HB4235 101ST GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB101 15666 AWJ 65707 b

101ST GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2019 and 2020
HB4235

Introduced 1/27/2020, by Rep. Maurice A. West, II

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Amends the Counties Code. Provides that the county board or board of county commissioners of each county shall appoint a medical examiner and the medical examiner may appoint a deputy medical examiner, who both shall be physicians licensed to practice within this State. Discontinues the office of the corner in each county on December 1, 2021 replacing it with the appointed medical examiner. Allows a medical examiner to appoint investigators. Provides that 2 or more counties may enter into an agreement to allow the same persons to act as medical examiner, deputy medical examiners, and investigators. Allows a medical examiner to establish an elderly and vulnerable adult death review team. Makes other changes concerning removal of medical examiners and deputy medical examiners, bonds, death investigations, identification of bodies, expenses, records, organ donation and cremation of a body subject to investigation, autopsies, removal of property found near a body, and notification of a medical examiner. Limits home rule powers. Amends various other Acts and Codes making conforming changes. Effective December 1, 2021, except for specified provisions which take effect immediately.

CORRECTIONAL BUDGET AND IMPACT NOTE ACT MAY APPLY	FISCAL NOTE ACT MAY APPLY	HOME RULE NOTE ACT MAY APPLY
HOUSING AFFORDABILITY IMPACT NOTE ACT MAY APPLY		STATE MANDATES ACT MAY REQUIRE REIMBURSEMENT

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning local government.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 5. The Statute on Statutes is amended by changing Section 1.08 as follows:

(5 ILCS 70/1.08) (from Ch. 1, par. 1009)

Sec. 1.08. "Sheriff," "medical examiner," "coroner," "clerk," or other words used for an executive or ministerial officer may include any deputy or other person performing the duties of such officer, either generally or in special cases.

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 373.)

Section 10. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7) (from Ch. 116, par. 207)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) When a request is made to inspect or copy a public record that contains information that is exempt from disclosure under this Section, but also contains information that is not exempt from disclosure, the public body may elect to redact the information that is exempt. The public body shall make the remaining information available for inspection and copying. Subject to this requirement, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations implementing federal or State law.

(b) Private information, unless disclosure is required by another provision of this Act, a State or federal law or a court order.

(b-5) Files, documents, and other data or databases maintained by one or more law enforcement agencies and specifically designed to provide information to one or more law enforcement agencies regarding the physical or mental status of one or more individual subjects.

(c) Personal information contained within public records, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. "Unwarranted invasion of personal privacy" means the disclosure of information that is highly personal or objectionable to a reasonable person and in which the subject's right to privacy outweighs any legitimate public interest in obtaining the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy.

(d) Records in the possession of any public body created in the course of administrative enforcement proceedings, and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency that is the recipient of the request;

(ii) interfere with active administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by the public body that is the recipient of the request;

(iii) create a substantial likelihood that a person will be deprived of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, or persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement, or penal agencies; except that the identities of witnesses to traffic accidents, traffic accident reports, and rescue reports shall be provided by agencies of local government, except when disclosure would interfere with an active criminal investigation conducted by the agency that is the recipient of the request;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct, and disclosure would result in demonstrable harm to the agency or public body that is the recipient of the request;

(vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(vii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation by the agency that is the recipient of the request.

(d-5) A law enforcement record created for law enforcement purposes and contained in a shared electronic record management system if the law enforcement agency that is the recipient of the request did not create the record, did not participate in or have a role in any of the events which are the subject of the record, and only has access to the record through the shared electronic record management system.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(e-5) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail if those materials are available in the library of the correctional institution or facility or jail where the inmate is confined.

(e-6) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail if those materials include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information.

(e-7) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health if those materials are available through an administrative request to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health.

(e-8) Records requested by a person committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail, the disclosure of which would result in the risk of harm to any person or the risk of an escape from a jail or correctional institution or facility.

(e-9) Records requested by a person in a county jail or committed to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, containing personal information pertaining to the person's victim or the victim's family, including, but not limited to, a victim's home address, home telephone number, work or school address, work telephone number, social security number, or any other identifying information, except as may be relevant to a requester's current or potential case or claim.

(e-10) Law enforcement records of other persons requested by a person committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail, including, but not limited to, arrest and booking records, mug shots, and crime scene photographs, except as these records may be relevant to the requester's current or potential case or claim.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or commercial or financial information are furnished under a claim that they are proprietary, privileged, or confidential, and that disclosure of the trade secrets or commercial or financial information would cause competitive harm to the person or business, and only insofar as the claim directly applies to the records requested.

The information included under this exemption includes all trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) The following information pertaining to educational matters:

(i) test questions, scoring keys and other examination data used to administer an academic examination;

(ii) information received by a primary or secondary school, college, or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers;

(iii) information concerning a school or university's adjudication of student disciplinary cases, but only to the extent that disclosure would unavoidably reveal the identity of the student; and

(iv) course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, including, but not limited to, power generating and distribution stations and other transmission and distribution facilities, water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security.

(l) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(m) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(n) Records relating to a public body's adjudication of employee grievances or disciplinary cases; however, this exemption shall not extend to the final outcome of cases in which discipline is imposed.

(o) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including, but not limited to, software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(p) Records relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(q) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to determine the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(r) The records, documents, and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents, and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents, and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(s) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool. Insurance or self insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications.

(t) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions, insurance companies, or pharmacy benefit managers, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(u) Information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic or digital signatures under the Electronic Commerce Security Act.

(v) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, the destruction or contamination of which would constitute a clear and present danger to the health or safety of the community, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, or to tactical operations.

(w) (Blank).

(x) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities owned by a utility, by a power generator, or by the Illinois Power Agency.

(y) Information contained in or related to proposals, bids, or negotiations related to electric power procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(z) Information about students exempted from disclosure under Sections 10-20.38 or 34-18.29 of the School Code, and information about undergraduate students enrolled at an institution of higher education exempted from disclosure under Section 25 of the Illinois Credit Card Marketing Act of 2009.

(aa) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.

(bb) Records and information provided to a mortality review team and records maintained by a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(cc) Information regarding interments, entombments, or inurnments of human remains that are submitted to the Cemetery Oversight Database under the Cemetery Care Act or the Cemetery Oversight Act, whichever is applicable.

(dd) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ee) The names, addresses, or other personal information of persons who are minors and are also participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations.

(ff) The names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations where such programs are targeted primarily to minors.

(gg) Confidential information described in Section 1-100 of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012.

(hh) The report submitted to the State Board of Education by the School Security and Standards Task Force under item (8) of subsection (d) of Section 2-3.160 of the School Code and any information contained in that report.

(ii) Records requested by persons committed to or detained by the Department of Human Services under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or committed to the Department of Corrections under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act if those materials: (i) are available in the library of the facility where the individual is confined; (ii) include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information; or (iii) are available through an administrative request to the Department of Human Services or the Department of Corrections.

(jj) Confidential information described in Section 5-535 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(kk) The public body's credit card numbers, debit card numbers, bank account numbers, Federal Employer Identification Number, security code numbers, passwords, and similar account information, the disclosure of which could result in identity theft or impression or defrauding of a governmental entity or a person.

(ll) (kk) Records concerning the work of the threat assessment team of a school district.

(mm) Medical records, books, papers, or other documents that a medical examiner, deputy medical examiner, or investigator obtains in conducting an investigation or inquest under Division 3-3 of the Counties Code.

(1.5) Any information exempt from disclosure under the Judicial Privacy Act shall be redacted from public records prior to disclosure under this Act.

(2) A public record that is not in the possession of a public body but is in the possession of a party with whom the agency has contracted to perform a governmental function on behalf of the public body, and that directly relates to the governmental function and is not otherwise exempt under this Act, shall be considered a public record of the public body, for purposes of this Act.

(3) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-26, eff. 8-4-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-732, eff. 8-3-18; 101-434, eff. 1-1-20; 101-452, eff. 1-1-20; 101-455, eff. 8-23-19; revised 9-27-19.)

Section 15. The Election Code is amended by changing Section 18A-218.10 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/18A-218.10)

Sec. 18A-218.10. Definitions relating to provisional ballots.

(a) As used in this Article:

"Citywide or villagewide office" means an office elected by the electors of an entire municipality.

"Correct precinct" means the precinct containing the addresses at which the provisional voter resides and at which he or she is registered to vote.

"Countywide office" means the offices of Clerk, Sheriff, State's Attorney, Circuit Court Clerk, Recorder, Auditor, County Board President, County Board Member or County Commissioner in those counties that elect those officers countywide, Coroner, Regional Superintendent of Schools, Sanitary District Commissioners or Trustees, Assessor, Board of Review Members in those counties that elect those officers countywide, and Treasurer.

"Election authority" means either the County Clerk, County Board of Election Commissioners, or Municipal Board of Election Commissioners, as the case may be.

"Election jurisdiction" means an entire county, in the case of a county in which no city board of election commissioners is located or that is under the jurisdiction of a county board of election commissioners; the territorial jurisdiction of a city board of election commissioners; and the territory in a county outside of the jurisdiction of a city board of election commissioners. Election jurisdictions shall be determined according to which election authority maintains the permanent registration records of qualified electors.

"Incorrect precinct" means the precinct in which the voter cast a provisional ballot, but is not the precinct containing the address at which he or she is registered to vote. In order for a provisional ballot to be eligible for counting when cast in an incorrect precinct, that precinct must be located within either the county or municipality in which the voter is registered.

"Leading established political party" means one of the two political parties whose candidates for Governor at the most recent 3 gubernatorial elections received either the highest or second highest average number of votes. The first leading political party is the party whose candidate for Governor received the highest average number of votes in the 3 most recent gubernatorial elections and the second leading political party is the party whose candidate for Governor received the second highest average number of votes in the 3 most recent gubernatorial elections.

"Legislative district" means the district in which an Illinois State Senator is elected to serve the residents.

"Persons entitled to vote provisionally" or "provisional voter" means a person claiming to be a registered voter who is entitled by Section 18A-5 of this Code to vote a provisional ballot under the following circumstances:

(1) The person's name does not appear on the official list of eligible voters for the precinct in which the person seeks to vote and the person has refused an opportunity to register at the polling location or another grace period registration site.

(2) The person's voting status has been successfully challenged by an election judge, a pollwatcher or any legal voter.

(3) A federal or State court order extends the time for closing the polls beyond the time period established by State law and the person votes during the extended time period.

(4) The voter registered to vote by mail and is required by law to present identification when voting either in person or by vote by mail ballot, but fails to do so.

(5) The voter's name appears on the list of voters who voted during the early voting period, but the voter claims not to have voted during the early voting period.

(6) The voter received a vote by mail ballot but did not return the vote by mail ballot to the election authority, and failed to surrender it to the election judges.

(7) The voter attempted to register to vote on election day, but failed to provide the necessary documentation.

"Representative district" means the district from which an Illinois State Representative is elected to serve the residents.

"Statewide office" means the Constitutional offices of Governor and Lt. Governor running jointly, Secretary of State, Attorney General, Comptroller, and Treasurer.

"Township office" means an office elected by the electors of an entire township.

(b) Procedures for Voting Provisionally in the Polling Place.

(1) If any of the 7 reasons cited in the definition of provisional voter in subsection (a) for casting a provisional ballot exists, an election judge must accept any information provided by a person who casts a provisional ballot that the person believes supports his or her claim that he or she is a duly registered voter and qualified to vote in the election. However, if the person's residence address is outside the precinct boundaries, the election judge shall inform the person of that fact, give the person the appropriate telephone number of the election authority in order to locate the polling place assigned to serve that address (or consult any alternative tools provided by the election authority for determining a voter's correct precinct polling place) and instruct the person to go to the proper polling place to vote.

(2) Once it has been determined by the election judges that the person is entitled to receive a provisional ballot, and the voter has completed the provisional voter affidavit, the voter shall be given a provisional ballot and shall proceed to vote that ballot. Upon receipt of the ballot by the election judges, the ballot shall be transmitted to the election authority in accordance with subsection (a) of Section 18A-10 of this Code.

(3) In the event that a provisional ballot is mistakenly cast in a precinct other than the precinct that contains the voter's address of registration (if the voter believed he or she registered in the precinct in which he or she voted provisionally, and the election judges should have, but did not direct the voter to vote in the correct precinct), Section 218.20 shall apply.

(Source: P.A. 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/2A-18 rep.)

Section 20. The Election Code is amended by repealing Section 2A-18.

Section 25. The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 5-565 and by adding Section 5-566 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5/5-565) (was 20 ILCS 5/6.06)

Sec. 5-565. In the Department of Public Health.

(a) The General Assembly declares it to be the public policy of this State that all citizens of Illinois are entitled to lead healthy lives. Governmental public health has a specific responsibility to ensure that a public health system is in place to allow the public health mission to be achieved. The public health system is the collection of public, private, and voluntary entities as well as individuals and informal associations that contribute to the public's health within the State. To develop a public health system requires certain core functions to be performed by government. The State Board of Health is to assume the leadership role in advising the Director in meeting the following functions:

(1) Needs assessment.

(2) Statewide health objectives.

(3) Policy development.

(4) Assurance of access to necessary services.

There shall be a State Board of Health composed of 20 persons, all of whom shall be appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate for those appointed by the Governor on and after June 30, 1998, and one of whom shall be a senior citizen age 60 or over. Five members shall be physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, one representing a medical school faculty, one who is board certified in preventive medicine, and one who is engaged in private practice. One member shall be a chiropractic physician. One member shall be a dentist; one an environmental health practitioner; one a local public health administrator; one a local board of health member; one a registered nurse; one a physical therapist; one an optometrist; one a veterinarian; one a public health academician; one a health care industry representative; one a representative of the business community; one a representative of the non-profit public interest community; and 2 shall be citizens at large.

The terms of Board of Health members shall be 3 years, except that members shall continue to serve on the Board of Health until a replacement is appointed. Upon the effective date of Public Act 93-975 (January 1, 2005) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, in the appointment of the Board of Health members appointed to vacancies or positions with terms expiring on or before December 31, 2004, the Governor shall appoint up to 6 members to serve for terms of 3 years; up to 6 members to serve for terms of 2 years; and up to 5 members to serve for a term of one year, so that the term of no more than 6 members expire in the same year. All members shall be legal residents of the State of Illinois. The duties of the Board shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) To advise the Department of ways to encourage public understanding and support of the Department's programs.

(2) To evaluate all boards, councils, committees, authorities, and bodies advisory to, or an adjunct of, the Department of Public Health or its Director for the purpose of recommending to the Director one or more of the following:

(i) The elimination of bodies whose activities are not consistent with goals and objectives of the Department.

(ii) The consolidation of bodies whose activities encompass compatible programmatic subjects.

(iii) The restructuring of the relationship between the various bodies and their integration within the organizational structure of the Department.

(iv) The establishment of new bodies deemed essential to the functioning of the Department.

(3) To serve as an advisory group to the Director for public health emergencies and control of health hazards.

(4) To advise the Director regarding public health policy, and to make health policy recommendations regarding priorities to the Governor through the Director.

(5) To present public health issues to the Director and to make recommendations for the resolution of those issues.

(6) To recommend studies to delineate public health problems.

(7) To make recommendations to the Governor through the Director regarding the coordination of State public health activities with other State and local public health agencies and organizations.

(8) To report on or before February 1 of each year on the health of the residents of Illinois to the Governor, the General Assembly, and the public.

(9) To review the final draft of all proposed administrative rules, other than emergency or peremptory preemptory rules and those rules that another advisory body must approve or review within a statutorily defined time period, of the Department after September 19, 1991 (the effective date of Public Act 87-633). The Board shall review the proposed rules within 90 days of submission by the Department. The Department shall take into consideration any comments and recommendations of the Board regarding the proposed rules prior to submission to the Secretary of State for initial publication. If the Department disagrees with the recommendations of the Board, it shall submit a written response outlining the reasons for not accepting the recommendations.

In the case of proposed administrative rules or amendments to administrative rules regarding immunization of children against preventable communicable diseases designated by the Director under the Communicable Disease Prevention Act, after the Immunization Advisory Committee has made its recommendations, the Board shall conduct 3 public hearings, geographically distributed throughout the State. At the conclusion of the hearings, the State Board of Health shall issue a report, including its recommendations, to the Director. The Director shall take into consideration any comments or recommendations made by the Board based on these hearings.

(10) To deliver to the Governor for presentation to the General Assembly a State Health Improvement Plan. The first 3 such plans shall be delivered to the Governor on January 1, 2006, January 1, 2009, and January 1, 2016 and then every 5 years thereafter.

The Plan shall recommend priorities and strategies to improve the public health system and the health status of Illinois residents, taking into consideration national health objectives and system standards as frameworks for assessment.

The Plan shall also take into consideration priorities and strategies developed at the community level through the Illinois Project for Local Assessment of Needs (IPLAN) and any regional health improvement plans that may be developed. The Plan shall focus on prevention as a key strategy for long-term health improvement in Illinois.

The Plan shall examine and make recommendations on the contributions and strategies of the public and private sectors for improving health status and the public health system in the State. In addition to recommendations on health status improvement priorities and strategies for the population of the State as a whole, the Plan shall make recommendations regarding priorities and strategies for reducing and eliminating health disparities in Illinois; including racial, ethnic, gender, age, socio-economic, and geographic disparities.

The Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health shall appoint a Planning Team that includes a range of public, private, and voluntary sector stakeholders and participants in the public health system. This Team shall include: the directors of State agencies with public health responsibilities (or their designees), including, but not limited to, the Illinois Departments of Public Health and Department of Human Services, representatives of local health departments, representatives of local community health partnerships, and individuals with expertise who represent an array of organizations and constituencies engaged in public health improvement and prevention.

The State Board of Health shall hold at least 3 public hearings addressing drafts of the Plan in representative geographic areas of the State. Members of the Planning Team shall receive no compensation for their services, but may be reimbursed for their necessary expenses.

Upon the delivery of each State Health Improvement Plan, the Governor shall appoint a SHIP Implementation Coordination Council that includes a range of public, private, and voluntary sector stakeholders and participants in the public health system. The Council shall include the directors of State agencies and entities with public health system responsibilities (or their designees), including, but not limited to, the Department of Public Health, Department of Human Services, Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Environmental Protection Agency, Illinois State Board of Education, Department on Aging, Illinois Violence Prevention Authority, Department of Agriculture, Department of Insurance, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, Department of Transportation, and Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and the Chair of the State Board of Health. The Council shall include representatives of local health departments and individuals with expertise who represent an array of organizations and constituencies engaged in public health improvement and prevention, including non-profit public interest groups, health issue groups, faith community groups, health care providers, businesses and employers, academic institutions, and community-based organizations. The Governor shall endeavor to make the membership of the Council representative of the racial, ethnic, gender, socio-economic, and geographic diversity of the State. The Governor shall designate one State agency representative and one other non-governmental member as co-chairs of the Council. The Governor shall designate a member of the Governor's office to serve as liaison to the Council and one or more State agencies to provide or arrange for support to the Council. The members of the SHIP Implementation Coordination Council for each State Health Improvement Plan shall serve until the delivery of the subsequent State Health Improvement Plan, whereupon a new Council shall be appointed. Members of the SHIP Planning Team may serve on the SHIP Implementation Coordination Council if so appointed by the Governor.

The SHIP Implementation Coordination Council shall coordinate the efforts and engagement of the public, private, and voluntary sector stakeholders and participants in the public health system to implement each SHIP. The Council shall serve as a forum for collaborative action; coordinate existing and new initiatives; develop detailed implementation steps, with mechanisms for action; implement specific projects; identify public and private funding sources at the local, State and federal level; promote public awareness of the SHIP; advocate for the implementation of the SHIP; and develop an annual report to the Governor, General Assembly, and public regarding the status of implementation of the SHIP. The Council shall not, however, have the authority to direct any public or private entity to take specific action to implement the SHIP.

(11) Upon the request of the Governor, to recommend to the Governor candidates for Director of Public Health when vacancies occur in the position.

(12) To adopt bylaws for the conduct of its own business, including the authority to establish ad hoc committees to address specific public health programs requiring resolution.

(13) (Blank).

Upon appointment, the Board shall elect a chairperson from among its members.

Members of the Board shall receive compensation for their services at the rate of $150 per day, not to exceed $10,000 per year, as designated by the Director for each day required for transacting the business of the Board and shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties. The Board shall meet from time to time at the call of the Department, at the call of the chairperson, or upon the request of 3 of its members, but shall not meet less than 4 times per year.

(b) (Blank).

(c) An Advisory Board on Necropsy Service to Medical Examiners Coroners, which shall counsel and advise with the Director on the administration of the Autopsy Act. The Advisory Board shall consist of 11 members, including a senior citizen age 60 or over, appointed by the Governor, one of whom shall be designated as chairman by a majority of the members of the Board. In the appointment of the first Board the Governor shall appoint 3 members to serve for terms of 1 year, 3 for terms of 2 years, and 3 for terms of 3 years. The members first appointed under Public Act 83-1538 shall serve for a term of 3 years. All members appointed thereafter shall be appointed for terms of 3 years, except that when an appointment is made to fill a vacancy, the appointment shall be for the remaining term of the position vacant. The members of the Board shall be citizens of the State of Illinois. In the appointment of members of the Advisory Board the Governor shall appoint 3 members who shall be persons licensed to practice medicine and surgery in the State of Illinois, at least 2 of whom shall have received post-graduate training in the field of pathology; 3 members who are medical examiners duly elected coroners in this State; and 5 members who shall have interest and abilities in the field of forensic medicine but who shall be neither persons licensed to practice any branch of medicine in this State nor medical examiners coroners. In the appointment of medical and medical examiner coroner members of the Board, the Governor shall invite nominations from recognized medical and medical examiner coroners organizations in this State respectively. Board members, while serving on business of the Board, shall receive actual necessary travel and subsistence expenses while so serving away from their places of residence.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-527, eff. 1-1-17; revised 7-17-19.)

(20 ILCS 5/5-566 new)

Sec. 5-566. Transition to Advisory Board on Necropsy Service to Medical Examiners. No later than November 30, 2021, the Governor shall appoint 3 medical examiners to the Board under subsection (c) of Section 5-565, designating for each appointment which coroner on the Board is being replaced, from the medical examiners appointed under subsection (a) of Section 3-3000 of the Counties Code. The terms of the medical examiners appointed under this Section shall expire at the same time of the coroner whom each medical examiner replaced. If all 3 medical examiners are not appointed to the Board under this Section on or before November 30, 2021, the coroner or coroners on the Board who have not yet been replaced with a medical examiner on November 30, 2021 shall continue as Board members until medical examiners are appointed and qualified to replace them.

Section 30. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by changing Section 4.04 as follows:

(20 ILCS 105/4.04) (from Ch. 23, par. 6104.04)

Sec. 4.04. Long Term Care Ombudsman Program. The purpose of the Long Term Care Ombudsman Program is to ensure that older persons and persons with disabilities receive quality services. This is accomplished by providing advocacy services for residents of long term care facilities and participants receiving home care and community-based care. Managed care is increasingly becoming the vehicle for delivering health and long-term services and supports to seniors and persons with disabilities, including dual eligible participants. The additional ombudsman authority will allow advocacy services to be provided to Illinois participants for the first time and will produce a cost savings for the State of Illinois by supporting the rebalancing efforts of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act.

(a) Long Term Care Ombudsman Program. The Department shall establish a Long Term Care Ombudsman Program, through the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman ("the Office"), in accordance with the provisions of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended. The Long Term Care Ombudsman Program is authorized, subject to sufficient appropriations, to advocate on behalf of older persons and persons with disabilities residing in their own homes or community-based settings, relating to matters which may adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of such individuals.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section, unless the context requires otherwise:

(1) "Access" means the right to:

(i) Enter any long term care facility or assisted living or shared housing establishment or supportive living facility;

(ii) Communicate privately and without restriction with any resident, regardless of age, who consents to the communication;

(iii) Seek consent to communicate privately and without restriction with any participant or resident, regardless of age;

(iv) Inspect the clinical and other records of a participant or resident, regardless of age, with the express written consent of the participant or resident;

(v) Observe all areas of the long term care facility or supportive living facilities, assisted living or shared housing establishment except the living area of any resident who protests the observation; and

(vi) Subject to permission of the participant or resident requesting services or his or her representative, enter a home or community-based setting.

(2) "Long Term Care Facility" means (i) any facility as defined by Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act, as now or hereafter amended; (ii) any skilled nursing facility or a nursing facility which meets the requirements of Section 1819(a), (b), (c), and (d) or Section 1919(a), (b), (c), and (d) of the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended (42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(a), (b), (c), and (d) and 42 U.S.C. 1396r(a), (b), (c), and (d)); (iii) any facility as defined by Section 1-113 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, as now or hereafter amended; (iv) any facility as defined by Section 1-113 of MC/DD Act, as now or hereafter amended; and (v) any facility licensed under Section 4-105 or 4-201 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, as now or hereafter amended.

(2.5) "Assisted living establishment" and "shared housing establishment" have the meanings given those terms in Section 10 of the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

(2.7) "Supportive living facility" means a facility established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(2.8) "Community-based setting" means any place of abode other than an individual's private home.

(3) "State Long Term Care Ombudsman" means any person employed by the Department to fulfill the requirements of the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman as required under the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended, and Departmental policy.

(3.1) "Ombudsman" means any designated representative of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman Program; provided that the representative, whether he is paid for or volunteers his ombudsman services, shall be qualified and designated by the Office to perform the duties of an ombudsman as specified by the Department in rules and in accordance with the provisions of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended.

(4) "Participant" means an older person aged 60 or over or an adult with a disability aged 18 through 59 who is eligible for services under any of the following:

(i) A medical assistance waiver administered by the State.

(ii) A managed care organization providing care coordination and other services to seniors and persons with disabilities.

(5) "Resident" means an older person aged 60 or over or an adult with a disability aged 18 through 59 who resides in a long-term care facility.

(c) Ombudsman; rules. The Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman shall be composed of at least one full-time ombudsman and shall include a system of designated regional long term care ombudsman programs. Each regional program shall be designated by the State Long Term Care Ombudsman as a subdivision of the Office and any representative of a regional program shall be treated as a representative of the Office.

The Department, in consultation with the Office, shall promulgate administrative rules in accordance with the provisions of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended, to establish the responsibilities of the Department and the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman and the designated regional Ombudsman programs. The administrative rules shall include the responsibility of the Office and designated regional programs to investigate and resolve complaints made by or on behalf of residents of long term care facilities, supportive living facilities, and assisted living and shared housing establishments, and participants residing in their own homes or community-based settings, including the option to serve residents and participants under the age of 60, relating to actions, inaction, or decisions of providers, or their representatives, of such facilities and establishments, of public agencies, or of social services agencies, which may adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of such residents and participants. The Office and designated regional programs may represent all residents and participants, but are not required by this Act to represent persons under 60 years of age, except to the extent required by federal law. When necessary and appropriate, representatives of the Office shall refer complaints to the appropriate regulatory State agency. The Department, in consultation with the Office, shall cooperate with the Department of Human Services and other State agencies in providing information and training to designated regional long term care ombudsman programs about the appropriate assessment and treatment (including information about appropriate supportive services, treatment options, and assessment of rehabilitation potential) of the participants they serve.

The State Long Term Care Ombudsman and all other ombudsmen, as defined in paragraph (3.1) of subsection (b) must submit to background checks under the Health Care Worker Background Check Act and receive training, as prescribed by the Illinois Department on Aging, before visiting facilities, private homes, or community-based settings. The training must include information specific to assisted living establishments, supportive living facilities, shared housing establishments, private homes, and community-based settings and to the rights of residents and participants guaranteed under the corresponding Acts and administrative rules.

(c-5) Consumer Choice Information Reports. The Office shall:

(1) In collaboration with the Attorney General, create a Consumer Choice Information Report form to be completed by all licensed long term care facilities to aid Illinoisans and their families in making informed choices about long term care. The Office shall create a Consumer Choice Information Report for each type of licensed long term care facility. The Office shall collaborate with the Attorney General and the Department of Human Services to create a Consumer Choice Information Report form for facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act.

(2) Develop a database of Consumer Choice Information Reports completed by licensed long term care facilities that includes information in the following consumer categories:

(A) Medical Care, Services, and Treatment.

(B) Special Services and Amenities.

(C) Staffing.

(D) Facility Statistics and Resident Demographics.

(E) Ownership and Administration.

(F) Safety and Security.

(G) Meals and Nutrition.

(H) Rooms, Furnishings, and Equipment.

(I) Family, Volunteer, and Visitation Provisions.

(3) Make this information accessible to the public, including on the Internet by means of a hyperlink labeled "Resident's Right to Know" on the Office's World Wide Web home page. Information about facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act shall be made accessible to the public by the Department of Human Services, including on the Internet by means of a hyperlink labeled "Resident's and Families' Right to Know" on the Department of Human Services' "For Customers" website.

(4) Have the authority, with the Attorney General, to verify that information provided by a facility is accurate.

(5) Request a new report from any licensed facility whenever it deems necessary.

(6) Include in the Office's Consumer Choice Information Report for each type of licensed long term care facility additional information on each licensed long term care facility in the State of Illinois, including information regarding each facility's compliance with the relevant State and federal statutes, rules, and standards; customer satisfaction surveys; and information generated from quality measures developed by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

(d) Access and visitation rights.

(1) In accordance with subparagraphs (A) and (E) of paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of Section 1819 and subparagraphs (A) and (E) of paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of Section 1919 of the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended (42 U.S.C. 1395i-3 (c)(3)(A) and (E) and 42 U.S.C. 1396r (c)(3)(A) and (E)), and Section 712 of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended (42 U.S.C. 3058f), a long term care facility, supportive living facility, assisted living establishment, and shared housing establishment must:

(i) permit immediate access to any resident, regardless of age, by a designated ombudsman;

(ii) permit representatives of the Office, with the permission of the resident's legal representative or legal guardian, to examine a resident's clinical and other records, regardless of the age of the resident, and if a resident is unable to consent to such review, and has no legal guardian, permit representatives of the Office appropriate access, as defined by the Department, in consultation with the Office, in administrative rules, to the resident's records; and

(iii) permit a representative of the Program to communicate privately and without restriction with any participant who consents to the communication regardless of the consent of, or withholding of consent by, a legal guardian or an agent named in a power of attorney executed by the participant.

(2) Each long term care facility, supportive living facility, assisted living establishment, and shared housing establishment shall display, in multiple, conspicuous public places within the facility accessible to both visitors and residents and in an easily readable format, the address and phone number of the Office of the Long Term Care Ombudsman, in a manner prescribed by the Office.

(e) Immunity. An ombudsman or any representative of the Office participating in the good faith performance of his or her official duties shall have immunity from any liability (civil, criminal or otherwise) in any proceedings (civil, criminal or otherwise) brought as a consequence of the performance of his official duties.

(f) Business offenses.

(1) No person shall:

(i) Intentionally prevent, interfere with, or attempt to impede in any way any representative of the Office in the performance of his official duties under this Act and the Older Americans Act of 1965; or

(ii) Intentionally retaliate, discriminate against, or effect reprisals against any long term care facility resident or employee for contacting or providing information to any representative of the Office.

(2) A violation of this Section is a business offense, punishable by a fine not to exceed $501.

(3) The State Long Term Care Ombudsman shall notify the State's Attorney of the county in which the long term care facility, supportive living facility, or assisted living or shared housing establishment is located, or the Attorney General, of any violations of this Section.

(g) Confidentiality of records and identities. The Department shall establish procedures for the disclosure by the State Ombudsman or the regional ombudsmen entities of files maintained by the program. The procedures shall provide that the files and records may be disclosed only at the discretion of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman or the person designated by the State Ombudsman to disclose the files and records, and the procedures shall prohibit the disclosure of the identity of any complainant, resident, participant, witness, or employee of a long term care provider unless:

(1) the complainant, resident, participant, witness, or employee of a long term care provider or his or her legal representative consents to the disclosure and the consent is in writing;

(2) the complainant, resident, participant, witness, or employee of a long term care provider gives consent orally; and the consent is documented contemporaneously in writing in accordance with such requirements as the Department shall establish; or

(3) the disclosure is required by court order.

(h) Legal representation. The Attorney General shall provide legal representation to any representative of the Office against whom suit or other legal action is brought in connection with the performance of the representative's official duties, in accordance with the State Employee Indemnification Act.

(i) Treatment by prayer and spiritual means. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize or require the medical supervision, regulation or control of remedial care or treatment of any resident in a long term care facility operated exclusively by and for members or adherents of any church or religious denomination the tenets and practices of which include reliance solely upon spiritual means through prayer for healing.

(j) The Long Term Care Ombudsman Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury to receive moneys for the express purposes of this Section. All interest earned on moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. Moneys contained in the fund shall be used to support the purposes of this Section.

(k) Each Regional Ombudsman may, in accordance with rules promulgated by the Office, establish a multi-disciplinary team to act in an advisory role for the purpose of providing professional knowledge and expertise in handling complex abuse, neglect, and advocacy issues involving participants. Each multi-disciplinary team may consist of one or more volunteer representatives from any combination of at least 7 members from the following professions: banking or finance; disability care; health care; pharmacology; law; law enforcement; emergency responder; mental health care; clergy; coroner or medical examiner; substance abuse; domestic violence; sexual assault; or other related fields. To support multi-disciplinary teams in this role, law enforcement agencies and coroners or medical examiners shall supply records as may be requested in particular cases. The Regional Ombudsman, or his or her designee, of the area in which the multi-disciplinary team is created shall be the facilitator of the multi-disciplinary team.

(Source: P.A. 98-380, eff. 8-16-13; 98-989, eff. 1-1-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-712, eff. 8-5-16.)

Section 35. The Child Death Review Team Act is amended by changing Sections 15, 20, 25, and 40 as follows:

(20 ILCS 515/15)

Sec. 15. Child death review teams; establishment.

(a) The Inspector General of the Department, in consultation and cooperation with the Executive Council, law enforcement, and other professionals who work in the field of investigating, treating, or preventing child abuse or neglect in that subregion, shall appoint members to a child death review team in each of the Department's administrative subregions of the State outside Cook County and at least one child death review team in Cook County. The members of a team shall be appointed for 2-year terms and shall be eligible for reappointment upon the expiration of the terms. The Inspector General of the Department must fill any vacancy in a team within 60 days after that vacancy occurs.

(b) Each child death review team shall consist of at least one member from each of the following categories:

(1) Pediatrician or other physician knowledgeable about child abuse and neglect.

(2) Representative of the Department.

(3) State's attorney or State's attorney's representative.

(4) Representative of a local law enforcement agency.

(5) Psychologist or psychiatrist.

(6) Representative of a local health department.

(7) Representative of a school district or other education or child care interests.

(8) Medical examiner Coroner or forensic pathologist.

(9) Representative of a child welfare agency or child advocacy organization.

(10) Representative of a local hospital, trauma center, or provider of emergency medical services.

(11) Representative of the Department of State Police.

(12) Representative of the Department of Public Health.

Each child death review team may make recommendations to the Inspector General of the Department concerning additional appointments. In the event of a disagreement, the Executive Council's decision shall control.

Each child death review team member must have demonstrated experience and an interest in investigating, treating, or preventing child abuse or neglect.

(c) Each child death review team shall select a chairperson and vice-chairperson from among its members. The chairperson shall also serve on the Illinois Child Death Review Teams Executive Council. The vice-chairperson may also serve on the Illinois Child Death Review Teams Executive Council, but shall not have a vote on child death review team business unless the chairperson is unable to attend a meeting.

(d) The child death review teams shall be funded under a separate line item in the Department's annual budget.

(e) The Department shall provide at least one full-time Statewide Department of Children and Family Services Liaison who shall attend all child death review team meetings, all Executive meetings, all Executive Council meetings, and meetings between the Director and the Executive Council.

(Source: P.A. 100-397, eff. 1-1-18; 100-1122, eff. 11-27-18.)

(20 ILCS 515/20)

Sec. 20. Reviews of child deaths.

(a) Every child death shall be reviewed by the team in the subregion which has primary case management responsibility. The deceased child must be one of the following:

(1) A youth in care.

(2) The subject of an open service case maintained by the Department.

(3) The subject of a pending child abuse or neglect investigation.

(4) A child who was the subject of an abuse or neglect investigation at any time during the 12 months preceding the child's death.

(5) Any other child whose death is reported to the State central register as a result of alleged child abuse or neglect which report is subsequently indicated.

A child death review team may, at its discretion, review other sudden, unexpected, or unexplained child deaths, cases of serious or fatal injuries to a child identified under the Children's Advocacy Center Act, and all unfounded child death cases.

(b) A child death review team's purpose in conducting reviews of child deaths is to do the following:

(1) Assist in determining the cause and manner of the child's death, when requested.

(2) Evaluate means by which the death might have been prevented.

(3) Report its findings to appropriate agencies and make recommendations that may help to reduce the number of child deaths caused by abuse or neglect.

(4) Promote continuing education for professionals involved in investigating, treating, and preventing child abuse and neglect as a means of preventing child deaths due to abuse or neglect.

(5) Make specific recommendations to the Director and the Inspector General of the Department concerning the prevention of child deaths due to abuse or neglect and the establishment of protocols for investigating child deaths.

(c) A child death review team shall review a child death as soon as practical and not later than 90 days following the completion by the Department of the investigation of the death under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. When there has been no investigation by the Department, the child death review team shall review a child's death within 90 days after obtaining the information necessary to complete the review from the coroner, pathologist, medical examiner, or law enforcement agency, depending on the nature of the case. A child death review team shall meet at least once in each calendar quarter.

(d) The Director shall, within 90 days, review and reply to recommendations made by a team under item (5) of subsection (b). With respect to each recommendation made by a team, the Director shall submit his or her reply both to the chairperson of that team and to the chairperson of the Executive Council. The Director's reply to each recommendation must include a statement as to whether the Director intends to implement the recommendation. The Director shall meet in person with the Executive Council at least every 60 days to discuss recommendations and the Department's responses.

The Director shall implement recommendations as feasible and appropriate and shall respond in writing to explain the implementation or nonimplementation of the recommendations.

(e) Within 90 days after the Director submits a reply with respect to a recommendation as required by subsection (d), the Director must submit an additional report that sets forth in detail the way, if any, in which the Director will implement the recommendation and the schedule for implementing the recommendation. The Director shall submit this report to the chairperson of the team that made the recommendation and to the chairperson of the Executive Council.

(f) Within 180 days after the Director submits a report under subsection (e) concerning the implementation of a recommendation, the Director shall submit a further report to the chairperson of the team that made the recommendation and to the chairperson of the Executive Council. This report shall set forth the specific changes in the Department's policies and procedures that have been made in response to the recommendation.

(Source: P.A. 100-159, eff. 8-18-17; 100-1122, eff. 11-27-18.)

(20 ILCS 515/25)

Sec. 25. Team access to information.

(a) No later than 21 days prior to a child death review team meeting, the Department shall provide to a child death review team and its staff all records and information in the Department's possession that are relevant to the team's review of a child death, including records and information concerning previous reports or investigations of suspected child abuse or neglect, all records and information from the Statewide Automated Child Welfare Information System or from any other database maintained by the Department, and all documents, including, but not limited to, police reports and medical information.

(b) A child death review team shall have access to all records and information that are relevant to its review of a child death and in the possession of a State or local governmental agency, including, but not limited to, information gained through the Child Advocacy Center protocol for cases of serious or fatal injury to a child. These records and information include, without limitation, birth certificates, all relevant medical and mental health records, records of law enforcement agency investigations, records of coroner or medical examiner investigations, records of the Department of Corrections and Department of Juvenile Justice concerning a person's parole or aftercare release, records of a probation and court services department, and records of a social services agency that provided services to the child or the child's family.

(c) Child death review team staff must have full access to the Statewide Automated Child Welfare Information System, any other child welfare database maintained by the Department, and any child death certificates held by the Office of Vital Records within the Department of Public Health.

(Source: P.A. 100-1122, eff. 11-27-18.)

(20 ILCS 515/40)

Sec. 40. Illinois Child Death Review Teams Executive Council.

(a) The Illinois Child Death Review Teams Executive Council, consisting of the chairpersons of the 9 child death review teams in Illinois, is the coordinating and oversight body for child death review teams and activities in Illinois. The vice-chairperson of a child death review team, as designated by the chairperson, may serve as a back-up member or an alternate member of the Executive Council, if the chairperson of the child death review team is unavailable to serve on the Executive Council. The Inspector General of the Department, ex officio, is a non-voting member of the Executive Council. The Inspector General of the Department may appoint to the Executive Council any additional ex-officio members deemed necessary. Persons with expertise needed by the Executive Council may be invited to meetings. The Executive Council must select from its members a chairperson and a vice-chairperson, each to serve a 2-year, renewable term.

The Executive Council must meet at least 4 times during each calendar year. At each such meeting, in addition to any other matters under consideration, the Executive Council shall review all replies and reports received from the Director pursuant to subsections (d), (e), and (f) of Section 20 since the Executive Council's previous meeting. The Executive Council's review must include consideration of the Director's proposed manner of and schedule for implementing each recommendation made by a child death review team.

(b) The Department must provide or arrange for the staff support necessary for the Executive Council to carry out its duties. This includes a full-time Executive Director and support staff person. The Inspector General of the Department, in cooperation and consultation with the Executive Council, shall appoint, reappoint, and remove team members. In the event of a disagreement, the Executive Council's decision shall control. From funds available, the Director may select from a list of 2 or more candidates recommended by the Executive Council to serve as the Child Death Review Teams Executive Director. The Child Death Review Teams Executive Director shall oversee the operations of the child death review teams and shall report directly to the Executive Council.

(c) The Executive Council has, but is not limited to, the following duties:

(1) To serve as the voice of child death review teams in Illinois.

(2) To oversee the regional teams in order to ensure that the teams' work is coordinated and in compliance with the statutes and the operating protocol.

(3) To ensure that the data, results, findings, and recommendations of the teams are adequately used to make any necessary changes in the policies, procedures, and statutes in order to protect children in a timely manner.

(4) To collaborate with the General Assembly, the Department, and others in order to develop any legislation needed to prevent child fatalities and to protect children.

(5) To assist in the development of quarterly and annual reports based on the work and the findings of the teams.

(6) To ensure that the regional teams' review processes are standardized in order to convey data, findings, and recommendations in a usable format.

(7) To serve as a link with child death review teams throughout the country and to participate in national child death review team activities.

(8) To develop an annual statewide symposium to update the knowledge and skills of child death review team members and to promote the exchange of information between teams.

(9) To provide the child death review teams with the most current information and practices concerning child death review and related topics.

(10) To perform any other functions necessary to enhance the capability of the child death review teams to reduce and prevent child injuries and fatalities.

(c-5) The Executive Council shall prepare an annual report. The report must include, but need not be limited to, (i) each recommendation made by a child death review team pursuant to item (5) of subsection (b) of Section 20 during the period covered by the report, (ii) the Director's proposed schedule for implementing each such recommendation, and (iii) a description of the specific changes in the Department's policies and procedures that have been made in response to the recommendation. The Executive Council shall send a copy of its annual report to each of the following:

(1) The Governor.

(2) Each member of the Senate or the House of Representatives, county coroners and medical examiners, and State's Attorneys, in the sole discretion of the Executive Council.

(3) Each member of each child death review team in the State.

(d) In any instance when a child death review team does not operate in accordance with established protocol, the Director, in consultation and cooperation with the Executive Council, must take any necessary actions to bring the team into compliance with the protocol.

(Source: P.A. 100-1122, eff. 11-27-18.)

Section 40. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Section 1-17 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/1-17)

Sec. 1-17. Inspector General.

(a) Nature and purpose. It is the express intent of the General Assembly to ensure the health, safety, and financial condition of individuals receiving services in this State due to mental illness, developmental disability, or both by protecting those persons from acts of abuse, neglect, or both by service providers. To that end, the Office of the Inspector General for the Department of Human Services is created to investigate and report upon allegations of the abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals receiving services within mental health facilities, developmental disabilities facilities, and community agencies operated, licensed, funded, or certified by the Department of Human Services, but not licensed or certified by any other State agency.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this Section:

"Adult student with a disability" means an adult student, age 18 through 21, inclusive, with an Individual Education Program, other than a resident of a facility licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services in accordance with the Child Care Act of 1969. For purposes of this definition, "through age 21, inclusive", means through the day before the student's 22nd birthday.

"Agency" or "community agency" means (i) a community agency licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service, or (ii) a program licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service.

"Aggravating circumstance" means a factor that is attendant to a finding and that tends to compound or increase the culpability of the accused.

"Allegation" means an assertion, complaint, suspicion, or incident involving any of the following conduct by an employee, facility, or agency against an individual or individuals: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Day" means working day, unless otherwise specified.

"Deflection" means a situation in which an individual is presented for admission to a facility or agency, and the facility staff or agency staff do not admit the individual. "Deflection" includes triage, redirection, and denial of admission.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"Developmental disability" means "developmental disability" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Egregious neglect" means a finding of neglect as determined by the Inspector General that (i) represents a gross failure to adequately provide for, or a callused indifference to, the health, safety, or medical needs of an individual and (ii) results in an individual's death or other serious deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition.

"Employee" means any person who provides services at the facility or agency on-site or off-site. The service relationship can be with the individual or with the facility or agency. Also, "employee" includes any employee or contractual agent of the Department of Human Services or the community agency involved in providing or monitoring or administering mental health or developmental disability services. This includes but is not limited to: owners, operators, payroll personnel, contractors, subcontractors, and volunteers.

"Facility" or "State-operated facility" means a mental health facility or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department.

"Financial exploitation" means taking unjust advantage of an individual's assets, property, or financial resources through deception, intimidation, or conversion for the employee's, facility's, or agency's own advantage or benefit.

"Finding" means the Office of Inspector General's determination regarding whether an allegation is substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

"Health Care Worker Registry" or "Registry" means the Health Care Worker Registry under the Health Care Worker Background Check Act.

"Individual" means any person receiving mental health service, developmental disabilities service, or both from a facility or agency, while either on-site or off-site.

"Mental abuse" means the use of demeaning, intimidating, or threatening words, signs, gestures, or other actions by an employee about an individual and in the presence of an individual or individuals that results in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, or could have resulted in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, for any individual present.

"Mental illness" means "mental illness" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mentally ill" means having a mental illness.

"Mitigating circumstance" means a condition that (i) is attendant to a finding, (ii) does not excuse or justify the conduct in question, but (iii) may be considered in evaluating the severity of the conduct, the culpability of the accused, or both the severity of the conduct and the culpability of the accused.

"Neglect" means an employee's, agency's, or facility's failure to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance and that, as a consequence, (i) causes an individual pain, injury, or emotional distress, (ii) results in either an individual's maladaptive behavior or the deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition, or (iii) places the individual's health or safety at substantial risk.

"Person with a developmental disability" means a person having a developmental disability.

"Physical abuse" means an employee's non-accidental and inappropriate contact with an individual that causes bodily harm. "Physical abuse" includes actions that cause bodily harm as a result of an employee directing an individual or person to physically abuse another individual.

