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| | 102ND GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2021 and 2022 HB1780 Introduced 2/17/2021, by Rep. Jennifer Gong-Gershowitz SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED: |
| New Act | | 5 ILCS 140/7 | from Ch. 116, par. 207 |
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Provides that the Act may be cited as the Drug Take-Back Act. Requires covered manufacturers to, no later than July 1, 2022 or 6 months after becoming a covered manufacturer, whichever is later, participate in an approved drug take-back program or have established and implemented a drug take-back program independently or as part of a group of covered manufacturers. Provides requirements for the drug take-back program and for manufacturer program operators. Requires each manufacturer program operator to submit a proposal for the establishment and implementation of a drug take-back program to the Environmental Protection Agency for review and approval. Contains provisions regarding changes or modifications to drug take-back programs, promotion of drug take-back programs, annual reports, funding, and reimbursement. Requires covered manufacturers and manufacturer program operators to submit an annual $5,000 registration fee. Provides civil penalties. Contains other provisions. Amends the Freedom of Information Act. Provides that proprietary information submitted to the Environmental Protection Agency under the Pharmaceutical Recovery Act is exempt from inspection and copying under the Act. Preempts home rule. Contains other provisions. Effective immediately.
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| | | FISCAL NOTE ACT MAY APPLY | |
| | A BILL FOR |
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1 | | AN ACT concerning safety.
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2 | | Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
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3 | | represented in the General Assembly:
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4 | | Section 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Drug |
5 | | Take-Back Act. |
6 | | Section 5. Findings. The General Assembly finds that: |
7 | | (1) A safe system for the collection and disposal of |
8 | | unused, unwanted, and expired medicines is a key element |
9 | | of a comprehensive strategy to prevent prescription drug |
10 | | abuse and pharmaceutical pollution. Home medicine cabinets |
11 | | are full of unused and expired prescription drugs, only a |
12 | | fraction of which get disposed of properly. |
13 | | (2) Storing unused, unwanted, or expired medicines can |
14 | | lead to accidental poisoning, drug abuse, and even drug |
15 | | trafficking, but disposing of medicines by flushing them |
16 | | down the toilet or placing them in the garbage can |
17 | | contaminate groundwater and other bodies of water, |
18 | | contributing to long-term harm to the environment and |
19 | | animal life. |
20 | | (3) Manufacturers of these drugs hold the ultimate |
21 | | responsibility for the lasting impacts of the drugs they |
22 | | produce. |
23 | | (4) The General Assembly therefore finds that it is in |
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1 | | the interest of public health and environmental protection |
2 | | to establish a single, uniform, statewide system of |
3 | | regulation for safe and secure collection and disposal of |
4 | | medicines through a uniform drug "take-back" program |
5 | | operated and funded by drug manufacturers. |
6 | | Section 10. Definitions. In this Act: |
7 | | "Agency" means the Environmental Protection Agency. |
8 | | "Authorized collector" means any of the following who |
9 | | elect to collect covered drugs through participation in a |
10 | | pharmaceutical drug take-back program: |
11 | | (1) a person who is registered with the United States |
12 | | Drug Enforcement Administration to collect controlled |
13 | | substances for the purpose of destruction; |
14 | | (2) a law enforcement agency; |
15 | | (3) a unit of local government working in conjunction |
16 | | with a law enforcement agency; or |
17 | | (4) a person authorized by the Agency to provide |
18 | | alternative collection methods for a covered drug that is |
19 | | not a controlled substance. |
20 | | "Collection site" means the location where an authorized |
21 | | collector collects covered drugs as part of a drug take-back |
22 | | program under this Act. |
23 | | "Consumer" means a person who possesses a covered drug for |
24 | | personal use or for the use of a member of the person's |
25 | | household. |
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1 | | "Covered drug" means a legend drug, nonlegend drug, brand |
2 | | name drug, or generic drug. "Covered drug" does not include: |
3 | | (1) a dietary supplement as defined by 21 U.S.C. 321 |
4 | | (ff); |
5 | | (2) drugs that are defined as Schedule I controlled |
6 | | substances under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; |
7 | | (3) personal care products, including, but not limited |
8 | | to, cosmetics, shampoos, sunscreens, lip balms, |
9 | | toothpastes, and antiperspirants, that are regulated as |
10 | | both cosmetics and nonprescription drugs under the federal |
11 | | Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. 301. |
12 | | (4) drugs for which manufacturers provide a |
13 | | pharmaceutical product stewardship or drug take-back |
14 | | program as part of a federal managed risk evaluation and |
15 | | mitigation strategy under 21 U.S.C. 355-1; |
16 | | (5) biological drug products, as defined by 42 U.S.C. |
17 | | 262(i)(l); |
18 | | (6) drugs that are administered in a clinical setting; |
19 | | (7) emptied injector products or emptied medical |
20 | | devices and their component parts or accessories; |
21 | | (8) needles or sharps; |
22 | | (9) pet pesticide products contained in pet collars, |
23 | | powders, shampoos, topical applications, or other forms; |
24 | | or |
25 | | (10) dialysate drugs or other saline solutions |
26 | | required to perform kidney dialysis. |
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1 | | "Covered manufacturer" means a manufacturer, distributor, |
2 | | or licensed wholesale drug distributor, as defined in the |
3 | | Wholesale Drug Distribution Licensing Act, of a covered drug |
4 | | that is sold or offered for sale in Illinois. "Covered |
5 | | manufacturer" does not include: |
6 | | (1) a private label distributor of a covered drug, or |
7 | | a pharmacy that sells a covered drug under the pharmacy's |
8 | | store label, if the manufacturer of the covered drug is |
9 | | identified under Section 20; |
10 | | (2) a pharmacy chain that is licensed as a wholesale |
11 | | drug distributor under the Wholesale Drug Distribution |
12 | | Licensing Act, if it engages in intracompany transfers of |
13 | | covered drugs between any division, affiliate, subsidiary, |
