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Rep. Robyn Gabel
Filed: 4/20/2021
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1 | | AMENDMENT TO HOUSE BILL 3401
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2 | | AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend House Bill 3401 by replacing |
3 | | everything after the enacting clause with the following:
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4 | | "Section 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the |
5 | | Licensed Certified Professional Midwife Practice Act. |
6 | | Section 5. Purpose. The practice of midwifery in |
7 | | out-of-hospital settings is hereby declared to affect the |
8 | | public health, safety, and welfare and to be subject to |
9 | | regulation in the public interest. The purpose of the Act is to |
10 | | protect and benefit the public by setting standards for the |
11 | | qualifications, education, training, and experience of those |
12 | | who seek to obtain licensure as a licensed certified |
13 | | professional midwife, including requirements to work in |
14 | | consultation with hospital based and privileged health care |
15 | | professionals to promote high standards of professional |
16 | | performance for those licensed to practice midwifery in |
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1 | | out-of-hospital settings in this State, to promote a |
2 | | consultative and integrated maternity care delivery system in |
3 | | Illinois with agreed-upon consulting, transfer, and transport |
4 | | protocols in use by all health care professionals and licensed |
5 | | certified professional midwives across all health care |
6 | | settings to maximize client safety and positive outcomes, to |
7 | | support accredited education and training as a prerequisite to |
8 | | licensure, and to protect the public. |
9 | | Section 10. Definitions. As used in this Act: |
10 | | "Address of record" means the designated address recorded |
11 | | by the Department in the applicant's application file or the |
12 | | licensee's licensure file as maintained by the Department. |
13 | | "Antepartum" means before labor or childbirth. |
14 | | "Board" means the Illinois Midwifery Board. |
15 | | "Certified nurse midwife" means an individual licensed |
16 | | under the Nurse Practice Act as an advanced practice |
17 | | registered nurse and is certified as a nurse midwife. |
18 | | "Client" means a childbearing individual or newborn for |
19 | | whom a licensed certified professional midwife provides |
20 | | services. |
21 | | "Consultation" means the process by which a licensed |
22 | | certified professional midwife seeks the advice or opinion of |
23 | | another health care professional. |
24 | | "Department" means the Department of Financial and |
25 | | Professional Regulation. |
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1 | | "Email address of record" means the designated email |
2 | | address of record by the Department in the applicant's |
3 | | application file or the licensee's licensure file as |
4 | | maintained by the Department. |
5 | | "Health care professional" means an advanced practice |
6 | | registered nurse or a physician licensed to practice medicine |
7 | | in all of its branches. |
8 | | "Intrapartum" means during labor and delivery or |
9 | | childbirth. |
10 | | "Licensed certified professional midwife" means a person |
11 | | who has successfully met the requirements under Section 40 of |
12 | | this Act. |
13 | | "Low-risk" means a low-risk pregnancy where there is an |
14 | | absence of any preexisting maternal disease, significant |
15 | | disease arising from the pregnancy, or any condition likely to |
16 | | affect the pregnancy, including, but not limited to, those |
17 | | listed in subsection (b) of Section 75. |
18 | | "Midwife assistant" means a person, at least 18 years of |
19 | | age, who performs basic administrative, clerical, and |
20 | | supportive services under the supervision of a certified |
21 | | professional midwife, is educated to provide both basic and |
22 | | emergency care to newborns and mothers during labor, delivery, |
23 | | and immediately postpartum, and who maintains Neonatal |
24 | | Resuscitation Program provider status and cardiopulmonary |
25 | | resuscitation certification. |
26 | | "Midwifery bridge certificate" means a certificate issued |
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1 | | by the North American Registry of midwives that documents |
2 | | completion of accredited continuing education for certified |
3 | | professional midwives based upon identified areas to address |
4 | | education in emergency skills and other competencies set by |
5 | | the international confederation of midwives. |
6 | | "Midwifery Education and Accreditation Council" or "MEAC" |
7 | | means the nationally recognized accrediting agency, or its |
8 | | successor, that establishes standards for the education of |
9 | | direct-entry midwives in the United States. |
10 | | "National Association of Certified Professional Midwives" |
11 | | or "NACPM" means the professional organization, or its |
12 | | successor, that promotes the growth and development of the |
13 | | profession of certified professional midwives. |
14 | | "North American Registry of Midwives" or "NARM" means the |
15 | | accredited international agency, or its successor |
16 | | organization, that has established and has continued to |
17 | | administer certification for the credentialing of certified |
18 | | professional midwives, including the administration of a |
19 | | national competency examination. |
20 | | "Onset of care" means the initial prenatal visit upon an |
21 | | agreement between a licensed certified professional midwife |
22 | | and client to establish a midwife-client relationship, during |
23 | | which the licensed certified professional midwife may take a |
24 | | client's medical history, complete an exam, establish a |
25 | | client's record, or perform other services related to |
26 | | establishing care. "Onset of care" does not include an initial |
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1 | | interview where information about the licensed certified |
2 | | professional midwife's practice is shared but no |
3 | | midwife-client relationship is established. |
4 | | "Pediatric health care professional" means a licensed |
5 | | physician specializing in the care of children, a family |
6 | | practice physician, or an advanced practice registered nurse |
7 | | licensed under the Nurse Practice Act and certified as a |
8 | | Pediatric Nurse Practitioner or Family Nurse Practitioner. |
9 | | "Physician" means a physician licensed under the Medical |
10 | | Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all of its |
11 | | branches. |
12 | | "Postpartum period" means the first 6 weeks after |
13 | | delivery. |
14 | | "Practice of midwifery" means providing the necessary |
15 | | supervision, care, and advice to a client during a low-risk |
16 | | pregnancy, labor, and the postpartum period, including the |
17 | | intended low-risk delivery of a child, and providing normal |
18 | | newborn care. "Practice of midwifery" does not include the |
19 | | practice of medicine or nursing. |
20 | | "Qualified midwife preceptor" means a licensed and |
21 | | experienced midwife or other health professional licensed in |
22 | | the State who participated in the clinical education of |
23 | | individuals enrolled in a midwifery education institution, |
24 | | program, or pathway accredited by the midwifery education |
25 | | accreditation council who meet the criteria for midwife |
26 | | preceptors by NARM or its successor organization. |
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1 | | "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
2 | | Professional Regulation. |
3 | | "Supportive services" means simple routine medical tasks |
4 | | and procedures for which the midwife assistant or student |
5 | | midwife is appropriately trained. |
6 | | Section 15. Address of record; email address of record. |
7 | | All applicants and licensees shall: |
8 | | (1) provide a valid address and email address to the |
9 | | Department, which shall serve as the address of record and |
10 | | email address of record, respectively, at the time of |
11 | | application for licensure or renewal of licensure; and |
12 | | (2) inform the Department of any change of address of |
13 | | record or email address of record within 14 days after |
14 | | such change either through the Department's website or by |
15 | | contacting the Department.