"Recommendation" means an admonition, separate from a finding, that requires action by the facility, agency, or Department to correct a systemic issue, problem, or deficiency identified during an investigation.

"Required reporter" means any employee who suspects, witnesses, or is informed of an allegation of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Secretary" means the Chief Administrative Officer of the Department.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual contact or intimate physical contact between an employee and an individual, including an employee's coercion or encouragement of an individual to engage in sexual behavior that results in sexual contact, intimate physical contact, sexual behavior, or intimate physical behavior. Sexual abuse also includes (i) an employee's actions that result in the sending or showing of sexually explicit images to an individual via computer, cellular phone, electronic mail, portable electronic device, or other media with or without contact with the individual or (ii) an employee's posting of sexually explicit images of an individual online or elsewhere whether or not there is contact with the individual.

"Sexually explicit images" includes, but is not limited to, any material which depicts nudity, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse, or which contains explicit and detailed verbal descriptions or narrative accounts of sexual excitement, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse.

"Substantiated" means there is a preponderance of the evidence to support the allegation.

"Unfounded" means there is no credible evidence to support the allegation.

"Unsubstantiated" means there is credible evidence, but less than a preponderance of evidence to support the allegation.

(c) Appointment. The Governor shall appoint, and the Senate shall confirm, an Inspector General. The Inspector General shall be appointed for a term of 4 years and shall function within the Department of Human Services and report to the Secretary and the Governor.

(d) Operation and appropriation. The Inspector General shall function independently within the Department with respect to the operations of the Office, including the performance of investigations and issuance of findings and recommendations. The appropriation for the Office of Inspector General shall be separate from the overall appropriation for the Department.

(e) Powers and duties. The Inspector General shall investigate reports of suspected mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals in any mental health or developmental disabilities facility or agency and shall have authority to take immediate action to prevent any one or more of the following from happening to individuals under its jurisdiction: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. Upon written request of an agency of this State, the Inspector General may assist another agency of the State in investigating reports of the abuse, neglect, or abuse and neglect of persons with mental illness, persons with developmental disabilities, or persons with both. To comply with the requirements of subsection (k) of this Section, the Inspector General shall also review all reportable deaths for which there is no allegation of abuse or neglect. Nothing in this Section shall preempt any duties of the Medical Review Board set forth in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The Inspector General shall have no authority to investigate alleged violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. Allegations of misconduct under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act shall be referred to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General for investigation.

(f) Limitations. The Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation within an agency or facility if that investigation would be redundant to or interfere with an investigation conducted by another State agency. The Inspector General shall have no supervision over, or involvement in, the routine programmatic, licensing, funding, or certification operations of the Department. Nothing in this subsection limits investigations by the Department that may otherwise be required by law or that may be necessary in the Department's capacity as central administrative authority responsible for the operation of the State's mental health and developmental disabilities facilities.

(g) Rulemaking authority. The Inspector General shall promulgate rules establishing minimum requirements for reporting allegations as well as for initiating, conducting, and completing investigations based upon the nature of the allegation or allegations. The rules shall clearly establish that if 2 or more State agencies could investigate an allegation, the Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation that would be redundant to, or interfere with, an investigation conducted by another State agency. The rules shall further clarify the method and circumstances under which the Office of Inspector General may interact with the licensing, funding, or certification units of the Department in preventing further occurrences of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, and financial exploitation.

(h) Training programs. The Inspector General shall (i) establish a comprehensive program to ensure that every person authorized to conduct investigations receives ongoing training relative to investigation techniques, communication skills, and the appropriate means of interacting with persons receiving treatment for mental illness, developmental disability, or both mental illness and developmental disability, and (ii) establish and conduct periodic training programs for facility and agency employees concerning the prevention and reporting of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. The Inspector General shall further ensure (i) every person authorized to conduct investigations at community agencies receives ongoing training in Title 59, Parts 115, 116, and 119 of the Illinois Administrative Code, and (ii) every person authorized to conduct investigations shall receive ongoing training in Title 59, Part 50 of the Illinois Administrative Code. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to prevent the Office of Inspector General from conducting any other training as determined by the Inspector General to be necessary or helpful.

(i) Duty to cooperate.

(1) The Inspector General shall at all times be granted access to any facility or agency for the purpose of investigating any allegation, conducting unannounced site visits, monitoring compliance with a written response, or completing any other statutorily assigned duty. The Inspector General shall conduct unannounced site visits to each facility at least annually for the purpose of reviewing and making recommendations on systemic issues relative to preventing, reporting, investigating, and responding to all of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation.

(2) Any employee who fails to cooperate with an Office of the Inspector General investigation is in violation of this Act. Failure to cooperate with an investigation includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) creating and transmitting a false report to the Office of the Inspector General hotline, (ii) providing false information to an Office of the Inspector General Investigator during an investigation, (iii) colluding with other employees to cover up evidence, (iv) colluding with other employees to provide false information to an Office of the Inspector General investigator, (v) destroying evidence, (vi) withholding evidence, or (vii) otherwise obstructing an Office of the Inspector General investigation. Additionally, any employee who, during an unannounced site visit or written response compliance check, fails to cooperate with requests from the Office of the Inspector General is in violation of this Act.

(j) Subpoena powers. The Inspector General shall have the power to subpoena witnesses and compel the production of all documents and physical evidence relating to his or her investigations and any hearings authorized by this Act. This subpoena power shall not extend to persons or documents of a labor organization or its representatives insofar as the persons are acting in a representative capacity to an employee whose conduct is the subject of an investigation or the documents relate to that representation. Any person who otherwise fails to respond to a subpoena or who knowingly provides false information to the Office of the Inspector General by subpoena during an investigation is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(k) Reporting allegations and deaths.

(1) Allegations. If an employee witnesses, is told of, or has reason to believe an incident of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred, the employee, agency, or facility shall report the allegation by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline according to the agency's or facility's procedures, but in no event later than 4 hours after the initial discovery of the incident, allegation, or suspicion of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. A required reporter as defined in subsection (b) of this Section who knowingly or intentionally fails to comply with these reporting requirements is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Deaths. Absent an allegation, a required reporter shall, within 24 hours after initial discovery, report by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline each of the following:

(i) Any death of an individual occurring within 14 calendar days after discharge or transfer of the individual from a residential program or facility.

(ii) Any death of an individual occurring within 24 hours after deflection from a residential program or facility.

(iii) Any other death of an individual occurring at an agency or facility or at any Department-funded site.

(3) Retaliation. It is a violation of this Act for any employee or administrator of an agency or facility to take retaliatory action against an employee who acts in good faith in conformance with his or her duties as a required reporter.

(l) Reporting to law enforcement.

(1) Reporting criminal acts. Within 24 hours after determining that there is credible evidence indicating that a criminal act may have been committed or that special expertise may be required in an investigation, the Inspector General shall notify the Department of State Police or other appropriate law enforcement authority, or ensure that such notification is made. The Department of State Police shall investigate any report from a State-operated facility indicating a possible murder, sexual assault, or other felony by an employee. All investigations conducted by the Inspector General shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(2) Reporting allegations of adult students with disabilities. Upon receipt of a reportable allegation regarding an adult student with a disability, the Department's Office of the Inspector General shall determine whether the allegation meets the criteria for the Domestic Abuse Program under the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act. If the allegation is reportable to that program, the Office of the Inspector General shall initiate an investigation. If the allegation is not reportable to the Domestic Abuse Program, the Office of the Inspector General shall make an expeditious referral to the respective law enforcement entity. If the alleged victim is already receiving services from the Department, the Office of the Inspector General shall also make a referral to the respective Department of Human Services' Division or Bureau.

(m) Investigative reports. Upon completion of an investigation, the Office of Inspector General shall issue an investigative report identifying whether the allegations are substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded. Within 10 business days after the transmittal of a completed investigative report substantiating an allegation, finding an allegation is unsubstantiated, or if a recommendation is made, the Inspector General shall provide the investigative report on the case to the Secretary and to the director of the facility or agency where any one or more of the following occurred: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. The director of the facility or agency shall be responsible for maintaining the confidentiality of the investigative report consistent with State and federal law. In a substantiated case, the investigative report shall include any mitigating or aggravating circumstances that were identified during the investigation. If the case involves substantiated neglect, the investigative report shall also state whether egregious neglect was found. An investigative report may also set forth recommendations. All investigative reports prepared by the Office of the Inspector General shall be considered confidential and shall not be released except as provided by the law of this State or as required under applicable federal law. Unsubstantiated and unfounded reports shall not be disclosed except as allowed under Section 6 of the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act. Raw data used to compile the investigative report shall not be subject to release unless required by law or a court order. "Raw data used to compile the investigative report" includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: the initial complaint, witness statements, photographs, investigator's notes, police reports, or incident reports. If the allegations are substantiated, the victim, the victim's guardian, and the accused shall be provided with a redacted copy of the investigative report. Death reports where there was no allegation of abuse or neglect shall only be released pursuant to applicable State or federal law or a valid court order. Unredacted investigative reports, as well as raw data, may be shared with a local law enforcement entity, a State's Attorney's office, or a county medical examiner's coroner's office upon written request.

(n) Written responses, clarification requests, and reconsideration requests.

(1) Written responses. Within 30 calendar days from receipt of a substantiated investigative report or an investigative report which contains recommendations, absent a reconsideration request, the facility or agency shall file a written response that addresses, in a concise and reasoned manner, the actions taken to: (i) protect the individual; (ii) prevent recurrences; and (iii) eliminate the problems identified. The response shall include the implementation and completion dates of such actions. If the written response is not filed within the allotted 30 calendar day period, the Secretary shall determine the appropriate corrective action to be taken.

(2) Requests for clarification. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of Inspector General clarify the finding or findings for which clarification is sought.

(3) Requests for reconsideration. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of the Inspector General reconsider the finding or findings or the recommendations. A request for reconsideration shall be subject to a multi-layer review and shall include at least one reviewer who did not participate in the investigation or approval of the original investigative report. After the multi-layer review process has been completed, the Inspector General shall make the final determination on the reconsideration request. The investigation shall be reopened if the reconsideration determination finds that additional information is needed to complete the investigative record.

(o) Disclosure of the finding by the Inspector General. The Inspector General shall disclose the finding of an investigation to the following persons: (i) the Governor, (ii) the Secretary, (iii) the director of the facility or agency, (iv) the alleged victims and their guardians, (v) the complainant, and (vi) the accused. This information shall include whether the allegations were deemed substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

(p) Secretary review. Upon review of the Inspector General's investigative report and any agency's or facility's written response, the Secretary shall accept or reject the written response and notify the Inspector General of that determination. The Secretary may further direct that other administrative action be taken, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) additional site visits, (ii) training, (iii) provision of technical assistance relative to administrative needs, licensure, or certification, or (iv) the imposition of appropriate sanctions.

(q) Action by facility or agency. Within 30 days of the date the Secretary approves the written response or directs that further administrative action be taken, the facility or agency shall provide an implementation report to the Inspector General that provides the status of the action taken. The facility or agency shall be allowed an additional 30 days to send notice of completion of the action or to send an updated implementation report. If the action has not been completed within the additional 30-day period, the facility or agency shall send updated implementation reports every 60 days until completion. The Inspector General shall conduct a review of any implementation plan that takes more than 120 days after approval to complete, and shall monitor compliance through a random review of approved written responses, which may include, but are not limited to: (i) site visits, (ii) telephone contact, and (iii) requests for additional documentation evidencing compliance.

(r) Sanctions. Sanctions, if imposed by the Secretary under Subdivision (p)(iv) of this Section, shall be designed to prevent further acts of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation or some combination of one or more of those acts at a facility or agency, and may include any one or more of the following:

(1) Appointment of on-site monitors.

(2) Transfer or relocation of an individual or individuals.

(3) Closure of units.

(4) Termination of any one or more of the following: (i) Department licensing, (ii) funding, or (iii) certification.

The Inspector General may seek the assistance of the Illinois Attorney General or the office of any State's Attorney in implementing sanctions.

(s) Health Care Worker Registry.

(1) Reporting to the Registry. The Inspector General shall report to the Department of Public Health's Health Care Worker Registry, a public registry, the identity and finding of each employee of a facility or agency against whom there is a final investigative report containing a substantiated allegation of physical or sexual abuse, financial exploitation, or egregious neglect of an individual.

(2) Notice to employee. Prior to reporting the name of an employee, the employee shall be notified of the Department's obligation to report and shall be granted an opportunity to request an administrative hearing, the sole purpose of which is to determine if the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the Registry. Notice to the employee shall contain a clear and concise statement of the grounds on which the report to the Registry is based, offer the employee an opportunity for a hearing, and identify the process for requesting such a hearing. Notice is sufficient if provided by certified mail to the employee's last known address. If the employee fails to request a hearing within 30 days from the date of the notice, the Inspector General shall report the name of the employee to the Registry. Nothing in this subdivision (s)(2) shall diminish or impair the rights of a person who is a member of a collective bargaining unit under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or under any other federal labor statute.

(3) Registry hearings. If the employee requests an administrative hearing, the employee shall be granted an opportunity to appear before an administrative law judge to present reasons why the employee's name should not be reported to the Registry. The Department shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the Registry. After considering all the evidence presented, the administrative law judge shall make a recommendation to the Secretary as to whether the substantiated finding warrants reporting the name of the employee to the Registry. The Secretary shall render the final decision. The Department and the employee shall have the right to request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(4) Testimony at Registry hearings. A person who makes a report or who investigates a report under this Act shall testify fully in any judicial proceeding resulting from such a report, as to any evidence of abuse or neglect, or the cause thereof. No evidence shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the alleged perpetrator of abuse or neglect, or the individual alleged as the victim in the report, and the person making or investigating the report. Testimony at hearings is exempt from the confidentiality requirements of subsection (f) of Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(5) Employee's rights to collateral action. No reporting to the Registry shall occur and no hearing shall be set or proceed if an employee notifies the Inspector General in writing, including any supporting documentation, that he or she is formally contesting an adverse employment action resulting from a substantiated finding by complaint filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission, or which otherwise seeks to enforce the employee's rights pursuant to any applicable collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken by an employer against an employee as a result of a finding of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or egregious neglect is overturned through an action filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission or under any applicable collective bargaining agreement and if that employee's name has already been sent to the Registry, the employee's name shall be removed from the Registry.

(6) Removal from Registry. At any time after the report to the Registry, but no more than once in any 12-month period, an employee may petition the Department in writing to remove his or her name from the Registry. Upon receiving notice of such request, the Inspector General shall conduct an investigation into the petition. Upon receipt of such request, an administrative hearing will be set by the Department. At the hearing, the employee shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that removal of the name from the Registry is in the public interest. The parties may jointly request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(t) Review of Administrative Decisions. The Department shall preserve a record of all proceedings at any formal hearing conducted by the Department involving Health Care Worker Registry hearings. Final administrative decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review pursuant to provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(u) Quality Care Board. There is created, within the Office of the Inspector General, a Quality Care Board to be composed of 7 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. One of the members shall be designated as chairman by the Governor. Of the initial appointments made by the Governor, 4 Board members shall each be appointed for a term of 4 years and 3 members shall each be appointed for a term of 2 years. Upon the expiration of each member's term, a successor shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. In the case of a vacancy in the office of any member, the Governor shall appoint a successor for the remainder of the unexpired term.

Members appointed by the Governor shall be qualified by professional knowledge or experience in the area of law, investigatory techniques, or in the area of care of the mentally ill or care of persons with developmental disabilities. Two members appointed by the Governor shall be persons with a disability or parents of persons with a disability. Members shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for expenses incurred in connection with the performance of their duties as members.

The Board shall meet quarterly, and may hold other meetings on the call of the chairman. Four members shall constitute a quorum allowing the Board to conduct its business. The Board may adopt rules and regulations it deems necessary to govern its own procedures.

The Board shall monitor and oversee the operations, policies, and procedures of the Inspector General to ensure the prompt and thorough investigation of allegations of neglect and abuse. In fulfilling these responsibilities, the Board may do the following:

(1) Provide independent, expert consultation to the Inspector General on policies and protocols for investigations of alleged abuse, neglect, or both abuse and neglect.

(2) Review existing regulations relating to the operation of facilities.

(3) Advise the Inspector General as to the content of training activities authorized under this Section.

(4) Recommend policies concerning methods for improving the intergovernmental relationships between the Office of the Inspector General and other State or federal offices.

(v) Annual report. The Inspector General shall provide to the General Assembly and the Governor, no later than January 1 of each year, a summary of reports and investigations made under this Act for the prior fiscal year with respect to individuals receiving mental health or developmental disabilities services. The report shall detail the imposition of sanctions, if any, and the final disposition of any corrective or administrative action directed by the Secretary. The summaries shall not contain any confidential or identifying information of any individual, but shall include objective data identifying any trends in the number of reported allegations, the timeliness of the Office of the Inspector General's investigations, and their disposition, for each facility and Department-wide, for the most recent 3-year time period. The report shall also identify, by facility, the staff-to-patient ratios taking account of direct care staff only. The report shall also include detailed recommended administrative actions and matters for consideration by the General Assembly.

(w) Program audit. The Auditor General shall conduct a program audit of the Office of the Inspector General on an as-needed basis, as determined by the Auditor General. The audit shall specifically include the Inspector General's compliance with the Act and effectiveness in investigating reports of allegations occurring in any facility or agency. The Auditor General shall conduct the program audit according to the provisions of the Illinois State Auditing Act and shall report its findings to the General Assembly no later than January 1 following the audit period.

(x) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to mean that an individual is a victim of abuse or neglect because of health care services appropriately provided or not provided by health care professionals.

(y) Nothing in this Section shall require a facility, including its employees, agents, medical staff members, and health care professionals, to provide a service to an individual in contravention of that individual's stated or implied objection to the provision of that service on the ground that that service conflicts with the individual's religious beliefs or practices, nor shall the failure to provide a service to an individual be considered abuse under this Section if the individual has objected to the provision of that service based on his or her religious beliefs or practices.

(Source: P.A. 100-313, eff. 8-24-17; 100-432, eff. 8-25-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-943, eff. 1-1-19; 100-991, eff. 8-20-18; 100-1098, eff. 8-26-18; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19.)

Section 45. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2310-236 and 2310-335 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-236)

Sec. 2310-236. Form of medical examiner's coroner's report; sudden unexpected infant death and sudden infant death syndrome.

(a) The Department shall develop and require the use of a form by medical examiners coroners in the case of a death of an infant in which the cause of death is sudden unexpected infant death or sudden infant death syndrome. The form shall contain, at minimum, the following information to be recorded after a preliminary investigation:

(1) The date and time of death.

(2) The county of occurrence and the county of the infant's residence.

(3) Relevant demographic details regarding the infant, such as date of birth and gender.

(4) Relevant demographic details regarding the parents or caretaker of the infant.

(5) Relevant details regarding the circumstances of the death, including, but not limited to, who found the infant, where, and what they did.

(6) Relevant details concerning where the infant was placed, by whom, and in what position.

(7) Any additional relevant details concerning the sleep environment that the infant was placed in and what environmental factors were present, to the extent that those factors are ascertainable.

(8) Relevant details concerning health hazards present in the sleep environment, to the extent that those health hazards are ascertainable.

(9) Relevant details concerning the infant's medical history and previous medical issues.

(10) Other information the Department may determine to be relevant and conducive to understanding and recording the circumstances of the infant's death.

(b) The Department shall publish current information concerning sudden unexpected infant death and sudden infant death syndrome.

(c) At least once every 5 years, the Department shall review the form and determine whether updates need to be made for effectiveness and relevancy.

(Source: P.A. 101-338, eff. 1-1-20.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-335) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.43)

Sec. 2310-335. Alzheimer's disease; exchange of information; autopsies.

(a) The Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards, and criteria for the collection, maintenance, and exchange of confidential personal and medical information necessary for the identification and evaluation of victims of Alzheimer's disease and related disorders and for the conduct of consultation, referral, and treatment through personal physicians, primary Alzheimer's centers, and regional Alzheimer's assistance centers provided for in the Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Act. These requirements shall include procedures for obtaining the necessary consent of a patient or guardian to the disclosure and exchange of that information among providers of services within an Alzheimer's disease assistance network and for the maintenance of the information in a centralized medical information system administered by a regional Alzheimer's center. Nothing in this Section requires disclosure or exchange of information pertaining to confidential communications between patients and therapists or disclosure or exchange of information contained within a therapist's personal notes.

(b) Any person identified as a victim of Alzheimer's disease or a related disorder under the Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Act shall be provided information regarding the critical role that autopsies play in the diagnosis and in the conduct of research into the cause and cure of Alzheimer's disease and related disorders. The person, or the spouse or guardian of the person, shall be encouraged to consent to an autopsy upon the person's death.

The Department shall provide information to medical examiners and coroners in this State regarding the importance of autopsies in the diagnosis and in the conduct of research into the causes and cure of Alzheimer's disease and related disorders. The Department shall also arrange for education and training programs that will enable medical examiners and coroners to conduct autopsies necessary for a proper diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease or related disorders as the cause or a contributing factor to a death.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00.)

Section 50. The Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2605-40 and 2605-380 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-40) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a-4)

Sec. 2605-40. Division of Forensic Services. The Division of Forensic Services shall exercise the following functions:

(1) (Blank).

(2) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested by law in the Department by Section 2605-300 of this Law.

(3) Provide assistance to local law enforcement agencies through training, management, and consultant services.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Exercise other duties that may be assigned by the Director in order to fulfill the responsibilities and achieve the purposes of the Department.

(6) Establish and operate a forensic science laboratory system, including a forensic toxicological laboratory service, for the purpose of testing specimens submitted by medical examiners coroners and other law enforcement officers in their efforts to determine whether alcohol, drugs, or poisonous or other toxic substances have been involved in deaths, accidents, or illness. Forensic toxicological laboratories shall be established in Springfield, Chicago, and elsewhere in the State as needed.

(6.5) Establish administrative rules in order to set forth standardized requirements for the disclosure of toxicology results and other relevant documents related to a toxicological analysis. These administrative rules are to be adopted to produce uniform and sufficient information to allow a proper, well-informed determination of the admissibility of toxicology evidence and to ensure that this evidence is presented competently. These administrative rules are designed to provide a minimum standard for compliance of toxicology evidence and is not intended to limit the production and discovery of material information. These administrative rules shall be submitted by the Department of State Police into the rulemaking process under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act on or before June 30, 2017.

(7) Subject to specific appropriations made for these purposes, establish and coordinate a system for providing accurate and expedited forensic science and other investigative and laboratory services to local law enforcement agencies and local State's Attorneys in aid of the investigation and trial of capital cases.

(Source: P.A. 101-378, eff. 1-1-20.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-380) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a-8)

Sec. 2605-380. Dental records. The Department shall do the following:

(1) Coordinate State participation in a national central repository for dental records of missing persons and unidentified dead bodies.

(2) Receive and file dental records submitted by county medical examiners and coroners from unidentified dead bodies and submitted by law enforcement agencies from persons reported missing for more than 30 days.

(3) Provide information from the file on possible identifications resulting from the comparison of dental records submitted with those records on file, to county medical examiners, coroners, and law enforcement agencies.

(4) Expunge the dental records of those missing persons who are found, and expunge from the file the dental records of missing persons who are positively identified as a result of comparisons made with this file or the files maintained by other states, territories, insular possessions of the United States, or the United States.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; 91-760, eff. 1-1-01.)

Section 55. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Sections 9 and 9.5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/9) (from Ch. 38, par. 206-9)

Sec. 9. (a) Every county medical examiner and coroner shall, in every death investigation where the identity of a dead body cannot be determined by visual means, fingerprints, or other identifying data, have a qualified dentist, as determined by the county medical examiner or coroner, conduct a dental examination of the dead body. If the county medical examiner or coroner, with the aid of the dental examination and other identifiers, is still unable to establish the identity of the dead body, the medical examiner or coroner shall forthwith submit the dental records to the Department.

(b) If a person reported missing has not been found within 30 days, the law enforcement agency to whom the person was reported missing shall, within the next 5 days, make all necessary efforts to locate and request from the family or next of kin of the missing person written consent to contact and receive from the dentist of the missing person that person's dental records and shall forthwith make every reasonable effort to acquire such records. Within 5 days of the receipt of the missing person's dental records, the law enforcement agency shall submit such records to the Department.

(c) The Department shall be the State central repository for all dental records submitted pursuant to this Section. The Department may promulgate rules for the form and manner of submission of dental records, reporting of the location or identification of persons for whom dental records have been submitted and other procedures for program operations.

(d) When a person who has been reported missing is located and that person's dental records have been submitted to the Department, the law enforcement agency which submitted that person's dental records to the Department shall report that fact to the Department and the Department shall expunge the dental records of that person from the Department's file. The Department shall also expunge from its files the dental records of those dead and missing persons who are positively identified as a result of comparisons made with its files, the files maintained by other states, territories, insular possessions of the United States, or the United States.

(Source: P.A. 84-255.)

(20 ILCS 2630/9.5)

Sec. 9.5. Material for DNA fingerprint analysis. Every county medical examiner and coroner shall provide to the Department a sample of dried blood and buccal specimens (tissue may be submitted if no uncontaminated blood or buccal specimens can be obtained) from a dead body for DNA fingerprint analysis if the Department notifies the medical examiner or coroner that the Department has determined that providing that sample may be useful for law enforcement purposes in a criminal investigation. In addition, if a local law enforcement agency notifies a county medical examiner or coroner that such a sample would be useful in a criminal examination, the county medical examiner or coroner shall provide a sample to the local law enforcement agency for submission to the Department.

(Source: P.A. 95-500, eff. 1-1-08.)

Section 60. The Human Skeletal Remains Protection Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3440/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 2663)

Sec. 3. Any person who discovers human skeletal remains subject to this Act shall promptly notify the medical examiner coroner. Any person who knowingly fails to report such a discovery within 48 hours is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor, unless such person has reasonable cause to believe that the medical examiner coroner had already been so notified. If the human skeletal remains appear to be from an unregistered grave, the medical examiner coroner shall promptly notify the Department of Natural Resources prior to their removal. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to apply to human skeletal remains subject to Division 3-3 of the Counties Code "An Act to revise the law in relation to coroners".

(Source: P.A. 100-695, eff. 8-3-18.)

Section 65. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 5d as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/5d) (from Ch. 120, par. 444d)

Sec. 5d. The Department is not required to furnish any bond nor to make a deposit for or pay any costs or fees of any court or officer thereof in any judicial proceedings under this Act. Whenever a certified copy of a judgment or order for attachment, issued from any court for the enforcement or collection of any liability created by this Act, is levied by any sheriff or medical examiner coroner upon any personal property, and such property is claimed by any person other than the judgment debtor or the defendant in the attachment, or is claimed by the judgment debtor or defendant in the attachment as exempt from enforcement of a judgment thereon by virtue of the exemption laws of this State, then the person making such claim shall give notice in writing of his or her claim and of his or her intention to prosecute the claim, to the sheriff or medical examiner coroner within 10 days after the making of the levy. On receiving such notice, the sheriff or medical examiner coroner shall proceed in accordance with Part 2 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure, as amended. The giving of such notice within the 10 day period is a condition precedent to any judicial action against the sheriff or medical examiner coroner for wrongfully levying, seizing or selling the property and any such person who fails to give such notice within that time is barred from bringing any judicial action against such sheriff or medical examiner coroner for injury or damages to or conversion of the property.

(Source: P.A. 83-1362.)

Section 70. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 19-55, 21-355, 21-385, 22-15, and 22-20 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/19-55)

Sec. 19-55. Sureties on collector's bonds. No chairman of the county board, clerk of the circuit court, county clerk, sheriff, deputy sheriff or medical examiner coroner shall be permitted to be a surety on the bond of a county, township or deputy collector or county treasurer.

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 631; P.A. 88-455.)

(35 ILCS 200/21-355)

Sec. 21-355. Amount of redemption. Any person desiring to redeem shall deposit an amount specified in this Section with the county clerk of the county in which the property is situated, in legal money of the United States, or by cashier's check, certified check, post office money order or money order issued by a financial institution insured by an agency or instrumentality of the United States, payable to the county clerk of the proper county. The deposit shall be deemed timely only if actually received in person at the county clerk's office prior to the close of business as defined in Section 3-2007 of the Counties Code on or before the expiration of the period of redemption or by United States mail with a post office cancellation mark dated not less than one day prior to the expiration of the period of redemption. The deposit shall be in an amount equal to the total of the following:

(a) the certificate amount, which shall include all tax principal, special assessments, interest and penalties paid by the tax purchaser together with costs and fees of sale and fees paid under Sections 21-295 and 21-315 through 21-335;

(b) the accrued penalty, computed through the date of redemption as a percentage of the certificate amount, as follows:

(1) if the redemption occurs on or before the expiration of 6 months from the date of sale, the certificate amount times the penalty bid at sale;

(2) if the redemption occurs after 6 months from the date of sale, and on or before the expiration of 12 months from the date of sale, the certificate amount times 2 times the penalty bid at sale;

(3) if the redemption occurs after 12 months from the date of sale and on or before the expiration of 18 months from the date of sale, the certificate amount times 3 times the penalty bid at sale;

(4) if the redemption occurs after 18 months from the date of sale and on or before the expiration of 24 months from the date of sale, the certificate amount times 4 times the penalty bid at sale;

(5) if the redemption occurs after 24 months from the date of sale and on or before the expiration of 30 months from the date of sale, the certificate amount times 5 times the penalty bid at sale;

(6) if the redemption occurs after 30 months from the date of sale and on or before the expiration of 36 months from the date of sale, the certificate amount times 6 times the penalty bid at sale.

In the event that the property to be redeemed has been purchased under Section 21-405, the penalty bid shall be 12% per penalty period as set forth in subparagraphs (1) through (6) of this subsection (b). The changes to this subdivision (b)(6) made by this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly are not a new enactment, but declaratory of existing law.

(c) The total of all taxes, special assessments, accrued interest on those taxes and special assessments and costs charged in connection with the payment of those taxes or special assessments, which have been paid by the tax certificate holder on or after the date those taxes or special assessments became delinquent together with 12% penalty on each amount so paid for each year or portion thereof intervening between the date of that payment and the date of redemption. In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, however, a tax certificate holder may not pay all or part of an installment of a subsequent tax or special assessment for any year, nor shall any tender of such a payment be accepted, until after the second or final installment of the subsequent tax or special assessment has become delinquent or until after the holder of the certificate of purchase has filed a petition for a tax deed under Section 22.30. The person redeeming shall also pay the amount of interest charged on the subsequent tax or special assessment and paid as a penalty by the tax certificate holder. This amendatory Act of 1995 applies to tax years beginning with the 1995 taxes, payable in 1996, and thereafter.

(d) Any amount paid to redeem a forfeiture occurring subsequent to the tax sale together with 12% penalty thereon for each year or portion thereof intervening between the date of the forfeiture redemption and the date of redemption from the sale.

(e) Any amount paid by the certificate holder for redemption of a subsequently occurring tax sale.

(f) All fees paid to the county clerk under Section 22-5.

(g) All fees paid to the registrar of titles incident to registering the tax certificate in compliance with the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act.

(h) All fees paid to the circuit clerk and the sheriff, a licensed or registered private detective, or the medical examiner coroner in connection with the filing of the petition for tax deed and service of notices under Sections 22-15 through 22-30 and 22-40 in addition to (1) a fee of $35 if a petition for tax deed has been filed, which fee shall be posted to the tax judgement, sale, redemption, and forfeiture record, to be paid to the purchaser or his or her assignee; (2) a fee of $4 if a notice under Section 22-5 has been filed, which fee shall be posted to the tax judgment, sale, redemption, and forfeiture record, to be paid to the purchaser or his or her assignee; (3) all costs paid to record a lis pendens notice in connection with filing a petition under this Code; and (4) if a petition for tax deed has been filed, all fees up to $150 per redemption paid to a registered or licensed title insurance company or title insurance agent for a title search to identify all owners, parties interested, and occupants of the property, to be paid to the purchaser or his or her assignee. The fees in (1) and (2) of this paragraph (h) shall be exempt from the posting requirements of Section 21-360. The costs incurred in causing notices to be served by a licensed or registered private detective under Section 22-15, may not exceed the amount that the sheriff would be authorized by law to charge if those notices had been served by the sheriff.

(i) All fees paid for publication of notice of the tax sale in accordance with Section 22-20.

(j) All sums paid to any county, city, village or incorporated town for reimbursement under Section 22-35.

(k) All costs and expenses of receivership under Section 21-410, to the extent that these costs and expenses exceed any income from the property in question, if the costs and expenditures have been approved by the court appointing the receiver and a certified copy of the order or approval is filed and posted by the certificate holder with the county clerk. Only actual costs expended may be posted on the tax judgment, sale, redemption and forfeiture record.

(Source: P.A. 98-1162, eff. 6-1-15.)

(35 ILCS 200/21-385)

Sec. 21-385. Extension of period of redemption. The purchaser or his or her assignee of property sold for nonpayment of general taxes or special assessments may extend the period of redemption at any time before the expiration of the original period of redemption, or thereafter prior to the expiration of any extended period of redemption, for a period which will expire not later than 3 years from the date of sale, by filing with the county clerk of the county in which the property is located a written notice to that effect describing the property, stating the date of the sale and specifying the extended period of redemption. Upon receiving the notice, the county clerk shall stamp the date of receipt upon the notice. If the notice is submitted as an electronic record, the county clerk shall acknowledge receipt of the record and shall provide confirmation in the same manner to the certificate holder. The confirmation from the county clerk shall include the date of receipt and shall serve as proof that the notice was filed with the county clerk. The county clerk shall not be required to extend the period of redemption unless the purchaser or his or her assignee obtains this acknowledgement of delivery. If prior to the expiration of the period of redemption or extended period of redemption a petition for tax deed has been filed under Section 22-30, upon application of the petitioner, the court shall allow the purchaser or his or her assignee to extend the period of redemption after expiration of the original period or any extended period of redemption, provided that any extension allowed will expire not later than 3 years from the date of sale, unless the certificate has been assigned to the county collector by order of the court which ordered the property sold, in which case the period of redemption shall be extended for such period as may be designated by the holder of the certificate, such period not to exceed 36 months from the date of the assignment to the collector. If the period of redemption is extended, the purchaser or his or her assignee must give the notices provided for in Section 22-10 at the specified times prior to the expiration of the extended period of redemption by causing a sheriff (or if he or she is disqualified, a medical examiner coroner) of the county in which the property, or any part thereof, is located to serve the notices as provided in Sections 22-15 and 22-20. The notices may also be served as provided in Sections 22-15 and 22-20 by a special process server appointed by the court under Section 22-15.

(Source: P.A. 100-890, eff. 1-1-19; 100-975, eff. 8-19-18; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19.)

(35 ILCS 200/22-15)

Sec. 22-15. Service of notice. The purchaser or his or her assignee shall give the notice required by Section 22-10 by causing it to be published in a newspaper as set forth in Section 22-20. In addition, the notice shall be served by a sheriff (or if he or she is disqualified, by a medical examiner coroner) of the county in which the property, or any part thereof, is located or, except in Cook County, by a person who is licensed or registered as a private detective under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 upon owners who reside on any part of the property sold by leaving a copy of the notice with those owners personally.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants where a taxing district is a petitioner for tax deed pursuant to Section 21-90, in lieu of service by the sheriff or medical examiner coroner the notice may be served by a special process server appointed by the circuit court as provided in this Section. The taxing district may move prior to filing one or more petitions for tax deed for appointment of such a special process server. The court, upon being satisfied that the person named in the motion is at least 18 years of age and is capable of serving notice as required under this Code, shall enter an order appointing such person as a special process server for a period of one year. The appointment may be renewed for successive periods of one year each by motion and order, and a copy of the original and any subsequent order shall be filed in each tax deed case in which a notice is served by the appointed person. Delivery of the notice to and service of the notice by the special process server shall have the same force and effect as its delivery to and service by the sheriff or medical examiner coroner.

The same form of notice shall also be served, in the manner set forth under Sections 2-203, 2-204, 2-205, 2-205.1, and 2-211 of the Code of Civil Procedure, upon all other owners and parties interested in the property, if upon diligent inquiry they can be found in the county, and upon the occupants of the property.

If the property sold has more than 4 dwellings or other rental units, and has a managing agent or party who collects rents, that person shall be deemed the occupant and shall be served with notice instead of the occupants of the individual units. If the property has no dwellings or rental units, but economic or recreational activities are carried on therein, the person directing such activities shall be deemed the occupant. Holders of rights of entry and possibilities of reverter shall not be deemed parties interested in the property.

When a party interested in the property is a trustee, notice served upon the trustee shall be deemed to have been served upon any beneficiary or note holder thereunder unless the holder of the note is disclosed of record.

When a judgment is a lien upon the property sold, the holder of the lien shall be served with notice if the name of the judgment debtor as shown in the transcript, certified copy or memorandum of judgment filed of record is identical, as to given name and surname, with the name of the party interested as it appears of record.

If any owner or party interested, upon diligent inquiry and effort, cannot be found or served with notice in the county as provided in this Section, and the person in actual occupancy and possession is tenant to, or in possession under the owners or the parties interested in the property, then service of notice upon the tenant, occupant or person in possession shall be deemed service upon the owners or parties interested.

If any owner or party interested, upon diligent inquiry and effort cannot be found or served with notice in the county, then the person making the service shall cause a copy of the notice to be sent by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to that party at his or her residence, if ascertainable.

The changes to this Section made by Public Act 95-477 apply only to matters in which a petition for tax deed is filed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-477).

(Source: P.A. 95-195, eff. 1-1-08; 95-477, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(35 ILCS 200/22-20)

Sec. 22-20. Proof of service of notice; publication of notice. The sheriff or medical examiner coroner serving notice under Section 22-15 shall endorse his or her return thereon and file it with the Clerk of the Circuit Court and it shall be a part of the court record. A private detective or a special process server appointed under Section 22-15 shall make his or her return by affidavit and shall file it with the Clerk of the Circuit Court, where it shall be a part of the court record. If a sheriff, private detective, special process server, or medical examiner coroner to whom any notice is delivered for service, neglects or refuses to make the return, the purchaser or his or her assignee may petition the court to enter a rule requiring the sheriff, private detective, special process server, or medical examiner coroner to make return of the notice on a day to be fixed by the court, or to show cause on that day why he or she should not be attached for contempt of the court. The purchaser or assignee shall cause a written notice of the rule to be served upon the sheriff, private detective, special process server, or medical examiner coroner. If good and sufficient cause to excuse the sheriff, private detective, special process server, or medical examiner coroner is not shown, the court shall adjudge him or her guilty of a contempt, and shall proceed to punish him as in other cases of contempt.

If the property is located in a municipality in a county with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the purchaser or his or her assignee shall also publish a notice as to the owner or party interested, in some newspaper published in the municipality. If the property is not in a municipality in a county with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, or if no newspaper is published therein, or if the property is in a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the notice shall be published in some newspaper in the county. If no newspaper is published in the county, then the notice shall be published in the newspaper that is published nearest the county seat of the county in which the property is located. If the owners and parties interested in the property upon diligent inquiry are unknown to the purchaser or his or her assignee, the publication as to such owner or party interested, may be made to unknown owners or parties interested. Any notice by publication given under this Section shall be given 3 times at any time after filing a petition for tax deed, but not less than 3 months nor more than 6 months prior to the expiration of the period of redemption. The publication shall contain (a) notice of the filing of the petition for tax deed, (b) the date on which the petitioner intends to make application for an order on the petition that a tax deed issue, (c) a description of the property, (d) the date upon which the property was sold, (e) the taxes or special assessments for which it was sold and (f) the date on which the period of redemption will expire. The publication shall not include more than one property listed and sold in one description, except as provided in Section 21-90, and except that when more than one property is owned by one person, all of the parcels owned by that person may be included in one notice.

The changes to this Section made by Public Act 95-477 apply only to matters in which a petition for tax deed is filed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-477).

(Source: P.A. 95-195, eff. 1-1-08; 95-477, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

Section 75. The Mobile Home Local Services Tax Enforcement Act is amended by changing Sections 300, 330, 375, and 380 as follows:

(35 ILCS 516/300)

Sec. 300. Amount of redemption. Any person desiring to redeem shall deposit an amount specified in this Section with the county clerk of the county in which the mobile home is situated, in legal money of the United States, or by cashier's check, certified check, post office money order or money order, issued by a financial institution insured by an agency or instrumentality of the United States, payable to the county clerk of the proper county. The deposit shall be deemed timely only if actually received in person at the county clerk's office prior to the close of business as defined in Section 3-2007 of the Counties Code on or before the expiration of the period of redemption or by United States mail with a post office cancellation mark dated not less than one day prior to the expiration of the period of redemption. The deposit shall be in an amount equal to the total of the following:

(a) the certificate amount, which shall include all tax principal, interest, and penalties paid by the tax purchaser together with costs and fees of sale and fees paid under Sections 235 and 260 through 280;

(b) the accrued penalty, computed through the date of redemption as a percentage of the certificate amount, as follows:

(1) if the redemption occurs on or before the expiration of 6 months from the date of sale, the certificate amount times the penalty bid at sale;

(2) if the redemption occurs after 6 months from the date of sale, and on or before the expiration of 12 months from the date of sale, the certificate amount times 2 times the penalty bid at sale;

(3) if the redemption occurs after 12 months from the date of sale and on or before the expiration of 18 months from the date of sale, the certificate amount times 3 times the penalty bid at sale;

(4) if the redemption occurs after 18 months from the date of sale and on or before the expiration of 24 months from the date of sale, the certificate amount times 4 times the penalty bid at sale;

(5) if the redemption occurs after 24 months from the date of sale and on or before the expiration of 30 months from the date of sale, the certificate amount times 5 times the penalty bid at sale;

(6) if the redemption occurs after 30 months from the date of sale and on or before the expiration of 36 months from the date of sale, the certificate amount times 6 times the penalty bid at sale.

(c) The total of all taxes, accrued interest on those taxes, and costs charged in connection with the payment of those taxes, which have been paid by the tax certificate holder on or after the date those taxes became delinquent together with 12% penalty on each amount so paid for each year or portion thereof intervening between the date of that payment and the date of redemption. In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, however, a tax certificate holder may not pay the subsequent tax for any year, nor shall any tender of such a payment be accepted, until the subsequent tax has become delinquent or until after the holder of the certificate of purchase has filed a petition for a tax certificate of title under Section 390. The person redeeming shall also pay the amount of interest charged on the subsequent tax and paid as a penalty by the tax certificate holder.

(d) Any amount paid to redeem a forfeiture occurring subsequent to the tax sale together with 12% penalty thereon for each year or portion thereof intervening between the date of the forfeiture redemption and the date of redemption from the sale.

(e) Any amount paid by the certificate holder for redemption of a subsequently occurring tax sale.

(f) All fees paid to the county clerk under Section 22-5.

(g) All fees paid to the circuit clerk and the sheriff or medical examiner coroner in connection with the filing of the petition for tax certificate of title and service of notices under Sections 375 through 390 and 400 in addition to (1) a fee of $35 if a petition for tax certificate of title has been filed, which fee shall be posted to the tax judgement, sale, redemption, and forfeiture record, to be paid to the purchaser or his or her assignee; (2) a fee of $4 if a notice under Section 365 has been filed, which fee shall be posted to the tax judgment, sale, redemption, and forfeiture record, to be paid to the purchaser or his or her assignee; and (3) all costs paid to record a lis pendens notice in connection with filing a petition under this Act. The fees in (1) and (2) of this paragraph (g) shall be exempt from the posting requirements of Section 305.

(h) All fees paid for publication of notice of the tax sale in accordance with Section 380.

(i) All sums paid to any city, village or incorporated town for reimbursement under Section 395.

(j) All costs and expenses of receivership under Section 350, to the extent that these costs and expenses exceed any income from the mobile home in question, if the costs and expenditures have been approved by the court appointing the receiver and a certified copy of the order or approval is filed and posted by the certificate holder with the county clerk. Only actual costs expended may be posted on the tax judgment, sale, redemption and forfeiture record.

(Source: P.A. 92-807, eff. 1-1-03.)

(35 ILCS 516/330)

Sec. 330. Extension of period of redemption. The purchaser or his or her assignee of a mobile home sold for nonpayment of taxes may extend the period of redemption at any time before the expiration of the original period of redemption, or thereafter prior to the expiration of any extended period of redemption, for a period which will expire not later than 3 years from the date of sale, by filing with the county clerk of the county in which the mobile home is located a written notice to that effect describing the mobile home, stating the date of the sale and specifying the extended period of redemption. If prior to the expiration of the period of redemption or extended period of redemption a petition for tax certificate of title has been filed under Section 390, upon application of the petitioner, the court shall allow the purchaser or his or her assignee to extend the period of redemption after expiration of the original period or any extended period of redemption, provided that any extension allowed will expire not later than 3 years from the date of sale. If the period of redemption is extended, the purchaser or his or her assignee must give the notices provided for in Section 370 at the specified times prior to the expiration of the extended period of redemption by causing a sheriff (or if he or she is disqualified, a medical examiner coroner) of the county in which the mobile home, or any part thereof, is located to serve the notices as provided in Sections 375 and 380. The notices may also be served as provided in Sections 375 and 380 by a special process server.

(Source: P.A. 92-807, eff. 1-1-03.)

(35 ILCS 516/375)

Sec. 375. Service of notice. The purchaser or his or her assignee shall give the notice required by Section 370 by causing it to be published in a newspaper as set forth in Section 380. In addition, the notice shall be served by a process server or sheriff (or if he or she is disqualified, by a medical examiner coroner) of the county in which the mobile home is located upon owners who reside in the mobile home sold by leaving a copy of the notice with those owners personally.

The same form of notice shall also be served upon all other owners and parties interested in the mobile home, if upon diligent inquiry they can be found in the county, and upon the occupants of the mobile home in the following manner:

(a) as to individuals, by (1) leaving a copy of the notice with the person personally or (2) by leaving a copy at his or her usual place of residence with a person of the family, of the age of 13 years or more, and informing that person of its contents. The person making the service shall cause a copy of the notice to be sent by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to that party at his or her usual place of residence;

(b) as to public and private corporations, municipal, governmental and quasi-municipal corporations, partnerships, receivers and trustees of corporations, by leaving a copy of the notice with the person designated by the Civil Practice Law.

When a party interested in the mobile home is a trustee, notice served upon the trustee shall be deemed to have been served upon any beneficiary or note holder thereunder unless the holder of the note is disclosed of record.

When a judgment is a lien upon the mobile home sold, the holder of the lien shall be served with notice if the name of the judgment debtor as shown in the transcript, certified copy or memorandum of judgment filed of record is identical, as to given name and surname, with the name of the party interested as it appears of record.

If any owner or party interested, upon diligent inquiry and effort, cannot be found or served with notice in the county as provided in this Section, and the person in actual occupancy and possession is tenant to, or in possession under the owners or the parties interested in the mobile home, then service of notice upon the tenant, occupant or person in possession shall be deemed service upon the owners or parties interested.