14 | | parent, or other entity under complete common ownership or |
15 | | control, or if the manufacturer of the covered drug |
16 | | distributed at wholesale is identified under Section 20; |
17 | | (3) a repackager of a covered drug, if the |
18 | | manufacturer of the drug is identified under Section 20, |
19 | | or if the repackager is a pharmacy chain that engages in |
20 | | intracompany transfers of the covered drug between any |
21 | | division, affiliate, subsidiary, parent, or other entity |
22 | | under complete common ownership or control; or |
23 | | (4) a health care corporation exempt from taxation |
24 | | under Section 501(c)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue |
25 | | Code of 1986 that repackages covered drugs solely for the |
26 | | purpose of supplying the drugs to facilities or pharmacies |
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1 | | operated by the corporation or an affiliate of the |
2 | | corporation, if the manufacturer of the drug is identified |
3 | | under Section 20. |
4 | | "Drug" means an article: |
5 | | (1) recognized in the official United States |
6 | | Pharmacopoeia, National Formulary, Homeopathic |
7 | | Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or any supplement to |
8 | | any of those sources; |
9 | | (2) intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, |
10 | | mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in human |
11 | | beings or animals; |
12 | | (3) other than food and that is intended to affect the |
13 | | structure or any function of the body of human beings or |
14 | | animals; or |
15 | | (4) intended for use as a component of any article |
16 | | specified in paragraph (1), (2) or (3), but not devices or |
17 | | their components, parts or accessories. |
18 | | "Drug take-back program" means a program implemented under |
19 | | this Act by a manufacturer program operator for the |
20 | | collection, transportation, and disposal of covered drugs by |
21 | | consumers. |
22 | | "Generic drug" means a drug that is chemically identical |
23 | | or bioequivalent to a brand name drug in dosage, form, safety, |
24 | | strength, route of administration, quality, performance |
25 | | characteristics, and intended use. The inactive ingredients in |
26 | | a generic drug need not be identical to the inactive |
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1 | | ingredients in the chemically identical or bioequivalent brand |
2 | | name drug. |
3 | | "Legend drug" means a drug limited by the federal Food, |
4 | | Drug, and Cosmetic Act to being dispensed by or upon a medical |
5 | | practitioner's prescription because the drug is: |
6 | | (1) habit forming; |
7 | | (2) toxic or having potential for harm; or |
8 | | (3) limited by the new drug application for the drug |
9 | | to use only under a medical practitioner's supervision. |
10 | | "Manufacturer program operator" means a covered |
11 | | manufacturer, a group of covered manufacturers, or an entity |
12 | | acting on behalf of a covered manufacturer or group of covered |
13 | | manufacturers, that implements a drug take-back program. |
14 | | "Medical practitioner" means any person licensed to |
15 | | practice medicine in all its branches in the State. |
16 | | "Nonlegend drug" means a drug that does not require |
17 | | dispensing by prescription and which is not restricted to use |
18 | | by practitioners only. |
19 | | "Person" means any individual, partnership, |
20 | | co-partnership, firm, company, limited liability company, |
21 | | corporation, association, joint stock company, trust, estate, |
22 | | political subdivision, State agency, or any other legal |
23 | | entity, or their legal representative, agent, or assign. |
24 | | "Pharmacy" has the meaning provided in Section 3 of the |
25 | | Pharmacy Practice Act. |
26 | | "Prescription drug" means a drug that is required under |
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1 | | State or federal law to be dispensed with a prescription or |
2 | | that is restricted to use by medical practitioners only. |
3 | |
"Proprietary information" means information that is all |
4 | | of the following: |
5 | | (1) submitted under this Act; |
6 | | (2) a trade secret or commercial or financial |
7 | | information that is privileged or confidential and is |
8 | | identified as such by the person providing the |
9 | | information; and |
10 | | (3) not required to be disclosed under any other law |
11 | | or any regulation affecting a covered product, covered |
12 | | manufacturer, or pharmacy. |
13 | | Section 15. Participation in a drug take-back program. |
14 | | Each covered manufacturer must, no later than July 1, 2022 or 6 |
15 | | months after becoming a covered manufacturer, whichever is |
16 | | later, participate in an approved drug take-back program or |
17 | | have established and implemented a drug take-back program that |
18 | | complies with the requirements of this Act. A covered |
19 | | manufacturer must establish, fund, and implement a drug |
20 | | take-back program independently or as part of a group of |
21 | | covered manufacturers. |
22 | | Section 20. Identification of covered manufacturers. |
23 | | (a) No later than April 1, 2022, each pharmacy, private |
24 | | label distributor, and repackager that sells or offers for |
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1 | | sale in Illinois, under its own label, a covered drug must |
2 | | provide written notification to the Agency identifying the |
3 | | covered manufacturer from which the covered drug is obtained. |
4 | | (b) All covered manufacturers of covered drugs sold or |
5 | | offered for sale in Illinois must register with the Agency and |
6 | | pay to the Agency the annual registration fee set forth under |
7 | | Section 60. |
8 | | Section 25. Drug take-back program requirements. |
9 | | (a) At least 120 days prior to submitting a proposal under |
10 | | Section 35, a manufacturer program operator must notify |
11 | | potential authorized collectors of the opportunity to serve as |
12 | | an authorized collector for the proposed drug take-back |
13 | | program. No later than 30 days after a potential authorized |
14 | | collector expresses interest in participating in a proposed |
15 | | program, the manufacturer program operator must commence good |
16 | | faith negotiations with the potential authorized collector |
17 | | regarding the collector's participation in the program. |
18 | | (b) A person may serve as an authorized collector for a |
19 | | drug take-back program voluntarily or in exchange for |
20 | | compensation. Nothing in this Act requires any person to serve |
21 | | as an authorized collector for a drug take-back program. |
22 | | (c) A pharmacy shall not be required to participate in a |
23 | | drug take-back program. |
24 | | (d) A drug take-back program must include as a collector |
25 | | any entity that (i) is an authorized collector and (ii) offers |
