SB2023enr 101ST GENERAL ASSEMBLY

SB2023 Enrolled LRB101 09588 JRG 54686 b

AN ACT concerning regulation.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 5. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Section 1-10 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Application.

(a) This Code applies only to procurements for which bidders, offerors, potential contractors, or contractors were first solicited on or after July 1, 1998. This Code shall not be construed to affect or impair any contract, or any provision of a contract, entered into based on a solicitation prior to the implementation date of this Code as described in Article 99, including but not limited to any covenant entered into with respect to any revenue bonds or similar instruments. All procurements for which contracts are solicited between the effective date of Articles 50 and 99 and July 1, 1998 shall be substantially in accordance with this Code and its intent.

(b) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of the funds with which the contracts are paid, including federal assistance moneys. This Code shall not apply to:

(1) Contracts between the State and its political subdivisions or other governments, or between State governmental bodies, except as specifically provided in this Code.

(2) Grants, except for the filing requirements of Section 20-80.

(3) Purchase of care, except as provided in Section 5-30.6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and this Section.

(4) Hiring of an individual as employee and not as an independent contractor, whether pursuant to an employment code or policy or by contract directly with that individual.

(5) Collective bargaining contracts.

(6) Purchase of real estate, except that notice of this type of contract with a value of more than $25,000 must be published in the Procurement Bulletin within 10 calendar days after the deed is recorded in the county of jurisdiction. The notice shall identify the real estate purchased, the names of all parties to the contract, the value of the contract, and the effective date of the contract.

(7) Contracts necessary to prepare for anticipated litigation, enforcement actions, or investigations, provided that the chief legal counsel to the Governor shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring agency is one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor, and provided that the chief legal counsel of any other procuring entity subject to this Code shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring entity is not one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor.

(8) (Blank).

(9) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois Conservation Foundation when only private funds are used.

(10) (Blank).

(11) Public-private agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 20 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act and design-build agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 25 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act.

(12) Contracts for legal, financial, and other professional and artistic services entered into on or before December 31, 2018 by the Illinois Finance Authority in which the State of Illinois is not obligated. Such contracts shall be awarded through a competitive process authorized by the Board of the Illinois Finance Authority and are subject to Sections 5-30, 20-160, 50-13, 50-20, 50-35, and 50-37 of this Code, as well as the final approval by the Board of the Illinois Finance Authority of the terms of the contract.

(13) Contracts for services, commodities, and equipment to support the delivery of timely forensic science services in consultation with and subject to the approval of the Chief Procurement Officer as provided in subsection (d) of Section 5-4-3a of the Unified Code of Corrections, except for the requirements of Sections 20-60, 20-65, 20-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code; however, the Chief Procurement Officer may, in writing with justification, waive any certification required under Article 50 of this Code. For any contracts for services which are currently provided by members of a collective bargaining agreement, the applicable terms of the collective bargaining agreement concerning subcontracting shall be followed.

On and after January 1, 2019, this paragraph (13), except for this sentence, is inoperative.

(14) Contracts for participation expenditures required by a domestic or international trade show or exhibition of an exhibitor, member, or sponsor.

(15) Contracts with a railroad or utility that requires the State to reimburse the railroad or utilities for the relocation of utilities for construction or other public purpose. Contracts included within this paragraph (15) shall include, but not be limited to, those associated with: relocations, crossings, installations, and maintenance. For the purposes of this paragraph (15), "railroad" means any form of non-highway ground transportation that runs on rails or electromagnetic guideways and "utility" means: (1) public utilities as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, (2) telecommunications carriers as defined in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act, (3) electric cooperatives as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act, (4) telephone or telecommunications cooperatives as defined in Section 13-212 of the Public Utilities Act, (5) rural water or waste water systems with 10,000 connections or less, (6) a holder as defined in Section 21-201 of the Public Utilities Act, and (7) municipalities owning or operating utility systems consisting of public utilities as that term is defined in Section 11-117-2 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(16) Procurement expenditures necessary for the Department of Public Health to provide the delivery of timely newborn screening services in accordance with the Newborn Metabolic Screening Act.

(17) (16) Procurement expenditures necessary for the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Human Services, and the Department of Public Health to implement the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program requirements and ensure access to medical cannabis for patients with debilitating medical conditions in accordance with the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for contracts entered into on or after October 1, 2017 under an exemption provided in any paragraph of this subsection (b), except paragraph (1), (2), or (5), each State agency shall post to the appropriate procurement bulletin the name of the contractor, a description of the supply or service provided, the total amount of the contract, the term of the contract, and the exception to the Code utilized. The chief procurement officer shall submit a report to the Governor and General Assembly no later than November 1 of each year that shall include, at a minimum, an annual summary of the monthly information reported to the chief procurement officer.

(c) This Code does not apply to the electric power procurement process provided for under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(d) Except for Section 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code, and as expressly required by Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law, the provisions of this Code do not apply to the procurement process provided for under Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law.

(e) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain a person or entity to assist the Capital Development Board with its duties related to the determination of costs of a clean coal SNG brownfield facility, as defined by Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, as required in subsection (h-3) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act, including calculating the range of capital costs, the range of operating and maintenance costs, or the sequestration costs or monitoring the construction of clean coal SNG brownfield facility for the full duration of construction.

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) This Code does not apply to the process to procure or contracts entered into in accordance with Sections 11-5.2 and 11-5.3 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(i) Each chief procurement officer may access records necessary to review whether a contract, purchase, or other expenditure is or is not subject to the provisions of this Code, unless such records would be subject to attorney-client privilege.

(j) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain an artist or work or works of art as required in Section 14 of the Capital Development Board Act.

(k) This Code does not apply to the process to procure contracts, or contracts entered into, by the State Board of Elections or the State Electoral Board for hearing officers appointed pursuant to the Election Code.

(l) This Code does not apply to the processes used by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission to procure supplies and services paid for from the private funds of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Fund. As used in this subsection (l), "private funds" means funds derived from deposits paid into the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund and the earnings thereon.

(Source: P.A. 99-801, eff. 1-1-17; 100-43, eff. 8-9-17; 100-580, eff. 3-12-18; 100-757, eff. 8-10-18; 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18; revised 10-18-18.)

Section 10. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Section 201 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/201) (from Ch. 120, par. 2-201)

Sec. 201. Tax imposed.

(a) In general. A tax measured by net income is hereby imposed on every individual, corporation, trust and estate for each taxable year ending after July 31, 1969 on the privilege of earning or receiving income in or as a resident of this State. Such tax shall be in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by this State or by any municipal corporation or political subdivision thereof.

(b) Rates. The tax imposed by subsection (a) of this Section shall be determined as follows, except as adjusted by subsection (d-1):

(1) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal to 2 1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(2) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 2 1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii) 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3.

(3) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years beginning after June 30, 1989, and ending prior to January 1, 2011, an amount equal to 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(4) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2011, and ending after December 31, 2010, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2011, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 5% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2010, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(5) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2011, and ending prior to January 1, 2015, an amount equal to 5% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(5.1) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2015, and ending after December 31, 2014, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 5% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2015, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2014, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(5.2) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, and ending prior to July 1, 2017, an amount equal to 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(5.3) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 2017, and ending after June 30, 2017, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 2017, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 4.95% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 2017, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(5.4) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for taxable years beginning on or after July 1, 2017, an amount equal to 4.95% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(6) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal to 4% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(7) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 4% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii) 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3.

(8) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning after June 30, 1989, and ending prior to January 1, 2011, an amount equal to 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(9) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2011, and ending after December 31, 2010, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2011, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2010, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(10) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2011, and ending prior to January 1, 2015, an amount equal to 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(11) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2015, and ending after December 31, 2014, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January 1, 2015, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 5.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December 31, 2014, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(12) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, and ending prior to July 1, 2017, an amount equal to 5.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(13) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 2017, and ending after June 30, 2017, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 5.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 2017, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 2017, as calculated under Section 202.5.

(14) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning on or after July 1, 2017, an amount equal to 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

The rates under this subsection (b) are subject to the provisions of Section 201.5.

(c) Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax. Beginning on July 1, 1979 and thereafter, in addition to such income tax, there is also hereby imposed the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax measured by net income on every corporation (including Subchapter S corporations), partnership and trust, for each taxable year ending after June 30, 1979. Such taxes are imposed on the privilege of earning or receiving income in or as a resident of this State. The Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax shall be in addition to the income tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section and in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by this State or by any municipal corporation or political subdivision thereof.

(d) Additional Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax Rates. The personal property tax replacement income tax imposed by this subsection and subsection (c) of this Section in the case of a corporation, other than a Subchapter S corporation and except as adjusted by subsection (d-1), shall be an additional amount equal to 2.85% of such taxpayer's net income for the taxable year, except that beginning on January 1, 1981, and thereafter, the rate of 2.85% specified in this subsection shall be reduced to 2.5%, and in the case of a partnership, trust or a Subchapter S corporation shall be an additional amount equal to 1.5% of such taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(d-1) Rate reduction for certain foreign insurers. In the case of a foreign insurer, as defined by Section 35A-5 of the Illinois Insurance Code, whose state or country of domicile imposes on insurers domiciled in Illinois a retaliatory tax (excluding any insurer whose premiums from reinsurance assumed are 50% or more of its total insurance premiums as determined under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 304, except that for purposes of this determination premiums from reinsurance do not include premiums from inter-affiliate reinsurance arrangements), beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1999, the sum of the rates of tax imposed by subsections (b) and (d) shall be reduced (but not increased) to the rate at which the total amount of tax imposed under this Act, net of all credits allowed under this Act, shall equal (i) the total amount of tax that would be imposed on the foreign insurer's net income allocable to Illinois for the taxable year by such foreign insurer's state or country of domicile if that net income were subject to all income taxes and taxes measured by net income imposed by such foreign insurer's state or country of domicile, net of all credits allowed or (ii) a rate of zero if no such tax is imposed on such income by the foreign insurer's state of domicile. For the purposes of this subsection (d-1), an inter-affiliate includes a mutual insurer under common management.

(1) For the purposes of subsection (d-1), in no event shall the sum of the rates of tax imposed by subsections (b) and (d) be reduced below the rate at which the sum of:

(A) the total amount of tax imposed on such foreign insurer under this Act for a taxable year, net of all credits allowed under this Act, plus

(B) the privilege tax imposed by Section 409 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the fire insurance company tax imposed by Section 12 of the Fire Investigation Act, and the fire department taxes imposed under Section 11-10-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code,

equals 1.25% for taxable years ending prior to December 31, 2003, or 1.75% for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2003, of the net taxable premiums written for the taxable year, as described by subsection (1) of Section 409 of the Illinois Insurance Code. This paragraph will in no event increase the rates imposed under subsections (b) and (d).

(2) Any reduction in the rates of tax imposed by this subsection shall be applied first against the rates imposed by subsection (b) and only after the tax imposed by subsection (a) net of all credits allowed under this Section other than the credit allowed under subsection (i) has been reduced to zero, against the rates imposed by subsection (d).

This subsection (d-1) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(e) Investment credit. A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax for investment in qualified property.

(1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit equal to .5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 1984. There shall be allowed an additional credit equal to .5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 1986, and the taxpayer's base employment within Illinois has increased by 1% or more over the preceding year as determined by the taxpayer's employment records filed with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. Taxpayers who are new to Illinois shall be deemed to have met the 1% growth in base employment for the first year in which they file employment records with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. The provisions added to this Section by Public Act 85-1200 (and restored by Public Act 87-895) shall be construed as declaratory of existing law and not as a new enactment. If, in any year, the increase in base employment within Illinois over the preceding year is less than 1%, the additional credit shall be limited to that percentage times a fraction, the numerator of which is .5% and the denominator of which is 1%, but shall not exceed .5%. The investment credit shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability in any tax year below zero, nor may any credit for qualified property be allowed for any year other than the year in which the property was placed in service in Illinois. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1987, and on or before December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit years if the taxpayer (i) makes investments which cause the creation of a minimum of 2,000 full-time equivalent jobs in Illinois, (ii) is located in an enterprise zone established pursuant to the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act and (iii) is certified by the Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity) as complying with the requirements specified in clause (i) and (ii) by July 1, 1986. The Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity) shall notify the Department of Revenue of all such certifications immediately. For tax years ending after December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit years. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, earlier credit shall be applied first.

(2) The term "qualified property" means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings and signs that are real property, but not including land or improvements to real property that are not a structural component of a building such as landscaping, sewer lines, local access roads, fencing, parking lots, and other appurtenances;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (e);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D) is used in Illinois by a taxpayer who is primarily engaged in manufacturing, or in mining coal or fluorite, or in retailing, or was placed in service on or after July 1, 2006 in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone established pursuant to the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act; and

(E) has not previously been used in Illinois in such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for the credit provided by this subsection (e) or subsection (f).

(3) For purposes of this subsection (e), "manufacturing" means the material staging and production of tangible personal property by procedures commonly regarded as manufacturing, processing, fabrication, or assembling which changes some existing material into new shapes, new qualities, or new combinations. For purposes of this subsection (e) the term "mining" shall have the same meaning as the term "mining" in Section 613(c) of the Internal Revenue Code. For purposes of this subsection (e), the term "retailing" means the sale of tangible personal property for use or consumption and not for resale, or services rendered in conjunction with the sale of tangible personal property for use or consumption and not for resale. For purposes of this subsection (e), "tangible personal property" has the same meaning as when that term is used in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and, for taxable years ending after December 31, 2008, does not include the generation, transmission, or distribution of electricity.

(4) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(5) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(6) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(7) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48 months after being placed in service, the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation and, (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (7), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(8) Unless the investment credit is extended by law, the basis of qualified property shall not include costs incurred after December 31, 2018, except for costs incurred pursuant to a binding contract entered into on or before December 31, 2018.

(9) Each taxable year ending before December 31, 2000, a partnership may elect to pass through to its partners the credits to which the partnership is entitled under this subsection (e) for the taxable year. A partner may use the credit allocated to him or her under this paragraph only against the tax imposed in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section. If the partnership makes that election, those credits shall be allocated among the partners in the partnership in accordance with the rules set forth in Section 704(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, and the rules promulgated under that Section, and the allocated amount of the credits shall be allowed to the partners for that taxable year. The partnership shall make this election on its Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax return for that taxable year. The election to pass through the credits shall be irrevocable.

For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2000, a partner that qualifies its partnership for a subtraction under subparagraph (I) of paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 203 or a shareholder that qualifies a Subchapter S corporation for a subtraction under subparagraph (S) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 203 shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (e) equal to its share of the credit earned under this subsection (e) during the taxable year by the partnership or Subchapter S corporation, determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(f) Investment credit; Enterprise Zone; River Edge Redevelopment Zone.

(1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for investment in qualified property which is placed in service in an Enterprise Zone created pursuant to the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or, for property placed in service on or after July 1, 2006, a River Edge Redevelopment Zone established pursuant to the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act. For partners, shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (f) to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. The credit shall be .5% of the basis for such property. The credit shall be available only in the taxable year in which the property is placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1985, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the credit accruing first in time shall be applied first.

(2) The term qualified property means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (f);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D) is used in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer; and

(E) has not been previously used in Illinois in such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for the credit provided by this subsection (f) or subsection (e).

(3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(6) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone within 48 months after being placed in service, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(7) There shall be allowed an additional credit equal to 0.5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 2006, and the taxpayer's base employment within Illinois has increased by 1% or more over the preceding year as determined by the taxpayer's employment records filed with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. Taxpayers who are new to Illinois shall be deemed to have met the 1% growth in base employment for the first year in which they file employment records with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. If, in any year, the increase in base employment within Illinois over the preceding year is less than 1%, the additional credit shall be limited to that percentage times a fraction, the numerator of which is 0.5% and the denominator of which is 1%, but shall not exceed 0.5%.

(g) (Blank).

(h) Investment credit; High Impact Business.

(1) Subject to subsections (b) and (b-5) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for investment in qualified property which is placed in service by a Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity designated High Impact Business. The credit shall be .5% of the basis for such property. The credit shall not be available (i) until the minimum investments in qualified property set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act have been satisfied or (ii) until the time authorized in subsection (b-5) of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act for entities designated as High Impact Businesses under subdivisions (a)(3)(B), (a)(3)(C), and (a)(3)(D) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. The credit applicable to such investments shall be taken in the taxable year in which such investments have been completed. The credit for additional investments beyond the minimum investment by a designated high impact business authorized under subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act shall be available only in the taxable year in which the property is placed in service and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1987, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the credit accruing first in time shall be applied first.

Changes made in this subdivision (h)(1) by Public Act 88-670 restore changes made by Public Act 85-1182 and reflect existing law.