If any owner or party interested, upon diligent inquiry and effort cannot be found or served with notice in the county, then the person making the service shall cause a copy of the notice to be sent by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to that party at his or her residence, if ascertainable.

(Source: P.A. 92-807, eff. 1-1-03.)

(35 ILCS 516/380)

Sec. 380. Proof of service of notice; publication of notice. The sheriff or medical examiner coroner serving notice under Section 375 shall endorse his or her return thereon and file it with the clerk of the circuit court and it shall be a part of the court record. A special process server appointed under Section 375 shall make his or her return by affidavit and shall file it with the clerk of the circuit court, where it shall be a part of the court record. If a sheriff, special process server, or medical examiner coroner to whom any notice is delivered for service, neglects or refuses to make the return, the purchaser or his or her assignee may petition the court to enter a rule requiring the sheriff, special process server, or medical examiner coroner to make return of the notice on a day to be fixed by the court, or to show cause on that day why he or she should not be attached for contempt of the court. The purchaser or assignee shall cause a written notice of the rule to be served upon the sheriff, special process server, or medical examiner coroner. If good and sufficient cause to excuse the sheriff, special process server, or medical examiner coroner is not shown, the court shall adjudge him or her guilty of contempt, and shall proceed to punish him as in other cases of contempt.

If the mobile home is located in a municipality in a county with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the purchaser or his or her assignee shall also publish a notice as to the owner or party interested, in some newspaper published in the municipality. If the mobile home is not in a municipality in a county with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, or if no newspaper is published therein, the notice shall be published in some newspaper in the county. If no newspaper is published in the county, then the notice shall be published in the newspaper that is published nearest the county seat of the county in which the mobile home is located. If the owners and parties interested in the mobile home upon diligent inquiry are unknown to the purchaser or his or her assignee, the publication as to such owner or party interested, may be made to unknown owners or parties interested. Any notice by publication given under this Section shall be given 3 times at any time after filing a petition for tax certificate of title, but not less than 3 months nor more than 5 months prior to the expiration of the period of redemption. The publication shall contain (a) notice of the filing of the petition for tax certificate of title, (b) the date on which the petitioner intends to make application for an order on the petition that a tax certificate of title issue, (c) a description of the mobile home, (d) the date upon which the mobile home was sold, (e) the taxes for which it was sold and (f) the date on which the period of redemption will expire. The publication shall not include more than one mobile home listed and sold in one description, except as provided in Section 35, and except that when more than one mobile home is owned by one person, all of the mobile homes owned by that person may be included in one notice.

(Source: P.A. 92-807, eff. 1-1-03.)

Section 80. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Section 7-145.1 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/7-145.1)

Sec. 7-145.1. Alternative annuity for county officers.

(a) The benefits provided in this Section and Section 7-145.2 are available only if, prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the county board has filed with the Board of the Fund a resolution or ordinance expressly consenting to the availability of these benefits for its elected county officers. The county board's consent is irrevocable with respect to persons participating in the program, but may be revoked at any time with respect to persons who have not paid an additional optional contribution under this Section before the date of revocation.

An elected county officer may elect to establish alternative credits for an alternative annuity by electing in writing before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly to make additional optional contributions in accordance with this Section and procedures established by the board. These alternative credits are available only for periods of service as an elected county officer. The elected county officer may discontinue making the additional optional contributions by notifying the Fund in writing in accordance with this Section and procedures established by the board.

Additional optional contributions for the alternative annuity shall be as follows:

(1) For service as an elected county officer after the option is elected, an additional contribution of 3% of salary shall be contributed to the Fund on the same basis and under the same conditions as contributions required under Section 7-173.

(2) For service as an elected county officer before the option is elected, an additional contribution of 3% of the salary for the applicable period of service, plus interest at the effective rate from the date of service to the date of payment, plus any additional amount required by the county board under paragraph (3). All payments for past service must be paid in full before credit is given. Payment must be received by the Board while the member is an active participant, except that one payment will be permitted after termination of participation.

(3) With respect to service as an elected county officer before the option is elected, if payment is made after the county board has filed with the Board of the Fund a resolution or ordinance requiring an additional contribution under this paragraph, then the contribution required under paragraph (2) shall include an amount to be determined by the Fund, equal to the actuarial present value of the additional employer cost that would otherwise result from the alternative credits being established for that service. A county board's resolution or ordinance requiring additional contributions under this paragraph (3) is irrevocable. Payment must be received by the Board while the member is an active participant, except that one payment will be permitted after termination of participation.

No additional optional contributions may be made for any period of service for which credit has been previously forfeited by acceptance of a refund, unless the refund is repaid in full with interest at the effective rate from the date of refund to the date of repayment.

(b) In lieu of the retirement annuity otherwise payable under this Article, an elected county officer who (1) has elected to participate in the Fund and make additional optional contributions in accordance with this Section, (2) has held and made additional optional contributions with respect to the same elected county office for at least 8 years, and (3) has attained age 55 with at least 8 years of service credit (or has attained age 50 with at least 20 years of service as a sheriff's law enforcement employee) may elect to have his retirement annuity computed as follows: 3% of the participant's salary for each of the first 8 years of service credit, plus 4% of that salary for each of the next 4 years of service credit, plus 5% of that salary for each year of service credit in excess of 12 years, subject to a maximum of 80% of that salary.

This formula applies only to service in an elected county office that the officer held for at least 8 years, and only to service for which additional optional contributions have been paid under this Section. If an elected county officer qualifies to have this formula applied to service in more than one elected county office, the qualifying service shall be accumulated for purposes of determining the applicable accrual percentages, but the salary used for each office shall be the separate salary calculated for that office, as defined in subsection (g).

To the extent that the elected county officer has service credit that does not qualify for this formula, his retirement annuity will first be determined in accordance with this formula with respect to the service to which this formula applies, and then in accordance with the remaining Sections of this Article with respect to the service to which this formula does not apply.

(c) In lieu of the disability benefits otherwise payable under this Article, an elected county officer who (1) has elected to participate in the Fund, and (2) has become permanently disabled and as a consequence is unable to perform the duties of his office, and (3) was making optional contributions in accordance with this Section at the time the disability was incurred, may elect to receive a disability annuity calculated in accordance with the formula in subsection (b). For the purposes of this subsection, an elected county officer shall be considered permanently disabled only if: (i) disability occurs while in service as an elected county officer and is of such a nature as to prevent him from reasonably performing the duties of his office at the time; and (ii) the board has received a written certification by at least 2 licensed physicians appointed by it stating that the officer is disabled and that the disability is likely to be permanent.

(d) Refunds of additional optional contributions shall be made on the same basis and under the same conditions as provided under Section 7-166, 7-167 and 7-168. Interest shall be credited at the effective rate on the same basis and under the same conditions as for other contributions.

If an elected county officer fails to hold that same elected county office for at least 8 years, he or she shall be entitled after leaving office to receive a refund of the additional optional contributions made with respect to that office, plus interest at the effective rate.

(e) The plan of optional alternative benefits and contributions shall be available to persons who are elected county officers and active contributors to the Fund on or after November 15, 1994 and elected to establish alternative credit before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. A person who was an elected county officer and an active contributor to the Fund on November 15, 1994 but is no longer an active contributor may apply to make additional optional contributions under this Section at any time within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; if the person is an annuitant, the resulting increase in annuity shall begin to accrue on the first day of the month following the month in which the required payment is received by the Fund.

(f) For the purposes of this Section and Section 7-145.2, the terms "elected county officer" and "elected county office" include, but are not limited to: (1) the county clerk, recorder, treasurer, coroner, assessor (if elected), auditor, sheriff, and State's Attorney; members of the county board; and the clerk of the circuit court; and (2) a person who has been appointed to fill a vacancy in an office that is normally filled by election on a countywide basis, for the duration of his or her service in that office. The terms "elected county officer" and "elected county office" do not include any officer or office of a county that has not consented to the availability of benefits under this Section and Section 7-145.2.

(g) For the purposes of this Section and Section 7-145.2, the term "salary" means the final rate of earnings for the elected county office held, calculated in a manner consistent with Section 7-116, but for that office only. If an elected county officer qualifies to have the formula in subsection (b) applied to service in more than one elected county office, a separate salary shall be calculated and applied with respect to each such office.

(h) The changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly apply to persons who first make an additional optional contribution under this Section on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act.

(i) Any elected county officer who was entitled to receive a stipend from the State on or after July 1, 2009 and on or before June 30, 2010 may establish earnings credit for the amount of stipend not received, if the elected county official applies in writing to the fund within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly and pays to the fund an amount equal to (i) employee contributions on the amount of stipend not received, (ii) employer contributions determined by the Board equal to the employer's normal cost of the benefit on the amount of stipend not received, plus (iii) interest on items (i) and (ii) at the actuarially assumed rate.

(Source: P.A. 100-148, eff. 8-18-17.)

Section 85. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Section 10.11 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/10.11)

Sec. 10.11. Training; death and homicide investigation. The Illinois Law Enforcement Training and Standards Board shall conduct or approve a training program in death and homicide investigation for the training of law enforcement officers of local government agencies. Only law enforcement officers who successfully complete the training program may be assigned as lead investigators in death and homicide investigations. Satisfactory completion of the training program shall be evidenced by a certificate issued to the law enforcement officer by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training and Standards Board.

The Illinois Law Enforcement Training and Standards Board shall develop a process for waiver applications sent by a local law enforcement agency administrator for those officers whose prior training and experience as homicide investigators may qualify them for a waiver. The Board may issue a waiver at its discretion, based solely on the prior training and experience of an officer as a homicide investigator. This Section does not affect or impede the powers of the office of the medical examiner coroner to investigate all deaths as provided in Division 3-3 of the Counties Code and the Medical Examiner Coroner Training Board Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-408, eff. 1-1-16.)

Section 90. The Law Enforcement Camera Grant Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(50 ILCS 707/15)

Sec. 15. Rules; in-car video camera grants.

(a) The Board shall develop model rules for the use of in-car video cameras to be adopted by law enforcement agencies that receive grants under Section 10 of this Act. The rules shall include all of the following requirements:

(1) Cameras must be installed in the law enforcement agency vehicles.

(2) Video recording must provide audio of the officer when the officer is outside of the vehicle.

(3) Camera access must be restricted to the supervisors of the officer in the vehicle.

(4) Cameras must be turned on continuously throughout the officer's shift.

(5) A copy of the video record must be made available upon request to personnel of the law enforcement agency, the local State's Attorney, and any persons depicted in the video. Procedures for distribution of the video record must include safeguards to protect the identities of individuals who are not a party to the requested stop.

(6) Law enforcement agencies that receive moneys under this grant shall provide for storage of the video records for a period of not less than 2 years.

(b) Each law enforcement agency receiving a grant for in-car video cameras under Section 10 of this Act must provide an annual report to the Board, the Governor, and the General Assembly on or before May 1 of the year following the receipt of the grant and by each May 1 thereafter during the period of the grant. The report shall include the following:

(1) the number of cameras received by the law enforcement agency;

(2) the number of cameras actually installed in law enforcement agency vehicles;

(3) a brief description of the review process used by supervisors within the law enforcement agency;

(4) a list of any criminal, traffic, ordinance, and civil cases in which in-car video recordings were used, including party names, case numbers, offenses charged, and disposition of the matter. Proceedings to which this paragraph (4) applies include, but are not limited to, court proceedings, medical examiner's coroner's inquests, grand jury proceedings, and plea bargains; and

(5) any other information relevant to the administration of the program.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 1-1-16.)

Section 95. The Missing Persons Identification Act is amended by changing Sections 15, 20, and 25 as follows:

(50 ILCS 722/15)

Sec. 15. Reporting of unidentified persons and human remains.

(a) Handling of death scene investigations.

(1) The Department of State Police shall provide information to local law enforcement agencies about best practices for handling death scene investigations.

(2) The Department of State Police shall identify any publications or training opportunities that may be available to local law enforcement agencies or law enforcement officers and coroners and medical examiners concerning the handling of death scene investigations.

(b) Law enforcement reports.

(1) Before performing any death scene investigation deemed appropriate under the circumstances, the official with custody of the human remains shall ensure that the coroner or medical examiner of the county in which the deceased was found has been notified.

(2) Any coroner or medical examiner with custody of human remains that are not identified within 24 hours of discovery shall promptly notify the Department of State Police of the location of those remains.

(3) If the coroner or medical examiner with custody of remains cannot determine whether or not the remains found are human, the coroner or medical examiner shall notify the Department of State Police of the existence of possible human remains.

(Source: P.A. 95-192, eff. 8-16-07.)

(50 ILCS 722/20)

Sec. 20. Unidentified persons or human remains identification responsibilities.

(a) In this Section, "assisting law enforcement agency" means a law enforcement agency with jurisdiction acting under the request and direction of the medical examiner or coroner to assist with human remains identification.

(a-5) If the official with custody of the human remains is not a coroner or medical examiner, the official shall immediately notify the coroner or medical examiner of the county in which the remains were found. The coroner or medical examiner shall go to the scene and take charge of the remains.

(b) Notwithstanding any other action deemed appropriate for the handling of the human remains, the assisting law enforcement agency or , medical examiner, or coroner shall make reasonable attempts to promptly identify human remains. This does not include historic or prehistoric skeletal remains. These actions shall include, but are not limited to, obtaining the following when possible:

(1) photographs of the human remains (prior to an autopsy);

(2) dental and skeletal X-rays;

(3) photographs of items found on or with the human remains;

(4) fingerprints from the remains;

(5) tissue samples suitable for DNA analysis;

(6) (blank); and

(7) any other information that may support identification efforts.

(c) No medical examiner or coroner or any other person shall dispose of, or engage in actions that will materially affect the unidentified human remains before the assisting law enforcement agency or , medical examiner, or coroner obtains items essential for human identification efforts listed in subsection (b) of this Section.

(d) Cremation of unidentified human remains is prohibited.

(e) (Blank).

(f) The assisting law enforcement agency or , medical examiner, or coroner shall seek support from appropriate State and federal agencies, including National Missing and Unidentified Persons System resources to facilitate prompt identification of human remains. This support may include, but is not limited to, fingerprint comparison; forensic odontology; nuclear or mitochondrial DNA analysis, or both; and forensic anthropology.

(f-5) Fingerprints from the unidentified remains, including partial prints, shall be submitted to the Department of State Police or other resource for the purpose of attempting to identify the deceased. The coroner or medical examiner shall cause a dental examination to be performed by a forensic odontologist for the purpose of dental charting, comparison to missing person records, or both. Tissue samples collected for DNA analysis shall be submitted within 30 days of the recovery of the remains to a National Missing and Unidentified Persons System partner laboratory or other resource where DNA profiles are entered into the National DNA Index System upon completion of testing. Forensic anthropological analysis of the remains shall also be considered.

(g) (Blank).

(g-2) The medical examiner or coroner shall report the unidentified human remains and the location where the remains were found to the Department of State Police within 24 hours of discovery as mandated by Section 15 of this Act. The assisting law enforcement agency or , medical examiner, or coroner shall contact the Department of State Police to request the creation of a National Crime Information Center Unidentified Person record within 5 days of the discovery of the remains. The assisting law enforcement agency or , medical examiner, or coroner shall provide the Department of State Police all information required for National Crime Information Center entry. Upon notification, the Department of State Police shall create the Unidentified Person record without unnecessary delay.

(g-5) The assisting law enforcement agency or , medical examiner, or coroner shall obtain a National Crime Information Center number from the Department of State Police to verify entry and maintain this number within the unidentified human remains case file. A National Crime Information Center Unidentified Person record shall remain on file indefinitely or until action is taken by the originating agency to clear or cancel the record. The assisting law enforcement agency or , medical examiner, or coroner shall notify the Department of State Police of necessary record modifications or cancellation if identification is made.

(h) (Blank).

(h-5) The assisting law enforcement agency or , medical examiner, or coroner shall create an unidentified person record in the National Missing and Unidentified Persons System prior to the submission of samples or within 30 days of the discovery of the remains, if no identification has been made. The entry shall include all available case information including fingerprint data and dental charts. Samples shall be submitted to a National Missing and Unidentified Persons System partner laboratory for DNA analysis within 30 Days. A notation of DNA submission shall be made within the National Missing and Unidentified Persons System Unidentified Person record.

(i) Nothing in this Act shall be interpreted to preclude any assisting law enforcement agency, medical examiner, coroner, or the Department of State Police from pursuing other efforts to identify human remains including efforts to publicize information, descriptions, or photographs related to the investigation.

(j) For historic or prehistoric human skeletal remains determined by an anthropologist to be older than 100 years, jurisdiction shall be transferred to the Department of Natural Resources for further investigation under the Archaeological and Paleontological Resources Protection Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-901, eff. 1-1-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19.)

(50 ILCS 722/25)

Sec. 25. Unidentified persons. The coroner or medical examiner shall obtain a DNA sample from any individual whose remains are not identifiable. The DNA sample shall be forwarded to a National Missing and Unidentified Persons System partner laboratory or other resource for analysis and inclusion in the National DNA Index System.

Prior to the burial or interment of any unknown individual's remains or any unknown individual's body part, the medical examiner or coroner in possession of the remains or body part must assign a DNA log number to the unknown individual or body part. The medical examiner or coroner shall place a tag that is stamped or inscribed with the DNA log number on the individual or body part. The DNA log number shall be stamped on the unidentified individual's toe tag, if possible.

(Source: P.A. 100-901, eff. 1-1-19.)

Section 100. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 1-4009, 3-3001, 3-3003, 3-3004, 3-3007, 3-3008, 3-3009, 3-3010, 3-3012, 3-3013, 3-3014, 3-3015, 3-3016.5, 3-3017, 3-3018, 3-3019, 3-3020, 3-3021, 3-3022, 3-3024, 3-3025, 3-3026, 3-3027, 3-3028, 3-3029, 3-3031, 3-3032, 3-3033, 3-3034, 3-3035, 3-3036, 3-3037, 3-3038, 3-3040, 3-3041, 3-3042, 3-3043, 3-3045, 3-14002, 4-6001, 4-6002, 4-7001, 4-11002, 5-1085.5, and 5-1106, by changing the headings of Division 3-3 of Article 3 and Division 4-7 of Article 4, and by adding Sections 3-3000, 3-3002.5, 3-3013.3, 3-3013.5, and 3-3046 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/1-4009) (from Ch. 34, par. 1-4009)

Sec. 1-4009. Medical examiner Coroner. The medical examiner coroner of the petitioning county shall perform all the duties required of him by law within the territory that had constituted the petitioning county before the proclamation aforesaid, until his term of office shall expire, and shall receive the compensation to which he may be entitled by law, and whatever fees or compensation may be payable by law out of the county treasury, shall be certified and paid by the county board of the adjoining county to such medical examiner coroner, out of taxes collected from property in the territory that had constituted the petitioning county.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/Div. 3-3 heading)

Division 3-3. Medical Examiner Coroner

(55 ILCS 5/3-3000 new)

Sec. 3-3000. Appointment of medical examiners; medical examiner qualifications; discontinuance of the office of coroner; references to coroner.

(a) On or before September 1, 2021, each county board and board of county commissioners shall appoint a medical examiner for a term of 4 years beginning December 1, 2021.

(b) Medical examiners shall be physicians licensed to practice within this State for all counties, and, for counties with populations of 250,000 or more, medical examiners shall also be board certified in forensic pathology or possess 20 or more years of death investigation experience.

(c) On December 1, 2021:

(1) in each county that has an office of the coroner, the office of the coroner is discontinued, the term of office of the person elected or appointed coroner is terminated, and the office of the medical examiner is created and the powers and duties of the coroner are transferred to the medical examiner;

(2) in counties in which another county officer is performing the duties of the coroner, the powers and duties of the coroner (as being performed by the county officer) are transferred to the medical examiner;

(3) the personnel of the office of the coroner (if any) shall be transferred to the office of the medical examiner; the status and rights of such employees and the county under any applicable collective bargaining agreements or contracts, or under any pension, retirement, or annuity plan shall not be affected by this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly;

(4) all books, records, papers, documents, property (real and personal), contracts, causes of action, and pending business pertaining to the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred by this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly from the coroner to the medical examiner, including, but not limited to, material in electronic or magnetic format and necessary computer hardware and software, shall be transferred to the medical examiner;

(5) all unexpended appropriations and balances and other funds available for use by the office of the coroner shall be transferred for use by the office of the medical examiner; unexpended balances so transferred shall be expended only for the purpose for which the appropriations were originally made;

(6) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly does not affect any act done, ratified, or canceled or any right occurring or established or any action or proceeding had or commenced in an administrative, civil, or criminal cause by the coroner before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly; such actions or proceedings may be continued by the medical examiner; and

(7) if a county has an elected or appointed medical examiner whose term is in effect on November 30, 2021, the medical examiner's term is terminated unless the county board or county board of commissioners appoints, under subsection (a), the person serving as medical examiner on November 30, 2021 as the medical examiner under this Section.

(d) After appointment of a medical examiner under subsection (a), the county board or board of county commissioners shall reappoint a medical examiner or appoint a new medical examiner in each year in which a medical examiner's term expires and the reappointed or appointed medical examiner shall enter upon the duties of the office on the December 1 next following the medical examiner's appointment. Vacancies in an office of medical examiner shall be filled as provided in Section 3-3043.

(e) Two or more counties, by resolution of the respective county board or board of county commissioners, may enter into an agreement to appoint: (1) the same person to act as medical examiner for those counties; and (2) the same persons to act as deputy medical examiners and investigators for those counties. A person appointed to act as medical examiner for more than one county must meet the requirements of subsection (b) for all counties.

(f) On and after December 1, 2021, references to "coroner" in this Division or in any other provision of law shall mean "medical examiner" except where the context requires otherwise.

(55 ILCS 5/3-3001) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3001)

Sec. 3-3001. Commission; training; duties performed by other county officer.

(a) Every medical examiner coroner shall be commissioned by the Governor, but no commission shall issue except upon the certificate of the county clerk of the proper county of the due election or appointment of the medical examiner coroner and that the medical examiner coroner has filed his or her bond and taken the oath of office as provided in this Division.

(b)(1) Within 30 days of assuming office, a medical examiner appointed coroner elected to that office for the first time shall apply for admission to the Medical Examiner Coroner Training Board medical examiners coroners training program. Completion of the training program shall be within 6 months of application. Any medical examiner coroner may direct the chief deputy medical examiner coroner or a deputy medical examiner coroner, or both, to attend the training program, provided the medical examiner coroner has completed the training program. Satisfactory completion of the program shall be evidenced by a certificate issued to the medical examiner coroner by the Medical Examiner Coroner Training Board. All medical examiners coroners shall complete the training program at least once while serving as medical examiner coroner.

(2) In developing the medical examiner coroner training program, the Medical Examiner Coroner Training Board shall consult with the Illinois Coroners and Medical Examiners Association or other organization as approved by the Medical Examiner Coroner Training Board.

(3) The Medical Examiner Coroner Training Board shall notify the proper county board of the failure by a medical examiner coroner to successfully complete this training program.

(c) Every medical examiner coroner shall attend at least 24 hours of accredited continuing education for medical examiners coroners in each calendar year.

(d) (Blank). In all counties that provide by resolution for the elimination of the office of coroner pursuant to a referendum, the resolution may also provide, as part of the same proposition, that the duties of the coroner be taken over by another county officer specified by the resolution and proposition.

(Source: P.A. 99-408, eff. 1-1-16.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3002.5 new)

Sec. 3-3002.5. Investigators.

(a) The medical examiner may appoint investigators, subject to county board or board of county commissioners appropriation, to assist the medical examiner in carrying out the duties required by this Division. The medical examiner shall determine the qualifications of an investigator, taking into consideration a person's education, training, or experience, and shall be solely responsible for determining the duties assigned to the investigator.

(b) The medical examiner may designate an investigator appointed under subsection (a) to take charge of the body, make pertinent investigation, note the circumstances surrounding the death, and, if considered necessary, cause the body to be transported for examination by the medical examiner.

(c) The medical examiner shall maintain a list of investigators appointed under this Section and their qualifications and shall file the list with all law enforcement agencies in the county.

(d) An investigator appointed under subsection (a) shall not:

(1) be an agent or employee of a funeral director or funeral establishment;

(2) receive, directly or indirectly, remuneration in connection with the disposition of the body; or

(3) make funeral or burial arrangements without approval of the next of kin or the individual responsible for the funeral expenses.

(55 ILCS 5/3-3003) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3003)

Sec. 3-3003. Office of medical examiner; compensation; elderly and vulnerable adult death review team; removal of medical examiner or deputy medical examiner Duties of coroner.

(a) The medical examiner is in charge of the office of the medical examiner and may adopt rules relative to the conduct of the office. The medical examiner may delegate any functions of the office to a duly appointed deputy medical examiner.

(b) The compensation of a medical examiner shall be fixed by the county board or board of county commissioners.

(c) The county coroner shall control the internal operations of his office. Subject to the applicable county appropriation ordinance, the medical examiner coroner shall procure necessary equipment, materials, supplies and services to perform the duties of the office. Compensation of deputies and employees shall be fixed by the medical examiner coroner, subject to budgetary limitations established by the county board or board of county commissioners. Purchases of equipment shall be made in accordance with any ordinance requirements for centralized purchasing through another county office or through the State which are applicable to all county offices.

(d) The medical examiner may establish an elderly and vulnerable adult death review team, including developing protocols to be used by the elderly and vulnerable adult death review team in conducting a review of an elderly or vulnerable adult death. If established, one member, except as otherwise noted, of each of the following shall be allowed to participate on the elderly and vulnerable adult death review team: the medical examiner or deputy medical examiner; a physician or other health care professional specializing in geriatric medicine; a physician or other health care professionals employed by long term care facilities; 2 to 3 members of relevant State and local law enforcement agencies; a member from the State's Attorney's office; and 3 members from State departments who are involved with issues regarding adult protective services, adult foster care homes, and homes for the aged. The elderly and vulnerable adult death review team may allow participation by others as designated by the team, including, but not limited to, members representing the long term care ombudsman program, community mental health, and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services who are involved with the licensing and regulation of long-term care facilities.

(e) The county board or board of county commissioners shall remove from office, after hearing, a medical examiner or, upon request of the medical examiner, a deputy medical examiner who fails to discharge properly the duties of the medical examiner or deputy medical examiner.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3004) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3004)

Sec. 3-3004. Bond. Before entering upon the duties of his or her office, he or she shall give bond, with 2 or more sufficient sureties (or, if the county is self-insured, the county through its self-insurance program may provide bonding), to be approved by the circuit court for each his or her county in which the person will serve as medical examiner, in the penal sum of $5,000, which shall cover both the medical examiner coroner and any deputy medical examiners or investigators deputies, payable to the People of the State of Illinois, conditioned that each will faithfully discharge all the duties required or to be required of him by law as such medical examiner coroner, deputy medical examiner, investigator, coroner or as sheriff of the county, in case he or she shall act as such. The bond shall be entered of record in the court and filed in the office of the county clerk of his or her county. The costs of the bond shall be paid by the county.

(Source: P.A. 88-387.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3007) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3007)

Sec. 3-3007. Conservator of the peace. Each medical examiner coroner shall be conservator of the peace in his county, and, in the performance of his duties as such, shall have the same powers as the sheriff.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3008) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3008)

Sec. 3-3008. Medical examiner Coroner to act when sheriff prejudiced. When it appears from the papers in a case that the sheriff or his deputy is a party thereto, or from affidavit filed that he is interested therein, or is of kin, or partial to or prejudiced against either party, the summons, execution or other process may be directed to the medical examiner coroner, who shall perform all the duties in relation thereto, and attend to the suit in like manner as if he were sheriff; and the interests, consanguinity, partiality or prejudice of the sheriff shall not be cause for a change of venue.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3009) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3009)

Sec. 3-3009. Deputy medical examiner's coroner's, sheriff's or police officer's performance of medical examiner's coroner's duties. If there is no medical examiner coroner, or it shall appear in like manner that he or she is also a party to or interested in the suit, or of kin, or partial to or prejudiced against either party, or the medical examiner coroner has an economic or personal interest that conflicts with his or her official duties as medical examiner coroner, the medical examiner coroner shall disqualify himself or herself from acting at an investigation or inquest and process shall in like manner issue to the deputy medical examiner coroner if designated by the medical examiner coroner to fill the vacancy, or, if no designation is made, to any sheriff, sheriff's deputy or police officer, in the county, who shall perform like duties as required of the medical examiner coroner. The designation shall be in writing and filed with the county clerk.

(Source: P.A. 98-812, eff. 8-1-14.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3010) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3010)

Sec. 3-3010. Deputy sheriff, undersheriff, or medical examiner coroner to act when sheriff's office vacant. Where the office of the sheriff is vacant, the chief deputy sheriff or undersheriff if designated by the sheriff to fill the vacancy, or, if no designation is made, the medical examiner coroner of the county shall perform all the duties required by law to be performed by the sheriff, and have the same powers, and be liable to the same penalties and proceedings as if he were sheriff, until another sheriff is elected or appointed and qualified. The designation shall be in writing and filed with the county clerk.

(Source: P.A. 91-633, eff. 12-1-99.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3012) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3012)

Sec. 3-3012. In-service training expenses. The medical examiner county coroner may maintain a special fund, from which the county board shall authorize payments by voucher between board meetings, to pay necessary travel dues and other expenses incurred in attending workshops, educational seminars and organizational meetings for the purpose of providing in-service training.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3013) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3013)

Sec. 3-3013. Preliminary investigations; blood and urine analysis; summoning jury; reports. Every medical examiner or deputy medical examiner coroner, whenever, as soon as he or she knows or is informed that the dead body of any person is found, or lying within his county, whose death is suspected of being:

(a) A sudden or violent death, whether apparently suicidal, homicidal or accidental, including but not limited to deaths apparently caused or contributed to by thermal, traumatic, chemical, electrical or radiational injury, or a complication of any of them, or by drowning or suffocation, or as a result of domestic violence as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(b) A death due to a sex crime;

(c) A death where the circumstances are suspicious, obscure, mysterious or otherwise unexplained or where, in the written opinion of the attending physician, the cause of death is not determined;

(d) A death where addiction to alcohol or to any drug may have been a contributory cause; or

(e) A death where the decedent was not attended by a licensed physician; or

(f) A death of a prisoner in a county or municipal jail; shall go to the place where the dead body is, and take charge of the same and shall make a preliminary investigation into the circumstances of the death. In the case of death without attendance by a licensed physician, the body may be moved with the medical examiner's coroner's consent from the place of death to a mortuary in the same county. Medical examiners Coroners in their discretion shall notify such physician as is designated in accordance with Section 3-3014 to attempt to ascertain the cause of death, either by autopsy or otherwise. If the body of a deceased person has been removed to a private mortuary for examination upon the order of the medical examiner, the keeper of such mortuary shall be allowed compensation, on the order of the medical examiner, for his or her services as the medical examiner deems reasonable out of the general fund of the county where the body is found.

Any expense incurred under the provisions of this Division shall be within the appropriations made therefor by the county board or board of county commissioners.

A medical examiner or deputy medical examiner may secure records or documents as he or she deems necessary to complete an investigation under this Section in the same manner as provided in Section 3-3026.

In cases of accidental death involving a motor vehicle in which the decedent was (1) the operator or a suspected operator of a motor vehicle, or (2) a pedestrian 16 years of age or older, the medical examiner coroner shall require that a blood specimen of at least 30 cc., and if medically possible a urine specimen of at least 30 cc. or as much as possible up to 30 cc., be withdrawn from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion after the accident causing his death, by such physician as has been designated in accordance with Section 3-3014, or by the medical examiner coroner or deputy medical examiner coroner or a qualified person designated by such physician, medical examiner coroner, or deputy medical examiner coroner. If the county does not maintain laboratory facilities for making such analysis, the blood and urine so drawn shall be sent to the Department of State Police or any other accredited or State-certified laboratory for analysis of the alcohol, carbon monoxide, and dangerous or narcotic drug content of such blood and urine specimens. Each specimen submitted shall be accompanied by pertinent information concerning the decedent upon a form prescribed by such laboratory. Any person drawing blood and urine and any person making any examination of the blood and urine under the terms of this Division shall be immune from all liability, civil or criminal, that might otherwise be incurred or imposed.

In all other cases coming within the jurisdiction of the medical examiner coroner and referred to in subparagraphs (a) through (f) (e) above, blood, and whenever possible, urine samples shall be analyzed for the presence of alcohol and other drugs. When the medical examiner coroner suspects that drugs may have been involved in the death, either directly or indirectly, a toxicological examination shall be performed which may include analyses of blood, urine, bile, gastric contents and other tissues. When the medical examiner coroner suspects a death is due to toxic substances, other than drugs, the medical examiner coroner shall consult with the toxicologist prior to collection of samples. Information submitted to the toxicologist shall include information as to height, weight, age, sex and race of the decedent as well as medical history, medications used by and the manner of death of decedent.

When the coroner or medical examiner finds that the cause of death is due to homicidal means, the coroner or medical examiner shall cause blood and buccal specimens (tissue may be submitted if no uncontaminated blood or buccal specimen can be obtained), whenever possible, to be withdrawn from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion. For proper preservation of the specimens, collected blood and buccal specimens shall be dried and tissue specimens shall be frozen if available equipment exists. As soon as possible, but no later than 30 days after the collection of the specimens, the coroner or medical examiner shall release those specimens to the police agency responsible for investigating the death. As soon as possible, but no later than 30 days after the receipt from the coroner or medical examiner, the police agency shall submit the specimens using the agency case number to a National DNA Index System (NDIS) participating laboratory within this State, such as the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings. The results of the analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings shall be provided to the Illinois Department of State Police and shall be maintained by the Illinois Department of State Police in the State central repository in the same manner, and subject to the same conditions, as provided in Section 5-4-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The requirements of this paragraph are in addition to any other findings, specimens, or information that the coroner or medical examiner is required to provide during the conduct of a criminal investigation.

In all counties, in cases of apparent suicide, homicide, or accidental death or in other cases, within the discretion of the medical examiner coroner, the medical examiner coroner may summon 8 persons of lawful age from those persons drawn for petit jurors in the county. The summons shall command these persons to present themselves personally at such a place and time as the medical examiner coroner shall determine, and may be in any form which the medical examiner coroner shall determine and may incorporate any reasonable form of request for acknowledgement which the medical examiner coroner deems practical and provides a reliable proof of service. The summons may be served by first class mail. From the 8 persons so summoned, the medical examiner coroner shall select 6 to serve as the jury for the inquest. Inquests may be continued from time to time, as the medical examiner coroner may deem necessary. The 6 jurors selected in a given case may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation of an inquest one or more of the original jurors shall be unable to continue to serve, the medical examiner coroner shall fill the vacancy or vacancies. A juror serving pursuant to this paragraph shall receive compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the county. The medical examiner coroner shall furnish to each juror without fee at the time of his discharge a certificate of the number of days in attendance at an inquest, and, upon being presented with such certificate, the county treasurer shall pay to the juror the sum provided for his services.

In counties which have a jury commission, in cases of apparent suicide or homicide or of accidental death, the medical examiner coroner may conduct an inquest. The jury commission shall provide at least 8 jurors to the medical examiner coroner, from whom the medical examiner coroner shall select any 6 to serve as the jury for the inquest. Inquests may be continued from time to time as the medical examiner coroner may deem necessary. The 6 jurors originally chosen in a given case may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation of an inquest one or more of the 6 jurors originally chosen shall be unable to continue to serve, the medical examiner coroner shall fill the vacancy or vacancies. At the medical examiner's coroner's discretion, additional jurors to fill such vacancies shall be supplied by the jury commission. A juror serving pursuant to this paragraph in such county shall receive compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the county.

In every case in which a fire is determined to be a contributing factor in a death, the medical examiner coroner shall report the death to the Office of the State Fire Marshal. The medical examiner coroner shall provide a copy of the death certificate (i) within 30 days after filing the permanent death certificate and (ii) in a manner that is agreed upon by the medical examiner coroner and the State Fire Marshal.

In every case in which a drug overdose is determined to be the cause or a contributing factor in the death, the coroner or medical examiner shall report the death to the Department of Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall adopt rules regarding specific information that must be reported in the event of such a death. If possible, the medical examiner coroner shall report the cause of the overdose. As used in this Section, "overdose" has the same meaning as it does in Section 414 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. The Department of Public Health shall issue a semiannual report to the General Assembly summarizing the reports received. The Department shall also provide on its website a monthly report of overdose death figures organized by location, age, and any other factors, the Department deems appropriate.

In addition, in every case in which domestic violence is determined to be a contributing factor in a death, the medical examiner coroner shall report the death to the Department of State Police.

All deaths in State institutions and all deaths of wards of the State or youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act in private care facilities or in programs funded by the Department of Human Services under its powers relating to mental health and developmental disabilities or alcoholism and substance abuse or funded by the Department of Children and Family Services shall be reported to the medical examiner coroner of the county in which the facility is located. If the medical examiner coroner has reason to believe that an investigation is needed to determine whether the death was caused by maltreatment or negligent care of the ward of the State or youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act, the medical examiner coroner may conduct a preliminary investigation of the circumstances of such death as in cases of death under circumstances set forth in paragraphs (a) through (f) (e) of this Section.

The Department of Public Health may adopt rules for record keeping for medical examiner offices where necessary to uniformly report on a public health issue, including those issues mentioned in this Section.

Medical examiners shall keep a record of all persons who have viewed a body that is subject to investigation under this Division while the investigation is ongoing.

As used in this Section:

"Hospice care" has the meaning given to that term in Section 3 of the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

"Licensed physician" means a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Registered nurse" has the meaning given to that term in Section 50-10 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-159, eff. 8-18-17; 101-13, eff. 6-12-19.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3013.3 new)

Sec. 3-3013.3. Identification of the body.

(a) The medical examiner shall ascertain the identity of the decedent and immediately and as compassionately as possible notify the next of kin of the decedent's death, including the current location of the body. The notification described in this subsection is not required if a law enforcement agency informs the medical examiner that the notification has already occurred.

(b) If visual identification of a decedent is impossible as a result of burns, decomposition, or other disfiguring injuries or if the medical examiner is aware that the death is the result of an accident that involved 2 or more individuals who were approximately the same age, sex, height, weight, hair color, eye color, and race, then the medical examiner shall verify the identity of the decedent through fingerprints, dental records, DNA, or other definitive identification procedures and, if the accident resulted in the survival of any individuals with the same attributes, shall notify the respective hospital or institution of his or her findings. The medical examiner may conduct an autopsy under Section 3-3014 if he or she determines that an autopsy reasonably appears to be required pursuant to law. After the medical examiner, a deputy medical examiner, or a person from law enforcement has made a diligent effort to locate and notify the next of kin and was unsuccessful in notifying the next of kin, the medical examiner may order or conduct the autopsy under Section 3-3014 with or without the consent of the next of kin of the decedent.

(c) The medical examiner or a deputy medical examiner shall keep a written record of the efforts to locate and notify the next of kin for a period of one year from the date of the autopsy.

(55 ILCS 5/3-3013.5 new)

Sec. 3-3013.5. Organ donation. If an investigation of the cause and manner of death, regardless of whether the death occurred in a hospital or not, is required under this Division and the medical examiner or his or her designee has notice that the body is of an individual that was a donor or that a gift of all or a part of the body has been designated to be made under the Illinois Anatomical Gift Act or any other law, the medical examiner or his or her designee shall conduct the examination of the dead body within a time period that permits organs, tissues, and eyes to remain viable for transplant. If the medical examiner or his or her designee is unable to conduct the investigation within that period of time, a health professional or technician who is authorized to remove an anatomical gift from a donor may remove the donated organs, tissues, or eyes in order to preserve the viability of the donated tissues or organs for transplant upon notifying the medical examiner or his or her designee. If the medical examiner or his or her designee determines that an organ may be related to the cause of death, the medical examiner or his or her designee may do one or more of the following:

(1) request to be present during the removal of the donated organs; or

(2) request a biopsy of the donated organs.

(55 ILCS 5/3-3014) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3014)

Sec. 3-3014. Autopsy to be performed by licensed physician; costs; reports. Any medical examination or autopsy conducted pursuant to this Division shall be performed by the medical examiner or deputy medical examiner or, as directed by the medical examiner, a physician duly licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, and wherever possible by one having special training in pathology. In Class I counties, medical examinations or autopsies (including those performed on exhumed bodies) shall be performed by physicians appointed or designated by the coroner, and in Class II counties by physicians appointed or designated by the Director of Public Health upon the recommendation of the advisory board on necropsy service to coroners after the board has consulted with the elected coroner. Any autopsy performed by the medical examiner, deputy medical examiner, or a physician so appointed or designated shall be deemed lawful. The cost of all autopsies, medical examinations, laboratory fees, if any, and travel expenses of the examining physician and the costs of exhuming a body under the authority of subsection (c) of Section 3-3015 shall be payable from the general fund of the county where the body is found. The examining physician shall file copies of the reports or results of his or her autopsies and medical examinations with the medical examiner coroner and also with the Department of Public Health.

The medical examiner shall promptly deliver or return the body or any portion of the body to relatives or representatives of the decedent after an examination or autopsy is performed under this Section. If there are no relatives or representatives of the decedent that could be located and notified by the medical examiner, he or she may cause the body to be cremated as provided in 3-3017. A medical examiner may retain any portion of the body that he or she considers necessary to establish the cause of death, the conditions contributing to death, or the manner of death, or as evidence of any crime. If a portion of the body retained is an entire organ or limb of the decedent, the medical examiner shall attempt to verbally or in writing notify the relatives or representatives of the decedent of that retention and offer an opportunity for the relative or representative to request the return of that organ or limb. If notification is verbally made under this Section, the medical examiner shall follow up with written notification. The medical examiner or a deputy medical examiner shall keep a written record of the efforts to notify the relatives or representatives of the decedent under this paragraph for a period of one year from the date of the notification or attempt to notify. Upon determination that retention of the portions of the body is no longer necessary under this paragraph, the medical examiner shall do all of the following, as applicable:

(1) If requested in writing under this paragraph, promptly deliver or return the retained organ or limb to the relatives or representatives of the decedent.

(2) Dispose of any remaining retained body portions in the manner prescribed for medical waste.

A medical examiner or any person acting under the authority of the medical examiner who performs the medical examiner's duties for the retention of body parts shall not be liable in a civil action as a result of an act or omission by the person arising out of the person's good faith performance of those duties unless that person's act or omission was the result of that person's negligence.

No coroner may perform any autopsy required or authorized by law unless the coroner is a pathologist whose services are requested by the coroner of another county.

(Source: P.A. 86-962; 87-317.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3015) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3015)

Sec. 3-3015. Circumstances under which autopsy to be performed.

(a) Where a death has occurred and the circumstances concerning the death are suspicious, obscure, mysterious, or otherwise unexplained and in the opinion of the examining physician or the medical examiner coroner the cause of death cannot be established definitely except by autopsy, and where a death has occurred while being pursued, apprehended, or taken into custody by or while in the custody of any law enforcement agency, it is declared that the public interest requires that an autopsy be performed, and it shall be the duty and responsibility of the medical examiner coroner to cause an autopsy to be performed, including the taking of x-rays and the performance of other medical tests as the medical examiner coroner deems appropriate.

(b) The medical examiner coroner shall instruct involved parties that embalming of the body is not to be conducted until the toxicology samples are drawn. If a child dies from suspicious or unexplained circumstances, the medical examiner coroner shall secure the services of a pathologist. The Department of Public Health shall provide medical examiners coroners and pathologists with a child death autopsy protocol.

(c) If the medical examiner coroner determines it advisable to exhume a body for the purpose of investigation or autopsy or both, and the medical examiner coroner would have been authorized under this Section to perform an investigation or autopsy on the body before it was interred, the medical examiner coroner may exhume the body after consulting on the matter with the state's attorney and upon the order of the circuit court directing the exhumation upon the petition of the state's attorney.

(Source: P.A. 86-962; 87-317; 87-419; 87-895.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3016.5)

Sec. 3-3016.5. Sudden, unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP).

(a) All autopsies conducted in this State shall include an inquiry to determine whether the death was a direct result of a seizure or epilepsy. If the findings in an autopsy of a medical examiner, or examining physician, or coroner are consistent with known or suspected sudden, unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP), then the medical examiner, or examining physician, or coroner shall:

(1) cause to be indicated on the death certificate that SUDEP is the cause or suspected cause of death; and

(2) forward a copy of the death certificate to the North American SUDEP Registry at the Langone Medical Center at New York University within 30 days.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "sudden, unexpected death in epilepsy" refers to a death in a patient previously diagnosed with epilepsy that is not due to trauma, drowning, status epilepticus, or other known causes, but for which there is often evidence of an associated seizure. A finding of sudden, unexpected death in epilepsy is definite when clinical criteria are met and autopsy reveals no alternative cause of death, such as stroke, myocardial infarction, or drug intoxication, although there may be evidence of a seizure.

(Source: P.A. 98-340, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3017) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3017)

Sec. 3-3017. Cremation. In any death where the remains are to be cremated, it shall be the duty of the funeral director or person having custody of the dead body to obtain from the medical examiner coroner a permit to cremate the body. The medical examiner's coroner's permit to cremate shall be presented to the local registrar in applying for the Permit for Disposition of Dead Human Body provided for in Section 21 of the Vital Records Act, and the local registrar shall attach the medical examiner's coroner's permit to cremate to the Permit for Disposition of Dead Human Body which is issued. No crematory shall cremate a dead human body unless a Permit for Disposition of Dead Human Body with an attached medical examiner's coroner's permit to cremate has been furnished to authorize the cremation. Any person knowingly violating the provisions of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 86-962; 86-1028; 87-895.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3018) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3018)

Sec. 3-3018. Death certificates. Every medical examiner coroner, as soon as he shall have completed his investigation of the cause and circumstances of any death coming within his jurisdiction hereunder, shall issue a death certificate on the form prescribed by law.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3019) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3019)

Sec. 3-3019. Removal of bodies and property; violation.

(a) No dead body which may be subject to the terms of this Division, or the personal property of such a deceased person, shall be handled, moved, disturbed, embalmed or removed from the place of death by any person, except with the permission of the medical examiner coroner, unless the same shall be necessary to protect such body or property from damage or destruction, or unless necessary to protect life, safety, or health. Any person knowingly violating the provisions of this subsection Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) In all cases arising under the provisions of this Division, in the absence of next of kin of the deceased person, the most senior law enforcement officer being concerned with the matter, and in the absence of law enforcement, the medical examiner or his or her deputy medical examiner, shall take possession of all property of value found upon the person of the deceased, make an exact inventory report thereof and shall deliver the property, unless required as evidence, to the person entitled to the custody or possession of the body. If the personal property of value is not claimed by the person entitled to the custody or possession of the body of the decedent within 60 days, the property shall be disposed of under Section 3-3033; or, if required as evidence, the property, within 60 days after the termination of any proceeding or appeal period therefrom, shall be turned over to the person entitled to the custody or possession of the body or disposed of under Section 3-3033. Nothing in this subsection shall affect the powers and duties of a public administrator.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3020) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3020)

Sec. 3-3020. Medical examiner Coroner to be notified; violation; elderly and vulnerable adult death review team notification.