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1 | | to participate in the program. The manufacturer program |
2 | | operator must include the entity in the program as a collector |
3 | | no later than 90 days after receiving a written offer to |
4 | | participate. |
5 | | (e) A drug take-back program must pay for all |
6 | | administrative and operational costs of the drug take-back |
7 | | program, as outlined in subsection (a) of Section 55. |
8 | | (f) An authorized collector operating a drug take-back |
9 | | program collection site must accept all covered drugs from |
10 | | consumers during the hours that the location used as a |
11 | | collection site is normally open for business to the public. |
12 | | (g) A drug take-back program collection site must collect |
13 | | covered drugs and store them in compliance with State and |
14 | | federal law, including United States Drug Enforcement |
15 | | Administration regulations. The manufacturer program operator |
16 | | must provide for transportation and disposal of collected |
17 | | covered drugs in a manner that ensures each collection site is |
18 | | serviced as often as necessary to avoid reaching capacity and |
19 | | that collected covered drugs are transported to final disposal |
20 | | in a manner consistent with State and federal law, including a |
21 | | process for additional prompt collection service upon |
22 | | notification from the collection site. Covered drugs shall be |
23 | | disposed of at a permitted hazardous waste facility that meets |
24 | | the requirements under 40 CFR 264 and 40 CFR 265 or a permitted |
25 | | municipal waste incinerator that meets the requirements under |
26 | | 40 CFR 50 and 40 CFR 62. |
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1 | | (h) Authorized collectors must comply with all State and |
2 | | federal laws and regulations governing the collection, |
3 | | storage, and disposal of covered drugs, including United |
4 | | States Drug Enforcement Administration regulations. |
5 | | (i) A drug take-back program's collection system must be |
6 | | on an ongoing, year-round basis and must provide access for |
7 | | residents across the State. |
8 | | (j) A drug take-back program shall provide, in every |
9 | | county with a potential authorized collector, one collection |
10 | | site and a minimum of at least one additional collection site |
11 | | for every 10,000 county residents at each location of the |
12 | | potential authorized collector, provided that there are enough |
13 | | authorized collectors offering to participate in the drug |
14 | | take-back program. |
15 | | All authorized collection sites that offer to participate |
16 | | in a drug take-back program or that offer their own drug |
17 | | take-back program shall be counted towards meeting the minimum |
18 | | number of collection sites within a drug take-back program. |
19 | | (k) Each manufacturer program operator shall provide a |
20 | | plan to the Agency that states the number and locations of |
21 | | mail-back distribution locations or the frequency and |
22 | | locations of periodic collection events for each county in the |
23 | | State. The manufacturer program operator shall consult with |
24 | | each county authority identified in the written notice prior |
25 | | to preparing the plan to determine the role that mail-back |
26 | | distribution locations or periodic collection events will have |
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1 | | in the drug take-back program. |
2 | | The Agency shall approve the plan if the number and |
3 | | locations of mail-back distribution locations or the frequency |
4 | | and locations of periodic collection events provide convenient |
5 | | service. |
6 | | The requirement to hold periodic collection events shall |
7 | | be deemed to be satisfied if a manufacturer program operator |
8 | | makes reasonable efforts to arrange periodic collection events |
9 | | but they cannot be scheduled due to lack of law enforcement |
10 | | availability. |
11 | | A manufacturer program operator must permit an ultimate |
12 | | user who is a homeless, homebound, or disabled individual to |
13 | | request prepaid, preaddressed mailing envelopes. A |
14 | | manufacturer program operator shall accept the request through |
15 | | a website and toll-free telephone number that it must maintain |
16 | | to comply with the requests.
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17 | | Section 30. Manufacturer program operator requirements. A |
18 | | manufacturer program operator shall: |
19 | | (1) Adopt policies and procedures to be followed by |
20 | | persons handling covered drugs collected under the program |
21 | | to ensure compliance with State and federal laws, rules, |
22 | | and regulations, including regulations adopted by the |
23 | | United States Drug Enforcement Administration. |
24 | | (2) Ensure the security of patient information on drug |
25 | | packaging during collection, transportation, recycling, |
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1 | | and disposal. |
2 | | (3) Promote the program by providing consumers, |
3 | | pharmacies, and other entities with educational and |
4 | | informational materials as required under Section 45. |
5 | | (4) Consider: |
6 | | (A) the use of existing providers of |
7 | | pharmaceutical waste transportation and disposal |
8 | | services; |
9 | | (B) separation of covered drugs from packaging to |
10 | | reduce transportation and disposal costs; and |
11 | | (C) recycling of drug packaging. |
12 | | Section 35. Drug take-back program approval. |
13 | | (a) By July 1, 2022, each manufacturer program operator |
14 | | must submit to the Agency for review and approval a proposal |
15 | | for the establishment and implementation of a drug take-back |
16 | | program. If the Agency receives more than one proposal for a |
17 | | drug take-back program, the Agency shall have the authority to |
18 | | ensure the proposals are coordinated to achieve an effective |
19 | | and efficient statewide program. |
20 | | (b) The Agency shall approve a proposed program if the |
21 | | manufacturer program operator pays the program operator fee |
22 | | established under Section 60, the program fulfills the |
23 | | requirements under Section 25, and the manufacturer program |
24 | | operator submits the following information on forms prescribed |
25 | | by the Agency: |
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1 | | (1) The identity and contact information for the |
2 | | manufacturer program operator and each participating |
3 | | covered manufacturer. |
4 | | (2) The identity and contact information for the |
5 | | authorized collectors contracting with a manufacturer |
6 | | program operator under a drug take-back program. |
7 | | (3) The identity of transporters and waste disposal |
8 | | facilities that the program will use to transport and |
9 | | dispose of collected covered drugs. |