(2) The term qualified property means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (h);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(D) is not eligible for the Enterprise Zone Investment Credit provided by subsection (f) of this Section.

(3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone located in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(6) If during any taxable year ending on or before December 31, 1996, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48 months after being placed in service, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(7) Beginning with tax years ending after December 31, 1996, if a taxpayer qualifies for the credit under this subsection (h) and thereby is granted a tax abatement and the taxpayer relocates its entire facility in violation of the explicit terms and length of the contract under Section 18-183 of the Property Tax Code, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section shall be increased for the taxable year in which the taxpayer relocated its facility by an amount equal to the amount of credit received by the taxpayer under this subsection (h).

(i) Credit for Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax. For tax years ending prior to December 31, 2003, a credit shall be allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section. This credit shall be computed by multiplying the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section by a fraction, the numerator of which is base income allocable to Illinois and the denominator of which is Illinois base income, and further multiplying the product by the tax rate imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section.

Any credit earned on or after December 31, 1986 under this subsection which is unused in the year the credit is computed because it exceeds the tax liability imposed by subsections (a) and (b) for that year (whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended) may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year, provided that no credit may be carried forward to any year ending on or after December 31, 2003. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first.

If, during any taxable year ending on or after December 31, 1986, the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section for which a taxpayer has claimed a credit under this subsection (i) is reduced, the amount of credit for such tax shall also be reduced. Such reduction shall be determined by recomputing the credit to take into account the reduced tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d). If any portion of the reduced amount of credit has been carried to a different taxable year, an amended return shall be filed for such taxable year to reduce the amount of credit claimed.

(j) Training expense credit. Beginning with tax years ending on or after December 31, 1986 and prior to December 31, 2003, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) under this Section for all amounts paid or accrued, on behalf of all persons employed by the taxpayer in Illinois or Illinois residents employed outside of Illinois by a taxpayer, for educational or vocational training in semi-technical or technical fields or semi-skilled or skilled fields, which were deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income. The credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be 1.6% of such training expenses. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (j) to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

Any credit allowed under this subsection which is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first computed until it is used. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. No carryforward credit may be claimed in any tax year ending on or after December 31, 2003.

(k) Research and development credit. For tax years ending after July 1, 1990 and prior to December 31, 2003, and beginning again for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2004, and ending prior to January 1, 2022, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for increasing research activities in this State. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 6 1/2% of the qualifying expenditures for increasing research activities in this State. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

For purposes of this subsection, "qualifying expenditures" means the qualifying expenditures as defined for the federal credit for increasing research activities which would be allowable under Section 41 of the Internal Revenue Code and which are conducted in this State, "qualifying expenditures for increasing research activities in this State" means the excess of qualifying expenditures for the taxable year in which incurred over qualifying expenditures for the base period, "qualifying expenditures for the base period" means the average of the qualifying expenditures for each year in the base period, and "base period" means the 3 taxable years immediately preceding the taxable year for which the determination is being made.

Any credit in excess of the tax liability for the taxable year may be carried forward. A taxpayer may elect to have the unused credit shown on its final completed return carried over as a credit against the tax liability for the following 5 taxable years or until it has been fully used, whichever occurs first; provided that no credit earned in a tax year ending prior to December 31, 2003 may be carried forward to any year ending on or after December 31, 2003.

If an unused credit is carried forward to a given year from 2 or more earlier years, that credit arising in the earliest year will be applied first against the tax liability for the given year. If a tax liability for the given year still remains, the credit from the next earliest year will then be applied, and so on, until all credits have been used or no tax liability for the given year remains. Any remaining unused credit or credits then will be carried forward to the next following year in which a tax liability is incurred, except that no credit can be carried forward to a year which is more than 5 years after the year in which the expense for which the credit is given was incurred.

No inference shall be drawn from this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly in construing this Section for taxable years beginning before January 1, 1999.

It is the intent of the General Assembly that the research and development credit under this subsection (k) shall apply continuously for all tax years ending on or after December 31, 2004 and ending prior to January 1, 2022, including, but not limited to, the period beginning on January 1, 2016 and ending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly. All actions taken in reliance on the continuation of the credit under this subsection (k) by any taxpayer are hereby validated.

(l) Environmental Remediation Tax Credit.

(i) For tax years ending after December 31, 1997 and on or before December 31, 2001, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for certain amounts paid for unreimbursed eligible remediation costs, as specified in this subsection. For purposes of this Section, "unreimbursed eligible remediation costs" means costs approved by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency ("Agency") under Section 58.14 of the Environmental Protection Act that were paid in performing environmental remediation at a site for which a No Further Remediation Letter was issued by the Agency and recorded under Section 58.10 of the Environmental Protection Act. The credit must be claimed for the taxable year in which Agency approval of the eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is not available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any related party caused or contributed to, in any material respect, a release of regulated substances on, in, or under the site that was identified and addressed by the remedial action pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the Environmental Protection Act. After the Pollution Control Board rules are adopted pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for the administration and enforcement of Section 58.9 of the Environmental Protection Act, determinations as to credit availability for purposes of this Section shall be made consistent with those rules. For purposes of this Section, "taxpayer" includes a person whose tax attributes the taxpayer has succeeded to under Section 381 of the Internal Revenue Code and "related party" includes the persons disallowed a deduction for losses by paragraphs (b), (c), and (f)(1) of Section 267 of the Internal Revenue Code by virtue of being a related taxpayer, as well as any of its partners. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of $100,000 per site, except that the $100,000 threshold shall not apply to any site contained in an enterprise zone as determined by the Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity). The total credit allowed shall not exceed $40,000 per year with a maximum total of $150,000 per site. For partners and shareholders of subchapter S corporations, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

(ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first earned until it is used. The term "unused credit" does not include any amounts of unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of the maximum credit per site authorized under paragraph (i). This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of all or part of the remediation site for which the credit was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the chain of title for the site and provide written notice to the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).

(iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site" shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(m) Education expense credit. Beginning with tax years ending after December 31, 1999, a taxpayer who is the custodian of one or more qualifying pupils shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for qualified education expenses incurred on behalf of the qualifying pupils. The credit shall be equal to 25% of qualified education expenses, but in no event may the total credit under this subsection claimed by a family that is the custodian of qualifying pupils exceed (i) $500 for tax years ending prior to December 31, 2017, and (ii) $750 for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2017. In no event shall a credit under this subsection reduce the taxpayer's liability under this Act to less than zero. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2017, no taxpayer may claim a credit under this subsection (m) if the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the taxable year exceeds (i) $500,000, in the case of spouses filing a joint federal tax return or (ii) $250,000, in the case of all other taxpayers. This subsection is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act.

For purposes of this subsection:

"Qualifying pupils" means individuals who (i) are residents of the State of Illinois, (ii) are under the age of 21 at the close of the school year for which a credit is sought, and (iii) during the school year for which a credit is sought were full-time pupils enrolled in a kindergarten through twelfth grade education program at any school, as defined in this subsection.

"Qualified education expense" means the amount incurred on behalf of a qualifying pupil in excess of $250 for tuition, book fees, and lab fees at the school in which the pupil is enrolled during the regular school year.

"School" means any public or nonpublic elementary or secondary school in Illinois that is in compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and attendance at which satisfies the requirements of Section 26-1 of the School Code, except that nothing shall be construed to require a child to attend any particular public or nonpublic school to qualify for the credit under this Section.

"Custodian" means, with respect to qualifying pupils, an Illinois resident who is a parent, the parents, a legal guardian, or the legal guardians of the qualifying pupils.

(n) River Edge Redevelopment Zone site remediation tax credit.

(i) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 2006, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for certain amounts paid for unreimbursed eligible remediation costs, as specified in this subsection. For purposes of this Section, "unreimbursed eligible remediation costs" means costs approved by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency ("Agency") under Section 58.14a of the Environmental Protection Act that were paid in performing environmental remediation at a site within a River Edge Redevelopment Zone for which a No Further Remediation Letter was issued by the Agency and recorded under Section 58.10 of the Environmental Protection Act. The credit must be claimed for the taxable year in which Agency approval of the eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is not available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any related party caused or contributed to, in any material respect, a release of regulated substances on, in, or under the site that was identified and addressed by the remedial action pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the Environmental Protection Act. Determinations as to credit availability for purposes of this Section shall be made consistent with rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for the administration and enforcement of Section 58.9 of the Environmental Protection Act. For purposes of this Section, "taxpayer" includes a person whose tax attributes the taxpayer has succeeded to under Section 381 of the Internal Revenue Code and "related party" includes the persons disallowed a deduction for losses by paragraphs (b), (c), and (f)(1) of Section 267 of the Internal Revenue Code by virtue of being a related taxpayer, as well as any of its partners. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of $100,000 per site.

(ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first earned until it is used. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of all or part of the remediation site for which the credit was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the chain of title for the site and provide written notice to the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).

(iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site" shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(o) For each of taxable years during the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program, a surcharge is imposed on all taxpayers on income arising from the sale or exchange of capital assets, depreciable business property, real property used in the trade or business, and Section 197 intangibles of an organization registrant under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act. The amount of the surcharge is equal to the amount of federal income tax liability for the taxable year attributable to those sales and exchanges. The surcharge imposed does not apply if:

(1) the medical cannabis cultivation center registration, medical cannabis dispensary registration, or the property of a registration is transferred as a result of any of the following:

(A) bankruptcy, a receivership, or a debt adjustment initiated by or against the initial registration or the substantial owners of the initial registration;

(B) cancellation, revocation, or termination of any registration by the Illinois Department of Public Health;

(C) a determination by the Illinois Department of Public Health that transfer of the registration is in the best interests of Illinois qualifying patients as defined by the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act;

(D) the death of an owner of the equity interest in a registrant;

(E) the acquisition of a controlling interest in the stock or substantially all of the assets of a publicly traded company;

(F) a transfer by a parent company to a wholly owned subsidiary; or

(G) the transfer or sale to or by one person to another person where both persons were initial owners of the registration when the registration was issued; or

(2) the cannabis cultivation center registration, medical cannabis dispensary registration, or the controlling interest in a registrant's property is transferred in a transaction to lineal descendants in which no gain or loss is recognized or as a result of a transaction in accordance with Section 351 of the Internal Revenue Code in which no gain or loss is recognized.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 7-6-17.)

Section 15. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/3-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of either the selling price or the fair market value, if any, of the tangible personal property. In all cases where property functionally used or consumed is the same as the property that was purchased at retail, then the tax is imposed on the selling price of the property. In all cases where property functionally used or consumed is a by-product or waste product that has been refined, manufactured, or produced from property purchased at retail, then the tax is imposed on the lower of the fair market value, if any, of the specific property so used in this State or on the selling price of the property purchased at retail. For purposes of this Section "fair market value" means the price at which property would change hands between a willing buyer and a willing seller, neither being under any compulsion to buy or sell and both having reasonable knowledge of the relevant facts. The fair market value shall be established by Illinois sales by the taxpayer of the same property as that functionally used or consumed, or if there are no such sales by the taxpayer, then comparable sales or purchases of property of like kind and character in Illinois.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Beginning on August 6, 2010 through August 15, 2010, with respect to sales tax holiday items as defined in Section 3-6 of this Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, and (iii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel and biodiesel blends with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

If the property that is purchased at retail from a retailer is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-858, eff. 8-19-16; 100-22, eff. 7-6-17.)

Section 20. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, and (iii) 100% of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-858, eff. 8-19-16; 100-22, eff. 7-6-17.)

Section 25. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.103-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use Tax Act, of the tangible personal property. For the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible personal property transferred. The selling price of each item of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When, however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of the contract.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, and (iii) 100% of the cost price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-858, eff. 8-19-16; 100-22, eff. 7-6-17.)

Section 30. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/2-10)

Sec. 2-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property made in the course of business.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Beginning on August 6, 2010 through August 15, 2010, with respect to sales tax holiday items as defined in Section 2-8 of this Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Within 14 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, each retailer of motor fuel and gasohol shall cause the following notice to be posted in a prominently visible place on each retail dispensing device that is used to dispense motor fuel or gasohol in the State of Illinois: "As of July 1, 2000, the State of Illinois has eliminated the State's share of sales tax on motor fuel and gasohol through December 31, 2000. The price on this pump should reflect the elimination of the tax." The notice shall be printed in bold print on a sign that is no smaller than 4 inches by 8 inches. The sign shall be clearly visible to customers. Any retailer who fails to post or maintain a required sign through December 31, 2000 is guilty of a petty offense for which the fine shall be $500 per day per each retail premises where a violation occurs.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, and (iii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-858, eff. 8-19-16; 100-22, eff. 7-6-17.)

Section 33. If and only if House Bill 1438 of the 101st General Assembly becomes law, then the Counties Code is amended by changing Section 5-1006.8 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/5-1006.8)

Sec. 5-1006.8. County Cannabis Retailers' Occupation Tax Law.

(a) This Section may be referred to as the County Cannabis Retailers' Occupation Tax Law. On and after January 1, 2020, the corporate authorities of any county may, by ordinance, impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling cannabis, other than cannabis purchased under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, at retail in the county on the gross receipts from these sales made in the course of that business. If imposed, the tax shall be imposed only in 0.25% increments. The tax rate may not exceed: (i) 3.75% of the gross receipts of sales made in unincorporated areas of the county; and (ii) 3% 0.75% of the gross receipts of sales made in a municipality located in the county a non-home rule county; and (iii) 3% of gross sales receipts made in a municipality located in a home rule county. The tax imposed under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident of the tax shall be collected and enforced by the Department of Revenue. The Department of Revenue shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this Section. In the administration of and compliance with this Section, the Department of Revenue and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are described in Sections 1, 1a, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1k, 1m, 1n, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6bb, 6c, 6d, 8, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as fully as if those provisions were set forth in this Section.

(b) Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with any State tax that sellers are required to collect.

(c) Whenever the Department of Revenue determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department of Revenue shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department of Revenue.

(d) The Department of Revenue shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder for deposit into the Local Cannabis Consumer Excise Tax Trust Fund.

(e) On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the amount of money to be disbursed from the Local Cannabis Consumer Excise Tax Trust Fund to counties from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties under this Section during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each county shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this Section from sales made in the county during the second preceding calendar month, plus an amount the Department of Revenue determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such county, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the county, less 1.5% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the counties, shall prepare and certify the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this Section. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the counties and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

(f) An ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing a tax under this Section or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of June, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of September next following the adoption and filing.

(Source: 10100HB1438sam002.)

Section 35. The School Code is amended by changing Section 22-33 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/22-33)

Sec. 22-33. Medical cannabis.

(a) This Section may be referred to as Ashley's Law.

(a-5) In this Section, "designated caregiver", "medical cannabis infused product", "qualifying patient", and "registered" have the meanings given to those terms under Section 10 of the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(b) Subject to the restrictions under subsections (c) through (g) of this Section, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school shall authorize a parent or guardian or any other individual registered with the Department of Public Health as a designated caregiver of a student who is a registered qualifying patient to administer a medical cannabis infused product to the student on the premises of the child's school or on the child's school bus if both the student (as a registered qualifying patient) and the parent or guardian or other individual (as a registered designated caregiver) have been issued registry identification cards under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act. After administering the product, the parent or guardian or other individual shall remove the product from the school premises or the school bus.

(c) A parent or guardian or other individual may not administer a medical cannabis infused product under this Section in a manner that, in the opinion of the school district or school, would create a disruption to the school's educational environment or would cause exposure of the product to other students.

(d) A school district or school may not discipline a student who is administered a medical cannabis infused product by a parent or guardian or other individual under this Section and may not deny the student's eligibility to attend school solely because the student requires the administration of the product.

(e) Nothing in this Section requires a member of a school's staff to administer a medical cannabis infused product to a student.

(f) A school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may not authorize the use of a medical cannabis infused product under this Section if the school district or school would lose federal funding as a result of the authorization.

(g) A school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school shall adopt a policy to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-660, eff. 8-1-18.)

Section 40. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 22 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.

(A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with regard to the license or permit of any person issued under this Act, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, upon any of the following grounds:

(1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place, locale, facility, or institution other than:

(a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act;

(b) an institution licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or hospitalization or care facility maintained by the State or any agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization, or care facilities under its management and control;

(d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the Federal Government; or

(e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by any university or college established under the laws of this State and supported principally by public funds raised by taxation.

(2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a willful and wanton manner on a woman who was not pregnant at the time the abortion procedure was performed.

(3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States of any crime that is a felony.

(4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.

(5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation.

(7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any other substances which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding their skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at their direction in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the body or mind.

(11) Allowing another person or organization to use their license, procured under this Act, to practice.