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16 | | Section 20. Social Security Number on license application. |
17 | | In addition to any other information required to be contained |
18 | | in an application for licensure under this Act, every |
19 | | application for an original license under this Act shall |
20 | | include the applicant's Social Security Number, which shall be |
21 | | retained in the agency's records pertaining to the license. As |
22 | | soon as practical, the Department shall assign a customer's |
23 | | identification number to each applicant for a license. Every |
24 | | application for a renewal or restored license shall require |
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1 | | the applicant's customer identification number. |
2 | | Section 25. Exemptions. |
3 | | (a) This Act does not prohibit a person licensed under any |
4 | | other Act in this State from engaging in the practice for which |
5 | | he or she is licensed or from delegating services as provided |
6 | | for under the Act. |
7 | | (b) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit or |
8 | | require licensing under this Act with regard to: |
9 | | (1) the rendering of services by a birth attendant if |
10 | | such attendance is in accordance with the birth |
11 | | attendant's religious faith or cultural group, including |
12 | | indigenous communities, and is rendered only to |
13 | | childbearing individuals and families in a distinct |
14 | | cultural or religious group, including indigenous |
15 | | communities, as an exercise and enjoyment of religious or |
16 | | cultural freedom; |
17 | | (2) a student midwife practicing midwifery as part of |
18 | | their course of study in an accredited midwife |
19 | | institution, program, or pathway under the direction and |
20 | | supervision of a qualified midwife preceptor; and |
21 | | (3) a midwife assistant or student midwife performing |
22 | | within the scope of their responsibilities and duties as |
23 | | defined by rule under the supervision of a licensed |
24 | | certified professional midwife. |
25 | | (c) Nothing in this Act prevents a licensed certified |
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1 | | professional midwife from assisting a health care |
2 | | professional, practicing within his or her scope of practice |
3 | | while providing antepartum, intrapartum, or postpartum care. |
4 | | (d) Nothing in this Act abridges, limits, or changes in |
5 | | any way the rights of parents to deliver their baby where, |
6 | | when, how, and with whom they choose, regardless of licensure |
7 | | under this Act. |
8 | | Section 30. Illinois Midwifery Board. |
9 | | (a) There is created under the authority of the Department |
10 | | the Illinois Midwifery Board, which shall consist of 9 members |
11 | | appointed by the Secretary: 5 of whom shall be licensed |
12 | | certified professional midwives, except that initial |
13 | | appointees must have at least 3 years of experience in the |
14 | | practice of midwifery in an out-of-hospital setting, be |
15 | | certified by the North American Registry of Midwives, and meet |
16 | | the qualifications for licensure set forth in this Act; one of |
17 | | whom shall be a licensed obstetrician; one of whom shall be a |
18 | | certified
nurse midwife who provides home birth services; one |
19 | | of whom shall be a pediatric health care professional; and one |
20 | | of whom shall be a public member. Board members shall serve |
21 | | 4-year terms, except that in the case of initial appointments, |
22 | | terms shall be staggered as follows: 4 members shall serve for |
23 | | 4 years, 3 members shall serve for 3 years, and 2 members shall |
24 | | serve for 2 years. The Board shall annually elect a |
25 | | chairperson and vice chairperson. |
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1 | | (b) Any appointment made to fill a vacancy shall be for the |
2 | | unexpired portion of the term. Appointments to fill vacancies |
3 | | shall be made in the same manner as original appointments. No |
4 | | Board member may be reappointed for a term that would cause his |
5 | | or her continuous service on the Board to exceed 10 years. |
6 | | (c) Board membership must have a reasonable representation |
7 | | from different geographic areas of this State, if possible. |
8 | | (d) The Secretary may solicit board recommendations from |
9 | | midwifery organizations. |
10 | | (e) The members of the Board may be reimbursed for all |
11 | | legitimate, necessary, and authorized expenses incurred in |
12 | | attending the meetings of the Board. |
13 | | (f) The Secretary may remove any member of the Board for |
14 | | misconduct, incapacity, or neglect of duty at any time prior |
15 | | to the expiration of his or her term. |
16 | | (g) Five Board members shall constitute a quorum. A |
17 | | vacancy in the membership of the Board shall not impair the |
18 | | right of a quorum to perform all of the duties of the Board. |
19 | | (h) The Board may provide the Department with |
20 | | recommendations concerning the administration of this Act and |
21 | | may perform each of the following duties:
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22 | | (1) Recommend to the Department the prescription and, |
23 | | from time to time, the revision of any rules that may be |
24 | | necessary to carry out the provisions of this Act, |
25 | | including those that are designed to protect the health, |
26 | | safety, and welfare of the public. |
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1 | | (2) Recommend changes to the medication formulary list |
2 | | as standards and drug availability change. |
3 | | (3) Participate in disciplinary conferences and |
4 | | hearings. |
5 | | (4) Make recommendations to the Department regarding |
6 | | disciplinary action taken against a licensee as provided |
7 | | under this Act. |
8 | | (5) Recommend the approval, denial of approval, and |
9 | | withdrawal of approval of required education and |
10 | | continuing educational programs. |
11 | | (i) Members of the Board shall be immune from suit in an |
12 | | action based upon a disciplinary proceeding or other activity |
13 | | performed in good faith as a member of the Board, except for |
14 | | willful or wanton misconduct. |
15 | | Section 35. Powers and duties of the Department; rules. |
16 | | (a) The Department shall exercise the powers and duties |
17 | | prescribed by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois for |
18 | | the administration of licensing Acts and shall exercise such |
19 | | other powers and duties necessary for effectuating the |
20 | | purposes of this Act. |
21 | | (b) The Secretary shall adopt rules consistent with the |
22 | | provisions of this Act for the administration and enforcement |
23 | | of this Act and for the payment of fees connected to this Act |
24 | | and may prescribe forms that shall be issued in connection |
25 | | with this Act. |
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1 | | Section 40. Use of title. No person may use the title |
2 | | "licensed midwife", describe or imply that he or she is a |
3 | | licensed midwife, or represent himself or herself as a |
4 | | licensed midwife unless the person is granted a license under |
5 | | this Act or is licensed as an advanced practice registered |
6 | | nurse with certification as a nurse midwife. |
7 | | Section 45. Licensure. |
8 | | (a) Each applicant who successfully meets the requirements |
9 | | of this Section is eligible for licensure as a certified |
10 | | professional midwife if the applicant: |
11 | | (1) submits forms prescribed by the Department and |
12 | | accompanied by the required fee; |
13 | | (2) is at least 21 years of age; |
14 | | (3) holds and maintains valid certified professional |
15 | | midwife certification granted by NARM or its successor |
16 | | organization; |
17 | | (4) holds and maintains cardiopulmonary resuscitation |
18 | | certification; |
19 | | (5) holds and maintains neonatal resuscitation |
20 | | provider status; and |
21 | | (6) successfully completed a postsecondary midwifery |
22 | | education program through an institution, program, or |
23 | | pathway accredited by the Midwife Education and |
24 | | Accreditation Council, that has both academic and clinical |
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1 | | practice incorporated throughout the curriculum. |
2 | | (b) A midwife who is certified by NARM, but who has not |
3 | | completed a MEAC program, may apply for licensure if he or she: |
4 | | (1) provides proof as a citizen residing in this |
5 | | State; |
6 | | (2) provides proof of completion of the midwifery |
7 | | bridge certificate and applies within one year of adoption |
8 | | of rules or provide proof of practicing as a certified |
9 | | professional midwife in this State for at least 3 years |
10 | | prior to when rules are adopted and applies up to 3 years |
11 | | after adoption of rules; and |
12 | | (3) provides proof of paragraphs (1) through (6) |
13 | | required under subsection (a). |
14 | | (c) Applicants have 3 years from the date of application |
15 | | to complete the application process. If the process has not |
16 | | been completed in 3 years, the application shall be denied, |
17 | | the fee shall be forfeited, and the applicant must reapply and |
18 | | meet the requirements in effect at the time of reapplication. |
19 | | Section 50. Endorsement. Upon payment of the required fee, |
20 | | the Department may, in its discretion, license as a certified |
21 | | professional midwife, an applicant who is a certified |
22 | | professional midwife licensed in another jurisdiction, if the |
23 | | requirements for licensure in that jurisdiction were, at the |
24 | | time of licensure, substantially equivalent to the |
25 | | requirements in force in this State on that date or equivalent |
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1 | | to the requirements of this Act. |
2 | | Section 55. Expiration; renewal of licensure. |
3 | | (a) The expiration date and renewal period for each |
4 | | license issued under this Act shall be set by rule. The holder |
5 | | of a license may renew the license during the month preceding |
6 | | the expiration date of the license by paying the required fee. |