10 | | (4) The identity of all potential authorized |
11 | | collectors that were notified of the opportunity to serve |
12 | | as an authorized collector, including how they were |
13 | | notified. |
14 | | (c) The Agency shall either approve or reject the proposal |
15 | | in writing to the manufacturer program operator. If the Agency |
16 | | rejects the proposal, it shall provide the reason for |
17 | | rejection. |
18 | | (d) No later than 90 days after receipt of a notice of |
19 | | rejection under subsection (c) of this Section, the |
20 | | manufacturer program operator shall submit a revised proposal |
21 | | to the Agency. Within 90 days of receipt of a revised proposal |
22 | | the Agency shall either approve or reject the revised proposal |
23 | | in writing to the manufacturer program operator. |
24 | | (e) A manufacturer program operator must initiate |
25 | | operation of a drug take-back program meeting the requirements |
26 | | under Section 25 no later than December 1, 2022. |
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1 | | Section 40. Proposed changes or modifications to the |
2 | | approved manufacturer drug take-back program. A manufacturer |
3 | | program operator shall maintain records for 5 years of any |
4 | | proposed changes to an approved drug take-back program. These |
5 | | include, but are not limited to, changes in: |
6 | | (1) participating covered manufacturers; |
7 | | (2) collection methods; |
8 | | (3) collection site locations; or |
9 | | (4) contact information for the program operator or |
10 | | collection sites. |
11 | | Section 45. Drug take-back program promotion. Each drug |
12 | | take-back program must include a system of promotion, |
13 | | education, and public outreach about the proper collection and |
14 | | management of covered drugs. If there is more than one drug |
15 | | take-back program operated by more than one manufacturer |
16 | | program operator, the requirements of this Section shall be |
17 | | implemented using a single toll-free number and website and |
18 | | similar education, outreach, and promotional materials. This |
19 | | may include, but is not limited to, signage, written materials |
20 | | to be provided at the time of purchase or delivery of covered |
21 | | drugs, and advertising or other promotional materials. At a |
22 | | minimum, each program must do the following: |
23 | | (1) Promote the proper collection and management of |
24 | | covered drugs by residents before disposal through a drug |
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1 | | take-back program. |
2 | | (2) Discourage residents from disposing of covered |
3 | | drugs in household waste, sewers, or septic systems. |
4 | | (3) Promote the use of the drug take-back program so |
5 | | that where and how to return covered drugs is readily |
6 | | understandable to residents. |
7 | | (4) Maintain a toll-free telephone number and web site |
8 | | publicizing collection options and collection sites, and |
9 | | discouraging improper disposal practices for covered |
10 | | drugs, such as disposal in household waste, sewers, or |
11 | | septic systems. |
12 | | (5) Prepare and distribute the educational and |
13 | | outreach materials to program collection sites for |
14 | | dissemination to consumers. The materials must use plain |
15 | | language and explanatory images to make collection |
16 | | services and discouraged disposal practices readily |
17 | | understandable to all residents, including residents with |
18 | | limited English proficiency. |
19 | | (6) Promotional materials prepared and distributed in |
20 | | conjunction with an approved drug take-back program under |
21 | | this Section may not be used to promote in-home disposal |
22 | | products of any kind, including, but not limited to, |
23 | | in-home disposal products of authorized collectors |
24 | | participating directly in a drug take-back program. |
25 | | Section 50. Annual program report. |
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1 | | (a) By July 1st 2023, and each July 1st thereafter, a |
2 | | manufacturer program operator must submit to the Agency a |
3 | | report describing implementation of the drug take-back program |
4 | | during the previous calendar year. The report must include: |
5 | | (1) a list of the covered manufacturers participating |
6 | | in the drug take-back program during the prior year; |
7 | | (2) the total amount, by weight, of covered drugs |
8 | | collected and the amount, by weight, from each collection |
9 | | method used during the prior years, reported by county; |
10 | | (3) the total amount, by weight, of covered drugs |
11 | | collected from each collection site during the prior year; |
12 | | (4) the following details regarding the program's |
13 | | collection system: |
14 | | (A) a list of collection sites with addresses; |
15 | | (B) collection sites where mailers were made |
16 | | available to the public; |
17 | | (C) dates and locations of collection events held; |
18 | | and |
19 | | (D) the transporters and disposal facility or |
20 | | facilities used to dispose of the covered drugs |
21 | | collected; and |
22 | | (5) a description of the public education, outreach, |
23 | | and evaluation activities implemented; |
24 | | (6) a description of how collected packaging was |
25 | | recycled to the extent feasible; and |
26 | | (7) an evaluation of the program based on the |
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1 | | short-term and long-term goals established by the |
2 | | manufacturer program operator in accordance with paragraph |
3 | | (4) of Section 30.
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4 | | Section 55. Manufacturer drug take-back program funding. |
5 | | (a) A covered manufacturer or group of covered |
6 | | manufacturers must pay all administrative and operational |
7 | | costs associated with establishing and implementing the drug |
8 | | take-back program in which it participates. Such |
9 | | administrative and operational costs include, but are not |
10 | | limited to: |
11 | | (1) collection and transportation supplies for each |
12 | | collection site; |
13 | | (2) purchase of collection receptacles for each |
14 | | collection site; |
15 | | (3) ongoing maintenance or replacement of collection |
16 | | receptacles when requested by authorized collectors; |
17 | | (4) costs related to prepaid, preaddressed mail; |
18 | | (5) compensation of authorized collectors, if |
19 | | applicable; |
20 | | (6) operation of periodic collection events, |
21 | | including, but not limited to, the cost of law enforcement |
22 | | staff time; |
23 | | (7) transportation of all collected covered drugs to |
24 | | final disposal; |
25 | | (8) proper disposal of all collected covered drugs in |
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1 | | compliance with State and federal laws, rules, and |
2 | | regulations; and |
3 | | (9) program promotion and outreach.
