the same ownership.

"Craft grower agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or other agent of a craft grower who is 21 years of age or older.

"Craft Grower Agent Identification Card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a craft grower agent.

"Cultivation center" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to cultivate, process, transport (unless otherwise limited by this Act), and perform other necessary activities to provide cannabis and cannabis-infused products to cannabis business establishments.

"Cultivation center agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or other agent of a cultivation center who is 21 years of age or older.

"Cultivation Center Agent Identification Card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a cultivation center agent.

"Currency" means currency and coin of the United States.

"Dispensary" means a facility operated by a dispensing organization at which activities licensed by this Act may occur.

"Dispensary Applicant" means the Proposed Dispensing Organization Name as stated on an application for a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

"Dispensing organization" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation to acquire cannabis from a cultivation center, craft grower, processing organization, or another dispensary for the purpose of selling or dispensing cannabis, cannabis-infused products, cannabis seeds, paraphernalia, or related supplies under this Act to purchasers or to qualified registered medical cannabis patients and caregivers. As used in this Act, "dispensing organization" includes a registered medical cannabis organization as defined in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act or its successor Act that has obtained an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

"Dispensing organization agent" means a principal officer, employee, or agent of a dispensing organization who is 21 years of age or older.

"Dispensing organization agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that identifies a person as a dispensing organization agent.

"Disproportionately Impacted Area" means a census tract or comparable geographic area that satisfies the following criteria as determined by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, that:

(1) meets at least one of the following criteria:

(A) the area has a poverty rate of at least 20% according to the latest federal decennial census; or

(B) 75% or more of the children in the area participate in the federal free lunch program according to reported statistics from the State Board of Education; or

(C) at least 20% of the households in the area receive assistance under the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program; or

(D) the area has an average unemployment rate, as determined by the Illinois Department of Employment Security, that is more than 120% of the national unemployment average, as determined by the United States Department of Labor, for a period of at least 2 consecutive calendar years preceding the date of the application; and

(2) has high rates of arrest, conviction, and incarceration related to the sale, possession, use, cultivation, manufacture, or transport of cannabis.

"Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License" means a license that permits a medical cannabis cultivation center licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act as of the effective date of this Act to begin cultivating, infusing, packaging, transporting (unless otherwise provided in this Act), processing, and selling cannabis or cannabis-infused product to cannabis business establishments for resale to purchasers as permitted by this Act as of January 1, 2020.

"Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License" means a license that permits a medical cannabis dispensing organization licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act as of the effective date of this Act to begin selling cannabis or cannabis-infused product to purchasers as permitted by this Act as of January 1, 2020.

"Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization at a secondary site" means a license that permits a medical cannabis dispensing organization licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act as of the effective date of this Act to begin selling cannabis or cannabis-infused product to purchasers as permitted by this Act on January 1, 2020 at a different dispensary location from its existing registered medical dispensary location.

"Eligible Tied Applicant" means a Tied Applicant that is eligible to participate in the process by which a remaining available license is distributed by lot pursuant to a Tied Applicant Lottery.

"Enclosed, locked facility" means a room, greenhouse, building, or other enclosed area equipped with locks or other security devices that permit access only by cannabis business establishment agents working for the licensed cannabis business establishment or acting pursuant to this Act to cultivate, process, store, or distribute cannabis.

"Enclosed, locked space" means a closet, room, greenhouse, building, or other enclosed area equipped with locks or other security devices that permit access only by authorized individuals under this Act. "Enclosed, locked space" may include:

(1) a space within a residential building that (i) is the primary residence of the individual cultivating 5 or fewer cannabis plants that are more than 5 inches tall and (ii) includes sleeping quarters and indoor plumbing. The space must only be accessible by a key or code that is different from any key or code that can be used to access the residential building from the exterior; or

(2) a structure, such as a shed or greenhouse, that lies on the same plot of land as a residential building that (i) includes sleeping quarters and indoor plumbing and (ii) is used as a primary residence by the person cultivating 5 or fewer cannabis plants that are more than 5 inches tall, such as a shed or greenhouse. The structure must remain locked when it is unoccupied by people.

"Financial institution" has the same meaning as "financial organization" as defined in Section 1501 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, and also includes the holding companies, subsidiaries, and affiliates of such financial organizations.

"Flowering stage" means the stage of cultivation where and when a cannabis plant is cultivated to produce plant material for cannabis products. This includes mature plants as follows:

(1) if greater than 2 stigmas are visible at each internode of the plant; or

(2) if the cannabis plant is in an area that has been intentionally deprived of light for a period of time intended to produce flower buds and induce maturation, from the moment the light deprivation began through the remainder of the marijuana plant growth cycle.

"Individual" means a natural person.

"Infuser organization" or "infuser" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to directly incorporate cannabis or cannabis concentrate into a product formulation to produce a cannabis-infused product.

"Kief" means the resinous crystal-like trichomes that are found on cannabis and that are accumulated, resulting in a higher concentration of cannabinoids, untreated by heat or pressure, or extracted using a solvent.

"Labor peace agreement" means an agreement between a cannabis business establishment and any labor organization recognized under the National Labor Relations Act, referred to in this Act as a bona fide labor organization, that prohibits labor organizations and members from engaging in picketing, work stoppages, boycotts, and any other economic interference with the cannabis business establishment. This agreement means that the cannabis business establishment has agreed not to disrupt efforts by the bona fide labor organization to communicate with, and attempt to organize and represent, the cannabis business establishment's employees. The agreement shall provide a bona fide labor organization access at reasonable times to areas in which the cannabis business establishment's employees work, for the purpose of meeting with employees to discuss their right to representation, employment rights under State law, and terms and conditions of employment. This type of agreement shall not mandate a particular method of election or certification of the bona fide labor organization.

"Limited access area" means a room or other area under the control of a cannabis dispensing organization licensed under this Act and upon the licensed premises where cannabis sales occur with access limited to purchasers, dispensing organization owners and other dispensing organization agents, or service professionals conducting business with the dispensing organization, or, if sales to registered qualifying patients, caregivers, provisional patients, and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants licensed pursuant to the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act are also permitted at the dispensary, registered qualifying patients, caregivers, provisional patients, and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants.

"Member of an impacted family" means an individual who has a parent, legal guardian, child, spouse, or dependent, or was a dependent of an individual who, prior to the effective date of this Act, was arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement under this Act.

"Mother plant" means a cannabis plant that is cultivated or maintained for the purpose of generating clones, and that will not be used to produce plant material for sale to an infuser or dispensing organization.

"Ordinary public view" means within the sight line with normal visual range of a person, unassisted by visual aids, from a public street or sidewalk adjacent to real property, or from within an adjacent property.

"Ownership and control" means ownership of at least 51% of the business, including corporate stock if a corporation, and control over the management and day-to-day operations of the business and an interest in the capital, assets, and profits and losses of the business proportionate to percentage of ownership.

"Person" means a natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint venture, public or private corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Possession limit" means the amount of cannabis under Section 10-10 that may be possessed at any one time by a person 21 years of age or older or who is a registered qualifying medical cannabis patient or caregiver under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

"Principal officer" includes a cannabis business establishment applicant or licensed cannabis business establishment's board member, owner with more than 1% interest of the total cannabis business establishment or more than 5% interest of the total cannabis business establishment of a publicly traded company, president, vice president, secretary, treasurer, partner, officer, member, manager member, or person with a profit sharing, financial interest, or revenue sharing arrangement. The definition includes a person with authority to control the cannabis business establishment, a person who assumes responsibility for the debts of the cannabis business establishment and who is further defined in this Act.

"Primary residence" means a dwelling where a person usually stays or stays more often than other locations. It may be determined by, without limitation, presence, tax filings; address on an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card; or voter registration. No person may have more than one primary residence.

"Processing organization" or "processor" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to either extract constituent chemicals or compounds to produce cannabis concentrate or incorporate cannabis or cannabis concentrate into a product formulation to produce a cannabis product.

"Processing organization agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or agent of a processing organization.

"Processing organization agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a processing organization agent.

"Purchaser" means a person 21 years of age or older who acquires cannabis for a valuable consideration. "Purchaser" does not include a cardholder under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

"Qualifying Applicant" means an applicant that submitted an application pursuant to Section 15-30 that received at least 85% of 250 application points available under Section 15-30 as the applicant's final score and meets the definition of "Social Equity Applicant" as set forth under this Section.

"Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant" means an applicant that submitted an application pursuant to Section 15-30 that received at least 85% of 250 application points available under Section 15-30 as the applicant's final score and meets the criteria of either paragraph (1) or (2) of the definition of "Social Equity Applicant" as set forth under this Section.

"Qualified Social Equity Applicant" means a Social Equity Applicant who has been awarded a conditional license under this Act to operate a cannabis business establishment.

"Resided" means an individual's primary residence was located within the relevant geographic area as established by 2 of the following:

(1) a signed lease agreement that includes the applicant's name;

(2) a property deed that includes the applicant's name;

(3) school records;

(4) a voter registration card;

(5) an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card;

(6) a paycheck stub;

(7) a utility bill;

(8) tax records; or

(9) any other proof of residency or other information necessary to establish residence as provided by rule.

"Smoking" means the inhalation of smoke caused by the combustion of cannabis.