7 | | It is the responsibility of the licensee to notify the |
8 | | Department in writing of a change of address required for the |
9 | | renewal of a license under this Act. |
10 | | Any licensed certified professional midwife who has |
11 | | permitted his or her license to expire or who has had his or |
12 | | her license on inactive status may have the license restored |
13 | | by applying to the Department and filing proof acceptable to |
14 | | the Department of his or her fitness to have the license |
15 | | restored, and by paying the required fees. Proof of fitness |
16 | | may include sworn evidence certifying to active lawful |
17 | | practice in another jurisdiction. |
18 | | If the licensed certified professional midwife has not |
19 | | maintained an active practice in another jurisdiction |
20 | | satisfactory to the Department, the Department shall |
21 | | determine, by an evaluation program established by rule, his |
22 | | or her fitness for restoration of the license and shall |
23 | | establish procedures and requirements for such restoration. |
24 | | However, any licensed certified professional midwife whose |
25 | | license expired while he or she was (1) in federal service on |
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1 | | active duty with the Armed Forces of the United States, or the |
2 | | State Militia called he or she into service or training, or (2) |
3 | | in training or education under the supervision of the United |
4 | | States preliminary to induction into the military service, may |
5 | | have the license restored without paying any lapsed renewal |
6 | | fees if, within 2 years after honorable termination of such |
7 | | service, training, or education, he or she furnishes the |
8 | | Department with satisfactory evidence to the effect that he or |
9 | | she has been so engaged and that his or her service, training, |
10 | | or education has been terminated. |
11 | | (b) Rules adopted under this Act shall require a licensed |
12 | | certified professional midwife to maintain certified |
13 | | professional midwife certification by meeting all continuing |
14 | | education requirements and other requirements set forth in |
15 | | this Section and to maintain current cardiopulmonary |
16 | | resuscitation or basic life support certification as required |
17 | | under Section 40. |
18 | | The Department may adopt rules of continuing education for |
19 | | licensed certified professional midwives licensed under this |
20 | | Act that require 20 hours of continuing education per 2-year |
21 | | license renewal cycle. The rules shall address variances in |
22 | | part or in whole for good cause, including, but not limited to, |
23 | | illness or hardship. The continuing education rules must |
24 | | ensure that licensees are given the opportunity to participate |
25 | | in programs sponsored by or through their State or national |
26 | | professional associations, hospitals, or other providers of |
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1 | | continuing education. Each licensee is responsible for |
2 | | maintaining records of completion of continuing education and |
3 | | shall be prepared to produce the records when requested by the |
4 | | Department. |
5 | | Section 60. Inactive status. Any licensed certified |
6 | | professional midwife who notified the Department in writing on |
7 | | forms prescribed by the Department, may elect to place his or |
8 | | her license on an inactive status and shall, subject to rules |
9 | | of the Department, be excused from payment of renewal fees |
10 | | until he or she notifies the Department in writing of his or |
11 | | her intention to restore the license. |
12 | | Any licensed certified professional midwife requesting |
13 | | restoration from inactive status shall be required to pay the |
14 | | current renewal fee and shall be required to restore his or her |
15 | | license, as provided in Section 55. |
16 | | Any licensed certified professional midwife whose license |
17 | | is in an inactive status shall not practice in the State. |
18 | | Any licensee who engages in practice while his or her |
19 | | license is lapsed or on inactive status shall be considered to |
20 | | be practicing without a license, which shall be grounds for |
21 | | discipline under Section 140. |
22 | | Section 65. Informed consent. |
23 | | (a) A licensed certified professional midwife shall, at an |
24 | | initial prenatal visit with a client, provide and disclose to |
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1 | | the client orally and in writing on a form provided by the |
2 | | Department all of the following information: |
3 | | (1) the licensed certified professional midwife's |
4 | | experience and training; |
5 | | (2) whether the licensed certified professional |
6 | | midwife has malpractice liability insurance coverage and |
7 | | the policy limits of the coverage; |
8 | | (3) a protocol for the handling of both the patient's |
9 | | and the newborn's medical emergencies; this shall include, |
10 | | but not be limited to, obtaining transportation to a |
11 | | hospital particular to each client with identification of |
12 | | the appropriate hospital, providing a verbal report of the |
13 | | care provided to emergency services providers, and sending |
14 | | a copy of the client records with the client at the time of |
15 | | any transfer to a hospital, including obtaining a signed |
16 | | authorization to release the client's medical records to a |
17 | | health care professional or hospital in the event of such |
18 | | emergency transport; |
19 | | (4) a statement informing the client that, in the |
20 | | event of an emergency or voluntary transfer or if |
21 | | subsequent care is required resulting from the acts or |
22 | | omissions of the licensed certified professional midwife, |
23 | | no liability for the acts or omissions of the licensed |
24 | | certified professional midwife are assignable to the |
25 | | receiving hospital, health care facility, physician, |
26 | | nurse, emergency personnel, or other medical professional |
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1 | | rendering such care; the receiving hospital, health care |
2 | | facility, physician, nurse, emergency medical personnel, |
3 | | hospital, or other medical professional rendering care are |
4 | | responsible for their own acts and omissions; |
5 | | (5) a statement outlining the necessary emergency |
6 | | equipment, drugs, and personnel available to provide |
7 | | appropriate care in the home; |
8 | | (6) the intent to provide at least one midwife |
9 | | assistant or student midwife during intrapartum and |
10 | | immediate postpartum care; and |
11 | | (7) a recommendation that the client preregister with |
12 | | the nearest hospital and explain the benefits of |
13 | | preregistration. |
14 | | (b) A licensed certified professional midwife shall, at an |
15 | | initial prenatal visit with a client, provide a copy of the |
16 | | written disclosures required under this Section to the client |
17 | | and obtain the client's signature acknowledging that the |
18 | | client has been informed, orally and in writing, of the |
19 | | disclosures required. |
20 | | Section 70. Scope of practice. |
21 | | (a) A licensed certified professional midwife shall: |
22 | | (1) offer each client routine prenatal care and |
23 | | testing in accordance with current American College of |
24 | | Obstetricians and Gynecologists guidelines; |
25 | | (2) provide all clients with a plan for 24 hour |
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1 | | on-call availability by a licensed certified professional |
2 | | midwife, certified nurse midwife, or licensed physician |
3 | | throughout pregnancy, intrapartum, and 6 weeks postpartum; |
4 | | (3) provide clients with labor support, fetal |
5 | | monitoring, and routine assessment of vital signs once |
6 | | active labor is established; |
7 | | (4) supervise delivery of infant and placenta, assess |
8 | | newborn and maternal well-being in immediate postpartum, |
9 | | and perform an Apgar score assessment; |
10 | | (5) perform routine cord management and inspect for an |
11 | | appropriate number of vessels; |
12 | | (6) inspect the placenta and membranes for |
13 | | completeness; |
14 | | (7) inspect the perineum and vagina postpartum for |
15 | | lacerations and stabilize if necessary; |
16 | | (8) observe the childbearing individual and newborn |
17 | | postpartum until stable condition is achieved, but in no |
18 | | event for less than 2 hours; |
19 | | (9) instruct the childbearing individual, spouse, and |
20 | | other support persons, both verbally and in writing, of |
21 | | the special care and precautions for both the childbearing |
22 | | individual and newborn in the immediate postpartum period; |
23 | | (10) reevaluate maternal and newborn well-being within |
24 | | 36 hours of delivery; |
25 | | (11) notify a pediatric health care professional |
26 | | within 72 hours after delivery; |
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1 | | (12) use universal precautions with all biohazard |
2 | | materials; |
3 | | (13) ensure that a birth certificate is accurately |
4 | | completed and filed in accordance with the Department of |
5 | | Public Health; |
6 | | (14) offer to obtain and submit a blood sample in |
7 | | accordance with the recommendations for metabolic |
8 | | screening of the newborn; |
9 | | (15) offer an injection of vitamin K for the newborn |
10 | | in accordance with the indication, dose, and |
11 | | administration route as authorized in subsection (b); |
12 | | (16) within one week of delivery, offer a newborn |
13 | | hearing screening to every newborn or refer the parents to |
14 | | a facility with a newborn hearing screening program; |
15 | | (17) within 2 hours of the birth, offer the |
16 | | administration of antibiotic ointment into the eyes of the |
17 | | newborn, in accordance with the Infant Eye Disease Act; |
18 | | and |
19 | | (18) maintain adequate antenatal and perinatal records |
20 | | of each client and provide records to consulting licensed |
21 | | physicians and licensed certified nurse midwives, in |
22 | | accordance with regulations promulgated under the Health |
23 | | Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.