(12) Adverse action taken by another state or jurisdiction against a license or other authorization to practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine or doctor of chiropractic, a certified copy of the record of the action taken by the other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence thereof. This includes any adverse action taken by a State or federal agency that prohibits a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic from providing services to the agency's participants.

(13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the Medical Practice Act prior to the repeal of that Act, or violation of the rules, or a final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board.

(14) Violation of the prohibition against fee splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.

(15) A finding by the Disciplinary Board that the registrant after having his or her license placed on probationary status or subjected to conditions or restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(16) Abandonment of a patient.

(17) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving or self-administering any drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances or goods provided for a patient in such manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the physician.

(19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat disease by a secret method, procedure, treatment or medicine, or the treating, operating or prescribing for any human condition by a method, means or procedure which the licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice.

(21) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice as a physician, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(22) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully impeding the filing or recording, or inducing another person to omit to file or record, medical reports as required by law, or willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.

(23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any corporation, agents or persons, or profiting from those representing themselves to be agents of the licensee.

(25) Gross and willful and continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to, filing such false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(27) Mental illness or disability which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in a physician's inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing examinations administered under this Act.

(30) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between physician and patient except as required by law.

(31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with practice under this Act.

(32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed under this Act in the practice of a profession licensed under this Act.

(33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against them by another licensing jurisdiction (any other state or any territory of the United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer review body, by any health care institution, by any professional society or association related to practice under this Act, by any governmental agency, by any law enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a license or authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a doctor of osteopathy, a doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or surrender of membership on any medical staff or in any medical or professional association or society, while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies, for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as required by law.

(38) Failure to furnish the Department, its investigators or representatives, relevant information, legally requested by the Department after consultation with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical Coordinator.

(39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.

(41) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by this law.

(42) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed advanced practice registered nurses resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed advanced practice registered nurse.

(44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(45) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed prescribing psychologist.

(47) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

(48) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(49) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed physician assistants resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(50) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a physician assistant.

Except for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein. Except for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and (29), no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such claim, cause of action or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of 2 years from the date of notification to the Department under Section 23 of this Act of such settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. That person may resume their practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon a finding by the Disciplinary Board that they have been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Disciplinary Board's recommendation that they be permitted to resume their practice.

The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department, upon the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board, shall adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining:

(a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

(b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission of any act, including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice; and

(d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice of medicine.

However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in any civil action except for review of a licensing or other disciplinary action under this Act.

In enforcing this Section, the Disciplinary Board or the Licensing Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel, in the case of the Disciplinary Board, any individual who is licensed to practice under this Act or holds a permit to practice under this Act, or, in the case of the Licensing Board, any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by the Licensing Board or Disciplinary Board and at the expense of the Department. The Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing. The Disciplinary Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department, the Disciplinary Board, or the Licensing Board any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Disciplinary Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee, permit holder, or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee, permit holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board finds a physician unable to practice following an examination and evaluation because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall require such physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians, or other health care professionals, approved or designated by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition for issued, continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Any physician, whose license was granted pursuant to Sections 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions or restrictions, or to complete a required program of care, counseling, or treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have their license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Disciplinary Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Disciplinary Board shall have the authority to review the subject physician's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Disciplinary Board that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their license.

The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of fines in disciplinary cases, not to exceed $10,000 for each violation of this Act. Fines may be imposed in conjunction with other forms of disciplinary action, but shall not be the exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds collected from such fines shall be deposited in the Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(B) The Department shall revoke the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic physician who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license or permit is revoked under this subsection B shall be prohibited from practicing medicine or treating human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery.

(C) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine to a physician:

(1) based solely upon the recommendation of the physician to an eligible patient regarding, or prescription for, or treatment with, an investigational drug, biological product, or device; or

(2) for experimental treatment for Lyme disease or other tick-borne diseases, including, but not limited to, the prescription of or treatment with long-term antibiotics.

(D) The Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the Department civil penalties and any other appropriate discipline in disciplinary cases when the Board finds that a physician willfully performed an abortion with actual knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been performed is a minor or an incompetent person without notice as required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995. Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall impose, for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a second or subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.

(Source: P.A. 99-270, eff. 1-1-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-429, eff. 8-25-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-605, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1137, eff. 1-1-19; revised 12-19-18.)

Section 45. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Section 70-5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/70-5) (was 225 ILCS 65/10-45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 70-5. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including fines not to exceed $10,000 per violation, with regard to a license for any one or combination of the causes set forth in subsection (b) below. All fines collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund.

(b) Grounds for disciplinary action include the following:

(1) Material deception in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Material violations of any provision of this Act or violation of the rules of or final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Board.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetency to practice under this Act.

(5) Knowingly aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

(6) Failing, within 90 days, to provide a response to a request for information in response to a written request made by the Department by certified or registered mail or by email to the email address of record.

(7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public, as defined by rule.

(8) Unlawful taking, theft, selling, distributing, or manufacturing of any drug, narcotic, or prescription device.

(9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that could result in a licensee's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(11) A finding that the licensee, after having her or his license placed on probationary status or subject to conditions or restrictions, has violated the terms of probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(12) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services and under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(13) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully impeding the filing or recording or inducing another person to omit to file or record medical reports as required by law.

(13.5) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(14) Gross negligence in the practice of practical, professional, or advanced practice registered nursing.

(15) Holding oneself out to be practicing nursing under any name other than one's own.

(16) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against him or her by another licensing jurisdiction of the United States or any foreign state or country, any peer review body, any health care institution, any professional or nursing society or association, any governmental agency, any law enforcement agency, or any court or a nursing liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(17) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department surrender by the licensee of a license or authorization to practice nursing or advanced practice registered nursing in another state or jurisdiction or current surrender by the licensee of membership on any nursing staff or in any nursing or advanced practice registered nursing or professional association or society while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined by this Section.

(18) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(19) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by law.

(20) Fraud, deceit or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(21) Allowing another person or organization to use the licensees' license to deceive the public.

(22) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the licensee's practice, including but not limited to false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(23) Attempting to subvert or cheat on a licensing examination administered under this Act.

(24) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act, including, but not limited to, sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice.

(25) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between nurse and patient except as required by law.

(26) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except as provided by law.

(27) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with the licensee's practice.

(28) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (28) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (28) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(29) A violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(30) Physical illness, mental illness, or disability that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(31) Exceeding the terms of a collaborative agreement or the prescriptive authority delegated to a licensee by his or her collaborating physician or podiatric physician in guidelines established under a written collaborative agreement.

(32) Making a false or misleading statement regarding a licensee's skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the course of treatment.

(33) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(34) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to exploit the patient for financial gain.

(35) Violating State or federal laws, rules, or regulations relating to controlled substances.

(36) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between an advanced practice registered nurse, collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician and a patient, except as required by law.

(37) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

(38) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging and under the Adult Protective Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(39) A violation of any provision of this Act or any rules adopted under this Act.

(40) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend or otherwise discipline the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(e) In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

All substance-related violations shall mandate an automatic substance abuse assessment. Failure to submit to an assessment by a licensed physician who is certified as an addictionist or an advanced practice registered nurse with specialty certification in addictions may be grounds for an automatic suspension, as defined by rule.

If the Department finds an individual unable to practice or unfit for duty because of the reasons set forth in this subsection (e), the Department may require that individual to submit to a substance abuse evaluation or treatment by individuals or programs approved or designated by the Department, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, restored, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of evaluation or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, restored, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this subsection (e), a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this subsection (e) shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with nursing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 100-513, eff. 1-1-18.)

Section 50. The Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 21 as follows:

(225 ILCS 95/21) (from Ch. 111, par. 4621)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 21. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to any license issued under this Act as the Department may deem proper, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violations of this Act, or the rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is: (i) a felony; or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licenses.

(5) Professional incompetence.

(6) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(7) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct, as defined by rule, of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in a physician assistant's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(11) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (11) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements, which may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits, with persons or entities authorized under this Act for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act.

(12) A finding by the Disciplinary Board that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation.

(13) Abandonment of a patient.

(14) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including but not limited to false records filed with state agencies or departments.

(15) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(16) Physical illness, or mental illness or impairment that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill.

(17) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(18) (Blank).

(19) Gross negligence resulting in permanent injury or death of a patient.

(20) Employment of fraud, deception or any unlawful means in applying for or securing a license as a physician assistant.

(21) Exceeding the authority delegated to him or her by his or her collaborating physician in a written collaborative agreement.

(22) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation related to the licensee's practice.

(23) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(24) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except as provided by law.

(25) Making a false or misleading statement regarding his or her skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the course of treatment.

(26) Allowing another person to use his or her license to practice.

(27) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug classified as a controlled substance for other than medically-accepted therapeutic purposes.

(28) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to exploit the patient for financial gain.

(29) A pattern of practice or other behavior that demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(30) Violating State or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances or other legend drugs or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(31) Exceeding the prescriptive authority delegated by the collaborating physician or violating the written collaborative agreement delegating that authority.

(32) Practicing without providing to the Department a notice of collaboration or delegation of prescriptive authority.

(33) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by law.

(34) Attempting to subvert or cheat on the examination of the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants or its successor agency.

(35) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between physician assistant and patient, except as required by law.

(36) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

(37) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(38) Failure to report to the Department an adverse final action taken against him or her by another licensing jurisdiction of the United States or a foreign state or country, a peer review body, a health care institution, a professional society or association, a governmental agency, a law enforcement agency, or a court acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action under this Section.

(39) Failure to provide copies of records of patient care or treatment, except as required by law.

(40) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed physicians resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(41) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a collaborating physician.

(42) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(b) The Department may, without a hearing, refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient, and upon the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(d) In enforcing this Section, the Department upon a showing of a possible violation may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by and at the expense of the Department.

The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation.

The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. However, that physician shall be present only to observe and may not interfere in any way with the examination.

Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when ordered, shall result in an automatic suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination.

If the Department finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined, or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(e) An individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a willful and wanton manner, in complying with this Section by providing a report or other information to the Board, by assisting in the investigation or preparation of a report or information, by participating in proceedings of the Board, or by serving as a member of the Board, shall not be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages as a result of such actions.

(f) Members of the Board and the Disciplinary Board shall be indemnified by the State for any actions occurring within the scope of services on the Disciplinary Board or Board, done in good faith and not willful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall defend all such actions unless he or she determines either that there would be a conflict of interest in such representation or that the actions complained of were not in good faith or were willful and wanton.

If the Attorney General declines representation, the member has the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were willful and wanton.

The member must notify the Attorney General within 7 days after receipt of notice of the initiation of any action involving services of the Disciplinary Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General constitutes an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification.

The Attorney General shall determine, within 7 days after receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to represent the member.

(Source: P.A. 100-453, eff. 8-25-17; 100-605, eff. 1-1-19.)

Section 55. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 7, 10, 25, 30, 35, 36, 40, 45, 55, 57, 60, 62, 75, 105, 115, 130, 145, 160, 195, and 200 and adding Section 173 as follows:

(410 ILCS 130/1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14.)

(410 ILCS 130/7)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 7. Lawful user and lawful products. For the purposes of this Act and to clarify the legislative findings on the lawful use of cannabis:

(1) A cardholder under this Act shall not be considered an unlawful user or addicted to narcotics solely as a result of his or her qualifying patient or designated caregiver status.

(2) All medical cannabis products purchased by a qualifying patient at a licensed dispensing organization shall be lawful products and a distinction shall be made between medical and non-medical uses of cannabis as a result of the qualifying patient's cardholder status, provisional registration for qualifying patient cardholder status, or participation in the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program under the authorized use granted under State law.

(3) An individual with a provisional registration for qualifying patient cardholder status, a qualifying patient in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program medical cannabis pilot program, or an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant under Section 62 shall not be considered an unlawful user or addicted to narcotics solely as a result of his or her application to or participation in the program.

(Source: P.A. 99-519, eff. 6-30-16; 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18.)

(410 ILCS 130/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 10. Definitions. The following terms, as used in this Act, shall have the meanings set forth in this Section:

(a) "Adequate supply" means:

(1) 2.5 ounces of usable cannabis during a period of 14 days and that is derived solely from an intrastate source.

(2) Subject to the rules of the Department of Public Health, a patient may apply for a waiver where a certifying health care professional physician provides a substantial medical basis in a signed, written statement asserting that, based on the patient's medical history, in the certifying health care professional's physician's professional judgment, 2.5 ounces is an insufficient adequate supply for a 14-day period to properly alleviate the patient's debilitating medical condition or symptoms associated with the debilitating medical condition.

(3) This subsection may not be construed to authorize the possession of more than 2.5 ounces at any time without authority from the Department of Public Health.

(4) The pre-mixed weight of medical cannabis used in making a cannabis infused product shall apply toward the limit on the total amount of medical cannabis a registered qualifying patient may possess at any one time.

(a-5) "Advanced practice registered nurse" means a person who is licensed under the Nurse Practice Act as an advanced practice registered nurse and has a controlled substances license under Article III of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(b) "Cannabis" has the meaning given that term in Section 3 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(c) "Cannabis plant monitoring system" means a system that includes, but is not limited to, testing and data collection established and maintained by the registered cultivation center and available to the Department for the purposes of documenting each cannabis plant and for monitoring plant development throughout the life cycle of a cannabis plant cultivated for the intended use by a qualifying patient from seed planting to final packaging.

(d) "Cardholder" means a qualifying patient or a designated caregiver who has been issued and possesses a valid registry identification card by the Department of Public Health.

(d-5) "Certifying health care professional" means a physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant.

(e) "Cultivation center" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is registered by the Department of Agriculture to perform necessary activities to provide only registered medical cannabis dispensing organizations with usable medical cannabis.

(f) "Cultivation center agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or agent of a registered cultivation center who is 21 years of age or older and has not been convicted of an excluded offense.

(g) "Cultivation center agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a cultivation center agent.

(h) "Debilitating medical condition" means one or more of the following:

(1) cancer, glaucoma, positive status for human immunodeficiency virus, acquired immune deficiency syndrome, hepatitis C, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, Crohn's disease (including, but not limited to, ulcerative colitis), agitation of Alzheimer's disease, cachexia/wasting syndrome, muscular dystrophy, severe fibromyalgia, spinal cord disease, including but not limited to arachnoiditis, Tarlov cysts, hydromyelia, syringomyelia, Rheumatoid arthritis, fibrous dysplasia, spinal cord injury, traumatic brain injury and post-concussion syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, Arnold-Chiari malformation and Syringomyelia, Spinocerebellar Ataxia (SCA), Parkinson's, Tourette's, Myoclonus, Dystonia, Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy, RSD (Complex Regional Pain Syndromes Type I), Causalgia, CRPS (Complex Regional Pain Syndromes Type II), Neurofibromatosis, Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy, Sjogren's syndrome, Lupus, Interstitial Cystitis, Myasthenia Gravis, Hydrocephalus, nail-patella syndrome, residual limb pain, seizures (including those characteristic of epilepsy), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), autism, chronic pain, irritable bowel syndrome, migraines, osteoarthritis, anorexia nervosa, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, Neuro-Behcet's Autoimmune Disease, neuropathy, polycystic kidney disease, superior canal dehiscence syndrome, or the treatment of these conditions;

(1.5) terminal illness with a diagnosis of 6 months or less; if the terminal illness is not one of the qualifying debilitating medical conditions, then the certifying health care professional physician shall on the certification form identify the cause of the terminal illness; or

(2) any other debilitating medical condition or its treatment that is added by the Department of Public Health by rule as provided in Section 45.

(i) "Designated caregiver" means a person who: (1) is at least 21 years of age; (2) has agreed to assist with a patient's medical use of cannabis; (3) has not been convicted of an excluded offense; and (4) assists no more than one registered qualifying patient with his or her medical use of cannabis.

(j) "Dispensing organization agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that identifies a person as a medical cannabis dispensing organization agent.

(k) "Enclosed, locked facility" means a room, greenhouse, building, or other enclosed area equipped with locks or other security devices that permit access only by a cultivation center's agents or a dispensing organization's agent working for the registered cultivation center or the registered dispensing organization to cultivate, store, and distribute cannabis for registered qualifying patients.

(l) "Excluded offense" for cultivation center agents and dispensing organizations means:

(1) a violent crime defined in Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act or a substantially similar offense that was classified as a felony in the jurisdiction where the person was convicted; or

(2) a violation of a state or federal controlled substance law, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act that was classified as a felony in the jurisdiction where the person was convicted, except that the registering Department may waive this restriction if the person demonstrates to the registering Department's satisfaction that his or her conviction was for the possession, cultivation, transfer, or delivery of a reasonable amount of cannabis intended for medical use. This exception does not apply if the conviction was under state law and involved a violation of an existing medical cannabis law.