"Social Equity Applicant" means an applicant that is an Illinois resident that meets one of the following criteria:

(1) an applicant with at least 51% ownership and control by one or more individuals who have resided for at least 5 of the preceding 10 years in a Disproportionately Impacted Area;

(2) an applicant with at least 51% ownership and control by one or more individuals who:

(i) have been arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement under this Act; or

(ii) is a member of an impacted family;

(3) for applicants with a minimum of 10 full-time employees, an applicant with at least 51% of current employees who:

(i) currently reside in a Disproportionately Impacted Area; or

(ii) have been arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement under this Act or member of an impacted family.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to preempt or limit the duties of any employer under the Job Opportunities for Qualified Applicants Act. Nothing in this Act shall permit an employer to require an employee to disclose sealed or expunged offenses, unless otherwise required by law.

"Tied Applicant" means an application submitted by a Dispensary Applicant pursuant to Section 15-30 that received the same number of application points under Section 15-30 as the Dispensary Applicant's final score as one or more top-scoring applications in the same BLS Region and would have been awarded a license but for the one or more other top-scoring applications that received the same number of application points. Each application for which a Dispensary Applicant was required to pay a required application fee for the application period ending January 2, 2020 shall be considered an application of a separate Tied Applicant.

"Tied Applicant Lottery" means the process established under 68 Ill. Adm. Code 1291.50 for awarding Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses pursuant to Sections 15-25 and 15-30 among Eligible Tied Applicants.

"Tincture" means a cannabis-infused solution, typically comprised of alcohol, glycerin, or vegetable oils, derived either directly from the cannabis plant or from a processed cannabis extract. A tincture is not an alcoholic liquor as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934. A tincture shall include a calibrated dropper or other similar device capable of accurately measuring servings.

"Transporting organization" or "transporter" means an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to transport cannabis or cannabis-infused product on behalf of a cannabis business establishment or a community college licensed under the Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program.

"Transporting organization agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or agent of a transporting organization.

"Transporting organization agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a transporting organization agent.

"Unit of local government" means any county, city, village, or incorporated town.

"Vegetative stage" means the stage of cultivation in which a cannabis plant is propagated to produce additional cannabis plants or reach a sufficient size for production. This includes seedlings, clones, mothers, and other immature cannabis plants as follows:

(1) if the cannabis plant is in an area that has not been intentionally deprived of light for a period of time intended to produce flower buds and induce maturation, it has no more than 2 stigmas visible at each internode of the cannabis plant; or

(2) any cannabis plant that is cultivated solely for the purpose of propagating clones and is never used to produce cannabis.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

(410 ILCS 705/50-5)

Sec. 50-5. Laboratory testing.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the following acts, when performed by a licensed cannabis testing facility with a current, valid license registration, or a person 21 years of age or older who is acting in his or her capacity as an owner, employee, or agent of a cannabis testing facility, are not unlawful and shall not be an offense under Illinois law or be a basis for seizure or forfeiture of assets under Illinois law:

(1) possessing, repackaging, transporting, storing, or displaying cannabis or cannabis-infused products;

(2) receiving or transporting cannabis or cannabis-infused products from a cannabis business establishment, a community college licensed under the Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program, or a person 21 years of age or older; and

(3) returning or transporting cannabis or cannabis-infused products to a cannabis business establishment, a community college licensed under the Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program, or a person 21 years of age or older.

(b)(1) No laboratory shall handle, test, or analyze cannabis unless approved by the Department of Agriculture in accordance with this Section.

(2) No laboratory shall be approved to handle, test, or analyze cannabis unless the laboratory:

(A) is accredited by a private laboratory accrediting organization;

(B) is independent from all other persons involved in the cannabis industry in Illinois and no person with a direct or indirect interest in the laboratory has a direct or indirect financial, management, or other interest in an Illinois cultivation center, craft grower, dispensary, infuser, transporter, certifying physician, or any other entity in the State that may benefit from the production, manufacture, dispensing, sale, purchase, or use of cannabis; and

(C) has employed at least one person to oversee and be responsible for the laboratory testing who has earned, from a college or university accredited by a national or regional certifying authority, at least:

(i) a master's level degree in chemical or biological sciences and a minimum of 2 years' post-degree laboratory experience; or

(ii) a bachelor's degree in chemical or biological sciences and a minimum of 4 years' post-degree laboratory experience.

(3) Each independent testing laboratory that claims to be accredited must provide the Department of Agriculture with a copy of the most recent annual inspection report granting accreditation and every annual report thereafter.

(c) Immediately before manufacturing or natural processing of any cannabis or cannabis-infused product or packaging cannabis for sale to a dispensary, each batch shall be made available by the cultivation center, craft grower, or infuser for an employee of an approved laboratory to select a random sample, which shall be tested by the approved laboratory for:

(1) microbiological contaminants;

(2) mycotoxins;

(3) pesticide active ingredients;

(4) residual solvent; and

(5) an active ingredient analysis.

(d) The Department of Agriculture may select a random sample that shall, for the purposes of conducting an active ingredient analysis, be tested by the Department of Agriculture for verification of label information.

(e) A laboratory shall immediately return or dispose of any cannabis upon the completion of any testing, use, or research. If cannabis is disposed of, it shall be done in compliance with Department of Agriculture rule.

(f) If a sample of cannabis does not pass the microbiological, mycotoxin, pesticide chemical residue, or solvent residue test, based on the standards established by the Department of Agriculture, the following shall apply:

(1) If the sample failed the pesticide chemical residue test, the entire batch from which the sample was taken shall, if applicable, be recalled as provided by rule.

(2) If the sample failed any other test, the batch may be used to make a CO₂-based or solvent based extract. After processing, the CO₂-based or solvent based extract must still pass all required tests.

(g) The Department of Agriculture shall establish standards for microbial, mycotoxin, pesticide residue, solvent residue, or other standards for the presence of possible contaminants, in addition to labeling requirements for contents and potency.

(h) The laboratory shall file with the Department of Agriculture an electronic copy of each laboratory test result for any batch that does not pass the microbiological, mycotoxin, or pesticide chemical residue test, at the same time that it transmits those results to the cultivation center. In addition, the laboratory shall maintain the laboratory test results for at least 5 years and make them available at the Department of Agriculture's request.

(i) A cultivation center, craft grower, and infuser shall provide to a dispensing organization the laboratory test results for each batch of cannabis product purchased by the dispensing organization, if sampled. Each dispensing organization must have those laboratory results available upon request to purchasers.

(j) The Department of Agriculture may adopt rules related to testing in furtherance of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19.)

Article 9.

Section 9-5. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 15-25, 15-35, and 15-35.10 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/15-25)

Sec. 15-25. Awarding of Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses prior to January 1, 2021.

(a) The Department shall issue up to 75 Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses before May 1, 2020.

(b) The Department shall make the application for a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License available no later than October 1, 2019 and shall accept applications no later than January 1, 2020.

(c) To ensure the geographic dispersion of Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holders, the following number of licenses shall be awarded in each BLS Region as determined by each region's percentage of the State's population:

(1) Bloomington: 1

(2) Cape Girardeau: 1

(3) Carbondale-Marion: 1

(4) Champaign-Urbana: 1

(5) Chicago-Naperville-Elgin: 47

(6) Danville: 1

(7) Davenport-Moline-Rock Island: 1

(8) Decatur: 1

(9) Kankakee: 1

(10) Peoria: 3

(11) Rockford: 2

(12) St. Louis: 4

(13) Springfield: 1

(14) Northwest Illinois nonmetropolitan: 3

(15) West Central Illinois nonmetropolitan: 3

(16) East Central Illinois nonmetropolitan: 2

(17) South Illinois nonmetropolitan: 2

(d) An applicant seeking issuance of a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License shall submit an application on forms provided by the Department. An applicant must meet the following requirements:

(1) Payment of a nonrefundable application fee of $5,000 for each license for which the applicant is applying, which shall be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) Certification that the applicant will comply with the requirements contained in this Act;

(3) The legal name of the proposed dispensing organization;

(4) A statement that the dispensing organization agrees to respond to the Department's supplemental requests for information;

(5) From each principal officer, a statement indicating whether that person:

(A) has previously held or currently holds an ownership interest in a cannabis business establishment in Illinois; or

(B) has held an ownership interest in a dispensing organization or its equivalent in another state or territory of the United States that had the dispensing organization registration or license suspended, revoked, placed on probationary status, or subjected to other disciplinary action;

(6) Disclosure of whether any principal officer has ever filed for bankruptcy or defaulted on spousal support or child support obligation;

(7) A resume for each principal officer, including whether that person has an academic degree, certification, or relevant experience with a cannabis business establishment or in a related industry;

(8) A description of the training and education that will be provided to dispensing organization agents;

(9) A copy of the proposed operating bylaws;

(10) A copy of the proposed business plan that complies with the requirements in this Act, including, at a minimum, the following:

(A) A description of services to be offered; and

(B) A description of the process of dispensing cannabis;

(11) A copy of the proposed security plan that complies with the requirements in this Article, including:

(A) The process or controls that will be implemented to monitor the dispensary, secure the premises, agents, and currency, and prevent the diversion, theft, or loss of cannabis; and

(B) The process to ensure that access to the restricted access areas is restricted to, registered agents, service professionals, transporting organization agents, Department inspectors, and security personnel;

(12) A proposed inventory control plan that complies with this Section;

(13) A proposed floor plan, a square footage estimate, and a description of proposed security devices, including, without limitation, cameras, motion detectors, servers, video storage capabilities, and alarm service providers;

(14) The name, address, social security number, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the dispensing organization; each of those individuals shall be at least 21 years of age;

(15) Evidence of the applicant's status as a Social Equity Applicant, if applicable, and whether a Social Equity Applicant plans to apply for a loan or grant issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity;