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4 | | (b) A manufacturer program operator may allocate |
5 | | responsibility to covered manufacturers participating in the |
6 | | drug take-back program for the administration and operational |
7 | | costs of the programs identified under this Section. During a |
8 | | program year, as part of a manufacturer drug take-back program |
9 | | proposal submitted pursuant to Section 35, the manufacturer |
10 | | program operator shall identify the allocation methodology for |
11 | | the Agency's review and approval. |
12 | | (c) If a manufacturer program operator does not identify |
13 | | and submit an allocation methodology in its proposal submitted |
14 | | pursuant to subsection (b), the Agency may set the appropriate |
15 | | fees each program year to fund the administration and |
16 | | operational costs of the manufacturer drug take-back program. |
17 | | (d) A manufacturer program operator, covered manufacturer, |
18 | | authorized collector, or other person may not charge: |
19 | | (1) a specific point-of-sale fee to consumers to |
20 | | recoup the costs of a drug take-back program; |
21 | | (2) a specific point-of-collection fee at the time |
22 | | covered drugs are collected from a person; or |
23 | | (3) an increase in the cost of covered drugs to recoup |
24 | | the costs of a drug take-back program. |
25 | | (e) A manufacturer program operator or covered |
26 | | manufacturer shall not charge any fee to an authorized |
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1 | | collector or authorized collection site. |
2 | | Section 60. Registration fee. |
3 | | (a) By April 1, 2022, and by April 1 of each year |
4 | | thereafter, each covered manufacturer and manufacturer program |
5 | | operator shall submit to the Agency a $5,000 registration fee. |
6 | | (b) All fees collected under this Section must be |
7 | | deposited in the Solid Waste Management Fund and used by the |
8 | | Agency to administer and enforce this Act. |
9 | | Section 65. Rules; enforcement; penalties. |
10 | | (a) The Agency may adopt any rules it deems necessary to |
11 | | implement and administer this Act. |
12 | | (b) Except as otherwise provided in this Act, any person |
13 | | who violates any provision of this Act is liable for a civil |
14 | | penalty of $7,000 per violation per day, provided that the |
15 | | penalty for failure to register or pay a fee under this Act |
16 | | shall be double the applicable registration fee. |
17 | | (c) The penalties provided for in this Section may be |
18 | | recovered in a civil action brought in the name of the People |
19 | | of the State of Illinois by the State's Attorney of the county |
20 | | in which the violation occurred or by the Attorney General. |
21 | | Any penalties collected under this Section in an action in |
22 | | which the Attorney General has prevailed shall be deposited in |
23 | | the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in |
24 | | accordance with the provisions of this Act. |
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1 | | (d) The Attorney General or the State's Attorney of a |
2 | | county in which a violation occurs may institute a civil |
3 | | action for an injunction, prohibitory or mandatory, to |
4 | | restrain violations of this Act or to require such actions as |
5 | | may be necessary to address violations of this Act. |
6 | | (e) The Agency may impose a civil penalty for a violation |
7 | | of this Act of $7,000 per violation per day, plus any hearing |
8 | | costs incurred by the Agency. Such penalties shall be made |
9 | | payable to the Environmental Protection Trust Fund to be used |
10 | | in accordance with this Act. |
11 | | (f) The penalties and injunctions provided in this Act are |
12 | | in addition to any penalties, injunctions, or other relief |
13 | | provided under any other law. Nothing in this Act bars a cause |
14 | | of action by the State for any other penalty, injunction, or |
15 | | other relief provided by any other law. |
16 | | (g) Any person who knowingly makes a false, fictitious, or |
17 | | fraudulent material statement, orally or in writing, to the |
18 | | Agency, related to or required by this Act or any rule adopted |
19 | | under this Act commits a Class 4 felony, and each such |
20 | | statement or writing shall be considered a separate Class 4 |
21 | | felony. A person who, after being convicted under this |
22 | | subsection (g), violates this subsection (g) a second or |
23 | | subsequent time, commits a Class 3 felony. |
24 | | Section 70. Antitrust immunity. The activities authorized |
25 | | by this Act require collaboration among covered manufacturers |
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1 | | and among authorized collectors. These activities will enable |
2 | | safe and secure collection and disposal of covered drugs in |
3 | | Illinois and are therefore in the best interest of the public. |
4 | | The benefits of collaboration, together with active State |
5 | | supervision, outweigh potential adverse impacts. Therefore, |
6 | | the General Assembly intends to exempt from State antitrust |
7 | | laws, and provide immunity through the state action doctrine |
8 | | from federal antitrust laws, activities that are undertaken |
9 | | pursuant to this Act that might otherwise be constrained by |
10 | | such laws. The General Assembly does not intend and does not |
11 | | authorize any person or entity to engage in activities not |
12 | | provided for by this Act, and the General Assembly neither |
13 | | exempts nor provides immunity for such activities. |
14 | | Section 75. Public disclosure. The Agency shall only use |
15 | | and disclose proprietary information submitted to the Agency |
16 | | under this Act in summary or aggregated form that does not |
17 | | directly or indirectly identify financial, production, or |
18 | | sales data of an individual covered manufacturer, authorized |
19 | | collector, or pharmacy. |
20 | | Section 90. Home rule. A home rule municipality may not |
21 | | regulate drug take-back programs in a manner inconsistent with |
22 | | the regulation by the State of drug take-back programs under |
23 | | this Act. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of |
24 | | Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the |
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1 | | concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions |
2 | | exercised by the State. |
3 | | Section 95. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by |
4 | | changing Section 7 as follows: |
5 | | (5 ILCS 140/7) (from Ch. 116, par. 207) |
6 | | Sec. 7. Exemptions.