For purposes of this subsection, the Department of Public Health shall determine by emergency rule within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly what constitutes a "reasonable amount".

(l-5) (Blank).

(l-10) "Illinois Cannabis Tracking System" means a web-based system established and maintained by the Department of Public Health that is available to the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Illinois State Police, and registered medical cannabis dispensing organizations on a 24-hour basis to upload written certifications for Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants, to verify Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants, to verify Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants' available cannabis allotment and assigned dispensary, and the tracking of the date of sale, amount, and price of medical cannabis purchased by an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant.

(m) "Medical cannabis cultivation center registration" means a registration issued by the Department of Agriculture.

(n) "Medical cannabis container" means a sealed, traceable, food compliant, tamper resistant, tamper evident container, or package used for the purpose of containment of medical cannabis from a cultivation center to a dispensing organization.

(o) "Medical cannabis dispensing organization", or "dispensing organization", or "dispensary organization" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is registered by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation to acquire medical cannabis from a registered cultivation center for the purpose of dispensing cannabis, paraphernalia, or related supplies and educational materials to registered qualifying patients, individuals with a provisional registration for qualifying patient cardholder status, or an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant.

(p) "Medical cannabis dispensing organization agent" or "dispensing organization agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or agent of a registered medical cannabis dispensing organization who is 21 years of age or older and has not been convicted of an excluded offense.

(q) "Medical cannabis infused product" means food, oils, ointments, or other products containing usable cannabis that are not smoked.

(r) "Medical use" means the acquisition; administration; delivery; possession; transfer; transportation; or use of cannabis to treat or alleviate a registered qualifying patient's debilitating medical condition or symptoms associated with the patient's debilitating medical condition.

(r-5) "Opioid" means a narcotic drug or substance that is a Schedule II controlled substance under paragraph (1), (2), (3), or (5) of subsection (b) or under subsection (c) of Section 206 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(r-10) "Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant" means an individual who has received a valid written certification to participate in the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program for a medical condition for which an opioid has been or could be prescribed by a certifying health care professional physician based on generally accepted standards of care.

(s) "Physician" means a doctor of medicine or doctor of osteopathy licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine and who has a controlled substances license under Article III of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. It does not include a licensed practitioner under any other Act including but not limited to the Illinois Dental Practice Act.

(s-1) "Physician assistant" means a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 and who has a controlled substances license under Article III of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(s-5) "Provisional registration" means a document issued by the Department of Public Health to a qualifying patient who has submitted: (1) an online application and paid a fee to participate in Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program pending approval or denial of the patient's application; or (2) a completed application for terminal illness.

(t) "Qualifying patient" means a person who has been diagnosed by a certifying health care professional physician as having a debilitating medical condition.

(u) "Registered" means licensed, permitted, or otherwise certified by the Department of Agriculture, Department of Public Health, or Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(v) "Registry identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Public Health that identifies a person as a registered qualifying patient or registered designated caregiver.

(w) "Usable cannabis" means the seeds, leaves, buds, and flowers of the cannabis plant and any mixture or preparation thereof, but does not include the stalks, and roots of the plant. It does not include the weight of any non-cannabis ingredients combined with cannabis, such as ingredients added to prepare a topical administration, food, or drink.

(x) "Verification system" means a Web-based system established and maintained by the Department of Public Health that is available to the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, law enforcement personnel, and registered medical cannabis dispensing organization agents on a 24-hour basis for the verification of registry identification cards, the tracking of delivery of medical cannabis to medical cannabis dispensing organizations, and the tracking of the date of sale, amount, and price of medical cannabis purchased by a registered qualifying patient.

(y) "Written certification" means a document dated and signed by a certifying health care professional physician, stating (1) that the qualifying patient has a debilitating medical condition and specifying the debilitating medical condition the qualifying patient has; and (2) that (A) the certifying health care professional physician is treating or managing treatment of the patient's debilitating medical condition; or (B) an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant has a medical condition for which opioids have been or could be prescribed. A written certification shall be made only in the course of a bona fide health care professional-patient physician-patient relationship, after the certifying health care professional physician has completed an assessment of either a qualifying patient's medical history or Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant, reviewed relevant records related to the patient's debilitating condition, and conducted a physical examination.

(z) "Bona fide health care professional-patient physician-patient relationship" means a relationship established at a hospital, certifying health care professional's physician's office, or other health care facility in which the certifying health care professional physician has an ongoing responsibility for the assessment, care, and treatment of a patient's debilitating medical condition or a symptom of the patient's debilitating medical condition.

A veteran who has received treatment at a VA hospital shall be deemed to have a bona fide health care professional-patient physician-patient relationship with a VA certifying health care professional physician if the patient has been seen for his or her debilitating medical condition at the VA Hospital in accordance with VA Hospital protocols.

A bona fide health care professional-patient physician-patient relationship under this subsection is a privileged communication within the meaning of Section 8-802 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 99-519, eff. 6-30-16; 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18.)

(410 ILCS 130/25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 25. Immunities and presumptions related to the medical use of cannabis.

(a) A registered qualifying patient is not subject to arrest, prosecution, or denial of any right or privilege, including but not limited to civil penalty or disciplinary action by an occupational or professional licensing board, for the medical use of cannabis in accordance with this Act, if the registered qualifying patient possesses an amount of cannabis that does not exceed an adequate supply as defined in subsection (a) of Section 10 of this Act of usable cannabis and, where the registered qualifying patient is a licensed professional, the use of cannabis does not impair that licensed professional when he or she is engaged in the practice of the profession for which he or she is licensed.

(b) A registered designated caregiver is not subject to arrest, prosecution, or denial of any right or privilege, including but not limited to civil penalty or disciplinary action by an occupational or professional licensing board, for acting in accordance with this Act to assist a registered qualifying patient to whom he or she is connected through the Department's registration process with the medical use of cannabis if the designated caregiver possesses an amount of cannabis that does not exceed an adequate supply as defined in subsection (a) of Section 10 of this Act of usable cannabis. The total amount possessed between the qualifying patient and caregiver shall not exceed the patient's adequate supply as defined in subsection (a) of Section 10 of this Act.

(c) A registered qualifying patient or registered designated caregiver is not subject to arrest, prosecution, or denial of any right or privilege, including but not limited to civil penalty or disciplinary action by an occupational or professional licensing board for possession of cannabis that is incidental to medical use, but is not usable cannabis as defined in this Act.

(d)(1) There is a rebuttable presumption that a registered qualifying patient is engaged in, or a designated caregiver is assisting with, the medical use of cannabis in accordance with this Act if the qualifying patient or designated caregiver:

(A) is in possession of a valid registry identification card; and

(B) is in possession of an amount of cannabis that does not exceed the amount allowed under subsection (a) of Section 10.

(2) The presumption may be rebutted by evidence that conduct related to cannabis was not for the purpose of treating or alleviating the qualifying patient's debilitating medical condition or symptoms associated with the debilitating medical condition in compliance with this Act.

(e) A certifying health care professional physician is not subject to arrest, prosecution, or penalty in any manner, or denied any right or privilege, including but not limited to civil penalty or disciplinary action by the Medical Disciplinary Board or by any other occupational or professional licensing board, solely for providing written certifications or for otherwise stating that, in the certifying health care professional's physician's professional opinion, a patient is likely to receive therapeutic or palliative benefit from the medical use of cannabis to treat or alleviate the patient's debilitating medical condition or symptoms associated with the debilitating medical condition, provided that nothing shall prevent a professional licensing or disciplinary board from sanctioning a certifying health care professional physician for: (1) issuing a written certification to a patient who is not under the certifying health care professional's physician's care for a debilitating medical condition; or (2) failing to properly evaluate a patient's medical condition or otherwise violating the standard of care for evaluating medical conditions.

(f) No person may be subject to arrest, prosecution, or denial of any right or privilege, including but not limited to civil penalty or disciplinary action by an occupational or professional licensing board, solely for: (1) selling cannabis paraphernalia to a cardholder upon presentation of an unexpired registry identification card in the recipient's name, if employed and registered as a dispensing agent by a registered dispensing organization; (2) being in the presence or vicinity of the medical use of cannabis as allowed under this Act; or (3) assisting a registered qualifying patient with the act of administering cannabis.

(g) A registered cultivation center is not subject to prosecution; search or inspection, except by the Department of Agriculture, Department of Public Health, or State or local law enforcement under Section 130; seizure; or penalty in any manner, or be denied any right or privilege, including but not limited to civil penalty or disciplinary action by a business licensing board or entity, for acting under this Act and Department of Agriculture rules to: acquire, possess, cultivate, manufacture, deliver, transfer, transport, supply, or sell cannabis to registered dispensing organizations.

(h) A registered cultivation center agent is not subject to prosecution, search, or penalty in any manner, or be denied any right or privilege, including but not limited to civil penalty or disciplinary action by a business licensing board or entity, for working or volunteering for a registered cannabis cultivation center under this Act and Department of Agriculture rules, including to perform the actions listed under subsection (g).

(i) A registered dispensing organization is not subject to prosecution; search or inspection, except by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or State or local law enforcement pursuant to Section 130; seizure; or penalty in any manner, or be denied any right or privilege, including but not limited to civil penalty or disciplinary action by a business licensing board or entity, for acting under this Act and Department of Financial and Professional Regulation rules to: acquire, possess, or dispense cannabis, or related supplies, and educational materials to registered qualifying patients or registered designated caregivers on behalf of registered qualifying patients.

(j) A registered dispensing organization agent is not subject to prosecution, search, or penalty in any manner, or be denied any right or privilege, including but not limited to civil penalty or disciplinary action by a business licensing board or entity, for working or volunteering for a dispensing organization under this Act and Department of Financial and Professional Regulation rules, including to perform the actions listed under subsection (i).

(k) Any cannabis, cannabis paraphernalia, illegal property, or interest in legal property that is possessed, owned, or used in connection with the medical use of cannabis as allowed under this Act, or acts incidental to that use, may not be seized or forfeited. This Act does not prevent the seizure or forfeiture of cannabis exceeding the amounts allowed under this Act, nor shall it prevent seizure or forfeiture if the basis for the action is unrelated to the cannabis that is possessed, manufactured, transferred, or used under this Act.

(l) Mere possession of, or application for, a registry identification card or registration certificate does not constitute probable cause or reasonable suspicion, nor shall it be used as the sole basis to support the search of the person, property, or home of the person possessing or applying for the registry identification card. The possession of, or application for, a registry identification card does not preclude the existence of probable cause if probable cause exists on other grounds.

(m) Nothing in this Act shall preclude local or State law enforcement agencies from searching a registered cultivation center where there is probable cause to believe that the criminal laws of this State have been violated and the search is conducted in conformity with the Illinois Constitution, the Constitution of the United States, and all State statutes.

(n) Nothing in this Act shall preclude local or state law enforcement agencies from searching a registered dispensing organization where there is probable cause to believe that the criminal laws of this State have been violated and the search is conducted in conformity with the Illinois Constitution, the Constitution of the United States, and all State statutes.

(o) No individual employed by the State of Illinois shall be subject to criminal or civil penalties for taking any action in accordance with the provisions of this Act, when the actions are within the scope of his or her employment. Representation and indemnification of State employees shall be provided to State employees as set forth in Section 2 of the State Employee Indemnification Act.

(p) No law enforcement or correctional agency, nor any individual employed by a law enforcement or correctional agency, shall be subject to criminal or civil liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct, as a result of taking any action within the scope of the official duties of the agency or individual to prohibit or prevent the possession or use of cannabis by a cardholder incarcerated at a correctional facility, jail, or municipal lockup facility, on parole or mandatory supervised release, or otherwise under the lawful jurisdiction of the agency or individual.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 99-96, eff. 7-22-15.)

(410 ILCS 130/30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 30. Limitations and penalties.

(a) This Act does not permit any person to engage in, and does not prevent the imposition of any civil, criminal, or other penalties for engaging in, the following conduct:

(1) Undertaking any task under the influence of cannabis, when doing so would constitute negligence, professional malpractice, or professional misconduct;

(2) Possessing cannabis:

(A) except as provided under Section 22-33 of the School Code, in a school bus;

(B) except as provided under Section 22-33 of the School Code, on the grounds of any preschool or primary or secondary school;

(C) in any correctional facility;

(D) in a vehicle under Section 11-502.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(E) in a vehicle not open to the public unless the medical cannabis is in a reasonably secured, sealed, tamper-evident container and reasonably inaccessible while the vehicle is moving; or

(F) in a private residence that is used at any time to provide licensed child care or other similar social service care on the premises;

(3) Using cannabis:

(A) except as provided under Section 22-33 of the School Code, in a school bus;

(B) except as provided under Section 22-33 of the School Code, on the grounds of any preschool or primary or secondary school;

(C) in any correctional facility;

(D) in any motor vehicle;

(E) in a private residence that is used at any time to provide licensed child care or other similar social service care on the premises;

(F) except as provided under Section 22-33 of the School Code, in any public place. "Public place" as used in this subsection means any place where an individual could reasonably be expected to be observed by others. A "public place" includes all parts of buildings owned in whole or in part, or leased, by the State or a local unit of government. A "public place" does not include a private residence unless the private residence is used to provide licensed child care, foster care, or other similar social service care on the premises. For purposes of this subsection, a "public place" does not include a health care facility. For purposes of this Section, a "health care facility" includes, but is not limited to, hospitals, nursing homes, hospice care centers, and long-term care facilities;

(G) except as provided under Section 22-33 of the School Code, knowingly in close physical proximity to anyone under the age of 18 years of age;

(4) Smoking medical cannabis in any public place where an individual could reasonably be expected to be observed by others, in a health care facility, or any other place where smoking is prohibited under the Smoke Free Illinois Act;

(5) Operating, navigating, or being in actual physical control of any motor vehicle, aircraft, or motorboat while using or under the influence of cannabis in violation of Sections 11-501 and 11-502.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(6) Using or possessing cannabis if that person does not have a debilitating medical condition and is not a registered qualifying patient or caregiver;

(7) Allowing any person who is not allowed to use cannabis under this Act to use cannabis that a cardholder is allowed to possess under this Act;

(8) Transferring cannabis to any person contrary to the provisions of this Act;

(9) The use of medical cannabis by an active duty law enforcement officer, correctional officer, correctional probation officer, or firefighter; or

(10) The use of medical cannabis by a person who has a school bus permit or a Commercial Driver's License.

(b) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prevent the arrest or prosecution of a registered qualifying patient for reckless driving or driving under the influence of cannabis where probable cause exists.

(c) Notwithstanding any other criminal penalties related to the unlawful possession of cannabis, knowingly making a misrepresentation to a law enforcement official of any fact or circumstance relating to the medical use of cannabis to avoid arrest or prosecution is a petty offense punishable by a fine of up to $1,000, which shall be in addition to any other penalties that may apply for making a false statement or for the use of cannabis other than use undertaken under this Act.

(d) Notwithstanding any other criminal penalties related to the unlawful possession of cannabis, any person who makes a misrepresentation of a medical condition to a certifying health care professional physician or fraudulently provides material misinformation to a certifying health care professional physician in order to obtain a written certification is guilty of a petty offense punishable by a fine of up to $1,000.

(e) Any cardholder or registered caregiver who sells cannabis shall have his or her registry identification card revoked and is subject to other penalties for the unauthorized sale of cannabis.

(f) Any registered qualifying patient who commits a violation of Section 11-502.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or refuses a properly requested test related to operating a motor vehicle while under the influence of cannabis shall have his or her registry identification card revoked.

(g) No registered qualifying patient or designated caregiver shall knowingly obtain, seek to obtain, or possess, individually or collectively, an amount of usable cannabis from a registered medical cannabis dispensing organization that would cause him or her to exceed the authorized adequate supply under subsection (a) of Section 10.

(h) Nothing in this Act shall prevent a private business from restricting or prohibiting the medical use of cannabis on its property.

(i) Nothing in this Act shall prevent a university, college, or other institution of post-secondary education from restricting or prohibiting the use of medical cannabis on its property.

(Source: P.A. 100-660, eff. 8-1-18.)

(410 ILCS 130/35)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 35. Certifying health care professional Physician requirements.

(a) A certifying health care professional physician who certifies a debilitating medical condition for a qualifying patient shall comply with all of the following requirements:

(1) The certifying health care professional Physician shall be currently licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all its branches, the Nurse Practice Act, or the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, shall be and in good standing, and must hold a controlled substances license under Article III of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(2) A certifying health care professional physician certifying a patient's condition shall comply with generally accepted standards of medical practice, the provisions of the Medical Practice Act under which he or she is licensed of 1987 and all applicable rules.