(16) The address, telephone number, and email address of the applicant's principal place of business, if applicable. A post office box is not permitted;

(17) Written summaries of any information regarding instances in which a business or not-for-profit that a prospective board member previously managed or served on were fined or censured, or any instances in which a business or not-for-profit that a prospective board member previously managed or served on had its registration suspended or revoked in any administrative or judicial proceeding;

(18) A plan for community engagement;

(19) Procedures to ensure accurate recordkeeping and security measures that are in accordance with this Article and Department rules;

(20) The estimated volume of cannabis it plans to store at the dispensary;

(21) A description of the features that will provide accessibility to purchasers as required by the Americans with Disabilities Act;

(22) A detailed description of air treatment systems that will be installed to reduce odors;

(23) A reasonable assurance that the issuance of a license will not have a detrimental impact on the community in which the applicant wishes to locate;

(24) The dated signature of each principal officer;

(25) A description of the enclosed, locked facility where cannabis will be stored by the dispensing organization;

(26) Signed statements from each dispensing organization agent stating that he or she will not divert cannabis;

(27) The number of licenses it is applying for in each BLS Region;

(28) A diversity plan that includes a narrative of at least 2,500 words that establishes a goal of diversity in ownership, management, employment, and contracting to ensure that diverse participants and groups are afforded equality of opportunity;

(29) A contract with a private security contractor agency that is licensed under Section 10-5 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 in order for the dispensary to have adequate security at its facility; and

(30) Other information deemed necessary by the Illinois Cannabis Regulation Oversight Officer to conduct the disparity and availability study referenced in subsection (e) of Section 5-45.

(e) An applicant who receives a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section has 180 days from the date of award to identify a physical location for the dispensing organization retail storefront. The applicant shall provide evidence that the location is not within 1,500 feet of an existing dispensing organization, unless the applicant is a Social Equity Applicant or Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant located or seeking to locate within 1,500 feet of a dispensing organization licensed under Section 15-15 or Section 15-20. If an applicant is unable to find a suitable physical address in the opinion of the Department within 180 days of the issuance of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, the Department may extend the period for finding a physical address an additional 540 another 180 days if the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder demonstrates concrete attempts to secure a location and a hardship. If the Department denies the extension or the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder is unable to find a location or become operational within 720 360 days of being awarded a conditional license, the Department shall rescind the conditional license and award it to the next highest scoring applicant in the BLS Region for which the license was assigned, provided the applicant receiving the license: (i) confirms a continued interest in operating a dispensing organization; (ii) can provide evidence that the applicant continues to meet all requirements for holding a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License set forth in this Act; and (iii) has not otherwise become ineligible to be awarded a dispensing organization license. If the new awardee is unable to accept the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, the Department shall award the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License to the next highest scoring applicant in the same manner. The new awardee shall be subject to the same required deadlines as provided in this subsection.

(e-5) If, within 720 180 days of being awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a dispensing organization is unable to find a location within the BLS Region in which it was awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License because no jurisdiction within the BLS Region allows for the operation of an Adult Use Dispensing Organization, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may authorize the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder to transfer its license to a BLS Region specified by the Department.

(f) A dispensing organization that is awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License pursuant to the criteria in Section 15-30 shall not purchase, possess, sell, or dispense cannabis or cannabis-infused products until the person has received an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License issued by the Department pursuant to Section 15-36 of this Act.

(g) The Department shall conduct a background check of the prospective organization agents in order to carry out this Article. The Illinois State Police shall charge the applicant a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. Each person applying as a dispensing organization agent shall submit a full set of fingerprints to the Illinois State Police for the purpose of obtaining a State and federal criminal records check. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter, to the extent allowed by law, filed in the Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Identification criminal history records databases. The Illinois State Police shall furnish, following positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-35)

Sec. 15-35. Qualifying Applicant Lottery for Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses.

(a) In addition to any of the licenses issued under Section 15-15, Section 15-20, Section 15-25, Section 15-30.20, or Section 15-35.10 of this Act, within 10 business days after the resulting final scores for all scored applications pursuant to Sections 15-25 and 15-30 are released, the Department shall issue up to 55 Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses by lot, pursuant to the application process adopted under this Section. In order to be eligible to be awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License by lot under this Section, a Dispensary Applicant must be a Qualifying Applicant.

The licenses issued under this Section shall be awarded in each BLS Region in the following amounts:

(1) Bloomington: 1.

(2) Cape Girardeau: 1.

(3) Carbondale-Marion: 1.

(4) Champaign-Urbana: 1.

(5) Chicago-Naperville-Elgin: 36.

(6) Danville: 1.

(7) Davenport-Moline-Rock Island: 1.

(8) Decatur: 1.

(9) Kankakee: 1.

(10) Peoria: 2.

(11) Rockford: 1.

(12) St. Louis: 3.

(13) Springfield: 1.

(14) Northwest Illinois nonmetropolitan: 1.

(15) West Central Illinois nonmetropolitan: 1.

(16) East Central Illinois nonmetropolitan: 1.

(17) South Illinois nonmetropolitan: 1.

(a-5) Prior to issuing licenses under subsection (a), the Department may adopt rules through emergency rulemaking in accordance with subsection (kk) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The General Assembly finds that the adoption of rules to regulate cannabis use is deemed an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(b) The Department shall distribute the available licenses established under this Section subject to the following:

(1) The drawing by lot for all available licenses issued under this Section shall occur on the same day when practicable.

(2) Within each BLS Region, the first Qualifying Applicant drawn will have the first right to an available license. The second Qualifying Applicant drawn will have the second right to an available license. The same pattern will continue for each subsequent Qualifying Applicant drawn.

(3) The process for distributing available licenses under this Section shall be recorded by the Department in a format selected by the Department.

(4) A Dispensary Applicant is prohibited from becoming a Qualifying Applicant if a principal officer resigns after the resulting final scores for all scored applications pursuant to Sections 15-25 and 15-30 are released.

(5) No Qualifying Applicant may be awarded more than 2 Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses at the conclusion of a lottery conducted under this Section.

(6) No individual may be listed as a principal officer of more than 2 Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses awarded under this Section.

(7) If, upon being selected for an available license established under this Section, a Qualifying Applicant exceeds the limits under paragraph (5) or (6), the Qualifying Applicant must choose which license to abandon and notify the Department in writing within 5 business days. If the Qualifying Applicant does not notify the Department as required, the Department shall refuse to issue the Qualifying Applicant all available licenses established under this Section obtained by lot in all BLS Regions.

(8) If, upon being selected for an available license established under this Section, a Qualifying Applicant has a principal officer who is a principal officer in more than 10 Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, or any combination thereof, the licensees and the Qualifying Applicant listing that principal officer must choose which license to abandon pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 15-36 and notify the Department in writing within 5 business days. If the Qualifying Applicant or licensees do not notify the Department as required, the Department shall refuse to issue the Qualifying Applicant all available licenses established under this Section obtained by lot in all BLS Regions.

(9) All available licenses that have been abandoned under paragraph (7) or (8) shall be distributed to the next Qualifying Applicant drawn by lot.

Any and all rights conferred or obtained under this Section shall be limited to the provisions of this Section.

(c) An applicant who receives a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section has 180 days from the date it is awarded to identify a physical location for the dispensing organization's retail storefront. The applicant shall provide evidence that the location is not within 1,500 feet of an existing dispensing organization, unless the applicant is a Social Equity Applicant or Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant located or seeking to locate within 1,500 feet of a dispensing organization licensed under Section 15-15 or Section 15-20. If an applicant is unable to find a suitable physical address in the opinion of the Department within 180 days from the issuance of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, the Department may extend the period for finding a physical address an additional 540 another 180 days if the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder demonstrates a concrete attempt to secure a location and a hardship. If the Department denies the extension or the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder is unable to find a location or become operational within 720 360 days of being awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section, the Department shall rescind the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License and award it pursuant to subsection (b), provided the applicant receiving the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License: (i) confirms a continued interest in operating a dispensing organization; (ii) can provide evidence that the applicant continues to meet all requirements for holding a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License set forth in this Act; and (iii) has not otherwise become ineligible to be awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License. If the new awardee is unable to accept the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, the Department shall award the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License pursuant to subsection (b). The new awardee shall be subject to the same required deadlines as provided in this subsection.

(d) If, within 720 180 days of being awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a dispensing organization is unable to find a location within the BLS Region in which it was awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License because no jurisdiction within the BLS Region allows for the operation of an Adult Use Dispensing Organization, the Department may authorize the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder to transfer its Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License to a BLS Region specified by the Department.

(e) A dispensing organization that is awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section shall not purchase, possess, sell, or dispense cannabis or cannabis-infused products until the dispensing organization has received an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License issued by the Department pursuant to Section 15-36.

(f) The Department shall conduct a background check of the prospective dispensing organization agents in order to carry out this Article. The Illinois State Police shall charge the applicant a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. Each person applying as a dispensing organization agent shall submit a full set of fingerprints to the Illinois State Police for the purpose of obtaining a State and federal criminal records check. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter, to the extent allowed by law, filed with the Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Illinois State Police shall furnish, following positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department.

(g) The Department may verify information contained in each application and accompanying documentation to assess the applicant's veracity and fitness to operate a dispensing organization.

(h) The Department may, in its discretion, refuse to issue authorization to an applicant who meets any of the following criteria:

(1) An applicant who is unqualified to perform the duties required of the applicant.

(2) An applicant who fails to disclose or states falsely any information called for in the application.