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24 | | (b) A licensed certified professional midwife may |
25 | | administer the following during the practice of midwifery: |
26 | | (1) oxygen for the treatment of fetal distress; |
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1 | | (2) eye prophylactics, either 0.5% erythromycin |
2 | | ophthalmic ointment or 1% tetracycline ophthalmic ointment |
3 | | for the prevention of neonatal ophthalmia; |
4 | | (3) oxytocin, pitocin, or misoprostol as a postpartum |
5 | | antihemorrhagic agent; |
6 | | (4) methylergonovine or methergine for the treatment |
7 | | of postpartum hemorrhage; |
8 | | (5) vitamin K for the prophylaxis of hemorrhagic |
9 | | disease of the newborn; |
10 | | (6) Rho (D) immune globulin for the prevention of Rho |
11 | | (D) sensitization in Rho (D) negative individuals; |
12 | | (7) intravenous fluids for maternal stabilization, |
13 | | including lactated Ringer's solution, or with 5% dextrose; |
14 | | (8) administer antibiotics as prophylactic for GBS in |
15 | | accordance with current ACOG protocols as provided by |
16 | | Department rule; |
17 | | (9) ibuprofen for postpartum pain relief; |
18 | | (10) lidocaine injection as a local anesthetic for |
19 | | perineal repair; and |
20 | | (11) sterile water subcutaneous injections as a |
21 | | non-pharmaceutical form of pain relief during the first |
22 | | and second stages of labor.
|
23 | | The Department may approve additional medications, agents, |
24 | | or procedures based upon updated evidence-based obstetrical |
25 | | guidelines or based upon limited availability of standard |
26 | | medications or agents. |
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1 | | (c) A licensed certified professional midwife shall plan |
2 | | for at least 2 licensed certified professional midwives or a |
3 | | licensed certified professional midwife and a midwife |
4 | | assistant or student midwife to be present at all |
5 | | out-of-hospital births.
|
6 | | Section 75. Consultation and referral. |
7 | | (a) A licensed certified professional midwife shall |
8 | | consult with a licensed physician or a certified nurse midwife |
9 | | providing obstetrical care whenever there are significant |
10 | | deviations, including abnormal laboratory results, relative to |
11 | | a client's pregnancy or to a neonate. If a referral to a |
12 | | physician or certified nurse midwife is needed, the licensed |
13 | | certified professional midwife shall refer the client to a |
14 | | physician or certified nurse midwife and, if possible, remain |
15 | | in consultation with the physician until resolution of the |
16 | | concern. Consultation does not preclude the possibility of an |
17 | | out-of-hospital birth. It is appropriate for the licensed |
18 | | certified professional midwife to maintain care of the client |
19 | | to the greatest degree possible, in accordance with the |
20 | | client's wishes, during the pregnancy and, if possible, during |
21 | | labor, birth, and the postpartum period. |
22 | | (b) A licensed certified professional midwife shall |
23 | | consult with a licensed physician or a certified nurse midwife |
24 | | with regard to any childbearing individual who presents with |
25 | | or develops the following risk factors or presents with or |
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1 | | develops other risk factors that, in the judgment of the |
2 | | licensed certified professional midwife, warrant consultation:
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3 | | (1) Antepartum: |
4 | | (A) pregnancy induced hypertension, as evidenced |
5 | | by a blood pressure of 140/90 on 2 occasions greater |
6 | | than 6 hours apart; |
7 | | (B) persistent, severe headaches, epigastric pain, |
8 | | or visual disturbances; |
9 | | (C) persistent symptoms of urinary tract |
10 | | infection; |
11 | | (D) significant vaginal bleeding before the onset |
12 | | of labor not associated with uncomplicated spontaneous |
13 | | abortion; |
14 | | (E) rupture of membranes prior to the 37th week |
15 | | gestation; |
16 | | (F) noted abnormal decrease in or cessation of |
17 | | fetal movement; |
18 | | (G) anemia resistant to supplemental therapy; |
19 | | (H) fever of 102 degrees Fahrenheit or 39 degrees |
20 | | Celsius or greater for more than 24 hours; |
21 | | (I) non-vertex presentation after 38 weeks |
22 | | gestation; |
23 | | (J) hyperemesis or significant dehydration; |
24 | | (K) isoimmunization, Rh-negative sensitized, |
25 | | positive titers, or any other positive antibody titer, |
26 | | which may have a detrimental effect on the |
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1 | | childbearing individual or fetus; |
2 | | (L) elevated blood glucose levels unresponsive to |
3 | | dietary management; |
4 | | (M) positive HIV antibody test; |
5 | | (N) primary genital herpes infection in pregnancy; |
6 | | (O) symptoms of malnutrition or anorexia or |
7 | | protracted weight loss or failure to gain weight; |
8 | | (P) suspected deep vein thrombosis; |
9 | | (Q) documented placental anomaly or previa; |
10 | | (R) documented low-lying placenta in a |
11 | | childbearing individual with history of previous |
12 | | cesarean delivery; |
13 | | (S) labor prior to the 37th week of gestation; |
14 | | (T) history of prior uterine incision; |
15 | | (U) lie other than vertex at term; |
16 | | (V) multiple gestation; |
17 | | (W) known fetal anomalies that may be affected by |
18 | | the site of birth; |
19 | | (X) marked abnormal fetal heart tones; |
20 | | (Y) abnormal non-stress test or abnormal |
21 | | biophysical profile; |
22 | | (Z) marked or severe polyhydramnios or |
23 | | oligohydramnios;
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24 | | (AA) evidence of intrauterine growth restriction; |
25 | | (BB) significant abnormal ultrasound findings; or |
26 | | (CC) gestation beyond 42 weeks by reliable |
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1 | | confirmed dates;
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2 | | (2) Intrapartum: |
3 | | (A) rise in blood pressure above baseline, more |
4 | | than 30/15 points or greater than 140/90; |
5 | | (B) persistent, severe headaches, epigastric pain |
6 | | or visual disturbances; |
7 | | (C) significant proteinuria or ketonuria; |
8 | | (D) fever over 100.6 degrees Fahrenheit or 38 |
9 | | degrees Celsius in absence of environmental factors; |
10 | | (E) ruptured membranes without onset of |
11 | | established labor after 18 hours; |
12 | | (F) significant bleeding prior to delivery or any |
13 | | abnormal bleeding, with or without abdominal pain or |
14 | | evidence of placental abruption; |
15 | | (G) lie not compatible with spontaneous vaginal |
16 | | delivery or unstable fetal lie; |
17 | | (H) failure to progress after 5 hours of active |
18 | | labor or following 2 hours of active second stage |
19 | | labor; |
20 | | (I) signs or symptoms of maternal infection; |
21 | | (J) active genital herpes at onset of labor; |
22 | | (K) fetal heart tones with non-reassuring |
23 | | patterns; |
24 | | (L) signs or symptoms of fetal distress; |
25 | | (M) thick meconium or frank bleeding with birth |
26 | | not imminent; or |
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1 | | (N) client or licensed certified professional |
2 | | midwife desires physician consultation or transfer;
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3 | | (3) Postpartum: |
4 | | (A) failure to void within 6 hours of birth; |
5 | | (B) signs or symptoms of maternal shock; |
6 | | (C) fever of 102 degrees Fahrenheit or 39 degrees |
7 | | Celsius and unresponsive to therapy for 12 hours; |
8 | | (D) abnormal lochia or signs or symptoms of |
9 | | uterine sepsis; |
10 | | (E) suspected deep vein thrombosis; or |
11 | | (F) signs of clinically significant depression.