(a) Every law enforcement official, funeral director, ambulance attendant, hospital director or administrator or person having custody of the body of a deceased person, where the death is one subject to investigation under Section 3-3013, and any physician in attendance upon such a decedent at the time of his death, shall notify the medical examiner coroner promptly. Any such person failing to so notify the medical examiner coroner promptly shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, unless such person has reasonable cause to believe that the medical examiner coroner had already been so notified.

(b) If a person required to notify the medical examiner under subsection (a) has knowledge that there were 2 or more individuals involved in the same incident who were approximately the same age, sex, height, weight, hair color, eye color, and race, then he or she shall make the medical examiner or deputy medical examiner aware of that fact and whether or not any of those individuals survived that incident when notifying the medical examiner or deputy medical examiner of the death as required under subsection (a). If any of those individuals survived, the medical examiner or deputy medical examiner shall also be informed which hospital or institution those individuals were taken to and the hospital or institution shall also be made aware that the incident involved 2 or more individuals with similar attributes.

(c) If an elderly and vulnerable adult death review team is established under Section 3-3003, a medical examiner or deputy medical examiner who receives notice of a death of an elderly or vulnerable adult who died unexpectedly or under suspicious circumstances may refer the case to the elderly and vulnerable adult death review team. Upon receipt of a referral under this subsection, the elderly and vulnerable adult death review team shall conduct a review of this matter. Information obtained under this subsection by an elderly and vulnerable adult death review team is confidential and may be disclosed by the elderly and vulnerable adult death review team only to the medical examiner, the State's Attorney's office, local law enforcement, or another elderly and vulnerable adult death review team, as appropriate. The information obtained under this subsection by an elderly and vulnerable adult death review team is exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3021) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3021)

Sec. 3-3021. Public policy; release of body to next of kin. As a guide to the interpretation and application of this Division it is declared that the public policy of the State is as follows:

That as soon as may be consistent with the performance of his duties under this Division the medical examiner coroner shall release the body of the decedent to the decedent's next of kin, personal representative, friends, or to the person designated in writing by the decedent or to the funeral director selected by such persons, as the case may be, for burial, and none of the duties or powers of medical examiners coroners enumerated in this Division shall be construed to interfere with or control the right of such persons to the custody and burial of the decedent upon completion of the medical examiner's coroner's investigation.

Nothing herein shall be construed to preclude the medical examiner coroner from consulting with the decedent's next of kin, personal representative, friends or the person designated in writing by the decedent where the decedent was under treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone in accordance with the tenets and practice of a well recognized church or religious denomination in making his preliminary investigation under subsection (E) of Section 3-3013, nor shall anything herein contained be construed to require an autopsy by reason of the sole fact that the decedent was under treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3022) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3022)

Sec. 3-3022. Bystanders. If a sufficient number of jurors so summoned do not attend, the medical examiner coroner may summon others from among the bystanders to make up the jury.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3024) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3024)

Sec. 3-3024. Oath of jurors. When the jury are assembled, the medical examiner coroner shall appoint one of the number as foreman, and administer to him an oath or affirmation, in the following form, to-wit:

You, as foreman to this inquest, do solemnly swear (or affirm, as the case may require), that you will diligently inquire, and true presentment make, how, and in what manner, and by whom or what, the body which lies dead, came to its death; and that you will deliver to me, the medical examiner coroner of this county, a true inquest thereof, according to such evidence as shall be given you, and according to the best of your knowledge and belief; so help you God.

And to the other jurors, one as follows, to-wit:

The same oath which A B, your foreman has just now taken on his part, you and each of you do solemnly swear (or affirm, as the case may require), to keep on your respective parts; so help you God.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3025) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3025)

Sec. 3-3025. Verdict of jury. It shall be the duty of the jurors, as sworn aforesaid, to inquire how, in what manner, and by whom or what, the said dead body came to its death, and of all other facts of and concerning the same, together with all material circumstances in anywise related to or connected with the said death, and make up and sign a verdict, and deliver the same to the medical examiner coroner. As part of its verdict, the jury may make recommendations other than for criminal prosecutions.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3026) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3026)

Sec. 3-3026. Summoning witnesses; subpoenas. The medical examiner coroner shall have power to summon, or cause to be summoned, and compel the attendance of all such witnesses whose testimony may probably be requisite to the proving of any fact or circumstance relating to the object of such his inquest, and to administer to such witnesses the proper oath.

If the medical examiner coroner is unable to secure records or documents he deems necessary to complete the investigation required by Section 3-3013, or for the establishing or proving of any fact or circumstance relating to the object of his inquest, he shall appear before the circuit judge of the county for which he is medical examiner coroner and, upon good cause shown, said judge shall issue a subpoena for the delivery to the medical examiner coroner of the documents or records requested.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3027) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3027)

Sec. 3-3027. Notice of inquest. The medical examiner coroner shall make a reasonable attempt to notify the family of the deceased, and all known eyewitnesses to the death, of the date an inquest is to be held. Such notice shall be given at least 7 days before the date of the inquest. Such family members or eyewitnesses shall, if they request it, be given an opportunity to testify at the inquest. For purposes of this Section, "family" includes the parents, children, brothers and sisters of the deceased.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3028) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3028)

Sec. 3-3028. Recognizance of witness. If the evidence of any witness implicates any person as the unlawful slayer of the person over whom the inquest is held, the medical examiner coroner shall recognize such witness in such sum as he may think proper, to be and appear at the Circuit Court for the county on a designated day, within 30 days from the date of the recognizance, or as soon after such designated day as the court is in session, there to give evidence of the matter in question, and not depart without leave.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3029) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3029)

Sec. 3-3029. Commitment of witness; returns. If any witness shall refuse to enter into such recognizance, it shall be the duty of the medical examiner coroner to commit the witness so refusing to the common jail of the county, there to remain until discharged according to law; and the medical examiner coroner shall carefully seal up and return to the clerk of the court the verdict of the jury, and the recognizances, and it shall be the duty of the clerk to carefully file and preserve the same.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3031) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3031)

Sec. 3-3031. Testimony reduced to writing; medical examiner's coroner's verdict not admissible in civil suit. The medical examiner coroner shall cause the testimony of each witness who may be sworn and examined at any inquest to be written out and signed by said witness, together with his occupation and place of residence, which testimony shall be filed with said medical examiner coroner in his office and carefully preserved: Provided, the medical examiner coroner may cause the testimony of such witnesses to be recorded or taken in shorthand minutes and transcribed by a competent person, who shall certify that the transcript of the evidence so taken and transcribed by him from notes or a recording is a true and correct copy of the original minutes taken at said inquest and is a true and correct statement of the testimony of each of the several witnesses who have testified at said inquest. Which said transcript shall be filed and carefully preserved in the office of the medical examiner coroner: And, provided, further, that whenever the testimony of the several witnesses at such inquest shall have been recorded or taken in shorthand minutes and transcribed as above provided for, the several witnesses shall not be required to sign such transcript or other statement of his testimony. Provided, further, that in any suit or proceeding hereafter commenced for the recovery of damages arising from or growing out of injuries caused by the negligence of any person, firm or corporation resulting in the death of any person or for the collection of a policy of insurance, neither the medical examiner's coroner's verdict returned upon the inquisition as provided herein, nor a copy thereof, shall be admissible as evidence to prove or establish any of the facts in controversy in said civil suit or proceeding.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3032) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3032)

Sec. 3-3032. Inquest record. Every medical examiner coroner shall, at the expense of the county, be supplied with proper record books wherein he shall enter the name, if known, of each person upon whose body an inquest shall be held, together with the names of the jurors comprising the jury, the names, residences and occupations of the witnesses who are sworn and examined, and the verdict of the jury; in case the name of the person deceased is not known, the medical examiner coroner shall make out a description of said person, and enter the same upon the record book to be so kept by him, together with all such facts and circumstances attending the death which may be known, and which may lead to the identification of the person; and shall carefully take an inventory of said person's personal effects and property of every kind and nature whatever, and state on his records what has been done with the same, and where the proceeds of any such property and the money and papers, if any, are deposited.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3033) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3033)

Sec. 3-3033. Disposition of property. When any valuable personal property, money or papers, are found upon or near the body which is the subject of a medical examiner's coroner's investigation, inquiry or inquest is , the coroner shall take charge of the same and deliver the same to those entitled to its care or possession; but if not claimed as provided in Section 3-3019, or if the same shall be necessary to defray the expenses of the burial, the medical examiner coroner shall, after giving 10 days' notice of the time and place of sale, sell such property, and after deducting medical examiner's coroner's fees and funeral expenses, deposit the proceeds thereof, and the money and papers so found, with the county treasurer, taking his receipt therefor, there to remain subject to the order of the legal representatives of the deceased, if claimed within 5 years thereafter, or if not claimed within that time, to vest in the county.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3034) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3034)

Sec. 3-3034. Disposition of body. After the inquest the medical examiner coroner may deliver the body or human remains of the deceased to the family of the deceased or, if there are no family members to accept the body or the remains, then to friends of the deceased, if there be any, but if not, the medical examiner coroner shall cause the body or the remains to be decently buried, cremated, or donated for medical science purposes, the expenses to be paid from the property of the deceased, if there is sufficient, if not, by the county. The medical examiner coroner may not approve the cremation or donation of the body if it is necessary to preserve the body for law enforcement purposes. If the State Treasurer, pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act, delivers human remains to the medical examiner coroner, the medical examiner coroner shall cause the human remains to be disposed of as provided in this Section. If the police department of any municipality or county investigates abandoned cremated remains, determines that they are human remains, and cannot locate the owner of the remains, then the police shall deliver the remains to the medical examiner coroner, and the medical examiner coroner shall cause the remains to be disposed of as provided in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 1-1-18.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3035) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3035)

Sec. 3-3035. Liability of common carrier for burial expenses. When any railroad, common carrier, airline or any steamboat, barge, propeller or other vessel engaged in whole or in part in carrying passengers for hire, brings the dead body of any person into this State; or, wherever any person dies upon any railroad car, airplane or any such steamboat, barge, propeller or other vessel in this State, or any person is killed by cars or machinery of any railroad company, or by accident thereto, or by accident to or upon any such airplane, steamboat, barge, propeller or other vessel, or by accident thereto, or when the death occurs in or about any mine, mill or manufactory, and such death shall have been caused by the wrongful act, neglect or default of any such railroad company, common carrier, airline, steamboat, barge, propeller or other vessel owner, or of the owner of any mine, mill or manufactory, the company or person owning or operating such railroad cars, common carrier, airline, machinery, barge, steamboat, propeller or other vessel, mine, mill or manufactory, shall be liable to pay the expenses of the medical examiner's coroner's inquest upon and for the burial of the deceased, and the same may be recovered in the name of the county, in any circuit court.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3036) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3036)

Sec. 3-3036. Arrest of slayer based on verdict. If a person implicated by the inquest as the unlawful slayer of the deceased or an accessory thereto is not in custody therefor, the medical examiner coroner acting upon the signed verdict of his jury shall, in his capacity as conservator of the peace, apprehend such person and immediately bring him before a judge of the circuit court of his county to be dealt with according to law on a criminal charge preferred on the basis of such verdict.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3037) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3037)

Sec. 3-3037. Embalming dead body. No licensed embalmer or person shall embalm the dead body of any person with, or inject therein, or place thereon any fluid or preparation of any kind before obtaining permission from the medical examiner coroner where such body is the subject of a medical examiner's coroner's inquest. Any person who shall violate the provision of this Section commits a business offense and shall be fined not exceeding $5,000.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3038) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3038)

Sec. 3-3038. Medical examiner Coroner in military service. In case any medical examiner coroner is called into the active military service of the United States, the office of medical examiner coroner shall not be deemed to be vacant during the time such medical examiner coroner is in the active military service of the United States, but the presiding officer of the county board of the county, with the advice and consent of the county board, shall appoint some competent and qualified person to perform and discharge the duties of medical examiner coroner in such county during the time such medical examiner coroner is in the active military service of the United States, and such person shall receive the same compensation as provided by law for the medical examiner coroner, apportioned as to the time of service, and such appointment and all authority thereunder shall cease upon the discharge of such medical examiner coroner from the active military service of the United States. Such appointee shall give a bond as required of regularly appointed medical examiners elected coroners.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3040) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3040)

Sec. 3-3040. Appointment of deputies. Each medical examiner coroner may appoint one or more persons licensed to practice medicine in this State as deputy medical examiners deputies as the medical examiner coroner, in his or her sole discretion, determines necessary and appropriate, subject to county board appropriations. The appointment shall be in writing and signed by the medical examiner coroner. A deputy medical examiner's deputy's compensation shall be determined by the county board or board of county commissioners.

(Source: P.A. 88-281.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3041) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3041)

Sec. 3-3041. Oath of deputies. Each deputy shall, before entering upon the duties of his office take and subscribe an oath or affirmation, in like form as required of medical examiners coroners, which shall be filed in the office of the county clerk.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3042) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3042)

Sec. 3-3042. Duties of deputies. Deputy medical examiners coroners, duly appointed and qualified, may perform any and all of the duties of the medical examiner coroner in the name of the medical examiner coroner, and the acts of such deputies shall be held to be acts of the medical examiner coroner.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3043) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3043)

Sec. 3-3043. Vacancy; appointed coroner. When a permanent vacancy in the office of medical examiner coroner occurs and the position is an appointed one, the county board or board of county commissioners shall fill the vacancy within 60 days from the time the vacancy occurs. If the sheriff of the county is selected to perform the duties of the coroner and the sheriff agrees to serve in that capacity, the sheriff may be compensated for those duties. This compensation shall be in addition to all other compensation received as sheriff. Any sheriff who is serving as coroner before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991 must be reappointed in order to continue to serve as coroner and to receive additional compensation under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 87-738.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3045)

Sec. 3-3045. Disposal of medications. A coroner or medical examiner may dispose of any unused medications found at the scene of a death the coroner or medical examiner is investigating under Section 18 of the Safe Pharmaceutical Disposal Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-648, eff. 1-1-17.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3046 new)

Sec. 3-3046. Home rule. A home rule county may not regulate medical examiners in a manner inconsistent with this Division. This Division is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(55 ILCS 5/3-14002) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-14002)

Sec. 3-14002. Position-classification agency. The Board of Commissioners shall have the authority to create a position-classification agency and to delegate to such agency the power to establish and maintain a position-classification and compensation plan for all county employees except those whose election or appointment is otherwise provided for by law and except those enumerated in Section 3-14022. Without limitation as to the generality hereof the authority of such agency shall also extend to the offices of the Clerk of the Circuit Court, Sheriff, County Treasurer, Recorder, Medical Examiner Coroner, Jury Commissioners, Public Defender, County Clerk, State's Attorney, County Assessor, Board of Appeals and Superintendent of Schools.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/4-6001) (from Ch. 34, par. 4-6001)

Sec. 4-6001. Officers in counties of less than 2,000,000.

(a) In all counties of less than 2,000,000 inhabitants, the compensation of Medical Examiners Coroners, County Treasurers, County Clerks, Recorders and Auditors shall be determined under this Section. The County Board in those counties shall fix the amount of the necessary clerk hire, stationery, fuel and other expenses of those officers. The compensation of those officers shall be separate from the necessary clerk hire, stationery, fuel and other expenses, and such compensation (except for medical examiners coroners in those counties with less than 2,000,000 population in which the medical examiner's coroner's compensation is set in accordance with Section 4-6002) shall be fixed within the following limits:

To each such officer in counties containing less than 14,000 inhabitants, not less than $13,500 per annum.

To each such officer in counties containing 14,000 or more inhabitants, but less than 30,000 inhabitants, not less than $14,500 per annum.

To each such officer in counties containing 30,000 or more inhabitants but less than 60,000 inhabitants, not less than $15,000 per annum.

To each such officer in counties containing 60,000 or more inhabitants but less than 100,000 inhabitants, not less than $15,000 per annum.

To each such officer in counties containing 100,000 or more inhabitants but less than 200,000 inhabitants, not less than $16,500 per annum.

To each such officer in counties containing 200,000 or more inhabitants but less than 300,000 inhabitants, not less than $18,000 per annum.

To each such officer in counties containing 300,000 or more inhabitants but less than 2,000,000 inhabitants, not less than $20,000 per annum.

(b) Those officers beginning a term of office before December 1, 1990 shall be compensated at the rate of their base salary. "Base salary" is the compensation paid for each of those offices, respectively, before July 1, 1989.

(c) Those officers beginning a term of office on or after December 1, 1990 shall be compensated as follows:

(1) Beginning December 1, 1990, base salary plus at least 3% of base salary.

(2) Beginning December 1, 1991, base salary plus at least 6% of base salary.

(3) Beginning December 1, 1992, base salary plus at least 9% of base salary.

(4) Beginning December 1, 1993, base salary plus at least 12% of base salary.

(d) In addition to but separate and apart from the compensation provided in this Section, the county clerk of each county, the recorder of each county, and the chief clerk of each county board of election commissioners shall receive an award as follows:

(1) $4,500 per year after January 1, 1998;

(2) $5,500 per year after January 1, 1999; and

(3) $6,500 per year after January 1, 2000.

The total amount required for such awards each year shall be appropriated by the General Assembly to the State Board of Elections which shall distribute the awards in annual lump sum payments to the several county clerks, recorders, and chief election clerks. Beginning December 1, 1990, this annual award, and any other award or stipend paid out of State funds to county officers, shall not affect any other compensation provided by law to be paid to county officers.

(e) Beginning December 1, 1990, no county board may reduce or otherwise impair the compensation payable from county funds to a county officer if the reduction or impairment is the result of the county officer receiving an award or stipend payable from State funds.

(f) The compensation, necessary clerk hire, stationery, fuel and other expenses of the county auditor, as fixed by the county board, shall be paid by the county.

(g) The population of all counties for the purpose of fixing compensation, as herein provided, shall be based upon the last Federal census immediately previous to the election of the officer in question in each county.

(h) With respect to an auditor who takes office on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, the auditor shall receive an annual stipend of $6,500 per year. The General Assembly shall appropriate the total amount required for the stipend each year from the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund to the Department of Revenue, and the Department of Revenue shall distribute the awards in an annual lump sum payment to each county auditor. The stipend shall be in addition to, but separate and apart from, the compensation provided in this Section. No county board may reduce or otherwise impair the compensation payable from county funds to the auditor if the reduction or impairment is the result of the auditor receiving an award or stipend pursuant to this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 97-72, eff. 7-1-11.)

(55 ILCS 5/4-6002) (from Ch. 34, par. 4-6002)

Sec. 4-6002. Medical examiners Coroners in counties of less than 2,000,000.

(a) The County Board, in all counties of less than 2,000,000 inhabitants, shall fix the compensation of medical examiners Coroners within the limitations fixed by this Division, and shall appropriate for their necessary clerk hire, stationery, fuel, supplies, and other expenses. The compensation of the medical examiners Coroner shall be fixed separately from his necessary clerk hire, stationery, fuel and other expenses, and such compensation shall be fixed within the following limits:

To each medical examiner Coroner in counties containing less than 5,000 inhabitants, not less than $4,500 per annum.

To each medical examiner Coroner in counties containing 5,000 or more inhabitants but less than 14,000 inhabitants, not less than $6,000 per annum.

To each medical examiner Coroner in counties containing 14,000 or more inhabitants, but less than 30,000 inhabitants, not less than $9,000 per annum.

To each medical examiner Coroner in counties containing 30,000 or more inhabitants, but less than 60,000 inhabitants, not less than $14,000 per annum.

To each medical examiner Coroner in counties containing 60,000 or more inhabitants, but less than 100,000 inhabitants, not less than $15,000 per annum.

To each medical examiner Coroner in counties containing 100,000 or more inhabitants, but less than 200,000 inhabitants, not less than $16,500 per annum.

To each medical examiner Coroner in counties containing 200,000 or more inhabitants, but less than 300,000 inhabitants, not less than $18,000 per annum.

To each medical examiner Coroner in counties containing 300,000 or more inhabitants, but less than 2,000,000 inhabitants, not less than $20,000 per annum.

The population of all counties for the purpose of fixing compensation, as herein provided, shall be based upon the last Federal census immediately previous to the election of the medical examiner Coroner in question in each county. This Section does not apply to a county which has abolished the elective office of medical examiner coroner.

(b) Those medical examiners coroners beginning a term of office on or after December 1, 1990 shall be compensated as follows:

(1) Beginning December 1, 1990, base salary plus at least 3% of base salary.

(2) Beginning December 1, 1991, base salary plus at least 6% of base salary.

(3) Beginning December 1, 1992, base salary plus at least 9% of base salary.

(4) Beginning December 1, 1993, base salary plus at least 12% of base salary.

"Base salary", as used in this subsection (b), means the salary in effect before July 1, 1989.

(c) In addition to, but separate and apart from, the compensation provided in this Section, subject to appropriation, the medical examiner coroner of each county shall receive an annual stipend of $6,500 to be paid by the Illinois Department of Revenue out of the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund if his or her term begins on or after December 1, 2000.

(Source: P.A. 97-72, eff. 7-1-11.)

(55 ILCS 5/Div. 4-7 heading)

Division 4-7. Medical Examiner's Coroner's Fees

(55 ILCS 5/4-7001) (from Ch. 34, par. 4-7001)

Sec. 4-7001. Medical examiner's Coroner's fees. The fees of the medical examiner's coroner's office shall be as follows:

1. For a copy of a transcript of sworn testimony: $5.00 per page.

2. For a copy of an autopsy report (if not included in transcript): $50.00.

3. For a copy of the verdict of a medical examiner's coroner's jury: $5.00.

4. For a copy of a toxicology report: $25.00.

5. For a print of or an electronic file containing a picture obtained by the medical examiner coroner: actual cost or $3.00, whichever is greater.

6. For each copy of miscellaneous reports, including artist's drawings but not including police reports: actual cost or $25.00, whichever is greater.

7. For a coroner's or medical examiner's permit to cremate a dead human body: $50.00. The medical examiner coroner may waive, at his or her discretion, the permit fee if the medical examiner coroner determines that the person is indigent and unable to pay the permit fee or under other special circumstances.

All of which fees shall be certified by the court; in the case of inmates of any State charitable or penal institution, the fees shall be paid by the operating department or commission, out of the State Treasury. The medical examiner coroner shall file his or her claim in probate for his or her fees and he or she shall render assistance to the State's attorney in the collection of such fees out of the estate of the deceased. In counties of less than 1,000,000 population, the State's attorney shall collect such fees out of the estate of the deceased.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, whenever the medical examiner coroner is required by law to perform any of the duties of the office of the sheriff, the medical examiner coroner is entitled to the like fees and compensation as are allowed by law to the sheriff for the performance of similar services.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, whenever the medical examiner coroner of any county is required to travel in the performance of his or her duties, he or she shall receive the same mileage fees as are authorized for the sheriff of such county.

All fees under this Section collected by or on behalf of the medical examiner's coroner's office shall be paid over to the county treasurer and deposited into a special account in the county treasury. Moneys in the special account shall be used solely for the purchase of electronic and forensic identification equipment or other related supplies and the operating expenses of the medical examiner's coroner's office.

(Source: P.A. 96-1161, eff. 7-21-10.)

(55 ILCS 5/4-11002) (from Ch. 34, par. 4-11002)

Sec. 4-11002. Juror's fees on inquest. The fees of each juror attending an inquest shall be fixed by the county board at a sum not to exceed $10 per inquest and not to exceed $40 per day, payable out of the county treasury, upon the certificate of the medical examiner or acting medical examiner coroner or acting coroner of the county wherein the inquest was held. Any juror may elect to waive the fees paid for attending an inquest.

(Source: P.A. 97-840, eff. 1-1-13.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1085.5)

Sec. 5-1085.5. Homicide and questionable death protocol. Each county, except home rule counties, must establish a written protocol to deal with homicides and questionable deaths. The protocol must be promulgated by the Medical Examiner Coroner, Sheriff, State's Attorney, all fire departments and fire protection districts located in the county, and all police departments located in the county. The protocol must include at least the following:

(a) the types of deaths that fall under the scope of the protocol;

(b) the agencies concerned with the death;

(c) the area of responsibility for each agency regarding the death; and

(d) uniform procedures concerning homicides and questionable deaths.

If, prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, a county has established a written protocol that was agreed to by the agencies specified in this Section to deal with homicides and questionable deaths, then that protocol is deemed to satisfy the requirements of this Section.

The protocol shall not interfere with reasonable attempts to preserve life, attempt resuscitation, or provide necessary medical services.

(Source: P.A. 92-802, eff. 1-1-03.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1106) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-1106)

Sec. 5-1106. County offices, equipment and expenditures. It shall be the duty of the county board of each county:

First--To erect or otherwise provide when necessary, and the finances of the county will justify it, and keep in repair, a suitable court house, jail and other necessary county buildings, and to provide proper rooms and offices for the accommodation of the county board, State's attorney, county clerk, county treasurer, recorder and sheriff, and to provide suitable furniture therefor. But in counties not under township organization, no appropriations shall be made for the erection of public buildings, without first submitting the proposition to a vote of the people of the county, and the vote shall be submitted in the same manner and under the same restrictions as provided for in like cases in Section 5-2001; and the votes therefor shall be "For taxation," specifying the object, and those against shall be "Against taxation," specifying the object.

Second--To provide and keep in repair, when the finances of the county permit, suitable fireproof safes or offices for the county clerk, State's attorney, county treasurer, recorder and sheriff.

Third--To provide reasonable and necessary expenses for the use of the county board, county clerk, county treasurer, recorder, sheriff, medical examiner coroner, State's attorney, superintendent of schools, judges and clerks of courts, and supervisor of assessment.

Fourth--To cause to be published at the close of each annual, regular or special meeting of the board, a brief statement of the proceedings thereof in one or more newspapers published in the county, in which shall be set forth the name of every individual who shall have had any account audited and allowed by the board and the amount of such claim as allowed, and the amount claimed, and also their proceedings upon the equalization of the assessment roll: Provided, that no publication in a newspaper shall be required unless the same can be done without unreasonable expense.

Fifth--To make out at its meeting in September, annually, a full and accurate statement of the receipts and expenditures of the preceding year, which statement shall contain a full and correct description of each item, from whom and on what account received, to whom paid, and on what account expended, together with an accurate statement of the finances of the county at the end of the fiscal year, including all debts and liabilities of every description, and the assets and other means to discharge the same; and within 30 days thereafter to cause the same to be posted up at the court house door, and at 2 other places in the county, and published for one week in some newspaper therein, if there is one, and the same can be done without unreasonable expense.

Sixth--To provide proper rooms and offices, and for the repair thereof, for the accommodation of the circuit court of the county and for the clerks for such court, and to provide suitable furnishings for such rooms and offices, and to furnish fire proof safes, and the repair thereof, for the offices of the clerks of the circuit court of the county. On or before June 1, 2019, every facility that houses a circuit court room shall include at least one lactation room or area for members of the public to express breast milk in private that is located outside the confines of a restroom and includes, at minimum, a chair, a table, and an electrical outlet, as well as a sink with running water where possible. The court rooms and furnishings thereof shall meet with reasonable minimum standards prescribed by the Supreme Court of Illinois. Such standards shall be substantially the same as those generally accepted in court rooms as to general furnishings, arrangement of bench, tables and chairs, cleanliness, convenience to litigants, decorations, lighting and other such matters relating to the physical appearance of the court room. The lactation rooms and areas shall also meet with reasonable minimum standards prescribed by the Supreme Court, which the Supreme Court is respectfully requested to create, including requirements for posting of notice to the public regarding location and access to lactation rooms and areas, as well as requirements for the addition of a sink with running water in the event of renovation to such facilities. The Supreme Court is also respectfully requested to create minimum standards for training of courthouse staff and personnel regarding location and access to lactation rooms and areas for all people present in the courthouse who need to use lactation rooms and areas.

(Source: P.A. 100-947, eff. 1-1-19.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3002 rep.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3011 rep.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3039 rep.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-3044 rep.)

Section 105. The Counties Code is amended by repealing Sections 3-3002, 3-3011, 3-3039, and 3-3044.

Section 110. The Coroner Training Board Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 5, 10, 20, 25, 30, and 35 and adding Section 37 as follows:

(55 ILCS 135/1)

Sec. 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Medical Examiner Coroner Training Board Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-408, eff. 1-1-16.)

(55 ILCS 135/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Board" means the Medical Examiner Coroner Training Board.

"Coroner" means coroners and deputy coroners.

"Coroner training school" means any school located within or outside the State of Illinois whether privately or publicly owned which offers a course in coroner training and has been approved by the Board.

"Forensic pathologist" means a board certified pathologist by the American Board of Pathology.

"Local governmental agency" means any local governmental unit or municipal corporation in this State. It does not include the State of Illinois or any office, officer, department, division, bureau, board, commission, or agency of the State.

"Medical examiner" means medical examiners and deputy medical examiners.

"Medical examiner training school" means any school located within or outside the State of Illinois, whether privately or publicly owned, which offers a course in medical examiner training and has been approved by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 99-408, eff. 1-1-16.)

(55 ILCS 135/10)

Sec. 10. Board; composition; appointments; tenure; vacancies. The Board shall be composed of 5 members who shall be appointed by the Governor as follows: 2 medical examiners coroners, one forensic pathologist from the Cook County Medical Examiner's Office, one forensic pathologist from a county other than Cook County, and one citizen of Illinois who is not currently or was a medical examiner coroner or forensic pathologist. The initial appointments by the Governor shall be made on the first Monday of August in 2016 and the initial appointments' terms shall be as follows: one coroner and one forensic pathologist shall be for a period of one year, the second coroner and the second forensic pathologist for 3 years, and the citizen for a period of 3 years. Their successors, including those appointed under subsection (c) of Section 37, shall be appointed in like manner for terms to expire the first Monday of August each 3 years thereafter. All members shall serve until their respective successors are appointed and qualify. Vacancies shall be filled by the Governor for the unexpired terms.

(Source: P.A. 99-408, eff. 1-1-16.)

(55 ILCS 135/20)

Sec. 20. Powers of the Board. The Board has the following powers and duties:

(a) To require units of local government to furnish such reports and information as the Board deems necessary to fully implement this Act.

(b) To establish by rule appropriate mandatory minimum standards relating to the training of medical examiners coroners, including, but not limited to, Part 1760 of Chapter V of Title 20 of the Illinois Administrative Code. The Board shall consult with the Illinois Coroners and Medical Examiners Association when adopting mandatory minimum standards.

(c) To provide appropriate certification to those medical examiners coroners who successfully complete the prescribed minimum standard basic training course.

(d) To review and approve annual training curriculum for medical examiners coroners.

(e) To review and approve applicants to ensure no applicant is admitted to a medical examiner coroner training school unless the applicant is a person of good character and has not been convicted of a felony offense, any of the misdemeanors in Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14, 11-17, 11-19, 12-2, 12-15, 16-1, 17-1, 17-2, 28-3, 29-1, 31-1, 31-6, 31-7, 32-4a, or 32-7 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or subsection (a) of Section 17-32 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 5 or 5.2 of the Cannabis Control Act, or a crime involving moral turpitude under the laws of this State or any other state which if committed in this State would be punishable as a felony or a crime of moral turpitude. The Board may appoint investigators who shall enforce the duties conferred upon the Board by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-408, eff. 1-1-16.)

(55 ILCS 135/25)

Sec. 25. Selection and certification of schools. The Board shall select and certify medical examiner coroner training schools within or outside the State of Illinois for the purpose of providing basic training for medical examiners coroners and of providing advanced or in-service training for medical examiners coroners, which schools may be either publicly or privately owned and operated.

(Source: P.A. 99-408, eff. 1-1-16.)

(55 ILCS 135/30)

Sec. 30. Death investigation training; waiver for experience.

(a) The Board shall conduct or approve a training program in death investigation for the training of medical examiners coroners. Only medical examiners coroners who successfully complete the training program may be assigned as lead investigators in a medical examiner's coroner's investigations. Satisfactory completion of the training program shall be evidenced by a certificate issued to the medical examiner coroner by the Board.

(b) The Board shall develop a process for waiver applications sent from a medical examiner's coroner's office for those medical examiners coroners whose prior training and experience as a death or homicide investigator may qualify them for a waiver. The Board may issue a waiver at its discretion, based solely on the prior training and experience of a medical examiner coroner as a death or homicide investigator.

(Source: P.A. 99-408, eff. 1-1-16.)

(55 ILCS 135/35)

Sec. 35. Acceptance of contributions and gifts. The Board may accept contributions, capital grants, gifts, donations, services or other financial assistance from any individual, association, corporation, the United States of America and any of its agencies or instrumentalities, or any other organization having a legitimate interest in medical examiner coroner training.

(Source: P.A. 99-408, eff. 1-1-16.)

(55 ILCS 135/37 new)

Sec. 37. Transition into Medical Examiner Training Board.

(a) No later than 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, the Board and the Executive Director, if any, shall meet to discuss what changes are necessary, as a result of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, to:

(1) reports or information furnished to the Board by units of local government;

(2) rules that may be adopted for mandatory minimum standards relating to the training of medical examiners;

(3) appropriate certification for medical examiners;

(4) annual training curriculum for medical examiners;

(5) death investigation training for medical examiners; and

(6) selection and certification of schools for medical examiner training.

(b) The Board shall implement changes necessary under subsection (a) due to this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly so that appointment of medical examiners under subsection (a) of Section 3-3000 of the Counties Code and training of the medical examiners under Section 3-3001 of the Counties Code are not delayed.

(c) No later than November 30, 2021, the Governor shall appoint 2 medical examiners, designating for each appointment which coroner on the Board is being replaced, from the medical examiners appointed under subsection (a) of Section 3-3000 of the Counties Code. The terms of the medical examiners appointed under this subsection shall expire at the same time of the coroner whom each medical examiner replaced. If both medical examiners are not appointed to the Board under this subsection on or before November 30, 2021, the coroner or coroners on the Board who have not been replaced with a medical examiner on November 30, 2021 shall continue as Board members until medical examiners are appointed and qualified to replace them.

Section 115. The Illinois Drainage Code is amended by changing Section 5-7 as follows:

(70 ILCS 605/5-7) (from Ch. 42, par. 5-7)

Sec. 5-7. Original assessments - Right to jury. The commissioners and any parties interested have the right to a trial by jury upon all questions as to benefits and damages to any lands and property affected, if a written demand for a jury is filed on or before the date and hour fixed for hearing on the assessment roll. If no demand for a jury trial is filed, then all parties shall be deemed to have waived a jury, and the court shall proceed to hear and determine all questions as to benefits and damages to any lands and other property without a jury. If a trial by jury is demanded by the commissioners or by one or more interested parties, then the court shall submit to the jury all questions as to benefits and damages to any and all lands and property, even though a demand for a jury has not been made by all of the parties interested.

If any lands or property are sought to be taken by the exercise of the right of eminent domain, then the compensation to be paid for any lands or property so sought to be taken shall be fixed by a jury, unless a waiver of a trial by jury has been filed by each owner of land or property sought to be taken.

If a trial by jury is to be held, the jury may be drawn and summoned in the manner now or hereafter provided for the drawing and summoning of juries for the circuit court. If the jury is not summoned as above provided, then the court may, when the cause is set for trial, direct the clerk of the court to issue a venire for not less than 12 nor more than 24 competent jurors, as the court shall direct, and deliver the same to the sheriff or medical examiner coroner, who shall summon such jurors from the body of the county to appear before the court at the time set for trial. The jury shall be impaneled, and the parties shall be entitled to challenge jurors as in other civil cases.

(Source: P.A. 84-886.)

Section 120. The Abuse Prevention Review Team Act is amended by changing Sections 15, 20, and 25 as follows:

(210 ILCS 28/15)

Sec. 15. Residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review teams; establishment.

(a) The Director, in consultation with the Executive Council and with law enforcement agencies and other professionals who work in the field of investigating, treating, or preventing nursing home resident abuse or neglect in the State, shall appoint members to two residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review teams. The Director shall appoint more teams if the Director or the existing teams determine that more teams are necessary to achieve the purposes of this Act. An Executive Council shall be organized no later than when at least 4 teams are formed. The members of a team shall be appointed for 2-year staggered terms and shall be eligible for reappointment upon the expiration of their terms.

(b) Each review team shall consist of at least one member from each of the following categories:

(1) Geriatrician or other physician knowledgeable about nursing home resident abuse and neglect.

(2) Representative of the Department.

(3) State's Attorney or State's Attorney's representative.

(4) Representative of a local law enforcement agency.

(5) Representative of the Illinois Attorney General.

(6) Psychologist or psychiatrist.

(7) Representative of a local health department.

(8) Representative of a social service or health care agency that provides services to persons with mental illness, in a program whose accreditation to provide such services is recognized by the Office of Mental Health within the Department of Human Services.

(9) Representative of a social service or health care agency that provides services to persons with developmental disabilities, in a program whose accreditation to provide such services is recognized by the Office of Developmental Disabilities within the Department of Human Services.

(10) Medical examiner Coroner or forensic pathologist.

(11) Representative of the local sub-state ombudsman.

(12) Representative of a nursing home resident advocacy organization.

(13) Representative of a local hospital, trauma center, or provider of emergency medical services.

(14) Representative of an organization that represents nursing homes.

Each review team may make recommendations to the Director concerning additional appointments. Each review team member must have demonstrated experience and an interest in investigating, treating, or preventing nursing home resident abuse or neglect.

(c) Each review team shall select a chairperson from among its members. The chairperson shall also serve on the Illinois Residential Health Care Facility Sexual Assault and Death Review Teams Executive Council.

(Source: P.A. 93-577, eff. 8-21-03; 94-931, eff. 6-26-06.)

(210 ILCS 28/20)

Sec. 20. Reviews of nursing home resident sexual assaults and deaths.

(a) Every case of sexual assault of a nursing home resident that the Department determined to be valid shall be reviewed by the review team for the region that has primary case management responsibility.

(b) Every death of a nursing home resident shall be reviewed by the review team for the region that has primary case management responsibility, if the deceased resident is one of the following:

(1) A person whose death is reviewed by the Department during any regulatory activity, whether or not there were any federal or State violations.

(2) A person about whose care the Department received a complaint alleging that the resident's care violated federal or State standards so as to contribute to the resident's death.

(3) A resident whose death is referred to the Department for investigation by a local coroner, medical examiner, or law enforcement agency.

A review team may, at its discretion, review other sudden, unexpected, or unexplained nursing home resident deaths. The Department shall bring such deaths to the attention of the teams when it determines that doing so will help to achieve the purposes of this Act.

(c) A review team's purpose in conducting reviews of resident sexual assaults and deaths is to do the following:

(1) Assist in determining the cause and manner of the resident's assault or death, when requested.

(2) Evaluate means, if any, by which the assault or death might have been prevented.

(3) Report its findings to the Director and make recommendations that may help to reduce the number of sexual assaults on and unnecessary deaths of nursing home residents.

(4) Promote continuing education for professionals involved in investigating, treating, and preventing nursing home resident abuse and neglect as a means of preventing sexual assaults and unnecessary deaths of nursing home residents.

(5) Make specific recommendations to the Director concerning the prevention of sexual assaults and unnecessary deaths of nursing home residents and the establishment of protocols for investigating resident sexual assaults and deaths.

(d) A review team must review the sexual assault or death cases submitted to it on a quarterly basis. The review team must meet at least once in each calendar quarter if there are cases to be reviewed. The Department shall forward cases pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of this Section within 120 days after completion of the investigation.

(e) Within 90 days after receiving recommendations made by a review team under item (5) of subsection (c), the Director must review those recommendations and respond to the review team. The Director shall implement recommendations as feasible and appropriate and shall respond to the review team in writing to explain the implementation or nonimplementation of the recommendations.

(f) In any instance when a review team does not operate in accordance with established protocol, the Director, in consultation and cooperation with the Executive Council, must take any necessary actions to bring the review team into compliance with the protocol.

(Source: P.A. 93-577, eff. 8-21-03; 94-931, eff. 6-26-06.)

(210 ILCS 28/25)

Sec. 25. Review team access to information.

(a) The Department shall provide to a review team, on the request of the review team chairperson, all records and information in the Department's possession that are relevant to the review team's review of a sexual assault or death described in subsection (b) of Section 20, including records and information concerning previous reports or investigations of suspected abuse or neglect.

(b) A review team shall have access to all records and information that are relevant to its review of a sexual assault or death and in the possession of a State or local governmental agency. These records and information include, without limitation, death certificates, all relevant medical and mental health records, records of law enforcement agency investigations, records of coroner or medical examiner investigations, records of the Department of Corrections and Department of Juvenile Justice concerning a person's parole or aftercare release, records of a probation and court services department, and records of a social services agency that provided services to the resident.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 125. The Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(210 ILCS 30/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4164)

Sec. 4. Any long term care facility administrator, agent or employee or any physician, hospital, surgeon, dentist, osteopath, chiropractor, podiatric physician, accredited religious practitioner who provides treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer in accordance with the tenets and practices of the accrediting church, medical examiner coroner, social worker, social services administrator, registered nurse, law enforcement officer, field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, field personnel of the Illinois Department of Public Health and County or Municipal Health Departments, personnel of the Department of Human Services (acting as the successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities or the Department of Public Aid), personnel of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, personnel of the State Fire Marshal, local fire department inspectors or other personnel, or personnel of the Illinois Department on Aging, or its subsidiary Agencies on Aging, or employee of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, having reasonable cause to believe any resident with whom they have direct contact has been subjected to abuse or neglect shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department. Persons required to make reports or cause reports to be made under this Section include all employees of the State of Illinois who are involved in providing services to residents, including professionals providing medical or rehabilitation services and all other persons having direct contact with residents; and further include all employees of community service agencies who provide services to a resident of a public or private long term care facility outside of that facility. Any long term care surveyor of the Illinois Department of Public Health who has reasonable cause to believe in the course of a survey that a resident has been abused or neglected and initiates an investigation while on site at the facility shall be exempt from making a report under this Section but the results of any such investigation shall be forwarded to the central register in a manner and form described by the Department.

The requirement of this Act shall not relieve any long term care facility administrator, agent or employee of responsibility to report the abuse or neglect of a resident under Section 3-610 of the Nursing Home Care Act or under Section 3-610 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or under Section 3-610 of the MC/DD Act or under Section 2-107 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

In addition to the above persons required to report suspected resident abuse and neglect, any other person may make a report to the Department, or to any law enforcement officer, if such person has reasonable cause to suspect a resident has been abused or neglected.

This Section also applies to residents whose death occurs from suspected abuse or neglect before being found or brought to a hospital.

A person required to make reports or cause reports to be made under this Section who fails to comply with the requirements of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 130. The MC/DD Act is amended by changing Section 2-208 as follows:

(210 ILCS 46/2-208)

Sec. 2-208. Notice of imminent death, unusual incident, abuse, or neglect.

(a) A facility shall immediately notify the identified resident's next of kin, guardian, resident's representative, and physician of the resident's death or when the resident's death appears to be imminent. A facility shall immediately notify the Department by telephone of a resident's death within 24 hours after the resident's death. The facility shall notify the Department of the death of a facility's resident that does not occur in the facility immediately upon learning of the death. A facility shall promptly notify the coroner or medical examiner of a resident's death in a manner and form to be determined by the Department after consultation with the coroner or medical examiner of the county in which the facility is located. In addition to notice to the Department by telephone, the Department shall require the facility to submit written notification of the death of a resident within 72 hours after the death, including a report of any medication errors or other incidents that occurred within 30 days of the resident's death. A facility's failure to comply with this Section shall constitute a Type "B" violation.

(b) A facility shall immediately notify the resident's next of kin, guardian, or resident representative of any unusual incident, abuse, or neglect involving the resident. A facility shall immediately notify the Department by telephone of any unusual incident, abuse, or neglect required to be reported pursuant to State law or administrative rule. In addition to notice to the Department by telephone, the Department shall require the facility to submit written notification of any unusual incident, abuse, or neglect within one day after the unusual incident, abuse, or neglect occurring. A facility's failure to comply with this Section shall constitute a Type "B" violation. For purposes of this Section, "unusual incident" means serious injury; unscheduled hospital visit for treatment of serious injury; 9-1-1 calls for emergency services directly relating to a resident threat; or stalking of staff or person served that raises health or safety concerns.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 135. The ID/DD Community Care Act is amended by changing Section 2-208 as follows:

(210 ILCS 47/2-208)

Sec. 2-208. Notice of imminent death, unusual incident, abuse, or neglect.

(a) A facility shall immediately notify the identified resident's next of kin, guardian, resident's representative, and physician of the resident's death or when the resident's death appears to be imminent. A facility shall immediately notify the Department by telephone of a resident's death within 24 hours after the resident's death. The facility shall notify the Department of the death of a facility's resident that does not occur in the facility immediately upon learning of the death. A facility shall promptly notify the coroner or medical examiner of a resident's death in a manner and form to be determined by the Department after consultation with the coroner or medical examiner of the county in which the facility is located. In addition to notice to the Department by telephone, the Department shall require the facility to submit written notification of the death of a resident within 72 hours after the death, including a report of any medication errors or other incidents that occurred within 30 days of the resident's death. A facility's failure to comply with this Section shall constitute a Type "B" violation.

(b) A facility shall immediately notify the resident's next of kin, guardian, or resident representative of any unusual incident, abuse, or neglect involving the resident. A facility shall immediately notify the Department by telephone of any unusual incident, abuse, or neglect required to be reported pursuant to State law or administrative rule. In addition to notice to the Department by telephone, the Department shall require the facility to submit written notification of any unusual incident, abuse, or neglect within one day after the unusual incident, abuse, or neglect occurring. A facility's failure to comply with this Section shall constitute a Type "B" violation. For purposes of this Section, "unusual incident" means serious injury; unscheduled hospital visit for treatment of serious injury; 9-1-1 calls for emergency services directly relating to a resident threat; or stalking of staff or person served that raises health or safety concerns.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

Section 140. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 6.09a and 7 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/6.09a)

Sec. 6.09a. Report of death. Every hospital shall promptly report the death of a person readily known to be, without an investigation by the hospital, a resident of a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act, to the coroner or medical examiner. The coroner or medical examiner shall promptly respond to the report by accepting or not accepting the body for investigation.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15.)

(210 ILCS 85/7) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 148)

Sec. 7. (a) The Director after notice and opportunity for hearing to the applicant or licensee may deny, suspend, or revoke a permit to establish a hospital or deny, suspend, or revoke a license to open, conduct, operate, and maintain a hospital in any case in which he finds that there has been a substantial failure to comply with the provisions of this Act, the Hospital Report Card Act, or the Illinois Adverse Health Care Events Reporting Law of 2005 or the standards, rules, and regulations established by virtue of any of those Acts. The Department may impose fines on hospitals, not to exceed $500 per occurrence, for failing to (1) initiate a criminal background check on a patient that meets the criteria for hospital-initiated background checks or (2) report the death of a person known to be a resident of a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act to the coroner or medical examiner within 24 hours as required by Section 6.09a of this Act. In assessing whether to impose such a fine for failure to initiate a criminal background check, the Department shall consider various factors including, but not limited to, whether the hospital has engaged in a pattern or practice of failing to initiate criminal background checks. Money from fines shall be deposited into the Long Term Care Provider Fund.