(3) An applicant who has been found guilty of a violation of this Act, who has had any disciplinary order entered against the applicant by the Department, who has entered into a disciplinary or nondisciplinary agreement with the Department, whose medical cannabis dispensing organization, medical cannabis cultivation organization, Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site, Early Approval Cultivation Center License, Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or Adult Use Dispensing Organization License was suspended, restricted, revoked, or denied for just cause, or whose cannabis business establishment license was suspended, restricted, revoked, or denied in any other state.

(4) An applicant who has engaged in a pattern or practice of unfair or illegal practices, methods, or activities in the conduct of owning a cannabis business establishment or other business.

(i) The Department shall deny issuance of a license under this Section if any principal officer, board member, or person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or greater in the licensee is delinquent in filing any required tax return or paying any amount owed to the State of Illinois.

(j) The Department shall verify an applicant's compliance with the requirements of this Article and rules adopted under this Article before issuing a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section.

(k) If an applicant is awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section, the information and plans provided in the application, including any plans submitted for bonus points, shall become a condition of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License and any Adult Use Dispensing Organization License issued to the holder of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, except as otherwise provided by this Act or by rule. A dispensing organization has a duty to disclose any material changes to the application. The Department shall review all material changes disclosed by the dispensing organization and may reevaluate its prior decision regarding the awarding of a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, including, but not limited to, suspending or permanently revoking a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License. Failure to comply with the conditions or requirements in the application may subject the dispensing organization to discipline up to and including suspension or permanent revocation of its authorization or Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License by the Department.

(l) If an applicant has not begun operating as a dispensing organization within one year after the issuance of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section, the Department may permanently revoke the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License and award it to the next highest scoring applicant in the BLS Region if a suitable applicant indicates a continued interest in the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License or may begin a new selection process to award a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-35.10)

Sec. 15-35.10. Social Equity Justice Involved Lottery for Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses.

(a) In addition to any of the licenses issued under Section 15-15, Section 15-20, Section 15-25, Section 15-30.20, or Section 15-35, within 10 business days after the resulting final scores for all scored applications pursuant to Sections 15-25 and 15-30 are released, the Department shall issue up to 55 Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses by lot, pursuant to the application process adopted under this Section. In order to be eligible to be awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License by lot, a Dispensary Applicant must be a Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant.

The licenses issued under this Section shall be awarded in each BLS Region in the following amounts:

(1) Bloomington: 1.

(2) Cape Girardeau: 1.

(3) Carbondale-Marion: 1.

(4) Champaign-Urbana: 1.

(5) Chicago-Naperville-Elgin: 36.

(6) Danville: 1.

(7) Davenport-Moline-Rock Island: 1.

(8) Decatur: 1.

(9) Kankakee: 1.

(10) Peoria: 2.

(11) Rockford: 1.

(12) St. Louis: 3.

(13) Springfield: 1.

(14) Northwest Illinois nonmetropolitan: 1.

(15) West Central Illinois nonmetropolitan: 1.

(16) East Central Illinois nonmetropolitan: 1.

(17) South Illinois nonmetropolitan: 1.

(a-5) Prior to issuing licenses under subsection (a), the Department may adopt rules through emergency rulemaking in accordance with subsection (kk) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The General Assembly finds that the adoption of rules to regulate cannabis use is deemed an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(b) The Department shall distribute the available licenses established under this Section subject to the following:

(1) The drawing by lot for all available licenses established under this Section shall occur on the same day when practicable.

(2) Within each BLS Region, the first Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant drawn will have the first right to an available license. The second Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant drawn will have the second right to an available license. The same pattern will continue for each subsequent applicant drawn.

(3) The process for distributing available licenses under this Section shall be recorded by the Department in a format selected by the Department.

(4) A Dispensary Applicant is prohibited from becoming a Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant if a principal officer resigns after the resulting final scores for all scored applications pursuant to Sections 15-25 and 15-30 are released.

(5) No Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant may be awarded more than 2 Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses at the conclusion of a lottery conducted under this Section.

(6) No individual may be listed as a principal officer of more than 2 Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses awarded under this Section.

(7) If, upon being selected for an available license established under this Section, a Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant exceeds the limits under paragraph (5) or (6), the Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant must choose which license to abandon and notify the Department in writing within 5 business days on forms prescribed by the Department. If the Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant does not notify the Department as required, the Department shall refuse to issue the Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant all available licenses established under this Section obtained by lot in all BLS Regions.

(8) If, upon being selected for an available license established under this Section, a Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant has a principal officer who is a principal officer in more than 10 Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, or any combination thereof, the licensees and the Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant listing that principal officer must choose which license to abandon pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 15-36 and notify the Department in writing within 5 business days on forms prescribed by the Department. If the Dispensary Applicant or licensees do not notify the Department as required, the Department shall refuse to issue the Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant all available licenses established under this Section obtained by lot in all BLS Regions.

(9) All available licenses that have been abandoned under paragraph (7) or (8) shall be distributed to the next Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant drawn by lot.

Any and all rights conferred or obtained under this subsection shall be limited to the provisions of this subsection.

(c) An applicant who receives a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section has 180 days from the date of the award to identify a physical location for the dispensing organization's retail storefront. The applicant shall provide evidence that the location is not within 1,500 feet of an existing dispensing organization, unless the applicant is a Social Equity Applicant or Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant located or seeking to locate within 1,500 feet of a dispensing organization licensed under Section 15-15 or Section 15-20. If an applicant is unable to find a suitable physical address in the opinion of the Department within 180 days from the issuance of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, the Department may extend the period for finding a physical address an additional 540 another 180 days if the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder demonstrates a concrete attempt to secure a location and a hardship. If the Department denies the extension or the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder is unable to find a location or become operational within 720 360 days of being awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section, the Department shall rescind the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License and award it pursuant to subsection (b) and notify the new awardee at the email address provided in the awardee's application, provided the applicant receiving the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License: (i) confirms a continued interest in operating a dispensing organization; (ii) can provide evidence that the applicant continues to meet all requirements for holding a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License set forth in this Act; and (iii) has not otherwise become ineligible to be awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License. If the new awardee is unable to accept the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, the Department shall award the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License pursuant to subsection (b). The new awardee shall be subject to the same required deadlines as provided in this subsection.

(d) If, within 180 days of being awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a dispensing organization is unable to find a location within the BLS Region in which it was awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section because no jurisdiction within the BLS Region allows for the operation of an Adult Use Dispensing Organization, the Department may authorize the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder to transfer its Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License to a BLS Region specified by the Department.

(e) A dispensing organization that is awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section shall not purchase, possess, sell, or dispense cannabis or cannabis-infused products until the dispensing organization has received an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License issued by the Department pursuant to Section 15-36.

(f) The Department shall conduct a background check of the prospective dispensing organization agents in order to carry out this Article. The Illinois State Police shall charge the applicant a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. Each person applying as a dispensing organization agent shall submit a full set of fingerprints to the Illinois State Police for the purpose of obtaining a State and federal criminal records check. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter, to the extent allowed by law, filed with the Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Illinois State Police shall furnish, following positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department.

(g) The Department may verify information contained in each application and accompanying documentation to assess the applicant's veracity and fitness to operate a dispensing organization.

(h) The Department may, in its discretion, refuse to issue an authorization to an applicant who meets any of the following criteria:

(1) An applicant who is unqualified to perform the duties required of the applicant.

(2) An applicant who fails to disclose or states falsely any information called for in the application.

(3) An applicant who has been found guilty of a violation of this Act, who has had any disciplinary order entered against the applicant by the Department, who has entered into a disciplinary or nondisciplinary agreement with the Department, whose medical cannabis dispensing organization, medical cannabis cultivation organization, Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site, Early Approval Cultivation Center License, Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or Adult Use Dispensing Organization License was suspended, restricted, revoked, or denied for just cause, or whose cannabis business establishment license was suspended, restricted, revoked, or denied in any other state.

(4) An applicant who has engaged in a pattern or practice of unfair or illegal practices, methods, or activities in the conduct of owning a cannabis business establishment or other business.

(i) The Department shall deny the license if any principal officer, board member, or person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or greater in the licensee is delinquent in filing any required tax return or paying any amount owed to the State of Illinois.

(j) The Department shall verify an applicant's compliance with the requirements of this Article and rules adopted under this Article before issuing a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

(k) If an applicant is awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section, the information and plans provided in the application, including any plans submitted for bonus points, shall become a condition of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License and any Adult Use Dispensing Organization License issued to the holder of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, except as otherwise provided by this Act or by rule. Dispensing organizations have a duty to disclose any material changes to the application. The Department shall review all material changes disclosed by the dispensing organization and may reevaluate its prior decision regarding the awarding of a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, including, but not limited to, suspending or permanently revoking a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License. Failure to comply with the conditions or requirements in the application may subject the dispensing organization to discipline up to and including suspension or permanent revocation of its authorization or Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License by the Department.

(l) If an applicant has not begun operating as a dispensing organization within one year after the issuance of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section, the Department may permanently revoke the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License and award it to the next highest scoring applicant in the BLS Region if a suitable applicant indicates a continued interest in the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License or may begin a new selection process to award a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

(Source: P.A. 102-98, eff. 7-15-21.)

Article 12.

Section 12-5. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Section 40-5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/40-5)

Sec. 40-5. Issuance of licenses.

(a) The Department shall issue transporting licenses through a process provided for in this Article no later than July 1, 2020. Entities awarded a license under this Section may defer paying the associated license fee for a period of no more than 2 years.