|
12 | | (c) A licensed certified professional midwife shall |
13 | | consult with a licensed physician or certified nurse midwife |
14 | | with regard to any neonate who is born with or develops the |
15 | | following risk factors: |
16 | | (1) Apgar score of 6 or less at 5 minutes without |
17 | | significant improvement by 10 minutes; |
18 | | (2) persistent grunting respirations or retractions; |
19 | | (3) persistent cardiac irregularities; |
20 | | (4) persistent central cyanosis or pallor; |
21 | | (5) persistent lethargy or poor muscle tone; |
22 | | (6) abnormal cry; |
23 | | (7) birth weight less than 2,300 grams; |
24 | | (8) jitteriness or seizures; |
25 | | (9) jaundice occurring before 24 hours or outside of |
26 | | normal range; |
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1 | | (10) failure to urinate within 24 hours of birth; |
2 | | (11) failure to pass meconium within 48 hours of |
3 | | birth; |
4 | | (12) edema; |
5 | | (13) prolonged temperature instability; |
6 | | (14) significant signs or symptoms of infection; |
7 | | (15) significant clinical evidence of glycemic |
8 | | instability; |
9 | | (16) abnormal, bulging, or depressed fontanel; |
10 | | (17) significant clinical evidence of prematurity; |
11 | | (18) medically significant congenital anomalies; |
12 | | (19) significant or suspected birth injury; |
13 | | (20) persistent inability to suck; |
14 | | (21) diminished consciousness; |
15 | | (22) clinically significant abnormalities in vital |
16 | | signs, muscle tone, or behavior; |
17 | | (23) clinically significant color abnormality, |
18 | | cyanotic, or pale or abnormal perfusion; |
19 | | (24) abdominal distension or projectile vomiting; or |
20 | | (25) signs of clinically significant dehydration or |
21 | | failure to thrive. |
22 | | (d) Consultation with a health
care professional does not |
23 | | establish a formal relationship
with the client. Consultation |
24 | | does not establish a formal
relationship between a licensed |
25 | | certified professional midwife and another health care |
26 | | professional. |
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1 | | Section 80. Transfer. |
2 | | (a) Transport via private vehicle is an acceptable method |
3 | | of transport if it is the most expedient and safest method for |
4 | | accessing medical services. The licensed certified |
5 | | professional midwife shall initiate immediate transport |
6 | | according to the licensed certified professional midwife's |
7 | | emergency plan, provide emergency stabilization until |
8 | | emergency medical services arrive or transfer is completed, |
9 | | accompany the client or follow the client to a hospital in a |
10 | | timely fashion, and provide pertinent information to the |
11 | | receiving facility and complete an emergency. |
12 | | (b) A licensed certified professional midwife must |
13 | | establish a written protocol for the handling of both the |
14 | | patient's and newborn's medical emergencies, including |
15 | | transportation to a hospital, particular to each client, with |
16 | | identification of the appropriate hospital. A verbal report of |
17 | | the care provided must be provided to emergency services |
18 | | providers and a copy of the client records shall be sent with |
19 | | the client at the time of any transfer to a hospital, including |
20 | | obtaining a signed authorization to release the client's |
21 | | medical records to a health care professional or hospital in |
22 | | the event of such emergency transport. |
23 | | Section 85. Prohibited practices. |
24 | | (a) A licensed certified professional midwife may not do |
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1 | | any of the following: |
2 | | (1) administer prescription pharmacological agents |
3 | | intended to induce or augment labor; |
4 | | (2) administer prescription pharmacological agents to |
5 | | provide pain management; |
6 | | (3) use vacuum extractors or forceps; |
7 | | (4) prescribe medications; |
8 | | (5) provide out-of-hospital care to a childbearing |
9 | | individual who has had a previous cesarean section; |
10 | | (6) perform surgical procedures, including, but not |
11 | | limited to, abortions, cesarean sections, and |
12 | | circumcisions, except for an emergency episiotomy; |
13 | | (7) knowingly accept responsibility for prenatal or |
14 | | intrapartum care of a client with any of the following |
15 | | risk factors:
|
16 | | (A) chronic significant maternal cardiac, |
17 | | pulmonary, renal, or hepatic disease; |
18 | | (B) malignant disease in an active phase; |
19 | | (C) significant hematological disorders, |
20 | | coagulopathies, or pulmonary embolism; |
21 | | (D) insulin requiring diabetes mellitus; |
22 | | (E) known maternal congenital abnormalities |
23 | | affecting childbirth; |
24 | | (F) confirmed isoimmunization, Rh disease with |
25 | | positive titer; |
26 | | (G) active tuberculosis; |
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1 | | (H) active syphilis or gonorrhea; |
2 | | (I) active genital herpes infection 2 weeks prior |
3 | | to labor or in labor; |
4 | | (J) pelvic or uterine abnormalities affecting |
5 | | normal vaginal births, including tumors and |
6 | | malformations; |
7 | | (K) alcoholism or alcohol abuse; |
8 | | (L) drug addiction or abuse; or |
9 | | (M) confirmed AIDS status.
|
10 | | (b) A licensed certified professional midwife shall not |
11 | | administer Schedule II through IV controlled substances. |
12 | | Subject to a prescription by a health care professional, |
13 | | Schedule V controlled substances may be administered by |
14 | | licensed certified professional midwives. |
15 | | Section 90. Annual Reports. |
16 | | (a) Beginning in 2023, a licensed certified professional |
17 | | midwife shall annually report to the Department of Public |
18 | | Health, by no later than March 31 of each year, in a manner |
19 | | specified by the Department of Public Health, the following |
20 | | information regarding cases in which the licensed certified |
21 | | professional midwife assisted during the previous calendar |
22 | | year when the intended place of birth at the onset of care was |
23 | | an out-of-hospital setting: |
24 | | (1) the total number of patients served at the onset |
25 | | of care; |
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1 | | (2) the number, by county, of live births attended; |
2 | | (3) the number, by county, of cases of fetal demise, |
3 | | infant deaths, and maternal deaths attended at the |
4 | | discovery of the demise or death; |
5 | | (4) the number of women whose care was transferred to |
6 | | another health care professional during the antepartum |
7 | | period and the reason for transfer; |
8 | | (5) the number, reason for, and outcome of each |
9 | | nonemergency hospital transfer during the intrapartum or |
10 | | postpartum period; |
11 | | (6) the number, reason for, and outcome of each urgent |
12 | | or emergency transport of an expectant childbearing |
13 | | individual in the antepartum period; |
14 | | (7) the number, reason for, and outcome of each urgent |
15 | | or emergency transport of an infant or childbearing |
16 | | individual during the intrapartum or immediate postpartum |
17 | | period; |
18 | | (8) the number of planned out-of-hospital births at |
19 | | the onset of labor and the number of births completed in an |
20 | | out-of-hospital setting; |
21 | | (9) a brief description of any complications resulting |
22 | | in the morbidity or mortality of a childbearing individual |
23 | | or a neonate; and |
24 | | (10) any other information required by rule by the |
25 | | Department of Public Health.
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26 | | (b) A licensed certified professional midwife who fails to |
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1 | | comply with the reporting requirements under this Section |
2 | | shall be prohibited from license renewal until the information |
3 | | required under subsection (a) is reported. |
4 | | (c) The Board shall maintain the confidentiality of any |
5 | | report under subsection (f). |
6 | | (d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a licensed |
7 | | certified professional midwife shall be subject to the same |
8 | | reporting requirements as other health care professionals who |
9 | | provide care to individuals. |
10 | | (f) Reports are confidential under Section 180 of this |
11 | | Act. |
12 | | Section 95. Vicarious liability. |
13 | | (a) Consultation with a physician or advanced practice |
14 | | registered nurse does not alone create a physician-patient or |
15 | | advanced practice registered nurse-patient relationship or any |
16 | | other relationship with the physician or advanced practice |
17 | | registered nurse. The informed consent shall specifically |
18 | | state that the licensed certified professional midwife and any |
19 | | consulting physician or advanced practice registered nurse are |
20 | | not employees, partners, associates, agents, or principals of |
21 | | one another. The licensed certified professional midwife shall |
22 | | inform the patient that he or she is independently licensed |
23 | | and practicing midwifery and in that regard is solely |
24 | | responsible for the services he or she provides. |
25 | | (b) Nothing in this Act is intended to expand or limit the |
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1 | | malpractice liability of physicians, advanced practice |
2 | | registered nurses, licensed certified professional midwives, |
3 | | or other health care professionals, hospitals, or other health |
4 | | care institutions beyond the limits existing in current |
5 | | Illinois statutory and common law; however, no physician, |
6 | | nurse, emergency medical personnel, hospital, or other health |
7 | | care institution shall be liable for any act or omission |
8 | | resulting from the provision of services by any licensed |
9 | | certified professional midwife, even if the physician, nurse, |
10 | | emergency medical personnel, hospital, or other health care |
11 | | institution has consulted with or accepted a referral from the |
12 | | licensed certified professional midwife. The physician, nurse, |
13 | | licensed certified professional midwife, emergency medical |
14 | | personnel, hospital, or other health care institution |
15 | | providing care are responsible for their own acts and |
16 | | omissions.