(b) Such notice shall be effected by registered mail or by personal service setting forth the particular reasons for the proposed action and fixing a date, not less than 15 days from the date of such mailing or service, at which time the applicant or licensee shall be given an opportunity for a hearing. Such hearing shall be conducted by the Director or by an employee of the Department designated in writing by the Director as Hearing Officer to conduct the hearing. On the basis of any such hearing, or upon default of the applicant or licensee, the Director shall make a determination specifying his findings and conclusions. In case of a denial to an applicant of a permit to establish a hospital, such determination shall specify the subsection of Section 6 under which the permit was denied and shall contain findings of fact forming the basis of such denial. A copy of such determination shall be sent by registered mail or served personally upon the applicant or licensee. The decision denying, suspending, or revoking a permit or a license shall become final 35 days after it is so mailed or served, unless the applicant or licensee, within such 35 day period, petitions for review pursuant to Section 13.

(c) The procedure governing hearings authorized by this Section shall be in accordance with rules promulgated by the Department and approved by the Hospital Licensing Board. A full and complete record shall be kept of all proceedings, including the notice of hearing, complaint, and all other documents in the nature of pleadings, written motions filed in the proceedings, and the report and orders of the Director and Hearing Officer. All testimony shall be reported but need not be transcribed unless the decision is appealed pursuant to Section 13. A copy or copies of the transcript may be obtained by any interested party on payment of the cost of preparing such copy or copies.

(d) The Director or Hearing Officer shall upon his own motion, or on the written request of any party to the proceeding, issue subpoenas requiring the attendance and the giving of testimony by witnesses, and subpoenas duces tecum requiring the production of books, papers, records, or memoranda. All subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum issued under the terms of this Act may be served by any person of full age. The fees of witnesses for attendance and travel shall be the same as the fees of witnesses before the Circuit Court of this State, such fees to be paid when the witness is excused from further attendance. When the witness is subpoenaed at the instance of the Director, or Hearing Officer, such fees shall be paid in the same manner as other expenses of the Department, and when the witness is subpoenaed at the instance of any other party to any such proceeding the Department may require that the cost of service of the subpoena or subpoena duces tecum and the fee of the witness be borne by the party at whose instance the witness is summoned. In such case, the Department in its discretion, may require a deposit to cover the cost of such service and witness fees. A subpoena or subpoena duces tecum issued as aforesaid shall be served in the same manner as a subpoena issued out of a court.

(e) Any Circuit Court of this State upon the application of the Director, or upon the application of any other party to the proceeding, may, in its discretion, compel the attendance of witnesses, the production of books, papers, records, or memoranda and the giving of testimony before the Director or Hearing Officer conducting an investigation or holding a hearing authorized by this Act, by an attachment for contempt, or otherwise, in the same manner as production of evidence may be compelled before the court.

(f) The Director or Hearing Officer, or any party in an investigation or hearing before the Department, may cause the depositions of witnesses within the State to be taken in the manner prescribed by law for like depositions in civil actions in courts of this State, and to that end compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of books, papers, records, or memoranda.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 145. The Safe Pharmaceutical Disposal Act is amended by changing Section 18 as follows:

(210 ILCS 150/18)

Sec. 18. Unused medications at the scene of a death.

(a) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the Department of State Police may by rule authorize State Police officers to dispose of any unused medications found at the scene of a death the State Police officer is investigating. A State Police officer may only dispose of any unused medications under this subsection after consulting with any other investigating law enforcement agency to ensure that the unused medications will not be needed as evidence in any investigation. This Section shall not apply to any unused medications a State Police officer takes into custody as part of any investigation into a crime.

(b) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, a local governmental agency may authorize police officers to dispose of any unused medications found at the scene of a death a police officer is investigating. A police officer may only dispose of any unused medications under this subsection after consulting with any other investigating law enforcement agency to ensure that the unused medications will not be needed as evidence in any investigation. This Section shall not apply to any unused medications a police officer takes into custody as part of any investigation into a crime.

(c) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, a coroner or medical examiner may dispose of any unused medications found at the scene of a death the coroner or medical examiner is investigating. A coroner or medical examiner may only dispose of any unused medications under this subsection after consulting with any investigating law enforcement agency to ensure that the unused medications will not be needed as evidence in any investigation.

(d) Any disposal under this Section shall be in accordance with Section 17 of this Act or another State or federally approved medication take-back program or location.

(e) This Section shall not apply to prescription drugs for which the United States Food and Drug Administration created a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy for under the Food and Drug Administration Amendments Act of 2007.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require a search of the scene for unused medications.

(g) Prior to disposal of any medication collected as evidence in a criminal investigation under this Section, a State Police officer, police officer, coroner, or medical examiner shall photograph the unused medication and its container or packaging, if available; document the number or amount of medication to be disposed; and include the photographs and documentation in the police report, coroner report, or medical examiner report.

(h) If an autopsy is performed as part of a death investigation, no medication seized under this Section shall be disposed of until after a toxicology report is received by the entity requesting the report.

(i) If a police officer, State Police officer, coroner, or medical examiner is not present at the scene of a death, a nurse may dispose of any unused medications found at the scene of a death the nurse is present at while engaging in the performance of his or her duties. A nurse may dispose of any unused medications under this subsection only after consulting with any investigating law enforcement agency to ensure that the unused medications will not be needed as evidence in an investigation.

(j) When an individual authorized to dispose of unused medication under this Section disposes of unused medication under this Section in good faith, the individual, and his or her employer, employees, and agents, shall incur no criminal liability or professional discipline.

(Source: P.A. 99-648, eff. 1-1-17; 100-345, eff. 8-25-17.)

Section 150. The Coal Mining Act is amended by changing Sections 10.03 and 10.04 as follows:

(225 ILCS 705/10.03) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 1003)

Sec. 10.03. If any person is killed in or about a mine the operator shall notify the medical examiner coroner of the county, who shall hold an inquest concerning the cause of the death. The State Mine Inspector may question or cross-question any witness testifying at the inquest.

(Source: Laws 1953, p. 701.)

(225 ILCS 705/10.04) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 1004)

Sec. 10.04. The State Mine Inspector shall make a personal investigation as to the nature and cause of all serious accidents in mines under his supervision. He shall make a record of the circumstances attending the accident, as developed at the medical examiner's coroner's inquest and by his own personal investigation. A copy of the record shall be filed with the Department within 30 days following the conclusion of the investigation, and the report shall thereupon become a part of the records of the Department. To enable the State Mine Inspector to make his investigation he has the power to compel the attendance of witnesses, and to administer oaths or affirmations to them.

(Source: P.A. 79-340.)

Section 155. The Fluorspar Mines Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 16 as follows:

(225 ILCS 710/15) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 4222)

Sec. 15. The superintendent shall post or cause to be posted an emergency organization chart or plan in a conspicuous place on each mine property designating the duties of various employees and listing mine rescue stations, hospitals, doctors, etc., to be called in case of fire, explosion, flood, cave-in or other emergency. Whenever loss of life occurs from accident in or about a mine, and when death results from personal injury, the superintendent or other person having immediate charge of the work at the time of the accident shall give notice to the inspector promptly by telephone or telegraph, followed by a notice in writing, after knowledge of death comes.

Whenever possible, the inspector shall be present at the medical examiner's coroner's inquest held over the remains of a person killed in or about a mine. Due notice of an intended inquest to be held by the medical examiner coroner shall be given by the medical examiner coroner to the inspector, and at such inquest the inspector shall have the right to examine and cross-examine witnesses, and such examination shall be part of the records of such inquest. If, at any inquest held over the body or bodies of persons whose death was caused by an accident in or about the mine, the inspector be not present, and it be found from the evidence given at the inquest that the accident was caused by neglect or by any defect in or about the mine, or because the mine was operated contrary to the provisions of this Act, the medical examiner coroner shall send notice in writing to said inspector of such reported neglect or default; and the said inspector shall immediately take steps to have an investigation made of the same. The medical examiner coroner before whom such an inquest is held shall promptly file with the inspector of mines a copy of the testimony taken thereat and a copy of the verdict rendered by the medical examiner's coroner's jury.

(Source: Laws 1945, p. 1035.)

(225 ILCS 710/16) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 4223)

Sec. 16. Employee failure; investigation. Whenever, in the opinion of the inspector of mines, a serious or fatal accident in or about any mine in this State shall have been caused by failure on the part of the operator or any employee of such mine, or by any other person, or by any of them, to observe the provisions of this Act, it shall be the duty of the inspector to immediately notify the Department of Natural Resources by wire or telephone, and cause a copy of the report of such accident or a copy of the testimony taken at the medical examiner's coroner's inquest, together with the verdict of the medical examiner's coroner's jury, and all papers in his or her hands relating thereto, to be forwarded to the Department of Natural Resources that an investigation may be immediately conducted by the Department of Natural Resources, and if they concur with the inspector, all reports and testimony so assembled shall be delivered to the prosecuting officer of the county in which the accident or loss of life occurred, together with a statement of the inspector showing in what particular or particulars he or she believes the law to have been violated, and if upon the receipt thereof the prosecuting officer of the said county deems the facts to make a prima facie cause of action against any party, that officer shall present such evidence to the grand jury and take such further steps for the criminal prosecution of such operators, employees or other persons as may seem advisable.

(Source: P.A. 89-445, eff. 2-7-96.)

Section 160. The Adult Protective Services Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 3, 5, 8, and 15 as follows:

(320 ILCS 20/2) (from Ch. 23, par. 6602)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Abuse" means causing any physical, mental or sexual injury to an eligible adult, including exploitation of such adult's financial resources.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse, neglect, or self-neglect for the sole reason that he or she is being furnished with or relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(a-5) "Abuser" means a person who abuses, neglects, or financially exploits an eligible adult.

(a-6) "Adult with disabilities" means a person aged 18 through 59 who resides in a domestic living situation and whose disability as defined in subsection (c-5) impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain protection from abuse, neglect, or exploitation.

(a-7) "Caregiver" means a person who either as a result of a family relationship, voluntarily, or in exchange for compensation has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of an eligible adult who needs assistance with activities of daily living or instrumental activities of daily living.

(b) "Department" means the Department on Aging of the State of Illinois.

(c) "Director" means the Director of the Department.

(c-5) "Disability" means a physical or mental disability, including, but not limited to, a developmental disability, an intellectual disability, a mental illness as defined under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or dementia as defined under the Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Act.

(d) "Domestic living situation" means a residence where the eligible adult at the time of the report lives alone or with his or her family or a caregiver, or others, or other community-based unlicensed facility, but is not:

(1) A licensed facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act;

(1.5) A facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(1.6) A facility licensed under the MC/DD Act;

(1.7) A facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013;

(2) A "life care facility" as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act;

(3) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof or by the State of Illinois;

(4) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation of organized facilities therefor, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(5) A "community living facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(6) (Blank);

(7) A "community-integrated living arrangement" as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act or a "community residential alternative" as licensed under that Act;

(8) An assisted living or shared housing establishment as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; or

(9) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(e) "Eligible adult" means either an adult with disabilities aged 18 through 59 or a person aged 60 or older who resides in a domestic living situation and is, or is alleged to be, abused, neglected, or financially exploited by another individual or who neglects himself or herself. "Eligible adult" also includes an adult who resides in any of the facilities that are excluded from the definition of "domestic living situation" under paragraphs (1) through (9) of subsection (d), if either: (i) the alleged abuse or neglect occurs outside of the facility and not under facility supervision and the alleged abuser is a family member, caregiver, or another person who has a continuing relationship with the adult; or (ii) the alleged financial exploitation is perpetrated by a family member, caregiver, or another person who has a continuing relationship with the adult, but who is not an employee of the facility where the adult resides.

(f) "Emergency" means a situation in which an eligible adult is living in conditions presenting a risk of death or physical, mental or sexual injury and the provider agency has reason to believe the eligible adult is unable to consent to services which would alleviate that risk.

(f-1) "Financial exploitation" means the use of an eligible adult's resources by another to the disadvantage of that adult or the profit or advantage of a person other than that adult.

(f-5) "Mandated reporter" means any of the following persons while engaged in carrying out their professional duties:

(1) a professional or professional's delegate while engaged in: (i) social services, (ii) law enforcement, (iii) education, (iv) the care of an eligible adult or eligible adults, or (v) any of the occupations required to be licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, the Illinois Dental Practice Act, the Dietitian Nutritionist Practice Act, the Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Naprapathic Practice Act, the Nurse Practice Act, the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act, the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, the Pharmacy Practice Act, the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Respiratory Care Practice Act, the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act, the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act, the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004, and the Illinois Public Accounting Act;

(1.5) an employee of an entity providing developmental disabilities services or service coordination funded by the Department of Human Services;

(2) an employee of a vocational rehabilitation facility prescribed or supervised by the Department of Human Services;

(3) an administrator, employee, or person providing services in or through an unlicensed community based facility;

(4) any religious practitioner who provides treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination, except as to information received in any confession or sacred communication enjoined by the discipline of the religious denomination to be held confidential;

(5) field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Department of Public Health, and Department of Human Services, and any county or municipal health department;

(6) personnel of the Department of Human Services, the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the State Fire Marshal, local fire departments, the Department on Aging and its subsidiary Area Agencies on Aging and provider agencies, and the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman;

(7) any employee of the State of Illinois not otherwise specified herein who is involved in providing services to eligible adults, including professionals providing medical or rehabilitation services and all other persons having direct contact with eligible adults;

(8) a person who performs the duties of a coroner or medical examiner; or

(9) a person who performs the duties of a paramedic or an emergency medical technician.

(g) "Neglect" means another individual's failure to provide an eligible adult with or willful withholding from an eligible adult the necessities of life including, but not limited to, food, clothing, shelter or health care. This subsection does not create any new affirmative duty to provide support to eligible adults. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of neglect because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(h) "Provider agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area that is selected by the Department or appointed by the regional administrative agency with prior approval by the Department on Aging to receive and assess reports of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. A provider agency is also referenced as a "designated agency" in this Act.

(i) "Regional administrative agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area that provides regional oversight and performs functions as set forth in subsection (b) of Section 3 of this Act. The Department shall designate an Area Agency on Aging as the regional administrative agency or, in the event the Area Agency on Aging in that planning and service area is deemed by the Department to be unwilling or unable to provide those functions, the Department may serve as the regional administrative agency or designate another qualified entity to serve as the regional administrative agency; any such designation shall be subject to terms set forth by the Department.

(i-5) "Self-neglect" means a condition that is the result of an eligible adult's inability, due to physical or mental impairments, or both, or a diminished capacity, to perform essential self-care tasks that substantially threaten his or her own health, including: providing essential food, clothing, shelter, and health care; and obtaining goods and services necessary to maintain physical health, mental health, emotional well-being, and general safety. The term includes compulsive hoarding, which is characterized by the acquisition and retention of large quantities of items and materials that produce an extensively cluttered living space, which significantly impairs the performance of essential self-care tasks or otherwise substantially threatens life or safety.

(j) "Substantiated case" means a reported case of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect in which a provider agency, after assessment, determines that there is reason to believe abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred.

(k) "Verified" means a determination that there is "clear and convincing evidence" that the specific injury or harm alleged was the result of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 100-641, eff. 1-1-19.)

(320 ILCS 20/3) (from Ch. 23, par. 6603)

Sec. 3. Responsibilities.

(a) The Department shall establish, design, and manage a protective services program for eligible adults who have been, or are alleged to be, victims of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect. The Department shall contract with or fund, or contract with and fund, regional administrative agencies, provider agencies, or both, for the provision of those functions, and, contingent on adequate funding, with attorneys or legal services provider agencies for the provision of legal assistance pursuant to this Act. For self-neglect, the program shall include the following services for eligible adults who have been removed from their residences for the purpose of cleanup or repairs: temporary housing; counseling; and caseworker services to try to ensure that the conditions necessitating the removal do not reoccur.

(a-1) The Department shall by rule develop standards for minimum staffing levels and staff qualifications. The Department shall by rule establish mandatory standards for the investigation of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of eligible adults and mandatory procedures for linking eligible adults to appropriate services and supports.

(a-5) A provider agency shall, in accordance with rules promulgated by the Department, establish a multi-disciplinary team to act in an advisory role for the purpose of providing professional knowledge and expertise in the handling of complex abuse cases involving eligible adults. Each multi-disciplinary team shall consist of one volunteer representative from the following professions: banking or finance; disability care; health care; law; law enforcement; mental health care; and clergy. A provider agency may also choose to add representatives from the fields of substance abuse, domestic violence, sexual assault, or other related fields. To support multi-disciplinary teams in this role, law enforcement agencies and coroners or medical examiners shall supply records as may be requested in particular cases.

(b) Each regional administrative agency shall designate provider agencies within its planning and service area with prior approval by the Department on Aging, monitor the use of services, provide technical assistance to the provider agencies and be involved in program development activities.

(c) Provider agencies shall assist, to the extent possible, eligible adults who need agency services to allow them to continue to function independently. Such assistance shall include, but not be limited to, receiving reports of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect, conducting face-to-face assessments of such reported cases, determination of substantiated cases, referral of substantiated cases for necessary support services, referral of criminal conduct to law enforcement in accordance with Department guidelines, and provision of case work and follow-up services on substantiated cases. In the case of a report of alleged or suspected abuse or neglect that places an eligible adult at risk of injury or death, a provider agency shall respond to the report on an emergency basis in accordance with guidelines established by the Department by administrative rule and shall ensure that it is capable of responding to such a report 24 hours per day, 7 days per week. A provider agency may use an on-call system to respond to reports of alleged or suspected abuse or neglect after hours and on weekends.

(c-5) Where a provider agency has reason to believe that the death of an eligible adult may be the result of abuse or neglect, including any reports made after death, the agency shall immediately report the matter to both the appropriate law enforcement agency and the coroner or medical examiner. Between 30 and 45 days after making such a report, the provider agency again shall contact the law enforcement agency and coroner or medical examiner to determine whether any further action was taken. Upon request by a provider agency, a law enforcement agency and coroner or medical examiner shall supply a summary of its action in response to a reported death of an eligible adult. A copy of the report shall be maintained and all subsequent follow-up with the law enforcement agency and coroner or medical examiner shall be documented in the case record of the eligible adult. If the law enforcement agency, coroner, or medical examiner determines the reported death was caused by abuse or neglect by a caregiver, the law enforcement agency, coroner, or medical examiner shall inform the Department, and the Department shall report the caregiver's identity on the Registry as described in Section 7.5 of this Act.

(d) Upon sufficient appropriations to implement a statewide program, the Department shall implement a program, based on the recommendations of the Self-Neglect Steering Committee, for (i) responding to reports of possible self-neglect, (ii) protecting the autonomy, rights, privacy, and privileges of adults during investigations of possible self-neglect and consequential judicial proceedings regarding competency, (iii) collecting and sharing relevant information and data among the Department, provider agencies, regional administrative agencies, and relevant seniors, (iv) developing working agreements between provider agencies and law enforcement, where practicable, and (v) developing procedures for collecting data regarding incidents of self-neglect.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14.)

(320 ILCS 20/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 6605)

Sec. 5. Procedure.

(a) A provider agency designated to receive reports of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect under this Act shall, upon receiving such a report, conduct a face-to-face assessment with respect to such report, in accord with established law and Department protocols, procedures, and policies. Face-to-face assessments, casework, and follow-up of reports of self-neglect by the provider agencies designated to receive reports of self-neglect shall be subject to sufficient appropriation for statewide implementation of assessments, casework, and follow-up of reports of self-neglect. In the absence of sufficient appropriation for statewide implementation of assessments, casework, and follow-up of reports of self-neglect, the designated adult protective services provider agency shall refer all reports of self-neglect to the appropriate agency or agencies as designated by the Department for any follow-up. The assessment shall include, but not be limited to, a visit to the residence of the eligible adult who is the subject of the report and shall include interviews or consultations regarding the allegations with service agencies, immediate family members, and individuals who may have knowledge of the eligible adult's circumstances based on the consent of the eligible adult in all instances, except where the provider agency is acting in the best interest of an eligible adult who is unable to seek assistance for himself or herself and where there are allegations against a caregiver who has assumed responsibilities in exchange for compensation. If, after the assessment, the provider agency determines that the case is substantiated it shall develop a service care plan for the eligible adult and may report its findings at any time during the case to the appropriate law enforcement agency in accord with established law and Department protocols, procedures, and policies. In developing a case plan, the provider agency may consult with any other appropriate provider of services, and such providers shall be immune from civil or criminal liability on account of such acts. The plan shall include alternative suggested or recommended services which are appropriate to the needs of the eligible adult and which involve the least restriction of the eligible adult's activities commensurate with his or her needs. Only those services to which consent is provided in accordance with Section 9 of this Act shall be provided, contingent upon the availability of such services.

(b) A provider agency shall refer evidence of crimes against an eligible adult to the appropriate law enforcement agency according to Department policies. A referral to law enforcement may be made at intake or any time during the case. Where a provider agency has reason to believe the death of an eligible adult may be the result of abuse or neglect, the agency shall immediately report the matter to the coroner or medical examiner and shall cooperate fully with any subsequent investigation.

(c) If any person other than the alleged victim refuses to allow the provider agency to begin an investigation, interferes with the provider agency's ability to conduct an investigation, or refuses to give access to an eligible adult, the appropriate law enforcement agency must be consulted regarding the investigation.

(Source: P.A. 101-496, eff. 1-1-20.)

(320 ILCS 20/8) (from Ch. 23, par. 6608)

Sec. 8. Access to records. All records concerning reports of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect and all records generated as a result of such reports shall be confidential and shall not be disclosed except as specifically authorized by this Act or other applicable law. In accord with established law and Department protocols, procedures, and policies, access to such records, but not access to the identity of the person or persons making a report of alleged abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect as contained in such records, shall be provided, upon request, to the following persons and for the following persons:

(1) Department staff, provider agency staff, other aging network staff, and regional administrative agency staff, including staff of the Chicago Department on Aging while that agency is designated as a regional administrative agency, in the furtherance of their responsibilities under this Act;

(1.5) A representative of the public guardian acting in the course of investigating the appropriateness of guardianship for the eligible adult or while pursuing a petition for guardianship of the eligible adult pursuant to the Probate Act of 1975;

(2) A law enforcement agency or State's Attorney's office investigating known or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect. Where a provider agency has reason to believe that the death of an eligible adult may be the result of abuse or neglect, including any reports made after death, the agency shall immediately provide the appropriate law enforcement agency with all records pertaining to the eligible adult;

(2.5) A law enforcement agency, fire department agency, or fire protection district having proper jurisdiction pursuant to a written agreement between a provider agency and the law enforcement agency, fire department agency, or fire protection district under which the provider agency may furnish to the law enforcement agency, fire department agency, or fire protection district a list of all eligible adults who may be at imminent risk of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect;

(3) A physician who has before him or her or who is involved in the treatment of an eligible adult whom he or she reasonably suspects may be abused, neglected, financially exploited, or self-neglected or who has been referred to the Adult Protective Services Program;

(4) An eligible adult reported to be abused, neglected, financially exploited, or self-neglected, or such adult's authorized guardian or agent, unless such guardian or agent is the abuser or the alleged abuser;

(4.5) An executor or administrator of the estate of an eligible adult who is deceased;

(5) In cases regarding abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation, a court or a guardian ad litem, upon its or his or her finding that access to such records may be necessary for the determination of an issue before the court. However, such access shall be limited to an in camera inspection of the records, unless the court determines that disclosure of the information contained therein is necessary for the resolution of an issue then pending before it;

(5.5) In cases regarding self-neglect, a guardian ad litem;

(6) A grand jury, upon its determination that access to such records is necessary in the conduct of its official business;

(7) Any person authorized by the Director, in writing, for audit or bona fide research purposes;

(8) A coroner or medical examiner who has reason to believe that an eligible adult has died as the result of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect. The provider agency shall immediately provide the coroner or medical examiner with all records pertaining to the eligible adult;

(8.5) A coroner or medical examiner having proper jurisdiction, pursuant to a written agreement between a provider agency and the coroner or medical examiner, under which the provider agency may furnish to the office of the coroner or medical examiner a list of all eligible adults who may be at imminent risk of death as a result of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect;

(9) Department of Financial and Professional Regulation staff and members of the Illinois Medical Disciplinary Board or the Social Work Examining and Disciplinary Board in the course of investigating alleged violations of the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act by provider agency staff or other licensing bodies at the discretion of the Director of the Department on Aging;

(9-a) Department of Healthcare and Family Services staff and provider agency staff when that Department is funding services to the eligible adult, including access to the identity of the eligible adult;

(9-b) Department of Human Services staff and provider agency staff when that Department is funding services to the eligible adult or is providing reimbursement for services provided by the abuser or alleged abuser, including access to the identity of the eligible adult;

(10) Hearing officers in the course of conducting an administrative hearing under this Act; parties to such hearing shall be entitled to discovery as established by rule;

(11) A caregiver who challenges placement on the Registry shall be given the statement of allegations in the abuse report and the substantiation decision in the final investigative report; and

(12) The Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission and the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act shall have access, through the Department, to records, including the findings, pertaining to a completed or closed investigation of a report of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-287, eff. 1-1-16; 99-547, eff. 7-15-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(320 ILCS 20/15)

Sec. 15. Fatality review teams.

(a) State policy.

(1) Both the State and the community maintain a commitment to preventing the abuse, neglect, and financial exploitation of at-risk adults. This includes a charge to bring perpetrators of crimes against at-risk adults to justice and prevent untimely deaths in the community.

(2) When an at-risk adult dies, the response to the death by the community, law enforcement, and the State must include an accurate and complete determination of the cause of death, and the development and implementation of measures to prevent future deaths from similar causes.

(3) Multidisciplinary and multi-agency reviews of deaths can assist the State and counties in developing a greater understanding of the incidence and causes of premature deaths and the methods for preventing those deaths, improving methods for investigating deaths, and identifying gaps in services to at-risk adults.

(4) Access to information regarding the deceased person and his or her family by multidisciplinary and multi-agency fatality review teams is necessary in order to fulfill their purposes and duties.

(a-5) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Advisory Council" means the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council.

"Review Team" means a regional interagency fatality review team.

(b) The Director, in consultation with the Advisory Council, law enforcement, and other professionals who work in the fields of investigating, treating, or preventing abuse or neglect of at-risk adults, shall appoint members to a minimum of one review team in each of the Department's planning and service areas. Each member of a review team shall be appointed for a 2-year term and shall be eligible for reappointment upon the expiration of the term. A review team's purpose in conducting review of at-risk adult deaths is: (i) to assist local agencies in identifying and reviewing suspicious deaths of adult victims of alleged, suspected, or substantiated abuse or neglect in domestic living situations; (ii) to facilitate communications between officials responsible for autopsies and inquests and persons involved in reporting or investigating alleged or suspected cases of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of at-risk adults and persons involved in providing services to at-risk adults; (iii) to evaluate means by which the death might have been prevented; and (iv) to report its findings to the appropriate agencies and the Advisory Council and make recommendations that may help to reduce the number of at-risk adult deaths caused by abuse and neglect and that may help to improve the investigations of deaths of at-risk adults and increase prosecutions, if appropriate.

(b-5) Each such team shall be composed of representatives of entities and individuals including, but not limited to:

(1) the Department on Aging;

(2) coroners or medical examiners (or both);

(3) State's Attorneys;

(4) local police departments;

(5) forensic units;

(6) local health departments;

(7) a social service or health care agency that provides services to persons with mental illness, in a program whose accreditation to provide such services is recognized by the Division of Mental Health within the Department of Human Services;

(8) a social service or health care agency that provides services to persons with developmental disabilities, in a program whose accreditation to provide such services is recognized by the Division of Developmental Disabilities within the Department of Human Services;

(9) a local hospital, trauma center, or provider of emergency medicine;

(10) providers of services for eligible adults in domestic living situations; and

(11) a physician, psychiatrist, or other health care provider knowledgeable about abuse and neglect of at-risk adults.

(c) A review team shall review cases of deaths of at-risk adults occurring in its planning and service area (i) involving blunt force trauma or an undetermined manner or suspicious cause of death; (ii) if requested by the deceased's attending physician or an emergency room physician; (iii) upon referral by a health care provider; (iv) upon referral by a coroner or medical examiner; (v) constituting an open or closed case from an adult protective services agency, law enforcement agency, State's Attorney's office, or the Department of Human Services' Office of the Inspector General that involves alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation; or (vi) upon referral by a law enforcement agency or State's Attorney's office. If such a death occurs in a planning and service area where a review team has not yet been established, the Director shall request that the Advisory Council or another review team review that death. A team may also review deaths of at-risk adults if the alleged abuse or neglect occurred while the person was residing in a domestic living situation.

A review team shall meet not less than 4 times a year to discuss cases for its possible review. Each review team, with the advice and consent of the Department, shall establish criteria to be used in discussing cases of alleged, suspected, or substantiated abuse or neglect for review and shall conduct its activities in accordance with any applicable policies and procedures established by the Department.

(c-5) The Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council, consisting of one member from each review team in Illinois, shall be the coordinating and oversight body for review teams and activities in Illinois. The Director may appoint to the Advisory Council any ex-officio members deemed necessary. Persons with expertise needed by the Advisory Council may be invited to meetings. The Advisory Council must select from its members a chairperson and a vice-chairperson, each to serve a 2-year term. The chairperson or vice-chairperson may be selected to serve additional, subsequent terms. The Advisory Council must meet at least 4 times during each calendar year.

The Department may provide or arrange for the staff support necessary for the Advisory Council to carry out its duties. The Director, in cooperation and consultation with the Advisory Council, shall appoint, reappoint, and remove review team members.

The Advisory Council has, but is not limited to, the following duties:

(1) To serve as the voice of review teams in Illinois.

(2) To oversee the review teams in order to ensure that the review teams' work is coordinated and in compliance with State statutes and the operating protocol.

(3) To ensure that the data, results, findings, and recommendations of the review teams are adequately used in a timely manner to make any necessary changes to the policies, procedures, and State statutes in order to protect at-risk adults.

(4) To collaborate with the Department in order to develop any legislation needed to prevent unnecessary deaths of at-risk adults.

(5) To ensure that the review teams' review processes are standardized in order to convey data, findings, and recommendations in a usable format.

(6) To serve as a link with review teams throughout the country and to participate in national review team activities.

(7) To provide the review teams with the most current information and practices concerning at-risk adult death review and related topics.

(8) To perform any other functions necessary to enhance the capability of the review teams to reduce and prevent at-risk adult fatalities.

The Advisory Council may prepare an annual report, in consultation with the Department, using aggregate data gathered by review teams and using the review teams' recommendations to develop education, prevention, prosecution, or other strategies designed to improve the coordination of services for at-risk adults and their families.

In any instance where a review team does not operate in accordance with established protocol, the Director, in consultation and cooperation with the Advisory Council, must take any necessary actions to bring the review team into compliance with the protocol.

(d) Any document or oral or written communication shared within or produced by the review team relating to a case discussed or reviewed by the review team is confidential and is not admissible as evidence in any civil or criminal proceeding, except for use by a State's Attorney's office in prosecuting a criminal case against a caregiver. Those records and information are, however, subject to discovery or subpoena, and are admissible as evidence, to the extent they are otherwise available to the public.

Any document or oral or written communication provided to a review team by an individual or entity, and created by that individual or entity solely for the use of the review team, is confidential, is not subject to disclosure to or discoverable by another party, and is not admissible as evidence in any civil or criminal proceeding, except for use by a State's Attorney's office in prosecuting a criminal case against a caregiver. Those records and information are, however, subject to discovery or subpoena, and are admissible as evidence, to the extent they are otherwise available to the public.

Each entity or individual represented on the fatality review team may share with other members of the team information in the entity's or individual's possession concerning the decedent who is the subject of the review or concerning any person who was in contact with the decedent, as well as any other information deemed by the entity or individual to be pertinent to the review. Any such information shared by an entity or individual with other members of the review team is confidential. The intent of this paragraph is to permit the disclosure to members of the review team of any information deemed confidential or privileged or prohibited from disclosure by any other provision of law. Release of confidential communication between domestic violence advocates and a domestic violence victim shall follow subsection (d) of Section 227 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 which allows for the waiver of privilege afforded to guardians, executors, or administrators of the estate of the domestic violence victim. This provision relating to the release of confidential communication between domestic violence advocates and a domestic violence victim shall exclude adult protective service providers.

A coroner's or medical examiner's office may share with the review team medical records that have been made available to the coroner's or medical examiner's office in connection with that office's investigation of a death.

Members of a review team and the Advisory Council are not subject to examination, in any civil or criminal proceeding, concerning information presented to members of the review team or the Advisory Council or opinions formed by members of the review team or the Advisory Council based on that information. A person may, however, be examined concerning information provided to a review team or the Advisory Council.

(d-5) Meetings of the review teams and the Advisory Council may be closed to the public under the Open Meetings Act. Records and information provided to a review team and the Advisory Council, and records maintained by a team or the Advisory Council, are exempt from release under the Freedom of Information Act.

(e) A review team's recommendation in relation to a case discussed or reviewed by the review team, including, but not limited to, a recommendation concerning an investigation or prosecution, may be disclosed by the review team upon the completion of its review and at the discretion of a majority of its members who reviewed the case.

(e-5) The State shall indemnify and hold harmless members of a review team and the Advisory Council for all their acts, omissions, decisions, or other conduct arising out of the scope of their service on the review team or Advisory Council, except those involving willful or wanton misconduct. The method of providing indemnification shall be as provided in the State Employee Indemnification Act.

(f) The Department, in consultation with coroners, medical examiners, and law enforcement agencies, shall use aggregate data gathered by and recommendations from the Advisory Council and the review teams to create an annual report and may use those data and recommendations to develop education, prevention, prosecution, or other strategies designed to improve the coordination of services for at-risk adults and their families. The Department or other State or county agency, in consultation with coroners, medical examiners, and law enforcement agencies, also may use aggregate data gathered by the review teams to create a database of at-risk individuals.

(g) The Department shall adopt such rules and regulations as it deems necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-530, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 165. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 4.1 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/4)

Sec. 4. Persons required to report; privileged communications; transmitting false report.

(a) The following persons are required to immediately report to the Department when they have reasonable cause to believe that a child known to them in their professional or official capacities may be an abused child or a neglected child:

(1) Medical personnel, including any: physician licensed to practice medicine in any of its branches (medical doctor or doctor of osteopathy); resident; intern; medical administrator or personnel engaged in the examination, care, and treatment of persons; psychiatrist; surgeon; dentist; dental hygienist; chiropractic physician; podiatric physician; physician assistant; emergency medical technician; acupuncturist; registered nurse; licensed practical nurse; advanced practice registered nurse; genetic counselor; respiratory care practitioner; home health aide; or certified nursing assistant.

(2) Social services and mental health personnel, including any: licensed professional counselor; licensed clinical professional counselor; licensed social worker; licensed clinical social worker; licensed psychologist or assistant working under the direct supervision of a psychologist; associate licensed marriage and family therapist; licensed marriage and family therapist; field personnel of the Departments of Healthcare and Family Services, Public Health, Human Services, Human Rights, or Children and Family Services; supervisor or administrator of the General Assistance program established under Article VI of the Illinois Public Aid Code; social services administrator; or substance abuse treatment personnel.

(3) Crisis intervention personnel, including any: crisis line or hotline personnel; or domestic violence program personnel.

(4) Education personnel, including any: school personnel (including administrators and certified and non-certified school employees); personnel of institutions of higher education; educational advocate assigned to a child in accordance with the School Code; member of a school board or the Chicago Board of Education or the governing body of a private school (but only to the extent required under subsection (d)); or truant officer.

(5) Recreation or athletic program or facility personnel.

(6) Child care personnel, including any: early intervention provider as defined in the Early Intervention Services System Act; director or staff assistant of a nursery school or a child day care center; or foster parent, homemaker, or child care worker.

(7) Law enforcement personnel, including any: law enforcement officer; field personnel of the Department of Juvenile Justice; field personnel of the Department of Corrections; probation officer; or animal control officer or field investigator of the Department of Agriculture's Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare.

(8) Any funeral home director; funeral home director and embalmer; funeral home employee; coroner; or medical examiner.

(9) Any member of the clergy.

(10) Any physician, physician assistant, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, medical technician, certified nursing assistant, licensed social worker, licensed clinical social worker, or licensed professional counselor of any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives.

(b) When 2 or more persons who work within the same workplace and are required to report under this Act share a reasonable cause to believe that a child may be an abused or neglected child, one of those reporters may be designated to make a single report. The report shall include the names and contact information for the other mandated reporters sharing the reasonable cause to believe that a child may be an abused or neglected child. The designated reporter must provide written confirmation of the report to those mandated reporters within 48 hours. If confirmation is not provided, those mandated reporters are individually responsible for immediately ensuring a report is made. Nothing in this Section precludes or may be used to preclude any person from reporting child abuse or child neglect.

(c)(1) As used in this Section, "a child known to them in their professional or official capacities" means:

(A) the mandated reporter comes into contact with the child in the course of the reporter's employment or practice of a profession, or through a regularly scheduled program, activity, or service;

(B) the mandated reporter is affiliated with an agency, institution, organization, school, school district, regularly established church or religious organization, or other entity that is directly responsible for the care, supervision, guidance, or training of the child; or

(C) a person makes a specific disclosure to the mandated reporter that an identifiable child is the victim of child abuse or child neglect, and the disclosure happens while the mandated reporter is engaged in his or her employment or practice of a profession, or in a regularly scheduled program, activity, or service.

(2) Nothing in this Section requires a child to come before the mandated reporter in order for the reporter to make a report of suspected child abuse or child neglect.

(d) If an allegation is raised to a school board member during the course of an open or closed school board meeting that a child who is enrolled in the school district of which he or she is a board member is an abused child as defined in Section 3 of this Act, the member shall direct or cause the school board to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse. For purposes of this paragraph, a school board member is granted the authority in his or her individual capacity to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, if an employee of a school district has made a report or caused a report to be made to the Department under this Act involving the conduct of a current or former employee of the school district and a request is made by another school district for the provision of information concerning the job performance or qualifications of the current or former employee because he or she is an applicant for employment with the requesting school district, the general superintendent of the school district to which the request is being made must disclose to the requesting school district the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department, as required under this Act. Only the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department may be disclosed by the general superintendent of the school district to which the request for information concerning the applicant is made, and this fact may be disclosed only in cases where the employee and the general superintendent have not been informed by the Department that the allegations were unfounded. An employee of a school district who is or has been the subject of a report made pursuant to this Act during his or her employment with the school district must be informed by that school district that if he or she applies for employment with another school district, the general superintendent of the former school district, upon the request of the school district to which the employee applies, shall notify that requesting school district that the employee is or was the subject of such a report.

(e) Whenever such person is required to report under this Act in his capacity as a member of the staff of a medical or other public or private institution, school, facility or agency, or as a member of the clergy, he shall make report immediately to the Department in accordance with the provisions of this Act and may also notify the person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent that such report has been made. Under no circumstances shall any person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent to whom such notification has been made, exercise any control, restraint, modification or other change in the report or the forwarding of such report to the Department.

(f) In addition to the persons required to report suspected cases of child abuse or child neglect under this Section, any other person may make a report if such person has reasonable cause to believe a child may be an abused child or a neglected child.

(g) The privileged quality of communication between any professional person required to report and his patient or client shall not apply to situations involving abused or neglected children and shall not constitute grounds for failure to report as required by this Act or constitute grounds for failure to share information or documents with the Department during the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation. If requested by the professional, the Department shall confirm in writing that the information or documents disclosed by the professional were gathered in the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation.

The reporting requirements of this Act shall not apply to the contents of a privileged communication between an attorney and his or her client or to confidential information within the meaning of Rule 1.6 of the Illinois Rules of Professional Conduct relating to the legal representation of an individual client.

A member of the clergy may claim the privilege under Section 8-803 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(h) Any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives shall provide to all office personnel copies of written information and training materials about abuse and neglect and the requirements of this Act that are provided to employees of the office, clinic, or physical location who are required to make reports to the Department under this Act, and instruct such office personnel to bring to the attention of an employee of the office, clinic, or physical location who is required to make reports to the Department under this Act any reasonable suspicion that a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child.

(i) Any person who enters into employment on and after July 1, 1986 and is mandated by virtue of that employment to report under this Act, shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the Department, to the effect that the employee has knowledge and understanding of the reporting requirements of this Act. On and after January 1, 2019, the statement shall also include information about available mandated reporter training provided by the Department. The statement shall be signed prior to commencement of the employment. The signed statement shall be retained by the employer. The cost of printing, distribution, and filing of the statement shall be borne by the employer.

(j) Persons required to report child abuse or child neglect as provided under this Section must complete an initial mandated reporter training within 3 months of their date of engagement in a professional or official capacity as a mandated reporter, or within the time frame of any other applicable State law that governs training requirements for a specific profession, and at least every 3 years thereafter. The initial requirement only applies to the first time they engage in their professional or official capacity. In lieu of training every 3 years, medical personnel, as listed in paragraph (1) of subsection (a), must meet the requirements described in subsection (k).

The trainings shall be in-person or web-based, and shall include, at a minimum, information on the following topics: (i) indicators for recognizing child abuse and child neglect, as defined under this Act; (ii) the process for reporting suspected child abuse and child neglect in Illinois as required by this Act and the required documentation; (iii) responding to a child in a trauma-informed manner; and (iv) understanding the response of child protective services and the role of the reporter after a call has been made. Child-serving organizations are encouraged to provide in-person annual trainings.

The mandated reporter training shall be provided through the Department, through an entity authorized to provide continuing education for professionals licensed through the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the State Board of Education, the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, or the Department of State Police, or through an organization approved by the Department to provide mandated reporter training. The Department must make available a free web-based training for reporters.

Each mandated reporter shall report to his or her employer and, when applicable, to his or her licensing or certification board that he or she received the mandated reporter training. The mandated reporter shall maintain records of completion.

Beginning January 1, 2021, if a mandated reporter receives licensure from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the State Board of Education, and his or her profession has continuing education requirements, the training mandated under this Section shall count toward meeting the licensee's required continuing education hours.

(k)(1) Medical personnel, as listed in paragraph (1) of subsection (a), who work with children in their professional or official capacity, must complete mandated reporter training at least every 6 years. Such medical personnel, if licensed, must attest at each time of licensure renewal on their renewal form that they understand they are a mandated reporter of child abuse and neglect, that they are aware of the process for making a report, that they know how to respond to a child in a trauma-informed manner, and that they are aware of the role of child protective services and the role of a reporter after a call has been made.

(2) In lieu of repeated training, medical personnel, as listed in paragraph (1) of subsection (a), who do not work with children in their professional or official capacity, may instead attest each time at licensure renewal on their renewal form that they understand they are a mandated reporter of child abuse and neglect, that they are aware of the process for making a report, that they know how to respond to a child in a trauma-informed manner, and that they are aware of the role of child protective services and the role of a reporter after a call has been made. Nothing in this paragraph precludes medical personnel from completing mandated reporter training and receiving continuing education credits for that training.

(l) The Department shall provide copies of this Act, upon request, to all employers employing persons who shall be required under the provisions of this Section to report under this Act.

(m) Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. A violation of this provision is a Class 4 felony.

Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any provision of this Section other than a second or subsequent violation of transmitting a false report as described in the preceding paragraph, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation; except that if the person acted as part of a plan or scheme having as its object the prevention of discovery of an abused or neglected child by lawful authorities for the purpose of protecting or insulating any person or entity from arrest or prosecution, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense (regardless of whether the second or subsequent offense involves any of the same facts or persons as the first or other prior offense).

(n) A child whose parent, guardian or custodian in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care may be considered neglected or abused, but not for the sole reason that his parent, guardian or custodian accepts and practices such beliefs.

(o) A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely because the child is not attending school in accordance with the requirements of Article 26 of the School Code, as amended.

(p) Nothing in this Act prohibits a mandated reporter who reasonably believes that an animal is being abused or neglected in violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act from reporting animal abuse or neglect to the Department of Agriculture's Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare.

(q) A home rule unit may not regulate the reporting of child abuse or neglect in a manner inconsistent with the provisions of this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(r) For purposes of this Section "child abuse or neglect" includes abuse or neglect of an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-1071, eff. 1-1-19; 101-564, eff. 1-1-20.)

(325 ILCS 5/4.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 2054.1)

Sec. 4.1. Any person required to report under this Act who has reasonable cause to suspect that a child has died as a result of abuse or neglect shall also immediately report his suspicion to the appropriate medical examiner or coroner. Any other person who has reasonable cause to believe that a child has died as a result of abuse or neglect may report his suspicion to the appropriate medical examiner or coroner. The medical examiner or coroner shall investigate the report and communicate his apparent gross findings, orally, immediately upon completion of the gross autopsy, but in all cases within 72 hours and within 21 days in writing, to the local law enforcement agency, the appropriate State's attorney, the Department and, if the institution making the report is a hospital, the hospital. The child protective investigator assigned to the death investigation shall have the right to require a copy of the completed autopsy report from the coroner or medical examiner.

(Source: P.A. 85-193.)

Section 170. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 7.9, 11.1, and 11.9 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/7.9) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057.9)

Sec. 7.9. The Department shall prepare, print, and distribute initial, preliminary, and final reporting forms to each Child Protective Service Unit. Initial written reports from the reporting source shall contain the following information to the extent known at the time the report is made: (1) the names and addresses of the child and his parents or other persons responsible for his welfare; (1.5) the name and address of the school that the child attends (or the school that the child last attended, if the report is written during the summer when school is not in session), and the name of the school district in which the school is located, if applicable; (2) the child's age, sex, and race; (3) the nature and extent of the child's abuse or neglect, including any evidence of prior injuries, abuse, or neglect of the child or his siblings; (4) the names of the persons apparently responsible for the abuse or neglect; (5) family composition, including names, ages, sexes, and races of other children in the home; (6) the name of the person making the report, his occupation, and where he can be reached; (7) the actions taken by the reporting source, including the taking of photographs and x-rays, placing the child in temporary protective custody, or notifying the medical examiner or coroner; and (8) any other information the person making the report believes might be helpful in the furtherance of the purposes of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-295, eff. 1-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02.)

(325 ILCS 5/11.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 2061.1)

Sec. 11.1. Access to records.

(a) A person shall have access to the records described in Section 11 only in furtherance of purposes directly connected with the administration of this Act or the Intergovernmental Missing Child Recovery Act of 1984. Those persons and purposes for access include:

(1) Department staff in the furtherance of their responsibilities under this Act, or for the purpose of completing background investigations on persons or agencies licensed by the Department or with whom the Department contracts for the provision of child welfare services.