(b) The Department shall make the application for transporting organization licenses available on January 7, 2020 and shall receive such applications no later than March 15, 2020. The Department of Agriculture shall make available such applications on every January 7 thereafter or if that date falls on a weekend or holiday, the business day immediately succeeding the weekend or holiday and shall receive such applications no later than March 15 or the succeeding business day thereafter.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19.)

Article 13.

Section 13-5. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Section 40-5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/40-5)

Sec. 40-5. Issuance of licenses.

(a) The Department shall issue transporting licenses through a process provided for in this Article no later than July 1, 2020.

(b) The Department shall make the application for transporting organization licenses available on January 7, 2020 and shall receive such applications no later than March 15, 2020. The Department of Agriculture shall make available such applications on every January 7 thereafter or if that date falls on a weekend or holiday, the business day immediately succeeding the weekend or holiday and shall receive such applications no later than March 15 or the succeeding business day thereafter.

(c) From January 1, 2024 through January 1, 2026, the Department shall not issue any transporting licenses other than those issued under subsection (a) before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19.)

Article 14.

Section 14-5. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Section 203 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/203) (from Ch. 120, par. 2-203)

Sec. 203. Base income defined.

(a) Individuals.

(1) In general. In the case of an individual, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The adjusted gross income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income, except stock dividends of qualified public utilities described in Section 305(e) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income for the taxable year;

(C) An amount equal to the amount received during the taxable year as a recovery or refund of real property taxes paid with respect to the taxpayer's principal residence under the Revenue Act of 1939 and for which a deduction was previously taken under subparagraph (L) of this paragraph (2) prior to July 1, 1991, the retrospective application date of Article 4 of Public Act 87-17. In the case of multi-unit or multi-use structures and farm dwellings, the taxes on the taxpayer's principal residence shall be that portion of the total taxes for the entire property which is attributable to such principal residence;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income;

(D-5) An amount, to the extent not included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of money withdrawn by the taxpayer in the taxable year from a medical care savings account and the interest earned on the account in the taxable year of a withdrawal pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act or subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000;

(D-10) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the individual deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the individual claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(D-15) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-16) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (Z) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (Z) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (Z), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-17) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-18) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-19) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) or Section 203(a)(2)(D-18) of this Act;

(D-20) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002 and ending on or before December 31, 2006, in the case of a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than (i) a distribution from a College Savings Pool created under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) a distribution from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(B). For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2007, in the case of a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than (i) a distribution from a College Savings Pool created under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, (ii) a distribution from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, or (iii) a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code that (I) adopts and determines that its offering materials comply with the College Savings Plans Network's disclosure principles and (II) has made reasonable efforts to inform in-state residents of the existence of in-state qualified tuition programs by informing Illinois residents directly and, where applicable, to inform financial intermediaries distributing the program to inform in-state residents of the existence of in-state qualified tuition programs at least annually, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(B).

For the purposes of this subparagraph (D-20), a qualified tuition program has made reasonable efforts if it makes disclosures (which may use the term "in-state program" or "in-state plan" and need not specifically refer to Illinois or its qualified programs by name) (i) directly to prospective participants in its offering materials or makes a public disclosure, such as a website posting; and (ii) where applicable, to intermediaries selling the out-of-state program in the same manner that the out-of-state program distributes its offering materials;

(D-20.5) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, in the case of a distribution from a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code, other than a distribution from a qualified ABLE program created under Section 16.6 of the State Treasurer Act, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529A(c)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-21) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2007, in the case of transfer of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code that is administered by the State to an out-of-state program, an amount equal to the amount of moneys previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) of this Section;

(D-21.5) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, in the case of the transfer of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 or a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code that is administered by this State to an ABLE account established under an out-of-state ABLE account program, an amount equal to the contribution component of the transferred amount that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) or subsection (a)(2)(HH) of this Section;

(D-22) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2009, and prior to January 1, 2018, in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State that is not used for qualified expenses at an eligible education institution, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(y) of this Section, provided that the withdrawal or refund did not result from the beneficiary's death or disability. For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018: (1) in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund, as defined under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) of this Section, and (2) in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund from a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State that is not used for qualified disability expenses, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(HH) of this Section;

(D-23) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(D-24) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(D-25) In the case of a resident, an amount equal to the amount of tax for which a credit is allowed pursuant to Section 201(p)(7) of this Act;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(E) For taxable years ending before December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being on active duty in the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 1971 or thereafter for annual training performed pursuant to Sections 502 and 503, Title 32, United States Code as a member of the Illinois National Guard or, beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2007, the National Guard of any other state. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being a member of any component of the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 2001 or thereafter by reason of being a member of the Illinois National Guard or, beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2007, the National Guard of any other state. The provisions of this subparagraph (E) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(F) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a), and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code, or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(G) The valuation limitation amount;

(H) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Section 111 of the Internal Revenue Code as a recovery of items previously deducted from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(J) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act, and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (J) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (J) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (K);

(L) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1983, an amount equal to all social security benefits and railroad retirement benefits included in such total pursuant to Sections 72(r) and 86 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(M) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (N), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(O) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code or of any itemized deduction taken from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year;

(Q) An amount equal to any amounts included in such total, received by the taxpayer as an acceleration in the payment of life, endowment or annuity benefits in advance of the time they would otherwise be payable as an indemnity for a terminal illness;

(R) An amount equal to the amount of any federal or State bonus paid to veterans of the Persian Gulf War;

(S) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of a contribution made in the taxable year on behalf of the taxpayer to a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 to the extent the contribution is accepted by the account administrator as provided in that Act;

(T) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of interest earned in the taxable year on a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 on behalf of the taxpayer, other than interest added pursuant to item (D-5) of this paragraph (2);

(U) For one taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, an amount equal to the total amount of tax imposed and paid under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act on grant amounts received by the taxpayer under the Nursing Home Grant Assistance Act during the taxpayer's taxable years 1992 and 1993;

(V) Beginning with tax years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with tax years ending on or before December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount paid by a taxpayer who is a self-employed taxpayer, a partner of a partnership, or a shareholder in a Subchapter S corporation for health insurance or long-term care insurance for that taxpayer or that taxpayer's spouse or dependents, to the extent that the amount paid for that health insurance or long-term care insurance may be deducted under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code, has not been deducted on the federal income tax return of the taxpayer, and does not exceed the taxable income attributable to that taxpayer's income, self-employment income, or Subchapter S corporation income; except that no deduction shall be allowed under this item (V) if the taxpayer is eligible to participate in any health insurance or long-term care insurance plan of an employer of the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse. The amount of the health insurance and long-term care insurance subtracted under this item (V) shall be determined by multiplying total health insurance and long-term care insurance premiums paid by the taxpayer times a number that represents the fractional percentage of eligible medical expenses under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 not actually deducted on the taxpayer's federal income tax return;

(W) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 1998, all amounts included in the taxpayer's federal gross income in the taxable year from amounts converted from a regular IRA to a Roth IRA. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(X) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002 and ending on or before December 31, 2004, moneys contributed in the taxable year to a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2005, a maximum of $10,000 contributed in the taxable year to (i) a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). For purposes of this subparagraph, contributions made by an employer on behalf of an employee, or matching contributions made by an employee, shall be treated as made by the employee. This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Z) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1–bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (Z) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(AA) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (Z) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (AA) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(BB) Any amount included in adjusted gross income, other than salary, received by a driver in a ridesharing arrangement using a motor vehicle;

(CC) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification, and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification. This subparagraph (CC) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(DD) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (DD) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(EE) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (EE) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(FF) An amount equal to any amount awarded to the taxpayer during the taxable year by the Court of Claims under subsection (c) of Section 8 of the Court of Claims Act for time unjustly served in a State prison. This subparagraph (FF) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(GG) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(a)(2)(D-19), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (GG), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (GG). This subparagraph (GG) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(HH) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018 and prior to January 1, 2028, a maximum of $10,000 contributed in the taxable year to a qualified ABLE account under Section 16.6 of the State Treasurer Act, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) or Section 529A(c)(1)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (HH). For purposes of this subparagraph (HH), contributions made by an employer on behalf of an employee, or matching contributions made by an employee, shall be treated as made by the employee; and

(II) For taxable years that begin on or after January 1, 2021 and begin before January 1, 2026, the amount that is included in the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income pursuant to Section 61 of the Internal Revenue Code as discharge of indebtedness attributable to student loan forgiveness and that is not excluded from the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income pursuant to paragraph (5) of subsection (f) of Section 108 of the Internal Revenue Code; and .

(JJ) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, for any cannabis establishment operating in this State and licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or any cannabis cultivation center or medical cannabis dispensing organization operating in this State and licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, an amount equal to the deductions that were disallowed under Section 280E of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year and that would not be added back under this subsection. The provisions of this subparagraph (JJ) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(b) Corporations.

(1) In general. In the case of a corporation, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest and all distributions received from regulated investment companies during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(C) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the excess of (i) the net long-term capital gain for the taxable year, over (ii) the amount of the capital gain dividends designated as such in accordance with Section 852(b)(3)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code and any amount designated under Section 852(b)(3)(D) of the Internal Revenue Code, attributable to the taxable year (this amendatory Act of 1995 (Public Act 89-89) is declarative of existing law and is not a new enactment);

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such earlier taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(E-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the corporation deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the corporation claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(E-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(E-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (T) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (T) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (T), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(E-12) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(E-13) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(E-14) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) or Section 203(b)(2)(E-13) of this Act;

(E-15) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2008, any deduction for dividends paid by a captive real estate investment trust that is allowed to a real estate investment trust under Section 857(b)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code for dividends paid;

(E-16) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(E-17) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(E-18) for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2018, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 250(a)(1)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(E-19) for taxable years ending on or after June 30, 2021, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 250(a)(1)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(E-20) for taxable years ending on or after June 30, 2021, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Sections 243(e) and 245A(a) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year.