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17 | | Section 100. Grounds for disciplinary action. |
18 | | (a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may |
19 | | revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other |
20 | | disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to any |
21 | | license issued under this Act as the Department may deem |
22 | | proper, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $10,000 |
23 | | for each violation, for any one or combination of the |
24 | | following causes: |
25 | | (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to |
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1 | | the Department. |
2 | | (2) Violations of this Act, or the rules adopted under |
3 | | this Act. |
4 | | (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, |
5 | | finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or |
6 | | sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, |
7 | | preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, |
8 | | or first offender probation, under the laws of any |
9 | | jurisdiction of the United States that is: (i) a felony; |
10 | | or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is |
11 | | dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of |
12 | | the profession. |
13 | | (4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of |
14 | | obtaining licenses. |
15 | | (5) Professional incompetence. |
16 | | (6) Aiding or assisting another person in violating |
17 | | any provision of this Act or its rules. |
18 | | (7) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in |
19 | | response to a written request made by the Department. |
20 | | (8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or |
21 | | unprofessional conduct, as defined by rule, of a character |
22 | | likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public. |
23 | | (9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, |
24 | | narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug |
25 | | that results in a midwife's inability to practice with |
26 | | reasonable judgment, skill, or safety. |
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1 | | (10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or |
2 | | foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for |
3 | | discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to |
4 | | those set forth in this Section. |
5 | | (11) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving |
6 | | from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or |
7 | | association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of |
8 | | compensation for any professional services not actually or |
9 | | personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph affects any |
10 | | bona fide independent contractor or employment |
11 | | arrangements, including provisions for compensation, |
12 | | health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits, |
13 | | with persons or entities authorized under this Act for the |
14 | | provision of services within the scope of the licensee's |
15 | | practice under this Act. |
16 | | (12) A finding by the Department that the licensee, |
17 | | after having his or her license placed on probationary |
18 | | status, has violated the terms of probation. |
19 | | (13) Abandonment of a patient. |
20 | | (14) Willfully making or filing false records or |
21 | | reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited |
22 | | to, false records filed with state agencies or |
23 | | departments. |
24 | | (15) Willfully failing to report an instance of |
25 | | suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused |
26 | | and Neglected Child Reporting Act. |
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1 | | (16) Physical illness, or mental illness or impairment |
2 | | that results in the inability to practice the profession |
3 | | with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, including, but |
4 | | not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or |
5 | | loss of motor skill. |
6 | | (17) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
7 | | report by the Department of Children and Family Services |
8 | | under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and |
9 | | upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the |
10 | | licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or |
11 | | neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected |
12 | | Child Reporting Act. |
13 | | (18) Gross negligence resulting in permanent injury or |
14 | | death of a patient. |
15 | | (19) Employment of fraud, deception, or any unlawful |
16 | | means in applying for or securing a license as a licensed |
17 | | certified profession midwife. |
18 | | (21) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, |
19 | | including sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual |
20 | | exploitation related to the licensee's practice. |
21 | | (22) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral |
22 | | Act. |
23 | | (23) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except |
24 | | as provided by law. |
25 | | (24) Making a false or misleading statement regarding |
26 | | his or her skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, |
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1 | | treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the |
2 | | course of treatment. |
3 | | (25) Allowing another person to use his or her license |
4 | | to practice. |
5 | | (26) Prescribing, selling, administering, |
6 | | distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug |
7 | | classified as a controlled substance for purposes other |
8 | | than medically-accepted therapeutic purposes. |
9 | | (27) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, |
10 | | appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to |
11 | | exploit the patient for financial gain. |
12 | | (28) A pattern of practice or other behavior that |
13 | | demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under |
14 | | this Act. |
15 | | (29) Violating State or federal laws, rules, or |
16 | | regulations relating to controlled substances or other |
17 | | legend drugs or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra |
18 | | Prohibition Act. |
19 | | (30) Failure to establish and maintain records of |
20 | | patient care and treatment as required by law. |
21 | | (31) Attempting to subvert or cheat on the examination |
22 | | of the North American Registry of Midwives or its |
23 | | successor agency. |
24 | | (32) Willfully or negligently violating the |
25 | | confidentiality between licensed certified profession |
26 | | midwives and patient, except as required by law. |
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1 | | (33) Willfully failing to report an instance of |
2 | | suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or |
3 | | self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and |
4 | | required by the Adult Protective Services Act. |
5 | | (34) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by |
6 | | the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective |
7 | | Services Act and upon proof by clear and convincing |
8 | | evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or |
9 | | financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the |
10 | | Adult Protective Services Act. |
11 | | (35) Failure to report to the Department an adverse |
12 | | final action taken against him or her by another licensing |
13 | | jurisdiction of the United States or a foreign state or |
14 | | country, a peer review body, a health care institution, a |
15 | | professional society or association, a governmental |
16 | | agency, a law enforcement agency, or a court. |
17 | | (36) Failure to provide copies of records of patient |
18 | | care or treatment, except as required by law. |
19 | | (37) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department |
20 | | surrender by the licensee of a license or authorization to |
21 | | practice in another state or jurisdiction or current |
22 | | surrender by the licensee of membership professional |
23 | | association or society while under disciplinary |
24 | | investigation by any of those authorities or bodies for |
25 | | acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would |
26 | | constitute grounds for action under this Section. |
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1 | | (38) Failing, within 90 days, to provide a response to |
2 | | a request for information in response to a written request |
3 | | made by the Department by certified or registered mail or |
4 | | by email to the email address of record. |
5 | | (39) Failure to supervise a midwife assistant or |
6 | | student midwife including, but not limited to, allowing a |
7 | | midwife assistant or student midwife to exceed their |
8 | | scope. |
9 | | (40) Failure to adequately inform a patient about |
10 | | their malpractice liability insurance coverage and the |
11 | | policy limits of the coverage. |
12 | | (41) Failure to submit an annual report to Department |
13 | | of Public Health. |
14 | | (b) The Department may, without a hearing, refuse to issue |
15 | | or renew or may suspend the license of any person who fails to |
16 | | file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in |
17 | | a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, |
18 | | penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered |
19 | | by the Department of Revenue, until the requirements of any |
20 | | such tax Act are satisfied. |
21 | | (c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee |
22 | | is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as |
23 | | provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities |
24 | | Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will |
25 | | end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no |
26 | | longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission |
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1 | | and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient, |
2 | | and upon the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board to the |
3 | | Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her |
4 | | practice. |
5 | | (d) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a |
6 | | showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual |
7 | | licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for |
8 | | licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical |
9 | | examination, or both, including a substance abuse or sexual |
10 | | offender evaluation, as required by and at the expense of the |
11 | | Department. |
12 | | The Department shall specifically designate the examining |
13 | | physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches |
14 | | or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in |
15 | | providing the mental or physical examination or both. The |
16 | | multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to |
17 | | practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one |
18 | | or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice |
19 | | medicine in all of its branches, licensed clinical |
20 | | psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed |
21 | | clinical professional counselors, and other professional and |
22 | | administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the |
23 | | multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to |
24 | | submit to an examination pursuant to this Section to submit to |
25 | | any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to |
26 | | complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but |
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1 | | not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological |
2 | | testing, or neuropsychological testing. |
3 | | The Department may order the examining physician or any |
4 | | member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the |
5 | | Department any and all records, including business records, |
6 | | that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any |