(2) A law enforcement agency investigating known or suspected child abuse or neglect, known or suspected involvement with child pornography, known or suspected criminal sexual assault, known or suspected criminal sexual abuse, or any other sexual offense when a child is alleged to be involved.

(3) The Department of State Police when administering the provisions of the Intergovernmental Missing Child Recovery Act of 1984.

(4) A physician who has before him a child whom he reasonably suspects may be abused or neglected.

(5) A person authorized under Section 5 of this Act to place a child in temporary protective custody when such person requires the information in the report or record to determine whether to place the child in temporary protective custody.

(6) A person having the legal responsibility or authorization to care for, treat, or supervise a child, or a parent, prospective adoptive parent, foster parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the child's welfare, who is the subject of a report.

(7) Except in regard to harmful or detrimental information as provided in Section 7.19, any subject of the report, and if the subject of the report is a minor, his guardian or guardian ad litem.

(8) A court, upon its finding that access to such records may be necessary for the determination of an issue before such court; however, such access shall be limited to in camera inspection, unless the court determines that public disclosure of the information contained therein is necessary for the resolution of an issue then pending before it.

(8.1) A probation officer or other authorized representative of a probation or court services department conducting an investigation ordered by a court under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(9) A grand jury, upon its determination that access to such records is necessary in the conduct of its official business.

(10) Any person authorized by the Director, in writing, for audit or bona fide research purposes.

(11) Law enforcement agencies, coroners or medical examiners, physicians, courts, school superintendents and child welfare agencies in other states who are responsible for child abuse or neglect investigations or background investigations.

(12) The Department of Professional Regulation, the State Board of Education and school superintendents in Illinois, who may use or disclose information from the records as they deem necessary to conduct investigations or take disciplinary action, as provided by law.

(13) A coroner or medical examiner who has reason to believe that a child has died as the result of abuse or neglect.

(14) The Director of a State-operated facility when an employee of that facility is the perpetrator in an indicated report.

(15) The operator of a licensed child care facility or a facility licensed by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) in which children reside when a current or prospective employee of that facility is the perpetrator in an indicated child abuse or neglect report, pursuant to Section 4.3 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(16) Members of a multidisciplinary team in the furtherance of its responsibilities under subsection (b) of Section 7.1. All reports concerning child abuse and neglect made available to members of such multidisciplinary teams and all records generated as a result of such reports shall be confidential and shall not be disclosed, except as specifically authorized by this Act or other applicable law. It is a Class A misdemeanor to permit, assist or encourage the unauthorized release of any information contained in such reports or records. Nothing contained in this Section prevents the sharing of reports or records relating or pertaining to the death of a minor under the care of or receiving services from the Department of Children and Family Services and under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court with the juvenile court, the State's Attorney, and the minor's attorney.

(17) The Department of Human Services, as provided in Section 17 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act.

(18) Any other agency or investigative body, including the Department of Public Health and a local board of health, authorized by State law to conduct an investigation into the quality of care provided to children in hospitals and other State regulated care facilities.

(19) The person appointed, under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as the guardian ad litem of a minor who is the subject of a report or records under this Act; or the person appointed, under Section 5-610 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as the guardian ad litem of a minor who is in the custody or guardianship of the Department or who has an open intact family services case with the Department and who is the subject of a report or records made pursuant to this Act.

(20) The Department of Human Services, as provided in Section 10 of the Early Intervention Services System Act, and the operator of a facility providing early intervention services pursuant to that Act, for the purpose of determining whether a current or prospective employee who provides or may provide direct services under that Act is the perpetrator in an indicated report of child abuse or neglect filed under this Act.

(b) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is used to assist in the early identification and treatment of habitual juvenile offenders.

(c) To the extent that persons or agencies are given access to information pursuant to this Section, those persons or agencies may give this information to and receive this information from each other in order to facilitate an investigation conducted by those persons or agencies.

(Source: P.A. 100-158, eff. 1-1-18; 101-43, eff. 1-1-20.)

(325 ILCS 5/11.9)

Sec. 11.9. Child Death Investigation Task Force; establishment.

(a) The Department of Children and Family Services shall, from funds appropriated by the General Assembly to the Department for this purpose, or from funds that may otherwise be provided for this purpose from other public or private sources, establish a Child Death Investigation Task Force to operate in the Southern Region of the State and in other regions at the discretion of the Director of the Department. The Child Death Investigation Task Force shall develop and implement a plan for the investigation of sudden, unexpected, or unexplained child fatalities or near fatalities of children under 18 years of age occurring within that region, as may be further defined in Department rule and procedure. The plan must include provisions for local or State law enforcement agencies, the Department, hospitals, and medical examiners coroners to promptly notify the Task Force of a sudden, unexpected, or unexplained child fatality or near fatality of a child, and for the Task Force to review and investigate the notification. The investigation shall include coordination among members of a multidisciplinary team, including local or State law enforcement agencies, the Department, hospitals, medical examiners coroners, the appropriate State's Attorney's Office, and the appropriate children's advocacy center. The plan must also include provisions for training members of each multidisciplinary team on the various components of the investigation of fatalities or near fatalities of children. The Task Force shall maintain case tracking and related case information for activations. Information shall be shared and reviewed by the Task Force's Board of Directors. The plan must be submitted in writing and approved by the Board of Directors.

(b) The Child Death Investigation Task Force shall be governed by a Board of Directors composed of, but not limited to, an approved representative from each of the following agencies or groups: the Department of Children and Family Services, the Southern Illinois Police Chiefs' Association, the Illinois Coroners and Medical Examiners Association, the Illinois State's Attorneys Association, the Illinois Sheriffs' Association, the Illinois State Police, the Child Advocacy Centers of Illinois, and the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board. The Board of Directors shall have the authority to organize itself and adopt bylaws and to appoint, assign, and elect members and leaders, and shall determine the voting rights of its members. The Board of Directors shall determine all major policies and establish all necessary principles and procedures of the Task Force. The Board of Directors shall meet 4 times a year or as called for in the bylaws of the organization.

(c) The State shall indemnify and hold harmless members of the Child Death Investigation Task Force and the Board of Directors for all their acts, omissions, decisions, or other conduct arising out of the scope of their service on the Task Force or Board, except those involving willful or wanton misconduct. The method of providing indemnification shall be as provided in the State Employee Indemnification Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-733, eff. 1-1-19.)

Section 175. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code is amended by changing Section 5-100 as follows:

(405 ILCS 5/5-100) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 5-100)

Sec. 5-100. Written notice of the death of a recipient of services which occurs at a mental health or developmental disabilities facility, or the death of a recipient of services who has not been discharged from a mental health or developmental disabilities facility but whose death occurs elsewhere, shall within 10 days of the death of a recipient be mailed to the Department of Public Health which, for the primary purpose of monitoring patterns of abuse and neglect of recipients of services, shall make such notices available to the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission and to the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of "An Act in relation to the protection and advocacy of the rights of persons with developmental disabilities, and amending Acts therein named", approved September 20, 1985. Such notice shall include the name of the recipient, the name and address of the facility at which the death occurred, the recipient's age, the nature of the recipient's condition, including any evidence of the previous injuries or disabilities, or relevant medical conditions or any other information which might be helpful in establishing the cause of death.

Written notice of the death of a recipient of services who was admitted by court order, and the cause thereof shall, in all cases, be mailed by the facility director to the court entering the original admission order, and if possible, to the same judge, and the time, place and alleged cause of such death shall be entered upon the docket. Such notice must be mailed within 10 days following the death of the recipient.

In the event of a sudden or mysterious death of any recipient of services at any public or private facility, a medical examiner's coroner's inquest shall be held as provided by law in other cases.

In cases where the deceased person was a recipient or client of any state facility, and the fees for holding an inquest cannot be collected out of his estate, such fees shall be paid by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 88-380.)

Section 180. The Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 20 as follows:

(405 ILCS 82/15)

Sec. 15. Mortality Review Process.

(a) The Department of Human Services shall develop an independent team of experts from the academic, private, and public sectors to examine all deaths at facilities and community agencies.

(b) The Secretary of Human Services, in consultation with the Director of Public Health, shall appoint members to the independent team of experts, which shall consist of at least one member from each of the following categories:

1. Physicians experienced in providing medical care to individuals with developmental disabilities.

2. Physicians experienced in providing medical care to individuals with mental illness.

3. Registered nurses experienced in providing medical care to individuals with developmental disabilities.

4. Registered nurses experienced in providing medical care to individuals with mental illness.

5. Psychiatrists.

6. Psychologists.

7. Representatives of the Department of Human Services who are not employed at the facility at which the death occurred.

8. Representatives of the Department of Public Health.

9. Representatives of the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act.

10. State's Attorneys or State's Attorneys' representatives.

11. Medical examiners Coroners or forensic pathologists.

12. Representatives of local hospitals, trauma centers, or providers of emergency medical services.

13. Other categories of persons, as the Secretary of Human Services may see fit.

The independent team of experts may make recommendations to the Secretary of Human Services concerning additional appointments. Each team member must have demonstrated experience and an interest in investigating, treating, or preventing the deaths of individuals with disabilities. The Secretary of Human Services shall appoint additional teams if the Secretary or the existing team determines that more teams are necessary to accomplish the purposes of this Act. The members of a team shall be appointed for 2-year staggered terms and shall be eligible for reappointment upon the expiration of their terms. Each independent team shall select a Chairperson from among its members.

(c) The independent team of experts shall examine the deaths of all individuals who have died while under the care of a facility or community agency.

(d) The purpose of the independent team of experts' examination of such deaths is to do the following:

1. Review the cause and manner of the individual's death.

2. Review all actions taken by the facility, State agencies, or other entities to address the cause or causes of death and the adequacy of medical care and treatment.

3. Evaluate the means, if any, by which the death might have been prevented.

4. Report its observations and conclusions to the Secretary of Human Services and make recommendations that may help to reduce the number of unnecessary deaths.

5. Promote continuing education for professionals involved in investigating and preventing the unnecessary deaths of individuals under the care of a facility or community agency.

6. Make specific recommendations to the Secretary of Human Services concerning the prevention of unnecessary deaths of individuals under the care of facilities and community agencies, including changes in policies and practices that will prevent harm to individuals with disabilities, and the establishment of protocols for investigating the deaths of these individuals.

(e) The independent team of experts must examine the cases submitted to it on a quarterly basis. The team shall meet at least once in each calendar quarter if there are cases to be examined. The Department of Human Services shall forward cases within 90 days after completion of a review or an investigation into the death of an individual residing at a facility or community agency.

(f) Within 90 days after receiving recommendations made by the independent team of experts under subsection (d) of this Section, the Secretary of Human Services must review those recommendations, as feasible and appropriate, and shall respond to the team in writing to explain the implementation of those recommendations.

(g) The Secretary of Human Services shall establish protocols governing the operation of the independent team. Those protocols shall include the creation of sub-teams to review the case records or portions of the case records and report to the full team. The members of a sub-team shall be composed of team members specially qualified to examine those records. In any instance in which the independent team does not operate in accordance with established protocol, the Secretary of Human Services shall take any necessary actions to bring the team into compliance with the protocol.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

(405 ILCS 82/20)

Sec. 20. Independent team of experts' access to information.

(a) The Secretary of Human Services shall provide to the independent team of experts, on the request of the team Chairperson, all records and information in the Department's possession that are relevant to the team's examination of a death of the sort described in subsection (c) of Section 10, including records and information concerning previous reports or investigations of any matter, as determined by the team.

(b) The independent team shall have access to all records and information that are relevant to its review of a death and in the possession of a State or local governmental agency or other entity. These records and information shall include, without limitation, death certificates, all relevant medical and mental health records, records of law enforcement agency investigations, records of coroner or medical examiner investigations, records of the Department of Corrections and Department of Juvenile Justice concerning a person's parole, aftercare release, records of a probation and court services department, and records of a social services agency that provided services to the person who died.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 185. The Crematory Regulation Act is amended by changing Sections 35 and 94 as follows:

(410 ILCS 18/35)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 35. Cremation procedures.

(a) Human remains shall not be cremated within 24 hours after the time of death, as indicated on the Medical Examiner's Medical Examiner's/Coroner's Certificate of Death. In any death, the human remains shall not be cremated by the crematory authority until a cremation permit has been received from the coroner or medical examiner of the county in which the death occurred and the crematory authority has received a cremation authorization form, executed by an authorizing agent, in accordance with the provisions of Section 15 of this Act. In no instance, however, shall the lapse of time between the death and the cremation be less than 24 hours, unless (i) it is known the deceased has an infectious or dangerous disease and that the time requirement is waived in writing by the medical examiner or coroner where the death occurred or (ii) because of a religious requirement.

(b) Except as set forth in subsection (a) of this Section, a crematory authority shall have the right to schedule the actual cremation to be performed at its own convenience, at any time after the human remains have been delivered to the crematory authority, unless the crematory authority has received specific instructions to the contrary on the cremation authorization form.

(c) No crematory authority shall cremate human remains when it has actual knowledge that human remains contain a pacemaker or any other material or implant that may be potentially hazardous to the person performing the cremation.

(d) No crematory authority shall refuse to accept human remains for cremation because such human remains are not embalmed.

(e) Whenever a crematory authority is unable or unauthorized to cremate human remains immediately upon taking custody of the remains, the crematory authority shall place the human remains in a holding facility in accordance with the crematory authority's rules and regulations. The crematory authority must notify the authorizing agent of the reasons for delay in cremation if a properly authorized cremation is not performed within any time period expressly contemplated in the authorization.

(f) A crematory authority shall not accept a casket or alternative container from which there is any evidence of the leakage of body fluids.

(g) The casket or the alternative container shall be cremated with the human remains or destroyed, unless the crematory authority has notified the authorizing agent to the contrary on the cremation authorization form and obtained the written consent of the authorizing agent.

(h) The simultaneous cremation of the human remains of more than one person within the same cremation chamber, without the prior written consent of the authorizing agent, is prohibited except for common cremation pursuant to Section 11.4 of the Hospital Licensing Act. Nothing in this subsection, however, shall prevent the simultaneous cremation within the same cremation chamber of body parts delivered to the crematory authority from multiple sources, or the use of cremation equipment that contains more than one cremation chamber.

(i) No unauthorized person shall be permitted in the holding facility or cremation room while any human remains are being held there awaiting cremation, being cremated, or being removed from the cremation chamber.

(j) A crematory authority shall not remove any dental gold, body parts, organs, or any item of value prior to or subsequent to a cremation without previously having received specific written authorization from the authorizing agent and written instructions for the delivery of these items to the authorizing agent. Under no circumstances shall a crematory authority profit from making or assisting in any removal of valuables.

(k) Upon the completion of each cremation, and insofar as is practicable, all of the recoverable residue of the cremation process shall be removed from the cremation chamber.

(l) If all of the recovered cremated remains will not fit within the receptacle that has been selected, the remainder of the cremated remains shall be returned to the authorizing agent or the agent's designee in a separate container. The crematory authority shall not return to an authorizing agent or the agent's designee more or less cremated remains than were removed from the cremation chamber.

(m) A crematory authority shall not knowingly represent to an authorizing agent or the agent's designee that a temporary container or urn contains the cremated remains of a specific decedent when it does not.

(n) Cremated remains shall be shipped only by a method that has an internal tracing system available and that provides a receipt signed by the person accepting delivery.

(o) A crematory authority shall maintain an identification system that shall ensure that it shall be able to identify the human remains in its possession throughout all phases of the cremation process.

(Source: P.A. 96-338, eff. 1-1-10.)

(410 ILCS 18/94)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 94. Summary suspension of a license. The Comptroller may summarily suspend a license of a licensed crematory without a hearing, simultaneously with the institution of proceedings for a hearing provided for in this Act, if the Comptroller finds that evidence in the Comptroller's possession indicates that the licensee's continued practice would constitute an imminent danger to the public. In the event that the Comptroller summarily suspends the license of a licensed crematory without a hearing, a hearing must be commenced within 30 days after the suspension has occurred and concluded as expeditiously as practical. In the event of a summary suspension, the county coroner or medical examiner responsible for the area where the crematory is located shall make arrangements to dispose of any bodies in the suspended licensee's possession after consulting with the authorizing agents for those bodies.

(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-12; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12.)

Section 190. The Toxicological Laboratory Service Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(410 ILCS 60/1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 201)

Sec. 1. The Department of Public Health is authorized to establish and operate a toxicological laboratory service for the purpose of testing specimens submitted by medical examiners coroners, physicians and law enforcement officers in their efforts to determine whether poisonous, biologically infectious or radioactive substances have been involved in deaths, accidents, or illness; providing technical assistance and advice on the safe handling of such specimens; and for the further purpose of testing samples of water, air, and other substances to determine the radioactive or chemical ingredients of pollutants or industrial wastes which are or may be emptied into, or found in the streams, waters and atmosphere of this State, and for similar purposes.

(Source: P.A. 86-853.)

Section 195. The Autopsy Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 505/5) (from Ch. 31, par. 45)

Sec. 5. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to contravene or supersede the provisions of Division 3-3 of the Counties Code "An Act to revise the law in relation to coroners", approved February 6, 1874, as amended.

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 2996.)

Section 200. The Cadaver Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(410 ILCS 510/1) (from Ch. 144, par. 1551)

Sec. 1. Superintendents of penitentiaries, houses of correction and bridewells, hospitals, state charitable institutions and county homes, medical examiners coroners, sheriffs, jailors, funeral directors and all other state, county, town and city officers, in whose custody is the body of any deceased person, required to be buried at public expense, shall, in the absence of disposition of such body, or any part thereof by will or other written instrument, give permission to any physician or surgeon licensed in Illinois, or to any medical college or school, or other institution of higher science education or school of mortuary science, public or private, of any city, town or county, upon his or their receipt in writing and request therefor, to receive and remove free of public charge or expense, after having given proper notice to relatives or guardians of the deceased, the bodies of such deceased persons about to be buried at public expense, to be by him or them used within the state, for advancement of medical, anatomical, biological or mortuary science. Preference shall be given to medical colleges or schools, public or private and such bodies to be distributed to and among the same, equitably, the number assigned to each, being in proportion to the students of each college or school: except, if any person claiming to be, and satisfying the proper authorities that he is of kindred of the deceased asks to have the body for burial, it shall, in the absence of other disposition of such body, or any part thereof by will, court order or other written instrument, be surrendered for interment. Any medical college or school, or other institution of higher science education or school of mortuary science, public and private, or any officers of the same, that receive the bodies of deceased persons for the purposes of scientific study, under the provisions of this Act, shall furnish the same to students of medicine, surgery and biological or mortuary sciences, who are under their instruction, at a price not exceeding the sum of $5 for each and every such deceased body so furnished.

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 1980.)

Section 205. The Vital Records Act is amended by changing Sections 18, 20, 21, 21.7, and 25.5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 535/18) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73-18)

Sec. 18. (1) Each death which occurs in this State shall be registered by filing a death certificate with the local registrar of the district in which the death occurred or the body was found, within 7 days after such death (within 5 days if the death occurs prior to January 1, 1989) and prior to cremation or removal of the body from the State, except when death is subject to investigation by the coroner or medical examiner.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, if the place of death is unknown, a death certificate shall be filed in the registration district in which a dead body is found, which shall be considered the place of death.

(b) When a death occurs on a moving conveyance, the place where the body is first removed from the conveyance shall be considered the place of death and a death certificate shall be filed in the registration district in which such place is located.

(c) The funeral director who first assumes custody of a dead body shall be responsible for filing a completed death certificate. He shall obtain the personal data from the next of kin or the best qualified person or source available; he shall enter on the certificate the name, relationship, and address of his informant; he shall enter the date, place, and method of final disposition; he shall affix his own signature and enter his address; and shall present the certificate to the person responsible for completing the medical certification of cause of death. The person responsible for completing the medical certification of cause of death must note the presence of methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus, clostridium difficile, or vancomycin-resistant enterococci if it is a contributing factor to or the cause of death. Additional multi-drug resistant organisms (MDROs) may be added to this list by the Department by rule.

(2) The medical certification shall be completed and signed within 48 hours after death by the physician in charge of the patient's care for the illness or condition which resulted in death, except when death is subject to the coroner's or medical examiner's investigation. In the absence of the physician or with his approval, the medical certificate may be completed and signed by his associate physician, the chief medical officer of the institution in which death occurred or by the physician who performed an autopsy upon the decedent.

(3) When a death occurs without medical attendance, or when it is otherwise subject to the coroner's or medical examiner's investigation, the coroner or medical examiner shall be responsible for the completion of a coroner's or medical examiner's certificate of death and shall sign the medical certification within 48 hours after death, except as provided by regulation in special problem cases. If the decedent was under the age of 18 years at the time of his or her death, and the death was due to injuries suffered as a result of a motor vehicle backing over a child, or if the death occurred due to the power window of a motor vehicle, the coroner or medical examiner must send a copy of the medical certification, with information documenting that the death was due to a vehicle backing over the child or that the death was caused by a power window of a vehicle, to the Department of Children and Family Services. The Department of Children and Family Services shall (i) collect this information for use by Child Death Review Teams and (ii) compile and maintain this information as part of its Annual Child Death Review Team Report to the General Assembly.

(3.5) The medical certification of cause of death shall expressly provide an opportunity for the person completing the certification to indicate that the death was caused in whole or in part by a dementia-related disease, Parkinson's Disease, or Parkinson-Dementia Complex.

(4) When the deceased was a veteran of any war of the United States, the funeral director shall prepare a "Certificate of Burial of U. S. War Veteran", as prescribed and furnished by the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs, and submit such certificate to the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs monthly.

(5) When a death is presumed to have occurred in this State but the body cannot be located, a death certificate may be prepared by the State Registrar upon receipt of an order of a court of competent jurisdiction which includes the finding of facts required to complete the death certificate. Such death certificate shall be marked "Presumptive" and shall show on its face the date of the registration and shall identify the court and the date of the judgment.

(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-376, eff. 8-15-11.)

(410 ILCS 535/20) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73-20)

Sec. 20. Fetal death; place of registration.

(1) Each fetal death which occurs in this State after a gestation period of 20 completed weeks (and when the mother elects in writing to arrange for the burial or cremation of the fetus under Section 11.4 of the Hospital Licensing Act) or more shall be registered with the local or subregistrar of the district in which the delivery occurred within 7 days after the delivery and before removal of the fetus from the State, except as provided by regulation in special problem cases.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, if the place of fetal death is unknown, a fetal death certificate shall be filed in the registration district in which a dead fetus is found, which shall be considered the place of fetal death.

(b) When a fetal death occurs on a moving conveyance, the city, village, township, or road district in which the fetus is first removed from the conveyance shall be considered the place of delivery and a fetal death certificate shall be filed in the registration district in which the place is located.

(c) The funeral director or person acting as such who first assumes custody of a fetus shall file the certificate. The personal data shall be obtained from the best qualified person or source available. The name, relationship, and address of the informant shall be entered on the certificate. The date, place, and method of final disposition of the fetus shall be recorded over the personal signature and address of the funeral director responsible for the disposition. The certificate shall be presented to the person responsible for completing the medical certification of the cause of death.

(2) The medical certification shall be completed and signed within 24 hours after delivery by the physician in attendance at or after delivery, except when investigation is required under Division 3-3 of Article 3 of the Counties Code and except as provided by regulation in special problem cases.

(3) When a fetal death occurs without medical attendance upon the mother at or after the delivery, or when investigation is required under Division 3-3 of Article 3 of the Counties Code, the medical examiner coroner shall be responsible for the completion of the fetal death certificate and shall sign the medical certification within 24 hours after the delivery or the finding of the fetus, except as provided by regulation in special problem cases.

(Source: P.A. 92-348, eff. 1-1-02.)

(410 ILCS 535/21) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73-21)

Sec. 21. (1) The funeral director or person acting as such who first assumes custody of a dead body or fetus shall make a written report to the registrar of the district in which death occurred or in which the body or fetus was found within 24 hours after taking custody of the body or fetus on a form prescribed and furnished by the State Registrar and in accordance with the rules promulgated by the State Registrar. Except as specified in paragraph (2) of this Section, the written report shall serve as a permit to transport, bury or entomb the body or fetus within this State, provided that the funeral director or person acting as such shall certify that the physician in charge of the patient's care for the illness or condition which resulted in death has been contacted and has affirmatively stated that he will sign the medical certificate of death or the fetal death certificate. If a funeral director fails to file written reports under this Section in a timely manner, the local registrar may suspend the funeral director's privilege of filing written reports by mail. In a county with a population greater than 3,000,000, if a funeral director or person acting as such inters or entombs a dead body without having previously certified that the physician in charge of the patient's care for the illness or condition that resulted in death has been contacted and has affirmatively stated that he or she will sign the medical certificate of death, then that funeral director or person acting as such is responsible for payment of the specific costs incurred by the county medical examiner in disinterring and reinterring or reentombing the dead body.

(2) The written report as specified in paragraph (1) of this Section shall not serve as a permit to:

(a) Remove body or fetus from this State;

(b) Cremate the body or fetus; or

(c) Make disposal of any body or fetus in any manner when death is subject to the coroner's or medical examiner's investigation.

(3) In accordance with the provisions of paragraph (2) of this Section the funeral director or person acting as such who first assumes custody of a dead body or fetus shall obtain a permit for disposition of such dead human body prior to final disposition or removal from the State of the body or fetus. Such permit shall be issued by the registrar of the district where death occurred or the body or fetus was found. No such permit shall be issued until a properly completed certificate of death has been filed with the registrar. The registrar shall insure the issuance of a permit for disposition within an expedited period of time to accommodate Sunday or holiday burials of decedents whose time of death and religious tenets or beliefs necessitate Sunday or holiday burials.

(4) A permit which accompanies a dead body or fetus brought into this State shall be authority for final disposition of the body or fetus in this State, except in municipalities where local ordinance requires the issuance of a local permit prior to disposition.

(5) A permit for disposition of a dead human body shall be required prior to disinterment of a dead body or fetus, and when the disinterred body is to be shipped by a common carrier. Such permit shall be issued to a licensed funeral director or person acting as such, upon proper application, by the local registrar of the district in which disinterment is to be made. In the case of disinterment, proper application shall include a statement providing the name and address of any surviving spouse of the deceased, or, if none, any surviving children of the deceased, or if no surviving spouse or children, a parent, brother, or sister of the deceased. The application shall indicate whether the applicant is one of these parties and, if so, whether the applicant is a surviving spouse or a surviving child. Prior to the issuance of a permit for disinterment, the local registrar shall, by certified mail, notify the surviving spouse, unless he or she is the applicant, or if there is no surviving spouse, all surviving children except for the applicant, of the application for the permit. The person or persons notified shall have 30 days from the mailing of the notice to object by obtaining an injunction enjoining the issuance of the permit. After the 30-day period has expired, the local registrar shall issue the permit unless he or she has been enjoined from doing so or there are other statutory grounds for refusal. The notice to the spouse or surviving children shall inform the person or persons being notified of the right to seek an injunction within 30 days. Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (5), a court may order issuance of a permit for disinterment without notice or prior to the expiration of the 30-day period where the petition is made by an agency of any governmental unit and good cause is shown for disinterment without notice or for the early order. Nothing in this subsection (5) limits the authority of the City of Chicago to acquire property or otherwise exercise its powers under the O'Hare Modernization Act or requires that City, or any person acting on behalf of that City, to obtain a permit under this subsection (5) when exercising powers under the O'Hare Modernization Act. The Illinois Department of Transportation, and any person acting on its behalf under a public-private agreement entered into in accordance with the Public-Private Agreements for the South Suburban Airport Act, is exempt from this subsection (5), provided that the Illinois Department of Transportation, or any such person, takes reasonable steps to comply with the provisions of this subsection (5) so long as compliance does not interfere with the design, development, operation, or maintenance of the South Suburban Airport or the exercise of their powers under the Public-Private Agreements for the South Suburban Airport Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13.)

(410 ILCS 535/21.7)

Sec. 21.7. Temporary removal of a dead body. No permit for transportation signed by the local registrar is required prior to transporting a dead human body out of the State of Illinois, at the direction of a federally designated organ procurement organization, for the purpose of organ or tissue donation. The dead human body being transported for the purpose of organ or tissue donation shall be accompanied by a self-issued permit in accordance with rules adopted by the Department of Public Health. This self-issued permit shall be completed by an Illinois-licensed funeral director and embalmer or Illinois-licensed funeral director and shall serve as notification to the county medical examiner or coroner of the jurisdiction or county in which the death occurred that the dead human body is being transported out of Illinois for a period not to exceed 36 hours. This Section applies only to instances in which the dead human body is to be returned to Illinois prior to disposition. This Section does not affect any rights or responsibilities held by county medical examiners or coroners under the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act. The Department of Public Health shall adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-262, eff. 1-1-16.)

(410 ILCS 535/25.5)

Sec. 25.5. Death Certificate Surcharge Fund. The additional $2 fee for certified copies of death certificates and fetal death certificates must be deposited into the Death Certificate Surcharge Fund, a special fund created in the State treasury. Beginning 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly and until January 1, 2003 and then beginning again on July 1, 2003 and until July 1, 2005, moneys in the Fund, subject to appropriation, may be used by the Department for the purpose of implementing an electronic reporting system for death registrations as provided in Section 18.5 of this Act. Before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, on and after January 1, 2003 and until July 1, 2003, and on and after July 1, 2005, moneys in the Fund, subject to appropriations, may be used as follows: (i) 25% by the Medical Examiner Coroner Training Board for the purpose of training medical examiners coroners, deputy medical examiners coroners, forensic pathologists, and police officers for death investigations and lodging and travel expenses relating to training, (ii) 25% for grants by the Department of Public Health for distribution to all local county coroners and medical examiners or officials charged with the duties set forth under Division 3-3 of the Counties Code, who have a different title, for equipment and lab facilities, (iii) 25% by the Department of Public Health for the purpose of setting up a statewide database of death certificates and implementing an electronic reporting system for death registrations pursuant to Section 18.5, and (iv) 25% for a grant by the Department of Public Health to local registrars.

(Source: P.A. 99-408, eff. 1-1-16.)

Section 210. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Section 56.8 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/56.8)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2022)

Sec. 56.8. Pharmaceutical Disposal Task Force.

(a) The Pharmaceutical Disposal Task Force is created. The Task Force shall coordinate a statewide public information campaign to highlight the benefits of and opportunities to properly dispose of pharmaceutical products. The campaign shall be implemented by the Agency, in coordination with the Department of Public Health and the Illinois State Board of Education. The publicity of the campaign shall include, as appropriate, opportunities to properly dispose of pharmaceutical products provided by:

(1) local police departments and local governments,

(2) pharmacies,

(3) long-term hazardous waste facilities,

(4) hazardous-waste collection events,

(5) the Agency,

(6) the federal Drug Enforcement Administration, and

(7) other public or private efforts to properly dispose of pharmaceuticals.

The campaign shall address students, seniors, and at-risk populations and shall outline the public health benefits of proper disposal of unused pharmaceutical products and the dangers and risks of their improper disposal.

(b) The Task Force shall consist of the following members appointed by the Director of the Agency:

(1) one representative of the Agency, who shall serve as the chair of the Task Force;

(2) one representative of the Department of Public Health;

(3) one representative of the Illinois State Board of Education;

(4) one representative of a statewide organization representing pharmacists;

(5) one representative of a statewide organization representing agricultural interests;

(6) one representative of a statewide organization representing environmental concerns;

(7) one representative of a statewide organization representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches;

(8) one representative of a statewide organization representing medical examiners coroners;

(9) one representative of a statewide organization representing pharmaceutical manufacturers; and

(10) one representative of a statewide organization representing retailers.

If a vacancy occurs in the Task Force membership, the vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment. Task Force members shall not receive compensation for their service on the Task Force. The Agency shall provide the Task Force with administrative and other support.

(c) This Section is repealed on December 31, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 100-925, eff. 1-1-19.)

Section 215. The Fire Investigation Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(425 ILCS 25/6) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 6)

Sec. 6. Investigation and record of fires; Office of the State Fire Marshal.

(a) The chief of the fire department shall investigate the cause, origin and circumstances of every fire occurring in a municipality or fire protection district, or in any area or on any property which is furnished fire protection by the fire department of such municipality or fire protection district, by which property has been destroyed or damaged, and shall especially make investigation as to whether such fire was the result of carelessness or design. Such investigation shall be begun within two days, not including Sunday, of the occurrence of such fire, and the Office shall have the right to supervise and direct such investigation whenever it deems it expedient or necessary. The officer making investigation of fires occurring in cities, villages, towns, fire protection districts or townships shall forthwith notify the Office and shall by the 15th of the month following the occurrence of the fire, furnish to the Office a statement of all facts relating to the cause and origin of the fire, and such other information as may be called for in a format approved or on forms provided by the Office.

(b) In every case in which a fire is determined to be a contributing factor in a death, the medical examiner coroner of the county where the death occurred shall report the death to the Office as provided in Section 3-3013 of the Counties Code.

(c) The Office shall keep a record of all fires occurring in the State, together with all facts, statistics and circumstances, including the origin of the fires, which may be determined by the investigations provided by this act; such record shall at all times be open to the public inspection, and such portions of it as the State Director of Insurance may deem necessary shall be transcribed and forwarded to him within fifteen days from the first of January of each year.

(d) In addition to the reporting of fires, the chief of the fire department shall furnish to the Office such other information as the State Fire Marshal deems of importance to the fire services.

(Source: P.A. 101-82, eff. 1-1-20.)

Section 220. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 6-117, 11-413, 11-414, 11-501.7, and 12-215 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/6-117) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-117)

Sec. 6-117. Records to be kept by the Secretary of State.

(a) The Secretary of State shall file every application for a license or permit accepted under this Chapter, and shall maintain suitable indexes thereof. The records of the Secretary of State shall indicate the action taken with respect to such applications.

(b) The Secretary of State shall maintain appropriate records of all licenses and permits refused, cancelled, disqualified, revoked, or suspended and of the revocation, suspension, and disqualification of driving privileges of persons not licensed under this Chapter, and such records shall note the reasons for such action.

(c) The Secretary of State shall maintain appropriate records of convictions reported under this Chapter. Records of conviction may be maintained in a computer processible medium.

(d) The Secretary of State may also maintain appropriate records of any accident reports received.

(e) The Secretary of State shall also maintain appropriate records of any disposition of supervision or records relative to a driver's referral to a driver remedial or rehabilitative program, as required by the Secretary of State or the courts. Such records shall only be available for use by the Secretary, the driver licensing administrator of any other state, law enforcement agencies, the courts, and the affected driver or, upon proper verification, such affected driver's attorney.

(f) The Secretary of State shall also maintain or contract to maintain appropriate records of all photographs and signatures obtained in the process of issuing any driver's license, permit, or identification card. The record shall be confidential and shall not be disclosed except to those entities listed under Section 6-110.1 of this Code.

(g) The Secretary of State may establish a First Person Consent organ and tissue donor registry in compliance with subsection (b-1) of Section 5-20 of the Illinois Anatomical Gift Act, as follows:

(1) The Secretary shall offer, to each applicant for issuance or renewal of a driver's license or identification card who is 16 years of age or older, the opportunity to have his or her name included in the First Person Consent organ and tissue donor registry. The Secretary must advise the applicant or licensee that he or she is under no compulsion to have his or her name included in the registry. An individual who agrees to having his or her name included in the First Person Consent organ and tissue donor registry has given full legal consent to the donation of any of his or her organs or tissue upon his or her death. A brochure explaining this method of executing an anatomical gift must be given to each applicant for issuance or renewal of a driver's license or identification card. The brochure must advise the applicant or licensee (i) that he or she is under no compulsion to have his or her name included in this registry and (ii) that he or she may wish to consult with family, friends, or clergy before doing so.

(2) The Secretary of State may establish additional methods by which an individual may have his or her name included in the First Person Consent organ and tissue donor registry.

(3) When an individual has agreed to have his or her name included in the First Person Consent organ and tissue donor registry, the Secretary of State shall note that agreement in the First Person consent organ and tissue donor registry. Representatives of federally designated organ procurement agencies and tissue banks and the offices of Illinois county coroners and medical examiners may inquire of the Secretary of State whether a potential organ donor's name is included in the First Person Consent organ and tissue donor registry, and the Secretary of State may provide that information to the representative.

(4) An individual may withdraw his or her consent to be listed in the First Person Consent organ and tissue donor registry maintained by the Secretary of State by notifying the Secretary of State in writing, or by any other means approved by the Secretary, of the individual's decision to have his or her name removed from the registry.

(5) The Secretary of State may undertake additional efforts, including education and awareness activities, to promote organ and tissue donation.

(6) In the absence of gross negligence or willful misconduct, the Secretary of State and his or her employees are immune from any civil or criminal liability in connection with an individual's consent to be listed in the organ and tissue donor registry.

(Source: P.A. 100-41, eff. 1-1-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-413) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-413)

Sec. 11-413. Medical examiners Coroners to report. All medical examiners coroners shall on or before the 10th day of each month report in writing to the Administrator the death of any person within their respective jurisdiction, during the preceding calendar month, as the result of a traffic accident giving the time and place of the accident and the circumstances relating thereto.

(Source: P.A. 83-831.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-414) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-414)

Sec. 11-414. Department to tabulate and analyze motor vehicle accident reports. The Department shall tabulate and may analyze all written motor vehicle accident reports received in compliance with this Code and shall publish annually or at more frequent intervals motor vehicle accident data. The Department:

1. (blank);

2. shall, upon written request, make available to the public motor vehicle accident data that shall be distributed under Sections 11-412 and 11-417 of this Code;

3. may conduct special investigations of motor vehicle accidents and may solicit supplementary reports from drivers, owners, police departments, sheriffs, medical examiners coroners, or any other individual. Failure of any individual to submit a supplementary report subjects such individual to the same penalties for failure to report as designated under Section 11-406.

(Source: P.A. 100-96, eff. 1-1-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.7) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501.7)

Sec. 11-501.7. (a) As a condition of probation or discharge of a person convicted of a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, who was less than 21 years of age at the time of the offense, or a person adjudicated delinquent pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, for violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, the Court may order the offender to participate in the Youthful Intoxicated Drivers' Visitation Program. The Program shall consist of a supervised visitation as provided by this Section by the person to at least one of the following, to the extent that personnel and facilities are available:

(1) A State or private rehabilitation facility that cares for victims of motor vehicle accidents involving persons under the influence of alcohol.

(2) A facility which cares for advanced alcoholics to observe persons in the terminal stages of alcoholism, under the supervision of appropriately licensed medical personnel.

(3) If approved by the medical examiner coroner of the county where the person resides, the county medical examiner's coroner's office or the county morgue to observe appropriate victims of motor vehicle accidents involving persons under the influence of alcohol, under the supervision of the medical examiner coroner or deputy medical examiner coroner.

(b) The Program shall be operated by the appropriate probation authorities of the courts of the various circuits. The youthful offender ordered to participate in the Program shall bear all costs associated with participation in the Program. A parent or guardian of the offender may assume the obligation of the offender to pay the costs of the Program. The court may waive the requirement that the offender pay the costs of participation in the Program upon a finding of indigency.

(c) As used in this Section, "appropriate victims" means victims whose condition is determined by the visit supervisor to demonstrate the results of motor vehicle accidents involving persons under the influence of alcohol without being excessively gruesome or traumatic to the observer.

(d) Any visitation shall include, before any observation of victims or persons with disabilities, a comprehensive counseling session with the visitation supervisor at which the supervisor shall explain and discuss the experiences which may be encountered during the visitation in order to ascertain whether the visitation is appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-215) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-215)

Sec. 12-215. Oscillating, rotating or flashing lights on motor vehicles. Except as otherwise provided in this Code:

(a) The use of red or white oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Law enforcement vehicles of State, Federal or local authorities;

2. A vehicle operated by a police officer or county medical examiner coroner and designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, as a law enforcement vehicle; however, such designation or authorization must be carried in the vehicle;

2.1. A vehicle operated by a fire chief, deputy fire chief, or assistant fire chief who has completed an emergency vehicle operation training course approved by the Office of the State Fire Marshal and designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, as a fire department, fire protection district, or township fire department vehicle; however, the designation or authorization must be carried in the vehicle, and the lights may be visible or activated only when responding to a bona fide emergency;

3. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or federal firefighting vehicles;

4. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as ambulances or rescue vehicles; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call for and while actually conveying the sick or injured;

4.5. Vehicles which are occasionally used as rescue vehicles that have been authorized for use as rescue vehicles by a volunteer EMS provider, provided that the operator of the vehicle has successfully completed an emergency vehicle operation training course recognized by the Department of Public Health; furthermore, the lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call for the sick or injured;

5. Tow trucks licensed in a state that requires such lights; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on any such tow truck while the tow truck is operating in the State of Illinois;

6. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public Health, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Corrections, and vehicles of the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice;

7. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act;

8. School buses operating alternately flashing head lamps as permitted under Section 12-805 of this Code;

9. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as organ transplant vehicles when used in combination with blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights; furthermore, these lights shall be lighted only when the transportation is declared an emergency by a member of the transplant team or a representative of the organ procurement organization;

10. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives emergency response;

11. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Transportation identified as Emergency Traffic Patrol; the lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call or when parked or stationary while engaged in motor vehicle assistance or at the scene of the emergency; and

12. Vehicles of the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority with a gross vehicle weight rating of 9,000 pounds or more and those identified as Highway Emergency Lane Patrol; the lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call or when parked or stationary while engaged in motor vehicle assistance or at the scene of the emergency.

(b) The use of amber oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Second division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except as required in this paragraph 1; such lights shall be lighted when such vehicles are actually being used at the scene of an accident or disablement; if the towing vehicle is equipped with a flat bed that supports all wheels of the vehicle being transported, the lights shall not be lighted while the vehicle is engaged in towing on a highway; if the towing vehicle is not equipped with a flat bed that supports all wheels of a vehicle being transported, the lights shall be lighted while the towing vehicle is engaged in towing on a highway during all times when the use of headlights is required under Section 12-201 of this Code; in addition, these vehicles may use white oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights in combination with amber oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights as provided in this paragraph;

2. Motor vehicles or equipment of the State of Illinois, the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority, local authorities and contractors; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except while such vehicles are engaged in maintenance or construction operations within the limits of construction projects;

3. Vehicles or equipment used by engineering or survey crews; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except while such vehicles are actually engaged in work on a highway;

4. Vehicles of public utilities, municipalities, or other construction, maintenance or automotive service vehicles except that such lights shall be lighted only as a means for indicating the presence of a vehicular traffic hazard requiring unusual care in approaching, overtaking or passing while such vehicles are engaged in maintenance, service or construction on a highway;

5. Oversized vehicle or load; however, such lights shall only be lighted when moving under permit issued by the Department under Section 15-301 of this Code;

6. The front and rear of motorized equipment owned and operated by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof, which is designed and used for removal of snow and ice from highways;

6.1. The front and rear of motorized equipment or vehicles that (i) are not owned by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State, (ii) are designed and used for removal of snow and ice from highways and parking lots, and (iii) are equipped with a snow plow that is 12 feet in width; these lights may not be lighted except when the motorized equipment or vehicle is actually being used for those purposes on behalf of a unit of government;

7. Fleet safety vehicles registered in another state, furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except as provided for in Section 12-212 of this Code;

8. Such other vehicles as may be authorized by local authorities;

9. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local authorities when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights;

9.5. Propane delivery trucks;

10. Vehicles used for collecting or delivering mail for the United States Postal Service provided that such lights shall not be lighted except when such vehicles are actually being used for such purposes;

10.5. Vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, provided that such lights shall not be lighted except for when such vehicles are engaged in work for the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal;

11. Any vehicle displaying a slow-moving vehicle emblem as provided in Section 12-205.1;

12. All trucks equipped with self-compactors or roll-off hoists and roll-on containers for garbage, recycling, or refuse hauling. Such lights shall not be lighted except when such vehicles are actually being used for such purposes;

13. Vehicles used by a security company, alarm responder, control agency, or the Illinois Department of Corrections;

14. Security vehicles of the Department of Human Services; however, the lights shall not be lighted except when being used for security related purposes under the direction of the superintendent of the facility where the vehicle is located; and

15. Vehicles of union representatives, except that the lights shall be lighted only while the vehicle is within the limits of a construction project.

(c) The use of blue oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Rescue squad vehicles not owned by a fire department and vehicles owned or operated by a:

voluntary firefighter;

paid firefighter;

part-paid firefighter;

call firefighter;

member of the board of trustees of a fire protection district;

paid or unpaid member of a rescue squad;

paid or unpaid member of a voluntary ambulance unit; or

paid or unpaid members of a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, and carrying that designation or authorization in the vehicle.

However, such lights are not to be lighted except when responding to a bona fide emergency or when parked or stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance call, or motor vehicle accident.

Any person using these lights in accordance with this subdivision (c)1 must carry on his or her person an identification card or letter identifying the bona fide member of a fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency that owns or operates that vehicle. The card or letter must include:

(A) the name of the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency;

(B) the member's position within the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency;

(C) the member's term of service; and

(D) the name of a person within the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency to contact to verify the information provided.

2. Police department vehicles in cities having a population of 500,000 or more inhabitants.

3. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local authorities when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights.

4. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or federal firefighting vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights.

5. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as ambulances or rescue vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call.

6. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as organ transport vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights; furthermore, these lights shall only be lighted when the transportation is declared an emergency by a member of the transplant team or a representative of the organ procurement organization.

7. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public Health, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Corrections, and vehicles of the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

8. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

9. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives emergency response, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

(c-1) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a voluntary firefighter, a voluntary member of a rescue squad, or a member of a voluntary ambulance unit may be equipped with flashing white headlights and blue grill lights, which may be used only in responding to an emergency call or when parked or stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance call, or motor vehicle accident.

(c-2) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a paid or unpaid member of a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, may be equipped with white oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights to be used in combination with blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights, if authorization by local authorities is in writing and carried in the vehicle.

(d) The use of a combination of amber and white oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on second division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles or motor vehicles or equipment of the State of Illinois, local authorities, contractors, and union representatives; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on second division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles or vehicles of the State of Illinois, local authorities, and contractors except while such vehicles are engaged in a tow operation, highway maintenance, or construction operations within the limits of highway construction projects, and shall not be lighted on the vehicles of union representatives except when those vehicles are within the limits of a construction project.

(e) All oscillating, rotating or flashing lights referred to in this Section shall be of sufficient intensity, when illuminated, to be visible at 500 feet in normal sunlight.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a manufacturer of oscillating, rotating or flashing lights or his representative or authorized vendor from temporarily mounting such lights on a vehicle for demonstration purposes only. If the lights are not covered while the vehicle is operated upon a highway, the vehicle shall display signage indicating that the vehicle is out of service or not an emergency vehicle. The signage shall be displayed on all sides of the vehicle in letters at least 2 inches tall and one-half inch wide. A vehicle authorized to have oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights mounted for demonstration purposes may not activate the lights while the vehicle is operated upon a highway.

(g) Any person violating the provisions of subsections (a), (b), (c) or (d) of this Section who without lawful authority stops or detains or attempts to stop or detain another person shall be guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(h) Except as provided in subsection (g) above, any person violating the provisions of subsections (a) or (c) of this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 100-62, eff. 8-11-17; 101-56, eff. 1-1-20.)