(3) The physical examination required by this Act may not be performed by remote means, including telemedicine.

(4) The certifying health care professional physician shall maintain a record-keeping system for all patients for whom the certifying health care professional physician has certified the patient's medical condition. These records shall be accessible to and subject to review by the Department of Public Health and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation upon request.

(b) A certifying health care professional physician may not:

(1) accept, solicit, or offer any form of remuneration from or to a qualifying patient, primary caregiver, cultivation center, or dispensing organization, including each principal officer, board member, agent, and employee, to certify a patient, other than accepting payment from a patient for the fee associated with the required examination, except for the limited purpose of performing a medical cannabis-related research study;

(1.5) accept, solicit, or offer any form of remuneration from or to a medical cannabis cultivation center or dispensary organization for the purposes of referring a patient to a specific dispensary organization;

(1.10) engage in any activity that is prohibited under Section 22.2 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, regardless of whether the certifying health care professional is a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant;

(2) offer a discount of any other item of value to a qualifying patient who uses or agrees to use a particular primary caregiver or dispensing organization to obtain medical cannabis;

(3) conduct a personal physical examination of a patient for purposes of diagnosing a debilitating medical condition at a location where medical cannabis is sold or distributed or at the address of a principal officer, agent, or employee or a medical cannabis organization;

(4) hold a direct or indirect economic interest in a cultivation center or dispensing organization if he or she recommends the use of medical cannabis to qualified patients or is in a partnership or other fee or profit-sharing relationship with a certifying health care professional physician who recommends medical cannabis, except for the limited purpose of performing a medical cannabis related research study;

(5) serve on the board of directors or as an employee of a cultivation center or dispensing organization;

(6) refer patients to a cultivation center, a dispensing organization, or a registered designated caregiver; or

(7) advertise in a cultivation center or a dispensing organization.

(c) The Department of Public Health may with reasonable cause refer a certifying health care professional physician, who has certified a debilitating medical condition of a patient, to the Illinois Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for potential violations of this Section.

(d) Any violation of this Section or any other provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act is a violation of the certifying health care professional's licensure act Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(e) A certifying health care professional physician who certifies a debilitating medical condition for a qualifying patient may notify the Department of Public Health in writing: (1) if the certifying health care professional physician has reason to believe either that the registered qualifying patient has ceased to suffer from a debilitating medical condition; (2) that the bona fide health care professional-patient physician-patient relationship has terminated; or (3) that continued use of medical cannabis would result in contraindication with the patient's other medication. The registered qualifying patient's registry identification card shall be revoked by the Department of Public Health after receiving the certifying health care professional's physician's notification.

(f) Nothing in this Act shall preclude a certifying health care professional from referring a patient for health services, except when the referral is limited to certification purposes only, under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-519, eff. 6-30-16; 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18.)

(410 ILCS 130/36)

Sec. 36. Written certification.

(a) A certification confirming a patient's debilitating medical condition shall be written on a form provided by the Department of Public Health and shall include, at a minimum, the following:

(1) the qualifying patient's name, date of birth, home address, and primary telephone number;

(2) the certifying health care professional's physician's name, address, telephone number, email address, and medical, advance practice registered nurse, or physician assistant license number, and the last 4 digits, only, of his or her active controlled substances license under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and indication of specialty or primary area of clinical practice, if any;

(3) the qualifying patient's debilitating medical condition;

(4) a statement that the certifying health care professional physician has confirmed a diagnosis of a debilitating condition; is treating or managing treatment of the patient's debilitating condition; has a bona fide health care professional-patient physician-patient relationship; has conducted an in-person physical examination; and has conducted a review of the patient's medical history, including reviewing medical records from other treating health care professionals physicians, if any, from the previous 12 months;

(5) the certifying health care professional's physician's signature and date of certification; and

(6) a statement that a participant in possession of a written certification indicating a debilitating medical condition shall not be considered an unlawful user or addicted to narcotics solely as a result of his or her pending application to or participation in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program.

(b) A written certification does not constitute a prescription for medical cannabis.

(c) Applications for qualifying patients under 18 years old shall require a written certification from a certifying health care professional physician and a reviewing certifying health care professional physician.

(d) A certification confirming the patient's eligibility to participate in the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program shall be written on a form provided by the Department of Public Health and shall include, at a minimum, the following:

(1) the participant's name, date of birth, home address, and primary telephone number;

(2) the certifying health care professional's physician's name, address, telephone number, email address, and medical, advance practice registered nurse, or physician assistant license number, and the last 4 digits, only, of his or her active controlled substances license under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and indication of specialty or primary area of clinical practice, if any;

(3) the certifying health care professional's physician's signature and date;

(4) the length of participation in the program, which shall be limited to no more than 90 days;

(5) a statement identifying the patient has been diagnosed with and is currently undergoing treatment for a medical condition where an opioid has been or could be prescribed; and

(6) a statement that a participant in possession of a written certification indicating eligibility to participate in the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program shall not be considered an unlawful user or addicted to narcotics solely as a result of his or her eligibility or participation in the program.

(e) The Department of Public Health may provide a single certification form for subsections (a) and (d) of this Section, provided that all requirements of those subsections are included on the form.

(f) The Department of Public Health shall not include the word "cannabis" on any application forms or written certification forms that it issues under this Section.

(g) A written certification does not constitute a prescription.

(h) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly submit a fraudulent certification to be a qualifying patient in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program or an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant. A violation of this subsection shall result in the person who has knowingly submitted the fraudulent certification being permanently banned from participating in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program or the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program.

(Source: P.A. 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18.)

(410 ILCS 130/40)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 40. Discrimination prohibited.

(a)(1) No school, employer, or landlord may refuse to enroll or lease to, or otherwise penalize, a person solely for his or her status as a registered qualifying patient or a registered designated caregiver, unless failing to do so would put the school, employer, or landlord in violation of federal law or unless failing to do so would cause it to lose a monetary or licensing-related benefit under federal law or rules. This does not prevent a landlord from prohibiting the smoking of cannabis on the premises.

(2) For the purposes of medical care, including organ transplants, a registered qualifying patient's authorized use of cannabis in accordance with this Act is considered the equivalent of the authorized use of any other medication used at the direction of a certifying health care professional physician, and may not constitute the use of an illicit substance or otherwise disqualify a qualifying patient from needed medical care.

(b) A person otherwise entitled to custody of or visitation or parenting time with a minor may not be denied that right, and there is no presumption of neglect or child endangerment, for conduct allowed under this Act, unless the person's actions in relation to cannabis were such that they created an unreasonable danger to the safety of the minor as established by clear and convincing evidence.

(c) No school, landlord, or employer may be penalized or denied any benefit under State law for enrolling, leasing to, or employing a cardholder.

(d) Nothing in this Act may be construed to require a government medical assistance program, employer, property and casualty insurer, or private health insurer to reimburse a person for costs associated with the medical use of cannabis.

(e) Nothing in this Act may be construed to require any person or establishment in lawful possession of property to allow a guest, client, customer, or visitor who is a registered qualifying patient to use cannabis on or in that property.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 99-31, eff. 1-1-16.)

(410 ILCS 130/45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 45. Addition of debilitating medical conditions.

(a) Any resident may petition the Department of Public Health to add debilitating conditions or treatments to the list of debilitating medical conditions listed in subsection (h) of Section 10. The Department shall approve or deny a petition within 180 days of its submission, and, upon approval, shall proceed to add that condition by rule in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The approval or denial of any petition is a final decision of the Department, subject to judicial review. Jurisdiction and venue are vested in the Circuit Court.

(b) The Department shall accept petitions once annually for a one-month period determined by the Department. During the open period, the Department shall accept petitions from any resident requesting the addition of a new debilitating medical condition or disease to the list of approved debilitating medical conditions for which the use of cannabis has been shown to have a therapeutic or palliative effect. The Department shall provide public notice 30 days before the open period for accepting petitions, which shall describe the time period for submission, the required format of the submission, and the submission address.

(c) Each petition shall be limited to one proposed debilitating medical condition or disease.

(d) A petitioner shall file one original petition in the format provided by the Department and in the manner specified by the Department. For a petition to be processed and reviewed, the following information shall be included:

(1) The petition, prepared on forms provided by the Department, in the manner specified by the Department.

(2) A specific description of the medical condition or disease that is the subject of the petition. Each petition shall be limited to a single condition or disease. Information about the proposed condition or disease shall include:

(A) the extent to which the condition or disease itself or the treatments cause severe suffering, such as severe or chronic pain, severe nausea or vomiting, or otherwise severely impair a person's ability to conduct activities of daily living;

(B) information about why conventional medical therapies are not sufficient to alleviate the suffering caused by the disease or condition and its treatment;

(C) the proposed benefits from the medical use of cannabis specific to the medical condition or disease;

(D) evidence from the medical community and other experts supporting the use of medical cannabis to alleviate suffering caused by the condition, disease, or treatment;

(E) letters of support from physicians or other licensed health care providers knowledgeable about the condition or disease, including, if feasible, a letter from a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant with whom the petitioner has a bona fide health care professional-patient physician-patient relationship;

(F) any additional medical, testimonial, or scientific documentation; and

(G) an electronic copy of all materials submitted.

(3) Upon receipt of a petition, the Department shall:

(A) determine whether the petition meets the standards for submission and, if so, shall accept the petition for further review; or

(B) determine whether the petition does not meet the standards for submission and, if so, shall deny the petition without further review.

(4) If the petition does not fulfill the standards for submission, the petition shall be considered deficient. The Department shall notify the petitioner, who may correct any deficiencies and resubmit the petition during the next open period.

(e) The petitioner may withdraw his or her petition by submitting a written statement to the Department indicating withdrawal.

(f) Upon review of accepted petitions, the Director shall render a final decision regarding the acceptance or denial of the proposed debilitating medical conditions or diseases.

(g) The Department shall convene a Medical Cannabis Advisory Board (Advisory Board) composed of 16 members, which shall include:

(1) one medical cannabis patient advocate or designated caregiver;

(2) one parent or designated caregiver of a person under the age of 18 who is a qualified medical cannabis patient;

(3) two registered nurses or nurse practitioners;

(4) three registered qualifying patients, including one veteran; and

(5) nine health care practitioners with current professional licensure in their field. The Advisory Board shall be composed of health care practitioners representing the following areas:

(A) neurology;

(B) pain management;

(C) medical oncology;

(D) psychiatry or mental health;

(E) infectious disease;

(F) family medicine;

(G) general primary care;

(H) medical ethics;

(I) pharmacy;

(J) pediatrics; or

(K) psychiatry or mental health for children or adolescents.

At least one appointed health care practitioner shall have direct experience related to the health care needs of veterans and at least one individual shall have pediatric experience.

(h) Members of the Advisory Board shall be appointed by the Governor.

(1) Members shall serve a term of 4 years or until a successor is appointed and qualified. If a vacancy occurs, the Governor shall appoint a replacement to complete the original term created by the vacancy.

(2) The Governor shall select a chairperson.

(3) Members may serve multiple terms.

(4) Members shall not have an affiliation with, serve on the board of, or have a business relationship with a registered cultivation center or a registered medical cannabis dispensary.

(5) Members shall disclose any real or apparent conflicts of interest that may have a direct bearing of the subject matter, such as relationships with pharmaceutical companies, biomedical device manufacturers, or corporations whose products or services are related to the medical condition or disease to be reviewed.

(6) Members shall not be paid but shall be reimbursed for travel expenses incurred while fulfilling the responsibilities of the Advisory Board.

(i) On June 30, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-519), the terms of office of the members of the Advisory Board serving on that date shall terminate and the Board shall be reconstituted.

(j) The Advisory Board shall convene at the call of the Chair:

(1) to examine debilitating conditions or diseases that would benefit from the medical use of cannabis; and

(2) to review new medical and scientific evidence pertaining to currently approved conditions.

(k) The Advisory Board shall issue an annual report of its activities each year.

(l) The Advisory Board shall receive administrative support from the Department.

(Source: P.A. 99-519, eff. 6-30-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17.)

(410 ILCS 130/55)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 55. Registration of qualifying patients and designated caregivers.

(a) The Department of Public Health shall issue registry identification cards to qualifying patients and designated caregivers who submit a completed application, and at minimum, the following, in accordance with Department of Public Health rules:

(1) A written certification, on a form developed by the Department of Public Health consistent with Section 36 and issued by a certifying health care professional physician, within 90 days immediately preceding the date of an application and submitted by the qualifying patient or his or her designated caregiver;

(2) upon the execution of applicable privacy waivers, the patient's medical documentation related to his or her debilitating condition and any other information that may be reasonably required by the Department of Public Health to confirm that the certifying health care professional physician and patient have a bona fide health care professional-patient physician-patient relationship, that the qualifying patient is in the certifying health care professional's physician's care for his or her debilitating medical condition, and to substantiate the patient's diagnosis;

(3) the application or renewal fee as set by rule;

(4) the name, address, date of birth, and social security number of the qualifying patient, except that if the applicant is homeless no address is required;

(5) the name, address, and telephone number of the qualifying patient's certifying health care professional physician;

(6) the name, address, and date of birth of the designated caregiver, if any, chosen by the qualifying patient;

(7) the name of the registered medical cannabis dispensing organization the qualifying patient designates;

(8) signed statements from the patient and designated caregiver asserting that they will not divert medical cannabis; and

(9) (blank).

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, a person provided a written certification for a debilitating medical condition who has submitted a completed online application to the Department of Public Health shall receive a provisional registration and be entitled to purchase medical cannabis from a specified licensed dispensing organization for a period of 90 days or until his or her application has been denied or he or she receives a registry identification card, whichever is earlier. However, a person may obtain an additional provisional registration after the expiration of 90 days after the date of application if the Department of Public Health does not provide the individual with a registry identification card or deny the individual's application within those 90 days.

The provisional registration may not be extended if the individual does not respond to the Department of Public Health's request for additional information or corrections to required application documentation.

In order for a person to receive medical cannabis under this subsection, a person must present his or her provisional registration along with a valid driver's license or State identification card to the licensed dispensing organization specified in his or her application. The dispensing organization shall verify the person's provisional registration through the Department of Public Health's online verification system.

Upon verification of the provided documents, the dispensing organization shall dispense no more than 2.5 ounces of medical cannabis during a 14-day period to the person for a period of 90 days, until his or her application has been denied, or until he or she receives a registry identification card from the Department of Public Health, whichever is earlier.

Persons with provisional registrations must keep their provisional registration in his or her possession at all times when transporting or engaging in the medical use of cannabis.

(c) No person or business shall charge a fee for assistance in the preparation, compilation, or submission of an application to the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program or the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program. A violation of this subsection is a Class C misdemeanor, for which restitution to the applicant and a fine of up to $1,500 may be imposed. All fines shall be deposited into the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Fund after restitution has been made to the applicant. The Department of Public Health shall refer individuals making complaints against a person or business under this Section to the Illinois State Police, who shall enforce violations of this provision. All application forms issued by the Department shall state that no person or business may charge a fee for assistance in the preparation, compilation, or submission of an application to the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program or the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program.

(Source: P.A. 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18.)

(410 ILCS 130/57)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 57. Qualifying patients under 18.

(a) Qualifying patients that are under the age of 18 years shall not be prohibited from appointing up to 3 having 2 designated caregivers as follows: if both biological parents or 2 legal guardians of a qualifying patient under 18 both have significant decision-making responsibilities over the qualifying patient, then both may serve as a designated caregiver if they otherwise meet the definition of "designated caregiver" under Section 10; however, if only one biological parent or legal guardian has significant decision-making responsibilities for the qualifying patient under 18, then he or she may appoint a second designated caregivers caregiver who meet meets the definition of "designated caregiver" under Section 10 so long as at least one designated caregiver is a biological parent or legal guardian.

(b) Qualifying patients that are 18 years of age or older shall not be prohibited from appointing up to 3 designated caregivers who meet the definition of "designated caregiver" under Section 10.

(Source: P.A. 99-519, eff. 6-30-16.)

(410 ILCS 130/60)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 60. Issuance of registry identification cards.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), the Department of Public Health shall:

(1) verify the information contained in an application or renewal for a registry identification card submitted under this Act, and approve or deny an application or renewal, within 90 days of receiving a completed application or renewal application and all supporting documentation specified in Section 55;

(2) issue registry identification cards to a qualifying patient and his or her designated caregiver, if any, within 15 business days of approving the application or renewal;

(3) enter the registry identification number of the registered dispensing organization the patient designates into the verification system; and

(4) allow for an electronic application process, and provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that an application has been submitted.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, the Department of Public Health shall adopt rules for qualifying patients and applicants with life-long debilitating medical conditions, who may be charged annual renewal fees. The Department of Public Health shall not require patients and applicants with life-long debilitating medical conditions to apply to renew registry identification cards.