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to any amount included in such total under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(H) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the amount of exempt interest dividends as defined in subsection (b)(5) of Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, paid to shareholders for the taxable year;

(I) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (J), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) and amounts disallowed as interest expense by Section 291(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, 291(a)(3), and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2011, amounts disallowed as deductions by Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code and the policyholders' share of tax-exempt interest of a life insurance company under Section 807(a)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code (in the case of a life insurance company with gross income from a decrease in reserves for the tax year) or Section 807(b)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code (in the case of a life insurance company allowed a deduction for an increase in reserves for the tax year); the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(J) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph 2 of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (L);

(M) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(f) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(f) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in the River Edge Redevelopment Zone. The subtraction modification available to the taxpayer in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M-1) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the High Impact Business Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(h) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(h) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone located in Illinois. No taxpayer that is eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M-1). The subtraction modification available to taxpayers in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence;

(N) Two times any contribution made during the taxable year to a designated zone organization to the extent that the contribution (i) qualifies as a charitable contribution under subsection (c) of Section 170 of the Internal Revenue Code and (ii) must, by its terms, be used for a project approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under Section 11 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or under Section 10-10 of the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act. This subparagraph (N) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(O) An amount equal to: (i) 85% for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 1992, or, a percentage equal to the percentage allowable under Section 243(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 for taxable years ending after December 31, 1992, of the amount by which dividends included in taxable income and received from a corporation that is not created or organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 965 of the Internal Revenue Code, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends, and including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, dividends received from a captive real estate investment trust; plus (ii) 100% of the amount by which dividends, included in taxable income and received, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, dividends received from a captive real estate investment trust, from any such corporation specified in clause (i) that would but for the provisions of Section 1504(b)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code be treated as a member of the affiliated group which includes the dividend recipient, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends. For taxable years ending on or after June 30, 2021, (i) for purposes of this subparagraph, the term "dividend" does not include any amount treated as a dividend under Section 1248 of the Internal Revenue Code, and (ii) this subparagraph shall not apply to dividends for which a deduction is allowed under Section 245(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (O) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act;

(P) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(Q) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(R) On and after July 20, 1999, in the case of an attorney-in-fact with respect to whom an interinsurer or a reciprocal insurer has made the election under Section 835 of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 835, an amount equal to the excess, if any, of the amounts paid or incurred by that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer in the taxable year to the attorney-in-fact over the deduction allowed to that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer with respect to the attorney-in-fact under Section 835(b) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1997, in the case of a Subchapter S corporation, an amount equal to all amounts of income allocable to a shareholder subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act, including amounts allocable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1–bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(U) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (T) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (U) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(V) The amount of: (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification, (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification, and (iii) any insurance premium income (net of deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-19), Section 203(b)(2)(E-14), Section 203(c)(2)(G-14), or Section 203(d)(2)(D-9), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification. This subparagraph (V) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(W) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (W) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(X) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (X) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(b)(2)(E-14), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (Y), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (Y). This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(Z) The difference between the nondeductible controlled foreign corporation dividends under Section 965(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code over the taxable income of the taxpayer, computed without regard to Section 965(e)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code, and without regard to any net operating loss deduction. This subparagraph (Z) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and .

(AA) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, for any cannabis establishment operating in this State and licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or any cannabis cultivation center or medical cannabis dispensing organization operating in this State and licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, an amount equal to the deductions that were disallowed under Section 280E of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year and that would not be added back under this subsection. The provisions of this subparagraph (AA) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(3) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (2)(A), "gross income" in the case of a life insurance company, for tax years ending on and after December 31, 1994, and prior to December 31, 2011, shall mean the gross investment income for the taxable year and, for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2011, shall mean all amounts included in life insurance gross income under Section 803(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) Trusts and estates.

(1) In general. In the case of a trust or estate, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (3), the taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) In the case of (i) an estate, $600; (ii) a trust which, under its governing instrument, is required to distribute all of its income currently, $300; and (iii) any other trust, $100, but in each such case, only to the extent such amount was deducted in the computation of taxable income;

(C) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(F) For taxable years ending on or after January 1, 1989, an amount equal to the tax deducted pursuant to Section 164 of the Internal Revenue Code if the trust or estate is claiming the same tax for purposes of the Illinois foreign tax credit under Section 601 of this Act;

(G) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(G-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the trust or estate deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the trust or estate claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(G-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(G-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (R) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (R) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (R), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(G-12) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(G-13) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes: (1) expenses, losses, and costs for or related to the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(G-14) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) or Section 203(c)(2)(G-13) of this Act;

(G-15) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(G-16) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(H) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a) and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(I) The valuation limitation amount;

(J) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(K) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(L) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (K), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, (iii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(O) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (O);

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(Q) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(R) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1–bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (R) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (R) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification. This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(U) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (U) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(V) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (V) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(W) in the case of an estate, an amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Section 111 of the Internal Revenue Code as a recovery of items previously deducted by the decedent from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income. This subparagraph (W) is exempt from Section 250;

(X) an amount equal to the refund included in such total of any tax deducted for federal income tax purposes, to the extent that deduction was added back under subparagraph (F). This subparagraph (X) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(c)(2)(G-14), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (Y), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (Y). This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(Z) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2018 and before January 1, 2026, the amount of excess business loss of the taxpayer disallowed as a deduction by Section 461(l)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code; and .

(AA) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, for any cannabis establishment operating in this State and licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or any cannabis cultivation center or medical cannabis dispensing organization operating in this State and licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, an amount equal to the deductions that were disallowed under Section 280E of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year and that would not be added back under this subsection. The provisions of this subparagraph (AA) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(3) Limitation. The amount of any modification otherwise required under this subsection shall, under regulations prescribed by the Department, be adjusted by any amounts included therein which were properly paid, credited, or required to be distributed, or permanently set aside for charitable purposes pursuant to Internal Revenue Code Section 642(c) during the taxable year.

(d) Partnerships.

(1) In general. In the case of a partnership, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income for the taxable year;

(C) The amount of deductions allowed to the partnership pursuant to Section 707 (c) of the Internal Revenue Code in calculating its taxable income;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(D-5) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-6) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (O) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (O) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (O), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-7) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act; and

(D-8) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets;

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-9) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) or Section 203(d)(2)(D-8) of this Act;

(D-10) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(D-11) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the following amounts:

(E) The valuation limitation amount;

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C) and (D) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(H) Any income of the partnership which constitutes personal service income as defined in Section 1348(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code (as in effect December 31, 1981) or a reasonable allowance for compensation paid or accrued for services rendered by partners to the partnership, whichever is greater; this subparagraph (H) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts of income distributable to an entity subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act including amounts distributable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code; this subparagraph (I) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(J) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (G), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, (iii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations from a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Real Property Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M);

(N) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(O) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1–bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (O) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(P) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (O) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (P) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Q) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification. This subparagraph (Q) is exempt from Section 250;

(R) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (R) is exempt from Section 250;

(S) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-8) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (S) is exempt from Section 250; and

(T) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(d)(2)(D-9), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (T), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (T). This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and .

(U) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, for any cannabis establishment operating in this State and licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or any cannabis cultivation center or medical cannabis dispensing organization operating in this State and licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, an amount equal to the deductions that were disallowed under Section 280E of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year and that would not be added back under this subsection. The provisions of this subparagraph (U) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(e) Gross income; adjusted gross income; taxable income.

(1) In general. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) and subsection (b)(3), for purposes of this Section and Section 803(e), a taxpayer's gross income, adjusted gross income, or taxable income for the taxable year shall mean the amount of gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year under the provisions of the Internal Revenue Code. Taxable income may be less than zero. However, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1986, net operating loss carryforwards from taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, may not exceed the sum of federal taxable income for the taxable year before net operating loss deduction, plus the excess of addition modifications over subtraction modifications for the taxable year. For taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, taxable income may never be an amount in excess of the net operating loss for the taxable year as defined in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code, provided that when taxable income of a corporation (other than a Subchapter S corporation), trust, or estate is less than zero and addition modifications, other than those provided by subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) for corporations or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) for trusts and estates, exceed subtraction modifications, an addition modification must be made under those subparagraphs for any other taxable year to which the taxable income less than zero (net operating loss) is applied under Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code or under subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (e) applied in conjunction with Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(2) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (1) of this subsection, the taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes shall mean:

(A) Certain life insurance companies. In the case of a life insurance company subject to the tax imposed by Section 801 of the Internal Revenue Code, life insurance company taxable income, plus the amount of distribution from pre-1984 policyholder surplus accounts as calculated under Section 815a of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) Certain other insurance companies. In the case of mutual insurance companies subject to the tax imposed by Section 831 of the Internal Revenue Code, insurance company taxable income;

(C) Regulated investment companies. In the case of a regulated investment company subject to the tax imposed by Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, investment company taxable income;

(D) Real estate investment trusts. In the case of a real estate investment trust subject to the tax imposed by Section 857 of the Internal Revenue Code, real estate investment trust taxable income;