Section 225. The Boat Registration and Safety Act is amended by changing Section 6-1 as follows:

(625 ILCS 45/6-1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 316-1)

Sec. 6-1. Collisions, accidents, and casualties; reports.

A. The operator of a vessel involved in a collision, accident, or other casualty, so far as he can without serious danger to his own vessel, crew, passengers and guests, if any, shall render to other persons affected by the collision, accident, or other casualty assistance as may be practicable and as may be necessary in order to save them from or minimize any danger caused by the collision, accident, or other casualty, and also shall give his name, address, and identification of his vessel to any person injured and to the owner of any property damaged in the collision, accident, or other casualty.

If the collision, accident, or other casualty has resulted in the death of or personal injury to any person, failure to comply with this subsection A is a Class A misdemeanor.

A-1. Any person who has failed to stop or to comply with the requirements of subsection A must, as soon as possible but in no case later than one hour after the collision, accident, or other casualty, or, if hospitalized and incapacitated from reporting at any time during that period, as soon as possible but in no case later than one hour after being discharged from the hospital, report the date, place, and approximate time of the collision, accident, or other casualty, the watercraft operator's name and address, the identification number of the watercraft, if any, and the names of all other occupants of the watercraft, at a police station or sheriff's office near the location where the collision, accident, or other casualty occurred. A report made as required under this subsection A-1 may not be used, directly or indirectly, as a basis for the prosecution of any violation of subsection A.

As used in this Section, personal injury means any injury requiring treatment beyond first aid.

Any person failing to comply with this subsection A-1 is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the collision, accident, or other casualty does not result in the death of any person. Any person failing to comply with this subsection A-1 when the collision, accident, or other casualty results in the death of any person is guilty of a Class 2 felony, for which the person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.

B. In the case of collision, accident, or other casualty involving a vessel, the operator, if the collision, accident, or other casualty results in death or injury to a person or damage to property in excess of $2000, or there is a complete loss of the vessel, shall file with the Department a full description of the collision, accident, or other casualty, including information as the Department may by regulation require. Reports of the accidents must be filed with the Department on a Department Accident Report form within 5 days.

C. Reports of accidents resulting in personal injury, where a person sustains an injury requiring medical attention beyond first aid, must be filed with the Department on a Department Accident Report form within 5 days. Accidents that result in loss of life shall be reported to the Department on a Department form within 48 hours.

D. All required accident reports and supplemental reports are without prejudice to the individual reporting, and are for the confidential use of the Department, except that the Department may disclose the identity of a person involved in an accident when the identity is not otherwise known or when the person denies his presence at the accident. No report to the Department may be used as evidence in any trial, civil or criminal, arising out of an accident, except that the Department must furnish upon demand of any person who has or claims to have made a report or upon demand of any court a certificate showing that a specified accident report has or has not been made to the Department solely to prove a compliance or a failure to comply with the requirements that a report be made to the Department.

E. (1) Every coroner or medical examiner shall on or before the 10th day of each month report in writing to the Department the circumstances surrounding the death of any person that has occurred as the result of a boating accident within the examiner's jurisdiction during the preceding calendar month.

(2) Within 6 hours after a death resulting from a boating accident, but in any case not more than 12 hours after the occurrence of the boating accident, a blood specimen of at least 10 cc shall be withdrawn from the body of the decedent by the coroner or medical examiner or by a qualified person at the direction of the physician. All morticians shall obtain a release from the coroner or medical examiner prior to proceeding with embalming any body coming under the scope of this Section. The blood so drawn shall be forwarded to a laboratory approved by the Department of State Police for analysis of the alcoholic content of the blood specimen. The coroner or medical examiner causing the blood to be withdrawn shall be notified of the results of each analysis made and shall forward the results of each analysis to the Department. The Department shall keep a record of all examinations to be used for statistical purposes only. The cumulative results of the examinations, without identifying the individuals involved, shall be disseminated and made public by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 93-782, eff. 1-1-05; 94-214, eff. 1-1-06.)

Section 230. The Attorney Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(705 ILCS 205/10) (from Ch. 13, par. 10)

Sec. 10. No medical examiner coroner, sheriff or deputy sheriff shall be permitted to practice as an attorney or counselor at law in the county in which he is commissioned or appointed, nor shall any clerk or deputy clerk of a court be permitted to practice as an attorney or counselor at law in the court in which he is such clerk or deputy clerk, and no person shall be permitted or suffered to enter his name on the roll or record, to be kept as aforesaid, by the clerk of the Supreme Court, or do any official act appertaining to the office of an attorney or counselor at law, until he has taken the oath hereinbefore required; and the person administering such oath shall certify the same on the license, which certificate shall be a sufficient voucher to the clerk of the Supreme Court to enter or insert, or permit to be entered or inserted, on the roll of attorneys or counselors at law, the name of the person of whom such certificate is made.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 3675.)

Section 235. The Jury Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(705 ILCS 305/20) (from Ch. 78, par. 20)

Sec. 20. (a) It shall be the duty of the clerk of the court at the commencement of each week at which any cause is to be tried by a jury to write the name of each petit juror summoned and retained for that week on a separate ticket, and put the whole into a box or other place for safekeeping; and as often as it shall be necessary to impanel a jury, the clerk, sheriff or medical examiner coroner shall, in the presence of the court, draw by chance 12 names (or 14 where alternate jurors are required) out of such box or other place, which shall designate the persons to be sworn on the jury, and in the same manner for the second jury, in their turn, as the court may order and direct. The attorney for any party litigant in any cause assigned to jury trial shall have the right to be present in person at the time and place when the random selection of jurors for trial of said cause is drawn by lot to be assigned to the trial judge for voir dire examination; a party litigant whose attorney is present at the selection process waives any objection to the selection procedure unless the same is asserted prior to the time any prospective juror is called for voir dire examination.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a), names of jurors may be randomly drawn by computer.

(Source: P.A. 86-1053.)

Section 240. The Jury Commission Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(705 ILCS 310/8) (from Ch. 78, par. 31)

Sec. 8. In such manner as may be prescribed by rules to be adopted by majority vote of the said judges, the jury administrator or the jury commissioners shall also:

(a) From time to time prepare a secondary list to be known as the active jury list, containing such number of names taken from the general jury list as shall be appointed by the said rules, and in addition thereto, such other lists, to be known as period jury lists, as the said rules may require. Such period jury lists, if provided for, shall contain the names of prospective jurors who shall have indicated, either before or after being summoned for jury duty, at what time of the year they could most conveniently serve. The active jury list and, except as to the names of persons certified back by the clerk of the court as provided in Section 10 of this act, the period jury lists, shall be prepared by selecting every twentieth name, or other whole number rate necessary to obtain the number required, or, in counties having a population greater than 1,000,000, in a manner prescribed by the judge in charge of jury selection, from the general jury list;

(b) Make the active jury list and, except as to the names of persons certified back by the clerk of the court as provided in Section 10 of this Act, the period jury lists, available for the clerks of the circuit court to draw therefrom by lot, as hereinafter required, providing for the purpose such devices or mechanisms as the said rules shall prescribe;

(c) See that at least 2 jury commissioners, one jury commissioner and a judge of the circuit court of the county, or a jury administrator shall be present at any such drawing, along with the clerk of the said jury commissioners, if there be one, except that if the names are to be drawn by computer no jury commissioner need be present at any drawing by computer;

(d) Provide for the manner of selection of jurors to be provided to medical examiners coroners pursuant to Section 3-3013 of the Counties Code Section 10 of "An Act to revise the law in relation to coroners", approved July 1, 1874, as amended; provided that such manner of selection shall be, to the extent practicable, similar to the manner in which petit and grand jurors are selected; and

(e) Perform such other duties in relation to the selection of electors for jury service and their appearance for such service as are prescribed by this act or may be prescribed by the said rules or procedures established by the chief judge of the circuit.

(Source: P.A. 90-482, eff. 1-1-98.)

Section 245. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 2-6, 2-15, 3-17, 4-14, and 5-525 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/2-6) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-6)

Sec. 2-6. Duty of officer. (1) A law enforcement officer who takes a minor into custody under Section 2-5 shall immediately make a reasonable attempt to notify the parent or other person legally responsible for the minor's care or the person with whom the minor resides that the minor has been taken into custody and where he or she is being held.

(a) A law enforcement officer who takes a minor into custody with a warrant shall without unnecessary delay take the minor to the nearest juvenile police officer designated for such purposes in the county of venue.

(b) A law enforcement officer who takes a minor into custody without a warrant shall place the minor in temporary protective custody and shall immediately notify the Department of Children and Family Services by contacting either the central register established under 7.7 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or the nearest Department of Children and Family Services office. If there is reasonable cause to suspect that a minor has died as a result of abuse or neglect, the law enforcement officer shall immediately report such suspected abuse or neglect to the appropriate medical examiner or coroner.

(Source: P.A. 85-601.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-15) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-15)

Sec. 2-15. Summons.

(1) When a petition is filed, the clerk of the court shall issue a summons with a copy of the petition attached. The summons shall be directed to the minor's legal guardian or custodian and to each person named as a respondent in the petition, except that summons need not be directed to a minor respondent under 8 years of age for whom the court appoints a guardian ad litem if the guardian ad litem appears on behalf of the minor in any proceeding under this Act.

(2) The summons must contain a statement that the minor or any of the respondents is entitled to have an attorney present at the hearing on the petition, and that the clerk of the court should be notified promptly if the minor or any other respondent desires to be represented by an attorney but is financially unable to employ counsel.

(3) The summons shall be issued under the seal of the court, attested in and signed with the name of the clerk of the court, dated on the day it is issued, and shall require each respondent to appear and answer the petition on the date set for the adjudicatory hearing. The summons shall contain a notice that the parties will not be entitled to further written notices or publication notices of proceedings in this case, including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights, except as required by Supreme Court Rule 11.

(4) The summons may be served by any county sheriff, medical examiner coroner or probation officer, even though the officer is the petitioner. The return of the summons with endorsement of service by the officer is sufficient proof thereof.

(5) Service of a summons and petition shall be made by: (a) leaving a copy thereof with the person summoned at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance; (b) leaving a copy at his or her usual place of abode with some person of the family or a person residing there, of the age of 10 years or upwards, and informing that person of the contents thereof, provided the officer or other person making service shall also send a copy of the summons in a sealed envelope with postage fully prepaid, addressed to the person summoned at his usual place of abode, at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance; or (c) leaving a copy thereof with the guardian or custodian of a minor, at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance. If the guardian or custodian is an agency of the State of Illinois, proper service may be made by leaving a copy of the summons and petition with any administrative employee of such agency designated by such agency to accept service of summons and petitions. The certificate of the officer or affidavit of the person that he has sent the copy pursuant to this Section is sufficient proof of service.

(6) When a parent or other person, who has signed a written promise to appear and bring the minor to court or who has waived or acknowledged service, fails to appear with the minor on the date set by the court, a bench warrant may be issued for the parent or other person, the minor, or both.

(7) The appearance of the minor's legal guardian or custodian, or a person named as a respondent in a petition, in any proceeding under this Act shall constitute a waiver of service of summons and submission to the jurisdiction of the court, except that the filing of a motion authorized under Section 2-301 of the Code of Civil Procedure does not constitute an appearance under this subsection. A copy of the summons and petition shall be provided to the person at the time of his appearance.

(8) Notice to a parent who has appeared or been served with summons personally or by certified mail, and for whom an order of default has been entered on the petition for wardship and has not been set aside shall be provided in accordance with Supreme Court Rule 11. Notice to a parent who was served by publication and for whom an order of default has been entered on the petition for wardship and has not been set aside shall be provided in accordance with this Section and Section 2-16.

(Source: P.A. 101-146, eff. 1-1-20.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-17) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-17)

Sec. 3-17. Summons. (1) When a petition is filed, the clerk of the court shall issue a summons with a copy of the petition attached. The summons shall be directed to the minor's legal guardian or custodian and to each person named as a respondent in the petition, except that summons need not be directed to a minor respondent under 8 years of age for whom the court appoints a guardian ad litem if the guardian ad litem appears on behalf of the minor in any proceeding under this Act.

(2) The summons must contain a statement that the minor or any of the respondents is entitled to have an attorney present at the hearing on the petition, and that the clerk of the court should be notified promptly if the minor or any other respondent desires to be represented by an attorney but is financially unable to employ counsel.

(3) The summons shall be issued under the seal of the court, attested to and signed with the name of the clerk of the court, dated on the day it is issued, and shall require each respondent to appear and answer the petition on the date set for the adjudicatory hearing.

(4) The summons may be served by any county sheriff, medical examiner coroner or probation officer, even though the officer is the petitioner. The return of the summons with endorsement of service by the officer is sufficient proof thereof.

(5) Service of a summons and petition shall be made by: (a) leaving a copy thereof with the person summoned at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance; (b) leaving a copy at his usual place of abode with some person of the family, of the age of 10 years or upwards, and informing that person of the contents thereof, provided the officer or other person making service shall also send a copy of the summons in a sealed envelope with postage fully prepaid, addressed to the person summoned at his usual place of abode, at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance; or (c) leaving a copy thereof with the guardian or custodian of a minor, at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance. If the guardian or custodian is an agency of the State of Illinois, proper service may be made by leaving a copy of the summons and petition with any administrative employee of such agency designated by such agency to accept service of summons and petitions. The certificate of the officer or affidavit of the person that he has sent the copy pursuant to this Section is sufficient proof of service.

(6) When a parent or other person, who has signed a written promise to appear and bring the minor to court or who has waived or acknowledged service, fails to appear with the minor on the date set by the court, a bench warrant may be issued for the parent or other person, the minor, or both.

(7) The appearance of the minor's legal guardian or custodian, or a person named as a respondent in a petition, in any proceeding under this Act shall constitute a waiver of service of summons and submission to the jurisdiction of the court. A copy of the summons and petition shall be provided to the person at the time of his appearance.

(Source: P.A. 86-441.)

(705 ILCS 405/4-14) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-14)

Sec. 4-14. Summons. (1) When a petition is filed, the clerk of the court shall issue a summons with a copy of the petition attached. The summons shall be directed to the minor's legal guardian or custodian and to each person named as a respondent in the petition, except that summons need not be directed to a minor respondent under 8 years of age for whom the court appoints a guardian ad litem if the guardian ad litem appears on behalf of the minor in any proceeding under this Act.

(2) The summons must contain a statement that the minor or any of the respondents is entitled to have an attorney present at the hearing on the petition, and that the clerk of the court should be notified promptly if the minor or any other respondent desires to be represented by an attorney but is financially unable to employ counsel.

(3) The summons shall be issued under the seal of the court, attested to and signed with the name of the clerk of the court, dated on the day it is issued, and shall require each respondent to appear and answer the petition on the date set for the adjudicatory hearing.

(4) The summons may be served by any county sheriff, medical examiner coroner or probation officer, even though the officer is the petitioner. The return of the summons with endorsement of service by the officer is sufficient proof thereof.

(5) Service of a summons and petition shall be made by: (a) leaving a copy thereof with the person summoned at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance; (b) leaving a copy at his usual place of abode with some person of the family, of the age of 10 years or upwards, and informing that person of the contents thereof, provided that the officer or other person making service shall also send a copy of the summons in a sealed envelope with postage fully prepaid, addressed to the person summoned at his usual place of abode, at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance; or (c) leaving a copy thereof with the guardian or custodian of a minor, at least 3 days before the time stated therein for appearance. If the guardian or custodian is an agency of the State of Illinois, proper service may be made by leaving a copy of the summons and petition with any administrative employee of such agency designated by such agency to accept service of summons and petitions. The certificate of the officer or affidavit of the person that he has sent the copy pursuant to this Section is sufficient proof of service.

(6) When a parent or other person, who has signed a written promise to appear and bring the minor to court or who has waived or acknowledged service, fails to appear with the minor on the date set by the court, a bench warrant may be issued for the parent or other person, the minor, or both.

(7) The appearance of the minor's legal guardian or custodian, or a person named as a respondent in a petition, in any proceeding under this Act shall constitute a waiver of service of summons and submission to the jurisdiction of the court. A copy of the summons and petition shall be provided to the person at the time of his appearance.

(Source: P.A. 86-441.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-525)

Sec. 5-525. Service.

(1) Service by summons.

(a) Upon the commencement of a delinquency prosecution, the clerk of the court shall issue a summons with a copy of the petition attached. The summons shall be directed to the minor's parent, guardian or legal custodian and to each person named as a respondent in the petition, except that summons need not be directed (i) to a minor respondent under 8 years of age for whom the court appoints a guardian ad litem if the guardian ad litem appears on behalf of the minor in any proceeding under this Act, or (ii) to a parent who does not reside with the minor, does not make regular child support payments to the minor, to the minor's other parent, or to the minor's legal guardian or custodian pursuant to a support order, and has not communicated with the minor on a regular basis.

(b) The summons must contain a statement that the minor is entitled to have an attorney present at the hearing on the petition, and that the clerk of the court should be notified promptly if the minor desires to be represented by an attorney but is financially unable to employ counsel.

(c) The summons shall be issued under the seal of the court, attested in and signed with the name of the clerk of the court, dated on the day it is issued, and shall require each respondent to appear and answer the petition on the date set for the adjudicatory hearing.

(d) The summons may be served by any law enforcement officer, medical examiner coroner or probation officer, even though the officer is the petitioner. The return of the summons with endorsement of service by the officer is sufficient proof of service.

(e) Service of a summons and petition shall be made by: (i) leaving a copy of the summons and petition with the person summoned at least 3 days before the time stated in the summons for appearance; (ii) leaving a copy at his or her usual place of abode with some person of the family, of the age of 10 years or upwards, and informing that person of the contents of the summons and petition, provided, the officer or other person making service shall also send a copy of the summons in a sealed envelope with postage fully prepaid, addressed to the person summoned at his or her usual place of abode, at least 3 days before the time stated in the summons for appearance; or (iii) leaving a copy of the summons and petition with the guardian or custodian of a minor, at least 3 days before the time stated in the summons for appearance. If the guardian or legal custodian is an agency of the State of Illinois, proper service may be made by leaving a copy of the summons and petition with any administrative employee of the agency designated by the agency to accept the service of summons and petitions. The certificate of the officer or affidavit of the person that he or she has sent the copy pursuant to this Section is sufficient proof of service.

(f) When a parent or other person, who has signed a written promise to appear and bring the minor to court or who has waived or acknowledged service, fails to appear with the minor on the date set by the court, a bench warrant may be issued for the parent or other person, the minor, or both.

(2) Service by certified mail or publication.

(a) If service on individuals as provided in subsection (1) is not made on any respondent within a reasonable time or if it appears that any respondent resides outside the State, service may be made by certified mail. In that case the clerk shall mail the summons and a copy of the petition to that respondent by certified mail marked for delivery to addressee only. The court shall not proceed with the adjudicatory hearing until 5 days after the mailing. The regular return receipt for certified mail is sufficient proof of service.

(b) If service upon individuals as provided in subsection (1) is not made on any respondents within a reasonable time or if any person is made a respondent under the designation of "All Whom It May Concern", or if service cannot be made because the whereabouts of a respondent are unknown, service may be made by publication. The clerk of the court as soon as possible shall cause publication to be made once in a newspaper of general circulation in the county where the action is pending. Service by publication is not required in any case when the person alleged to have legal custody of the minor has been served with summons personally or by certified mail, but the court may not enter any order or judgment against any person who cannot be served with process other than by publication unless service by publication is given or unless that person appears. Failure to provide service by publication to a non-custodial parent whose whereabouts are unknown shall not deprive the court of jurisdiction to proceed with a trial or a plea of delinquency by the minor. When a minor has been detained or sheltered under Section 5-501 of this Act and summons has not been served personally or by certified mail within 20 days from the date of the order of court directing such detention or shelter care, the clerk of the court shall cause publication. Service by publication shall be substantially as follows:

"A, B, C, D, (here giving the names of the named respondents, if any) and to All Whom It May Concern (if there is any respondent under that designation):

Take notice that on (insert date) a petition was filed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 by .... in the circuit court of .... county entitled 'In the interest of ...., a minor', and that in .... courtroom at .... on (insert date) at the hour of ...., or as soon thereafter as this cause may be heard, an adjudicatory hearing will be held upon the petition to have the child declared to be a ward of the court under that Act. The court has authority in this proceeding to take from you the custody and guardianship of the minor.

Now, unless you appear at the hearing and show cause against the petition, the allegations of the petition may stand admitted as against you and each of you, and an order or judgment entered.

........................................

Clerk

Dated (insert the date of publication)"

(c) The clerk shall also at the time of the publication of the notice send a copy of the notice by mail to each of the respondents on account of whom publication is made at his or her last known address. The certificate of the clerk that he or she has mailed the notice is evidence of that mailing. No other publication notice is required. Every respondent notified by publication under this Section must appear and answer in open court at the hearing. The court may not proceed with the adjudicatory hearing until 10 days after service by publication on any custodial parent, guardian or legal custodian of a minor alleged to be delinquent.

(d) If it becomes necessary to change the date set for the hearing in order to comply with this Section, notice of the resetting of the date must be given, by certified mail or other reasonable means, to each respondent who has been served with summons personally or by certified mail.

(3) Once jurisdiction has been established over a party, further service is not required and notice of any subsequent proceedings in that prosecution shall be made in accordance with provisions of Section 5-530.

(4) The appearance of the minor's parent, guardian or legal custodian, or a person named as a respondent in a petition, in any proceeding under this Act shall constitute a waiver of service and submission to the jurisdiction of the court. A copy of the petition shall be provided to the person at the time of his or her appearance.

(Source: P.A. 90-590, eff. 1-1-99; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99.)

Section 250. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 9-3.5, 12-20.5, 12-20.6, 31-4, and 33-3.2 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/9-3.5)

Sec. 9-3.5. Concealment of death.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "conceal" means the performing of some act or acts for the purpose of preventing or delaying the discovery of a death. "Conceal" means something more than simply withholding knowledge or failing to disclose information.

(b) A person commits the offense of concealment of death when he or she knowingly conceals the death of any other person who died by other than homicidal means.

(c) A person commits the offense of concealment of death when he or she knowingly moves the body of a dead person from its place of death, with the intent of concealing information regarding the place or manner of death of that person, or the identity of any person with information regarding the death of that person. This subsection shall not apply to any movement of the body of a dead person by medical personnel, fire fighters, law enforcement officers, coroners, medical examiners, or licensed funeral directors, or by any person acting at the direction of medical personnel, fire fighters, law enforcement officers, coroners, medical examiners, or licensed funeral directors.

(d) Sentence. Concealment of death is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1361, eff. 1-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-20.5)

Sec. 12-20.5. Dismembering a human body.

(a) A person commits dismembering a human body when he or she knowingly dismembers, severs, separates, dissects, or mutilates any body part of a deceased's body.

(b) This Section does not apply to:

(1) an anatomical gift made in accordance with the Illinois Anatomical Gift Act;

(2) (blank);

(3) the purchase or sale of drugs, reagents, or other substances made from human body parts, for the use in medical or scientific research, treatment, or diagnosis;

(4) persons employed by a county medical examiner's office or coroner's office acting within the scope of their employment while performing an autopsy;

(5) the acts of a licensed funeral director or embalmer while performing acts authorized by the Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code;

(6) the acts of emergency medical personnel or physicians performed in good faith and according to the usual and customary standards of medical practice in an attempt to resuscitate a life; or

(7) physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or holding a visiting professor, physician, or resident permit under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, performing acts in accordance with usual and customary standards of medical practice, or a currently enrolled student in an accredited medical school in furtherance of his or her education at the accredited medical school.

(c) It is not a defense to a violation of this Section that the decedent died due to natural, accidental, or suicidal causes.

(d) Sentence. Dismembering a human body is a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-20.6)

Sec. 12-20.6. Abuse of a corpse.

(a) In this Section:

"Corpse" means the dead body of a human being.

"Sexual conduct" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.

(b) A person commits abuse of a corpse if he or she intentionally:

(1) engages in sexual conduct with a corpse or involving a corpse; or

(2) removes or carries away a corpse and is not authorized by law to do so.

(c) Sentence.

(1) A person convicted of violating paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(2) A person convicted of violating paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(d) Paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section does not apply to:

(1) persons employed by a county medical examiner's office or coroner's office acting within the scope of their employment;

(2) the acts of a licensed funeral director or embalmer while performing acts authorized by the Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code;

(3) cemeteries and cemetery personnel while performing acts pursuant to a bona fide request from the involved cemetery consumer or his or her heirs, or pursuant to an interment or disinterment permit or a court order, or as authorized under Section 14.5 of the Cemetery Protection Act, or any other actions legally authorized for cemetery employees;

(4) the acts of emergency medical personnel or physicians performed in good faith and according to the usual and customary standards of medical practice in an attempt to resuscitate a life;

(5) physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or holding a visiting professor, physician, or resident permit under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, performing acts in accordance with usual and customary standards of medical practice, or a currently enrolled student in an accredited medical school in furtherance of his or her education at the accredited medical school; or

(6) removing or carrying away a corpse by the employees, independent contractors, or other persons designated by the federally designated organ procurement agency engaged in the organ and tissue procurement process.

(Source: P.A. 97-1072, eff. 8-24-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-4)

Sec. 31-4. Obstructing justice.

(a) A person obstructs justice when, with intent to prevent the apprehension or obstruct the prosecution or defense of any person, he or she knowingly commits any of the following acts:

(1) Destroys, alters, conceals or disguises physical evidence, plants false evidence, furnishes false information; or

(2) Induces a witness having knowledge material to the subject at issue to leave the State or conceal himself or herself; or

(3) Possessing knowledge material to the subject at issue, he or she leaves the State or conceals himself; or

(4) If a parent, legal guardian, or caretaker of a child under 13 years of age reports materially false information to a law enforcement agency, medical examiner, coroner, State's Attorney, or other governmental agency during an investigation of the disappearance or death of a child under circumstances described in subsection (a) or (b) of Section 10-10 of this Code.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Obstructing justice is a Class 4 felony, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (b).

(2) Obstructing justice in furtherance of streetgang related or gang-related activity, as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act, is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1079, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/33-3.2)

Sec. 33-3.2. Solicitation misconduct (local government).

(a) An employee of a chief executive officer of a local government commits solicitation misconduct (local government) when, at any time, he or she knowingly solicits or receives contributions, as that term is defined in Section 9-1.4 of the Election Code, from a person engaged in a business or activity over which the person has regulatory authority.

(b) For the purpose of this Section, "chief executive officer of a local government" means an executive officer of a county, township or municipal government or any administrative subdivision under jurisdiction of the county, township, or municipal government including but not limited to: chairman or president of a county board or commission, mayor or village president, township supervisor, county executive, municipal manager, assessor, auditor, clerk, medical examiner coroner, recorder, sheriff or State's Attorney; "employee of a chief executive officer of a local government" means a full-time or part-time salaried employee, full-time or part-time salaried appointee, or any contractual employee of any office, board, commission, agency, department, authority, administrative unit, or corporate outgrowth under the jurisdiction of a chief executive officer of a local government; and "regulatory authority" means having the responsibility to investigate, inspect, license, or enforce regulatory measures necessary to the requirements of any State, local, or federal statute or regulation relating to the business or activity.

(c) An employee of a chief executive officer of a local government, including one who does not have regulatory authority, commits a violation of this Section if that employee knowingly acts in concert with an employee of a chief executive officer of a local government who does have regulatory authority to solicit or receive contributions in violation of this Section.

(d) Solicitation misconduct (local government) is a Class A misdemeanor. An employee of a chief executive officer of a local government convicted of committing solicitation misconduct (local government) forfeits his or her employment.

(e) An employee of a chief executive officer of a local government who is discharged, demoted, suspended, threatened, harassed, or in any other manner discriminated against in the terms and conditions of employment because of lawful acts done by the employee or on behalf of the employee or others in furtherance of the enforcement of this Section shall be entitled to all relief necessary to make the employee whole.

(f) Any person who knowingly makes a false report of solicitation misconduct (local government) to the State Police, the Attorney General, a State's Attorney, or any law enforcement official is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 92-853, eff. 8-28-02.)

Section 255. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 107-15, 107-16, 115-5.1, 115-17, and 119-5 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/107-15)

Sec. 107-15. Fresh pursuit. When the fact that a felony has been committed comes to the knowledge of a sheriff or medical examiner coroner, fresh pursuit shall be forthwith made after every person guilty of the felony, by the sheriff, medical examiner coroner, and all other persons who is by any one of them commanded or summoned for that purpose; every such officer who does not do his or her duty in the premises is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96.)

(725 ILCS 5/107-16)

Sec. 107-16. Apprehension of offender. It is the duty of every sheriff, medical examiner coroner, and every marshal, policeman, or other officer of an incorporated city, town, or village, having the power of a sheriff, when a criminal offense or breach of the peace is committed or attempted in his or her presence, forthwith to apprehend the offender and bring him or her before a judge, to be dealt with according to law; to suppress all riots and unlawful assemblies, and to keep the peace, and without delay to serve and execute all warrants and other process to him or her lawfully directed.

(Source: P.A. 89-234, eff. 1-1-96.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-5.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 115-5.1)

Sec. 115-5.1. In any civil or criminal action the records of the medical examiner's coroner's medical or laboratory examiner summarizing and detailing the performance of his or her official duties in performing medical examinations upon deceased persons or autopsies, or both, and kept in the ordinary course of business of the medical examiner's coroner's office, duly certified by the county coroner or chief supervisory coroner's pathologist or medical examiner, or his or her designee, shall be received as competent evidence in any court of this State, to the extent permitted by this Section. These reports, specifically including but not limited to the pathologist's protocol, autopsy reports and toxicological reports, shall be public documents and thereby may be admissible as prima facie evidence of the facts, findings, opinions, diagnoses and conditions stated therein.

A duly certified medical examiner's coroner's protocol or autopsy report, or both, complying with the requirements of this Section may be duly admitted into evidence as an exception to the hearsay rule as prima facie proof of the cause of death of the person to whom it relates. The records referred to in this Section shall be limited to the records of the results of post-mortem examinations of the findings of autopsy and toxicological laboratory examinations.

Persons who prepare reports or records offered in evidence hereunder may be subpoenaed as witnesses in civil or criminal cases upon the request of either party to the cause. However, if such person is dead, the county medical examiner coroner or a duly authorized official of the medical examiner's coroner's office may testify to the fact that the examining pathologist, toxicologist or other medical or laboratory examiner is deceased and that the offered report or record was prepared by such deceased person. The witness must further attest that the medical report or record was prepared in the ordinary and usual course of the deceased person's duty or employment in conformity with the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 82-783.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-17)

Sec. 115-17. Clerk; issuance of subpoenas. It is the duty of the clerk of the court to issue subpoenas, either on the part of the people or of the accused, directed to the sheriff or medical examiner coroner of any county of this State. An attorney admitted to practice in the State of Illinois, as an officer of the court, may also issue subpoenas in a pending action. A witness who is duly subpoenaed who neglects or refuses to attend any court, under the requisitions of the subpoena, shall be proceeded against and punished for contempt of the court. Attachments against witnesses who live in a different county from that where the subpoena is returnable may be served in the same manner as warrants are directed to be served out of the county from which they issue.

(Source: P.A. 96-485, eff. 1-1-10.)

(725 ILCS 5/119-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 119-5)

Sec. 119-5. Execution of Death Sentence.

(a)(1) A defendant sentenced to death shall be executed by an intravenous administration of a lethal quantity of an ultrashort-acting barbiturate in combination with a chemical paralytic agent and potassium chloride or other equally effective substances sufficient to cause death until death is pronounced by a medical examiner coroner who is not a licensed physician.

(2) If the execution of the sentence of death as provided in paragraph (1) is held illegal or unconstitutional by a reviewing court of competent jurisdiction, the sentence of death shall be carried out by electrocution.

(b) In pronouncing the sentence of death the court shall set the date of the execution which shall be not less than 60 nor more than 90 days from the date sentence is pronounced.

(c) A sentence of death shall be executed at a Department of Corrections facility.

(d) The warden of the penitentiary shall supervise such execution, which shall be conducted in the presence of 6 witnesses who shall certify the execution of the sentence. The certification shall be filed with the clerk of the court that imposed the sentence.

(d-5) The Department of Corrections shall not request, require, or allow a health care practitioner licensed in Illinois, including but not limited to physicians and nurses, regardless of employment, to participate in an execution.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (e), the identity of executioners and other persons who participate or perform ancillary functions in an execution and information contained in records that would identify those persons shall remain confidential, shall not be subject to disclosure, and shall not be admissible as evidence or be discoverable in any action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal, board, agency, or person. In order to protect the confidentiality of persons participating in an execution, the Director of Corrections may direct that the Department make payments in cash for such services. In confidential investigations by the Department of Professional Regulation, the Department of Corrections shall disclose the names and license numbers of health care practitioners participating or performing ancillary functions in an execution to the Department of Professional Regulation and the Department of Professional Regulation shall forward those names and license numbers to the appropriate disciplinary boards.

(f) The amendatory changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act of 1991 are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(g) (Blank).

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any pharmaceutical supplier is authorized to dispense drugs to the Director of Corrections or his or her designee, without prescription, in order to carry out the provisions of this Section.

(i) The amendatory changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 93-379, eff. 7-24-03.)

Section 260. The County Jail Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(730 ILCS 125/8) (from Ch. 75, par. 108)

Sec. 8. The Sheriff may be imprisoned in the jail of his county, and for the time he is so imprisoned, the medical examiner coroner shall be warden of the jail, and perform all the duties of the sheriff in regard thereto, and shall, by himself and his sureties, be answerable for the faithful discharge of his duties as such warden.

(Source: P.A. 83-1073.)

Section 265. The Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act is amended by changing Sections 20 and 35 as follows:

(730 ILCS 195/20)

Sec. 20. Reviews of youth deaths.

(a) A mortality review team shall review every death of a youth that occurs within a facility of the Department or as the result of an act or incident occurring within a facility of the Department, including deaths resulting from suspected illness, injury, or self-harm or from an unknown cause.

(b) If the medical examiner coroner of the county in which a youth died determines that the youth's death was the direct or proximate result of alleged or suspected criminal activity, the mortality review team's investigation shall be in addition to any criminal investigation of the death but shall be limited to a review of systems and practices of the Department. In the course of conducting its review, the team shall obtain assurance from law enforcement officials that acts taken in furtherance of the review will not impair any criminal investigation or prosecution.

(c) A mortality review team's purpose in conducting a review of a youth death is to do the following:

(1) Assist in determining the cause and manner of the youth's death, if requested.

(2) Evaluate any means by which the death might have been prevented, including, but not limited to, the evaluation of the Department's systems for the following:

(A) Training.

(B) Assessment and referral for services.

(C) Communication.

(D) Housing.

(E) Supervision of youth.

(F) Intervention in critical incidents.

(G) Reporting.

(H) Follow-up and mortality review following critical incidents or youth deaths.

(3) Recommend continuing education and training for Department staff.

(4) Make specific recommendations to the Director concerning the prevention of deaths of youth in the Department's custody.

(d) A mortality review team shall review a youth death as soon as practicable and not later than within 90 days after a law enforcement agency's completion of its investigation if the death is the result of alleged or suspected criminal activity. If there has been no investigation by a law enforcement agency, the mortality review team shall review a youth's death within 90 days after obtaining the information necessary to complete the review from the coroner, pathologist, medical examiner, or law enforcement agency, depending on the nature of the case. The team shall meet as needed in person or via teleconference or video conference following appointment of the team members. When necessary and upon request of the team, the Director may extend the deadline for a review up to an additional 90 days.

(Source: P.A. 96-1378, eff. 7-29-10.)

(730 ILCS 195/35)

Sec. 35. Team access to information.

(a) The Department shall provide to a mortality review team, on the request of the team's chairperson, all records and information in the Department's possession that are relevant to the team's review of a youth death.

(b) The mortality review team shall have access to all records and information that are relevant to its review of a youth death and in the possession of a State or local governmental agency, including, without limitation, birth certificates, all relevant medical and mental health records, records of law enforcement agency investigations, records of coroner or medical examiner investigations, records of a probation and court services department regarding the youth, and records of a social services agency that provided services to the youth or the youth's family.

(c) Each appointed member of a mortality review team shall sign an acknowledgement upon appointment and before participating in meetings or review of records acknowledging the confidentiality of information obtained in the course of the team's review and containing the member's agreement not to reproduce or distribute confidential information obtained in the course of the review.

(Source: P.A. 96-1378, eff. 7-29-10.)

Section 270. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-2-2, 3-9-6, and 3-13-4 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-2-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-2-2)

Sec. 3-2-2. Powers and duties of the Department.

(1) In addition to the powers, duties, and responsibilities which are otherwise provided by law, the Department shall have the following powers:

(a) To accept persons committed to it by the courts of this State for care, custody, treatment and rehabilitation, and to accept federal prisoners and aliens over whom the Office of the Federal Detention Trustee is authorized to exercise the federal detention function for limited purposes and periods of time.

(b) To develop and maintain reception and evaluation units for purposes of analyzing the custody and rehabilitation needs of persons committed to it and to assign such persons to institutions and programs under its control or transfer them to other appropriate agencies. In consultation with the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse (now the Department of Human Services), the Department of Corrections shall develop a master plan for the screening and evaluation of persons committed to its custody who have alcohol or drug abuse problems, and for making appropriate treatment available to such persons; the Department shall report to the General Assembly on such plan not later than April 1, 1987. The maintenance and implementation of such plan shall be contingent upon the availability of funds.

(b-1) To create and implement, on January 1, 2002, a pilot program to establish the effectiveness of pupillometer technology (the measurement of the pupil's reaction to light) as an alternative to a urine test for purposes of screening and evaluating persons committed to its custody who have alcohol or drug problems. The pilot program shall require the pupillometer technology to be used in at least one Department of Corrections facility. The Director may expand the pilot program to include an additional facility or facilities as he or she deems appropriate. A minimum of 4,000 tests shall be included in the pilot program. The Department must report to the General Assembly on the effectiveness of the program by January 1, 2003.

(b-5) To develop, in consultation with the Department of State Police, a program for tracking and evaluating each inmate from commitment through release for recording his or her gang affiliations, activities, or ranks.

(c) To maintain and administer all State correctional institutions and facilities under its control and to establish new ones as needed. Pursuant to its power to establish new institutions and facilities, the Department may, with the written approval of the Governor, authorize the Department of Central Management Services to enter into an agreement of the type described in subsection (d) of Section 405-300 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-300). The Department shall designate those institutions which shall constitute the State Penitentiary System.

Pursuant to its power to establish new institutions and facilities, the Department may authorize the Department of Central Management Services to accept bids from counties and municipalities for the construction, remodeling or conversion of a structure to be leased to the Department of Corrections for the purposes of its serving as a correctional institution or facility. Such construction, remodeling or conversion may be financed with revenue bonds issued pursuant to the Industrial Building Revenue Bond Act by the municipality or county. The lease specified in a bid shall be for a term of not less than the time needed to retire any revenue bonds used to finance the project, but not to exceed 40 years. The lease may grant to the State the option to purchase the structure outright.

Upon receipt of the bids, the Department may certify one or more of the bids and shall submit any such bids to the General Assembly for approval. Upon approval of a bid by a constitutional majority of both houses of the General Assembly, pursuant to joint resolution, the Department of Central Management Services may enter into an agreement with the county or municipality pursuant to such bid.

(c-5) To build and maintain regional juvenile detention centers and to charge a per diem to the counties as established by the Department to defray the costs of housing each minor in a center. In this subsection (c-5), "juvenile detention center" means a facility to house minors during pendency of trial who have been transferred from proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 to prosecutions under the criminal laws of this State in accordance with Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether the transfer was by operation of law or permissive under that Section. The Department shall designate the counties to be served by each regional juvenile detention center.

(d) To develop and maintain programs of control, rehabilitation and employment of committed persons within its institutions.

(d-5) To provide a pre-release job preparation program for inmates at Illinois adult correctional centers.

(d-10) To provide educational and visitation opportunities to committed persons within its institutions through temporary access to content-controlled tablets that may be provided as a privilege to committed persons to induce or reward compliance.

(e) To establish a system of supervision and guidance of committed persons in the community.

(f) To establish in cooperation with the Department of Transportation to supply a sufficient number of prisoners for use by the Department of Transportation to clean up the trash and garbage along State, county, township, or municipal highways as designated by the Department of Transportation. The Department of Corrections, at the request of the Department of Transportation, shall furnish such prisoners at least annually for a period to be agreed upon between the Director of Corrections and the Secretary of Transportation. The prisoners used on this program shall be selected by the Director of Corrections on whatever basis he deems proper in consideration of their term, behavior and earned eligibility to participate in such program - where they will be outside of the prison facility but still in the custody of the Department of Corrections. Prisoners convicted of first degree murder, or a Class X felony, or armed violence, or aggravated kidnapping, or criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or a subsequent conviction for criminal sexual abuse, or forcible detention, or arson, or a prisoner adjudged a Habitual Criminal shall not be eligible for selection to participate in such program. The prisoners shall remain as prisoners in the custody of the Department of Corrections and such Department shall furnish whatever security is necessary. The Department of Transportation shall furnish trucks and equipment for the highway cleanup program and personnel to supervise and direct the program. Neither the Department of Corrections nor the Department of Transportation shall replace any regular employee with a prisoner.

(g) To maintain records of persons committed to it and to establish programs of research, statistics and planning.

(h) To investigate the grievances of any person committed to the Department and to inquire into any alleged misconduct by employees or committed persons; and for these purposes it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of writings and papers, and may examine under oath any witnesses who may appear before it; to also investigate alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole or release; and for this purpose it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents only if there is reason to believe that such procedures would provide evidence that such violations have occurred.

If any person fails to obey a subpoena issued under this subsection, the Director may apply to any circuit court to secure compliance with the subpoena. The failure to comply with the order of the court issued in response thereto shall be punishable as contempt of court.

(i) To appoint and remove the chief administrative officers, and administer programs of training and development of personnel of the Department. Personnel assigned by the Department to be responsible for the custody and control of committed persons or to investigate the alleged misconduct of committed persons or employees or alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole shall be conservators of the peace for those purposes, and shall have the full power of peace officers outside of the facilities of the Department in the protection, arrest, retaking and reconfining of committed persons or where the exercise of such power is necessary to the investigation of such misconduct or violations. This subsection shall not apply to persons committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 on aftercare release.

(j) To cooperate with other departments and agencies and with local communities for the development of standards and programs for better correctional services in this State.

(k) To administer all moneys and properties of the Department.

(l) To report annually to the Governor on the committed persons, institutions and programs of the Department.

(l-5) (Blank).

(m) To make all rules and regulations and exercise all powers and duties vested by law in the Department.

(n) To establish rules and regulations for administering a system of sentence credits, established in accordance with Section 3-6-3, subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board.

(o) To administer the distribution of funds from the State Treasury to reimburse counties where State penal institutions are located for the payment of assistant state's attorneys' salaries under Section 4-2001 of the Counties Code.

(p) To exchange information with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services for the purpose of verifying living arrangements and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Code and the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(q) To establish a diversion program.

The program shall provide a structured environment for selected technical parole or mandatory supervised release violators and committed persons who have violated the rules governing their conduct while in work release. This program shall not apply to those persons who have committed a new offense while serving on parole or mandatory supervised release or while committed to work release.

Elements of the program shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(1) The staff of a diversion facility shall provide supervision in accordance with required objectives set by the facility.

(2) Participants shall be required to maintain employment.

(3) Each participant shall pay for room and board at the facility on a sliding-scale basis according to the participant's income.

(4) Each participant shall:

(A) provide restitution to victims in accordance with any court order;

(B) provide financial support to his dependents; and

(C) make appropriate payments toward any other court-ordered obligations.

(5) Each participant shall complete community service in addition to employment.

(6) Participants shall take part in such counseling, educational and other programs as the Department may deem appropriate.

(7) Participants shall submit to drug and alcohol screening.

(8) The Department shall promulgate rules governing the administration of the program.

(r) To enter into intergovernmental cooperation agreements under which persons in the custody of the Department may participate in a county impact incarceration program established under Section 3-6038 or 3-15003.5 of the Counties Code.

(r-5) (Blank).

(r-10) To systematically and routinely identify with respect to each streetgang active within the correctional system: (1) each active gang; (2) every existing inter-gang affiliation or alliance; and (3) the current leaders in each gang. The Department shall promptly segregate leaders from inmates who belong to their gangs and allied gangs. "Segregate" means no physical contact and, to the extent possible under the conditions and space available at the correctional facility, prohibition of visual and sound communication. For the purposes of this paragraph (r-10), "leaders" means persons who:

(i) are members of a criminal streetgang;

(ii) with respect to other individuals within the streetgang, occupy a position of organizer, supervisor, or other position of management or leadership; and

(iii) are actively and personally engaged in directing, ordering, authorizing, or requesting commission of criminal acts by others, which are punishable as a felony, in furtherance of streetgang related activity both within and outside of the Department of Corrections.

"Streetgang", "gang", and "streetgang related" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(s) To operate a super-maximum security institution, in order to manage and supervise inmates who are disruptive or dangerous and provide for the safety and security of the staff and the other inmates.

(t) To monitor any unprivileged conversation or any unprivileged communication, whether in person or by mail, telephone, or other means, between an inmate who, before commitment to the Department, was a member of an organized gang and any other person without the need to show cause or satisfy any other requirement of law before beginning the monitoring, except as constitutionally required. The monitoring may be by video, voice, or other method of recording or by any other means. As used in this subdivision (1)(t), "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

As used in this subdivision (1)(t), "unprivileged conversation" or "unprivileged communication" means a conversation or communication that is not protected by any privilege recognized by law or by decision, rule, or order of the Illinois Supreme Court.

(u) To establish a Women's and Children's Pre-release Community Supervision Program for the purpose of providing housing and services to eligible female inmates, as determined by the Department, and their newborn and young children.

(u-5) To issue an order, whenever a person committed to the Department absconds or absents himself or herself, without authority to do so, from any facility or program to which he or she is assigned. The order shall be certified by the Director, the Supervisor of the Apprehension Unit, or any person duly designated by the Director, with the seal of the Department affixed. The order shall be directed to all sheriffs, medical examiners coroners, and police officers, or to any particular person named in the order. Any order issued pursuant to this subdivision (1) (u-5) shall be sufficient warrant for the officer or person named in the order to arrest and deliver the committed person to the proper correctional officials and shall be executed the same as criminal process.

(v) To do all other acts necessary to carry out the provisions of this Chapter.

(2) The Department of Corrections shall by January 1, 1998, consider building and operating a correctional facility within 100 miles of a county of over 2,000,000 inhabitants, especially a facility designed to house juvenile participants in the impact incarceration program.

(3) When the Department lets bids for contracts for medical services to be provided to persons committed to Department facilities by a health maintenance organization, medical service corporation, or other health care provider, the bid may only be let to a health care provider that has obtained an irrevocable letter of credit or performance bond issued by a company whose bonds have an investment grade or higher rating by a bond rating organization.