(b) The Department of Public Health may not issue a registry identification card to a qualifying patient who is under 18 years of age, unless that patient suffers from seizures, including those characteristic of epilepsy, or as provided by administrative rule. The Department of Public Health shall adopt rules for the issuance of a registry identification card for qualifying patients who are under 18 years of age and suffering from seizures, including those characteristic of epilepsy. The Department of Public Health may adopt rules to allow other individuals under 18 years of age to become registered qualifying patients under this Act with the consent of a parent or legal guardian. Registered qualifying patients under 21 18 years of age shall be prohibited from consuming forms of cannabis other than medical cannabis infused products and purchasing any usable cannabis or paraphernalia used for smoking or vaping medical cannabis.

(c) A veteran who has received treatment at a VA hospital is deemed to have a bona fide health care professional-patient physician-patient relationship with a VA certifying health care professional physician if the patient has been seen for his or her debilitating medical condition at the VA hospital in accordance with VA hospital protocols. All reasonable inferences regarding the existence of a bona fide health care professional-patient physician-patient relationship shall be drawn in favor of an applicant who is a veteran and has undergone treatment at a VA hospital.

(c-10) An individual who submits an application as someone who is terminally ill shall have all fees waived. The Department of Public Health shall within 30 days after this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly adopt emergency rules to expedite approval for terminally ill individuals. These rules shall include, but not be limited to, rules that provide that applications by individuals with terminal illnesses shall be approved or denied within 14 days of their submission.

(d) Upon the approval of the registration and issuance of a registry card under this Section, the Department of Public Health shall forward the designated caregiver or registered qualified patient's driver's registration number to the Secretary of State and certify that the individual is permitted to engage in the medical use of cannabis. For the purposes of law enforcement, the Secretary of State shall make a notation on the person's driving record stating the person is a registered qualifying patient who is entitled to the lawful medical use of cannabis. If the person no longer holds a valid registry card, the Department shall notify the Secretary of State and the Secretary of State shall remove the notation from the person's driving record. The Department and the Secretary of State may establish a system by which the information may be shared electronically.

(e) Upon the approval of the registration and issuance of a registry card under this Section, the Department of Public Health shall electronically forward the registered qualifying patient's identification card information to the Prescription Monitoring Program established under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and certify that the individual is permitted to engage in the medical use of cannabis. For the purposes of patient care, the Prescription Monitoring Program shall make a notation on the person's prescription record stating that the person is a registered qualifying patient who is entitled to the lawful medical use of cannabis. If the person no longer holds a valid registry card, the Department of Public Health shall notify the Prescription Monitoring Program and Department of Human Services to remove the notation from the person's record. The Department of Human Services and the Prescription Monitoring Program shall establish a system by which the information may be shared electronically. This confidential list may not be combined or linked in any manner with any other list or database except as provided in this Section.

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 99-519, eff. 6-30-16; 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18.)

(410 ILCS 130/62)

Sec. 62. Opioid Alternative Pilot Program.

(a) The Department of Public Health shall establish the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program. Licensed dispensing organizations shall allow persons with a written certification from a certifying health care professional licensed physician under Section 36 to purchase medical cannabis upon enrollment in the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program. The Department of Public Health shall adopt rules or establish procedures allowing qualified veterans to participate in the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program. For a person to receive medical cannabis under this Section, the person must present the written certification along with a valid driver's license or state identification card to the licensed dispensing organization specified in his or her application. The dispensing organization shall verify the person's status as an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant through the Department of Public Health's online verification system.

(b) The Opioid Alternative Pilot Program shall be limited to participation by Illinois residents age 21 and older.

(c) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall specify that all licensed dispensing organizations participating in the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program use the Illinois Cannabis Tracking System. The Department of Public Health shall establish and maintain the Illinois Cannabis Tracking System. The Illinois Cannabis Tracking System shall be used to collect information about all persons participating in the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program and shall be used to track the sale of medical cannabis for verification purposes.

Each dispensing organization shall retain a copy of the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program certification and other identifying information as required by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Public Health, and the Illinois State Police in the Illinois Cannabis Tracking System.

The Illinois Cannabis Tracking System shall be accessible to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, Department of Public Health, Department of Agriculture, and the Illinois State Police.

The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in collaboration with the Department of Public Health shall specify the data requirements for the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program by licensed dispensing organizations; including, but not limited to, the participant's full legal name, address, and date of birth, date on which the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program certification was issued, length of the participation in the Program, including the start and end date to purchase medical cannabis, name of the issuing physician, copy of the participant's current driver's license or State identification card, and phone number.

The Illinois Cannabis Tracking System shall provide verification of a person's participation in the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program for law enforcement at any time and on any day.

(d) The certification for Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant must be issued by a certifying health care professional who is physician licensed to practice in Illinois under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, or the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 and who is in good standing and who holds a controlled substances license under Article III of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

The certification for an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant shall be written within 90 days before the participant submits his or her certification to the dispensing organization.

The written certification uploaded to the Illinois Cannabis Tracking System shall be accessible to the Department of Public Health.

(e) Upon verification of the individual's valid certification and enrollment in the Illinois Cannabis Tracking System, the dispensing organization may dispense the medical cannabis, in amounts not exceeding 2.5 ounces of medical cannabis per 14-day period to the participant at the participant's specified dispensary for no more than 90 days.

An Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant shall not be registered as a medical cannabis cardholder. The dispensing organization shall verify that the person is not an active registered qualifying patient prior to enrollment in the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program and each time medical cannabis is dispensed.

Upon receipt of a written certification under the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program, the Department of Public Health shall electronically forward the patient's identification information to the Prescription Monitoring Program established under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and certify that the individual is permitted to engage in the medical use of cannabis. For the purposes of patient care, the Prescription Monitoring Program shall make a notation on the person's prescription record stating that the person has a written certification under the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program and is a patient who is entitled to the lawful medical use of cannabis. If the person is no longer authorized to engage in the medical use of cannabis, the Department of Public Health shall notify the Prescription Monitoring Program and Department of Human Services to remove the notation from the person's record. The Department of Human Services and the Prescription Monitoring Program shall establish a system by which the information may be shared electronically. This confidential list may not be combined or linked in any manner with any other list or database except as provided in this Section.

(f) An Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant shall not be considered a qualifying patient with a debilitating medical condition under this Act and shall be provided access to medical cannabis solely for the duration of the participant's certification. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit or prohibit an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant who has a debilitating medical condition from applying to the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program.

(g) A person with a provisional registration under Section 55 shall not be considered an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant.

(h) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and the Department of Public Health shall submit emergency rulemaking to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly by December 1, 2018. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Public Health, and the Illinois State Police shall utilize emergency purchase authority for 12 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly for the purpose of implementing the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(i) Dispensing organizations are not authorized to dispense medical cannabis to Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants until administrative rules are approved by the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules and go into effect.

(j) The provisions of this Section are inoperative on and after July 1, 2020.

(Source: P.A. 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18.)

(410 ILCS 130/75)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 75. Notifications to Department of Public Health and responses; civil penalty.

(a) The following notifications and Department of Public Health responses are required:

(1) A registered qualifying patient shall notify the Department of Public Health of any change in his or her name or address, or if the registered qualifying patient ceases to have his or her debilitating medical condition, within 10 days of the change.

(2) A registered designated caregiver shall notify the Department of Public Health of any change in his or her name or address, or if the designated caregiver becomes aware the registered qualifying patient passed away, within 10 days of the change.

(3) Before a registered qualifying patient changes his or her designated caregiver, the qualifying patient must notify the Department of Public Health.

(4) If a cardholder loses his or her registry identification card, he or she shall notify the Department within 10 days of becoming aware the card has been lost.

(b) When a cardholder notifies the Department of Public Health of items listed in subsection (a), but remains eligible under this Act, the Department of Public Health shall issue the cardholder a new registry identification card with a new random alphanumeric identification number within 15 business days of receiving the updated information and a fee as specified in Department of Public Health rules. If the person notifying the Department of Public Health is a registered qualifying patient, the Department shall also issue his or her registered designated caregiver, if any, a new registry identification card within 15 business days of receiving the updated information.

(c) If a registered qualifying patient ceases to be a registered qualifying patient or changes his or her registered designated caregiver, the Department of Public Health shall promptly notify the designated caregiver. The registered designated caregiver's protections under this Act as to that qualifying patient shall expire 15 days after notification by the Department.

(d) A cardholder who fails to make a notification to the Department of Public Health that is required by this Section is subject to a civil infraction, punishable by a penalty of no more than $150.

(e) A registered qualifying patient shall notify the Department of Public Health of any change to his or her designated registered dispensing organization. The Department of Public Health shall provide for immediate changes of a registered qualifying patient's designated registered dispensing organization. Registered dispensing organizations must comply with all requirements of this Act.

(f) If the registered qualifying patient's certifying certifying health care professional physician notifies the Department in writing that either the registered qualifying patient has ceased to suffer from a debilitating medical condition, that the bona fide health care professional-patient physician-patient relationship has terminated, or that continued use of medical cannabis would result in contraindication with the patient's other medication, the card shall become null and void. However, the registered qualifying patient shall have 15 days to destroy his or her remaining medical cannabis and related paraphernalia.

(Source: P.A. 99-519, eff. 6-30-16; 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18.)

(410 ILCS 130/105)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 105. Requirements; prohibitions; penalties for cultivation centers.

(a) The operating documents of a registered cultivation center shall include procedures for the oversight of the cultivation center, a cannabis plant monitoring system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, a cannabis container system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, accurate record keeping, and a staffing plan.

(b) A registered cultivation center shall implement a security plan reviewed by the State Police and including but not limited to: facility access controls, perimeter intrusion detection systems, personnel identification systems, 24-hour surveillance system to monitor the interior and exterior of the registered cultivation center facility and accessible to authorized law enforcement and the Department of Agriculture in real-time.

(c) A registered cultivation center may not be located within 2,500 feet of the property line of a pre-existing public or private preschool or elementary or secondary school or day care center, day care home, group day care home, part day child care facility, or an area zoned for residential use.

(d) All cultivation of cannabis for distribution to a registered dispensing organization must take place in an enclosed, locked facility as it applies to cultivation centers at the physical address provided to the Department of Agriculture during the registration process. The cultivation center location shall only be accessed by the cultivation center agents working for the registered cultivation center, Department of Agriculture staff performing inspections, Department of Public Health staff performing inspections, law enforcement or other emergency personnel, and contractors working on jobs unrelated to medical cannabis, such as installing or maintaining security devices or performing electrical wiring.

(e) A cultivation center may not sell or distribute any cannabis to any individual or entity other than another cultivation center, a dispensing organization registered under this Act, or a laboratory licensed by the Department of Agriculture a dispensary organization registered under this Act.

(f) All harvested cannabis intended for distribution to a dispensing organization must be packaged in a labeled medical cannabis container and entered into a data collection system.

(g) No person who has been convicted of an excluded offense may be a cultivation center agent.

(h) Registered cultivation centers are subject to random inspection by the State Police.

(i) Registered cultivation centers are subject to random inspections by the Department of Agriculture and the Department of Public Health.

(j) A cultivation center agent shall notify local law enforcement, the State Police, and the Department of Agriculture within 24 hours of the discovery of any loss or theft. Notification shall be made by phone or in-person, or by written or electronic communication.

(k) A cultivation center shall comply with all State and federal rules and regulations regarding the use of pesticides.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1172, eff. 1-12-15.)

(410 ILCS 130/115)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 115. Registration of dispensing organizations.

(a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may issue up to 60 dispensing organization registrations for operation. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may not issue less than the 60 registrations if there are qualified applicants who have applied with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The organizations shall be geographically dispersed throughout the State to allow all registered qualifying patients reasonable proximity and access to a dispensing organization.

(a-5) For any dispensing organization registered on or after July 1, 2019, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall award not less than 20% of all available points to applicants that qualify as Social Equity Applicants. For purposes of this Section:

"Disproportionately Impacted Area" means a census tract or comparable geographic area that satisfies the following criteria as determined by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, that:

(1) meets at least one of the following criteria:

(A) the area has a poverty rate of at least 20% according to the latest federal decennial census; or

(B) 75% or more of the children in the area participate in the federal free lunch program according to reported statistics from the State Board of Education; or

(C) at least 20% of the households in the area receive assistance under the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program; or

(D) the area has an average unemployment rate, as determined by the Illinois Department of Employment Security, that is more than 120% of the national unemployment average, as determined by the United States Department of Labor, for a period of at least 2 consecutive calendar years preceding the date of the application; and

(2) has high rates of arrest, conviction, and incarceration related to sale, possession, use, cultivation, manufacture, or transport of cannabis.

"Social Equity Applicant" means an applicant that is an Illinois resident that meets one of the following criteria:

(1) an applicant with at least 51% ownership and control by one or more individuals who have resided for at least 5 of the preceding 10 years in a Disproportionately Impacted Area;

(2) an applicant with at least 51% of ownership and control by one or more individuals who have been arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement or member of an impacted family;

(3) for applicants with a minimum of 10 full-time employees, an applicant with at least 51% of current employees who:

(A) currently reside in a Disproportionately Impacted Area; or

(B) have been arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement or member of an impacted family.

(b) A dispensing organization may only operate if it has been issued a registration from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall adopt rules establishing the procedures for applicants for dispensing organizations.

(c) When applying for a dispensing organization registration, the applicant shall submit, at a minimum, the following in accordance with Department of Financial and Professional Regulation rules:

(1) a non-refundable application fee established by rule;

(2) the proposed legal name of the dispensing organization;

(3) the proposed physical address of the dispensing organization;

(4) the name, address, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the dispensing organization, provided that all those individuals shall be at least 21 years of age;

(5) information, in writing, regarding any instances in which a business or not-for-profit that any of the prospective board members managed or served on the board was convicted, fined, censured, or had a registration suspended or revoked in any administrative or judicial proceeding;

(6) proposed operating by-laws that include procedures for the oversight of the medical cannabis dispensing organization and procedures to ensure accurate record keeping and security measures that are in accordance with the rules applied by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation under this Act. The by-laws shall include a description of the enclosed, locked facility where medical cannabis will be stored by the dispensing organization; and

(7) signed statements from each dispensing organization agent stating that they will not divert medical cannabis.

(d) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall conduct a background check of the prospective dispensing organization agents in order to carry out this Section. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. Each person applying as a dispensing organization agent shall submit a full set of fingerprints to the Department of State Police for the purpose of obtaining a State and federal criminal records check. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter, to the extent allowed by law, filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Department of State Police shall furnish, following positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(e) A dispensing organization must pay a registration fee set by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(f) An application for a medical cannabis dispensing organization registration must be denied if any of the following conditions are met:

(1) the applicant failed to submit the materials required by this Section, including if the applicant's plans do not satisfy the security, oversight, or recordkeeping rules issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation;

(2) the applicant would not be in compliance with local zoning rules issued in accordance with Section 140;

(3) the applicant does not meet the requirements of Section 130;

(4) one or more of the prospective principal officers or board members has been convicted of an excluded offense;

(5) one or more of the prospective principal officers or board members has served as a principal officer or board member for a registered medical cannabis dispensing organization that has had its registration revoked; and

(6) one or more of the principal officers or board members is under 21 years of age. ; and

(7) one or more of the principal officers or board members is a registered qualified patient or a registered caregiver.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1172, eff. 1-12-15.)

(410 ILCS 130/130)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 130. Requirements; prohibitions; penalties; dispensing organizations.

(a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall implement the provisions of this Section by rule.

(b) A dispensing organization shall maintain operating documents which shall include procedures for the oversight of the registered dispensing organization and procedures to ensure accurate recordkeeping.

(c) A dispensing organization shall implement appropriate security measures, as provided by rule, to deter and prevent the theft of cannabis and unauthorized entrance into areas containing cannabis.

(d) A dispensing organization may not be located within 1,000 feet of the property line of a pre-existing public or private preschool or elementary or secondary school or day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility. A registered dispensing organization may not be located in a house, apartment, condominium, or an area zoned for residential use. This subsection shall not apply to any dispensing organizations registered on or after July 1, 2019.

(e) A dispensing organization is prohibited from acquiring cannabis from anyone other than a registered cultivation center. A dispensing organization is prohibited from obtaining cannabis from outside the State of Illinois.