|
7 | | (1) When a request is made to inspect or copy a public |
8 | | record that contains information that is exempt from |
9 | | disclosure under this Section, but also contains information |
10 | | that is not exempt from disclosure, the public body may elect |
11 | | to redact the information that is exempt. The public body |
12 | | shall make the remaining information available for inspection |
13 | | and copying. Subject to this requirement, the following shall |
14 | | be exempt from inspection and copying:
|
15 | | (a) Information specifically prohibited from |
16 | | disclosure by federal or
State law or rules and |
17 | | regulations implementing federal or State law.
|
18 | | (b) Private information, unless disclosure is required |
19 | | by another provision of this Act, a State or federal law or |
20 | | a court order. |
21 | | (b-5) Files, documents, and other data or databases |
22 | | maintained by one or more law enforcement agencies and |
23 | | specifically designed to provide information to one or |
24 | | more law enforcement agencies regarding the physical or |
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1 | | mental status of one or more individual subjects. |
2 | | (c) Personal information contained within public |
3 | | records, the disclosure of which would constitute a |
4 | | clearly
unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless |
5 | | the disclosure is
consented to in writing by the |
6 | | individual subjects of the information. "Unwarranted |
7 | | invasion of personal privacy" means the disclosure of |
8 | | information that is highly personal or objectionable to a |
9 | | reasonable person and in which the subject's right to |
10 | | privacy outweighs any legitimate public interest in |
11 | | obtaining the information. The
disclosure of information |
12 | | that bears on the public duties of public
employees and |
13 | | officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal
|
14 | | privacy.
|
15 | | (d) Records in the possession of any public body |
16 | | created in the course of administrative enforcement
|
17 | | proceedings, and any law enforcement or correctional |
18 | | agency for
law enforcement purposes,
but only to the |
19 | | extent that disclosure would:
|
20 | | (i) interfere with pending or actually and |
21 | | reasonably contemplated
law enforcement proceedings |
22 | | conducted by any law enforcement or correctional
|
23 | | agency that is the recipient of the request;
|
24 | | (ii) interfere with active administrative |
25 | | enforcement proceedings
conducted by the public body |
26 | | that is the recipient of the request;
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1 | | (iii) create a substantial likelihood that a |
2 | | person will be deprived of a fair trial or an impartial |
3 | | hearing;
|
4 | | (iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a |
5 | | confidential source, confidential information |
6 | | furnished only by the confidential source, or persons |
7 | | who file complaints with or provide information to |
8 | | administrative, investigative, law enforcement, or |
9 | | penal agencies; except that the identities of |
10 | | witnesses to traffic accidents, traffic accident |
11 | | reports, and rescue reports shall be provided by |
12 | | agencies of local government, except when disclosure |
13 | | would interfere with an active criminal investigation |
14 | | conducted by the agency that is the recipient of the |
15 | | request;
|
16 | | (v) disclose unique or specialized investigative |
17 | | techniques other than
those generally used and known |
18 | | or disclose internal documents of
correctional |
19 | | agencies related to detection, observation or |
20 | | investigation of
incidents of crime or misconduct, and |
21 | | disclosure would result in demonstrable harm to the |
22 | | agency or public body that is the recipient of the |
23 | | request;
|
24 | | (vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law |
25 | | enforcement personnel
or any other person; or
|
26 | | (vii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation |
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1 | | by the agency that is the recipient of the request.
|
2 | | (d-5) A law enforcement record created for law |
3 | | enforcement purposes and contained in a shared electronic |
4 | | record management system if the law enforcement agency |
5 | | that is the recipient of the request did not create the |
6 | | record, did not participate in or have a role in any of the |
7 | | events which are the subject of the record, and only has |
8 | | access to the record through the shared electronic record |
9 | | management system. |
10 | | (e) Records that relate to or affect the security of |
11 | | correctional
institutions and detention facilities.
|
12 | | (e-5) Records requested by persons committed to the |
13 | | Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services |
14 | | Division of Mental Health, or a county jail if those |
15 | | materials are available in the library of the correctional |
16 | | institution or facility or jail where the inmate is |
17 | | confined. |
18 | | (e-6) Records requested by persons committed to the |
19 | | Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services |
20 | | Division of Mental Health, or a county jail if those |
21 | | materials include records from staff members' personnel |
22 | | files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment |
23 | | information. |
24 | | (e-7) Records requested by persons committed to the |
25 | | Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services |
26 | | Division of Mental Health if those materials are available |
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1 | | through an administrative request to the Department of |
2 | | Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of |
3 | | Mental Health. |
4 | | (e-8) Records requested by a person committed to the |
5 | | Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services |
6 | | Division of Mental Health, or a county jail, the |
7 | | disclosure of which would result in the risk of harm to any |
8 | | person or the risk of an escape from a jail or correctional |
9 | | institution or facility. |
10 | | (e-9) Records requested by a person in a county jail |
11 | | or committed to the Department of Corrections or |
12 | | Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, |
13 | | containing personal information pertaining to the person's |
14 | | victim or the victim's family, including, but not limited |
15 | | to, a victim's home address, home telephone number, work |
16 | | or school address, work telephone number, social security |
17 | | number, or any other identifying information, except as |
18 | | may be relevant to a requester's current or potential case |
19 | | or claim. |
20 | | (e-10) Law enforcement records of other persons |
21 | | requested by a person committed to the Department of |
22 | | Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of |
23 | | Mental Health, or a county jail, including, but not |
24 | | limited to, arrest and booking records, mug shots, and |
25 | | crime scene photographs, except as these records may be |
26 | | relevant to the requester's current or potential case or |
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1 | | claim. |
2 | | (f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, |
3 | | memoranda and other
records in which opinions are |
4 | | expressed, or policies or actions are
formulated, except |
5 | | that a specific record or relevant portion of a
record |
6 | | shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited
and |
7 | | identified by the head of the public body. The exemption |
8 | | provided in
this paragraph (f) extends to all those |
9 | | records of officers and agencies
of the General Assembly |
10 | | that pertain to the preparation of legislative
documents.