(E) Consolidated corporations. In the case of a corporation which is a member of an affiliated group of corporations filing a consolidated income tax return for the taxable year for federal income tax purposes, taxable income determined as if such corporation had filed a separate return for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year and each preceding taxable year for which it was a member of an affiliated group. For purposes of this subparagraph, the taxpayer's separate taxable income shall be determined as if the election provided by Section 243(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code had been in effect for all such years;

(F) Cooperatives. In the case of a cooperative corporation or association, the taxable income of such organization determined in accordance with the provisions of Section 1381 through 1388 of the Internal Revenue Code, but without regard to the prohibition against offsetting losses from patronage activities against income from nonpatronage activities; except that a cooperative corporation or association may make an election to follow its federal income tax treatment of patronage losses and nonpatronage losses. In the event such election is made, such losses shall be computed and carried over in a manner consistent with subsection (a) of Section 207 of this Act and apportioned by the apportionment factor reported by the cooperative on its Illinois income tax return filed for the taxable year in which the losses are incurred. The election shall be effective for all taxable years with original returns due on or after the date of the election. In addition, the cooperative may file an amended return or returns, as allowed under this Act, to provide that the election shall be effective for losses incurred or carried forward for taxable years occurring prior to the date of the election. Once made, the election may only be revoked upon approval of the Director. The Department shall adopt rules setting forth requirements for documenting the elections and any resulting Illinois net loss and the standards to be used by the Director in evaluating requests to revoke elections. Public Act 96-932 is declaratory of existing law;

(G) Subchapter S corporations. In the case of: (i) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect an election for the taxable year under Section 1362 of the Internal Revenue Code, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with Section 1363(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 1363(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code to be separately stated; and (ii) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect a federal election to opt out of the provisions of the Subchapter S Revision Act of 1982 and have applied instead the prior federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with the federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982; and

(H) Partnerships. In the case of a partnership, taxable income determined in accordance with Section 703 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 703(a)(1) to be separately stated but which would be taken into account by an individual in calculating his taxable income.

(3) Recapture of business expenses on disposition of asset or business. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, if in prior years income from an asset or business has been classified as business income and in a later year is demonstrated to be non-business income, then all expenses, without limitation, deducted in such later year and in the 2 immediately preceding taxable years related to that asset or business that generated the non-business income shall be added back and recaptured as business income in the year of the disposition of the asset or business. Such amount shall be apportioned to Illinois using the greater of the apportionment fraction computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year or the average of the apportionment fractions computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year and for the 2 immediately preceding taxable years.

(f) Valuation limitation amount.

(1) In general. The valuation limitation amount referred to in subsections (a)(2)(G), (c)(2)(I) and (d)(2)(E) is an amount equal to:

(A) The sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of gain reportable under the provisions of Section 1245 or 1250 of the Internal Revenue Code) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for the taxable year; plus

(B) The lesser of (i) the sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of capital gain) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or (ii) the net capital gain for the taxable year, reduced in either case by any amount of such gain included in the amount determined under subsection (a)(2)(F) or (c)(2)(H).

(2) Pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount.

(A) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is the lesser of (i) the excess of such fair market value over the taxpayer's basis (for determining gain) for such property on that date (determined under the Internal Revenue Code as in effect on that date), or (ii) the total gain realized and reportable for federal income tax purposes in respect of the sale, exchange or other disposition of such property.

(B) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was not readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is that amount which bears the same ratio to the total gain reported in respect of the property for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, as the number of full calendar months in that part of the taxpayer's holding period for the property ending July 31, 1969 bears to the number of full calendar months in the taxpayer's entire holding period for the property.

(C) The Department shall prescribe such regulations as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this paragraph.

(g) Double deductions. Unless specifically provided otherwise, nothing in this Section shall permit the same item to be deducted more than once.

(h) Legislative intention. Except as expressly provided by this Section there shall be no modifications or limitations on the amounts of income, gain, loss or deduction taken into account in determining gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or in the amount of such items entering into the computation of base income and net income under this Act for such taxable year, whether in respect of property values as of August 1, 1969 or otherwise.

(Source: P.A. 101-9, eff. 6-5-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-658, eff. 8-27-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1112, eff. 12-21-22.)

Article 16.

Section 16-5. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Section 55-21 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/55-21)

Sec. 55-21. Cannabis product packaging and labeling.

(a) Each cannabis product produced for sale shall be registered with the Department of Agriculture on forms provided by the Department of Agriculture. Each product registration shall include a label and the required registration fee at the rate established by the Department of Agriculture for a comparable medical cannabis product, or as established by rule. The registration fee is for the name of the product offered for sale and one fee shall be sufficient for all package sizes.

(b) All harvested cannabis intended for distribution to a cannabis enterprise must be packaged in a sealed, labeled container.

(c) Any product containing cannabis shall be sold in a sealed, odor-proof, and child-resistant cannabis container consistent with current standards, including the Consumer Product Safety Commission standards referenced by the Poison Prevention Act unless the sale is between or among a craft grower, infuser, or cultivation center.

(c-5) A medical cannabis container shall be compliant with the standards established by the Consumer Product Safety Commission. Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection, the Department of Agriculture may modify medical cannabis container packaging requirements, including package warnings, by rule, by January 1, 2024.

(d) All cannabis-infused products shall be individually wrapped or packaged at the original point of preparation. The packaging of the cannabis-infused product shall conform to the labeling requirements of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, in addition to the other requirements set forth in this Section.

(e) Each cannabis product shall be labeled before sale and each label shall be securely affixed to the package and shall state in legible English and any languages required by the Department of Agriculture:

(1) the name and post office box of the registered cultivation center or craft grower where the item was manufactured;

(2) the common or usual name of the item and the registered name of the cannabis product that was registered with the Department of Agriculture under subsection (a);

(3) a unique serial number that will match the product with a cultivation center or craft grower batch and lot number to facilitate any warnings or recalls the Department of Agriculture, cultivation center, or craft grower deems appropriate;

(4) the date of final testing and packaging, if sampled, and the identification of the independent testing laboratory;

(5) the date of harvest and "use by" date;

(6) the quantity (in ounces or grams) of cannabis contained in the product;

(7) a pass/fail rating based on the laboratory's microbiological, mycotoxins, and pesticide and solvent residue analyses, if sampled;

(8) content list.

(A) A list of the following, including the minimum and maximum percentage content by weight for subdivisions (e)(8)(A)(i) through (iv):

(i) delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC);

(ii) tetrahydrocannabinolic acid (THCA);

(iii) cannabidiol (CBD);

(iv) cannabidiolic acid (CBDA); and

(v) all other ingredients of the item, including any colors, artificial flavors, and preservatives, listed in descending order by predominance of weight shown with common or usual names.

(B) The acceptable tolerances for the minimum percentage printed on the label for any of subdivisions (e)(8)(A)(i) through (iv) shall not be below 85% or above 115% of the labeled amount.

(f) Packaging must not contain information that:

(1) is false or misleading;

(2) promotes excessive consumption;

(3) depicts a person under 21 years of age consuming cannabis;

(4) includes the image of a cannabis leaf;

(5) includes any image designed or likely to appeal to minors, including cartoons, toys, animals, or children, or any other likeness to images, characters, or phrases that are popularly used to advertise to children, or any packaging or labeling that bears reasonable resemblance to any product available for consumption as a commercially available candy, or that promotes consumption of cannabis;

(6) contains any seal, flag, crest, coat of arms, or other insignia likely to mislead the purchaser to believe that the product has been endorsed, made, or used by the State of Illinois or any of its representatives except where authorized by this Act.

(g) Cannabis products produced by concentrating or extracting ingredients from the cannabis plant shall contain the following information, where applicable:

(1) If solvents were used to create the concentrate or extract, a statement that discloses the type of extraction method, including any solvents or gases used to create the concentrate or extract; and

(2) Any other chemicals or compounds used to produce or were added to the concentrate or extract.

(h) All cannabis products must contain warning statements established for purchasers, of a size that is legible and readily visible to a consumer inspecting a package, which may not be covered or obscured in any way. The Department of Public Health shall define and update appropriate health warnings for packages including specific labeling or warning requirements for specific cannabis products.

(i) Unless modified by rule to strengthen or respond to new evidence and science, the following warnings shall apply to all cannabis products unless modified by rule: "This product contains cannabis and is intended for use by adults 21 and over. Its use can impair cognition and may be habit forming. This product should not be used by pregnant or breastfeeding women. It is unlawful to sell or provide this item to any individual, and it may not be transported outside the State of Illinois. It is illegal to operate a motor vehicle while under the influence of cannabis. Possession or use of this product may carry significant legal penalties in some jurisdictions and under federal law.".

(j) Warnings for each of the following product types must be present on labels when offered for sale to a purchaser:

(1) Cannabis that may be smoked must contain a statement that "Smoking is hazardous to your health.".

(2) Cannabis-infused products (other than those intended for topical application) must contain a statement "CAUTION: This product contains cannabis, and intoxication following use may be delayed 2 or more hours. This product was produced in a facility that cultivates cannabis, and that may also process common food allergens.".

(3) Cannabis-infused products intended for topical application must contain a statement "DO NOT EAT" in bold, capital letters.

(k) Each cannabis-infused product intended for consumption must be individually packaged, must include the total milligram content of THC and CBD, and may not include more than a total of 100 milligrams of THC per package. A package may contain multiple servings of 10 milligrams of THC, indicated by scoring, wrapping, or by other indicators designating individual serving sizes. The Department of Agriculture may change the total amount of THC allowed for each package, or the total amount of THC allowed for each serving size, by rule.