(f) A registered dispensing organization is prohibited from dispensing cannabis for any purpose except to assist registered qualifying patients with the medical use of cannabis directly or through the qualifying patients' designated caregivers.

(g) The area in a dispensing organization where medical cannabis is stored can only be accessed by dispensing organization agents working for the dispensing organization, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation staff performing inspections, law enforcement or other emergency personnel, and contractors working on jobs unrelated to medical cannabis, such as installing or maintaining security devices or performing electrical wiring.

(h) A dispensing organization may not dispense more than 2.5 ounces of cannabis to a registered qualifying patient, directly or via a designated caregiver, in any 14-day period unless the qualifying patient has a Department of Public Health-approved quantity waiver. Any Department of Public Health-approved quantity waiver process must be made available to qualified veterans.

(i) Except as provided in subsection (i-5), before medical cannabis may be dispensed to a designated caregiver or a registered qualifying patient, a dispensing organization agent must determine that the individual is a current cardholder in the verification system and must verify each of the following:

(1) that the registry identification card presented to the registered dispensing organization is valid;

(2) that the person presenting the card is the person identified on the registry identification card presented to the dispensing organization agent;

(3) that the dispensing organization is the designated dispensing organization for the registered qualifying patient who is obtaining the cannabis directly or via his or her designated caregiver; and

(4) that the registered qualifying patient has not exceeded his or her adequate supply.

(i-5) A dispensing organization may dispense medical cannabis to an Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participant under Section 62 and to a person presenting proof of provisional registration under Section 55. Before dispensing medical cannabis, the dispensing organization shall comply with the requirements of Section 62 or Section 55, whichever is applicable, and verify the following:

(1) that the written certification presented to the registered dispensing organization is valid and an original document;

(2) that the person presenting the written certification is the person identified on the written certification; and

(3) that the participant has not exceeded his or her adequate supply.

(j) Dispensing organizations shall ensure compliance with this limitation by maintaining internal, confidential records that include records specifying how much medical cannabis is dispensed to the registered qualifying patient and whether it was dispensed directly to the registered qualifying patient or to the designated caregiver. Each entry must include the date and time the cannabis was dispensed. Additional recordkeeping requirements may be set by rule.

(k) The health care professional-patient physician-patient privilege as set forth by Section 8-802 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall apply between a qualifying patient and a registered dispensing organization and its agents with respect to communications and records concerning qualifying patients' debilitating conditions.

(l) A dispensing organization may not permit any person to consume cannabis on the property of a medical cannabis organization.

(m) A dispensing organization may not share office space with or refer patients to a certifying health care professional physician.

(n) Notwithstanding any other criminal penalties related to the unlawful possession of cannabis, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may deem proper with regard to the registration of any person issued under this Act to operate a dispensing organization or act as a dispensing organization agent, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, for any violations of this Act and rules adopted in accordance with this Act. The procedures for disciplining a registered dispensing organization shall be determined by rule. All final administrative decisions of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation are subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law and its rules. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(o) Dispensing organizations are subject to random inspection and cannabis testing by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and State Police as provided by rule.

(p) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall adopt rules permitting returns, and potential refunds, for damaged or inadequate products.

(q) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may issue nondisciplinary citations for minor violations which may be accompanied by a civil penalty not to exceed $10,000 per violation. The penalty shall be a civil penalty or other condition as established by rule. The citation shall be issued to the licensee and shall contain the licensee's name, address, and license number, a brief factual statement, the Sections of the law or rule allegedly violated, and the civil penalty, if any, imposed. The citation must clearly state that the licensee may choose, in lieu of accepting the citation, to request a hearing. If the licensee does not dispute the matter in the citation with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation within 30 days after the citation is served, then the citation shall become final and shall not be subject to appeal.

(Source: P.A. 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18.)

(410 ILCS 130/145)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 145. Confidentiality.

(a) The following information received and records kept by the Department of Public Health, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, Department of Agriculture, or Department of State Police for purposes of administering this Act are subject to all applicable federal privacy laws, confidential, and exempt from the Freedom of Information Act, and not subject to disclosure to any individual or public or private entity, except as necessary for authorized employees of those authorized agencies to perform official duties under this Act and the following information received and records kept by Department of Public Health, Department of Agriculture, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and Department of State Police, excluding any existing or non-existing Illinois or national criminal history record information as defined in subsection (d), may be disclosed to each other upon request:

(1) Applications and renewals, their contents, and supporting information submitted by qualifying patients and designated caregivers, including information regarding their designated caregivers and certifying health care professionals physicians.

(2) Applications and renewals, their contents, and supporting information submitted by or on behalf of cultivation centers and dispensing organizations in compliance with this Act, including their physical addresses.

(3) The individual names and other information identifying persons to whom the Department of Public Health has issued registry identification cards.

(4) Any dispensing information required to be kept under Section 135, Section 150, or Department of Public Health, Department of Agriculture, or Department of Financial and Professional Regulation rules shall identify cardholders and registered cultivation centers by their registry identification numbers and medical cannabis dispensing organizations by their registration number and not contain names or other personally identifying information.

(5) All medical records provided to the Department of Public Health in connection with an application for a registry card.

(b) Nothing in this Section precludes the following:

(1) Department of Agriculture, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, or Public Health employees may notify law enforcement about falsified or fraudulent information submitted to the Departments if the employee who suspects that falsified or fraudulent information has been submitted conferred with his or her supervisor and both agree that circumstances exist that warrant reporting.

(2) If the employee conferred with his or her supervisor and both agree that circumstances exist that warrant reporting, Department of Public Health employees may notify the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation if there is reasonable cause to believe a certifying health care professional physician:

(A) issued a written certification without a bona fide health care professional-patient physician-patient relationship under this Act;

(B) issued a written certification to a person who was not under the certifying health care professional's physician's care for the debilitating medical condition; or

(C) failed to abide by the acceptable and prevailing standard of care when evaluating a patient's medical condition.

(3) The Department of Public Health, Department of Agriculture, and Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may notify State or local law enforcement about apparent criminal violations of this Act if the employee who suspects the offense has conferred with his or her supervisor and both agree that circumstances exist that warrant reporting.

(4) Medical cannabis cultivation center agents and medical cannabis dispensing organizations may notify the Department of Public Health, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, or Department of Agriculture of a suspected violation or attempted violation of this Act or the rules issued under it.

(5) Each Department may verify registry identification cards under Section 150.

(6) The submission of the report to the General Assembly under Section 160.

(c) It is a Class B misdemeanor with a $1,000 fine for any person, including an employee or official of the Department of Public Health, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, or Department of Agriculture or another State agency or local government, to breach the confidentiality of information obtained under this Act.

(d) The Department of Public Health, the Department of Agriculture, the Department of State Police, and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall not share or disclose any existing or non-existing Illinois or national criminal history record information. For the purposes of this Section, "any existing or non-existing Illinois or national criminal history record information" means any Illinois or national criminal history record information, including but not limited to the lack of or non-existence of these records.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1172, eff. 1-12-15.)

(410 ILCS 130/160)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 160. Annual reports. The Department of Public Health shall submit to the General Assembly a report, by September 30 of each year, that does not disclose any identifying information about registered qualifying patients, registered caregivers, or certifying health care professionals physicians, but does contain, at a minimum, all of the following information based on the fiscal year for reporting purposes:

(1) the number of applications and renewals filed for registry identification cards or registrations;

(2) the number of qualifying patients and designated caregivers served by each dispensary during the report year;

(3) the nature of the debilitating medical conditions of the qualifying patients;

(4) the number of registry identification cards or registrations revoked for misconduct;

(5) the number of certifying health care professionals physicians providing written certifications for qualifying patients; and

(6) the number of registered medical cannabis cultivation centers or registered dispensing organizations;

(7) the number of Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants.

(Source: P.A. 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18.)

(410 ILCS 130/173 new)

Sec. 173. Conflicts of law. To the extent that any provision of this Act conflicts with any Act that allows the recreational use of cannabis, the provisions of that Act shall control.

(410 ILCS 130/195)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 195. Definitions. For the purposes of this Law:

"Cultivation center" has the meaning ascribed to that term in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

"Department" means the Department of Revenue.

"Dispensing organization" has the meaning ascribed to that term in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

"Person" means an individual, partnership, corporation, or public or private organization.

"Qualifying patient" means a qualifying patient registered under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14.)

(410 ILCS 130/200)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 200. Tax imposed.

(a) Beginning on the effective date of this Act, a tax is imposed upon the privilege of cultivating medical cannabis at a rate of 7% of the sales price per ounce. The proceeds from this tax shall be deposited into the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Fund created under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act. This tax shall be paid by a cultivation center and is not the responsibility of a dispensing organization or a qualifying patient.

(b) The tax imposed under this Act shall be in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by the State of Illinois or by any municipal corporation or political subdivision thereof.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14.)

(410 ILCS 130/135 rep.)

(410 ILCS 130/220 rep.)

Section 60. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act is amended by repealing Sections 135 and 220.

Section 65. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 2-118.2, 6-206.1, 11-501, and 11-501.9 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/2-118.2)

Sec. 2-118.2. Opportunity for hearing; medical cannabis-related suspension under Section 11-501.9.

(a) A suspension of driving privileges under Section 11-501.9 of this Code shall not become effective until the person is notified in writing of the impending suspension and informed that he or she may request a hearing in the circuit court of venue under subsection (b) of this Section and the suspension shall become effective as provided in Section 11-501.9.

(b) Within 90 days after the notice of suspension served under Section 11-501.9, the person may make a written request for a judicial hearing in the circuit court of venue. The request to the circuit court shall state the grounds upon which the person seeks to have the suspension rescinded. Within 30 days after receipt of the written request or the first appearance date on the Uniform Traffic Ticket issued for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the hearing shall be conducted by the circuit court having jurisdiction. This judicial hearing, request, or process shall not stay or delay the suspension. The hearing shall proceed in the court in the same manner as in other civil proceedings.

The hearing may be conducted upon a review of the law enforcement officer's own official reports; provided however, that the person may subpoena the officer. Failure of the officer to answer the subpoena shall be considered grounds for a continuance if in the court's discretion the continuance is appropriate.

The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issues of:

(1) Whether the person was issued a registry identification card under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act; and

(2) Whether the officer had reasonable suspicion to believe that the person was driving or in actual physical control of a motor vehicle upon a highway while impaired by the use of cannabis; and

(3) Whether the person, after being advised by the officer that the privilege to operate a motor vehicle would be suspended if the person refused to submit to and complete the field sobriety tests, did refuse to submit to or complete the field sobriety tests authorized under Section 11-501.9; and

(4) Whether the person after being advised by the officer that the privilege to operate a motor vehicle would be suspended if the person submitted to field sobriety tests that disclosed the person was impaired by the use of cannabis, did submit to field sobriety tests that disclosed that the person was impaired by the use of cannabis.

Upon the conclusion of the judicial hearing, the circuit court shall sustain or rescind the suspension and immediately notify the Secretary of State. Reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall be privileged information and for use only by the courts, police officers, and Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 98-1172, eff. 1-12-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-206.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-206.1)

Sec. 6-206.1. Monitoring Device Driving Permit. Declaration of Policy. It is hereby declared a policy of the State of Illinois that the driver who is impaired by alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds is a threat to the public safety and welfare. Therefore, to provide a deterrent to such practice, a statutory summary driver's license suspension is appropriate. It is also recognized that driving is a privilege and therefore, that the granting of driving privileges, in a manner consistent with public safety, is warranted during the period of suspension in the form of a monitoring device driving permit. A person who drives and fails to comply with the requirements of the monitoring device driving permit commits a violation of Section 6-303 of this Code.

The following procedures shall apply whenever a first offender, as defined in Section 11-500 of this Code, is arrested for any offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance and is subject to the provisions of Section 11-501.1:

(a) Upon mailing of the notice of suspension of driving privileges as provided in subsection (h) of Section 11-501.1 of this Code, the Secretary shall also send written notice informing the person that he or she will be issued a monitoring device driving permit (MDDP). The notice shall include, at minimum, information summarizing the procedure to be followed for issuance of the MDDP, installation of the breath alcohol ignition installation device (BAIID), as provided in this Section, exemption from BAIID installation requirements, and procedures to be followed by those seeking indigent status, as provided in this Section. The notice shall also include information summarizing the procedure to be followed if the person wishes to decline issuance of the MDDP. A copy of the notice shall also be sent to the court of venue together with the notice of suspension of driving privileges, as provided in subsection (h) of Section 11-501. However, a MDDP shall not be issued if the Secretary finds that:

(1) the offender's driver's license is otherwise invalid;

(2) death or great bodily harm to another resulted from the arrest for Section 11-501;

(3) the offender has been previously convicted of reckless homicide or aggravated driving under the influence involving death;

(4) the offender is less than 18 years of age; or

(5) the offender is a qualifying patient licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act who is in possession of a valid registry card issued under that Act and refused to submit to standardized field sobriety tests as required by subsection (a) of Section 11-501.9 or did submit to testing which disclosed the person was impaired by the use of cannabis.

Any offender participating in the MDDP program must pay the Secretary a MDDP Administration Fee in an amount not to exceed $30 per month, to be deposited into the Monitoring Device Driving Permit Administration Fee Fund. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees. The offender must have an ignition interlock device installed within 14 days of the date the Secretary issues the MDDP. The ignition interlock device provider must notify the Secretary, in a manner and form prescribed by the Secretary, of the installation. If the Secretary does not receive notice of installation, the Secretary shall cancel the MDDP.

Upon receipt of the notice, as provided in paragraph (a) of this Section, the person may file a petition to decline issuance of the MDDP with the court of venue. The court shall admonish the offender of all consequences of declining issuance of the MDDP including, but not limited to, the enhanced penalties for driving while suspended. After being so admonished, the offender shall be permitted, in writing, to execute a notice declining issuance of the MDDP. This notice shall be filed with the court and forwarded by the clerk of the court to the Secretary. The offender may, at any time thereafter, apply to the Secretary for issuance of a MDDP.

(a-1) A person issued a MDDP may drive for any purpose and at any time, subject to the rules adopted by the Secretary under subsection (g). The person must, at his or her own expense, drive only vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1, but in no event shall such person drive a commercial motor vehicle.

(a-2) Persons who are issued a MDDP and must drive employer-owned vehicles in the course of their employment duties may seek permission to drive an employer-owned vehicle that does not have an ignition interlock device. The employer shall provide to the Secretary a form, as prescribed by the Secretary, completed by the employer verifying that the employee must drive an employer-owned vehicle in the course of employment. If approved by the Secretary, the form must be in the driver's possession while operating an employer-owner vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device. No person may use this exemption to drive a school bus, school vehicle, or a vehicle designed to transport more than 15 passengers. No person may use this exemption to drive an employer-owned motor vehicle that is owned by an entity that is wholly or partially owned by the person holding the MDDP, or by a family member of the person holding the MDDP. No person may use this exemption to drive an employer-owned vehicle that is made available to the employee for personal use. No person may drive the exempted vehicle more than 12 hours per day, 6 days per week.

(a-3) Persons who are issued a MDDP and who must drive a farm tractor to and from a farm, within 50 air miles from the originating farm are exempt from installation of a BAIID on the farm tractor, so long as the farm tractor is being used for the exclusive purpose of conducting farm operations.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(c-1) If the holder of the MDDP is convicted of or receives court supervision for a violation of Section 6-206.2, 6-303, 11-204, 11-204.1, 11-401, 11-501, 11-503, 11-506 or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or is convicted of or receives court supervision for any offense for which alcohol or drugs is an element of the offense and in which a motor vehicle was involved (for an arrest other than the one for which the MDDP is issued), or de-installs the BAIID without prior authorization from the Secretary, the MDDP shall be cancelled.

(c-5) If the Secretary determines that the person seeking the MDDP is indigent, the Secretary shall provide the person with a written document as evidence of that determination, and the person shall provide that written document to an ignition interlock device provider. The provider shall install an ignition interlock device on that person's vehicle without charge to the person, and seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID Fund. If the Secretary has deemed an offender indigent, the BAIID provider shall also provide the normal monthly monitoring services and the de-installation without charge to the offender and seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID Fund. Any other monetary charges, such as a lockout fee or reset fee, shall be the responsibility of the MDDP holder. A BAIID provider may not seek a security deposit from the Indigent BAIID Fund.

(d) MDDP information shall be available only to the courts, police officers, and the Secretary, except during the actual period the MDDP is valid, during which time it shall be a public record.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Secretary shall adopt rules for implementing this Section. The rules adopted shall address issues including, but not limited to: compliance with the requirements of the MDDP; methods for determining compliance with those requirements; the consequences of noncompliance with those requirements; what constitutes a violation of the MDDP; methods for determining indigency; and the duties of a person or entity that supplies the ignition interlock device.