7 | | supplemental testing performed. |
8 | | The Department may order the examining physician or any |
9 | | member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony |
10 | | concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee |
11 | | or applicant. No information, report, record, or other |
12 | | documents in any way related to the examination shall be |
13 | | excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege |
14 | | relating to communications between the licensee or applicant |
15 | | and the examining physician or any member of the |
16 | | multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the |
17 | | licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an examination for |
18 | | the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary |
19 | | team to provide information, reports, records, or other |
20 | | documents or to provide any testimony regarding the |
21 | | examination and evaluation. |
22 | | The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own |
23 | | expense, another physician of his or her choice present during |
24 | | all aspects of this examination. However, that physician shall |
25 | | be present only to observe and may not interfere in any way |
26 | | with the examination. |
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1 | | Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical |
2 | | examination, when ordered, shall result in an automatic |
3 | | suspension of his or her license until the individual submits |
4 | | to the examination. |
5 | | If the Department finds an individual unable to practice |
6 | | because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the |
7 | | Department may require that individual to submit to care, |
8 | | counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated |
9 | | by the Department, as a condition, term, or restriction for |
10 | | continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, |
11 | | in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may |
12 | | file a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise |
13 | | discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose |
14 | | license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, |
15 | | disciplined, or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, |
16 | | or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, |
17 | | conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the |
18 | | Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual |
19 | | shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a |
20 | | hearing by the Department. |
21 | | In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a |
22 | | person's license under this Section, a hearing on that |
23 | | person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 |
24 | | days after the suspension and completed without appreciable |
25 | | delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the |
26 | | subject individual's record of treatment and counseling |
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1 | | regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable |
2 | | federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the |
3 | | confidentiality of medical records. |
4 | | An individual licensed under this Act and affected under |
5 | | this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate |
6 | | to the Department that he or she can resume practice in |
7 | | compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the |
8 | | provisions of his or her license. |
9 | | (e) An individual or organization acting in good faith, |
10 | | and not in a willful and wanton manner, in complying with this |
11 | | Section by providing a report or other information to the |
12 | | Board, by assisting in the investigation or preparation of a |
13 | | report or information, by participating in proceedings of the |
14 | | Board, or by serving as a member of the Board, shall not be |
15 | | subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages as a result |
16 | | of such actions. |
17 | | (f) Members of the Board and the Disciplinary Board shall |
18 | | be indemnified by the State for any actions occurring within |
19 | | the scope of services on the Disciplinary Board or Board, done |
20 | | in good faith and not willful and wanton in nature. The |
21 | | Attorney General shall defend all such actions unless he or |
22 | | she determines either that there would be a conflict of |
23 | | interest in such representation or that the actions complained |
24 | | of were not in good faith or were willful and wanton. |
25 | | If the Attorney General declines representation, the |
26 | | member has the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, |
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1 | | whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by |
2 | | the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a |
3 | | court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were |
4 | | willful and wanton. |
5 | | The member must notify the Attorney General within 7 days |
6 | | after receipt of notice of the initiation of any action |
7 | | involving services of the Disciplinary Board. Failure to |
8 | | notify the Attorney General constitutes an absolute waiver of |
9 | | the right to a defense and indemnification. |
10 | | The Attorney General shall determine, within 7 days after |
11 | | receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to |
12 | | represent the member. |
13 | | Section 105. Suspension of license for failure to pay |
14 | | restitution. The Department, without further process or |
15 | | hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to |
16 | | practice of any person issued under this Act who has been |
17 | | certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a |
18 | | person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or |
19 | | under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or |
20 | | the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other |
21 | | authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is |
22 | | prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in |
23 | | full. |
24 | | Section 110. Restoration of license. At any time after the |
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1 | | successful completion of a term of probation, suspension, or |
2 | | revocation of any license, the Department may restore it to |
3 | | the licensee, unless after an investigation and a hearing, the |
4 | | Department determines that restoration is not in the public |
5 | | interest. Where circumstances of suspension or revocation so |
6 | | indicate, the Department may require an examination of the |
7 | | licensee prior to restoring his or her license. No person |
8 | | whose license has been revoked as authorized in this Act may |
9 | | apply for restoration of that license until provided for in |
10 | | the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. |
11 | | A license that has been suspended or revoked shall be |
12 | | considered nonrenewed for purposes of restoration and a person |
13 | | restoring his or her license from suspension or revocation |
14 | | must comply with the requirements for restoration of a |
15 | | nonrenewed license as set forth in Section 20 and any related |
16 | | rules adopted. |
17 | | Section 115. Surrender of license. Upon the revocation or |
18 | | suspension of any license, the licensee shall immediately |
19 | | surrender the license to the Department. If the licensee fails |
20 | | to do so, the Department shall have the right to seize the |
21 | | license. |
22 | | Section 120. Temporary suspension of license. The |
23 | | Secretary may temporarily suspend the license of a certified |
24 | | professional midwife without a hearing, simultaneously with |
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1 | | the institution of proceedings for a hearing provided for in |
2 | | Section 125, if the Secretary finds that evidence in his or her |
3 | | possession indicates that continuation in practice would |
4 | | constitute an imminent danger to the public. If the Secretary |
5 | | suspends, temporarily, the license without a hearing, a |
6 | | hearing by the Department must be held within 30 days after |
7 | | such suspension has occurred, and concluded without |
8 | | appreciable delay. |
9 | | Section 125. Rehearing. If the Secretary is satisfied that |
10 | | substantial justice has not been done in the revocation, |
11 | | suspension, or refusal to issue or renew a license, the |
12 | | Secretary may order a rehearing by the same or another hearing |
13 | | officer or Disciplinary Board. |
14 | | Section 130. Administrative review; certification of |
15 | | record. |
16 | | (a) All final administrative decisions of the Department |
17 | | are subject to judicial review pursuant to the provisions of |
18 | | the Administrative Review Law, and all rules adopted pursuant |
19 | | thereto. "Administrative decision" has the same meaning as |
20 | | used in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure. |
21 | | (b) Proceedings for judicial review shall be commenced in |
22 | | the circuit court of the county in which the party applying for |
23 | | review resides, but if the party is not a resident of this |
24 | | State, venue shall be in Sangamon County. |
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1 | | (c) The Department shall not be required to certify any |
2 | | record to the court, to file an answer in court, or to |
3 | | otherwise appear in any court in a judicial review proceeding |
4 | | unless and until the Department has received from the |
5 | | plaintiff payment of the costs of furnishing and certifying |
6 | | the record, which costs shall be determined by the Department. |
7 | | Exhibits shall be certified without cost. Failure on the part |
8 | | of the plaintiff to file a receipt in court is grounds for |
9 | | dismissal of the action. During the pendency and hearing of |
10 | | any and all judicial proceedings incident to the disciplinary |
11 | | action, the sanctions imposed upon the accused by the |
12 | | Department because of acts or omissions related to the |
13 | | delivery of direct patient care as specified in the |
14 | | Department's final administrative decision, shall, as a matter |
15 | | of public policy, remain in full force and effect in order to |
16 | | protect the public pending final resolution of any of the |
17 | | proceedings. |
18 | | Section 135. Injunction. |
19 | | (a) If any person violates any provision of this Act, the |
20 | | Secretary may, in the name of the People of the State of |
21 | | Illinois, through the Attorney General, or the State's |
22 | | Attorney of any county in which the action is brought, |
23 | | petition for an order enjoining the violation or for an order |
24 | | enforcing compliance with this Act. Upon the filing of a |
25 | | verified petition in court, the court may issue a temporary |
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1 | | restraining order, without notice or bond, and may |
2 | | preliminarily and permanently enjoin such violation, and if it |
3 | | is established that such person has violated or is violating |
4 | | the injunction, the Court may punish the offender for contempt |
5 | | of court. Proceedings under this Section shall be in addition |
6 | | to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties |
7 | | provided by this Act. |
8 | | (b) If any person shall practice as a certified |
9 | | professional midwife or hold himself or herself out as a |
10 | | licensed certified professional midwife without being licensed |
11 | | under the provisions of this Act, then any licensed certified |
12 | | professional midwife, any interested party, or any person |
13 | | injured thereby may, in addition to the Secretary, petition |
14 | | for relief as provided in subsection (a). |
15 | | (c) If, in the opinion of the Department, any person |
16 | | violates any provision of this Act, the Department may issue a |
17 | | rule to show cause why an order to cease and desist should not |
18 | | be entered against him or her. The rule shall clearly set forth |
19 | | the grounds relied upon by the Department and shall provide a |