(4) When the Department lets bids for contracts for food or commissary services to be provided to Department facilities, the bid may only be let to a food or commissary services provider that has obtained an irrevocable letter of credit or performance bond issued by a company whose bonds have an investment grade or higher rating by a bond rating organization.

(5) On and after the date 6 months after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-488), as provided in the Executive Order 1 (2012) Implementation Act, all of the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under this Code that were transferred from the Department of Corrections to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services by Executive Order 3 (2005) are transferred back to the Department of Corrections; however, powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under this Code that were exercised by the Department of Corrections before the effective date of Executive Order 3 (2005) but that pertain to individuals resident in facilities operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice are transferred to the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(Source: P.A. 100-198, eff. 1-1-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 101-235, eff. 1-1-20.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-9-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-9-6)

Sec. 3-9-6. Unauthorized Absence. Whenever a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice absconds or absents himself or herself without authority to do so, from any facility or program to which he or she is assigned, he or she may be held in custody for return to the proper correctional official by the authorities or whomsoever directed, when an order is certified by the Director of Juvenile Justice or a person duly designated by the Director, with the seal of the Department of Juvenile Justice attached. The person so designated by the Director of Juvenile Justice with such seal attached may be one or more persons and the appointment shall be made as a ministerial one with no recordation or notice necessary as to the designated appointees. The order shall be directed to all sheriffs, medical examiners coroners, police officers, keepers or custodians of jails or other detention facilities whether in or out of the State of Illinois, or to any particular person named in the order.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-13-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-13-4)

Sec. 3-13-4. Rules and Sanctions.)

(a) The Department shall establish rules governing release status and shall provide written copies of such rules to both the committed person on work or day release and to the employer or other person responsible for the individual. Such employer or other responsible person shall agree to abide by such rules, notify the Department of any violation thereof by the individual on release status, and notify the Department of the discharge of the person from work or other programs.

(b) If a committed person violates any rule, the Department may impose sanctions appropriate to the violation. The Department shall provide sanctions for unauthorized absences which shall include prosecution for escape under Section 3-6-4.

(c) An order certified by the Director, Assistant Director, or the Supervisor of the Apprehension Unit, or a person duly designated by him or her, with the seal of the Department of Corrections attached and directed to all sheriffs, medical examiners coroners, police officers, or to any particular persons named in the order shall be sufficient warrant for the officer or person named therein to arrest and deliver the violator to the proper correctional official. Such order shall be executed the same as criminal processes.

In the event that a work-releasee is arrested for another crime, the sheriff or police officer shall hold the releasee in custody until he notifies the nearest Office of Field Services or any of the above-named persons designated in this Section to certify the particular process or warrant.

(d) Not less than 15 days prior to any person being placed in a work release facility, the Department of Corrections shall provide to the State's Attorney and Sheriff of the county in which the work release center is located, relevant identifying information concerning the person to be placed in the work release facility. Such information shall include, but not be limited to, such identifying information as name, age, physical description, photograph, the offense, and the sentence for which the person is serving time in the Department of Corrections, and like information. The Department of Corrections shall, in addition, give written notice not less than 15 days prior to the placement to the State's Attorney of the county from which the offender was originally sentenced.

(Source: P.A. 97-1083, eff. 8-24-12.)

Section 275. The Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(730 ILCS 195/15)

Sec. 15. Mortality review teams; establishment.

(a) Upon the occurrence of the death of any youth in the Department's custody, the Director shall appoint members and a chairperson to a mortality review team. The Director shall make the appointments within 30 days after the youth's death.

(b) Each mortality review team shall consist of at least one member from each of the following categories:

(1) Pediatrician or other physician.

(2) Representative of the Department.

(3) State's Attorney or State's Attorney representative.

(4) Representative of a local law enforcement agency.

(5) Psychologist or psychiatrist.

(6) Representative of a local health department.

(7) Designee of the Board of Education of the Department of Juvenile Justice School District created under Section 13-40 of the School Code.

(8) Medical examiner Coroner or forensic pathologist.

(9) Representative of a juvenile justice advocacy organization.

(10) Representative of a local hospital, trauma center, or provider of emergency medical services.

(11) Representative of the Department of State Police.

(12) Representative of the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General.

A mortality review team may make recommendations to the Director concerning additional appointments.

(c) Each mortality review team member must have demonstrated experience or an interest in welfare of youth in State custody.

(d) The mortality review teams shall be funded in the Department's annual budget to provide for the travel expenses of team members and professional services engaged by the team.

(e) If a death of a youth in the Department's custody occurs while a prior youth death is under review by a team pursuant to this Act, the Director may request that the team review the subsequent death.

(f) Upon the conclusion of all reporting required under Sections 20, 25, and 30 with respect to a death reviewed by a team, all appointments to the team shall expire.

(Source: P.A. 96-1378, eff. 7-29-10.)

Section 280. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Sections 2-202, 4-110, 8-2201, 10-110, 11-106, 12-201, 12-204, and 12-205 and changing the heading of Part 22 of Article VIII as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/2-202) (from Ch. 110, par. 2-202)

Sec. 2-202. Persons authorized to serve process; place of service; failure to make return.

(a) Process shall be served by a sheriff, or if the sheriff is disqualified, by a medical examiner coroner of some county of the State. In matters where the county or State is an interested party, process may be served by a special investigator appointed by the State's Attorney of the county, as defined in Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code. A sheriff of a county with a population of less than 2,000,000 may employ civilian personnel to serve process. In counties with a population of less than 2,000,000, process may be served, without special appointment, by a person who is licensed or registered as a private detective under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 or by a registered employee of a private detective agency certified under that Act as defined in Section (a-5). A private detective or licensed employee must supply the sheriff of any county in which he serves process with a copy of his license or certificate; however, the failure of a person to supply the copy shall not in any way impair the validity of process served by the person. The court may, in its discretion upon motion, order service to be made by a private person over 18 years of age and not a party to the action. It is not necessary that service be made by a sheriff or medical examiner coroner of the county in which service is made. If served or sought to be served by a sheriff or medical examiner coroner, he or she shall endorse his or her return thereon, and if by a private person the return shall be by affidavit.

(a-5) Upon motion and in its discretion, the court may appoint as a special process server a private detective agency certified under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. Under the appointment, any employee of the private detective agency who is registered under that Act may serve the process. The motion and the order of appointment must contain the number of the certificate issued to the private detective agency by the Department of Professional Regulation under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. A private detective or private detective agency shall send, one time only, a copy of his, her, or its individual private detective license or private detective agency certificate to the county sheriff in each county in which the detective or detective agency or his, her, or its employees serve process, regardless of size of the population of the county. As long as the license or certificate is valid and meets the requirements of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, a new copy of the current license or certificate need not be sent to the sheriff. A private detective agency shall maintain a list of its registered employees. Registered employees shall consist of:

(1) an employee who works for the agency holding a valid Permanent Employee Registration Card;

(2) a person who has applied for a Permanent Employee Registration Card, has had his or her fingerprints processed and cleared by the Department of State Police and the FBI, and as to whom the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation website shows that the person's application for a Permanent Employee Registration Card is pending;

(3) a person employed by a private detective agency who is exempt from a Permanent Employee Registration Card requirement because the person is a current peace officer; and

(4) a private detective who works for a private detective agency as an employee.

A detective agency shall maintain this list and forward it to any sheriff's department that requests this list within 5 business days after the receipt of the request.

(b) Summons may be served upon the defendants wherever they may be found in the State, by any person authorized to serve process. An officer may serve summons in his or her official capacity outside his or her county, but fees for mileage outside the county of the officer cannot be taxed as costs. The person serving the process in a foreign county may make return by mail.

(c) If any sheriff, medical examiner coroner, or other person to whom any process is delivered, neglects or refuses to make return of the same, the plaintiff may petition the court to enter a rule requiring the sheriff, medical examiner coroner, or other person, to make return of the process on a day to be fixed by the court, or to show cause on that day why that person should not be attached for contempt of the court. The plaintiff shall then cause a written notice of the rule to be served on the sheriff, medical examiner coroner, or other person. If good and sufficient cause be not shown to excuse the officer or other person, the court shall adjudge him or her guilty of a contempt, and shall impose punishment as in other cases of contempt.

(d) If process is served by a sheriff, medical examiner coroner, or special investigator appointed by the State's Attorney, the court may tax the fee of the sheriff, medical examiner coroner, or State's Attorney's special investigator as costs in the proceeding. If process is served by a private person or entity, the court may establish a fee therefor and tax such fee as costs in the proceedings.

(e) In addition to the powers stated in Section 8.1a of the Housing Authorities Act, in counties with a population of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, members of a housing authority police force may serve process for eviction actions commenced by that housing authority and may execute eviction orders for that housing authority.

(f) In counties with a population of 3,000,000 or more, process may be served, with special appointment by the court, by a private process server or a law enforcement agency other than the county sheriff in proceedings instituted under Article IX of this Code as a result of a lessor or lessor's assignee declaring a lease void pursuant to Section 11 of the Controlled Substance and Cannabis Nuisance Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-169, eff. 7-28-15; 100-173, eff. 1-1-18.)

(735 ILCS 5/4-110) (from Ch. 110, par. 4-110)

Sec. 4-110. Order for attachment. The order for attachment required in the preceding section shall be directed to the sheriff (and, for purpose only of service of summons, to any person authorized to serve summons), or in case the sheriff is interested, or otherwise disqualified or prevented from acting, to the medical examiner coroner of the county in which the action is commenced, and shall be made returnable on a return day designated by the plaintiff, which day shall not be less than 10 days or more than 60 days after its date. Such order shall order the officer to attach so much of the estate, real or personal, of the defendant, to be found in the county, as shall be of value sufficient to satisfy the debt and costs, according to the affidavit, but in case any specific property of the defendant, found in the county, shall be described in the order, then the officer shall attach the described property only, and no other property. Such estate or property shall be so attached in the possession of the officer to secure, or so to provide, that the same may be liable to further proceedings thereupon, according to law. The order shall also direct that the officer summon the defendant to appear and answer the complaint of the plaintiff in court at a specified time or, at defendant's option, to appear at any time prior thereto and move the court to set a hearing on the order for the attachment or affidavit; and that the officer also summon any specified garnishees, to be and appear in court at a specified time to answer to what may be held by them for the defendant.

(Source: P.A. 83-707.)

(735 ILCS 5/Art. VIII Pt. 22 heading)

Part 22. Medical examiner's Coroner's records

(735 ILCS 5/8-2201) (from Ch. 110, par. 8-2201)

Sec. 8-2201. Admissibility of medical examiner's coroner's records. In actions or proceedings for the recovery of damages arising from or growing out of injuries caused by the negligence of any person, firm or corporation resulting in the death of any person or for the collection of a policy of insurance, neither the medical examiner's coroner's verdict returned upon the inquisition, nor a copy thereof, shall be admissible as evidence to prove or establish any of the facts in controversy in such action or proceeding.

(Source: P.A. 82-280.)

(735 ILCS 5/10-110) (from Ch. 110, par. 10-110)

Sec. 10-110. Service of order. The habeas corpus order may be served by the sheriff, medical examiner coroner or any person appointed for that purpose by the court which entered the order; if served by a person not an officer, he or she shall have the same power, and be liable to the same penalty for non-performance of his or her duty, as though he or she were sheriff.

(Source: P.A. 83-707.)

(735 ILCS 5/11-106) (from Ch. 110, par. 11-106)

Sec. 11-106. Injunctive relief on Saturday, Sunday or legal holiday. When an application is made on a Saturday, Sunday, legal holiday or on a day when courts are not in session for injunctive relief and there is filed with the complaint an affidavit of the plaintiff, or his, her or their agent or attorney, stating that the benefits of injunctive relief will be lost or endangered, or irremediable damage occasioned unless such injunctive relief is immediately granted, and stating the bases for such alleged consequence, and if it appears to the court from such affidavit that the benefits of injunctive relief will be lost or endangered, or irremediable damage occasioned unless such injunctive relief is immediately granted, and if the plaintiff otherwise is entitled to such relief under the law, the court may grant injunctive relief on a Saturday, Sunday, legal holiday, or on a day when courts are not in session; and it shall be lawful for the clerk to certify, and for the sheriff or medical examiner coroner to serve such order for injunctive relief on a Saturday, Sunday, legal holiday or on a day when courts are not in session as on any other day, and all affidavits and bonds made and proceedings had in such case shall have the same force and effect as if made or had on any other day.

(Source: P.A. 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(735 ILCS 5/12-201) (from Ch. 110, par. 12-201)

Sec. 12-201. Procedure. (a) Whenever a judgment or order of attachment, entered by any court, shall be levied by any sheriff or medical examiner coroner upon any personal property, and such property is claimed by any person other than the judgment debtor or defendant in such attachment, or is claimed by the judgment debtor or defendant in attachment as exempt from levy or attachment by virtue of the exemption laws of the State, by giving to the sheriff or medical examiner coroner notice, in writing, of his or her claim, and intention to prosecute the same, it shall be the duty of such sheriff or medical examiner coroner to notify the circuit court of such claim.

(b) The court shall thereupon cause the proceeding to be entered of record, and the claimant shall be made plaintiff in the proceeding, and the judgment creditor or plaintiff in attachment shall be made defendant in such proceeding.

(c) The clerk of the circuit court shall thereupon issue a notice, directed to the judgment creditor or plaintiff in attachment, notifying him or her of such claim, and of the time and place of trial, which time shall be not more than 10 days nor less than 5 days from the date of such notice.

(d) Such notice shall be served in the same manner as provided for the service of summons in other civil cases, at least 5 days before the day of trial; and if such notice is served less than 5 days before the day of trial, the trial shall, on demand of either party, be continued for a period not exceeding 10 days.

(e) In case return is made on such notice that the judgment creditor or plaintiff in attachment cannot be found, the proceeding shall be continued for a period not exceeding 90 days, and the judgment creditor or plaintiff in attachment shall be notified of such proceeding by publication as in other civil cases.

(f) If the judgment creditor or plaintiff in attachment, or his or her attorney, shall at least 5 days before the day of trial, file with the clerk of the circuit court his or her appearance in such proceeding, then it shall not be necessary to notify such person as above provided.

(Source: P.A. 82-280.)

(735 ILCS 5/12-204) (from Ch. 110, par. 12-204)

Sec. 12-204. Trial and judgment. The court or the jury shall determine the rights of the parties and the court shall enter judgment accordingly, and the court shall direct the sheriff or medical examiner coroner as to the disposition of the property in the possession of the sheriff or medical examiner coroner. In case the property appears to belong to the claimant, when the claimant is any person other than the judgment debtor or the defendant in the attachment, or in case the property is found to be exempt from enforcement of a judgment thereon or attachment, when the claimant is the judgment debtor or the defendant in the attachment, judgment shall be entered against the judgment creditor or plaintiff in the attachment for the costs, and the property levied on shall be released, and in case it further appears that such claimant is entitled to the immediate possession of such property, the court shall order that such property be delivered to such claimant. If it appears that the property does not belong to the claimant, or is not exempt from the enforcement of a judgment thereon or attachment, as the case may be, judgment shall be entered against the claimant for costs, and an order shall be entered that the sheriff or medical examiner coroner proceed to sell the property levied on. The judgment in such cases shall be a complete indemnity to the sheriff or medical examiner coroner in selling or restoring any such property, as the case may be.

(Source: P.A. 82-280.)

(735 ILCS 5/12-205) (from Ch. 110, par. 12-205)

Sec. 12-205. Costs. If the judgment is entered in favor of the claimant as to part of the property, and in favor of another party as to part, then the court shall in its discretion apportion the costs; and the sheriff, medical examiner coroner and clerk of the court shall be entitled to the same fees as are allowed by law for similar services.

(Source: P.A. 82-280.)

Section 285. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(740 ILCS 110/10) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 810)

Sec. 10. (a) Except as provided herein, in any civil, criminal, administrative, or legislative proceeding, or in any proceeding preliminary thereto, a recipient, and a therapist on behalf and in the interest of a recipient, has the privilege to refuse to disclose and to prevent the disclosure of the recipient's record or communications.

(1) Records and communications may be disclosed in a civil, criminal or administrative proceeding in which the recipient introduces his mental condition or any aspect of his services received for such condition as an element of his claim or defense, if and only to the extent the court in which the proceedings have been brought, or, in the case of an administrative proceeding, the court to which an appeal or other action for review of an administrative determination may be taken, finds, after in camera examination of testimony or other evidence, that it is relevant, probative, not unduly prejudicial or inflammatory, and otherwise clearly admissible; that other satisfactory evidence is demonstrably unsatisfactory as evidence of the facts sought to be established by such evidence; and that disclosure is more important to the interests of substantial justice than protection from injury to the therapist-recipient relationship or to the recipient or other whom disclosure is likely to harm. Except in a criminal proceeding in which the recipient, who is accused in that proceeding, raises the defense of insanity, no record or communication between a therapist and a recipient shall be deemed relevant for purposes of this subsection, except the fact of treatment, the cost of services and the ultimate diagnosis unless the party seeking disclosure of the communication clearly establishes in the trial court a compelling need for its production. However, for purposes of this Act, in any action brought or defended under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, or in any action in which pain and suffering is an element of the claim, mental condition shall not be deemed to be introduced merely by making such claim and shall be deemed to be introduced only if the recipient or a witness on his behalf first testifies concerning the record or communication.

(2) Records or communications may be disclosed in a civil proceeding after the recipient's death when the recipient's physical or mental condition has been introduced as an element of a claim or defense by any party claiming or defending through or as a beneficiary of the recipient, provided the court finds, after in camera examination of the evidence, that it is relevant, probative, and otherwise clearly admissible; that other satisfactory evidence is not available regarding the facts sought to be established by such evidence; and that disclosure is more important to the interests of substantial justice than protection from any injury which disclosure is likely to cause.

(3) In the event of a claim made or an action filed by a recipient, or, following the recipient's death, by any party claiming as a beneficiary of the recipient for injury caused in the course of providing services to such recipient, the therapist and other persons whose actions are alleged to have been the cause of injury may disclose pertinent records and communications to an attorney or attorneys engaged to render advice about and to provide representation in connection with such matter and to persons working under the supervision of such attorney or attorneys, and may testify as to such records or communication in any administrative, judicial or discovery proceeding for the purpose of preparing and presenting a defense against such claim or action.

(4) Records and communications made to or by a therapist in the course of examination ordered by a court for good cause shown may, if otherwise relevant and admissible, be disclosed in a civil, criminal, or administrative proceeding in which the recipient is a party or in appropriate pretrial proceedings, provided such court has found that the recipient has been as adequately and as effectively as possible informed before submitting to such examination that such records and communications would not be considered confidential or privileged. Such records and communications shall be admissible only as to issues involving the recipient's physical or mental condition and only to the extent that these are germane to such proceedings.

(5) Records and communications may be disclosed in a proceeding under the Probate Act of 1975, to determine a recipient's competency or need for guardianship, provided that the disclosure is made only with respect to that issue.

(6) Records and communications may be disclosed to a court-appointed therapist, psychologist, or psychiatrist for use in determining a person's fitness to stand trial if the records were made within the 180-day period immediately preceding the date of the therapist's, psychologist's or psychiatrist's court appointment. These records and communications shall be admissible only as to the issue of the person's fitness to stand trial. Records and communications may be disclosed when such are made during treatment which the recipient is ordered to undergo to render him fit to stand trial on a criminal charge, provided that the disclosure is made only with respect to the issue of fitness to stand trial.

(7) Records and communications of the recipient may be disclosed in any civil or administrative proceeding involving the validity of or benefits under a life, accident, health or disability insurance policy or certificate, or Health Care Service Plan Contract, insuring the recipient, but only if and to the extent that the recipient's mental condition, or treatment or services in connection therewith, is a material element of any claim or defense of any party, provided that information sought or disclosed shall not be redisclosed except in connection with the proceeding in which disclosure is made.

(8) Records or communications may be disclosed when such are relevant to a matter in issue in any action brought under this Act and proceedings preliminary thereto, provided that any information so disclosed shall not be utilized for any other purpose nor be redisclosed except in connection with such action or preliminary proceedings.

(9) Records and communications of the recipient may be disclosed in investigations of and trials for homicide when the disclosure relates directly to the fact or immediate circumstances of the homicide.

(10) Records and communications of a deceased recipient shall be disclosed to a medical examiner coroner conducting a preliminary investigation into the recipient's death under Section 3-3013 of the Counties Code.

(11) Records and communications of a recipient shall be disclosed in a proceeding where a petition or motion is filed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the recipient is named as a parent, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor who is the subject of a petition for wardship as described in Section 2-3 of that Act or a minor who is the subject of a petition for wardship as described in Section 2-4 of that Act alleging the minor is abused, neglected, or dependent or the recipient is named as a parent of a child who is the subject of a petition, supplemental petition, or motion to appoint a guardian with the power to consent to adoption under Section 2-29 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(12) Records and communications of a recipient may be disclosed when disclosure is necessary to collect sums or receive third party payment representing charges for mental health or developmental disabilities services provided by a therapist or agency to a recipient; however, disclosure shall be limited to information needed to pursue collection, and the information so disclosed may not be used for any other purposes nor may it be redisclosed except in connection with collection activities. Whenever records are disclosed pursuant to this subdivision (12), the recipient of the records shall be advised in writing that any person who discloses mental health records and communications in violation of this Act may be subject to civil liability pursuant to Section 15 of this Act or to criminal penalties pursuant to Section 16 of this Act or both.

(b) Before a disclosure is made under subsection (a), any party to the proceeding or any other interested person may request an in camera review of the record or communications to be disclosed. The court or agency conducting the proceeding may hold an in camera review on its own motion. When, contrary to the express wish of the recipient, the therapist asserts a privilege on behalf and in the interest of a recipient, the court may require that the therapist, in an in camera hearing, establish that disclosure is not in the best interest of the recipient. The court or agency may prevent disclosure or limit disclosure to the extent that other admissible evidence is sufficient to establish the facts in issue. The court or agency may enter such orders as may be necessary in order to protect the confidentiality, privacy, and safety of the recipient or of other persons. Any order to disclose or to not disclose shall be considered a final order for purposes of appeal and shall be subject to interlocutory appeal.

(c) A recipient's records and communications may be disclosed to a duly authorized committee, commission or subcommittee of the General Assembly which possesses subpoena and hearing powers, upon a written request approved by a majority vote of the committee, commission or subcommittee members. The committee, commission or subcommittee may request records only for the purposes of investigating or studying possible violations of recipient rights. The request shall state the purpose for which disclosure is sought.

The facility shall notify the recipient, or his guardian, and therapist in writing of any disclosure request under this subsection within 5 business days after such request. Such notification shall also inform the recipient, or guardian, and therapist of their right to object to the disclosure within 10 business days after receipt of the notification and shall include the name, address and telephone number of the committee, commission or subcommittee member or staff person with whom an objection shall be filed. If no objection has been filed within 15 business days after the request for disclosure, the facility shall disclose the records and communications to the committee, commission or subcommittee. If an objection has been filed within 15 business days after the request for disclosure, the facility shall disclose the records and communications only after the committee, commission or subcommittee has permitted the recipient, guardian or therapist to present his objection in person before it and has renewed its request for disclosure by a majority vote of its members.

Disclosure under this subsection shall not occur until all personally identifiable data of the recipient and provider are removed from the records and communications. Disclosure under this subsection shall not occur in any public proceeding.

(d) No party to any proceeding described under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (7), or (8) of subsection (a) of this Section, nor his or her attorney, shall serve a subpoena seeking to obtain access to records or communications under this Act unless the subpoena is accompanied by a written order issued by a judge or by the written consent under Section 5 of this Act of the person whose records are being sought, authorizing the disclosure of the records or the issuance of the subpoena. No such written order shall be issued without written notice of the motion to the recipient and the treatment provider. Prior to issuance of the order, each party or other person entitled to notice shall be permitted an opportunity to be heard pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section. In the absence of the written consent under Section 5 of this Act of the person whose records are being sought, no person shall comply with a subpoena for records or communications under this Act, unless the subpoena is accompanied by a written order authorizing the issuance of the subpoena or the disclosure of the records. Each subpoena issued by a court or administrative agency or served on any person pursuant to this subsection (d) shall include the following language: "No person shall comply with a subpoena for mental health records or communications pursuant to Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, 740 ILCS 110/10, unless the subpoena is accompanied by a written order that authorizes the issuance of the subpoena and the disclosure of records or communications or by the written consent under Section 5 of that Act of the person whose records are being sought."

(e) When a person has been transported by a peace officer to a mental health facility, then upon the request of a peace officer, if the person is allowed to leave the mental health facility within 48 hours of arrival, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays, the facility director shall notify the local law enforcement authority prior to the release of the person. The local law enforcement authority may re-disclose the information as necessary to alert the appropriate enforcement or prosecuting authority.

(f) A recipient's records and communications shall be disclosed to the Inspector General of the Department of Human Services within 10 business days of a request by the Inspector General (i) in the course of an investigation authorized by the Department of Human Services Act and applicable rule or (ii) during the course of an assessment authorized by the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act and applicable rule. The request shall be in writing and signed by the Inspector General or his or her designee. The request shall state the purpose for which disclosure is sought. Any person who knowingly and willfully refuses to comply with such a request is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A recipient's records and communications shall also be disclosed pursuant to subsection (s) of Section 1-17 of the Department of Human Services Act in testimony at Health Care Worker Registry hearings or preliminary proceedings when such are relevant to the matter in issue, provided that any information so disclosed shall not be utilized for any other purpose nor be redisclosed except in connection with such action or preliminary proceedings.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 100-432, eff. 8-25-17.)

Section 290. The Illinois Anatomical Gift Act is amended by changing Sections 5-20 and 5-45 as follows:

(755 ILCS 50/5-20) (was 755 ILCS 50/5)

Sec. 5-20. Manner of executing anatomical gifts.

(a) A donor may make an anatomical gift:

(1) by authorizing a statement or symbol indicating that the donor has made an anatomical gift to be imprinted on the donor's driver's license or identification card;

(2) in a will;

(3) during a terminal illness or injury of the donor, by any form of communication addressed to at least 2 adults, at least one of whom is a disinterested witness; or

(4) as provided in subsection (b) and (b-1) of this Section.

(b) A donor or other person authorized to make an anatomical gift under subsection (a) of Section 5-5 may make a gift by a donor card or other record signed by the donor or other person making the gift or by authorizing that a statement or symbol indicating that the donor has made an anatomical gift be included on a donor registry. If the donor or other person is physically unable to sign a record, the record may be signed by another individual at the direction of the donor or other person and must:

(1) be witnessed by at least 2 adults, at least one of whom is a disinterested witness, who have signed at the request of the donor or the other person; and

(2) state that it has been signed and witnessed as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (b).

(b-1) A gift under Section 5-5 (a) may also be made by an individual consenting to have his or her name included in the First Person Consent organ and tissue donor registry maintained by the Secretary of State under Section 6-117 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. An individual's consent to have his or her name included in the First Person Consent organ and tissue donor registry constitutes full legal authority for the donation of any of his or her organs or tissue for purposes of transplantation, therapy, or research. Consenting to be included in the First Person Consent organ and tissue donor registry is effective without regard to the presence or signature of witnesses.

(b-5) Revocation, suspension, expiration, or cancellation of a driver's license or identification card upon which an anatomical gift is indicated does not invalidate the gift.

(b-10) An anatomical gift made by will takes effect upon the donor's death whether or not the will is probated. Invalidation of the will after the donor's death does not invalidate the gift.

(c) The anatomical gift may be made to a specified donee or without specifying a donee. If the gift is made to a specified donee who is not available at the time and place of death, then if made for the purpose of transplantation, it shall be effectuated in accordance with Section 5-25.

(d) The donee or other person authorized to accept the gift pursuant to Section 5-12 may employ or authorize any qualified technician, surgeon, or physician to perform the recovery.

(e) A person authorized to make an anatomical gift under subsection (b) of Section 5-5 may make an anatomical gift by a document of gift signed by the person making the gift or by that person's oral communication that is electronically recorded or is contemporaneously reduced to a record and signed by the individual receiving the oral communication.

(e-5) An anatomical gift by a person authorized under subsection (b) of Section 5-5 may be amended or revoked orally or in a record by a member of a prior class who is reasonably available for the giving of authorization or refusal. If more than one member of the prior class is reasonably available for the giving of authorization or refusal, the gift made by a person authorized under subsection (b) of Section 5-5 may be:

(1) amended only if a majority of the class members reasonably available for the giving of authorization or refusal agree to the amending of the gift; or

(2) revoked only if a majority of the class members reasonably available for the giving of authorization or refusal agree to the revoking of the gift or if they are equally divided as to whether to revoke the gift.

(e-10) A revocation under subsection (e-5) is effective only if, before an incision has been made to remove a part from the donor's body or before invasive procedures have been commenced to prepare the recipient, the procurement organization, non-transplant anatomic bank, transplant hospital, or physician or technician knows of the revocation.

(f) When there is a suitable candidate for organ donation and a donation or consent to donate has not yet been given, procedures to preserve the decedent's body for possible organ and tissue donation may be implemented under the authorization of the applicable organ procurement organization, at its own expense, prior to making a donation request pursuant to Section 5-25. If the organ procurement organization does not locate a person authorized to consent to donation or consent to donation is denied, then procedures to preserve the decedent's body shall be ceased and no donation shall be made. The organ procurement organization shall respect the religious tenets of the decedent, if known, such as a pause after death, before initiating preservation services. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize interference with the medical examiner coroner in carrying out an investigation or autopsy.

(Source: P.A. 100-41, eff. 1-1-18.)

(755 ILCS 50/5-45) (was 755 ILCS 50/8)

Sec. 5-45. Rights and Duties at Death.

(a) The donee may accept or reject the anatomical gift. If the donee accepts a gift of the entire body, he may, subject to the terms of the gift, authorize embalming and the use of the body in funeral services, unless a person named in subsection (b) of Section 5-5 has requested, prior to the final disposition by the donee, that the remains of said body be returned to his or her custody for the purpose of final disposition. Such request shall be honored by the donee if the terms of the gift are silent on how final disposition is to take place. If the gift is of a part of the body, the donee or technician designated by him upon the death of the donor and prior to embalming, shall cause the part to be removed without unnecessary mutilation and without undue delay in the release of the body for the purposes of final disposition. After removal of the part, custody of the remainder of the body vests in the surviving spouse, next of kin, or other persons under obligation to dispose of the body, in the order of priority listed in subsection (b) of Section 5-5.

(b) The time of death shall be determined by a physician who attends the donor at his death, or, if none, the physician who certifies the death. The physician shall not participate in the procedures for removing or transplanting a part.

(c) A person who acts or attempts in good faith to act in accordance with this Act, the Illinois Vehicle Code, the AIDS Confidentiality Act, or the applicable anatomical gift law of another state is not liable for the act in a civil action, criminal prosecution, or administrative proceeding. Neither the person making an anatomical gift nor the donor's estate is liable for any injury or damage that results from the making or use of the gift. In determining whether an anatomical gift has been made, amended, or revoked under this Act, a person may rely upon representations of an individual listed in item (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 5-5 relating to the individual's relationship to the donor or prospective donor unless the person knows that the representation is untrue. Any person that participates in good faith and according to the usual and customary standards of medical practice in the preservation, removal, or transplantation of any part of a decedent's body pursuant to an anatomical gift made by the decedent under Section 5-20 or pursuant to an anatomical gift made by an individual as authorized by subsection (b) of Section 5-5 shall have immunity from liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise, that might result by reason of such actions. For the purpose of any proceedings, civil or criminal, the validity of an anatomical gift executed pursuant to Section 5-20 shall be presumed and the good faith of any person participating in the removal or transplantation of any part of a decedent's body pursuant to an anatomical gift made by the decedent or by another individual authorized by the Act shall be presumed.

(d) This Act is subject to the provisions of Division 3-3 of the Counties Code "An Act to revise the law in relation to coroners", approved February 6, 1874, as now or hereafter amended, to the laws of this State prescribing powers and duties with respect to autopsies, and to the statutes, rules, and regulations of this State with respect to the transportation and disposition of deceased human bodies.

(e) If the donee is provided information, or determines through independent examination, that there is evidence that the anatomical gift was exposed to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), the donee may reject the gift and shall treat the information and examination results as a confidential medical record; the donee may disclose only the results confirming HIV exposure, and only to the physician of the deceased donor. The donor's physician shall determine whether the person who executed the gift should be notified of the confirmed positive test result.

(Source: P.A. 98-172, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 295. The Disposition of Remains Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(755 ILCS 65/5)

Sec. 5. Right to control disposition; priority. Unless a decedent has left directions in writing for the disposition or designated an agent to direct the disposition of the decedent's remains as provided in Section 65 of the Crematory Regulation Act or in subsection (a) of Section 40 of this Act, the following persons, in the priority listed, have the right to control the disposition, including cremation, of the decedent's remains and are liable for the reasonable costs of the disposition:

(1) the person designated in a written instrument that satisfies the provisions of Sections 10 and 15 of this Act;

(2) any person serving as executor or legal representative of the decedent's estate and acting according to the decedent's written instructions contained in the decedent's will;

(3) the individual who was the spouse of the decedent at the time of the decedent's death;

(4) the sole surviving competent adult child of the decedent, or if there is more than one surviving competent adult child of the decedent, the majority of the surviving competent adult children; however, less than one-half of the surviving adult children shall be vested with the rights and duties of this Section if they have used reasonable efforts to notify all other surviving competent adult children of their instructions and are not aware of any opposition to those instructions on the part of more than one-half of all surviving competent adult children;

(5) the surviving competent parents of the decedent; if one of the surviving competent parents is absent, the remaining competent parent shall be vested with the rights and duties of this Act after reasonable efforts have been unsuccessful in locating the absent surviving competent parent;

(6) the surviving competent adult person or persons respectively in the next degrees of kindred or, if there is more than one surviving competent adult person of the same degree of kindred, the majority of those persons; less than the majority of surviving competent adult persons of the same degree of kindred shall be vested with the rights and duties of this Act if those persons have used reasonable efforts to notify all other surviving competent adult persons of the same degree of kindred of their instructions and are not aware of any opposition to those instructions on the part of one-half or more of all surviving competent adult persons of the same degree of kindred;

(6.5) any recognized religious, civic, community, or fraternal organization willing to assume legal and financial responsibility;

(7) in the case of indigents or any other individuals whose final disposition is the responsibility of the State or any of its instrumentalities, a public administrator, medical examiner, coroner, State appointed guardian, or any other public official charged with arranging the final disposition of the decedent;

(8) in the case of individuals who have donated their bodies to science, or whose death occurred in a nursing home or other private institution and the institution is charged with making arrangements for the final disposition of the decedent, a representative of the institution; or

(9) any other person or organization that is willing to assume legal and financial responsibility.

As used in Section, "adult" means any individual who has reached his or her eighteenth birthday.

Notwithstanding provisions to the contrary, in the case of decedents who die while serving as members of the United States Armed Forces, the Illinois National Guard, or the United States Reserve Forces, as defined in Section 1481 of Title 10 of the United States Code, and who have executed the required U.S. Department of Defense Record of Emergency Data Form (DD Form 93), or successor form, the person designated in such form to direct disposition of the decedent's remains shall have the right to control the disposition, including cremation, of the decedent's remains.

(Source: P.A. 100-526, eff. 6-1-18.)

Section 300. The Disposition of Remains of the Indigent Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 10 as follows:

(755 ILCS 66/5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2022)

Sec. 5. Purpose. The General Assembly recognizes:

(1) that each individual in the State regardless of his or her economic situation is entitled to a dignified disposition of his or her remains;

(2) that it is a matter of public concern and interest that the preparation, care, and final disposition of a deceased human body be attended to with appropriate observance and understanding;

(3) that it is a matter of public concern and interest that there is a due regard and respect for the reverent care of the human body, for those bereaved, and the overall spiritual dignity of every person;

(4) that the provision of cadavers and other human materials is a much-needed service for the advancement of medical, mortuary, and other sciences;

(5) that there is a critical shortage of cadavers necessary for the advancement of medical, mortuary, and other sciences;

(6) that the State has, in the past, paid for the burial and funeral of indigent individuals;

(7) that payment for such services is not now consistent with the needs or demands of the current State budget;

(8) that the State has had a long-standing policy that government officials who have custody of a body of any deceased person shall transfer such custody to any State medical college, school, or other institution of higher science education or school of mortuary science for advancement of medical, anatomical, biological, or mortuary science; and

(9) that current law provides that any county medical examiner coroner may donate bodies not claimed by family members or friends.

(Source: P.A. 100-526, eff. 6-1-18.)

(755 ILCS 66/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2022)

Sec. 10. Indigent funeral and burial.

(a) If private funds are not available to pay funeral and burial costs and a request is made for those costs to an official of State or local government by an appropriate family member, executor, or agent empowered to direct the disposition of the decedent's remains, the official shall inform the appropriate family member, executor, or agent empowered to direct the disposition of the decedent's remains of the option to donate the remains for use in the advancement of medical science subject to any written directive of a will or other written instrument identified in Section 65 of the Crematory Regulation Act or in subsection (a) of Section 40 of the Disposition of Remains Act.

(b) The appropriate family member, executor, or agent empowered to direct the disposition of the decedent's remains is responsible for authorizing the use of such remains in accordance with the process of the specific qualified medical science institution.

(c) If funds are not otherwise available for burial or the cadaver has not been claimed by a family member or other responsible person, the medical examiner coroner with custody may donate the cadaver for medical science purposes pursuant to Section 3-3034 of the Counties Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-526, eff. 6-1-18.)

Section 305. The Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act is amended by changing Section 15-705 as follows:

(765 ILCS 1026/15-705)

Sec. 15-705. Exceptions to the sale of tangible property. The administrator shall dispose of tangible property identified by this Section in accordance with this Section.

(a) Military medals or decorations. The administrator may not sell a medal or decoration awarded for military service in the armed forces of the United States. Instead, the administrator, with the consent of the respective organization under paragraph (1), agency under paragraph (2), or entity under paragraph (3), may deliver a medal or decoration to be held in custody for the owner, to:

(1) a military veterans organization qualified under Section 501(c)(19) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(2) the agency that awarded the medal or decoration; or

(3) a governmental entity.

After delivery, the administrator is not responsible for the safekeeping of the medal or decoration.

(b) Property with historical value. Property that the administrator reasonably believes may have historical value may be, at his or her discretion, loaned to an accredited museum in the United States where it will be kept until such time as the administrator orders it to be returned to his or her custody.

(c) Human remains. If human remains are delivered to the administrator under this Act, the administrator shall deliver those human remains to the medical examiner coroner of the county in which the human remains were abandoned for disposition under Section 3-3034 of the Counties Code. The only human remains that may be delivered to the administrator under this Act and that the administrator may receive are those that are reported and delivered as contents of a safe deposit box.

(d) Evidence in a criminal investigation. Property that may have been used in the commission of a crime or that may assist in the investigation of a crime, as determined after consulting with the Department of State Police, shall be delivered to the Department of State Police or other appropriate law enforcement authority to allow law enforcement to determine whether a criminal investigation should take place. Any such property delivered to a law enforcement authority shall be held in accordance with existing statutes and rules related to the gathering, retention, and release of evidence.

(e) Firearms.

(1) The administrator, in cooperation with the Department of State Police, shall develop a procedure to determine whether a firearm delivered to the administrator under this Act has been stolen or used in the commission of a crime. The Department of State Police shall determine the appropriate disposition of a firearm that has been stolen or used in the commission of a crime. The administrator shall attempt to return a firearm that has not been stolen or used in the commission of a crime to the rightful owner if the Department of State Police determines that the owner may lawfully possess the firearm.

(2) If the administrator is unable to return a firearm to its owner, the administrator shall transfer custody of the firearm to the Department of State Police. Legal title to a firearm transferred to the Department of State Police under this subsection (e) is vested in the Department of State Police by operation of law if:

(i) the administrator cannot locate the owner of the firearm;

(ii) the owner of the firearm may not lawfully possess the firearm;

(iii) the apparent owner does not respond to notice published under Section 15-503 of this Act; or

(iv) the apparent owner responds to notice published under Section 15-502 and states that he or she no longer claims an interest in the firearm.

(3) With respect to a firearm whose title is transferred to the Department of State Police under this subsection (e), the Department of State Police may:

(i) retain the firearm for use by the crime laboratory system, for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the Department;

(ii) transfer the firearm to the Illinois State Museum if the firearm has historical value; or

(iii) destroy the firearm if it is not retained pursuant to subparagraph (i) or transferred pursuant to subparagraph (ii).

As used in this subsection, "firearm" has the meaning provided in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 1-1-18.)

Section 310. The Employee Arbitration Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(820 ILCS 35/8) (from Ch. 10, par. 30)

Sec. 8. Any notice or process issued by the Department of Labor shall be served by any sheriff or medical examiner coroner to whom it is directed or in whose hands it is placed for service.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 3673.)

Section 315. The Workers' Occupational Diseases Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(820 ILCS 310/12) (from Ch. 48, par. 172.47)

Sec. 12. (a) An employee entitled to receive disability payments shall be required, if requested by the employer, to submit himself, at the expense of the employer, for examination to a duly qualified medical practitioner or surgeon selected by the employer, at any time and place reasonably convenient for the employee, either within or without the State of Illinois, for the purpose of determining the nature, extent and probable duration of the occupational disease and the disability therefrom suffered by the employee, and for the purpose of ascertaining the amount of compensation which may be due the employee from time to time for disability according to the provisions of this Act. An employee may also be required to submit himself for examination by medical experts under subsection (c) of Section 19.

An employer requesting such an examination, of an employee residing within the State of Illinois, shall deliver to the employee with the notice of the time and place of examination sufficient money to defray the necessary expense of travel by the most convenient means to and from the place of examination, and the cost of meals necessary during the trip, and if the examination or travel to and from the place of examination causes any loss of working time on the part of the employee, the employer shall reimburse him for such loss of wages upon the basis of his average daily wage. Such examination shall be made in the presence of a duly qualified medical practitioner or surgeon provided and paid for by the employee, if such employee so desires.

In all cases where the examination is made by a physician or surgeon engaged by the employer, and the employee has no physician or surgeon present at such examination, it shall be the duty of the physician or surgeon making the examination at the instance of the employer to deliver to the employee, or his representative, a statement in writing of the examination and findings to the same extent that said physician or surgeon reports to the employer and the same shall be an exact copy of that furnished to the employer, said copy to be furnished the employee, or his representative as soon as practicable but not later than the time the case is set for hearing. Such delivery shall be made in person either to the employee or his representative, or by registered mail to either, and the receipt of either shall be proof of such delivery. If such physician or surgeon refuses to furnish the employee with such statement to the same extent as that furnished the employer said physician or surgeon shall not be permitted to testify at the hearing next following said examination.

If the employee refuses so to submit himself to examination or unnecessarily obstructs the same, his right to compensation payment shall be temporarily suspended until such examination shall have taken place, and no compensation shall be payable under this Act for such period.

It shall be the duty of physicians or surgeons treating an employee who is likely to die, and treating him at the instance of the employer, to have called in another physician or surgeon to be designated and paid for by either the employee or by the person or persons who would become his beneficiary or beneficiaries, to make an examination before the death of such employee.

In all cases where the examination is made by a physician or surgeon engaged by the employee, and the employer has no physician or surgeon present at such examination, it shall be the duty of the physician or surgeon making the examination at the instance of the employee, to deliver to the employer, or his representative, a statement in writing of the condition and extent of the examination and findings to the same extent that said physician or surgeon reports to the employee and the same shall be an exact copy of that furnished to the employee, said copy to be furnished the employer, or his representative, as soon as practicable but not later than the time the case is set for hearing. Such delivery shall be made in person either to the employer, or his representative, or by registered mail to either, and the receipt of either shall be proof of such delivery. If such physician or surgeon refuses to furnish the employer with such statement to the same extent as that furnished the employee, said physician or surgeon shall not be permitted to testify at the hearing next following said examination.

(b) Whenever, after the death of an employee, any party in interest files an application for adjustment of claim under this Act, and it appears that an autopsy may disclose material evidence as to whether or not such death was due to the inhalation of silica or asbestos dust, the commission, upon petition of either party, may order an autopsy at the expense of the party requesting same, and if such autopsy is so ordered, the commission shall designate a competent pathologist to perform the same, and shall give the parties in interest such reasonable notice of the time and place thereof as will afford a reasonable opportunity to witness such autopsy in person or by a representative.

It shall be the duty of such pathologist to perform such autopsy as, in his best judgment, is required to ascertain the cause of death. Such pathologist shall make a complete written report of all his findings to the commission (including laboratory results described as such, if any). The said report of the pathologist shall contain his findings on post-mortem examination and said report shall not contain any conclusion of the said pathologist based upon the findings so reported.

Said report shall be placed on file with the commission, and shall be a public record. Said report, or a certified copy thereof, may be introduced by either party on any hearing as evidence of the findings therein stated, but shall not be conclusive evidence of such findings, and either party may rebut any part thereof.

Where an autopsy has been performed at any time with the express or implied consent of any interested party, and without some opposing party, if known or reasonably ascertainable, having reasonable notice of and reasonable opportunity of witnessing the same, all evidence obtained by such autopsy shall be barred upon objection at any hearing. This paragraph shall not apply to autopsies by a medical examiner, deputy medical examiner, or, as directed by a medical examiner, a physician duly licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches coroner's physician in the discharge of his official duties.

(Source: P.A. 94-277, eff. 7-20-05.)

Section 320. The Unemployment Insurance Act is amended by changing Section 2500 as follows:

(820 ILCS 405/2500) (from Ch. 48, par. 740)

Sec. 2500. Director not required to pay costs. Neither the Director nor the State of Illinois shall be required to furnish any bond, or to make a deposit for or pay any costs of any court or the fees of any of its officers in any judicial proceedings in pursuance to the provisions of this Act; provided, further, that whenever enforcement or collection of any judgment liability created by this Act, is levied by any sheriff or medical examiner coroner upon any personal property, and such property is claimed by any person other than the defendant or is claimed by the defendant as exempt from levy by virtue of the exemption laws of this State, then it shall be the duty of the person making such claim to give notice in writing of his or her claim and of his or her intention to prosecute the same, to the sheriff or medical examiner coroner within 10 days after the making of the levy; on receiving such notice the sheriff or medical examiner coroner shall proceed in accordance with the provisions of Part 2 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure, as amended; the giving of such notice within the 10 day period shall be a condition precedent to any judicial action against the sheriff or medical examiner coroner for wrongfully levying, seizing or selling the property and any such person who fails to give such notice within the time shall be forever barred from bringing any judicial action against such sheriff or medical examiner coroner for injury or damages to or conversion of the property.

(Source: P.A. 83-1362.)

Section 900. The State Mandates Act is amended by adding Section 8.44 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.44 new)

Sec. 8.44. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect on December 1, 2021, except Section 5-566 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, Section 3-3000 of the Counties Code, Section 37 of the Coroner Training Board Act, and this Section take effect upon becoming law.