|
11 | | (g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial |
12 | | information obtained from
a person or business where the |
13 | | trade secrets or commercial or financial information are |
14 | | furnished under a claim that they are
proprietary, |
15 | | privileged , or confidential, and that disclosure of the |
16 | | trade
secrets or commercial or financial information would |
17 | | cause competitive harm to the person or business, and only |
18 | | insofar as the claim directly applies to the records |
19 | | requested. |
20 | | The information included under this exemption includes |
21 | | all trade secrets and commercial or financial information |
22 | | obtained by a public body, including a public pension |
23 | | fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held |
24 | | company within the investment portfolio of a private |
25 | | equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating |
26 | | a potential investment of public funds in a private equity |
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1 | | fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply |
2 | | to the aggregate financial performance information of a |
3 | | private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's |
4 | | managers or general partners. The exemption contained in |
5 | | this item does not apply to the identity of a privately |
6 | | held company within the investment portfolio of a private |
7 | | equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a |
8 | | privately held company may cause competitive harm. |
9 | | Nothing contained in this
paragraph (g) shall be |
10 | | construed to prevent a person or business from
consenting |
11 | | to disclosure.
|
12 | | (h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or |
13 | | agreement, including
information which if it were |
14 | | disclosed would frustrate procurement or give
an advantage |
15 | | to any person proposing to enter into a contractor |
16 | | agreement
with the body, until an award or final selection |
17 | | is made. Information
prepared by or for the body in |
18 | | preparation of a bid solicitation shall be
exempt until an |
19 | | award or final selection is made.
|
20 | | (i) Valuable formulae,
computer geographic systems,
|
21 | | designs, drawings and research data obtained or
produced |
22 | | by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be |
23 | | expected to
produce private gain or public loss.
The |
24 | | exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in |
25 | | this paragraph
(i) does not extend to requests made by |
26 | | news media as defined in Section 2 of
this Act when the |
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1 | | requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only
|
2 | | purpose of the request is to access and disseminate |
3 | | information regarding the
health, safety, welfare, or |
4 | | legal rights of the general public.
|
5 | | (j) The following information pertaining to |
6 | | educational matters: |
7 | | (i) test questions, scoring keys and other |
8 | | examination data used to
administer an academic |
9 | | examination;
|
10 | | (ii) information received by a primary or |
11 | | secondary school, college, or university under its |
12 | | procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by |
13 | | their academic peers; |
14 | | (iii) information concerning a school or |
15 | | university's adjudication of student disciplinary |
16 | | cases, but only to the extent that disclosure would |
17 | | unavoidably reveal the identity of the student; and |
18 | | (iv) course materials or research materials used |
19 | | by faculty members. |
20 | | (k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical |
21 | | submissions, and
other
construction related technical |
22 | | documents for
projects not constructed or developed in |
23 | | whole or in part with public funds
and the same for |
24 | | projects constructed or developed with public funds, |
25 | | including , but not limited to , power generating and |
26 | | distribution stations and other transmission and |
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1 | | distribution facilities, water treatment facilities, |
2 | | airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, |
3 | | and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings, |
4 | | but
only to the extent
that disclosure would compromise |
5 | | security.
|
6 | | (l) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the
|
7 | | public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the |
8 | | public body
makes the minutes available to the public |
9 | | under Section 2.06 of the Open
Meetings Act.
|
10 | | (m) Communications between a public body and an |
11 | | attorney or auditor
representing the public body that |
12 | | would not be subject to discovery in
litigation, and |
13 | | materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in
|
14 | | anticipation of a criminal, civil , or administrative |
15 | | proceeding upon the
request of an attorney advising the |
16 | | public body, and materials prepared or
compiled with |
17 | | respect to internal audits of public bodies.
|
18 | | (n) Records relating to a public body's adjudication |
19 | | of employee grievances or disciplinary cases; however, |
20 | | this exemption shall not extend to the final outcome of |
21 | | cases in which discipline is imposed.
|
22 | | (o) Administrative or technical information associated |
23 | | with automated
data processing operations, including , but |
24 | | not limited to , software,
operating protocols, computer |
25 | | program abstracts, file layouts, source
listings, object |
26 | | modules, load modules, user guides, documentation
|
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1 | | pertaining to all logical and physical design of |
2 | | computerized systems,
employee manuals, and any other |
3 | | information that, if disclosed, would
jeopardize the |
4 | | security of the system or its data or the security of
|
5 | | materials exempt under this Section.
|
6 | | (p) Records relating to collective negotiating matters
|
7 | | between public bodies and their employees or |
8 | | representatives, except that
any final contract or |
9 | | agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.
|
10 | | (q) Test questions, scoring keys, and other |
11 | | examination data used to determine the qualifications of |
12 | | an applicant for a license or employment.
|
13 | | (r) The records, documents, and information relating |
14 | | to real estate
purchase negotiations until those |
15 | | negotiations have been completed or
otherwise terminated. |
16 | | With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or
actually |
17 | | and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding |
18 | | under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents , and
|
19 | | information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except |
20 | | as may be
allowed under discovery rules adopted by the |
21 | | Illinois Supreme Court. The
records, documents , and |
22 | | information relating to a real estate sale shall be
exempt |
23 | | until a sale is consummated.
|
24 | | (s) Any and all proprietary information and records |
25 | | related to the
operation of an intergovernmental risk |
26 | | management association or
self-insurance pool or jointly |
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1 | | self-administered health and accident
cooperative or pool.
|
2 | | Insurance or self insurance (including any |
3 | | intergovernmental risk management association or self |
4 | | insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management |
5 | | information, records, data, advice or communications.