20 | | period of 7 days from the date of the rule to file an answer to |
21 | | the satisfaction of the Department. Failure to answer to the |
22 | | satisfaction of the Department shall cause an order to cease |
23 | | and desist to be issued forthwith. |
24 | | Section 140. Investigation; notice; hearing. The |
25 | | Department may investigate the actions of any applicant or of |
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1 | | any person or persons holding or claiming to hold a license. |
2 | | The Department shall, before suspending, revoking, placing on |
3 | | probationary status, or taking any other disciplinary action |
4 | | as the Department may deem proper with regard to any license, |
5 | | at least 30 days prior to the date set for the hearing, notify |
6 | | the applicant or licensee in writing of any charges made and |
7 | | the time and place for a hearing of the charges before the |
8 | | Disciplinary Board, direct him or her to file his or her |
9 | | written answer thereto to the Disciplinary Board under oath |
10 | | within 20 days after the service on him or her of such notice |
11 | | and inform him or her that if he or she fails to file such |
12 | | answer default will be taken against him or her and his or her |
13 | | license may be suspended, revoked, placed on probationary |
14 | | status, or have other disciplinary action, including limiting |
15 | | the scope, nature, or extent of his or her practice, as the |
16 | | Department may deem proper taken with regard thereto. Written |
17 | | or electronic notice may be served by personal delivery, |
18 | | email, or mail to the applicant or licensee at his or her |
19 | | address of record or email address of record. At the time and |
20 | | place fixed in the notice, the Department shall proceed to |
21 | | hear the charges and the parties or their counsel shall be |
22 | | accorded ample opportunity to present such statements, |
23 | | testimony, evidence, and argument as may be pertinent to the |
24 | | charges or to the defense thereto. The Department may continue |
25 | | such hearing from time to time. In case the applicant or |
26 | | licensee, after receiving notice, fails to file an answer, his |
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1 | | or her license may in the discretion of the Secretary, having |
2 | | received first the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board, |
3 | | be suspended, revoked, placed on probationary status, or the |
4 | | Secretary may take whatever disciplinary action as he or she |
5 | | may deem proper, including limiting the scope, nature, or |
6 | | extent of such person's practice, without a hearing, if the |
7 | | act or acts charged constitute sufficient grounds for such |
8 | | action under this Act. |
9 | | Section 145. Hearing report. At the conclusion of the |
10 | | hearing, the Disciplinary Board shall present to the Secretary |
11 | | a written report of its findings of fact, conclusions of law, |
12 | | and recommendations. The report shall contain a finding of |
13 | | whether the accused person violated this Act or failed to |
14 | | comply with the conditions required in this Act. The |
15 | | Disciplinary Board shall specify the nature of the violation |
16 | | or failure to comply, and shall make its recommendations to |
17 | | the Secretary. |
18 | | The report of findings of fact, conclusions of law, and |
19 | | recommendation of the Disciplinary Board shall be the basis |
20 | | for the Department's order or refusal or for the granting of a |
21 | | license or permit. The finding is not admissible in evidence |
22 | | against the person in a criminal prosecution brought for the |
23 | | violation of this Act, but the hearing and finding are not a |
24 | | bar to a criminal prosecution brought for the violation of |
25 | | this Act. |
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1 | | Section 150. Hearing officer. Notwithstanding the |
2 | | provisions of Section 140, the Secretary shall have the |
3 | | authority to appoint any attorney duly licensed to practice |
4 | | law in this State to serve as the hearing officer in any action |
5 | | for refusal to issue or renew, or for discipline of, a license. |
6 | | The hearing officer shall have full authority to conduct the |
7 | | hearing. The hearing officer shall report his or her findings |
8 | | of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations to the |
9 | | Disciplinary Board and the Secretary. The Disciplinary Board |
10 | | shall have 60 days from receipt of the report to review the |
11 | | report of the hearing officer and present their findings of |
12 | | fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations to the |
13 | | Secretary. If the Disciplinary Board fails to present its |
14 | | report within the 60-day period, the respondent may request in |
15 | | writing a direct appeal to the Secretary, in which case the |
16 | | Secretary may issue an order based upon the report of the |
17 | | hearing officer and the record of the proceedings or issue an |
18 | | order remanding the matter back to the hearing officer for |
19 | | additional proceedings in accordance with the order. |
20 | | Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, if the |
21 | | Secretary, upon review, determines that substantial justice |
22 | | has not been done in the revocation, suspension, or refusal to |
23 | | issue or renew a license or other disciplinary action taken as |
24 | | the result of the entry of the hearing officer's report, the |
25 | | Secretary may order a rehearing by the same or other |
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1 | | examiners. If the Secretary disagrees in any regard with the |
2 | | report of the Disciplinary Board or hearing officer, he or she |
3 | | may issue an order in contravention thereof. |
4 | | Section 155. Motion for rehearing. In any case |
5 | | involving the refusal to issue, renew, or discipline of a |
6 | | license, a copy of the Disciplinary Board's report shall be |
7 | | served upon the respondent by the Department, either |
8 | | personally or as provided in this Act for the service of the |
9 | | notice of hearing. Within 20 days after such service, the |
10 | | respondent may present to the Department a motion in writing |
11 | | for a rehearing, which motion shall specify the particular |
12 | | grounds therefor. If no motion for rehearing is filed, then |
13 | | upon the expiration of the time specified for filing such a |
14 | | motion, or if a motion for rehearing is denied, then upon such |
15 | | denial the Secretary may enter an order in accordance with |
16 | | recommendations of the Disciplinary Board except as provided |
17 | | in Section 145 or 150. If the respondent shall order from the |
18 | | reporting service, and pay for a transcript of the record |
19 | | within the time for filing a motion for rehearing, the 20-day |
20 | | period within which such a motion may be filed shall commence |
21 | | upon the delivery of the transcript to the respondent. |
22 | | Section 160. Certification of records by Department. The |
23 | | Department shall not be required to certify any record to the |
24 | | court or file any answer in court or otherwise appear in any |
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1 | | court in a judicial review proceeding, unless there is filed |
2 | | in the court, with the complaint, a receipt from the |
3 | | Department acknowledging payment of the costs of furnishing |
4 | | and certifying the record. Failure on the part of the |
5 | | plaintiff to file a receipt in court shall be grounds for |
6 | | dismissal of the action. |
7 | | Section 165. Violation. Any person who is found to have |
8 | | knowingly violated any provision of this Act is guilty of a |
9 | | Class A misdemeanor. On conviction of a second or subsequent |
10 | | offense the violator shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony. |
11 | | Section 170. Fees. |
12 | | (a) Fees collected for the administration of this Act |
13 | | shall be set by the Department by rule. All fees are |
14 | | nonrefundable. |
15 | | (b) All moneys collected under this Act by the Department |
16 | | shall be deposited in the General Professions Fund. |
17 | | Section 175. Returned checks; fines. Any person who |
18 | | delivers a check or other payment to the Department that is |
19 | | returned to the Department unpaid by the financial institution |
20 | | upon which it is drawn shall pay to the Department, in addition |
21 | | to the amount already owed to the Department, a fine of $50. |
22 | | The fines imposed by this Section are in addition to any other |
23 | | discipline provided under this Act for unlicensed practice or |
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1 | | practice on a nonrenewed license. The Department shall notify |
2 | | the person that payment of fees and fines shall be paid to the |
3 | | Department by certified check or money order within 30 |
4 | | calendar days of the notification. If, after the expiration of |
5 | | 30 days from the date of the notification, the person has |
6 | | failed to submit the necessary remittance, the Department |
7 | | shall automatically terminate the license or certificate or |
8 | | deny the application, without hearing. If, after termination |
9 | | or denial, the person seeks a license or certificate, he or she |
10 | | shall apply to the Department for restoration or issuance of |
11 | | the license or certificate and pay all fees and fines due to |
12 | | the Department. The Department may establish a fee for the |
13 | | processing of an application for restoration of a license or |
14 | | certificate to pay all expenses of processing this |
15 | | application. The Secretary may waive the fines due under this |
16 | | Section in individual cases where the Secretary finds that the |
17 | | fines would be unreasonable or unnecessarily burdensome. |
18 | | Section 180. Confidentiality. All information collected by |
19 | | the Department in the course of an examination or |
20 | | investigation of a licensee or applicant, including, but not |
21 | | limited to, any complaint against a licensee filed with the |
22 | | Department and information collected to investigate any such |
23 | | complaint, shall be maintained for the confidential use of the |
24 | | Department and shall not be disclosed. The Department shall |
25 | | not disclose the information to anyone other than law |
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1 | | enforcement officials, regulatory agencies that have an |
2 | | appropriate regulatory interest as determined by the |
3 | | Secretary, or a party presenting a lawful subpoena to the |
4 | | Department. Information and documents disclosed to a federal, |
5 | | State, county, or local law enforcement agency shall not be |
6 | | disclosed by the agency for any purpose to any other agency or |
7 | | person. A formal complaint filed against a licensee by the |
8 | | Department or any order issued by the Department against a |
9 | | licensee or applicant shall be a public record, except as |
10 | | otherwise prohibited by law. |
11 | | Section 185. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by |
12 | | changing Section 4.37 as follows: |
13 | | (5 ILCS 80/4.37) |
14 | | Sec. 4.37. Acts and Articles repealed on January 1, 2027. |
15 | | The following are repealed on January 1, 2027: |
16 | | The Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.
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17 | | The Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987. |
18 | | Articles II, III, IV, V, VI, VIIA, VIIB, VIIC, XVII, XXXI,
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19 | | XXXI 1/4, and XXXI 3/4 of the Illinois Insurance Code.
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20 | | The Boiler and Pressure Vessel Repairer Regulation Act. |
21 | | The Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act. |
22 | | The Licensed Certified Professional Midwife Practice Act. |
23 | | (Source: P.A. 99-572, eff. 7-15-16; 99-909, eff. 12-16-16; |
24 | | 99-910, eff. 12-16-16; 99-911, eff. 12-16-16; 100-201, eff. |