(l) No individual other than the purchaser may alter or destroy any labeling affixed to the primary packaging of cannabis or cannabis-infused products.

(m) For each commercial weighing and measuring device used at a facility, the cultivation center or craft grower must:

(1) Ensure that the commercial device is licensed under the Weights and Measures Act and the associated administrative rules (8 Ill. Adm. Code 600);

(2) Maintain documentation of the licensure of the commercial device; and

(3) Provide a copy of the license of the commercial device to the Department of Agriculture for review upon request.

(n) It is the responsibility of the Department to ensure that packaging and labeling requirements, including product warnings, are enforced at all times for products provided to purchasers. Product registration requirements and container requirements may be modified by rule by the Department of Agriculture.

(o) Labeling, including warning labels, may be modified by rule by the Department of Agriculture.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21.)

Article 19.

Section 19-5. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 11-502.1 and 11-502.15 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/11-502.1)

Sec. 11-502.1. Possession of medical cannabis in a motor vehicle.

(a) No driver, who is a medical cannabis cardholder, may use medical cannabis within the passenger area of any motor vehicle upon a highway in this State.

(b) No driver, who is a medical cannabis cardholder, a medical cannabis designated caregiver, medical cannabis cultivation center agent, or dispensing organization agent may possess medical cannabis within any area of any motor vehicle upon a highway in this State except in a secured, sealed or resealable, odor-proof, and child-resistant medical cannabis container that is inaccessible.

(c) No passenger, who is a medical cannabis card holder, a medical cannabis designated caregiver, or medical cannabis dispensing organization agent may possess medical cannabis within any passenger area of any motor vehicle upon a highway in this State except in a secured, sealed or resealable, odor-proof, and child-resistant medical cannabis container that is inaccessible.

(d) Any person who violates subsections (a) through (c) of this Section:

(1) commits a Class A misdemeanor;

(2) shall be subject to revocation of his or her medical cannabis card for a period of 2 years from the end of the sentence imposed; and

(3) shall be subject to revocation of his or her status as a medical cannabis caregiver, medical cannabis cultivation center agent, or medical cannabis dispensing organization agent for a period of 2 years from the end of the sentence imposed.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-502.15)

Sec. 11-502.15. Possession of adult use cannabis in a motor vehicle.

(a) No driver may use cannabis within the passenger area of any motor vehicle upon a highway in this State.

(b) No driver may possess cannabis within any area of any motor vehicle upon a highway in this State except in a secured, sealed or resealable, and odor-proof, child-resistant cannabis container that is inaccessible.

(c) No passenger may possess cannabis within any passenger area of any motor vehicle upon a highway in this State except in a secured, sealed or resealable, and odor-proof, child-resistant cannabis container that is inaccessible.

(d) Any person who knowingly violates subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21.)

Article 20.

Section 20-5. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Section 15-60 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/15-60)

Sec. 15-60. Changes to a dispensing organization.

(a) A Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License may not be sold, transferred, assigned, used as collateral, add new principal officers to its ownership structure, or change its ownership structure. Notwithstanding the foregoing, this prohibition does not preclude third parties who are not registered as principal officers from investing in, lending to, or otherwise providing capital to the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder. Pursuant to this subsection, third parties are not required to register as principal officers of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder so long as any third party interest cannot be realized or otherwise vest until the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder is issued a corresponding Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under Section 15-36. In order to realize that interest or have the interest vest, all third parties are subject to the Department's approval processes in this Section, either through the sale or transfer of the Adult Use Dispensing Organization License to the third party or through the third party's registration and approval as principal officer to the Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder.

(a-5) (a) A license shall be issued to the specific dispensing organization identified on the application and for the specific location proposed. The license is valid only as designated on the license and for the location for which it is issued.

(b) A dispensing organization may only add principal officers after being approved by the Department.

(c) A dispensing organization shall provide written notice of the removal of a principal officer within 5 business days after removal. The notice shall include the written agreement of the principal officer being removed, unless otherwise approved by the Department, and allocation of ownership shares after removal in an updated ownership chart.

(d) A dispensing organization shall provide a written request to the Department for the addition of principal officers. A dispensing organization shall submit proposed principal officer applications on forms approved by the Department.

(e) All proposed new principal officers shall be subject to the requirements of this Act, this Article, and any rules that may be adopted pursuant to this Act.

(f) The Department may prohibit the addition of a principal officer to a dispensing organization for failure to comply with this Act, this Article, and any rules that may be adopted pursuant to this Act.

(g) A dispensing organization may not assign a license.

(h) A dispensing organization may not transfer a license without prior Department approval. Such approval may be withheld if the person to whom the license is being transferred does not commit to the same or a similar community engagement plan provided as part of the dispensing organization's application under paragraph (18) of subsection (d) of Section 15-25, and such transferee's license shall be conditional upon that commitment.

(i) With the addition or removal of principal officers, the Department will review the ownership structure to determine whether the change in ownership has had the effect of a transfer of the license. The dispensing organization shall supply all ownership documents requested by the Department.

(j) A dispensing organization may apply to the Department to approve a sale of the dispensing organization. A request to sell the dispensing organization must be on application forms provided by the Department. A request for an approval to sell a dispensing organization must comply with the following:

(1) New application materials shall comply with this Act and any rules that may be adopted pursuant to this Act;

(2) Application materials shall include a change of ownership fee of $5,000 to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(3) The application materials shall provide proof that the transfer of ownership will not have the effect of granting any of the owners or principal officers direct or indirect ownership or control of more than 10 adult use dispensing organization licenses;

(4) New principal officers shall each complete the proposed new principal officer application;

(5) If the Department approves the application materials and proposed new principal officer applications, it will perform an inspection before approving the sale and issuing the dispensing organization license;

(6) If a new license is approved, the Department will issue a new license number and certificate to the new dispensing organization.

(k) The dispensing organization shall provide the Department with the personal information for all new dispensing organizations agents as required in this Article and all new dispensing organization agents shall be subject to the requirements of this Article. A dispensing organization agent must obtain an agent identification card from the Department before beginning work at a dispensary.

(l) Before remodeling, expansion, reduction, or other physical, noncosmetic alteration of a dispensary, the dispensing organization must notify the Department and confirm the alterations are in compliance with this Act and any rules that may be adopted pursuant to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

Article 21.

Section 21-5. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Section 7-15 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/7-15)

Sec. 7-15. Loans and grants to Social Equity Applicants.

(a) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall establish grant and loan programs, subject to appropriations from the Cannabis Business Development Fund, for the purposes of providing financial assistance, loans, grants, and technical assistance to Social Equity Applicants.

(b) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity has the power to:

(1) provide Cannabis Social Equity loans and grants from appropriations from the Cannabis Business Development Fund to assist Qualified Social Equity Applicants in gaining entry to, and successfully operating in, the State's regulated cannabis marketplace;

(2) enter into agreements that set forth terms and conditions of the financial assistance, accept funds or grants, and engage in cooperation with private entities and agencies of State or local government to carry out the purposes of this Section;

(3) fix, determine, charge, and collect any premiums, fees, charges, costs and expenses, including application fees, commitment fees, program fees, financing charges, or publication fees in connection with its activities under this Section;

(4) coordinate assistance under these loan programs with activities of the Illinois Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Illinois Department of Agriculture, and other agencies as needed to maximize the effectiveness and efficiency of this Act;

(5) provide staff, administration, and related support required to administer this Section;

(6) take whatever actions are necessary or appropriate to protect the State's interest in the event of bankruptcy, default, foreclosure, or noncompliance with the terms and conditions of financial assistance provided under this Section, including the ability to recapture funds if the recipient is found to be noncompliant with the terms and conditions of the financial assistance agreement;

(7) establish application, notification, contract, and other forms, procedures, or rules deemed necessary and appropriate; and

(8) utilize vendors or contract work to carry out the purposes of this Act.

(c) Loans made under this Section:

(1) shall only be made if, in the Department's judgment, the project furthers the goals set forth in this Act; and

(2) shall be in such principal amount and form and contain such terms and provisions with respect to security, insurance, reporting, delinquency charges, default remedies, forgiveness, and other matters as the Department shall determine appropriate to protect the public interest and to be consistent with the purposes of this Section. The terms and provisions may be less than required for similar loans not covered by this Section; and .

(3) may be distributed by lot if the Department determines that the amount of funding available is insufficient to provide an adequate amount of funding for all of the applicants eligible to receive a loan.

The Department may determine the number of loans available based on the amount of funding available and communicate the number of loans available on the loan application. The Department may use competitive criteria to establish which applicants are eligible to receive a loan.

(d) Grants made under this Section shall be awarded on a competitive and annual basis under the Grant Accountability and Transparency Act. Grants made under this Section shall further and promote the goals of this Act, including promotion of Social Equity Applicants, job training and workforce development, and technical assistance to Social Equity Applicants.

(e) Beginning January 1, 2021 and each year thereafter, the Department shall annually report to the Governor and the General Assembly on the outcomes and effectiveness of this Section that shall include the following:

(1) the number of persons or businesses receiving financial assistance under this Section;

(2) the amount in financial assistance awarded in the aggregate, in addition to the amount of loans made that are outstanding and the amount of grants awarded;

(3) the location of the project engaged in by the person or business; and

(4) if applicable, the number of new jobs and other forms of economic output created as a result of the financial assistance.

(f) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall include engagement with individuals with limited English proficiency as part of its outreach provided or targeted to attract and support Social Equity Applicants.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19.)

Article 99.

Section 99-99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.".