|
6 | | (t) Information contained in or related to |
7 | | examination, operating, or
condition reports prepared by, |
8 | | on behalf of, or for the use of a public
body responsible |
9 | | for the regulation or supervision of financial
|
10 | | institutions, insurance companies, or pharmacy benefit |
11 | | managers, unless disclosure is otherwise
required by State |
12 | | law.
|
13 | | (u) Information that would disclose
or might lead to |
14 | | the disclosure of
secret or confidential information, |
15 | | codes, algorithms, programs, or private
keys intended to |
16 | | be used to create electronic or digital signatures under |
17 | | the
Electronic Commerce Security Act.
|
18 | | (v) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and |
19 | | response policies
or plans that are designed to identify, |
20 | | prevent, or respond to potential
attacks upon a |
21 | | community's population or systems, facilities, or |
22 | | installations,
the destruction or contamination of which |
23 | | would constitute a clear and present
danger to the health |
24 | | or safety of the community, but only to the extent that
|
25 | | disclosure could reasonably be expected to jeopardize the |
26 | | effectiveness of the
measures or the safety of the |
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1 | | personnel who implement them or the public.
Information |
2 | | exempt under this item may include such things as details
|
3 | | pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel |
4 | | or equipment, to the
operation of communication systems or |
5 | | protocols, or to tactical operations.
|
6 | | (w) (Blank). |
7 | | (x) Maps and other records regarding the location or |
8 | | security of generation, transmission, distribution, |
9 | | storage, gathering,
treatment, or switching facilities |
10 | | owned by a utility, by a power generator, or by the |
11 | | Illinois Power Agency.
|
12 | | (y) Information contained in or related to proposals, |
13 | | bids, or negotiations related to electric power |
14 | | procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power |
15 | | Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities |
16 | | Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary |
17 | | by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce |
18 | | Commission.
|
19 | | (z) Information about students exempted from |
20 | | disclosure under Sections 10-20.38 or 34-18.29 of the |
21 | | School Code, and information about undergraduate students |
22 | | enrolled at an institution of higher education exempted |
23 | | from disclosure under Section 25 of the Illinois Credit |
24 | | Card Marketing Act of 2009. |
25 | | (aa) Information the disclosure of which is
exempted |
26 | | under the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.
|
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1 | | (bb) Records and information provided to a mortality |
2 | | review team and records maintained by a mortality review |
3 | | team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice |
4 | | Mortality Review Team Act. |
5 | | (cc) Information regarding interments, entombments, or |
6 | | inurnments of human remains that are submitted to the |
7 | | Cemetery Oversight Database under the Cemetery Care Act or |
8 | | the Cemetery Oversight Act, whichever is applicable. |
9 | | (dd) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be |
10 | | disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Illinois Public Aid |
11 | | Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of |
12 | | the Illinois Public Aid Code. |
13 | | (ee) The names, addresses, or other personal |
14 | | information of persons who are minors and are also |
15 | | participants and registrants in programs of park |
16 | | districts, forest preserve districts, conservation |
17 | | districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation |
18 | | associations. |
19 | | (ff) The names, addresses, or other personal |
20 | | information of participants and registrants in programs of |
21 | | park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation |
22 | | districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation |
23 | | associations where such programs are targeted primarily to |
24 | | minors. |
25 | | (gg) Confidential information described in Section |
26 | | 1-100 of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of |
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1 | | 2012. |
2 | | (hh) The report submitted to the State Board of |
3 | | Education by the School Security and Standards Task Force |
4 | | under item (8) of subsection (d) of Section 2-3.160 of the |
5 | | School Code and any information contained in that report. |
6 | | (ii) Records requested by persons committed to or |
7 | | detained by the Department of Human Services under the |
8 | | Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or committed to |
9 | | the Department of Corrections under the Sexually Dangerous |
10 | | Persons Act if those materials: (i) are available in the |
11 | | library of the facility where the individual is confined; |
12 | | (ii) include records from staff members' personnel files, |
13 | | staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information; |
14 | | or (iii) are available through an administrative request |
15 | | to the Department of Human Services or the Department of |
16 | | Corrections. |
17 | | (jj) Confidential information described in Section |
18 | | 5-535 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. |
19 | | (kk) The public body's credit card numbers, debit card |
20 | | numbers, bank account numbers, Federal Employer |
21 | | Identification Number, security code numbers, passwords, |
22 | | and similar account information, the disclosure of which |
23 | | could result in identity theft or impression or defrauding |
24 | | of a governmental entity or a person. |
25 | | (ll) (kk) Records concerning the work of the threat |
26 | | assessment team of a school district. |
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1 | | (mm) Proprietary information submitted to the |
2 | | Environmental Protection Agency under the Drug Take-Back |
3 | | Act. |
4 | | (1.5) Any information exempt from disclosure under the |
5 | | Judicial Privacy Act shall be redacted from public records |
6 | | prior to disclosure under this Act. |
7 | | (2) A public record that is not in the possession of a |
8 | | public body but is in the possession of a party with whom the |
9 | | agency has contracted to perform a governmental function on |
10 | | behalf of the public body, and that directly relates to the |
11 | | governmental function and is not otherwise exempt under this |
12 | | Act, shall be considered a public record of the public body, |
13 | | for purposes of this Act. |
14 | | (3) This Section does not authorize withholding of |
15 | | information or limit the
availability of records to the |
16 | | public, except as stated in this Section or
otherwise provided |
17 | | in this Act.
|
18 | | (Source: P.A. 100-26, eff. 8-4-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; |
19 | | 100-732, eff. 8-3-18; 101-434, eff. 1-1-20; 101-452, eff. |
20 | | 1-1-20; 101-455, eff. 8-23-19; revised 9-27-19.)
|
21 | | Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon |
22 | | becoming law.
|