(h) The rules adopted under subsection (g) shall provide, at a minimum, that the person is not in compliance with the requirements of the MDDP if he or she:

(1) tampers or attempts to tamper with or circumvent the proper operation of the ignition interlock device;

(2) provides valid breath samples that register blood alcohol levels in excess of the number of times allowed under the rules;

(3) fails to provide evidence sufficient to satisfy the Secretary that the ignition interlock device has been installed in the designated vehicle or vehicles; or

(4) fails to follow any other applicable rules adopted by the Secretary.

(i) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition interlock device as provided under this Section shall, in addition to supplying only those devices which fully comply with all the rules adopted under subsection (g), provide the Secretary, within 7 days of inspection, all monitoring reports of each person who has had an ignition interlock device installed. These reports shall be furnished in a manner or form as prescribed by the Secretary.

(j) Upon making a determination that a violation of the requirements of the MDDP has occurred, the Secretary shall extend the summary suspension period for an additional 3 months beyond the originally imposed summary suspension period, during which time the person shall only be allowed to drive vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device; provided further there are no limitations on the total number of times the summary suspension may be extended. The Secretary may, however, limit the number of extensions imposed for violations occurring during any one monitoring period, as set forth by rule. Any person whose summary suspension is extended pursuant to this Section shall have the right to contest the extension through a hearing with the Secretary, pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. If the summary suspension has already terminated prior to the Secretary receiving the monitoring report that shows a violation, the Secretary shall be authorized to suspend the person's driving privileges for 3 months, provided that the Secretary may, by rule, limit the number of suspensions to be entered pursuant to this paragraph for violations occurring during any one monitoring period. Any person whose license is suspended pursuant to this paragraph, after the summary suspension had already terminated, shall have the right to contest the suspension through a hearing with the Secretary, pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. The only permit the person shall be eligible for during this new suspension period is a MDDP.

(k) A person who has had his or her summary suspension extended for the third time, or has any combination of 3 extensions and new suspensions, entered as a result of a violation that occurred while holding the MDDP, so long as the extensions and new suspensions relate to the same summary suspension, shall have his or her vehicle impounded for a period of 30 days, at the person's own expense. A person who has his or her summary suspension extended for the fourth time, or has any combination of 4 extensions and new suspensions, entered as a result of a violation that occurred while holding the MDDP, so long as the extensions and new suspensions relate to the same summary suspension, shall have his or her vehicle subject to seizure and forfeiture. The Secretary shall notify the prosecuting authority of any third or fourth extensions or new suspension entered as a result of a violation that occurred while the person held a MDDP. Upon receipt of the notification, the prosecuting authority shall impound or forfeit the vehicle. The impoundment or forfeiture of a vehicle shall be conducted pursuant to the procedure specified in Article 36 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(l) A person whose driving privileges have been suspended under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and who had a MDDP that was cancelled, or would have been cancelled had notification of a violation been received prior to expiration of the MDDP, pursuant to subsection (c-1) of this Section, shall not be eligible for reinstatement when the summary suspension is scheduled to terminate. Instead, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for a period of not less than twice the original summary suspension period, or for the length of any extensions entered under subsection (j), whichever is longer. During the period of suspension, the person shall be eligible only to apply for a restricted driving permit. If a restricted driving permit is granted, the offender may only operate vehicles equipped with a BAIID in accordance with this Section.

(m) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition interlock device under this Section shall, for each ignition interlock device installed, pay 5% of the total gross revenue received for the device, including monthly monitoring fees, into the Indigent BAIID Fund. This 5% shall be clearly indicated as a separate surcharge on each invoice that is issued. The Secretary shall conduct an annual review of the fund to determine whether the surcharge is sufficient to provide for indigent users. The Secretary may increase or decrease this surcharge requirement as needed.

(n) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition interlock device under this Section that is requested to provide an ignition interlock device to a person who presents written documentation of indigency from the Secretary, as provided in subsection (c-5) of this Section, shall install the device on the person's vehicle without charge to the person and shall seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID Fund.

(o) The Indigent BAIID Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Secretary shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, use all money in the Indigent BAIID Fund to reimburse ignition interlock device providers who have installed devices in vehicles of indigent persons. The Secretary shall make payments to such providers every 3 months. If the amount of money in the fund at the time payments are made is not sufficient to pay all requests for reimbursement submitted during that 3 month period, the Secretary shall make payments on a pro-rata basis, and those payments shall be considered payment in full for the requests submitted.

(p) The Monitoring Device Driving Permit Administration Fee Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Secretary shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, use the money paid into this fund to offset its administrative costs for administering MDDPs.

(q) The Secretary is authorized to prescribe such forms as it deems necessary to carry out the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1015, eff. 8-22-14; 98-1172, eff. 1-12-15; 99-467, eff. 1-1-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501)

Sec. 11-501. Driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof.

(a) A person shall not drive or be in actual physical control of any vehicle within this State while:

(1) the alcohol concentration in the person's blood, other bodily substance, or breath is 0.08 or more based on the definition of blood and breath units in Section 11-501.2;

(2) under the influence of alcohol;

(3) under the influence of any intoxicating compound or combination of intoxicating compounds to a degree that renders the person incapable of driving safely;

(4) under the influence of any other drug or combination of drugs to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving;

(5) under the combined influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving;

(6) there is any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's breath, blood, other bodily substance, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or

(7) the person has, within 2 hours of driving or being in actual physical control of a vehicle, a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration in the person's whole blood or other bodily substance as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 of this Code. Subject to all other requirements and provisions under this Section, this paragraph (7) does not apply to the lawful consumption of cannabis by a qualifying patient licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act who is in possession of a valid registry card issued under that Act, unless that person is impaired by the use of cannabis.

(b) The fact that any person charged with violating this Section is or has been legally entitled to use alcohol, cannabis under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, shall not constitute a defense against any charge of violating this Section.

(c) Penalties.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, any person convicted of violating subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A person who violates subsection (a) or a similar provision a second time shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of either 5 days of imprisonment or 240 hours of community service in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(3) A person who violates subsection (a) is subject to 6 months of imprisonment, an additional mandatory minimum fine of $1,000, and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children if the person was transporting a person under the age of 16 at the time of the violation.

(4) A person who violates subsection (a) a first time, if the alcohol concentration in his or her blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, shall be subject, in addition to any other penalty that may be imposed, to a mandatory minimum of 100 hours of community service and a mandatory minimum fine of $500.

(5) A person who violates subsection (a) a second time, if at the time of the second violation the alcohol concentration in his or her blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, shall be subject, in addition to any other penalty that may be imposed, to a mandatory minimum of 2 days of imprisonment and a mandatory minimum fine of $1,250.

(d) Aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof.

(1) Every person convicted of committing a violation of this Section shall be guilty of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof if:

(A) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) or a similar provision for the third or subsequent time;

(B) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) while driving a school bus with one or more passengers on board;

(C) the person in committing a violation of subsection (a) was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to another, when the violation was a proximate cause of the injuries;

(D) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) and has been previously convicted of violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide in which the person was determined to have been under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds as an element of the offense or the person has previously been convicted under subparagraph (C) or subparagraph (F) of this paragraph (1);

(E) the person, in committing a violation of subsection (a) while driving at any speed in a school speed zone at a time when a speed limit of 20 miles per hour was in effect under subsection (a) of Section 11-605 of this Code, was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in bodily harm, other than great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement, to another person, when the violation of subsection (a) was a proximate cause of the bodily harm;

(F) the person, in committing a violation of subsection (a), was involved in a motor vehicle, snowmobile, all-terrain vehicle, or watercraft accident that resulted in the death of another person, when the violation of subsection (a) was a proximate cause of the death;

(G) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) during a period in which the defendant's driving privileges are revoked or suspended, where the revocation or suspension was for a violation of subsection (a) or a similar provision, Section 11-501.1, paragraph (b) of Section 11-401, or for reckless homicide as defined in Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(H) the person committed the violation while he or she did not possess a driver's license or permit or a restricted driving permit or a judicial driving permit or a monitoring device driving permit;

(I) the person committed the violation while he or she knew or should have known that the vehicle he or she was driving was not covered by a liability insurance policy;

(J) the person in committing a violation of subsection (a) was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in bodily harm, but not great bodily harm, to the child under the age of 16 being transported by the person, if the violation was the proximate cause of the injury;

(K) the person in committing a second violation of subsection (a) or a similar provision was transporting a person under the age of 16; or

(L) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) of this Section while transporting one or more passengers in a vehicle for-hire.

(2)(A) Except as provided otherwise, a person convicted of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(B) A third violation of this Section or a similar provision is a Class 2 felony. If at the time of the third violation the alcohol concentration in his or her blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum of 90 days of imprisonment and a mandatory minimum fine of $2,500 shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If at the time of the third violation, the defendant was transporting a person under the age of 16, a mandatory fine of $25,000 and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(C) A fourth violation of this Section or a similar provision is a Class 2 felony, for which a sentence of probation or conditional discharge may not be imposed. If at the time of the violation, the alcohol concentration in the defendant's blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If at the time of the fourth violation, the defendant was transporting a person under the age of 16 a mandatory fine of $25,000 and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(D) A fifth violation of this Section or a similar provision is a Class 1 felony, for which a sentence of probation or conditional discharge may not be imposed. If at the time of the violation, the alcohol concentration in the defendant's blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If at the time of the fifth violation, the defendant was transporting a person under the age of 16, a mandatory fine of $25,000, and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(E) A sixth or subsequent violation of this Section or similar provision is a Class X felony. If at the time of the violation, the alcohol concentration in the defendant's blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If at the time of the violation, the defendant was transporting a person under the age of 16, a mandatory fine of $25,000 and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(F) For a violation of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d), the defendant, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than one year nor more than 12 years.

(G) A violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) is a Class 2 felony, for which the defendant, unless the court determines that extraordinary circumstances exist and require probation, shall be sentenced to: (i) a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years if the violation resulted in the death of one person; or (ii) a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 28 years if the violation resulted in the deaths of 2 or more persons.

(H) For a violation of subparagraph (J) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d), a mandatory fine of $2,500, and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(I) A violation of subparagraph (K) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d), is a Class 2 felony and a mandatory fine of $2,500, and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If the child being transported suffered bodily harm, but not great bodily harm, in a motor vehicle accident, and the violation was the proximate cause of that injury, a mandatory fine of $5,000 and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(J) A violation of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) is a Class 3 felony, for which a sentence of probation or conditional discharge may not be imposed.

(3) Any person sentenced under this subsection (d) who receives a term of probation or conditional discharge must serve a minimum term of either 480 hours of community service or 10 days of imprisonment as a condition of the probation or conditional discharge in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(e) Any reference to a prior violation of subsection (a) or a similar provision includes any violation of a provision of a local ordinance or a provision of a law of another state or an offense committed on a military installation that is similar to a violation of subsection (a) of this Section.

(f) The imposition of a mandatory term of imprisonment or assignment of community service for a violation of this Section shall not be suspended or reduced by the court.

(g) Any penalty imposed for driving with a license that has been revoked for a previous violation of subsection (a) of this Section shall be in addition to the penalty imposed for any subsequent violation of subsection (a).

(h) For any prosecution under this Section, a certified copy of the driving abstract of the defendant shall be admitted as proof of any prior conviction.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-573, eff. 8-27-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.9)

Sec. 11-501.9. Suspension of driver's license; medical cannabis card holder; failure or refusal of field sobriety tests; implied consent.

(a) A person who has been issued a registry identification card under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act who drives or is in actual physical control of a motor vehicle upon the public highways of this State shall be deemed to have given consent to standardized field sobriety tests approved by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, under subsection (a-5) of Section 11-501.2 of this Code, if detained by a law enforcement officer who has a reasonable suspicion that the person is driving or is in actual physical control of a motor vehicle while impaired by the use of cannabis. The law enforcement officer must have an independent, cannabis-related factual basis giving reasonable suspicion that the person is driving or in actual physical control of a motor vehicle while impaired by the use of cannabis for conducting standardized field sobriety tests, which shall be included with the results of the field sobriety tests in any report made by the law enforcement officer who requests the test. The person's possession of a registry identification card issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act alone is not a sufficient basis for reasonable suspicion.

For purposes of this Section, a law enforcement officer of this State who is investigating a person for an offense under Section 11-501 of this Code may travel into an adjoining state where the person has been transported for medical care to complete an investigation and to request that the person submit to field sobriety tests under this Section.

(b) A person who is unconscious, or otherwise in a condition rendering the person incapable of refusal, shall be deemed to have withdrawn the consent provided by subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) A person requested to submit to field sobriety tests, as provided in this Section, shall be warned by the law enforcement officer requesting the field sobriety tests that a refusal to submit to the field sobriety tests will result in the suspension of the person's privilege to operate a motor vehicle, as provided in subsection (f) of this Section. The person shall also be warned by the law enforcement officer that if the person submits to field sobriety tests as provided in this Section which disclose the person is impaired by the use of cannabis, a suspension of the person's privilege to operate a motor vehicle, as provided in subsection (f) of this Section, will be imposed.

(d) The results of field sobriety tests administered under this Section shall be admissible in a civil or criminal action or proceeding arising from an arrest for an offense as defined in Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. These test results shall be admissible only in actions or proceedings directly related to the incident upon which the test request was made.

(e) If the person refuses field sobriety tests or submits to field sobriety tests that disclose the person is impaired by the use of cannabis, the law enforcement officer shall immediately submit a sworn report to the circuit court of venue and the Secretary of State certifying that testing was requested under this Section and that the person refused to submit to field sobriety tests or submitted to field sobriety tests that disclosed the person was impaired by the use of cannabis. The sworn report must include the law enforcement officer's factual basis for reasonable suspicion that the person was impaired by the use of cannabis.

(f) Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement officer submitted under subsection (e) of this Section, the Secretary of State shall enter the suspension to the driving record as follows:

(1) for refusal or failure to complete field sobriety tests, a 12 month suspension shall be entered; or

(2) for submitting to field sobriety tests that disclosed the driver was impaired by the use of cannabis, a 6 month suspension shall be entered.

The Secretary of State shall confirm the suspension by mailing a notice of the effective date of the suspension to the person and the court of venue. However, should the sworn report be defective for insufficient information or be completed in error, the confirmation of the suspension shall not be mailed to the person or entered to the record; instead, the sworn report shall be forwarded to the court of venue with a copy returned to the issuing agency identifying the defect.

(g) The law enforcement officer submitting the sworn report under subsection (e) of this Section shall serve immediate notice of the suspension on the person and the suspension shall be effective as provided in subsection (h) of this Section. If immediate notice of the suspension cannot be given, the arresting officer or arresting agency shall give notice by deposit in the United States mail of the notice in an envelope with postage prepaid and addressed to the person at his or her address as shown on the Uniform Traffic Ticket and the suspension shall begin as provided in subsection (h) of this Section. The officer shall confiscate any Illinois driver's license or permit on the person at the time of arrest. If the person has a valid driver's license or permit, the officer shall issue the person a receipt, in a form prescribed by the Secretary of State, that will allow the person to drive during the period provided for in subsection (h) of this Section. The officer shall immediately forward the driver's license or permit to the circuit court of venue along with the sworn report under subsection (e) of this Section.

(h) The suspension under subsection (f) of this Section shall take effect on the 46th day following the date the notice of the suspension was given to the person.

(i) When a driving privilege has been suspended under this Section and the person is subsequently convicted of violating Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, for the same incident, any period served on suspension under this Section shall be credited toward the minimum period of revocation of driving privileges imposed under Section 6-205 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-1172, eff. 1-12-15.)

Section 70. The Cannabis Control Act is amended by changing Section 5.3 as follows:

(720 ILCS 550/5.3)

Sec. 5.3. Unlawful use of cannabis-based product manufacturing equipment.

(a) A person commits unlawful use of cannabis-based product manufacturing equipment when he or she knowingly engages in the possession, procurement, transportation, storage, or delivery of any equipment used in the manufacturing of any cannabis-based product using volatile or explosive gas, including, but not limited to, canisters of butane gas, with the intent to manufacture, compound, covert, produce, derive, process, or prepare either directly or indirectly any cannabis-based product.

(b) This Section does not apply to a cultivation center or cultivation center agent that prepares medical cannabis or cannabis-infused products in compliance with the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act and Department of Public Health and Department of Agriculture rules.

(c) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 99-697, eff. 7-29-16.)

Section 99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law, except that Section 33, if it becomes law, takes effect upon becoming law or on the date House Bill 1438 of the 101st General Assembly takes effect, whichever is later.